q533 Gas Turbine Plants PDF

National Maritime Center
Providing Credentials to Mariners
U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam
Third Assistant Engineer
Q533 Gas Turbine Plants
(Sample Examination)
9/10/2018 Page 1 of 24
Illustrations: 8
Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Which of the following drawbacks of a gas turbine engine provides the greatest potential for injury to
personnel?
o (A) High temperature of the exhaust gases.

• (B) High pitched noise.
o (C) Susceptibility to foreign object damage.
o (D) Mechanical stresses the engine is subject to.
If choice B is selected set score to 1.
2. What is the difference between an open cycle and a closed cycle gas turbine engine?
o (A) An open cycle retains the working fluid and a closed cycle discards the working fluid.
o (B) A closed cycle heats the working fluid from an internal source and an open cycle uses an
external source for heating the working fluid.
• (C) An open cycle discards the working fluid and a closed cycle retains the working fluid.
o (D) There is no difference because both use the same working fluid.
If choice C is selected set score to 1.
3. The thermal energy added to the gas as it flows through the combustion section has what effect on
the gas?
o (A) Increases pressure.

o (B) Decreases volume.
• (C) Increases volume.
o (D) Decreases pressure.
4. Why is the cycle efficiency higher in the intercooled-recuperated cycle as compared to a simple
cycle gas turbine? Illustration GT-0031
• (A) The intercooler serves to reduce the required high-pressure compressor power while the
recuperator utilizes waste heat from the exhaust to decrease required fuel to achieve the turbine
inlet temperature.
o (B) The intercooler serves to reduce the required high-pressure compressor power while the
recuperator utilizes waste heat from the exhaust to decrease turbine inlet temperature.
o (C) The intercooler serves to increase the required high-pressure compressor power while the
recuperator utilizes waste heat from the exhaust to decrease turbine inlet temperature.
o (D) The intercooler serves to increase the required high-pressure compressor power while the
recuperator utilizes waste heat from the exhaust to increase turbine inlet temperature.
If choice A is selected set score to 1.
9/10/2018 Page 2 of 24
Illustrations: 8
5. The acronym FOD stands for which of the following?
o (A) Fuel oil discharge.

o (B) Fuel override demand.
o (C) Flow offset design.
• (D) Foreign object damage.
If choice D is selected set score to 1.
6. Mechanical work is defined as which of the following?
• (A) A force acting through a distance.

o (B) Rate of doing work.
o (C) A measurement in pounds per square inch.
o (D) Distance traveled over time.
7. Which of the following terms refers to thermal energy in transition?
• (A) Heat
o (B) Foot-Pound
o (C) Power
o (D) Horsepower
8. A temperature of 32.5 degrees Celsius converts to approximately what temperature in degrees

Kelvin?
o (A) 492.5 degrees K.

o (B) 240.5 degrees K.
• (C) 305.5 degrees K.
o (D) 427.5 degrees K.
9. Newton's Second Law of Motion states which of the following?
• (A) An unbalancing force on a body tends to produce an acceleration in the same direction of the
force applied.
o (B) The acceleration of a body is inversely proportional to the applied force.
o (C) An unbalancing force on a body tends to produce an acceleration in the opposite direction of
the force applied.
o (D) The acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the mass.
9/10/2018 Page 3 of 24
Illustrations: 8
10. The term "divergent" is best described as which of the following?
o (A) Thermal and kinetic energy being converted to mechanical energy.

o (B) Maintaining an equal distance between edges.
• (C) Moving away from each other, as the inner walls of a tube that flare outward.
o (D) Approaching nearer together, as the inner walls of a tube that is constricted.
11. The divergent area of the exhaust duct aids in what process?
• (A) Increasing the volume of the exhaust gases.

o (B) Increasing the pressure of the exhaust gases.
o (C) Decreasing the volume of the exhaust gases.
o (D) Increasing the velocity of the exhaust gases.
12. In comparing a centrifugal-type to an axial-type compressor, which of the following statements is

true?
o (A) Centrifugal compressors are more expensive to manufacture than an axial compressor.
o (B) Centrifugal compressors have a lower compression ratio per stage than an axial compressor.
o (C) A centrifugal compressor has a lower resistance to FOD than an axial compressor.
• (D) Centrifugal compressors have a higher compression ratio per stage than an axial flow
compressor.
13. What is the disadvantage of a dual-entry centrifugal compressor compared to a single-entry

centrifugal compressor?
o (A) The dual-entry compressor has a greater efficiency.

o (B) The dual-entry compressor rotates at slower speeds.
o (C) The dual-entry compressor is larger in diameter.
• (D) The dual-entry compressor utilizes a more complicated inlet ducting.
14. Which of the following statements is true regarding centrifugal compressors?
o (A) Centrifugal compressors are complicated in design and heavy.

o (B) The impeller of a centrifugal compressor has a radial inlet and axial discharge.
• (C) The centrifugal compressor is frequently used on small, low power turbines.
o (D) The efficiency of a centrifugal compressor is greater than that of an axial compressor.
9/10/2018 Page 4 of 24
Illustrations: 8
15. Before combustion can occur, the combustion air must be delivered to the combustor at a high-
pressure and low-velocity. High-velocity, low-pressure air is converted to high-pressure, low-velocity
air at what part of a centrifugal type compressor?
o (A) Impeller.
o (B) Inlet plenum.
• (C) Diffuser.
o (D) Turning vanes.
16. A pressure stage of an axial-type compressor consists of which of the following?
o (A) Compressor rotor and a set of inlet guide vanes.

o (B) Set of rotor blades.
• (C) Set of rotor blades and a set of stator blades.
o (D) Set of stator blades.
17. Which of the following is the main advantage of a split-axial compressor case?
o (A) Simpler to disassemble.

o (B) Stronger construction.
• (C) Easier to repair and inspect.
o (D) Cheaper to manufacture.
18. Which of the following terms refers to axial compressor stator blades?
o (A) Nozzles.
o (B) Roots.
o (C) Shrouds.
• (D) Vanes.
19. Two functions of the compressor stator vanes include which of the following?
• (A) Direct air flow to each rotor stage at the correct angle and deliver air to the combustor at the
correct velocity and pressure.
o (B) Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to cause a velocity increase
and a pressure decrease.
o (C) Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to maintain a constant
velocity and produce a pressure increase.
o (D) Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to produce a velocity
increase and maintain a constant pressure.
9/10/2018 Page 5 of 24
Illustrations: 8
20. The primary function of an axial compressor rotor blade is which of the following?
o (A) To act as a diffuser to the air flow causing an increase in pressure with a resultant decrease in
velocity.
o (B) To use centrifugal force to increase the pressure of the air stream.
o (C) To change the direction of the air flow.
• (D) To impart acceleration to the air mass, resulting in an increase in velocity.
21. Which of the following statements is true concerning axial compressor disk-type rotors?
o (A) Rotor consists of rings that are flanged to fit one against the other.
o (B) Rotor discs are held together by through bolts.
• (C) Rotor discs are shrunk fit onto a steel shaft.
o (D) Rotor is only suitable for low-speed compressors.
22. In a gas turbine engine, the majority of the energy is added to the working fluid in which of the
following components?
o (A) Power turbine.

o (B) Compressor.
• (C) Combustor.
o (D) High-pressure turbine.
23. The three most common types of combustors used in gas turbine engines are which of the
following?
o (A) can, derivative, and can-derivative.

o (B) can, vortex, and can-vortex.
• (C) can, annular, and can-annular.
o (D) can, angular, and can-angular.
24. In the operation of a marine propulsion gas turbine, kinetic and thermal energy required to drive the
main propeller shaft are extracted by which of the following?
o (A) Combustor.
o (B) Exhaust gas.
o (C) Multi-stage compressor.
• (D) Power turbine.
9/10/2018 Page 6 of 24
Illustrations: 8
25. How do the high-velocity high-temperature gases cause the gas turbine rotor to rotate?
o (A) By creating a low-pressure area before the rotor.

o (B) By increasing the velocity of the gases.
o (C) By converting the high-velocity gas to low-velocity gas.
• (D) By transferring velocity energy and thermal energy to the turbine blades.
26. The circle of turbine stationary vanes that convert pressure and thermal energy to velocity energy
and direct the combustion gases in the direction of turbine wheel rotation is referred to as what?
o (A) Diffuser assembly.

o (B) Compressor assembly.
o (C) Rotor assembly.
• (D) Nozzle assembly.
27. What method is utilized to allow turbine nozzle blades to withstand high inlet temperatures?
• (A) Air cooling

o (B) Thermoelectric cooling
o (C) Water cooling
o (D) Laser cooling
28. HP turbine blades are generally cooled by which of the following methods?
• (A) Compressed air entering the root and exiting the tip.
o (B) Cooling water entering the root and exiting the tip.
o (C) Compressed air entering the tip and exiting the root.
o (D) Cooling water entering the tip and exiting the root.
29. To keep the exit pressures relatively constant across a HP turbine blade, which type of construction
is generally utilized?
o (A) Rateau.
o (B) Impulse.
o (C) Curtis.
• (D) Impulse-Reaction.
9/10/2018 Page 7 of 24
Illustrations: 8
30. Which of the following is a feature of a power turbine blade that is not found on a high temperature
turbine blade?
o (A) Dovetail roots.

o (B) Bulb roots.
• (C) Interlocking shroud tips.
o (D) Solid blades.
31. Aboard ship, single-shaft gas turbines are used mostly as prime movers for which of the following
applications?
o (A) Single-screw ships

• (B) Generators
o (C) Auxiliary power units
o (D) Multi-screw ships
32. What type of seal is used in the gearbox of a gas turbine engine?
• (A) Carbon ring

o (B) Lip-type
o (C) Labyrinth-Windback
o (D) Fishmouth
33. What is the purpose of the spring in a lip-type oil seal?
o (A) To prevent air from entering the sump

o (B) To remove burrs and dirt from the shaft
• (C) To keep the neoprene snugly fit around the shaft
o (D) To seal against maximum fluid pressure
34. Accelerating the compressor to the self-sustaining speed of the engine is the function of which of the
following components?
o (A) PT shaft
• (B) Starter
o (C) Compressor extension shaft
o (D) Mechanical drive shaft
9/10/2018 Page 8 of 24
Illustrations: 8
35. Which of the following components removes the oil from the transfer gearbox?
• (A) Lube and scavenge pump

o (B) Air/Oil separator
o (C) Lube oil storage and conditioning assembly
o (D) Duplex filter assembly
36. What is the power source for the ignition exciter of a gas turbine engine?
o (A) Four lead-acid batteries

o (B) Ship's 400 Hz system
o (C) Ship's 28 volt DC system
• (D) Ship's 115 volt AC system
37. The lube oil scavenge pressure on the gas turbine engine shown in the illustration is sensed by
which of the following? Illustration GT-0017
o (A) RTD
o (B) Manometer
• (C) Transducer
o (D) Probe
38. How is the lube oil supplied to each bearing in a gas turbine engine controlled?
• (A) Calibrated orifice.

o (B) Regulating valve.
o (C) Lube oil pump.
o (D) Flow divider.
39. On the gas turbine lube oil system shown in the illustration, air and oil are primarily separated in the
air/oil separator through the use of which of the following? Illustration GT-0024
o (A) Strainer
o (B) Filter
o (C) Heater
• (D) Impeller
9/10/2018 Page 9 of 24
Illustrations: 8
40. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of pressurizing the main bearing lube oil sumps on a
typical marine gas turbine? Illustration GT-0023
• (A) Minimizes oil leakage from the rotor shaft.

o (B) Increases lube oil penetration.
o (C) Provides uniform lube oil distribution around the bearing.
o (D) Assists in cooling the lube oil.
41. Gas turbine fuel manifold pressure is established by which of the following actions?
o (A) Closing the fuel recirculating valve.

• (B) Rotating the gas generator.
o (C) Starting the fuel service pumps on high-speed.
o (D) Starting the fuel service pumps on low-speed.
42. Air used to cool the combustion liners and turbine components is referred to as which of the
following?
o (A) Control air.

• (B) Secondary air.
o (C) Primary air.
o (D) None of the above.
43. Which of the following statements is true about the "lockout control" on a synchronous self-shifting
(SSS) clutch?
• (A) Permits operation of the GTE without the rotation of the main reduction gear.
o (B) The mechanism is incorporated into the input assembly of the clutch.
o (C) It is an automatically operated control.
44. How do you manually lockout an SSS clutch?
o (A) Remove the SSS clutch locking pawls.

o (B) Using air pressure.
o (C) Calculate the engagement speed of the SSS clutch.
• (D) Using the special wrench provided.
9/10/2018 Page 10 of 24
Illustrations: 8
45. The purpose of the main reduction gear in a marine gas turbine propulsion installation is which of the
following?
o (A) Transfer low-speed gas turbine rotation to high-speed propeller rotation.

• (B) Transfer high-speed gas turbine rotation to low-speed propeller rotation.
o (C) Increase gas turbine speed to engage the clutch.
o (D) Reduce gas turbine speed to engage the clutch.
46. Rotation of the controllable-pitch propeller (CPP) blades is achieved through axial movement of what
component in the hub body assembly?
• (A) Crosshead
o (B) Sliding block
o (C) Crank pin ring
o (D) Servomotor piston
47. In a typical gas turbine propulsion plant, the main thrust bearing directly positions which part(s) of
the main reduction gear?
• (A) Low-speed gear

o (B) High-speed gear
o (C) Low-speed pinions
o (D) High-speed pinions
48. A magnet pickup typically produces what type of signal output?
• (A) voltage pulse

o (B) high current
o (C) steady DC voltage
o (D) pure sine wave
9/10/2018 Page 11 of 24
Illustrations: 8
49. During an auto-start sequence on the marine gas turbine control console shown in the illustration,
what would be the correct order of events required to occur after the start sequence begins?
Illustration GT-0016
o (A) Power turbine reaches ignition RPM, gas temperature greater than 400 degrees F, power
turbine reaches idle RPM.
o (B) Power turbine reaches ignition RPM, gas temperature greater than 400 degrees F, NGG
reaches idle RPM.
o (C) NGG reaches idle RPM, power turbine reaches ignition RPM, gas temperature greater than
400 degrees F.
• (D) NGG reaches ignition RPM, gas temperature greater than 400 degrees F, NGG reaches idle
RPM.
50. Which of the following are the principle factors that affect the performance of a gas turbine
compressor?
o (A) Fuel flow, air flow, exhaust temperature.

• (B) Pressure ratio, air flow, rotational speed.
o (C) Bleed pressure, fuel pressure, exhaust temperature.
51. Displacement, velocity and acceleration describe three types of which of the following?
o (A) Multiplexers.
• (B) Vibration sensors.
o (C) Random access memory.
o (D) Filters.
52. The only hand tools that should be used on gas turbine engines are chrome plated, nickel plated, or
which of the following?
o (A) Silver plated

• (B) Unplated
o (C) Cadmium plated
o (D) Bronze plated
9/10/2018 Page 12 of 24
Illustrations: 8
53. Which of the following wrenches should NOT be used while working on a gas turbine?
o (A) Flare nut wrench.

o (B) Crowfoot wrench.
o (C) Box wrench.
• (D) Adjustable wrench.
54. When conducting a borescope inspection, you must be aware of all of the following factors EXCEPT
which?
o (A) The internal reference points.

o (B) The limitations of your equipment.
• (C) The engineer’s experience.
o (D) The inspection areas and ports.
55. What are the two primary sources of deposits that build up on compressor blades?
• (A) Salt spray and lube oil mist.

o (B) Salt spray and carbon residue.
o (C) Lube oil mist and carbon residue.
o (D) Lube oil mist and dry particulate matter.
56. The two main types of compressor stall are known as what?
o (A) Flame out and inlet temperature stall.

• (B) Steady state and transient.
o (C) Rapid rise and temperature inversion.
o (D) Overspeed and overload stall.
57. Compressor surge is caused by which of the following factors?
o (A) Increased demand for secondary air.

o (B) Maximum fuel pressure.
o (C) Low ambient air temperature.
• (D) Interrupted air flow.
9/10/2018 Page 13 of 24
Illustrations: 8
58. On a propulsion marine gas turbine, if full power temperatures become excessive, what action
should the operator take?
• (A) Reduce power to stay within limits.

o (B) Water wash the engine.
o (C) Borescope the engine.
o (D) No action is needed until auto shutdown occurs.
59. When working with gas turbine synthetic lube oil, which of the following safety measures should
always be observed?
o (A) thoroughly wash any area of skin contact

o (B) avoid prolonged inhaling of vapors
o (C) wear eye protection and rubber gloves
• (D) All of the above
60. Which of the following components prevent(s) objects smaller than 1/4 inch from entering the GE
LM2500 gas turbine?
o (A) Demister pads

o (B) Centerbody
o (C) Inlet louvers
• (D) FOD screens
61. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fuel oil ignition system of the gas turbine
engine shown in the illustration? Illustration GT-0017
o (A) The igniters will only energize if the exhaust gas temperature falls below a preset value.
o (B) The igniters remain energized throughout the normal operation of the engine.
o (C) The igniters will de-energize when the power turbine exceeds a preset RPM.
• (D) The igniters will de-energize when the gas generator exceeds a preset RPM.
62. What type of combustor is used by the GE LM2500 gas turbine?
o (A) Can
o (B) Can-annular
o (C) Cannular
• (D) Annular
9/10/2018 Page 14 of 24
Illustrations: 8
63. What is the primary function of the main fuel control on the GE LM2500 gas turbine engine?
• (A) To control stator vane angle and GG speed

o (B) To control fuel temperature
o (C) To control fuel pump inlet pressure
o (D) To control stator vane angle and bleed air discharge
64. In order to get a ready indication for a normal start with a GE LM2500 gas turbine engine, what
permissive(s) must be met?
o (A) Fuel supply pressure must be greater than 8 psig.

o (B) Bleed air valve must be closed.
o (C) GG speed must be less than 1200 RPM and all engine trips reset.
• (D) All of the above.
65. For the GE LM2500 gas turbine engine shown in the illustration, the HP turbine 1st stage nozzle
vanes are cooled by which of the following? Illustration GT-0020
o (A) 8th stage compressor air.

o (B) 9th stage compressor air.
o (C) 13th stage compressor air.
• (D) 16th stage compressor air.
66. According to the gas turbine engine illustration shown, the areas labeled "14 thru 29" are locations
for _______. Illustration GT-0006
o (A) fuel nozzles

o (B) bell mouth strut cones
• (C) inspection ports
o (D) thermocouples
67. In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, __________.
o (A) steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler

o (B) unevaporated feedwater is discharged through the skim tube
• (C) steam demand response is comparatively rapid
o (D) steam demand response is slow
9/10/2018 Page 15 of 24
Illustrations: 8
68. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to __________.
o (A) provide a means of draining the boiler

o (B) cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
• (C) warn the engineer of low water level
o (D) open the burners' electrical firing circuits
69. As shown in the illustration, if the vessel was operating at full sea speed, the area labeled "A" would
be used to ________. Illustration MO-0128
o (A) collect stack gas

o (B) preheat the feedwater to the waste heat boiler
• (C) collect the saturated steam generated in area "1" by the engines exhaust gases
o (D) superheat the steam generated by the oil fired mechanical burner
70. Which of the following statements describes how the fuel oil enters the whirling chambers of the
sprayer plates used in an auxiliary boiler return flow fuel oil system?
o (A) Through the outer barrel tube.

o (B) Through the sprayer plate drilled passages.
• (C) Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate.
o (D) Through baffles in the orifice plate.
9/10/2018 Page 16 of 24
GT-0006
Adapted for testing purposes only from Gas Turbine Systems Supervisor
NAVEDTRA 14111
6/10/2015 Further reproduction prohibited without permission. Page 17 of 24
GT-0016
Adapted for testing purposes only from Gas Turbine Systems Technician (Electrical) 3/
Gas Turbine Systems Technician (Mechanical) 3, Volume 2
NAVEDTRA 14114
GT-0017
EE DD
CC
FF
BB AA
NAVEDTRA 14114
GT-0020
NAVEDTRA 14114
GT-0023
Adapted for testing purposes only from Hunt, Modern Marine Engineer's Manual,
Volume I, 3rd edition. Copyright © 1999 by The Cornell Maritime Press.
GT-0024
NAVEDTRA 14114
GT-0031
Adapted for testing purposes only from Gas Turbine Systems Supervisor
NAVEDTRA 14111
MO-0128
Adapted for testing purposes only

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 24 of 24
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National Maritime Center

Providing Credentials to Mariners

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

Third Assistant Engineer

Q533 Gas Turbine Plants

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

o (A) High temperature of the exhaust gases.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Increases pressure.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

5. The acronym FOD stands for which of the following?

o (A) Fuel oil discharge.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

6. Mechanical work is defined as which of the following?

• (A) A force acting through a distance.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

7. Which of the following terms refers to thermal energy in transition?

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

8. A temperature of 32.5 degrees Celsius converts to approximately what temperature in degrees

o (A) 492.5 degrees K.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

9. Newton's Second Law of Motion states which of the following?

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

10. The term "divergent" is best described as which of the following?

o (A) Thermal and kinetic energy being converted to mechanical energy.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

• (A) Increasing the volume of the exhaust gases.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

12. In comparing a centrifugal-type to an axial-type compressor, which of the following statements is

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

13. What is the disadvantage of a dual-entry centrifugal compressor compared to a single-entry

o (A) The dual-entry compressor has a greater efficiency.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

14. Which of the following statements is true regarding centrifugal compressors?

o (A) Centrifugal compressors are complicated in design and heavy.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

16. A pressure stage of an axial-type compressor consists of which of the following?

o (A) Compressor rotor and a set of inlet guide vanes.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Simpler to disassemble.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Power turbine.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) can, derivative, and can-derivative.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) By creating a low-pressure area before the rotor.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Diffuser assembly.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

• (A) Air cooling

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Dovetail roots.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.