MATERNAL TEST QUESTIONS PART 9
The hormone responsible for the
Topics or concepts included in this exam are:
• Estimating gestational age and date of
confinement
• Labor and delivery
• Maternal hormones
• Pregnancy
• Obstetrics
• Fetal development
• Maternity Nursing
1. You performed Leopold’s maneuver and
found the following: breech presentation,
fetal back at the right side of the mother.
Based on these findings, you can hear the
fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which
location?
A. Left lower quadrant
B. Right lower quadrant
C. Left upper quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant
2. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you
palpated a soft, broad mass that moves with
the rest of the mass. The correct
interpretation of this finding is:
A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the
head part.
B. The presentation is breech.
C. The mass palpated is the back
D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.
3. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you
palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation
is that the mass palpated is:
A. The buttocks because the presentation is
breech.
B. The mass palpated is the head.
C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the small fetal part
4. The hormone responsible for a positive
pregnancy test is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
5.
maturation of the Graafian follicle is:
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone
6. The most common normal position of the
fetus in utero is:
A. Transverse position
B. Vertical position
C. Oblique position
D. None of the above
7. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the
mother may experience shortness of
breath. This complaint maybe explained as:
A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because
the fetus is using more oxygen
B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the
diaphragm upwards
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the
pregnancy and its hormones
D. The woman maybe experiencing
complication of pregnancy
8. Which of the following findings in a
woman would be consistent with a
pregnancy of two months duration?
A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of
striae gravidarum
B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
9. Which of the following is a positive sign
of pregnancy?
A. Fetal movement felt by mother
B. Enlargement of the uterus
C. (+) pregnancy test
D. (+) ultrasound
10. What event occurring in the second
trimester helps the expectant mother to
accept the pregnancy?
A. Lightening
B. Ballotment
C. Pseudocyesis
D. Quickening
11. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good 17. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date
posture will prevent which prenatal of delivery (EDD) is
discomfort?
A. Oct. 7
A. Backache B. Oct. 24
B. Vertigo C. Nov. 7
C. Leg cramps D. Nov. 8
D. Nausea
18. Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in
12. When a pregnant woman experiences leg order to:
cramps, the correct nursing intervention to
A. Strengthen perineal muscles
relieve the muscle cramps is:
B. Relieve backache
A. Allow the woman to exercise C. Strengthen abdominal muscles
B. Let the woman walk for a while D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema
C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot
19. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate
towards the knees
exercise in pregnancy to relieve which
D. Ask the woman to raise her legs
discomfort?
13. From the 33rd week of gestation till full
A. Leg cramps
term, a healthy mother should have a
B. Urinary frequency
prenatal check up every:
C. Orthostatic hypotension
A. week D. Backache
B. 2 weeks
20. The main reason for an expected
C. 3 weeks
increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
D. 4 weeks
A. The mother may have physiologic anemia
14. The expected weight gain in a normal
due to the increased need for red blood cell
pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is
mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-
A. 1 pound a week 400 mg of iron to grow
B. 2 pounds a week B. The mother may suffer anemia because of
C. 10 lbs a month poor appetite
D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC
which the mother must supply
15. In Bartholomew’s rule of 4, when the
D. The mother may have a problem of
level of the fundus is midway between the
digestion because of pica
umbilicus and xiphoid process the estimated
age of gestation (AOG) is: 21. The diet that is appropriate in normal
pregnancy should be high in
A. 5th month
B. 6th month A. Protein, minerals, and vitamins
C. 7th month B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
D. 8th month C. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats
D. Fats and minerals
16. The following are ways of determining
expected date of delivery (EDD) when the 22. Which of the following signs will
LMP is unknown EXCEPT: require a mother to seek immediate
medical attention?
A. Naegele’s rule
B. Quickening A. When the first fetal movement is felt
C. McDonald’s rule B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
D. Batholomew’s rule of 4
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
23. You want to perform a pelvic examination
on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare
your client for the procedure by:
A. Asking her to void
B. Taking her vital signs and recording the
readings
C. Giving the client a perineal care
D. Doing a vaginal prep
24. When preparing the mother who is in her
4th month of pregnancy for an abdominal
ultrasound, the nurse should instruct her to:
A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting menstruation
B. Do perineal flushing properly before the
procedure
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before
the procedure and not void until the procedure
is done
D. Void immediately before the procedure for
better visualization
25. The nursing intervention to relieve
“morning sickness” in a pregnant woman is
by giving
A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid
26. The common normal site of
nidation/implantation in the uterus is
A. Upper uterine portion
B. Mid-uterine area
C. Lower uterine segment
D. Lower cervical segment
27. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and
has a history of abortion in the 4th
pregnancy, and the first pregnancy was a
twin. She is considered to be
A. G 4 P 3
B. G 5 P 3
C. G 5 P 4
D. G 4 P 4
28. The following are skin changes in
pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. Chloasma
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea negra
D. Chadwick’s sign
29. Which of the following statements is
TRUE of conception?
A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse,
conception is possible in a fertile woman
B. Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days
after ovulation
C. Conception is possible during menstruation
in a long menstrual cycle
D. To avoid conception, intercourse must be
avoided 5 days before and 3 days after
30. Which of the following are the functions
of amniotic fluid?
1. Cushions the fetus from abdominal
trauma
2. Serves as the fluid for the fetus
3. Maintains the internal temperature
4. Facilitates fetal movement
A. 1 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above
31. You are performing an abdominal exam
on a 9th-month pregnant woman. While
lying supine, she felt breathless, had pallor,
tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The
correct assessment of the woman’s
condition is that she is:
A. Experiencing the beginning of labor
B. Having supine hypotension
C. Having sudden elevation of BP
D. Going into shock
32. Smoking is contraindicated in
pregnancy because
A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s
blood vessels
B. Carbon monoxide binds with the
hemoglobin of the mother reducing available
hemoglobin for the fetus
C. The smoke will make the fetus, and the
mother feel dizzy
D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the
fetal blood vessels
33. Which of the following is the most likely
effect on the fetus if the woman is severely
anemic during pregnancy?
A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
B. Hemorrhage
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis
34. Which of the following signs and
symptoms will most likely make the nurse
suspect that the patient has hydatidiform
mole?
A. Slight bleeding
B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
C. Absence of fetal heart beat
D. Enlargement of the uterus
35. Upon assessment, the nurse found the
following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above
the umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5
months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not
appreciated. Which of the following is the
most possible diagnosis of this condition?
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
36. When a pregnant woman goes into a
convulsive seizure, the MOST immediate
action of the nurse to ensure the safety of the
patient is:
A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall C. Place mother on a knee chest position
out of bed
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not
bite her tongue and the tongue will not fall back
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the
secretions to drain from her mouth and prevent
aspiration
D. Check if the woman is also having a
precipitate labor
37. A gravidocardiac mother is advised to
observe bed rest primarily to
A. Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine
growth
B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can
aggravate the condition of the compromised
heart of the mother
C. Prevent perinatal infection
D. Reduce incidence of premature labor
38. A pregnant mother is admitted to the
hospital with the chief complaint of profuse
vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not in labor.
The nurse must always consider which of
the following precautions:
A. The internal exam is done only at the
delivery under strict asepsis with a double set-
up
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby
is vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal
delivery must be made ready before examining
the patient
D. Internal exam must be done following
routine procedure
39. Which of the following signs will
distinguish threatened abortion from
imminent abortion?
A. Severity of bleeding
B. Dilation of the cervix
C. Nature and location of pain
D. Presence of uterine contraction
40. The nursing measure to relieve fetal
distress due to maternal supine
hypotension is:
A. Place the mother in semi-Fowler’s position
B. Put the mother on left side lying position
D. Any of the above
41. To prevent preterm labor from
progressing, drugs are usually prescribed
to halt the labor. The drugs commonly given
are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
42. In placenta praevia marginalis, the
placenta is found at the:
A. Internal cervical os partly covering the 48. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh
opening incompatibility?
B. External cervical os slightly covering the
A. The condition can occur if the mother is
opening
Rh(+) and the fetus is Rh(-)
C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges
B. Every pregnancy of a Rh(-) mother will
near the internal cervical os
result to erythroblastosis fetalis
D. Lower portion of the uterus completely
C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother,
covering the cervix
the fetus will not be affected
43. In which of the following conditions can D. RhoGam is given only during the first
the causative agent pass through the pregnancy to prevent incompatibility
placenta and affect the fetus in utero?
49. Which of the following are the most
A. Gonorrhea commonly assessed findings in cystitis?
B. Rubella
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea,
C. Candidiasis
chills, and flank pain
D. moniliasis
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria,
44. Which of the following can lead to hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
infertility in adult males? C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria,
suprapubic pain, chills, and fever
A. German measles
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea,
B. Orchitis
vomiting, dysuria, and frequency
C. Chicken pox
D. Rubella 50. Which of the following best reflects the
frequency of reported postpartum “blues”?
45. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to
determine cancer of A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
A. Cervix
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers
B. Ovaries
report some form of postpartum blues
C. Fallopian tubes
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers
D. Breast
report some form of postpartum blues
46. Which of the following causes of D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers
infertility in the female is primarily report some form of postpartum blues
psychological in origin?
A. Vaginismus
B. Dyspareunia
C. Endometriosis
D. Impotence
47. Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium
sulfate to a pre-eclamptic patient, the nurse
should assess the patient’s condition. Which
of the following conditions will require the
nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat dose
of magnesium sulfate?
A. 100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
B. Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C. Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES The fullness of the breast is due to the
increased amount of progesterone in
1. Answer: B. Right lower quadrant pregnancy. The urinary frequency is caused by
Right lower quadrant. The landmark to look for the compression of the urinary bladder by the
when looking for PMI is the location of the fetal gravid uterus which is still within the pelvic
back in relation to the right or left side of the cavity during the first trimester.
mother and the presentation, whether cephalic
or breech. The best site is the fetal back nearest 9. Answer: D. (+) ultrasound
the head. A positive ultrasound will confirm that a
woman is pregnant since the fetus in utero is
2. Answer: D. The mass palpated is the directly visualized.
buttocks.
The palpated mass is the fetal buttocks since it is 10. Answer: D. Quickening
broad and soft and moves with the rest of the Quickening is the first fetal movement felt by
mass. the mother makes the woman realize that she
is truly pregnant. In early pregnancy, the fetus
3. Answer: B. The mass palpated is the head. is moving but too weak to be felt by the
When the mass palpated is hard round and mother. In the 18th-20th week of gestation, the
movable, it is the fetal head. fetal movements become stronger thus the
4. Answer: C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin mother already feels the movements.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is the 11. Answer: A. Backache
hormone secreted by the chorionic villi which is Backache usually occurs in the lumbar area
the precursor of the placenta. In the early stage and becomes more problematic as the uterus
of pregnancy, while the placenta is not yet fully enlarges. The pregnant woman in her third
developed, the major hormone that sustains the trimester usually assumes a lordotic posture to
pregnancy is HCG. maintain balance causing an exaggeration of
5. Answer: A. Follicle stimulating hormone the lumbar curvature. Low broad heels
The hormone that stimulates the maturation if provide the pregnant woman with a good
the of the graafian follicle is the Follicle support.
Stimulating Hormone which is released by the 12. Answer: C. Let the woman lie down and
anterior pituitary gland. dorsiflex the foot towards the knees
6. Answer: B. Vertical position Leg cramps is caused by the contraction of the
Vertical position means the fetal spine is parallel gastrocnimeus (leg muscle). Thus, the
to the maternal spine thus making it easy for the intervention is to stretch the muscle by
fetus to go out the birth canal. dosiflexing the foot of the affected leg towards
the knee.
• Options A and C: If transverse or oblique,
the fetus can’t be delivered normally per 13. Answer: A. week
vagina. In the 9th month of pregnancy the mother
needs to have a weekly visit to the prenatal
7. Answer: B. The fundus of the uterus is high
clinic to monitor fetal condition and to ensure
pushing the diaphragm upwards
that she is adequately prepared for the
From the 32nd week of the pregnancy, the
impending labor and delivery.
fundus of the enlarged uterus is pushing the
respiratory diaphragm upwards. Thus, the lungs 14. Answer: A. 1 pound a week
have reduced space for expansion consequently During the 3rd trimester the fetus is gaining
reducing the oxygen supply. more subcutaneous fat and is growing fast in
preparation for extra uterine life. Thus, one
8. Answer: B. Fullness of the breast and
pound a week is expected.
urinary frequency
15. Answer: C. 7th month
In Bartholomew’s Rule of 4, the landmarks used
are the symphysis pubis, umbilicus and xyphoid
process. At the level of the umbilicus, the AOG is
approximately 5 months and at the level of the
xyphoid process 9 months. Thus, midway
between these two landmarks would be
considered as 7 months AOG.
16. Answer: A. Naegele’s rule
Naegele’s Rule is determined based on the last
menstrual period of the woman.
17. Answer: C. Nov. 7
Based on the last menstrual period, the expected
date of delivery is Nov. 7. The formula for the
Naegele’s Rule is subtract 3 from the month and
add 7 to the day.
18. Answer: A. Strengthen perineal muscles uterus) can block the uterus.
Kegel’s exercise is done by contracting and
relaxing the muscles surrounding the vagina and
anus in order to strengthen the perineal muscles
19.Answer: D. Backache
Backache is caused by the stretching of the
muscles of the lower back because of the
pregnancy. Pelvic rocking is good to relieve
backache.
20. Answer: A. The mother may have
physiologic anemia due to the increased
need for red blood cell mass, as well as the
fetal, requires about 350-400 mg of iron to
grow
About 400 mgs of Iron is needed by the mother
in order to produce more RBC mass to be able to
provide the needed increase in blood supply for
the fetus. Also, about 350-400 mgs of iron is
need for the normal growth of the fetus. Thus,
about 750-800 mgs iron supplementation is
needed by the mother to meet this additional
requirement.
21. Answer: A. Protein, minerals and
vitamins
In normal pregnancy there is a higher demand
for protein (body building foods), vitamins (esp.
vitamin A, B, C, folic acid) and minerals (esp.
iron, calcium, phosphorous, zinc, iodine,
magnesium) because of the need of the growing
fetus.
22. Answer: B. No fetal movement is felt on
the 6th month
Fetal movement is usually felt by the mother
during 4.5 – 5 months. If the pregnancy is
already in its 6th month and no fetal
movement is felt, the pregnancy is not normal
either the fetus is already dead intra-uterine or
it is an H-mole.
23. Answer: A. Asking her to void
A pelvic examination includes abdominal
palpation. If the pregnant woman has a full
bladder, the manipulation may cause
discomfort and accidental urination because of
the pressure applied during the abdominal
palpation. Also, a full bladder can impede the
accuracy of the examination because the
bladder (which is located in front of the
24. Answer: C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid
2 hours before the procedure and not void
until the procedure is done
Drinking at least 2 liters of water 2 hours
before the procedure will result to a distended
bladder. A full bladder is needed when doing
an abdominal ultrasound to serve as a
“window” for the ultrasonic sound waves to
pass through and allow visualization of the
uterus (located behind the urinary bladder).
25. Answer: A. Dry carbohydrate food like
crackers
Morning sickness maybe caused by
hypoglycemia early in the morning thus giving
carbohydrate food will help.
26. Answer: A. Upper uterine portion
The embryo’s normal nidation site is the upper
portion of the uterus. If the implantation is in
the lower segment, this is an abnormal
condition called placenta previa.
27. Answer: B. G 5 P 3
Gravida refers to the total number of
pregnancies including the current one. Para
refers to the number of pregnancies that have
reached viability. Thus, if the woman has had
one abortion, she would be considered Para 3.
Twin pregnancy is counted only as 1.
28. Answer: D. Chadwick’s sign
Chadwick’s sign is bluish discoloration of the
vaginal mucosa as a result of the increased
vascularization in the area.
29.Answer: A. Within 2-4 hours after
intercourse conception is possible in a fertile
woman
The sperms when deposited near the cervical os
will be able to reach the fallopian tubes within 4
hours. If the woman has just ovulated (within
24hours after the rupture of the graafian
follicle), fertilization is possible.
30. Answer: D. All of the above
All the four functions enumerated are true of
amniotic fluid.
31. Answer: B. Having supine hypotension
Supine hypotension is characterized by
breathlessness, pallor, tachycardia and cold,
clammy skin. This is due to the compression of
the abdominal aorta by the gravid uterus when
the woman is in a supine position.
32. Answer: B. Carbon monoxide binds with
the hemoglobin of the mother reducing
available hemoglobin for the fetus
Carbon monoxide is one of the substances found
in cigarette smoke. This substance diminishes
the ability of the hemoglobin to bind with
oxygen thus reducing the amount of oxygenated consumption which can aggravate the
blood reaching the fetus.
33. Answer: C. Small for gestational age (SGA) Activity of the mother will require more
baby
Anemia is a condition where there is a reduced
amount of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is needed to need to put a mother on bedrest to reduce the
supply the fetus with adequate oxygen. Oxygen
is needed for normal growth and development
of the fetus.
34. Answer: B. Passage of clear vesicular
mass per vagina
Hydatidiform mole (H-mole) is characterized by trimester maybe a sign of placenta praevia.
the degeneration of the chorionic villi wherein
the villi becomes vesicle-like. These vesicle-like
substances when expelled per vagina and is a
definite sign that the woman has H-mole.
35. Answer: A. Hydatidiform mole
Hydatidiform mole begins as a pregnancy but
early in the development of the embryo
degeneration occurs. The proliferation of the
vesicle-like substances is rapid causing the
uterus to enlarge bigger than the expected size
based on ages of gestation (AOG). In the
situation given, the pregnancy is only 5 months
but the size of the uterus is already above the
umbilicus which is compatible with 7 months
AOG. Also, no fetal heart beat is appreciated
because the pregnancy degenerated thus there
is no appreciable fetal heart beat.
36. Answer: C. Position the mother on her
side to allow the secretions to drain from
her mouth and prevent aspiration
Positioning the mother on her side will allow
the secretions that may accumulate in her
mouth to drain by gravity thus preventing
aspiration pneumonia.
• Option B: Putting a mouth gag is not
safe since during the convulsive seizure
the jaw will immediately lock.
• Option C: The mother may go into labor
also during the seizure, but the
immediate concern of the nurse is the
safety of the baby. After the seizure,
check the perineum for signs of
precipitate labor.
37. Answer: B. Minimize oxygen
condition of the compromised heart of the
mother
oxygen consumption. Since the heart of a
gravido-cardiac is compromised, there is a
need for oxygen.
38. Answer: A. The internal exam is done
only at the delivery under strict asepsis
with a double set-up
Painless vaginal bleeding during the third
• Option B: If the bleeding is due to soft
tissue injury in the birth canal,
immediate vaginal delivery may still be
possible so the set up for vaginal
delivery will be used.
 • Option C: A double set-up means there is
a set up for cesarean section and a set-up
for vaginal delivery to accommodate
immediately the necessary type of
delivery needed. In both cases, strict
asepsis must be observed.
• Option D: If an internal examination is
done in this kind of condition, this can
lead to even more bleeding and may
require immediate delivery of the baby by
cesarean section.
39. Answer: B. Dilation of the cervix
In imminent abortion, the pregnancy will
definitely be terminated because the cervix is
already open unlike in threatened abortion
where the cervix is still closed.
40. Answer: B. Put the mother on left side
lying position
When a pregnant woman lies on supine position,
the weight of the gravid uterus would be
compressing on the vena cava against the
vertebrae obstructing blood flow from the lower
extremities. This causes a decrease in blood
return to the heart and consequently immediate
decreased cardiac output and hypotension.
Hence, putting the mother on side lying will
relieve the pressure exerted by the gravid uterus
on the vena cava.
41. Answer: A. Magnesium sulfate and
terbutaline
Magnesium sulfate acts as a CNS depressant as
well as a smooth muscle relaxant. Terbutaline is
a drug that inhibits the uterine smooth muscles
from contracting. On the other hand, oxytocin
and prostaglandin stimulates contraction of
smooth muscles.
42. Answer: C. Lower segment of the uterus
with the edges near the internal cervical os
Placenta marginalis is a type of placenta previa
wherein the placenta is implanted at the lower
segment of the uterus thus the edges of the
placenta are touching the internal cervical
opening/os. The normal site of placental
implantation is the upper portion of the uterus.
43. Answer: B. Rubella
Rubella is caused by a virus and viruses have
low molecular weight thus can pass through
the placental barrier.
• Options A, C, and D: Gonorrhea,
candidiasis and moniliasis are
conditions that can affect the fetus as it
passes through the vaginal canal during
the delivery process.
44. Answer: B. Orchitis
Orchitis is a complication that may accompany
mumps in adult males. This condition is
characterized by unilateral inflammation of
one of the testes which can lead to atrophy of
the affected testis. About 20-30% of males who
gets mumps after puberty may develop this
complication.
45. Answer: A. Cervix
Papanicolaou (Paps) smear is done to detect
cervical cancer. It can’t detect cancer in ovaries
and fallopian tubes because these organs are
outside of the uterus and the abnormal cells
from these organs will not be detected from a
smear done on the cervix.
46. Answer: A. Vaginismus
Vaginismus is primarily psychological in
origin.
• Option B: Dyspareunia is usually caused
by infection, endometriosis or
hormonal changes in menopause
although may sometimes be
psychological in origin.
• Option C: Endometriosis is a condition
that is caused by organic abnormalities.
47. Answer: A. 100 cc. urine output in 4
hours
The minimum urine output expected for a
repeat dose of MgSO4 is 30 cc/hr. If in 4 hours
the urine output is only 100 cc this is low and
can lead to poor excretion of Magnesium with
a possible cumulative effect, which can be
dangerous to the mother.
48. Answer: C. On the first pregnancy of the
Rh(-) mother, the fetus will not be affected
On the first pregnancy, the mother still has no
contact with Rh(+) blood thus it has not
antibodies against Rh(+). After the first
pregnancy, even if terminated into an abortion,
there is already the possibility of mixing of
maternal and fetal blood so this can trigger the
maternal blood to produce antibodies against
Rh(+) blood. The fetus takes it’s blood type
usually form the father.
49. Answer: B. Manifestations of cystitis
include, frequency, urgency, dysuria,
hematuria nocturia, fever, and suprapubic
pain.
Dehydration, hypertension, and chills are not
typically associated with cystitis. High fever
chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and
frequency are associated with pyelonephritis.
50. Answer: (C) According to statistical
reports, between 50% and 80% of all new
mothers report some form of postpartum
blues. The ranges of 10% to 40%, 30% to 50%,
and 25% to 70% are incorrect.