1.

Whenever a change/revision is affected to CAR, the revision number along C A II

with date of revision and effective date shall be indicated on

a. First page only b. concerned page only c. both a & b are correct d.
all the pages

2. MEL is prepared based on B B I

a. Flight Manual b. MMEL c. CCL & ECL d. Airworthiness Directives

3. MEL is applicable to D B I

a. scheduled operators only c. General aviation aircrafts

b. scheduled & non scheduled operators d. AOTA

4. Items not included in MMEL B B I

a. cannot form part of the MEL c. can form part of the MEL without
any conditions.

b. can be a part of MEL provided the operator provides due justification

5. Airworthiness advisory circulars are issued by B

a. manufacturers b. DGCA c. QCM d. RAWO

6. The MEL shall be prepared by operator in C B I

a. a single copy b. duplicate c. triplicate d. Quadruplicate

7. After invoking provisions of MEL C B I

a. AME shall inform to QCM c. AME shall inform to PILOT

b. AME shall inform to RAO d. AME need not to inform any one.

8. The following type of items shall not be considered for MEL C B I

a. which will increases the maintenance action c. which will increase crew
load

b. those items which are not repairable d. those items which are inoperative
most of the time

9. As a normal practice the defects carried forward under MEL C B I

a. shall be rectified and deficiencies made good at the discretion of operator

b. shall be rectified and deficiencies be made good at any convenient time

determined by operator and mentioned accordingly in the preamble
 c. shall be rectified and deficiencies made good at the first available opportunity
where facilities exist d. NOTA

10. Aircraft landing lights (Cat ‘A’) has been placed under MEL It should be D B I
repaired within

a. 3 days b. 10 days c. 120 days

d. the time interval specified in the remarks column of the MEL

11. For the purpose of categorization of MEL items, the ‘flight day’ used in the C B I
MEL shall mean a 24 hour period. This shall be from

a. 6 am of any day to 6 am of next day c. midnight to midnight

b. mid day to mid day d. any convenient pattern established

by the operator.

12. The philosophy of framing MEL is C B I

a. To permits reduced safety in order to fly an aircraft to a base where repairs

can be made

b. To provide continued operation of the aircraft for extended periods with MEL
items unserviceable

c. Not to permits reduced safety in order to fly to a base where repairs can be
made, but a philosophy of permitting safe operations for takeoff from a
maintenance base or en-route stop.

d. both b and c are correct.

13. MEL is not applicable to B B I

a. scheduled operators c. non – scheduled operators

b. private operators d. general aviation

14. A copy of the MEL shall be carried on board as part of the B B I

a. flight manual b. operations manual c. QC manual d. AOTA

15. The MEL/CDL shall be prepared on the basis of ________and got approved A B I
from ____

a. MMEL, RAO b. Regulatory provisions RAO

c. MMEL, DGCA d. regulatory provisions , DGCA

16. Mark the wrong sentence regarding MEL B B I

 a. it is based on MMEL c. MEL is approved by RAO

b. MEL must be less restrictive than MMEL d. MEL should not be less
restrictive than MMEL

17. The following rules states that no aircraft shall be released to flight with defects A B I
/ damage unless these are covered in the approved deficiency list

a. rule 60(5) b. rule 60(1) c. rule 60(4) d. rule 60 (2)

18. MEL can be invoked by D B I

a. appropriately licensed AME/person approved c. nodal officer

b. approved BAMEL / approved pilot d. both a and b

19. Items placed in cat ‘C’ of the MEL, shall be required to be repaired within D B I

a. three days b. as in ‘a’, excluding the day the malfunction was

recorded. c. ten days
d. as in ‘c’ excluding the day the mal function was recorded

20. Aircraft rules 7B specifies that all Indian registered aircraft shall carry on board B B II

a. first aid kit and physician kit c. up dated CAR

b. cockpit check list and emergency check list d. flight manual

21. A check list that is displayed to the flight crew by means of some electronic D B II
device is

a. Cockpit Check list c. Electronic check list

b. emergency check list d. As in ‘c’ which may contain ‘a’ or ‘b’ or

both

22. A list containing items of inspection to be performed by the flight crew in the A B II
order listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of
an aircraft is called

a. Cockpit Check List c. as in ‘b’ may be presented in an Electronic

Check List

b. Emergency Check List d. flight inspection schedule

23. Emergency check list is a list C B II

a. Containing action to be performed by flight crew in the order listed and in the
circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft

b. as in (a) but when emergent situation develop in flight on failure of a/c

 system or components

c. as in (b) requires extra alertness on the part of flight crew

d. check list to the followed whenever the aircraft wants to take off in
emergency

24. Mark the correct sentence C B II

a. alterations to check list can be carried out by the operator on his own,
depending on his experience

b. operator can prepare the Cockpit Check List & Emergency Check List based
on their experience

c. the check list will list the function of each flight crew member against each
item of the list d. none of the above

25. Cockpit Check List and Emergency Check List for each type of aircraft is B B II
provided by

a. operator b. manufacturer c. QCM d. None of the above

26. Cockpit Check List and Emergency Check List are generally provided by D B II

a. regulating authority of country of manufacture b. by the

manufacturer

c. as in ‘a’ operator shall use it under intimation to RAO

d. as in ‘b’ operator shall use it under intimation to Flight Standards Directorate

27. Deviation/amendment to Cockpit Check List and Emergency Check List B B II

provided by the manufacturer shall be approved by

a. RAO b. DGCA HQ c. QCM d. Flight crew

28. Operator who do not receive check list along with the aircraft shall have to C B II
contact

a. DGCA c. manufacturers

b. RAO d. director of the airworthiness of their respective

region

29. Cockpit check list in paper form shall be carried on board by each aircraft D B II

a. in any form but readily accessible to flight crew

b. In laminated form and to be kept safely in a storage compartment.

 c. un-laminated form and inaccessible to flight crew d. NOTA

30. While using the cockpit check list, the procedure of challenge and response is C B II
applicable to

a. one crew member c. two or more crew members

b. single engine a/c d. multi-engine a/c

31. Any part of an aircraft, soundness and correct functioning of which, when fitted B C I
on an aircraft, is essential for the continued air worthiness or safety of aircraft,
or occupant is called
a. item of equipment c. bonded store

b. aircraft component d. structural significant item

32. A defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of rectification attempt, on the same C C I
aircraft

a. major defects b. minor defect c. repetitive defect d. NOTA

33. All major defects shall be informed to RAO by all operators A C I

a. Immediately on telephone c. within 24 hours

b. at the earliest possible opportunity d. within 3 days of occurrence of

defects

34. Aircraft fleet means B C I

a. two or more aircraft of a particular type c. three or more a/cs in

all

b. three or more aircraft of a particular type d. b and c are correct

35. Series ‘C’ part I deals with D C I

a. defect recording b. defect reporting c. defect investigation d. all of

the above

36. Investigation of all major defects shall be completed within B C I

a. two weeks of its occurrence c. one month of its occurrence

b. three months of its occurrence d. two months of its occurrence

37. The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthiness condition is A C I

termed as :-

a. repair b. major repair c. overhaul d. maintenance

 Which rule lay down the maintenance and certification standards for a civil B C I
registered a/c

a. rule 60 (5) of a/c rule 1937 c. rule 59 of a/c rule 1937

b. rule 60 of a/c rule 1937 d. rule 133 A of a/c rule 1937

39. When the maintenance of an a/c is contracted to an AMO by the operator, the B C I
responsibility of reporting defects observed during the maintenance on such a/c
is that of

a. AMO b. operator c. both d. None

40. Detailed information regarding major defects or which are serious in nature and D C I
attracting public attention shall be submitted by scheduled operators.

a. within 3 days c. within 3 days when the a/c is at outstation

b. within 24 hours d. b and c are correct

41. Review of defects reported shall be carried out A C I

a. daily by scheduled b. 3 days by private

operators

c. weekly basis by non-scheduled operators d. NOTA

42. Fleet performance, engineering statistics and analysis are mentioned in C C I

a. AAC 6/2000 b. AIC 5/2001 c. AAC 5/2001 d. NOTA

43. Which of the following fleet performance data is given by scheduled operators D C I
in their monthly report to RAWO

a. in flight shut down rate c. premature removal rate of all

components

b. delay of 15 minutes or more including cancelled flights d. AOTA

44. Fleet performance and engineering statistics report will be forwarded to RAWO C C I
by non-scheduled operators

a. every month – by 25th c. every 3 month

b. every month – by 10th d. once in a year before C of A renewal

45. Records associated with the defects and their rectification action shall be B C I
preserved for

a. a period of 6 months b. one year c. for one month d. NOTA

 Components associated with the major defects shall be preserved for a period of A C I
_____ from the date of intimation of the defect.

a. two weeks b. One month c. six months d. one year

47. Mark the incorrect statement. Reading of instrument should be made B C II

a. at least once in each sector under stabilized cruise condition

b. in case of emergency condition during the flight

c. in flight sectors of short duration, even when stabilized conditions are not
obtained.

d. AOTA

48. When the crew have failed to make an entry in the PDR after a flight, then C C II

a. AME can certify the aircraft for the next flight.

b. AME will certify the aircraft for the next flight, by conforming from the pilot
by telephone that there is no defect during the previous flight.

c. AME shall not certify the aircraft till, the defect register for the previous
flight is filled and signed by crew d. AME will certify the aircraft, with
concurrence from QCM

49. Maintenance of fuel and oil uplift and consumption records is applicable to C D V

a. heavy aircraft engine b. light helicopter engines c. light aircraft

piston engines

50. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in D D V

a. airframe log book c. Airframe & engine log book

b. propeller log book d. engine log book

51. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines, the concern entry will be B D V
made by

a. QCM b. appropriately licensed AME

c. Approved flight engineer d. persons authorized by DGCA

52. Organizations engaged in imparting ab-initio training are approved as per A E I

a. Rule 133B b. CAR145 c. CAR M d. CAR 21

53. Organizations engaged in manufacturing of aircraft/aircraft components are D E I

approved as per provisions contained in
 a. Rule 133B b. CAR145 c. CAR M d. CAR 21

54. Maintaining Continuing Airworthiness of civil aircraft is the responsibility of C E I

________ organization.

a. CAR 66 b. CAR145 c. CAR M d. CAR 21

55. Organization located within India will apply for initial issue of approval in D E I

a. CA 182 D b. CA 182 B c. CA 182 C d. CA 182 A

56. Undergoing refresher course covering up-to-date knowledge of technology, A E I

organizational procedure etc is necessary for all certifying staff at least once

a. in two years b. in five years c. In a year d. in six months

57. Who will ensure that the work done at sub contractors’ facility meets the B E I
manufacturers / DGCA requirements

a. QCM c. nodal officer

b. Accountable manager d. local airworthiness office where operator

is based

58. Manager who has authority for ensuring that all the tasks of the approved C E I
organization can be financed and carried out to standard required by DGCA

a. QC manager b. finance manager c. accountable manager d.

RAWO

59. How many copies of manuals are required to be submitted for approval of a B E I
firm?

a. two b. three c. four d. one

60. A document dispatched along with aircraft components certifying that the B E I
component has been obtained from an approved source after over haul /repair
/manufacture is known as

a. certificate of maintenance b. release note

c. rejection note d. certificate of approval

61. Foreign organizations will submit the application for initial approval to A E I

a. DGCA hqrs b. director of air safety c. RAWO/Sub RAWO

d. NOTA

62. Who will ensure that all personnel in an organization are appropriately trained B E I
and qualified to accomplish the work.
 a. QC manager b. accountable manager c. Nodal officer d. Chief
Instructor

63. A management system for programming and coordinating the ongoing quality C E I
and improvement efforts of the various groups in an organization in accordance
with the requirements of DGCA and any specific requirement of the
organization or customer is called as

a. Quality service b. quality audit c. quality control d. quality system

64. If accepted quality manager ceases to hold the position, the appointment of his C E I
successor must be

a. within 60 days of leaving of previous manager

b. within 30 days of earlier person leaving.

c. proposed simultaneously with the cessation notice. D. NOTA

65. Release notes shall be signed by a person (s) approved by the C E I

a. RAO and whose names is specified in the organizations QC manual

b. as in ‘a’, or in terms of approval

c. DGCA and whose names is specified in the organizations QC manual/Terms

of approval

d. AOTA

66. Application for renewal of approval of Indian organization is B E I

a. CA-182 A b. CA-182 B c. CA-182 C d. CA – 182 D

67. Application of Renewal of an organization located within India shall be B E I

submitted to _______ at least ______ prior to the expiry of current approval.

a. 10 working days b. 30 days c. 60 days d. any convenient

number of days

68. Internal audit report copy of not older than ___________ shall be enclosed with C E I
the organization renewal application.

a. 10 days b. 30 days c. 60 days d. NOTA

69. Approved Organizations must retain a copy of all inspection records and any A E I
associated data for _______ to which the work relates was released.

a. one year b. two years c. five years d. on permanent basis

70. Approval of an organization is valid for C E I

 a. one year b. two years c. 5 years d. approval is for ever.

71. Fees for the approval of organizations are specified in C E I

a. Rule 62 b. Rule 48 c. Rule 133C d. Rule 133B

72. Formats of Quality Control release certificate/document and delivery vouchers C E VI

of Cat ‘E’ organization is approved by

a. QCM of organization b. RAO c. DGCA d. Chief Explosives Officer

of the firm

73. Category ‘E’ organization will have to get their bulk/packed facilities and tanks D E VI
or bulk mobile equipment approved by

a. QCM b. RAO c. DGCA d. petroleum and explosives safety

organization.

74. For how long the records of Cat ’E’ organization is maintained C E VI

a. permanently b. five years c. two years d. one year

75. Does the release note bear any serial number? B E VI

a. No b. yes c. depends on the type of stores it accompany

76. Petroleum in bulk means A E VI

a. petroleum contained in a receptacle exceeding 900 ltr in capacity

b. petroleum in a receptacle in excess of 1900 ltrs

c. petroleum in a receptacle exceeding 900 gallons in capacity d. none of

the above

77. Format of Quality control release certificate/document and delivery vouchers C E VI

are approved by

a. QCM b. RAO c. DGCA d. NOTA

78. Essential records of cat ‘E’ organization are retained for a period of D E VI

a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 5 years d.. 2 years