AP C1-DA-Bits NRR

AP Ward / Grama Sachivalayam Question Bank - Category I (Part A & B) and Digital Assistant Bits
GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY
1. In a Dengue patient, the following would fall down drastically?
Count of Platelets
2. The following is generally used in bone healing in humans?
CissusQuadrangularis
3. Radioactivity was discovered by?
Henri Becquerel
4. The most abundant element in the Universe is?
Hydrogen
5. In a healthy adult, what is the approximate percentage of white blood cells in total blood
volume?
One percent
6. During winter in cold countries, the following is mixed to melt the ice on the roads?
Salt
7. Which of the following planets moves around the Sun with highest speed?
Mercury
8. Apart from Sun light and Carbon Dioxide, the source for production of Oxygen through
photosynthesis in plants is?
Water
9. In Chlorophyll, the central metal ion is?
Magnesium
10. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
Hydrogen
11. Which of the following is an inorganic lubricant?
Graphite
12. When an iron nail gets rusted, its weight?
Increases
For Model Papers, Practice Papers, Materials, etc. Visit www.matterhere.com 1

13. In its natural state, the odour of LPG is?
LPG is odourless gas
14. Out of the following, which compoundhas highest solubility in Water?
Glucose
15. Gamma Rays are?
Rays without any charge
16. The most common method Uranium enrichment is?
Centrifugation
17. In vulcanization of natural rubber, the following is used?
Sulphur
18. If a person goes down into a deep mine, his weight?
Decreases slightly
19. Oyster shells are composed primarily of?
Calcium Carbonate
20. A hydrometer is used to measure?
Relative density of liquids
21. The intensity of earthquakes is measured using?
Mercalli Scale
22. Recently India held a 2+2 dialogue with?
USA
23. The theme of National Statistics Day celebrated on 29th June, 2018 was?
Quality Assurance in Official Statistics
24. What of the following is not one of the objectives of Solar Charkha mission launched by
President of India in June, 2018?
To provide solar charkhas to 10 lakh handloom weavers
25. Manufacture and import of which of the following hormones is banned by Government of India
from 1st July, 2018?
Oxytocin

26. Who amongst the following is one of the winners of World Food Prize, 2018?
Lawrance Haddad
27. Who is the present Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Harivansh Narayan Singh
28. Which country gifted two giant tortoises to India, which are kept at Nehru Zoological Park,
Hyderabad in June, 2018?
Seychelles
29. What is the name of the program launched recently by Indian Railways on ethics in public
governance?
Mission Satyanishta
30. By which name, the longest lunar eclipse of the Century (occurred in July, 2018) is called?
Blood moon
31. Who amongst the following got Ramon Magsaysay Award for 2018?
SonamWangchuk
32. What is name of the flagship programme launched by Government of India in 2018 aiming at
holistic nutrition for children, adolescents, pregnant women and lactating mothers?
PoshanAbhiyan
33. To which country India donated 200 cows during Prime Minister’s visit in July, 2018?
Rwanda
34. What is the name of the navy sailor from India, who participated in Golden Globe Race and was
rescued by a French fishing vessel when his boat was damaged in deep waters recently?
AbhilashTomy
35. The draft of National Register of Citizens was recently published with reference to the State of?
Assam
36. Which High Court of India recently declared entire animal kingdom as legal entities with rights,
duties and liabilities of a living person?

Uttarakhand High Court
37. As per the Public Affairs Index, 2018, which is the best governed State in India?
Kerala
38. How many medals are won by India at Asian Games, 2018?
69
39. Who out of the following persons won a Gold medal at Asian Games, 2018 in Wrestling?
VineshPhogat
40. Which of the following athletes is nicknamed as “Dhing Express”?
Hima Das
41. Who won the Gold medal in Women’s Singles Category of Badminton at Asian Games, 2018?
Tai Tzu-Ying
42. Which of the following Indus Valley sites is in India?
Lothal
43. Ancient people of South India buried the dead along with weapons, tools, pottery etc in graves
and placed big stones around the graves. These structures are known as?
Megaliths
44. Which metal did the ancient Indians use first?
Copper
45. The administrative setup of early Aryans was in the nature of?
Tribal polity
46. The interaction of Indian craftsman with Greeks and Romans resulted in the following art form?
Gandhara Art
47. Which of the following Satavahana Kings had immense love for overseas trade and navigation so
much so that the coins issued by him had picture of a ship?
YagnasriSatakarni
48. The Grand Trunk Road from Indus to Bengal was restored by one of the following rulers?
Sher Shah Suri

49. The Mansabdari system was introduced by?

a. Sher Shah
b. Akbar
c. Jehangir
d. Aurangazeb
50. In Mughal period, the letter of credit issued by Shroffs (money keepers) to people who
deposited cash for collecting it later or collecting the cash at a different place after journey was
called?
a. Farman
Hundi
51. Out of the following, who plundered Delhi and carried away the Koh-i-Noor diamond?
Nadir Shah
52. Out of the following, who introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal?
MurshidQuli Khan
53. Which was the seat of power of Peshwas?
Poona
54. Who were executed by the British along with Bhagat Singh on 23rd March, 1931?
Sukhdev and Rajguru

55. The Poorna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by Indian National Congress in 1929 at?
Lahore Session
56. At the time of Independence, which of the following Nawabs announced accession to Pakistan
though most of the population desired to stay with India?
Nawab of Junagadh
57. Partition of Bengal was done by the British in the year?
1905
58. Out of the below, a prominent leader of militant nationalist thought was?
Bal GangadharTilak
59. The Swadeshi movement was also known in Andhra region as?
VandeMataram Movement
60. Out of the following who wrote the “History of Indian National Congress”

BhogarajuPattabhiSitaramayya
61. Why did Congress Ministries in provinces resign in 1939?
Protesting against decision of Viceroy to make India as party to war with Germany
62. Approximately how many people died in Great Bengal Famine of 1943 (choose the nearest
figure)?
About 20 lakh
63. The visit of Mahatma Gandhi to Naokhali between November 1946 to March 1947 after the riots
resulted in?
Gandhiji failed to stop the enmity and violence
64. Out of the following, who first referred the matter of “Kashmir” to the United Nations Security
Council in 1948?
India
65. Out of the persons below, Who founded the Hindusthan Socialist Republican Association?
Bhagat Singh
66. Out of the below, India is part of the following land?
Gondwana Land
67. The valleys in Siwalik ranges are called as?
Duns
68. What is a “doab”?
An area between two rivers
69. “Ooty” is situated in?
Nilgiris
70. Which of the following places in Andaman & Nicobar Islands is of volcanic origin?
Barren Island
71. Which of the following rivers is located in Brahmaputra basin?
Teesta

72. Which of the following is the standard meridian of India?
82°30' E
73. Which of the following places in India receives the highest average annual rainfall?
Mausimram
74. In Kerala, the pre-monsoon showers are popularly known as?
Mango showers
75. Hangul deer is endemic habitant of?
Kashmir
76. Red Sanders are endemic species of the following hill range?
Seshachalam range
77. What is the position of Andhra Pradesh State in Lime Stone production (quantity) in India?
Third Position
78. Sillimanite mining is done in the following district of Andhra Pradesh?
Srikakulam
79. As per Census 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh has lowest number of
rural population as percentage of total population of the District?
Visakhapatnam
80. As per Census, 2011, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh had the highest
percentage of child population (as percentage of total population of the district)?
Kurnool
81. The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is?
Aroya Konda
82. As mentioned in the AP Reorganization Act, 2014, which port was to be developed by the
Government?
Duggarajapatnam
83. The grasslands of North America are known as?
Prairies

84. The varying lengths of day and light at different times of year at any place on earth is due to the
fact that?
The axis of the earth is inclinedto the elliptic of revolution around Sun
85. Majority of the deserts of the World lie between the following latitudes?
0 to 15 degree north and south latitudes
86. The Masai tribesman are residents of?
Savannahs
87. The temperature of the “Photosphere” of Sun is about?
6000 degrees centigrade

88. Which is the most earthquake prone nation in the World?
Japan
89. As per latest data, which Country of the World produces the highest quantity of Gold?
China
90. As per State of Forest report, 2015, which of the following States has highest forest cover as
percentage of its area?
Mizoram
91. Which of the following stretches of Andhra Pradesh is most vulnerable to Cyclones?
Ongole to Machilipatnam
92. Which Cyclone caused maximum loss of human life in Andhra Pradesh?
1977 Cyclone
93. The speed of a Tsunami wave approaching the shore would be?
The Tsunami wave slows down in speed
94. In the post disaster scenario, which of the following operations play major role?
Search and Rescue
95. In earth quake resistant design, the door and window openings on walls should be?
Small and centrally located
96. Which of the following Statements is most appropriate?

I. Earthquakes do not kill people

II. It is badly designed buildings that kill people
Both Statements are true and Statement II is the reason behind Statement I
97. For the purpose of reducing wind force on a roof, the following type of roof is preferable?
Pyramidal type
98. The responsibility to cope up with natural disasters essentially lies with?
State Government
99. The nodal ministry to coordinate disaster management operations in case of biological disasters
is?
Ministry of Home Affairs

100. Who heads the National Crisis Management Committee constituted by Central Government for
disaster management?
Cabinet Secretary
101. Which Article of the Constitution prescribes six freedoms?
Article 19
102. The Union of India is?
Indissoluble union of States
103. The Inter State Council is Constituted under which Article of the Constitution?
Article 263
104. Out of the following, what is true about the fundamental rights?
They are granted by the Constitution
105. To become a Member of Parliament of India, a person has to be?
No educational qualification is necessary
106. The word “Secularism” was added to the preamble of the Constitution through?
42nd Amendment

107. The Salaries and allowances of Judges of Supreme Court of India are met from?
Consolidated fund of India
108. The right to education is a?
Fundamental right
109. In which year, Emergency was promulgated by President due to “internal disturbances”?
1975
110. What is the minimum age for a person to be elected as President of India?
35 years
111. How many readings would a bill undergo in a house of Parliament before it is passed?
Three readings
112. How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha from the fields of Arts,
Literature, Science, Social Service etc?
12
113. In how many days after receipt, the Legislative Council has to send back a “money bill” to
Legislative Assembly?
14 days
114. Which of the following is an “essential function” of Gram Panchayat?
Maintaining burial grounds
115. Out of the following, which is the major source of revenue for Panchayats?
Property Tax
116. Out of the following, which is not a feature of the 1991 New Economic Policy?
Nationalization
117. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, the objective is to stabilize the population by the
year?
2045

118. FEMA was passed in the parliament in the year 1999 replacing FERA. One of the objectives of
FEMA as stated in the preamble of the Act is?
Facilitating external trade and payments
119. The Five Year Plan that proposed land reforms through cooperative land management for the
first time is?
Second Five Year Plan
120. The growth of the Indian economy in the post 1991 period is mainly attributable to?
Service led growth
121. The most important item in India’s imports in term of expenditure for most of the post-reform
period is?
Petroleum, oil and lubricants
122. The largest recipient of private remittances in the world in 2015 is?
India
123. The current exchange policy of India is?
Market determined exchange rate
124. The state which occupies the 1st position in bank depositsas on March 2017 is?
Maharashtra
125. The establishment of which institution marks the beginning of the era of development
financing in India?
IFCI
126. The Five Year Plan with the motto “Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth” is?
Twelfth Five Year Plan
127. The Chairman of Goods and Service Tax Council is
Union Finance Minister

128. An example of a hidden subsidy is seen in
Higher education in Public Universities
129. During the first four decades of planning in India, principal component of revenue of the central
government was from
Indirect taxes
130. Structural adjustment programs deal with
Reducing fiscal imbalances and adjust economy to long term growth
131. Book is to Library as Manuscript is to?
Archives
132. Monkey is to Nut as Sheep is to?
Grass
133. Find the odd one out of the following?
Wary
134. Ram runs faster than Shyam but is not fast as Janaki whilst Jane always beats Ram. Who is the
fastest runner amongst the above?
The above information is not sufficient to find out the correct answer
135. Jagan, Kishan and Madan have two favourite foods each. One of them does not like Rasgulla but
likes Lemon Rice. Kishan likes Parathas but Jagan does not like them. Madan likes Rasgulla.
Kishanand Jagan like Salad. Who likes Lemon rice if it is one of the favourite foods, the other
being Rasgulla, Salad and Parathas?
Jagan
136. Find the next number in the series 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 …..?
13
137. Find the next number in the series 2, 5, 11, 23, 47?

95
138. If coffee is 4, 16, 7, 7, 6, 6; then tea is?

21,6,2
139. Find the next figure in sequence?
140. Find the missing figure in the sequence of diagrams?

141. If AWAKE is coded as ZVZJD, what is the code for FRIEND?

EQHDMC
142. If DIAMOND is coded as WRZNLMW then GARNET is coded as?
TZIMVG
143. If PROTECT IS CODED as QSPUFDU, then DESTROY is coded as?
EFTUSPZ
144. A clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
180
145. Rajesh went 15 km to the North from his house. Then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then
he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10 km. In which
direction is he from his house?
North

The following table provides education details of 16 year old children for three years. Read the table
carefully and answer the questions below:
Type of education Year and percentage of Children

2015 2016 2017
Full time Intermediate 69.4 69.8 71.2
Out of which
Study in Aided Colleges 28.0 28.2 28.9
Study in Govt Colleges 6.4 6.3 6.2
Study in Private Colleges 35.0 35.3 36.1
Polytechnic Colleges 17.4 16.8 15.5
Not studying in any college 13.2 13.4 13.3
Number of 16 year old (in thousands) 600.4 605.1 609.2
146. In 2016 how many 16 year old children were studying in Polytechnic Colleges (rounded off to
nearest integer)?
a. 101657
147. How many 16 years old more were studying in Private colleges in the year 2017 compared to
year 2016 (rounded off to nearest integer)?
None of the given options is correct
148. In 2015, what is the ratio of students in aided colleges: students in Govt colleges: students in
Private Colleges (rounded off to two decimals)?
4.38 : 1 : 5.47
149. What is the aggregate number of children who were not studying in any college for the three
years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
241360
150. What is the aggregate number of children who were studying Intermediate in Govt college for
the three years together (rounded off to nearest integer)?
114317

COMPUTER ENGINEERING
1. In ______ all the logic are implemented using resistors and transistors.
Resistor Transistor logic
2. _______ is the maximum number of inputs that can be driven by a logic gate.
Fan-out
3. ________ logic family implements the logic gates using MOSFET devices
MOS Logic
4. For which logic gate, the output is "true" if either, but not both, of the inputs are "true."
XOR
5. The _______ latch is hazard free.
Earle Latch
6. The input must be held steady in a period around the rising edge of clock known as _______.
Aperture
7. The flag size of an HDLC frame is ________
8 bits
8. Contents of one disk to another disk can be done using the command _______
DISKCOPY
9. The assembler takes as its source code _________ language program
Assembly
10. In computer graphics, digital differential analyzer is used for ________ of lines, triangles
and polygons.
Rasterization
11. The heuristic function A* should estimate the ___________ cost of reaching the destination.
Minimum
12. The language that doesn’t use user defined functions, pointers and user defined types is____
COBOL
13. ___ is a channel access method used by various radio communication technologies.
CDMA
14. ______ acts as a multiple-input and single-output switch.
Multiplexer
15. The small extremely fast, RAM’s are called as _______
Cache
16. The decoded instruction is stored in ______
Instruction Register
17. The instruction, Add #45, R1 does _______

Adds 45 to the value of R1 and stores it in R1
18. Let R1 and R2 be regular sets defined over the alphabet then:
Σ* -R1 is regular.
19. If L1 and L2 are context free languages and R a regular set, ___ languages below is not
necessarily a context free language.
L1 ∩ L2
20. The string 1101 does not belong to the set represented by
(10)* (01)* (00+11)*
21. Identify which cannot be a advantageous development tool for working with an expert
system
Recursion
22. To make an algorithm in to a program which system can be used that is defined by Turing
machine?
binary
23. Which of the following technology is used to improve the relationship about people and
computer machines?
human factors
24. Which instinct determines the basic learning problem?
Feedback
25. Spot out utility functions used in game playing algorithm?
Linear weighted polynomial
26. What will be the outcome if the true function is contained by hypothesis?
Unrealizable
27. Decision tree technique culminates its decision with______
Sequence of tests
28. In a graphic system the number of pixels in a buffer is called _____
Resolution
29. Electrical energy can be converted into light using_____ device?
Emitters
30. In which system, the Shadow mask methods are commonly used
Raster-scan system
31. For calculating pixel positions, which of the following is an appropriate algorithm ?
DDA line
32. Which body transformation will make the objects to move without deformation.
Translation
33. Figure out the model that exhibits dynamic behavior of the architecture?
Behavioral Model
34. In UML which diagrams support event based modeling?
State chart
35. Identify the model that hamper in early defining of requirements.
Prototyping & Spiral
36. Figure out the right option in the below
Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
37. The finest type of module coupling of the following is _________
Data Coupling
38. Which type of cohesion exhibits that all operations should be executed in same time span?
Temporal
39. Which is right as far as testing is concerned?
Evaluating deliverable to find errors
40. Cyclomatic complexity can also be called as_____
White box testing
41. The alias name of white box testing is _________
Structural testing
42. ______ interface transfer data to and from the memory through memory bus.
Direct Memory Access
43. Which of the following method cannot access information from memory locations
Indirect Access
44. The relationship between a function and its binary variables can be represented in a ____
Truth Table
45. Most common register, used to store data taken out from the memory is ____.
Accumulator
46. Which of the following is not a step in floating point addition and subtraction.
Reset Register
47. Identify the disadvantage of Pipelining from the following:
High instruction latency
48. Unplanned interrupts which are produced during execution of program is called ___
Exception
49. Data transfer between the CPU and the peripherals is initiated by the ______
CPU
50. __ algorithm determines whether there is a path between any two nodes in the graph.
Warshall
51. Cycle graphs with an even number of _______ are bipartite.
Vertices
52. Planar graphs have graph genus _______
0
53. For any planar graph with v vertices, e edges and f faces, we have _______
v−e+f=2
54. Noise margin is high in which of the following___
Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
55. The decimal equivalent of the binary number 101011 is ______
(43)10
56. The binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number (3A5)16 is ______
(0011 1010 0101)2
57. Binary tree traversed in _____ traversal will produce sorted key values in ascending order.
In-order
58. A ___ binary tree has the minimum possible maximum height for the leaf nodes.
Balanced
59. In PASCAL, the data type ____ is equivalent to an array of boolean values.
Set
60. ____ is a variant that added non-numeric labels, a return statement and expressions as
names of types.
Super Pascal
61. Which of the following statement doesn’t exist in FORTRAN
Halt
62. The unformatted I/O command for reading a tape in FORTAN is ______
READ TAPE
63. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?
3 NF
64. Let R = ( A, B, C, D, E, F) be a relational schema with the following dependencies: C F,
E A, ECD, A2. Which of the following is the key for R?
EC
65. Which one of the following statements about normal form is FALSE?
. Lossless, dependency-preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible.
.66. How many units in a single bus structure communicate at a time?
Two
67. Which of the following units cannot be used to measure the speed of computer?
BAUD
68. B+-trees are preferred to binary trees in databases because
Disk access is slower than memory access.
69. Banker’s Algorithms is used as _________________.
Deadlock Avoidance method
70. Assume that there are 3 page frames which are initially empty. If the page reference string
is 1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6, the number of page faults using the optimal replacement policy
is__________.
7
71. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s anomaly?
FIFO
72. ________ Uses a standard called Distributed Queue Dual Bus (DQDB) or refer to as 802.6
IEEE Standard.
MAN
73. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________.
2
74. Manchester encoding is principally designed to _______________.
Ensure that a transition occurs in the centre of each bit period.
75. Count-to-infinity problem arises in ___________Routing algorithm.

Distance Vector
76. ____ is a path that visits each vertex of the graph exactly once.
Hamiltonian Path
77. A graph with chromatic number < = 2 is called ________
Bi-colorable
78. The __ counts the number of ways a graph can be colored using no more than given colors.
Chromatic Polynomial
79. Which of the following is not an application of Graph coloring?
Classification
80. _____ is the formal specification of the behavior of computer programs and programming
languages.
Formal Semantics
81. The worst time complexity of Binary Search tree is ________
O(n)
82. The average time complexity of AVL Tree is __________
O(log(n))
83. _____ is a comparison-based algorithm that builds a final sorted array one element at a time.
Insertion Sort
84. The best-case time complexity of Heap Sort is _________

O(n log n)
85. An ____ is a collection of operators and operands that represents a specific value.
Expression
86. The Postfix expression for the given Infix expression (A + B) * (C – D) is ______
AB+CD-*
87. The Postfix expression value of the expression 5 3 + 8 2 - * is _________
48
88. Which of the following statement is not true?
There can be only single state in both DFA and NFA.
89. The data structure that can be used in Pushdown automata is ___________
Stack
90. ___ can be transformed into an equivalent nondeterministic pushdown automata.
Context-free grammar
91. Which of the following does not exist in context free grammar?
End Symbol
92. A Grammar which produces more than one parse tree for a sentence is called ________.
Ambiguous
93. The computer language generally translated to pseudo-code is ____
Assembly
94. Which of the following is not a basic operation of a Turing Machine?
Store the symbol on the square of the head.
95. The tuple ‘Q’ in Turing machine refers to _______
States
96. Type 0 grammar is known as ______ grammar.
Context free
97. In C++, the _________ cannot be passed to a function.
Structure
98. Which of the following is true in respect to Distributed Systems?
Loosely coupled O.S software on a tightly coupled hardware.
.99. Dijkstra’s algorithm is based on
Divide and Conquer paradigm
100. Which of the following is not a multitasking operating system?
DOS
101. The ____ will scan partition table located within sector, for an active partition.
Master Boot Record
102. The centralized operating system running in UNIX is __________.
Kernel
103. Which of the following is not a UNIX feature?
File Allocation Table
104. ___ is a file system used to help user to hide different file systems complexities.
Virtual File System
105. _______ help interpret symbols, their types, and their relations with each other.
Semantics
106. ____ is the extraction of individual words or lexemes from an input stream of symbols.
Lexical Analysis .
107. ________ parsing is top-down parsing using a stack as the memory.
LL(1)
108. We can look up a directory object by supplying its name to the __________ service.
Directory
109. ___ file system in volatile main memory, contents erased if the system reboots or crashes.
tmpfs
110. Which of the following is the base directory representation in Linux file system?
/
111. ____ is a description of sequences of events taken together, lead to a system doing
something useful.
Usecase diagram
112. A _____ model is an abstract model that describes how data is represented and used.
Data model
113. A ___ typically simulates few aspects and may be completely different from final product.
Prototype
114. __ idea is to build computers with easily replaceable parts that use standard interfaces.
Modular design
115. _____ is the degree of interdependence between Software modules.
Coupling
116. _________ cohesion is when parts of a module are grouped by when they are processed.
Temporal
117. A ε-free LL(1) grammar is also a ______ grammar.
SLR(1)
118. Which of the following is a bottom-up parser?

LR
119. Which of the following layer doesn’t belong to Media layers?

Transport
120. The ___ layer provides link between two directly connected nodes.
Data link layer
121. The protocol data unit in the physical layer is ________
Symbol
122. Regular languages are generated by ________ languages.
Type - 3
123. The smallest free form that may be uttered in isolation with pragmatic content is ___.
Word
124. Which of the following is not a graphic primitive.
Richtext
125. Which of the following is not a subfield of animation.
Rendering
126. The time complexity of Breadth-First search is _______
O( V + E)
127. Which of the following is not true towards Spanning tree.
Adding one edge to a spanning tree will not create a circuit.
128. Identify which of the following is not a characteristic of Data Structure.
High lines of code
129. Data items that cannot be divided are called as _______.
Elementary items
130. Identify the advantage of SIMD from the following.
Instructions operate on all loaded data in a single operation.
131. In MIMD, each processor is connected to its ____ immediate neighbors.
Four
132. Identify which of the following is not a type of Shared Memory.
Shared Memory: Ring-based
133. _____ is a logic programming language associated with artificial intelligence.
Prolog
134. A ___ is a general reusable solution to a commonly occurring problem in Software design.
Design Pattern
135. Consider the join of a relation R with a relation S. if R has m tuples and S has n tuples,
then the maximum and minimum sizes of the join respectively are:
mn and 0
136. Context-free languages are:

Closed under union
.137. ____ is one of LISP’s major data structure.
Linked list
138. Which of the following is an expression oriented language.
LISP
139. In synchronous framing, a flag sequence consists of ____ consecutive 1-bits.
6
140. ___ is a computer system that emulates the decision-making ability of a human expert.
Expert system
141. _____ takes executable module generated by linker.
Loader
142. ___ incorporates findings from psychology about how humans solve problems..
Knowledge representation
143. The compress or expand of the dimensions of an object is called ______
Scaling Process
144. ____ of a data point is accomplished through the addition of factors to the x and y
coordinates.
Translation
145. A ___ is a finite state machine whose output depends on present state and present input.
Mealy Machine
146. ________ is the set of all objects that are a member of A, or B, or both.
Union
147. Which of the following is not a representation of a Set.
Equal set
148. ___ is the allocation of a Computer’s processor power to specific tasks.
Scheduling
149. Symbol used to get the value of the variable that the pointer is pointing to ___.
‘*’
150. A function ___ tells the compiler about a function’s name, return type and parameters.
Declaration

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

1. A series RC circuit is suddenly connected to a dc voltage source of V volts. The current in
the circuit, just after the switch is closed is equal to
V/R
2. What is the number of chords of a connected graph of e edges and n vertices?
e –n +1
3. Three parallel resistive branches are connected across a dc supply. What will be the ratio
of the branch currentsI1:I2:I3 if the branch resistances are in the ratio R1:R2:R3::2:4:6?
6:3:2
4. A network has 4 nodes and three loops. What is the number of branches in the network?
6
5. The phase difference between I2 and I3 is
30 º
6. If the reading of two wattmeter’s are equal and positive in two-wattmeter method, the
load pf in a balanced 3-phase 3-wire circuit will be
Unity
7. A balanced delta connected load of (8 + 𝑗6)Ω per phase is connected to a 40V, 50Hz, 3-
power supply. If the input pf is to be improved to 0.9 by connecting a star connected
capacitor bank, required kVAR of the bank is
10.2
8. A two port device is defined by the following pairs of the equations
I1=2V1+V2 and I2=V1+V2 ,Its impedance parameters(Z11,Z12,Z21,Z22)are given by
(1,-1,-1,2)
9. If the permeability of a material is 0.999991 it can be classified as
diamagnetic
10. A d’Arsonal meter of 200Ω dc coil and 0-1 mA sensitivity gives full scale reading of 10
Amps on using a shunt resistance of
0.02 Ω
11. A good dielectric should have all the following properties except
high dielectric loss
12. In a ballistic galvanometer, damping follows

logarithmic decay
13. Frequency compensation in moving iron instrument is achieved by connecting

a capacitor across the fixed coil
14. A capacitor consists of two metal plates each 500 x 500 mm2 and 6 mm apart. The space
is filled with 4mm thick glass plate and a layer of paper of 2mm thickness. The relative
permittivity of the glass and paper are 8 and 2 respectively. Neglecting fringing effect, the
capacitance will be
1475 pF
15. While solving networks using nodal analysis, the choice of reference node
affect the voltages of various nodes

16. Which of the following theorems can be applied to any linear or nonlinear, active or
passive, time-variant or invariant network?
Tellegen’s
17. The dynamic impedance of the ideal tank circuit under resonance condition with L =
10MH and C = 1 µF is
infinity
18. Which of the following statement is valid for series resonance circuit
Voltage magnification circuit
19. Ideal voltage source have
Zero internal resistance
20. Kirchhoff’s Current Law is based on
Law of conservation of charge

21. Mesh analysis is not applicable for
Non-planar circuits
22. The ratio of number of loop and nodal equations required to solve a given network
containing 6 branches and 3 nodes will be
4:2
23. The unit of 𝐿⁄ 2
𝑅
farad
24. If 𝑣 (𝑡) = 2 + 3√2 cos(10𝑡 + 45°) − 3 cos 10𝑡 volts then the average and rms values are
respectively
2, √𝟖. 𝟓
25. The condition for reciprocal network in case of hybrid parameters is
𝒉𝟏𝟐 = −𝒉𝟐𝟏
26. What is the maximum possible mutual inductance with L1=8µH L2=2µH
4µH
27. The abcd parameters of two two-port networks can be multiplied when they are connected
in
Cascade
28. Which of the following is not Maxwell’s equation
𝝏𝑩
𝛁 × 𝑯 = − 𝝏𝒕

29. The rank of a tie-set matrix is given by number of

Links
30. The polarization of a dielectric material is
P=𝜺𝟎 (𝜺𝒓 − 𝟏)E
31. Which of the following is zero as applied to electromagnetic fields
𝛁. (𝛁 × 𝑨)
32. The number of fundamental cut-sets is given by number of
Twigs
33. Magnetic field intensity due to an infinite sheet current of current density K A/m is
K/2
34. The dual element value of a 6 ohms resistor is
6 mhos
35. A sinusoidal source of voltage V and frequency f is connected to a series circuit of
variable resistance R and fixed reactance X. The locus of the tip of the current phasor as R
varied from 0 to ∞ is
a semicircle with a diameter of V/X
36. The flux in a magnetic circuit is analogous to…… in the electric circuit
current
37. Frequency compensation in moving iron instrument is achieved by connecting
a capacitor across the fixed coil
38. The Lorentz Force Law is

qE + q(v x B)
39. Inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by using
Anderson bridge
40. Electronic instruments are not free from the effect of
stray electrostatic field
41. In lap winding resultant pitch is
difference of back and front pitches
42. The de-magnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator

reduces generator e.m.f
43. The cross-magnetising component of armature reaction increases with

increase in armature current
44. To neutralize de-magnetising effect of armature reaction

add extra turns per pole
45. If θ is the shift, Z is the no. of conductors and I is the current through them then
demagnetizing AT per pole is
𝜽×𝒁𝑰
𝟑𝟔𝟎
46. If θ is the shift, Z is the no. of conductors, P is no. of poles and I is the current through
them then cross magnetizing AT per pole is

𝒁𝑰 𝜽 × 𝒁𝑰
−
𝟐𝑷 𝟑𝟔𝟎
47. The voltage due to self inductance of the coil under commutation is neutralized by
interpoles
48. If the speed in N rpm, time taken for one revolution in seconds is
60/N
49. A circular disc is placed in a vertical magnetic field of constant induction in the
downward direction. If the disc is rotated in horizontal plane, the induced emf be
zero
50. A 4-pole dc machine with wave wound armature has 32 coils of 6 turns each and is
running at 250 rpm. Its flux per pole is 0.06 Wb. The induced armature voltage is
192
51. At certain speed and flux, the voltage generated by a dc generator is 230 volts. If the
speed is increased by 20% and the flux is reduced by 20%, the voltage will be
decreased by 4%
52. A 6-pole lap wound dc machine has 720 conductors and it draws 50 A from supply mains.
What is the flux distribution produced by armature reaction per pole?
Triangular wave with peak of 500AT
53. If Magnetic neutral axis is shifted by an angle +θ
armature conductors under the poles are redistributed
54. Interpoles carry
armature current
55. Magnetic neutral axis is
the axis of commutation
56. Specific magnetic loading is not governed by

armature reaction and commutation
57. Torque in rotating machine

is associated with displacement of stator field and rotor field from alignment
58. A dc series generator has full load output of 9.5 kW, constant losses are 100 W and full
load copper losses are 400 W and the full load efficiency is
95 %
59. The hysteresis loss
decreases with the increase in number of poles
60. In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is

stationary with respect to field
61. A synchronous motor on load draws a current at a leading pf angle 𝜙. If the internal pf
angle, which is the phase angle between the excitation emf and the current in the time-

phasor diagram, is 𝜓, then the air-gap excitation nmf lags the armature mmf by
𝝅
𝟐
+𝝍
62. The rotor power output of 3-phase IM is 15kW and the corresponding slip is 4%. The
rotor ohmic loss will be
625W
63. For a 3-phase, 50 Hz, SCIM, rotor leakage reactance at standstill is twice of its resistance.
The frequency of the supply at which maximum torque is obtained at starting is
25Hz
64. In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
leading p.f.
65. The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full
load speed is about
2 Hz
66. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off.
The motor will
continue to run at synchronous speed
67. The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is

low at light load only
68. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
produces
no torque
69. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, its output
voltage will be
A square wave
70. In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
does not depend on r2
71. In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed in
terms of air gap power Pg is
(1-s)Pg
72. In a stepper motor the angular displacement
can be precisely controlled
73. The change in stored energy in a rotational system is
idλ – Tdθ
74. The co-energy in a doubly-excited system is
𝟏 𝟏
𝑳 (𝜽)𝒊𝟏 𝟐 + 𝟐 𝑳𝟐𝟐 (𝜽)𝒊𝟐 𝟐 + 𝑳𝟏𝟐 (𝜽)𝒊𝟏 𝒊𝟐
𝟐 𝟏𝟏
75. The torque in a rotational system is

𝒊𝟐 𝒅𝑳(𝒙)
𝟐𝒅𝜽

76. The maximum torque of d.c. motors is limited by

commutation
77. The ratio of starting torque to full load torque is minimum in case of
differential compound motors
78. If a synchronous motor(properly synchronized to the supply) is running on no load with

negligible loss then
the stator current will be very small
79. A synchronous motor on load draws a current at a leading pf angle 𝜙. If the internal pf
angle, which is the phase angle between the excitation emf and the current in the time-
phasor diagram, is 𝜓, then the air-gap excitation nmf lags the armature mmf by
𝝅
+𝝍
𝟐
80. The rotor power output of 3-phase induction motor is 15kW and the corresponding slip is
4%. The rotor ohmic loss will be
625W
81. For a 3-phase, 50 Hz, squirrel cage induction motor, rotor leakage reactance at standstill is
twice of its resistance. The frequency of the supply at which maximum torque is obtained
at starting is
25Hz
82. The Potier triangle separate the
armature leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf

83. Reference input is also called as
set point
84. For strictly proper transfer function, the order of the numerator is
smaller than that of the denominator

85. Measurement of water level in a ‘U’ type tube is
open loop measurement
86. In servomechanism the controlled variable is
time derivative of angular position
87. In the field-controlled dc servomotor, the transfer function θ(s)/E(s) contains
three poles in which one pole is at origin
88. Three blocks G1, G2 and G3 are connected in some fashion such that overall transfer
function is G1  G3 (1  G1G2 ) . The blocks are connected in the following manner:
1  G1G2
G1, G2 with negative feedback and combination in parallel with G 3
89. No. of combinations of non-touching loops in the given signal flow graph

two
90. As type of the system increases
stabilization is difficult
91. The roots of the characteristic equation are the same as the poles of the
closed loop transfer function
92. The rise time of a second order system subjected to step input is
(𝝅−𝝋)
𝝎𝒅
93. The settling time of second order system subjected to step input increases as
time constant increases
94. The % peak overshoot of a second order system subjected to step input is given by
−𝝃𝝅
√ 𝟐
𝒆 𝟏−𝝃 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎
95. The proportional plus derivative controller connected in cascade with second order system
increases the effective damping

96. Sampled- data signals converted into analog signals using
Hold circuits
97. The unity feedback system has an open-loop transfer function,
𝐾
𝐺 (𝑗𝜔) = 𝑗𝜔(1+𝑗0.2𝜔)(1+𝑗0.05𝜔). The phase cross-over frequency is given by
10 rad/sec
98. Resonant peak and phase margin are measures of
relative stability
99. Band width of a system generally represents
gain cross over frequency
100. The stability of the system is higher if

both gain margin and phase margin is high
101. The Polar plot of a system of a system with transfer function 𝐺 (𝑠) = 𝐾 for –T and +K
𝑠(𝑠+𝑇)
is in the
second quadrant
102. 𝐺 (𝑠) = 1+𝑠 . The corner frequencies are
𝑠(1+0.5𝑠)
1 and 2
̅ B + AC
103. What does the Boolean expression AD + ABCD + ACD + A ̅ D + ̅̅̅̅
AB on
minimization result into
𝐀̅+𝐃

104. A memory system of size 32kbytes is required to be designed using memory chips which
have 12 address lines and 4 data lines each. What is the number of such chips required to
design the memory system?
16
105. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called
pinch-off voltage
106. The constant-current region of a JFET lies between
pinch-off and breakdown
107. Secondary breakdown occurs in

BJT but not in MOSFET
108. Which of the following devices should be used as a switch in a low power switched-mode
power supply (SMPS) ?
MOSFET
109. For an SCR, 𝑑𝑣 protection is achieved through the use of
𝑑𝑡
RC across SCR
110. Doping materials are called impurities because they

change the chemical properties of semiconductors
111. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of
Collision
112. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of
purity of power output
113. In a BJT, if the emitter junction is reverse-biased and the collector junction is reverse-
biased, it is said to operate in
In cut-off region
114. A device whose characteristics are very close to that of an ideal current source is
a BJT in CE mode
115. How many 10 digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 1 and 2 ?
210
116. The average load voltage of a 3- half-wave controlled circuit using thyristors is given by
(𝟑√𝟔⁄𝝅)𝑬𝒎 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜶
117. A thyristor controlled inductor will work as a variable inductor or as a fixed inductor
respectively for firing angles
˂ 90˚, ≥ 90˚
118. 1- full converter is connected across 250V AC. For 30˚ firing angle the output voltage
will be
210V
119. A four quadrant chopper can be operated as
Inverter,
bi-directional rectifier and
one quadrant chopper

120. Relay
is a force producing device
121. Transducer
is a device operates under linear input-output relation with relatively small signals
122. A short transmission line having zero resistance and total series reactance of 0.4 pu is
provided with reactive power compensation at the midpoint of the line such that the
midpoint voltage is held at 0.96pu when the voltage at both ends are 1.0 pu. What is the
steady state power transmission limit of such a system?
2.4 pu
123. Air filter is used in
diesel power plants
124. Which of the following is not an accessory for a boiler?

condenser
125. The steady-state stability limit of a synchronous generator can be increased by
A decrease in the moment of inertia of the machine
126. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of isolator, circuit
breaker and earthing switch while opening a circuit?
close circuit breaker –close isolator – open earthing switch
127. A device required a power of P Kw, its power factor is cosθ1. If a capacitor is put in
parallel with to improve the power factor to cosθ2. The KVA input will decrease by
P(1/cos θ1 -1/cos θ2)
128. A power system has a rating S kVA . The improvement of pf., from 0.8 lagging to 0.9
lagging increases active power by 0.1S. The increase in active power due to improvement
of p.f., from 0.9 lagging to unity will be
0.1S
129. In a 3phase, 4 wire cable, the x-sectional area of neutral conductor is
equal to the area of phase conductor
130. The positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of a transmission line are 0.5, 0.5
and 1.1 pu respectively. The self (Zs) and mutual (Zm) impedances of the line will be
given by
Zs = 0.7 pu, Zm =0.2 pu
131. A transmission line has a pu reactance of 30 %. If the working voltage is now increased to
110% of its original voltage ( the MVA rating of the line remaining the same), the pu
reactance of the line will now be
24.8%
132. The tie-line power equation is ∆𝑃12 =
𝑻(∆𝜹𝟏 − ∆𝜹𝟐 )
133. The critical clearing time of a fault in power systems is related to
Transient stability limit

134. If the sending end and receiving end voltages for a 3-phase transmission line are each
33kV(line), and if the reactance of the line is 13 ohms per phase, the maximum power
transmitted per phase will be
28 MW
135. Steady-state stability of power systems is improved by
Using double circuit line instead of single circuit line
136. In the solution of load-flow equation, Newton-Raphson (NR) method is superior to the
Gauss-seidel (GS) method, because
Convergence characteristics of the NR method are not affected by the selection of

slack bus
137. If the time of operation of a relay for unity TMS is 10 sec, the time of operation of 0.5
TMS will be
5 Sec
138. Where the voltages are high and current to be interrupted is low, the breaker preferred is
Vacuum CB
139. To prevent maloperation of differentially connected relay while energising a transformer,
the relay restraining coil is biased with
Fifth harmonic current
140. In electric traction, Quadrilateral speed-time curve is the closer approximation for
main line
141. KVAR is equal to
KW tanθ
142. What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line with surge impedance given as 160
ohms
1000 MW
143. In EHV lines _____
X/R > 3
144. The maximum transmission voltage in India is----
765kV
145. Fusing facto (FF) of HRC fuses is
FF > 1
146. Following effects are associated with transmission lines:
I. Corona effect II. Proximity effect III. Skin effect.
The effect resistance of a conductor is increased by
II and III only
147. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when load VAR requirement is
small
148. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
varying the reactance
149. A 66 kV system has string insulator having five discs and the earth to disc capacitance
ratio of 0.10. The string efficiency will be
67%
150. Earth resistance for LT installation 400v should be
5 to 15 ohms

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AP Ward / Grama Sachivalayam Question Bank - Category I (Part A & B) and Digital Assistant Bits

GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY

1. In a Dengue patient, the following would fall down drastically?

3. Radioactivity was discovered by?

4. The most abundant element in the Universe is?

9. In Chlorophyll, the central metal ion is?

10. Which of the following is not a green house gas?

11. Which of the following is an inorganic lubricant?

12. When an iron nail gets rusted, its weight?

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13. In its natural state, the odour of LPG is?

LPG is odourless gas

14. Out of the following, which compoundhas highest solubility in Water?

Rays without any charge

16. The most common method Uranium enrichment is?

17. In vulcanization of natural rubber, the following is used?

18. If a person goes down into a deep mine, his weight?

20. A hydrometer is used to measure?

Relative density of liquids

21. The intensity of earthquakes is measured using?

Quality Assurance in Official Statistics

To provide solar charkhas to 10 lakh handloom weavers

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27. Who is the present Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

Harivansh Narayan Singh

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Uttarakhand High Court

40. Which of the following athletes is nicknamed as “Dhing Express”?

42. Which of the following Indus Valley sites is in India?

44. Which metal did the ancient Indians use first?

Sher Shah Suri

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49. The Mansabdari system was introduced by?

53. Which was the seat of power of Peshwas?

Sukhdev and Rajguru

57. Partition of Bengal was done by the British in the year?

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61. Why did Congress Ministries in provinces resign in 1939?

Gandhiji failed to stop the enmity and violence

66. Out of the below, India is part of the following land?

67. The valleys in Siwalik ranges are called as?

68. What is a “doab”?

An area between two rivers

69. “Ooty” is situated in?

71. Which of the following rivers is located in Brahmaputra basin?

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72. Which of the following is the standard meridian of India?

74. In Kerala, the pre-monsoon showers are popularly known as?

75. Hangul deer is endemic habitant of?

78. Sillimanite mining is done in the following district of Andhra Pradesh?

81. The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is?

83. The grasslands of North America are known as?

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0 to 15 degree north and south latitudes

86. The Masai tribesman are residents of?

87. The temperature of the “Photosphere” of Sun is about?

6000 degrees centigrade

The Tsunami wave slows down in speed

Search and Rescue

Small and centrally located

96. Which of the following Statements is most appropriate?

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II. It is badly designed buildings that kill people