Administrative law (1)

1. The operator of the National Lottery is seeking permission for a judicial ___________ of the Gambling
Commission's decision to allow the rival Health Lottery to operate in its current form.
A. review B. order C. referral
2. In its ________, the Advertising Standards Authority concluded the poster was "likely to be considered
offensive by many members of the public, particularly those who were accompanied by children".
A. adjustment B. adjudication C. adjournment
3. Our new complaints procedure will ensure that those involved get a ___________ hearing.
A. disinterested B. reasonable C. fair
4. The Freedom of Information Act has done little to boost public ___________ in government and may
have reduced trust, the Ministry of Justice has said.
A. assistance B. participation C. presence
5. Under the US Federal Administrative Procedure Act, a person cannot ask the courts to rule on an agency
___________ unless he "has exhausted all administrative remedies available within the agency."
A. action B. enterprise C. operation
6. The Border Agency has the ________ at any time to require any or all passengers and crew to undergo
standard checks. A. discretion B. discrimination C. deliberation
7. Agencies may seek to avoid litigation by arguing that the party should instead be seeking a petition for
__________ from the agency.
A. reassessment B. recapitulation C. reconsideration
8. There is no clear law as to what ___________ applies if a parent puts false information on the form.
A. prevention B. sanction C. veto
9. In this ___________ judgment action, we are asked to decide whether certain exemptions under the
Nebraska Clean Indoor Air Act are constitutional.
A. defamatory B. declinatory C. declaratory
10. ___________ rules are rules issued by an administrative agency to clarify or explain existing laws or
regulations. They may appear in the form of memos, handbooks, or even in speeches.
A. Interpretative B. Instructive C. Intrinsic
Agency law (1)
1. Commercial agents act as independent intermediaries representing their ________ in the market.
A. principals B. primaries C. provosts
2. An agent has continued _________________ to negotiate and conclude commercial transactions.
A. jurisdiction B. supremacy C. authority
3. Where someone claims to act as an agent, the principal will not be bound unless he or she has ______
that person. A. ratified B. legislated C. validated
4. The agent has a duty to exercise his or her role with due care and _________________.
A. application B. delegation C. diligence
5. An agent must not permit a conflict of _________________ to arise.
A. allegiance B. interest C. fidelity
6. Agents are typically paid on a ____ basis, calculated as a percentage of the sale price of the goods sold.
A. no cure, no pay B. commission C. dividend
7. An agent may not _________________ authority without the permission of the principal.
A. subcontract B. confer C. delegate

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8. Principals use _________________ clauses in agency contracts to limit their former agents’ commercial
activities following the end of the agency agreement.
A. restraint of trade B. assignment C. termination
9. Under the EU Commercial Agents Directive (1993), an agent has one year following a breach of the
agency agreement in which to make any claims for _______________ against his or her principal.
A. remuneration B. consideration C. compensation
10.The agent may have the right to keep possession of property belonging to the principal until all of the
principal’s debts to the agent are _________________.
A. confirmed B. discharged C. indemnified
Banking and finance law (1)
1. Mr Tracey acted as _____________ in a number of high-profile deals.
A. deranger B. principal C. arranger
2. The Banking Supervisory Authority _____________ banks in this country.
A. oversees B. overviews C. overawes
3. The bank is authorized to exercise such _____ powers as necessary to carry on the business of banking.
A. indicative B. incidental C. inductive
4. The proposed legislation will help investors recover _____________ money secured by a charge on land
or personal property.
A. primary B. principal C. start
5. The government decided to _____________ reforms to help the failing banking system.
A. indict B. instrument C. institute
6. The new UK regulations require banks to _____________ their core UK operations from their riskier
investment banking activities.
A. ring-fence B. ring-around C. ring-bind
7. Closures are necessary as internet and telephone banking mean that fewer customers are using their
local _______.
A. firm B. branch C. company
8. The regulations will _______ business transactions in the region, which has no formal banking system.
A. confederate B. prolong C. facilitate
9. A review of the ______ on how much universities can charge, currently £3,145, is to be held next year.
A. cap B. hat C. visor
10. The __________ was tailored to the French trading mechanism, where trades take place through a
central order-book.
A. drainage system B. crystal system C. clearing system
Bankruptcy (1)
1. In the UK, unlike in the US, the term bankruptcy applies only to individuals, not to companies or other
legal ______. A. systems B. entities C. articles
2. The debtor had only a limited right to ____________ money from his account.
A. withdraw B. accrue C. deduct
3. According to the agreement, the interest from investments made with the debtor’s deposits would be
____________ to his account.
A. accrued B. retained C. credited
4. A couple can only ______ the interest on a mortgage up to $1 million if they are married and filing their
taxes jointly. A. withdraw B. accrue C. deduct

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5. Brits have managed to _______ billions of pounds in debt during the economic downturn as a result of
their shopping habits. A. withdraw B. accrue C. diminish
6. A bankruptcy ____________ must generally be served on the debtor personally.
A. petition B. principal C. charge
7. The company tried to avoid bankruptcy by getting ____________ to accept lower repayments.
A. beneficiaries B. creditors C. principals
8. A bankruptcy _______ is a last resort for anyone who faces bankruptcy and financial difficulties.
A. discharge B. order C. charge
9. The bankruptcy ____________ eliminates the debtor's personal liability for the debt in question.
A. discharge B. charge C. deduction
10. The creditor may ____________ possession of goods, securities or any other assets belonging to the
debtor until the debt is repaid.
A. deduct B. accrue C. retain
Bankruptcy (2)
1. The goal of bankruptcy is to give debtors a _______ so they can start their economic lives over again.
A. fresh start B. discharge C. petition
2. A date has been set for a meeting of _______________ owed money after the closure of the
controversial Lapland attraction in Hampshire.
A. beneficiaries B. creditors C. debtors
3. If you file a debtor's ________________ which is accepted then you will be declared bankrupt.
A. notice B. order C. petition
4. ___________ 11 of the US Bankruptcy Act contains provisions relating to business reorganization.
A. Capital B. Chapter C. Convention
5. The company was _______________ following the bankruptcy order.
A. annulled B. extinguished C. dissolved
6. The full __ of past profits gained through activities now ruled to be illegal would bankrupt the industry.
A. disgorgement B. dissension C. diversion
7. Under the terms of the agreement, he would be in _______________ if he was declared bankrupt.
A. defect B. defacement C. default
8. The costs of the bankruptcy rank in _______________ to all other claims.
A. principal B. priority C. prime
9. Workers demonstrated outside the meeting to protest against proposals to _____________ the airline.
A. liquidate B. abrogate C. vitiate
10. The Italian government agreed to guarantee a further short-term _______________ loan to Alitalia in
an attempt to ward off bankruptcy.
A. tunnel B. ramp C. bridge
Civil and criminal wrongs (1)
1. Even when the defendants acknowledged their material _______________, when there was time to
correct the errors in what they had said, they chose not to do so.
A. term B. provision C. misstatement
2. A private entity employing technicians may successfully argue that no _______________ can attach
where the employee is individually immune.
A. vicarious liability B. limited liability C. liability insurance

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3. A reasonable person would have known that death or serious injury was a reasonably _______________
result of driving while drunk.
A. certain B. foreseeable C. understandable
4. The bank could then make loans to third party investors _______________ upon all or part of the loan
being used to purchase shares in those companies underwritten by the securities affiliate.
A. contingent B. contemplate C. apprehend
5. It took police less than 24-hours to _______________ the murder suspect.
A. betray B. censure C. apprehend
6. Downey faces one _______________ count of possessing cocaine and one misdemeanor count of being
under the influence of a controlled substance.
A. petty B. felony C. treacherous
7. The ______________ defense may protect vendors of systems that were installed 30 years ago.
A. sustainability B. predictability C. foreseeability
8. The parties to the contract did not _______________ or foresee the cause of the destruction.
A. contemplate B. apprehend C. persevere
9. The federal government will __________ $1.4 billion in assets frozen since the start of the war.
A. swipe B. steal C. seize
10. A man facing drugs charges walked free from court after successfully arguing he was a victim of
police _____. A. quandary B. imbroglio C. entrapment
Civil law (1)
1. Civil law jurisdictions are those whose legal systems originate in Roman law, a formal, written system
of laws _____________ in the Corpus Juris Civilis.
A. codified B. legislated C. ratified
2. The courts in civil law jurisdictions have adopted an _____________ system in which the court is
actively involved in investigating the facts of the case.
A. inquisitorial B. adversarial C. arbitrary
3. _____________ are not used in civil law systems, although some such jurisdictions allow for volunteer
lay judges to help a judge reach his or her decision on the facts of a case.
A. Magistrates B. Panels C. Juries
4. Civil law systems are founded on legal codes, and distinguish ________ rules from procedural rules.
A. substantive B. substantial C. substantialist
5. Civil law jurisdictions hold _____________ as the primary source of law.
A. precedent B. custom C. legislation
6. The term “civil law” is also used to mean “__ law”, such as company law, as opposed to administrative
law or criminal law. A. public B. penal C. private
7. Broadly speaking, civil law refers to the _____________ of disputes between individuals.
A. salvation B. resolution C. negotiation
8. Relatives of the victims have filed a civil ___ in an attempt to recover more than $10 billion damages.
A. process B. suit C. prosecution
9. The striking miners complained that the police were unfairly restricting their rights and had no
responsibility for _____________ the civil law.
A. enforcing B. adjudicating C. compelling
10. It is possible for a person to be found not guilty at the end of a criminal trial but _______ on the same
facts in a civil trial. A. accountable B. responsible C. liable

4
 Common law systems (1)
1. Common law systems are built around _____________, the theory and philosophy of law.
A. jurisprudence B. jurisdiction C. juristic
2. The doctrine of _____________ precedent, the principle under which the lower courts must follow the
decisions of the higher courts, is central to common law systems.
A. judicial B. jurisdictional C. judicious
3. The common law legal system originated in England in the 11th century. It was later _____________ in
the United States and is in place in most Commonwealth countries.
A. attempted B. adapted C. adopted
4. Legislatures regularly pass new laws, which are then _____________ by judges.
A. translated B. interpreted C. deciphered
5. Case law is established and developed through written ______ of judges given at the end of a trial.
A. opinions B. pronouncements C. conclusions
6. Basing decisions on precedent means that potential _________ know what to expect before deciding to
take legal action. A. principals B. jurors C. litigants
7. One disadvantage is that bad _____________ can stand as law until challenged on appeal.
A. establishments B. rulings C. directives
8. In common law systems, as with civil law systems, modern fields of law such as intellectual property
are based on _____________ rather than on common law.
A. precedents B. orders C. statutes
9. The English common law has evolved over some 350 years, with judges basing their decisions on those
made by ________. A. predecessors B. ancestors C. descendants
10. Common law courts tend to use an ________ system in which two sides present their cases to a neutral
judge. A. inquisitorial B. adversarial C. arbitrary
Commonly confused terms (1)
1. In the UK, ___ instruct barristers at court. A. solicitors B. attorneys C. lawyers D.barristers
2. I took my bar exam in California and am now a practising ________________
A. solicitor B. attorney C. barrister
3. He is a ________________ employed by a large law firm in Rome.
A. solicitor B. lawyer C. barrister
4. His car lot was struck by lightning. His insurance company refused his claim as his policy did not cover
_________. A. force majeure B. Acts of God
5. Airlines do not have to pay out if the cancellation was due to circumstances beyond their control, the so-
called __________. A. force majeure B. Act of God
6. He was awarded £4 000 under the Criminal Injuries _________ Scheme.
A. Compensation B. Damages
7. He sued his neighbour for £10 000 in_____ when the neighbour’s wall collapsed and destroyed his car.
A. compensation B. damages
8. Two Swedish detectives met Mr Ekstrom in Stockholm on Tuesday, but his ________, Mr Sven
Ericsson, said that Mr Ekstrom had refused to give a statement. A. solicitor B. lawyer
9. She was awarded $480 000 in punitive _______ as a result of the company's gross negligence.
A. damages B. compensation
10. Did the shop offer you any __________ for the damage caused by the faulty washing machine?
A. compensation B. damages
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 Commonly confused terms (2)
1. As with many flats, the owners there don't own the property outright, they simply own the
________________ - the right to live there for a specific period.
A. leasehold B. freehold
2. The pub was sold to a Jersey company that kept the __ and let the pub to the owner of a local nightclub.
A. leasehold B. freehold
3. If the term is simply a _____, you will be able to claim damages but may not actually terminate the
contract. A. condition B. warranty
4. If the contract term in question is a ________________, you will be able to terminate the contract
without fear of damages being awarded against you.
A. condition B. warranty
5. A ________contract cannot be enforced by law. A. void B.voidable
6. A ________contract is a valid contract until the innocent party decides to terminate the agreement.
A. void B. voidable
7. I think that both parties made an honest _____. A. mistake B. fraud in the inducement
8. ________________occurs where one person dishonestly influences another person to enter into a
contract to which he or she otherwise would not have agreed.
A. Mistake B. Fraud in the inducement
9. The plaintiff claimed that the contracts were ______ because the transactions on which they were based
were illegal.q A. void B. voidable
10. As they've breached a ____________, you'll be able to terminate the contract and sue for damages.
A. condition B. warranty
Company law (1)
1. Accountants were hired to __________________ the company's spending.
A. disclose B. audit C. indemnify
2. A __________________ is a company that is controlled by another company.
A. subsidiary company B. holding company C. trust company
3. A __________________ is any person or company who, directly or indirectly, has or shares voting
interests or the right to make investment decisions.
A. beneficial owner B. trust C. nominee shareholder
4. I wasn’t aware that you were also working for our main competitor. This seems to me to be a serious
__________________.
A. power of attorney B. conflict of interest C. declaration of trust
5. Ministers have announced that all accountants will have to take out full __________________ insurance
before registration.
A. disclosure B. capital requirement C. indemnity
6. New legislation introducing a zero rate of corporation tax means that Gibraltar's __________________
programme will no longer be as attractive as it once was.
A. exempt company B. holding company C. shelf company
7. An ordinary share might have a __________________ of 100p, but its market value will be determined
by supply and demand in the marketplace.
A. denomination B. par value C. capital requirement
8. The first financial year must end on the _________ or on a date up to seven days either before or after.
A. audit B. accounting reference date C. statutory register

6
9. A _____ is a corporation that owns enough voting stock in another company to exercise control over it.
A. shelf company B. holding company C. shell company
10. A __________________ can be used to hold securities on behalf of investors.
A. beneficial owner B. nominee shareholder C. power of attorney
Company law (3)
1. The memorandum and __________ of the new company were filed in the Companies Registration
Office in Dublin and the new company was formally incorporated on 11 December 2010.
A. certificate of association B. share certificate C. articles of association
2. __________________ entitle the holder to a fixed dividend with priority for payment.
A. Preference shares B. Ordinary shares C. Reverse stock
3. The Treasury must not undermine the important __________________ of existing shareholders, to
whom newly-issued shares must first be offered.
A. pre-emption rights B. share subdivision C. rights of action
4. A company may not issue more shares than as allowed by the __________________.
A. uncalled capital B. authorised capital C. working capital
5. The company increased its regular __________________ on common stock to 23¢.
A. bonus B. dividend C. fee
6. Companies will often report a __________________ of a certain number of shares. This simply means
that the shares have been sold.
A. disposition B. sanction C. crystallisation
7. In corporate law, the word “____” often refers to the shareholders’ ownership interest in a corporation.
A. equity B. coupon C. bond
8. The directors were asked to confirm that no events had led to the _____ of any floating charges.
A. buyback B. disposition C. crystallisation
9. Under certain circumstances, a court may lift the ______ and subject shareholders to personal liability.
A. legal personality B. corporate veil C. fiduciary duty
10. If the company continues to run at a loss it may go into __________________.
A. recession B. rescission C. liquidation
Company law (4)
1. The replacement of several directors failed to __ investors, and shares dropped another 6.7% overnight.
A. satiate B. placate C. satisfy
2. Put simply, _____ are people who work by themselves, for themselves. They may also employ other
ancillary staff. A. partners B. sole proprietors C. directors
3. In the UK, the abbreviation PLC is used for ________________.
A. public limited companies B. private limited companies C. partnerships
4. In the USA, the main distinction is between ________________ (which are often larger) and S
corporations (which are taxed through their owners and which are often smaller).
A. corporations B. corporations C. corporations
5. The shareholders agreed on his ________________ for the position and he was voted out of office.
A. improperness B. unfitness C. incorrectness
6. A company is an example of a ________________, a business or institution that the law treats for some
purposes as if it were distinct from its members or owner.
A. legal person B. partnership C. cooperative

7
7. Common to all ______ companies are the carrying on of business outside the incorporating jurisdiction,
rapid formation, secrecy, broad powers, low cost, low-to-zero taxation and minimal filing and reporting
requirements. A. exceptional B. exempt C. extraordinary
8. The buyer wishes to acquire all of the shares in the ________________ company.
A. target B. acquiring C. purchasing
9. Shell Petroleum Development Company, a ________________ of Royal Dutch Shell, is the main
operator in the Niger Delta.
A. subject B. supplementary C. subsidiary
10. Pursuant to the initial public offering, 1,000,000 new shares in the company were issued to _______.
A. petitioners B. subscribers C. endorsers
Company law (5)
1. The Hand Ditch Company’s _____________________ provides only the names of the three
incorporators, the date of incorporation, and an explanation of purpose.
A. statutory form B. certificate of incorporation C. stock ledger
2. The firm will amend its _____________________ to reflect the reclassification of shares and the denial
of pre-emptive rights to shareholders.
A. memorandum of association B. stock ledger C. articles of incorporation
3. We support the proposed _______________ of the group’s convenience stores from its supermarkets.
A. spin-off B. franchising C. downsizing
4. Nevada doesn’t grant shareholders an express right to inspect the corporate records, although it does
authorize inspection of the _____________________ ledger and financial records.
A. share B. asset C. stock
5. The Directors may exercise the powers given by Clause 3 of the ___________ of the Company.
A. stock ledger B. statutory forms C. memorandum of association
6. All registered companies must complete the _____________________ and file them with the
appropriate governmental authority.
A. statutory forms B. stock ledgers C. derivative suit
7. A _____________________ (also known as a classified board) is a board of directors that is made up of
different classes of directors.
A. one-tier board B. two-tier board C. staggered board
8. A copycat _____________________ suit can multiply litigation costs and subject a company to
inconsistent rulings from different courts.
A. derivative B. duplicative C. duplicitous
9. Call our ________ agent Laurel Hill on the number below to make sure your vote is received before the
deadline. A. proxy solicitation B. proxy fight C. proxy vote
10. The ________ of the meeting at which that bonus was awarded show that the board agreed to the
amount of the bonus. A. minutes B. notice C. attendance
Comparative law (1)
1. Simon Jenkins in The Guardian said "closer European union ... was an attempt by a _______________
economic authority to supersede national democracy".
A. superprime B. superannuated C. supranational
2. An activist in Korea who advocates _______________ was arrested by officials from the South in front
of a chanting crowd of North Koreans at the border.
A. unifying B. unification C. unicycling

8
3. The court expressed the view that the ruling _______________ the US Constitution and laws,
international treaties and rules of international law.
A. misjudged B. misguided C. misinterpreted
4. Comparative law is closely related to private international law, which concerns the rules governing the
_______________ of laws in situations involving more than one jurisdiction.
A. allowance B. acceptability C. applicability
5. As it is now common for _______________ legal systems to interact, lawyers must be able to relate
their legal systems to foreign laws.
A. alien B. strange C. outside
6. The European Commission has referred Germany to the European Court of Justice for failing to respect
EU rules governing the ______ of the marketing of construction products between member states.
A. globalisation B. affiliation C. harmonisation
7. If a Canadian company goes bankrupt with assets located in Canada and the US, a lawyer must
understand how US law might be _______________ once bankruptcy has been filed.
A. applied B. maintained C. registered
8. The rules are difficult to _______________ in foreign jurisdictions.
A. enhance B. enforce C. engage
9. Mexico and the US have different priority _______________ for the payment to creditors in the event of
a company’s liquidation.
A. rankings B. hierarchies C. status
10. There are a number of jurisdictions that comprise aspects of two or more different legal systems. These
are referred to as _______________ systems.
A. amalgamated B. mixed C. portmanteau
Competition law (2)
1. The airline denied claims that it will respond to surging fuel prices by introducing either a fuel
_______________ or higher prices in order to recover these costs.
A. burden B. grant C. levy
2. The IMF said the government's main aim should be to __________ the economy as a first step to raising
living standards.
A. distort B. stabilise C. conduct
3. Preventing _______________ is important to ensure that new companies can enter the market.
A. grants B. block exemptions C. margin squeeze
4. The airlines were fined for _______________ because, acting together, they had lowered their prices to
destroy the competition.
A. predatory pricing B. concentration C. territorial allocation
5. The Single European Market was introduced in 1993 and _______________ the free flow of labour and
capital within the EU.
A. protects B. privileges C. provides
6. If this merger goes ahead it will almost certainly _______________ competition.
A. implicate B. enhance C. impede
7. Something must be done to bring these powerful trusts under _______________.
A. check B. law C. control
8. Some firms try to use illegal ________ agreements to define geographical areas within which they will
not compete. A. price fixing B. territorial allocation C. predatory pricing

9
9. It is in companies’ short-term interest to become big and powerful, and this gives them a strong
incentive to fight new ______________ legislation.
A. antitrust B. single market C. free market
10. The two companies were found guilty of ____ for agreeing to work together to influence the market.
A. collision B. conniving C. collusion
Constitutional law (1)
1. A US appeals court has ruled that a law barring local companies from trading with Burma is _______.
A. unconstitutional B. inconstitutional C. anti-constitutional
2. The constitution provides strong __ against the executive branch, designed to prevent abuses of power.
A. limitation clauses B. cautionary measures C. checks and balances
3. The governor of the Turks and Caicos Islands has signed a ______________ suspending parts of the
state’s constitution.
A. pronouncement B. prohibition C. proclamation
4. Neither country is expected to ______________ the UN resolution.
A. ban B. prohibit C. veto
5. The money earned from sale of illegal drugs is subject to ______________ by the state.
A. suspension B. seizure C. suppression
6. The Constitution imposes a ______________ on cruel and unusual punishment.
A. pronouncement B. prohibition C. proclamation
7. The purpose of the Constitutional Court is to guarantee the ______________ of the constitution.
A. supremacy B. certiorari C. sub judice
8. Although the law does not require it, by ______________ the consent of the provinces is obtained
before changes are made to the constitution.
A. covenant B. concord C. convention
9. Among the ______________ to the US Constitution is a list of the rights of the people.
A. additions B. amendments C. appendices
10. Ms Agnew had said she would not testify in the case, invoking her right against self __________.
A. accusation B. nomination C. incrimination
Construction law (1)
1. Four consortia have been invited to _______ for a £415m construction project which will complete
central Scotland's motorway network. A. proffer B. tender C. bestow
2. To protect against the risks inherent in construction projects, a project sponsor may request that a
contractor provide a surety ___________, guaranteeing that the contractor will perform in accordance with
the contract. A. agreement B. lien C. bond
3. Construction _____________ allow municipalities to regulate construction within their jurisdictions,
and must be obtained before any new construction may begin.
A. permits B. licenses C. consents
4. Express _______ may include both specific and general guarantees of quality and good workmanship.
A. assurances B. promises C. warranties
5. A municipality sponsoring a large construction project will typically allow contractors to ________ for
participation in the project. In many legal systems, this process is required by law.
A. bid B. submit C. venture
6. A construction contract sets __ the rights and liabilities of each party involved in a construction project.
A. up B. forth C. forward
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7. A construction contract will usually include a description of ________ for failure to complete the
project in a timely manner. A. punishments B. fines C. penalties.
8. Failure to comply with a construction contract may result in a legal action for __ of contract.
A. breach B. failure C. infringement
10. The main contractor is the MacMillin Company. However, most of the work will be carried out by
_____________.
A. semi-contractors B. quasi-contractors C. sub-contractors
10. The Nigerian local government area authorities are _____________ to approve the construction and
certification of buildings. A. commanded B. mandated C. delegated
Consumer protection (1)
1. When you buy an item from a trader (eg a online shop) the law says the item must be of ____ quality.
A. excellent B. reasonable C. merchantable
2. He took the machine back to the shop because it was not ________________ for purpose.
A. good B. fit C. suitable
3. Any item sold must be as ________________, that is to say that it must match the description on the
packaging or match what the trader told you.
A. declared B. defined C. described
4. If an item does not meet the standards required by law, you will usually have the right to choose
between a replacement, refund or ________________.
A. repair B. reparation C. reparative
5. Consumer rights apply to most items you buy from a shop, including sale items. You may have
additional rights to these if you have a ________________.
A. warrant B. warranty C. warrantee
6. You will need some proof of ___, such as a receipt or a bank statement, to return faulty items to a shop.
A. sale B. purchase C. buying
7. You usually have seven ________________ days to cancel your order and ask for your money back if
you buy something over the phone, online or by mail order.
A. working B. banking C. clearing
8. You may not have the right to return ________________ items, such as food or flowers.
A. perishless B. perishing C. perishable
9. If you have paid for a faulty item using a credit card, you may be able to claim your money back
through the credit card company’s ________________ scheme.
A. chargecard B. charging C. chargeback
10. Tele4 violated California consumer protection laws by advertising free wireless phones without
________________ that customers would have to pay higher monthly service fees.
A. proclaiming B. recognising C. disclosing
Contract law (2)
1. The new law will reduce the time it takes to get from the 'sale agreed' stage to ____ of contracts..
A. exchange B. trading C. conveyance
2. Although most of the contracts go to large firms experienced at working on major commercial
developments, _____________ are often awarded to smaller firms.
A. subcontracts B. implied contracts C. indefinite contracts
3. The lawyers were asked to review only the _____ contracts relevant to the purchase transaction.
A. material B. assignation C. essential

11
4. _____________ of contract is the principle that a contract cannot give rights to, or impose obligations
on, any person who is not a party to the contract.
A. Privacy B. Primacy C. Privity
5. After __________, the company assumed liability for the contracts entered into by Ranger Ltd.
A. assignment B. assertion C. assumption
6. Following the strike, the union was accused of unlawful interference in contractual __________.
A. matters B. assertion C. relations
7. As used in this section, 'total _____________ paid includes money or anything of value which is paid or
delivered in exchange for the sale.
A. compensation B. payment C. consideration
8. The amount of the arbitration fee may be _____________ because it is excessive in relation to the value
of the underlying claim.
A. illegal B. unconscionable C. unlawful
9. The two parties to the contract were located in India and Brazil, so two original, signed
______________ of the contract were produced.
A. counterparts B. pleadings C. provisions
10. The UK airport operator has begun legal proceedings in the High Court to seek ______ of its contract
with Eurotunnel. A. rescission B. remedy C. assertion
Contract law (3)
1. The party attempted to __________ the contract, ie render or declare it legally void or inoperative.
A. aggregate B. omit C. reject
2. Given the number of errors in the contract, it is obvious that the document was not subject to much
________________ when drafted.
A. experience B. scrutiny C. discretion
3. Additional extensions of the time in which to deliver the goods will not be granted where it will cause
________________ to either party.
A. hardship B. discretion C. laches
4. The total sum of all claims is known as the ________________ of such claims.
A. mitigation B. aggregate C. omission
5. The lender must ________________ all remedies available against the debtor prior to bringing any
claim against the guarantor.
A. express B. suffer C. exhaust
6. The implied warranty of ________________ is a promise that something is suitable for sale.
A. merchantability B. title C. habitability
7. Where the breach of the contract is __, the non-breaching party shall be entitled to additional damages.
A. wilful B. impaired C. deficient
8. Neither party can ________________ decide to change the contract. The law requires both the
employer's and the employee's consent to any such changes.
A. bilaterally B. unilaterally C. laterally
9. In the event of irreparable defects in the software, the Programmer agrees to ________________ all
money paid by the Buyer.
A. redact B. refer C. refund
10. Both parties hereby ________________ an intention to be bound by the terms of the agreement.
A. manifest B. adhere C. assent

12
 Contract law (4)
1. Under the doctrine of ____________ of contract, only the parties to a contract can sue upon it.
A. privity B. invitation to treat C. exclusion
2. The court was told that the banker had exerted ____________ on his clients, abusing the relationship of
trust in persuading them to agree to unreasonable mortgage agreements.
A. undue influence B. privity C. duress
3. Putting items on display, with or without price tags, is not an offer but ____________.
A. undue influence B. an invitation to treat C. an implied contract
4. For a contract to be binding, a contract must include the elements of offer and ____________.
A. accepting B. accession C. acceptance
5. The company should have insisted that an ____________ be inserted into the contract specifying that
the computer to be acquired must be compatible with the existing equipment.
A. express term B. exclusion clause C. implied term
6. The new legislation will see the removal of unfair ____________ clauses designed to prevent claims for
compensation.
A. non-compete B. exclusion C. confidentiality
7. If someone tries to sell you something, it is an ____________ term of the contract that they own the
goods in the first place.
A. implied B. express C. agreed
8. The boxer claimed that Mr Warren, through his company Sports Network, had managed to persuade him
to sign contracts under ______ while he was suffering dehydration and hunger preparing for fights.
A. undue influence B. duress C. legal capacity
9. In the absence of the ____________ of all parties, an arbitrator cannot order a dispute referred to
arbitration to be heard together with another dispute involving a stranger.
A. consent B. undue influence C. legal capacity
10. As far as age is concerned, a person who has reached 18 has the _____ to contract as an individual.
A. exclusion B. privity C. legal capacity
Contract law (5)
1. There must be no conflict between ______________ (14) of the Preamble and the operative provision.
A. restitution B. rebuttal C. recital
2. The shareholders' approval is a _______________ to the deal going ahead.
A. Condition subsequent B. Condition consequent C. Condition precedent
3. The potential contracting party could not accept the terms offered, but instead wrote back with a ____.
A. contrary offer B. counter offer C. converse offer
4. The problem was a classic _______________, and began when both supplier and purchaser presented
each other with their own standard terms resulting in two conflicting documents.
A. duel at dawn B. fight to the death C. battle of the forms
5. ____________: WHEREAS, Title 1 of Article 18-A of the General Municipal Law of the State of New
York was duly enacted into law as Chapter 1030 of the Laws of 1969 of the State of New York; and..
A. WITNESSETH B. TAKE NOTICE C. HEADS UP
6. Kentucky Fried Chicken became the first major fast food _______________ to open here.
A. branch B. franchise C. spin off
7. This instrument contains the _______________ between the parties hereto and supersedes any and all
prior written and/or oral agreements.
13
A. conditions subsequent B. preamble C. entire agreement
8. Given that the conditions had not been satisfied by the _______________, the supply agreement
terminated automatically.
A. entire agreement B. consideration C. long stop date
9. You can include this provision as an _______________ to your will.
A. amendment B. addition C. addendum
10. A contract’s _______________ (i) identifies the agreement through a title, (ii) identifies the parties to
the agreement, and (iii) identifies the date on which the agreement was entered into.
A. prelude B. preamble C. prefix
Contract law: third party rights (1)
1. The agent had no authority to make the deal, so the principal refused to __________ the contract.
A. ratify B. construe C. confer
2. This clearly __________ to be a waiver clause, despite the claimant’s insistence that this is not so.
A. avails B. purports C. inures
3. The __________ refused to accept the contract made on his behalf.
A. successor B. principal C. agency
4. A __________ contract is one that coexists side by side with the main contract, often between one of the
parties to the main contract and a third party.
A. collateral B. signatory C. class
5. I understand that by __________ of my employment with the University I am responsible for complying
with these regulations.
A. respect B. agency C. virtue
6. This section does not apply if on a proper __________ of the contract, it appears that the parties did not
intend the term to be enforceable by third parties.
A. ratification B. accordance C. construction
7. The company decided to __________ the fitting of carpeting and furnishings to a third party.
A. subrogate B. subcontract C. confer
8. After paying your claim, your insurer is __________ to the rights of your policy and can sue the
negligent party on your behalf.
A. subrogated B. waived C. conferred
9. The terms of a contract made by an agent outside the authority granted by the principal become binding
on the principal following __________.
A. construction B. accordance C. ratification
10. The judge denied the request to have Dorfmeister’s firm designated a successor in __________ in
Brieger's firm. A. agency B. engagement C. interest
Contract termination and remedies (1)
1. The simplest remedy is ____________, that is an amount of money which will place the non-breaching
party in the position he or she would have been in had the contract been performed.
A. reliance damages B. expectation damages C. special damages
2. ______ are those damages awarded for losses suffered in reasonable reliance on a promise.
A, reliance damages B. special damages C. expectation damages
3. _________________, otherwise known as special damages or economic damages, are damages you can
prove occurred because of the failure of one party to meet a contractual obligation.
A. Liquidated damages B. Reliance damages C. Consequential damages

14
4. They have yet to receive adequate legal __________________ and financial compensation.
A. Rebuff B. Reliance C. Redress
5. The parties came to a _______________ settlement (=money paid when a case is settled).
A. fiduciary B. pecuniary C. mercantile
6. The company sought ____________________ relief in various member states against competing mobile
device makers based on alleged infringements of certain of its patent rights. This would mean that these
competing devices could no longer be sold.
A. injunctive B. considerable C. temporary
7. Rizhao has claimed that Mount Gibson is in _________ breach of the Koolan Island agreement because
it failed to meet a proposed shipping schedule outlined in the November 2011 deal.
A. fundamental B. grave C. material
8. The client could not ______________ the contract in part by continuing the relationship but
discontinuing employment.
A. repudiate B. repatriate C. requisition
9. The parties were excused from performing the contract due to ____________________, as the painting
in question had been destroyed by fire.
A. mistake B. necessity C. frustration
10. A teachers' union has dismissed an offer by a Merseyside council to settle ____________________
payments for staff left without a job after two schools merged.
A. golden handshake B. nuisance C. redundancy
12. The US bank said the executives responsible had been dismissed without _________ pay.
A. partition B. severance C. detachment
Copyright law (1)
1. It is unlawful to remove any _____________ of copyright appearing on a copyrighted work.
A. proclamation B. declaration C. notice
2. The copying of the materials solely for academic purposes was within the bounds of the fair
__________ doctrine. A. use B. play C. trading
3. Phillip receives ________ payments when the song that he composed is played on the radio.
A. compensation B. primacy C. royalty
4. In 2001, a US court upheld the right of Alice Randall to publish a _________ of Gone with the Wind
called The Wind Done Gone, which told the same story from the point of view of Scarlett O'Hara's slaves.
A. parody B. caricature C. misrepresentation
5. The author claimed that his copyright was violated, because the screenplay was a ______________
work based on his novel.
A. detrimental B. derivative C. derogative
6. The copyright holder granted permission for us to show the film, but with the ______________ that it
could not be shown more than once a month.
A. deterrent B. forewarning C. caveat
7. In addition to obtaining permission to copy the content, you must give full ___ to the copyright holder.
A. credence B. credit C. clearance
8. ______________ personal property includes things such as patents, copyrights, trademarks as well as
ownership rights in a business.
A. Intangible B. Real C. Tangible

15
9. This article is the copyrighted property of the writer and Brucksinn InC. Written ______________ must
be obtained before reprint in online or print media.
A. allowance B. authority C. permission
10. The Supreme Court held that once a work's copyright terminates, it passes into the public domain, and
trademark law does not prevent its use without __________ to the original author.
A. attribution B. assignment C. arraignment
Corporate governance (1)
1. In the UK, the provisions for the internal management of a company are set out in its articles of
association. In the US, this document is known as the ______________.
A. memorandum B. bylaws C. constitution
2. The UK Corporate Governance Code sets out standards of ______________ in relation to board
leadership and effectiveness, remuneration, accountability and relations with shareholders.
A. good faith B. good practice C. fair dealing
3. Some senior executives have refused to accept any personal _____ for failure in corporate governance.
A. oversight B. convergence C. liability
4. A company’s ______ stakeholders are the board of directors, executives, and other employees.
A. internal B. external C. primary
5. A company’s ______________ stakeholders include suppliers, customers, consumer groups and
communities affected by its activities.
A. internal B. external C. primary
6. Many nonprofit organisations are subject to regulations that require the ______________ of certain
information to interested members of the public.
A. admission B. publication C. disclosure
7. Corporate governance is often concerned with the ______________ of conflicts of interests between
competing stakeholders through internal government, laws and regulatory authorities that affect the way a
company operates.
A. litigation B. arbitration C. mitigation
8. Corporate ______________, such as those involving the Enron Corporation and MCI Inc., have lead to
increased public and political interest in the regulation of corporate governance.
A. conflicts B. scandals C. slanders
9. The guidelines provide further support on how to _____________ with the laws and regulations related
to e-commerce. A. contrast B. comply C. conflict
10. If an organization does not operate within the scope of the ______________ laws, there can be severe
penalties and consequences for the directors.
A. applicable B. appropriate C. associable
Corporate insolvency (1)
1. Shareholder voluntary liquidation is possible when the company believes that it is ______________ and,
therefore, there is no compelling reason that could force a liquidation.
A. solvent B. insolvent C. in receivership
2. A creditor may petition the court to have a company placed into ______________ liquidation.
A. autonomous B. voluntary C. compulsory
3. A majority of the directors must make a statutory declaration of solvency before a resolution to
______________ the assets of the company is passed.
A. wind up B. realise C. anticipate

16
4. A creditor may ______________ the court to declare a company bankrupt.
A. order B. proclaim C. petition
5. Some commentators argue that the ______________ of a bankrupt company’s assets is inefficient
because it reduces the value of those assets.
A. auctioning B. petitioning C. reorganisation
6. The directors of an insolvent company owe their ______________ duty to the creditors.
A. statutory B. fiduciary C. beneficial
7. When a company is declared insolvent, a ______________ winds up its affairs and oversees the
realisation of its assets and the distribution of the proceeds to the creditors.
A. liquidator B. receiver C. promoter
8. Mr Humphries was cleared of __ after the Department of Trade failed to show that he had carried on the
business of the company in the knowledge that there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding insolvency.
A. wrongful trading B. fraudulent trading C. unlawful trading
9. Creditors who have no security interests in the property of the company but who have a legal priority
over other creditors with no security interests are known as ______________.(?)
A. unsecured creditors B. secured creditors C. preferential creditors
10. The object of administration is to protect a company from its creditors while a _______ is completed.
A. restructuring plan B. moratorium C. scheme of arrangement
Corporate responsibility: communities (1)
1. The FLA said Foxconn had agreed to ______________ with the association's standards on working
hours by July 2013, bringing them in line with a legal limit in China of 49 hours per week.(?)
A. contend B. conspire C. comply
2. According to Mr Adepoju, the company and the apps it develops are focused on ______________ local
culture through technology and making products which are specific to the local market.
A. uplifting B. preserving C. suspending
3. The Cadbury factory in Birmingham was presented as a vision of an ideal village where residents _____
in community events. A. associated B. participated C. cooperated
4. The trust was founded in 1900 by the Quaker industrialist to provide a high _____ of living for workers.
A. adequacy B. level C. standard
5. A spokesperson said that said all necessary studies would be carried out to ensure there would be no
______________ effect on the local community.
A. adverse B. converse C. diverse
6. The company aims to provide homes for people who have been excluded and _______ against.
A. distinguished B. discriminated C. differentiated
7. Some of the technology that schools bought at ______ prices should have been provided free of charge.
A. conflated B. exaggerated C. inflated
8. To promote access to prescription drugs for the uninsured or underinsured, we advanced a policy of
price ______________ at major pharmaceutical companies.
A. abstinence B. restraint C. coercion
9. The ______________ of energy prices within the EU promotes competition and contributes to the
creation and smooth operation of the internal energy market.
A. transparency B. obviousness C. salience
10. Part of our mission is to help ______ the local economy and allow local residents access to affordable,
locally-produced food. A. impede B. convey C. sustain

17
 Corporate responsibility: the environment (1)
1. Can firms sacrifice profits for positive environmental impacts without breaching their ____________
responsibilities to their shareholders?
A. mercantile B. fiduciary C. financial
2. To realize the aims of our Environmental Action Plan, we do all we can to reduce the environmental
____________ of our operations at all stages of vehicle life cycle.
A. influx B. burden C. impact
3. Green economies are an important means to achieve what ____________ development ultimately aims
at: the well-being of people while respecting the environment.
A. dependable B. sustainable C. containable
4. The company has a record of acquiring land from countries whose national law permits ____________
by the government.
A. exculpation B. expatriation C. expropriation
5. ____________ of the natural environment is resulting in the loss of biodiversity. Our aim is to achieve
growth that maintains a balance between corporate activities and environmental preservation.
A. Degradation B. Debasement C. Depilation
6. The new computer also incorporates an energy and cooling supply from local ____________ resources
and has the potential to reduce dependence on grid power by 80%.
A. distinguishable B. maintainable C. renewable
7. Since the bill was passed into law, only two companies have ____________ procedures designed to
protect the local sheep population.
A. implemented B. complemented C. adjudicated
8. Business groups are taking aim at California's low carbon fuel standard, which is designed to cut the
greenhouse gas ____________ that come from making and burning fuel.
A. submissions B. indulgences C. emissions
9. There are many examples of companies benefiting from environmental ____, such as the increased
profits made by DuPont when it voluntarily stopped making chlorofluorocarbons; Patagonia, which makes
very expensive, natural garments; and Ben and Jerry's ethical sourcing policy.
A. outrage B. atrocities C. activism
10. Following public ____________, Fenland District Council members approved plans for a Sainsbury's
in Whittlesey, rejecting an application from Tesco.
A. contradiction B. consultation C. compensation
Court orders (1)
1. A man suspected of driving under the influence of alcohol was taken to St. Patrick Hospital for a blood
test after a judge issued a ____________ for a blood test.
A. search warrant B. restraining order C. disclosure order
2. Two 17-year-olds pleaded guilty to the offence. One received an absolute ____________ and the other
was sentenced to eight months' detention.
A. injunction B. discharge C. liquidation
3. A Russian hacker who breached the security of the RBS WorldPay service and stole $9m has received a
six-year suspended sentence and an order to pay $9m in ____________ to the bank.
A. restriction B. restraint C. restitution
4. A ________ has been issued against a Lockerbie man who gambled away more than £800,000 instead
of paying debts. A. penalty notice B. liquidation order C. bankruptcy order

18
5. The court issued an ____________ order pending the final outcome of the trial.
A. interlocutory B. initial C. interim
6. Victims of domestic violence may now apply to the court for a ____________, designed to protect them
from any further form of abuse or harassment.
A. restitution order B. non-molestation order C. penalty notice
7. Lawyers for a company featured in a documentary about corporate corruption say they will seek a court
____________ to prevent it from being screened.
A. injunction B. sentence C. penalty
8. A woman murdered last week had secured a ____________ against her violent ex-boyfriend four days
before police say he shot and killed her in the Westview High School parking lot.
A. liquidation order B. disclosure order C. restraining order
9. Under current laws, a person's debts are usually ___ three years after the bankruptcy order was issued.
A. discredited B. discharged C. distinguished
10. The Financial Services Authority has obtained an initial order ____________ more than £20m in assets
linked to the fugitive businessman Francois de Dietrich, suspected of a multi-million pound scam.
A. freezing B. sealing C. executing
Crimes (1)
1. A man has been arrested on suspicion of ______________ after a violent raid on a bakery in which one
man was injured with a baseball bat.
A. shoplifting B. burglary C. armed robbery
2. A fire that broke out at a scrapyard in Newcastle is being treated by police as suspected ___________.
A. arson B. larceny C. vandalism
3. A 25-year-old man has been charged with ______________ causing grievous bodily harm after three
men were attacked in west Belfast.
A. battery B. bribery C. assault
4. The company denied charges of corruption and ______ over payments made to win contracts, but was
fined £286m. A. bribery B. embezzlement C. insider dealing
5. A member of the public reported a suspected ______________ after noticing that a neighbour's window
had been broken while the neighbour was on holiday.
A. robbery B. theft C. burglary
6. It is thought that 19,000 women over the age of 18 experience domestic ______ every week in the UK.
A. assault B. violence C. battery
7. NA woman has been charged with ______________ after stealing more than £40,000 from her
employers while working as the general manager of an Aberdeen bar.
A. theft B. robbery C. embezzlement
8. A Dublin man has been found guilty of ______________ after forcing a chip shop owner to give him
€264,000 by threatening him with the Real IRA.
A. extradition B. extortion C. extraction
9. A man convicted for his role in an art ______________ scandal has claimed to have faked works by
"about 50" different artists over the course of his career.
A. forgery B. counterfeit C. fraud
10. Four hedge fund managers have been charged by US prosecutors with ______________ as part of a
wider crackdown on illegal trading.
A. extortion B. embezzlement C. insider dealing

19
 Criminal law (1)
1. The company is not expected to plead ________________ to the charges.
A. innocent B. not proven C. guilty
2. The man behind the most serious financial scandal of the past decade has been given a surprise sentence
of only three months. Reacting to the news, the prosecuting barrister said “When judges impose this kind
of ___________ sentence it lets people down and sends out the wrong message."
A. adversarial B. derisory C. misleading
3. White-collar crimes often involve the abuse of ____ information by business professionals and
government employees. A. privileged B. specialist C. violated
4. The two defendants decided that it was in their best interests to _____ their case and be tried separately.
A. sever B. separate C. split
5. He lied under cross-examination and was eventually convicted of ________________.
A. fraud B. breach of confidence C. perjury
6. The jury found her guilty of burglary and the judge passed ________________ immediately.
A. sentence B. judgment C. ruling
7. Although it was established that the defendant caused the accident, he did not possess the requisite
________________ for the offence and was therefore acquitted.
A. actus reus B. locus standi C. mens rea
8. The ________ is usually on the prosecutor to persuade the trier of fact that the accused is guilty.
A. reasonable doubt B. balance of probabilities C. burden of proof
9. Some jurisdictions differentiate between ___ and less serious offences, which are called misdemeanours.
A. felonies B. crimes C. civil wrongs
10. Since the prosecutor failed to prove his case, the judge rendered a ____________ of not guilty.
A. charge B. verdict C. conviction
Criminal law (2)
1. In cases involving the distribution or manufacture of drugs, it is clear that the __________________
must occur within 1000 feet (=C. 300 meters) of a school.
A. locus standi B. mens rea C. actus reus
2. He was ______________ 100 hours of community service after being convicted of assault.
A. sentenced to B. liable for C. convicted of
3. The jury could not find beyond __________________ doubt that the employee had insider information
and he was therefore acquitted of the crime of insider trading.
A. a reasonable B. an acceptable C. the minimum
4. According to the ____, the former CEO and other corporate insiders have been charged with conspiracy.
A. depositions B. indictments C. allegations
5. The three __________________ deny conspiring to cause explosions.
A. criminals B. accused C. convicts
6. In the criminal law, there is a __________________ of innocence until guilt is proven.
A. disposition B. suspicion C. presumption
7. The defendant entered a __________________ of not guilty.
A. plea B. charge C. statement
8. The District Attorney said that there was not sufficient evidence to _____ any of the suspects.
A. persecute B. prosecute C. depose

20
9. As the authorities were unable to locate the suspect, he was tried and convicted ___________.
A. mens rea B. locus standi C. in abstentia
10. The defendant stood silently in the __________________ as the charges were read out.
A. dock B. stand C. stall
Criminal law (3)
1. He was found guilty following a prolonged trial. It was his first _____________ for stealing.
A. acquittal B. conviction C. admission
2. He was accidentally injured while _____________ arrest.
A. pursuing B. resisting C. addressing
3. Several eyewitnesses to the crime _____________ at trial.
A. testified B. disputed C. settled
4. She was found guilty of a serious crime and sentenced _________ to a long term of imprisonment.
A. accordingly B. pursuant C. subsequent
5. The accused must first confirm that his _____________ of guilty was made voluntarily.
A. plea B. stay C. dispute
6. The appellant was sentenced to a term of imprisonment upon conviction for theft by a jury at a Georgia
_________ court.
A. jurisdiction B. trial C. plea
7. Torture is reported to be a part of the _____________ process in over 60 countries.
A. interrogation B. plea bargaining C. cross-examination
8. The prosecution failed to satisfy the _____________. The jury returned a verdict of not guilty.
A. burden of proof B. reasonable doubt C. balance of probabilities
9. In the criminal law, there is a _____________ of innocence until guilt is proven.
A. requirement B. conviction C. presumption
10. Three men have been charged with _____________ to murder a takeaway delivery driver.
A. conspiracy B. projecting C. undertaking
Data protection law (1)
1. The Fantele Corporation is looking for a new data _________________, whose job it will be to
determine the purposes for which, and the manner in which, personal information is to be processed.
A. controller B. processor C. subject
2. The Information Commissioner issued an _________________ notice once she was satisfied that a the
company had contravened the Data Protection Act.
A. enactment B. insistence C. enforcement
3. The Mail _________________ Service (MPS) is designed to assist those consumers in decreasing the
amount of national non-profit or commercial mail (junk mail) they receive at home.
A. Preference B. Proliferation C. Perpetuity
4. We take information protection very seriously and have put in place additional measures to protect
personally _________________ information (PII).
A. implicating B. identifiable C. incriminating
5. The company is developing new security _________________ against such risks as loss or unauthorised
access, destruction, use, modification or disclosure of data.
A. safehouses B. safeholds C. safeguards
6. The company has been accused of bypassing the privacy _______ of users of certain web-browsers.

21
A. settings B. alternatives C. favourites
7. Correspondence from Downing Street officials will no longer be signed with fake names. This follows a
complaint from a man after he received a letter signed by "Mrs E Adams", only to be told it was a
computer-generated _________________.
A. nickname B. pseudonym C. nomenclature
8. Internet giant Google has implemented its new privacy _________________ despite warnings from the
EU that it may violate European law.
A. policy B. preferences C. provisions
9. During the row over privacy _________________, critics have emphasised that it is near impossible to
stop people revealing information on Twitter.
A. mandates B. injunctions C. prohibitions
10. Consumers' express _________________ must first be obtained before their information is shared
beyond their privacy preferences.
A. consideration B. consent C. compensation
Debt financing (1)
1. In Legal English, it is important to be clear on the exact meaning of a term. For example, under US law,
a __________________ is an unsecured debt secured by general credit (the borrower's integrity), and not,
as is the case under English law, by collateral.
A. debenture B. guarantee C. perfection
2. A financing institution may hold a __________________ over land as security for a loan. This often
grants the institution the right to sell should a debtor not be able to keep up agreed repayments.(?)
A. pledge B. mortgage C. bearer bond
3. If the borrower’s parent company refuses to guarantee a loan it may instead give a
__________________, which can act as reassurance to the lender.
A. comfort letter B. promissory note C. floating charge
4. Should the debtor default on its obligations to the lender, the floating charge will __ into a fixed charge.
A. crystallise B. perfect C. upgrade
5. A bank will usually require an interest in the borrower’s assets giving preferential status or priority
should the debtor become insolvent and __________________ on the loan.
A. default B. perfect C. assign
6. Lending institutions will seek to ensure __________________ of the security (i.e. make it valid against
third parties), for example by publicly registering the charges.
A. alienation B. assignation C. perfection
7. The lender will require the borrower to __________________ sufficient assets to secure the loan.
A. endorse B. pledge C. prioritise
8. The grant of a security interest need not include the ______________ of title or ownership rights.
A. perfection B. novation C. conveyance
9. A __________________ is a type of interest-bearing debt; the issuer is required to pay a fixed sum
annually until maturity and then a fixed sum to repay the principal.
A. bond B. mortgage C. pledge
10. Issuers of debt instruments will often be given a __________________ rating, enabling investors to
assess the risks of a particular investment.
A. financial B. credit C. debt

22
 Debt financing (2)
1. A __________________ charge allows the borrower to deal with the charged assets in the ordinary
course of business without the requirement of the bank’s consent.
A. fixed B. floating C. pledged
2. In the case of a __________________ charge, the borrower may not sell or do anything to devalue its
assets without the bank’s consent.
A. fixed B. floating C. pledged
3. An __________________ can be a cost-effective short-term credit facility; for example, using a £500
overdraft facility for 10 days in a month could cost as little as £2.50.
A. availability period B. overdrawn account C. overdraft
4. The bonds will be issued at an issue price of 99.88% of their __________________ amount.
A. principal B. face value C. designated
5. Bonds issued by entities with high credit ratings will generally ________________ a greater return.
A. yield B. quantify C. aggregate
6. Bonds may be sold by the original investor to subsequent investors on the __________________ market
at any time, allowing it to recover some or all of its capital investment before maturity.
A. subordinate B. stock C. secondary
7. The __________________ of bonds for the benefit of spouses is not subject to restriction.
A. recourse B. clearance C. assignment
8. Our fixed rate bonds offer you a simple investment account, with a guaranteed level of _________.
A. recourse B. return C. investment
9. If the borrower defaults on the loan, the holder of the first charge has __________________ over the
holder of the second charge on selling the property to discharge its debt.
A. priority B. principal C. perfection
10. Companies that have a higher __________________ profile and are unable to get funding from banks
or other financial institutions may obtain funding from venture capitalists.
A. portfolio B. risk C. recourse
Debtor-creditor (1)
1. Alan was relieved that after going through bankruptcy, he would finally have the opportunity for a ____.
A. means test B. fresh start C. conversion
2. It is very time consuming to complete the ____ that must accompany the petition for bankruptcy.
A. means tests B. schedules C. confirmation
3. Given the long list of parties to whom Ms Compton owes money, it is unlikely that the credit card
company will receive much on their ______________.
A. unsecured debt B. dismissal C. conversion
4. The developer’s ______________ consisted of several new commercial buildings that lost value when
the real estate market crashed.
A. schedules B. bankruptcy estate C. proof of claim
5. When Bill’s photography business failed, the ______________ named in his filing included suppliers of
film stock, a frame shop and a local bank, all of whom he owed money.
A. bankruptcy estate B. business creditors C. proof of claim
6. After accounting for rent, taxes, car and student loan payments, Carl has little ____________ left.
A. non-dischargeable debt B. non-exempt property C. disposable income

23
7. Once the court proceedings are over, the trustee is charged with making ______________ from the
money left in the estate.
A. distributions to creditors B. conversion C. dismissal
8. The court took my employment history into account and devised a ______________ that ensured that I
would pay off my debts in four years.
A. distribution to creditors B. repayment plan C. relief from stay
9. After the _______ was completed, the creditors received about 35 per cent of what was due them.
A. adjustment of debts B. proof of claim C. confirmation
10. John had fallen behind in his tax payments over the years. He was upset to learn that filing for
bankruptcy would not relieve him of that ______________ to the government.
A. non-dischargeable debt B. controlling C. unsecured debt
Debtor-creditor (2)
1. When the car dealership sold the consumer the car, it also provided the financing for the sale and took
back a ____________ in the car for collateral.
A. mortgage B. purchase money security interest C. floating charge
2. Alice ____________ suit against her ex-husband for overdue maintenance payments.
A. registered B. filed C. claimed
3. Debt incurred by the debtor to buy baby furniture and kitchen items was deemed to be __________.
A. consumer debt B. de minimis C. disposable income
4. Now that the ____________ has been issued, we can stop worrying about paying bills and start
preparing for the upcoming bankruptcy hearing.
A. relief from stay B. proof of claim C. automatic stay
5. When the ____________ was applied, the court determined the debtor had a regular income and
qualified for Chapter 13 bankruptcy.
A. proof of claim B. automatic stay C. means test
6. After filing for bankruptcy, Bill must appear at a ____ to answer questions about his debt and assets.
A. meeting of creditors B. means test C. proof of claim
7. ____________ cannot be cleared through a bankruptcy proceeding.
A. Unsecured debt B. Floating charges C. Non-dischargeable debt
8. The judge allowed the bank ____________ because of the bank’s large risk of loss.
A. relief from stay B. proof of claim C. automatic stay
9. The fact that the debtor had twice as many business-related debts as household-related debts was found
to be ____________, and the court disallowed a Chapter 7 filing.
A. confirmation B. dismissal C. controlling
10. The debtor was able to stop the ____________ of his case from Chapter 7 to Chapter 13 because his
disability ruled out regular employment.
A. conversion B. substitution C. amendment
Discrimination law (1)
1. The South African wine industry has benefited from ______ action schemes to boost black participation.
A. affirmative B. positive C. persuasive
2. The new registration system threatens to harm minority students and ______________ segregation.
A. perpetrate B. progress C. perpetuate
3. Wal-Mart has been at the center of a massive sex discrimination ______________ action lawsuit.
A. caste B. class C. clique
24
4. New inheritance laws are to be introduced to end discrimination against ______________ children.
A. illegitimate B. contraband C. unsanctioned
5. Damages cannot be awarded if the discrimination is found to have been ______________.
A. participatory B. unintentional C. negligent
6. The employer's parent company and its board are facing _______ liability for the alleged discrimination.
A. proxy B. secondary C. vicarious
7. Mr Tomlinson alleged he had been a victim of '______________ and systemic age and sex
discrimination within secondary education'.
A. ensconced B. anchored C. entrenched
8. Although the school was said to be open to all qualified students, it still practised _______ segregation.
A. de facto B. a contrario C. absente reo
9. The corporation clearly states in its ______________ that it does not discriminate against women.
A. bylaws B. legislation C. convention
10. The Equal Status Act 2000 is designed to help discriminated persons _____ equal status under the law.
A. grant B. require C. obtain
Dispute resolution (2)
1. Mediation is often preferable to _____________ in divorce cases because it is usually cheaper, quicker
and less stressful.
A. settlement B. prosecution C. litigation
2. The claimant’s motion for a postponement of the trial was heard at a _____________ proceeding.
A. pretrial B. committal C. deposition
3. Unlike mediation, arbitration involves _____________, which will usually benefit one side in the
dispute more than the other.(?)
A. a trial B. a judicial review C. an adjudication
4. Former Hackensack police Chief Ken Zisa is scheduled to give a _____________ on Wednesday in a
civil rights claim filed by a resident who alleges he tried to suppress her right to free speech.
A. witness B. cross-examination C. deposition
5. Mediation differs from arbitration in that the result of mediation does not usually _____________ the
parties, while the decision of an arbitrator (called the award) does.
A. bind B. obligate C. settle
6. These matters will come into the public _____________ if the case goes to trial. I strongly suggest that
we try to reach an out of court settlement.
A. account B. address C. domain
7. My client accepts your initial compensation payment without _____________ to any further legal action
she may decide to take.
A. precondition B. predetermination C. prejudice
8. In order to save Kangachunks, the creditors granted a ________ of their claims against the company.
A. rescission B. waiver C. remission
9. The neutral third party in a mediation is sometimes known as _____________.
A. a facilitator B. an arbitrator C. a judge
10. The claimant succeeded in her application for _____________ against the defendant for information
relating to the sale of the shares.
A. disclosure B. recovery C. discovery

25
 Due diligence (1)
1. The parties have signed the __________________ covering the basic principles for the design,
construction, and operation of the facility. The final agreement is still to be negotiated.
A. preliminaries B. comfort letter C. heads of terms
2. The seller was prevented, under the __________________ agreement, from actively seeking other
prospective buyers for a specified period.
A. non-compete B. exclusivity C. confidentiality
3. This __________________ does not purport to be all-inclusive or contain all the information that a
prospective investor, lender, partner or interested party requires for their review of this company.
A. information memorandum B. sale and purchase agreement C. heads of terms
4. Any other use of this report, in whole or in part, is expressly forbidden without the prior written
__________________ of the company.
A. authority B. consent C. notice
5. All __________________ contained herein are those of the company and its officers and directors.
A. depictions B. exhibitions C. representations
6. The accompanying “Due Diligence Memorandum” has been prepared for the purpose of ___________
rule 15C (2) (11) of the Westland Securities and Exchange Act of 1934, as amended.
A. complying with B. adhering to C. honouring
7. Additional information relating to La Belle Girl InC. may be _____ by a written request to the company.
A. got B. gotten C. obtained
8. Frequently, golden __________________ clauses contain language that states these benefits may only
be available if the company is taken over by another company.
A. handshake B. parachute C. roof
9. Given the high volume of documentation in the __, we’ll need a large team to help us prepare the report.
A. data room B. data bank C. data repository
10. I'll need you to report fully on all long-term or material contracts the target has entered into with
_____________ parties. A. outside B. alien C. third
Employment Law (2)
1. A member of Parliament has called for ________________ payments to public employees to
compensate for years of below-inflation pay deals.
A. misleading B. derisory C. retroactive
2. Royal Mail is ending its generous final salary scheme to new employees and looking to reconfigure the
scheme in a way that reduces its financial ________________ on the company.
A. burden B. conduct C. benefits
3. The company defended the professional ________ of its staff following reports of illegal practices.
A. conduct B. burden C. collusion
4. The Board has approved a new ________________ package for the managing director, consisting of
salary, bonus and stock options.
A. rescue B. compensation C. assistance
5. An employee whose fixed-term contract has expired and is retained in employment may be considered
to be working under an ________________ contract.
A. unwritten B. indefinite C. unlawful
6. Jersey's education authorities have been asked to take part in _______ talks to avert a strike by teachers.
A. arbitration B. mediation C. conciliation

26
7. The South African wine industry has benefited from ______ action schemes to boost black participation.
A. affirmative B. positive C. discriminatory
8. Before being hired as a full-time employee I first went through a ___________ period of 6 months.
A. statutory B. non-compensatory C. probationary
9. Cases relating to ________________ to work on the grounds of mental illness rose from 56 to 75 over
the last 12 months.
A. inappropriateness B. unfitness C. unwillingness
10. A person having worked for more than ten weeks may not always ________________ the conditions
for being a worker under EU law because it is not genuine work or for other reasons.
A. satiate B. placate C. satisfy
Environmental law (1)
1. Anti-pollution laws are often concerned with one specific ______________, such as air pollution.
A. edition B. installment C. issue
2. Environmental laws attempt to control the __________________ of pollutants.
A. production B. emission C. secretion
3. The release of pollutants is controlled by __________________ strict limits.
A. enforcing B. effecting C. regulating
4. Environmental laws often make polluters _________ for illegal emissions through fines and damages.
A. likely B. liable C. exposed
5. If you think that a company may be __________________ its obligations towards the environment, you
should write to the company directors and remind them of their legal obligations.
A. infringing B. exploiting C. honouring
6. If you are not satisfied with the company’s response, you can then contact the appropriate
__________________ such as the Federal Environment Agency.
A. court B. ministry C. regulatory body
7. EU environmental __________________ is detailed in an action programme entitled Environment
2010: Our Future, Our Choice.
A. policing B. policy C. police
8. There are a number of international _ and conventions that govern global issues such as climate change.
A. bylaws B. acts C. treaties
9. Environmental laws deal with the prevention of pollution and the _________ of environmental damage.
A. remediation B. enforcement C. entrenchment
10. Laws concerning __________________ are usually focused on either a single natural resource (eg
water) or intangible resources such as areas of outstanding natural beauty.
A. conservation B. preservation C. restoration
Equity law (1)
1. In common law systems, ______ is an equitable defence under which a person who waits too long to
bring a claim is not allowed to seek an equitable remedy (=a remedy other than monetary damages).
A. leeches B. lieges C. laches
2. _____________ performance is an order of a court which requires a party to perform a particular act,
usually what is stated in a contract.
A. Specific B. Contractual C. Particular
3. The court issued _____ preventing him from being a director of a public company for five years.
A. a decree nisi B. an injunction C. a writ
27
4. Historically, equity cases came to be understood as only claims for which monetary ___ was inadequate.
A. atonement B. relief C. satisfaction
5. Equitable remedies are distinguished from legal remedies (which are available to a successful claimant
as of right) by the _____________ of the court to grant them.
A. discretion B. distinction C. direction
6. The UK airport operator has begun legal proceedings in the High Court to seek ___ of its contract with
Eurotunnel. This would give it the right to treat the contract as if it had never existed.
A, recession B. redemption C. rescission
7. A _____________ trust may be imposed by a court to benefit a party that has been wrongfully deprived
of its land or other assets.
A. constructive B. constructed C. constrictive
8. Where an agreement has been written down incorrectly, a court can _____________ the contract if one
of the parties can prove what the terms should be.
A. reinstitute B. replace C. rectify
9. _____________ is the legal right that a person or business has when he /she/it pays someone's debt to
recover that money from the debtor.
A. Substitution B. Subrogation C. Subjection
10. An early resolution of legal rights by means of a _____________ judgment prior to the end of a trial
will resolve some or all of the other issues in the matter.
A. declaratory B. substitutionary C. constructive
European Union law (1)
1. The European Union (EU) is not a _______________, like the United States. However, it is much more
than simply an organisation for co-operation between governments.
A. confederacy B. confederation C. federation
2. The primary legislation of the EU results from ________, which are formal written agreements signed
by countries. A. resolutions B. treaties C. statutes
3. The secondary legislation of the EU consists of regulations and _______________.
A. directions B. diversions C. directives
4. Regulations have ______ effect, which means they may immediately become law in all member states.
Other secondary legislation must be implemented by national legislation before they become EU law.
A. immediate B. direct C. instant
5. European laws are passed by EU institutions, to which member states ________ some of their decision-
making powers. A. divulge B. divest C. delegate
6. Since its _______________ in 1999, the euro has been the official currency of the eurozone countries.
A. adoption B. appropriation C. assumption
7. The freedom of movement for workers was established between Switzerland and the EU following a
______ agreement. A. bipartite B. bicameral C. bilateral
8. Title III of the Treaty of Rome includes the freedom of movement for workers, and the right of EU
citizens to work in any member state without a _______________.
A. permit B. pass C. prerogative
9. The European Commission proposes new laws, which are then approved by the EU ______________.
A. legislation B. legislative C. legislaturE
10. The Council of the European Union is the main decision-making __________ of the European Union.
A. arm B. body C. wing

28
 Evidence (1)
1. A defendant cannot be found guilty based on the testimony of an accomplice unless that testimony is
______________ by other evidence.
A. corroborated B. credited C. confronted
2. Generally speaking, ______________ evidence is an out of court statement used to prove the truth of
the matter asserted.
A. unreliable B. trustworthy C. hearsay
3. A court is unlikely to accept the testimony of a known career criminal as ______ or reliable evidence.
A. credible B. corroborated C. circumstantial
4. Your accident attorney will ask for as many details as possible so he or she can build a ______________
lawsuit that you are certain to win.
A. watertight B. groundless C. trustworthy
5. _______ evidence is evidence in which an inference is required to connect it to a conclusion of fact.
A. credible B. corroborated C. circumstantial
6. The parade of prosecution witnesses presented ______________ evidence against the two men. Their
conviction was inevitable.
A. irrefutable B. uncorroborated C. circumstantial
7. QUOP has launched libel proceedings against software giant RollTool, claiming that accusations by
RollTool that it had acted as a rogue trader are ______________.
A. irrefutable B. groundless C. credible
8. In ______________ cases of discrimination on the grounds of sex the law is quite clear – men and
women must be given equal opportunities for promotion in the workplace.
A. test B. uncorroborated C. open and shut
9. The tenant is ______________ liable for the damage caused to the landlord’s property.
A. prima facie B. inter alia C. bona fide
10. The witness did not come across as particularly _______, and so his evidence could not be relied upon.
A. credited B. trustworthy C. watertight
Family law (1)
1. When a court is making a parenting order, the Family Law Act requires it to regard the best
__________________ of the child as the most important consideration.
A. rights B. intentions C. interests
2. This was met with a reply of __________________, his behaviour in Reno had demonstrated that he
had forgiven his wife of those actions that had forced him to seek a divorce in the first place.
A. condonation B. attonement C. clemency
3. If there are no disputes, a decree __________________ can become a decree absolute within weeks,
legally ending the marriage.
A. simple B. nullity C. nisi
4. In the case of _____ distribution, everything you acquired during your marriage is subject to division.
A. just B. equitable C. fair
5. Elian's great-uncle fought unsuccessfully to keep the child in Miami during a dramatic ______ battle.
A. custody B. parenting C. guardianship
6. A man who donated sperm to a childless woman told of his anger at being made to pay child
__________________ for their two children.
A. relief B. support C. allowance

29
7. Mr Fields, 43 denied the allegation that he had __________________ his wife, Joanne, 40, and their
three young children and left the marital home to live with his new lover.
A. abandoned B. banished C. fled
8. There is only one basic ground for divorce: the __________________ breakdown of the marriage.
A. irrevocable B. irresponsible C. irretrievable
9. The judge ruled their 'marriage' in Bali in 1990 was not valid either in Indonesia or under English law,
and a decree of __________________ was granted to Hall.
A. nullity B. nisi C. absolute
10. Unreasonable __________________ is now the most common fact on which to prove the ground for
divorce in England and Wales.
A. comportment B. behaviour C. requirement
Family law (2)
1. Her husband forced her to have sex with him against her will. In some jurisdictions, like Sweden, this
constitutes the crime of ____________ rape.
A. nuptial B. matrimonial C. marital
2. He was ordered to provide ____________ to his ex-wife.
A. alimentation B. maintenance C. subsistence
3. The surviving partner will often experience financial difficulties following the death of a _______.
A. benedict B. groom C. spouse
4. I only saw my father once during my parents' ____________.
A. emancipation B. separation C. custody
5. The rules governing distribution of property on __________ of a civil partnership are identical to those
on divorce. A. dissolution B. disunion C. disintegration
6. Ms Carter was obliged to make monthly payments to her ex-husband under their _____ agreement.
A. marital B. matrimonial C. prenuptial
7. In some states, courts will grant an ____ of a marriage which declares that a marriage was never valid.
A. annulment B. avoidance C. execution
8. She took out a ____________ suit against her former partner after he left the house they had been living
in and returned to his wife.
A. alimony B. palimony C. testimony
9. Now he's asking the Church to ____________ their marriage.
A. annul B. divorce C. quash
10. In the case of ____________, everything you acquired during your marriage is subject to division.
A. equitable distribution B. separation of powers C. community property
Foreign words in Legal English (1)
1. The court's statement concerning liability was merely _______________ and hence not binding on the
judge in the present dispute.
A. mutatis mutandis B. obiter dicta C. ratio decidendi
2. In civil law the phrase __________ indicates legal competence (=a person of full age and legal capacity,
possessing full civil and social rights to act on his or her own without being subject to parental or a
guardian's authority).
A. sua sponte B. sui juris C. organismi competenti
3. The total free leasing Period is 2 months, __ from the date of September 10, 2002 to November 9, 2002.
A. ipso facto B. viz. C. et alii
30
4. A foreign national, _______________, has no right to a U.S. passport.
A. ipso facto B. viz. C. et alii
5. The lands hereinabove described in this lease are subject to an oil, gas and mineral lease executed by
John Taylor Caffery_______________, as Lessors.
A. ipso facto B. viz. C. et alii
6. It is not always easy to identify the _______________ (=the reason for the decision in a case) of a given
case.
A. mutatis mutandis B. obiter dicta C. ratio decidendi
7. The provisions of Sections 11.2-11.12 of the Merger Agreement shall apply to this Amendment ______.
A. mutatis mutandis B. obiter dicta C. ratio decidendi
8. The court found the matter acte_______________ and declined to refer the interpretation of Article 5 to
the European Court of Justice.
A. gâteau B. confondu C. clair
9. As judges, they might be expected _______ to have a profound appreciation of the legal issues involved.
A. sua sponte B. ex officio C. sui juris
10. A trial court has the power to dismiss an action _____ for failure to comply with the rules of civil
procedure or a court's orders. A. sui juris B. sua sponte C. ex officio
Human rights law (1)
1. Opposition groups described the controversial visit as _______________ of recent government
measures, which they claim deny basic human rights.
A. an allowance B. a confirmation C. a condonation
2. The applicants claim this requirement breaches the right against self- _______________ and thereby
their right to a fair trial under the European Convention on Human Rights.
A. incrimination B. accusation C. attribution
3. Many on the left oppose immigration controls as undermining the fundamental right to the freedom of
_______. A. motion B. activity C. movement
4. South Africa has released new rules on black economic ____, saying more people will now benefit.(?)
A. dispensation B. empowerment C. endorsement
5. The court declared that testing employees or prospective employees for HIV without consent constituted
an invasion of _______________ and was unlawful.
A. privacy B. privity C. secrecy
6. Persecution of individuals for the peaceful expression of political views is _______________
internationally recognised norms of human rights.
A. dissonant to B. incongruous with C. inconsistent with
7. The leader of the opposition said that the Prime Minister's statements were in conflict with international
_______________ and conventions.
A. charts B. charters C. chattels
8. Certain confidential information can be ____________ from public access to protect human rights.
A. restricted B. restrained C. reserved
9. The commissioners found him guilty of _______________ violations of human rights.
A. grotesque B. gross C. grand
10. The comments will be seen as a direct rebuff to Mr Deckblatt, who recently criticised a High Court's
ruling on a key _______________ case.
A. sanctuary B. asylum C. refuge

31
 Immigration law (1)
1. University heads are warning that the tightening of student _______________ rules risks undermining
the drive to raise income from overseas students.
A. vis-à-vis B. visa C. viva
2. Asifa and Zahida have claimed they needed to go into hiding for several months and they have now
sought _______________ in the UK.
A. immigration B. asylum C. occupancy
3. Altogether, some 350 000 Palestinians have acquired _______________ through “family reunification”
since Israel's founding in 1948.
A. citizenship B. asylum C. residency
4. Francois Hollande, the Socialist candidate for the French presidential election in April, has been in the
UK to canvas support among French _______________.
A. refugees B. aliens C. expatriates
5. Protesters have marched through Hong Kong to rally against a 2011 court ruling that could allow
thousands of foreign domestic helpers the right to permanent ____ as long as they are in paid employment.
A. nationality B. citizenship C. residency
6. The son was charged in 2006 as an illegal ______________, and his claim of citizenship was rejected.
A. alien B. national C. citizen
7. The _______________ program helps farmers hire the extra labor they need.
A. guest worker B. reciprocation C. exchange
8. The group said that Libyan law prohibited ______ to countries where refugees may face persecution.
A. removal B. emigration C. deportation
9. Around 100 guest workers will be ____________ after being found in violation of labour regulations.
A. domesticated B. repatriated C. excommunicated
10. Thousands of ____ are leaving the embattled West African country of Mali following a military coup.
A. refugees B. émigrés C. expatriates
In the courtroom (1)
1. Her ____________ was cut to six years yesterday by the Court of Appeal.
A. sentence B. remedy C. parole
2. The information came to light during court ____________.
A. procedures B. processes C. proceedings
3. In UK civil trials, __________ (called plaintiffs in the US) must prove their case on the preponderance
of the evidence. This means that their version of events is more likely to have happened than not.
A. inquirers B. applicants C. claimants
4. In criminal trials, the prosecution must prove its case beyond a ____________ doubt.
A. reasonable B. suitable C. legitimate
5. Ms Maxwell's acquittal came after nearly 40 ____________ had given evidence in the case.
A. suspects B. witnesses C. jurors
6. The questioning of witnesses by the other side in a civil or a criminal trial is known as __-examination.
A. cross B. inquisitorial C. adversarial
7. A ____________ is responsible for security and for keeping order in the court.
A. magistrate B. bailiff C. registrar
8. The court ________ helps the judge to prepare for the case and manages related documentation. This
person is also known as the court clerk. A. magistrat B. bailiff C. registrar
32
9. The jurors were all agreed that the defendant was ____________ murder.
A. liable for B. guilty of C. in breach of
10. A ____________ is a special court set up to try a particular case or a particular type of case.
A. tribunal B. quango C. forum
Insider dealing (1)
1. The London Stock Exchange has ____________ an investigation into possible insider dealing.
A. founded B. launched C. grounded
2. Courts sometimes insist on a higher level of ____________ in criminal insider trading cases as
compared with civil cases.
A. scienter B. scientia C. scion
3. Financial investigators have recommended the erection of a __ between the company's various divisions.
A. Hadrian's Wall B. Wall of Sound C. Chinese Wall
4. The defendant is accused of making $63.8m of illegal profit from by trading on ____________ he
received between January 2003 and March 2009.
A. clues B. tips C. perks
5. The information was obtained illegally from a network of highly-placed corporate ____________.
A. insiders B. whistleblowers C. confederates
6. Many jurisdictions require a trader to breach a ____________ duty to the source of the information for
liability to attach.
A. depositary B. mandatory C. fiduciary
7. Market manipulation occurs where someone seeks to __________ the price of financial instruments.
A. distort B. discredit C. corrupt
8. In the EU, the illegal ____________ of information which sends false or misleading signals about
financial instruments is covered by the Market Abuse Directive.
A. articulation B. apportionment C. dissemination
9. While the precise ____________ of the definition of insider is uncertain, officers, directors, and
shareholders with a significant stake in a corporation are generally considered to be insiders.
A. scope B. remit C. ambit
10. Mere ____ of inside information without an accompanying transaction is not a violation of most
insider dealing prohibitions. A. disclosure B. ventilation C. refutation
Insolvency law (1)
1. Shareholder voluntary liquidation is possible when the company believes that it is ______________ and
that there is no compelling reason which could force a liquidation.
A. solvent B. insolvent C. insoluble
2. A creditor may petition the court to have a company placed into ______________ liquidation.
A. intentional B. compulsory C. voluntary
3. The ______________ main function is to sell the assets of the company and distribute the proceeds to
those entitled according to the priorities set out in law.
A. creditor’s B. debtor’s C. liquidator’s
4. A majority of the directors must make a statutory declaration of solvency before a resolution to _____
the assets of the company is passed.
A. wind up B. realise C. crystalise
5. As long as a company is solvent, the directors owe their ______________ duty to the shareholders.
A. fiduciary B. equitable C. contractual
33
6. A company facing financial difficulties may benefit from the protection of a ______________, which is
effectively a freeze on creditors taking action against the company.
A. restructuring plan B. moratorium C. debt for equity swap
7. Now run by court-appointed administrators, the company is attempting to reduce its workforce as part of
a financial ______________ plan.
A. restructuring B. insolvency C. auctioning
8. When a corporation has been declared bankrupt, ________ share the proceeds of remaining assets.
A. creditors B. liquidators C. debtors
9. In some jurisdictions, an______________ order may be granted as a rescue mechanism for insolvent
companies as an alternative to liquidation, allowing them to continue trading.
A. out of court B. administration C. executive
10. The implementation of a restructuring through a scheme of arrangement can take many forms,
including a __, where the creditors convert indebtedness owed by the company into shares in the company.
A. restructuring plan B. moratorium C. debt for equity swap
Intellectual property law (2)
1. A ________________ trade mark grants the holder an exclusive right to use a distinctive mark in
relation to a specific product or a service.
A. notarised B. certified C. registered
2. ________________ holders have economic rights associated with their artistic works. This includes the
right to prohibit the unauthorised use of the works.
A. Copyright B. Patent C. Trade mark
3. Under certain circumstances, a piece of work may be copied without infringing on the rights of the
author. One example of this is the right of ________________ that permits reasonable and limited use of a
work without the author’s permission.
A. fair play B. fair trading C. fair use
4. A firm that is deceiving its customers by misrepresenting its goods or services as being those of another
company may be sued for the tort of ________________.
A. passing off B. intentional interference C. product disparagement
5. For an invention to be granted a patent, it must be shown that the product is actually new. This is known
as the ________________ requirement.
A. inventive B. non-obviousness C. novelty
6. Where a literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work is made by an employee in the__ of his employment,
his employer is the first owner of any copyright in the work subject to any agreement to the contrary.
A. purview B. course C. spirit
7. The song is in the public __________, so you can use it in your film without asking for authorization.
A. domain B. realm C. forum
8. The _____ title of the classic American novel, 'Gone With the Wind' was 'Tomorrow is Another Day'.
A. preliminary B. working C. primary
9. This accomplishment results from extensive research and development and a succession of
________________ steps. It is, therefore, patentable.
A. unoriginal B. obvious C. inventive
10. There is an increasing number of ______________ imports of pharmaceutical products within the
European Union. These products are imported without the permission of the intellectual property owner.
A. lateral B. parallel C. aligned

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 International commercial agency law (1)
1. Companies often use commercial agents when entering foreign markets with which the __ is unfamiliar.
A. principal B. agent C. beneficiary
2. Under an agency agreement the principal typically pays the agent a _____________, calculated as a
percentage of the sales price of the product to the customer.
A. lump sum B. retainer C. commission
3. An agent is not the same as a _____________, who buys stock from the supplier or principal for re-sale
to his or her own customers at a mark-up.
A. broker B. distributor C. representative
4. Most companies involved in international trade make use of agents to develop _______ in their brand.
A. goodwill B. surety C. hope
5. It is common for principals to terminate their agency agreements once a significant customer
_____________ has been established abroad.
A. ground B. profile C. base
6. International commercial agents may be entitled to _____________ if the principal ends the contract
before the agreed termination date.
A. compensation B. commission C. reimbursement
7. Agency contracts commonly require the agent to devote his or her best _____________ to marketing the
products that are the subject of the agreement.
A. efforts B. dealings C. practice
8. The principal will usually undertake to deal with any orders promptly and ensure that all goods supplied
are of _________________ quality.
A. sustainable B. tolerable C. satisfactory
9. Agency law is based on the Latin proverb 'Qui facit per alium, facit per se,' which means 'he who acts
through another is _________________ in law to do it himself.'
A. obliged B. deemed C. required
10. In many jurisdictions, a principal may be held _________________ liable for the acts of its agent.
A. vicariously B. absently C. proximately
International criminal proceedings (1)
1. The lower court ruled that the founder of Wikileaks should be _______________ to Sweden to answer
the accusations against him.
A. extradited B. exhibited C. exonerated
2. The Swedish prosecutor _______________ an arrest warrant against him.
A. warranted B. issued C. guaranteed
3. International extradition is usually based on _______________ agreements.
A. bicameral B. unilateral C. bilateral
4. The EU has criticized France's decision to _______________ Roma migrants.
A. deport B. deposit C. dismiss
5. Danish law ____________ deportation to countries where refugees may face persecution or torture.
A. inhibits B. prescribes C. prohibits
6. The International Criminal Court is a permanent _______________ established to prosecute individuals
for crimes against humanity.
A. tribunal B. council C. administration
7. Interpol publishes a list of the most wanted fugitives __ justice. A. to B. from C. for
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8. Efforts to combat terrorist financing are greatly undermined if jurisdictions do not _______________
the funds or other assets of designated persons quickly and effectively.
A. crystallise B. strip C. freeze
9. While in Panama, he was convicted _______________ in a French court of laundering money from
Colombian drug gangs through a French bank to buy property in Paris.
A. in absentia B. ab initio C. pro se
10. The bank robber was arrested on immigration charges and charges of being an _______________ alien
possessing firearms.
A. unacceptable B. illegal C. unapproved

Incorporation (1)
1. The statute provides for the _______________ of limited liability partnerships.
A. formation B. forming C. formatting
2. The process of starting a new business has been immensely helped by the availability of sample
_______________ documents.
A. legislative B. association C. incorporation
3. The accounting _____ date is the last day of the month in which the anniversary of incorporation falls.
A. renewal B. reference C. referral
4. Pursuant to the initial public offering, 1,000,000 new shares in the company were issued to _______.
A. subscribers B. supporters C. sponsors
5. Incorporation offers the benefit of limited _______________ protection.(?)
A. exposure B. liability C. vulnerability
6. After the founders filed all of the necessary documents, the de facto corporation was deemed to be a de
_______________ corporation.
A. jure B. juris C. jus
7. According to its ____, the object of the society was to provide mutual aid and assistance to its members.
A. articles B. bylaws C. charter
8. Mr Jones was one of the original __ of Thaw Met, which went on to become a very successful company.
A. formers B. incorporators C. receivers
9. The bill outlines a new form of business entity, the incorporated business firm (IBF), which would
require simpler _______________ documents than those necessary for a limited liability company.
A. capitalization B. convention C. constitutional
10. Your _______________ documents must be stamped and approved by the Tax Department.
A. ratification B. Induction C. registration

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