76 PDF

INDEX
Ch No. Chapter Name Page No.

1 Business Process Management & IT 1
2 Information Systems and IT 18
Fundamentals
3 Telecommunication and Networks 34
4 Business Information Systems 50
5 Business Process Automation through 59
Application Software
CHAPTER 1 : Business Process Management & IT
1. Sequence of events that uses input to produce output :
a) Production
b) Process
c) Transaction
d) Grouping
2. is a prescribed sequence of work steps performed to produce a desired result for

organization.
a) Business Evaluation
b) Business process
c) Business Reporting
d) Business Environment
3. Define correct sequence of Business Process Flow :

i) Journal, ii) Trial Balance, iii) Ledger, iv) Financial Statement, v) Source Document
a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v)
b) (iii),(iv),(ii),(v),(i)
c) (v),(i),(iii),(ii),(iv)
d) (iv),(ii),(iii),(v),(i)
4. Which of these capture data from the transection & event ?

a) Source Document
b) Journal
c) Ledger
d) Adjustment
5. Which of these is a set of activities that are performed in coordination in an organizational and
technical environment?
a) Business Evaluation
b) Business process
c) Business Reporting
d) Business Environment
6. Transaction is recorded in journals from the .

a) Ledgers
b) Transections
c) Source Documents
d) Adjustments
7. Appropriate entries are passed to transfer accounts to financial statements.

a) Closing Entries
b) Adjustments
c) Source Documents
d) Ledger
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8. Define the correct sequence of order to cash cycle.
i) Reconciliation, ii) Recording, iii) Pick Release, iv) Shipping
a) (iv),(i),(iii),(ii),
b) (i),(iv),(ii),(iii)
c) (ii),(iii),(iv),(i)
d) (iii),(ii),(i),(iv)
9. In which step of order to cash cycle items are moved from the warehouse to the staging area?
a) Shipping
b) Reconciliation
c) Pick Release
d) Customer Order
10. Which of these involves the transactional flow of data from the point of placing an order with
a vendor to the point of payment to the vendor?
a) Order To Cash
b) Purchase To Pay
c) Operating Cycle
d) Rationalize Cycle
11. Which is a document that is prepared requesting the purchase department to place an order
with the vendor specifying the quantity?
a) Purchase Requisition
b) Request for quote
c) Quotation
d) Purchase Order
12. A document through which vendor provide information about prize, discount & other details?
a) Purchase Requisition
b) Quotation
c) Bill Of Entry
d) All the above
13. Determine the correct sequence of purchase to pay cycle.

i) Purchase Order, ii) Quotation, iii) Purchase Requisition, iv) Receipt
a) (iv),(i),(iii),(ii),
b) (i),(iv),(ii),(iii)
c) (ii),(iii),(iv),(i)
d) (iii),(ii),(i),(iv)
14. Which is not the category of business process?

a) Organizational
b) Operational
c) Surrounding
d) None of these

15. Which level in business process management describes long term concepts to develop a
sustainable competitive advantage in the market?
a) Business Strategy
b) Organizational Business Process
c) Operational Business Process
d) Implemented Business Process
16. Which of these acts as supplier or consumer process?

a) Supportive Business Process
17. In which level of BPM, the activities and their relationships are specified, but implementation
aspects of the business process are disregarded?
18. Which level of BPM, contain information on execution of the process activities and the technical
and organizational environment in which they will be executed?
19. Which term in the definition of BPM is about realizing strategic objectives as outlined in
organization’s strategic plan?
a) Achievement
b) Improvement
c) Objectives
d) Essential
20. Which term in the definition of BPM refers to an enterprise or parts of an enterprise, perhaps a
business unit that is discrete in its own right ?
a) Achievement
b) Improvement
c) Objectives
d) Organization
21. Which term in the definition of BPM, is about making the business processes more efficient and
effective?
a) Achievement
b) Improvement
c) Objectives
d) Organization

22. Which term in the definition of BPM, is about organizing all the essential components and
subcomponents for a process?
a) Achievement
b) Improvement
c) Management
d) Organization
23. Which term in the definition of BPM, comprises all the things we do to provide someone who
cares with what they expect to receive?
a) Achievement
b) Improvement
c) Processes
d) Organization
24. Which of these is a generic software system that is driven by explicit process representations to
coordinate the enactment of business processes?
a) BPMS
b) TQM
c) DBMS
d) BPA
25. Which is a core benefit of using technology for BPM?

a) Effectiveness gains for enterprises
b) Distribution of tasks to process participants
c) Creation of basic operational value proposition
d) All The Above
26. Which is the principle of business process management?

a) processes are assets that create value for customers
b) process produces consistent value to customers
c) is continuous improvement of processes
d) All the Above
27. are the core assets of an organization, and they produce the values that justify an
organization’s existence.
a) Strategies
b) Processes
c) Transactions
d) Information
28. Which is not the type of process-oriented structure identified by BPM?

a) Process Organization
b) Case Management Organization
c) Horizontal process management organization
d) Continuous Process organization

29. are assigned to the core processes who are responsible for the performance of the
process assigned.
a) Quality Valuers
b) Process Owners
c) Strategists
d) Execution Persons
30. aligns the IT solution to be more in line with the process and once implemented, allows
organizations to measure, monitor, control, and analyze processes real time.
a) BPMS
b) TQM
c) DBMS
d) BPA
31. Which phase of BPM involves evaluation of potential solutions to meet the identified needs and
business process modeling?
a) Analysis Phase
b) Design Phase
c) Implementation Phase
d) Run & Monitor Phases
32. Which phase of BPM involves project preparation, blue printing, realization, final preparation,
go live and support?
a) Analysis Phase
b) Design Phase
33. Which phase of BPM Iterate for continuous improvement?

a) Analysis Phase
b) Optimize Phase
34. Which is a methodology are tools that organizations can use to implement process
improvement?
a) Business Process Re-engineering
b) Incremental Process Improvement
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) Nor (b)
35. A sustained management commitment to quality is essential principle for .

a) TQM
b) ADL
c) PESTEL

d) SWOT
36. Which of these is way things are usually done in most organization in absence of a TQM focus?
a) Traditional Management
b) Portfolio Management
c) Synergy Management
d) Resource Management
37. On which factor the nature of TQM differs from common management practices?
a) Organization Structure
b) Organization Change
c) Motivation and job design
d) All The Above
38. Which has meant that your process or product will perform with almost no defects?
a) Reaching Six Sigma
b) Ethnic Mix
c) Kieretsus
d) TQM
39. Which of these is a total management commitment and philosophy of excellence, customer
focus, process improvement, and the rule of measurement rather than gut feel?
a) Six Sigma
b) PESTEL
c) TQM
d) SWOT
40. Which of these is a people-focused management system that aims at continual increase in
customer satisfaction at continually lower real cost?
a) Competitive Taskforce Management
b) Market Facility Management
c) Total Quality Management
d) Portfolio Risk Management
41. Which is the principle for that guide the total quality management philosophy?
a) Focusing on Customer
b) Root Cause Corrective Action
c) Thinking Statistically
d) All The Above
42. is a philosophy that seeks to prevent poor quality in products and services, rather than
simply to detect and short out defects.
a) TQM
b) ADL
c) PESTEL
d) SWOT
43. Six Sigma is related to , the company that has invented it.

a) Motorola
b) Microsoft
c) Amazon
d) Wall-mart
44. Which is primarily meant maintenance of the desired quality in processes and end products?
a) Six Sigma
b) PESTEL
c) SWOT
d) Kieretsus
45. Six Sigma strives of products manufactured are defect free.

a) 99.98966 %
b) 99.99738 %
c) 99.99666 %
d) 99.99966 %
46. Which is not the area in which six sigma effort are targeted?
a) Improving customer satisfaction
b) Reducing Cycle Time
c) Reducing Defects
d) None of these
c) Reducing Defects
d) None of these
48. means starting all over, starting from scratch.

a) Benchmarking
b) Strategic Change
c) Business Process Re-Engineering
d) Strategic Leadership
49. means going to root of problem areas and not attempting to make any superficial
changes.
a) Fundamental Re-thinking
b) Radical Redesigning
c) Dramatic Improvement
d) All the above
50. is meant for replacement of the old process by altogether new one to achieve
dramatic improvement in the performance.
a) Benchmarking
b) Strategic Change
c) Re-Engineering

51. Which refers to analysis & redesign of workflows & processes both within & between
organization?
a) Business Process Re-Engineering
b) Benchmarking
c) Strategic Change
52. implies not just change but dramatic change in the way a business functions.
a) BPR
b) Strategic Change
c) Benchmarking
d) SWOT
53. Which is not the challenge in implementing BPA?

a) Number of interfaces with the customers is growing
b) Product, service & price options have increased complexity of business
c) Budgets are being cut.
d) None of these
54. The success of depends on how effectively management conveys the need for change to
the people.
a) TQM
b) SWOT
c) BPR
d) ERP
55. actually paper-based standard operating procedures taken to their most productive
level throughout initiation of increasingly business‐ centric technological advances.
a) BPM
b) TQM
c) SWOT
d) ERP
56. refers to separate activities which are necessary to strengthen an organization’s

strategies and are linked together both inside and outside the organization.
a) Six Sigma
b) TQM
c) BPR
d) Value Chain
57. is a useful tool for working out how we can create the greatest possible value for our
customers.

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b) Six Sigma
c) Value Chain Analysis
d) Total Quality Management
58. is a strategy to automate business processes so as to bring benefit to enterprise in terms
of cost, time and effort.
a) BPM
b) TQM
c) SWOT
d) BPA
59. Which is not the benefit of Business process automation?

a) Saving on costs
b) Staying ahead in competition
c) Fast service to customers
d) None of these
60. Which is a system of collection, storage and processing of financial data that is used by decision
makers.
b) Accounting Information System
c) Value Chain Analysis
d) Total Quality Management
61. Which of these is not the basic function of accounting information system?
a) Collect and store data
b) Record transection
c) safeguard organizational assets
d) None of these
62. present a chronological record of what occurred and provide management with
information in form of report which are useful for decision making.
a) Journals
b) Ledgers
c) Statements
d) Trial Balances
63. allows management to verify that assigned responsibilities were completed correctly.
a) Inquiry
b) Documentation
c) Observation
d) Investigation

64. Which refers to dividing responsibility for different portions of a transaction among several
people?
a) Authentication
b) Documentation
c) Segregation Of Duties
d) Investigation
65. It is through the study of that we gain a clear view of a firm’s processing framework.
a) Transection Cycle
b) Finance Cycle
c) Revenue Cycle
d) Production Cycle
66. Which cycle includes the preparation of employee paychecks and the recording of payroll
activities.
a) Finance Cycle
b) Revenue Cycle
c) Production Cycle
d) Expenditure Cycle
67. If the process of updating of the data stored is periodic, it is referred to as .

a) Data Processing
b) Real-time Processing
c) Batch Processing
d) Consignment Processing
68. If the process of updating involves immediate updating as each transaction occurs, it is referred
to as .
a) Data Processing
b) Real-time Processing
c) Batch Processing
d) Consignment Processing
69. In , the processes of business activities about which data must be collected and
processed are identified.
a) Data Processing Cycle
b) Realtime Processing Cycle
c) Financing Processing Cycle
d) Operating Cash Cycle
70. Which step of data processing cycle Involves the activities like capturing the data,
implementing control procedures, recording in journals, posting to ledgers and preparation of
reports?

a) Data Input
b) Data Storage
c) Data Processing
d) Information Output
71. Which step of data processing cycle Involves organizing the data in master file or reference file
of an automated system for easy and efficient access?
a) Data Input
b) Data Storage
c) Data Processing
72. Which step of data processing cycle Involves addition, deletion and updating of the data in the
transaction file, master file or reference file.?
a) Data Input
b) Data Storage
c) Data Processing
73. The controls on the data are maintained using .

a) Audit Trails
b) Segregation of duties
c) Documentation
d) Observation
74. are a new class of software that allows enterprises to devise process centric IT
solutions.
a) BPMS
b) TQM
c) DBMS
d) BPA
75. means BPM solutions are able to integrate people, systems and data.
a) Freeing-Up
b) Value Creation
c) Process Centric
d) Modularity
76. BPMS works by with a company’s existing applications enables it to monitor, extract,
format & distribute information to systems & people; in line with business events or rules.
a) Value Creation
b) Process Centric
c) Loosely Coupling
d) Freeing-Up

77. BPM focuses on optimization of .
a) Regulations
b) Procedures
c) Processes
d) Policies
78. Which of these is ideally suited to help support companies in their quest for process
improvement and compliance/governance certification?
a) BPM
b) TQM
c) DBMS
d) BPA
79. Using enterprises can document workflow and processes, to identify bottlenecks and
recommend alternative and improved business processes.
a) TQM
b) DBMS
c) BPA
d) BPM
80. Which of these describes logical flow of data within a computer system & procedures that
employees must follow to accomplish application tasks?
a) Authentication
b) Documentation
c) Segregation Of Duties
d) Investigation
81. __________ helps system designers develop new systems in much the same way that blueprints
help architects design building,
a) Authentication
b) Segregation Of Duties
c) Investigation
d) Documentation
82. Good documentation helps system designers develop oriented software.

a) Program
b) System
c) Object
d) Policy
83. Which is popular pictorial representation or technique which may be adopted for mapping
business processes?
a) Data Flow Diagram
b) Flow Chart
c) Decision Tree
d) All The Above

84. Which is a data modeling technique that creates a graphical representation of the entities, and
the relationships between entities, within an information system?
a) Entity Relationship Diagram
b) Decision Tree
c) Flowchart
d) Decision Table
85. Which relationship is shown on the diagram by a line connecting the two entities?
a) One‐ to‐ One
b) One‐ to‐ Many
c) Many‐ to‐ One
d) Many‐ to‐ Many
86. Which relationship is shown on the diagram by a line connecting the two entities with a ‚crow’s
foot‛ symbol denoting the ‘many’ end of the relationship?
a) One‐ to‐ One
87. Which relationship is shown on the diagram by a line connecting the two entities with ‘crow’s
foot’ symbols at both ends?
a) One‐ to‐ One
88. Which is the advantage of using ER diagram?

a) Helps in Physical Database creation
b) Specialized based on needs
c) Help in database design.
d) All The Above
89. Which of these is a graphical representation of the flow of data through an information system?
a) Data Flow Diagram
b) Decision Tree
c) Flowchart
d) Decision Table
90. Which of this is not the DFD component’s symbol?

a) Entity
b) Process
c) Data Store
d) Flowchart

91. An entity is the source or destination of -------- ?
a) Process
b) Data
c) System
d) Code
92. Which of these is manipulation or work that transforms data, performing computations, making
decisions, or directing data flows based on business rules?
a) Entity
b) Process
c) Data Store
d) Flowchart
93. is where a process stores data between processes for later retrieval by that same
process or another one. Files and tables are considered data stores.
a) Entity
b) Process
c) Data Store
d) Flowchart
94. is the movement of data between the entity, the process and the data store.
a) Data Warehouse
b) Data Flow
c) Data Store
d) Datamart
95. Which is not the type of data flow diagram?

a) Logical Dataflow
b) Physical Dataflow
c) Statistical Dataflow
d) None of these
96. Which of the following is not the advantage of dataflow diagram?

a) Describing the boundaries of the system.
b) Part of system documentation file.
c) Supports the logic behind the data flow
d) Physical considerations are left out.
97. Which of the following is limitation of dataflow diagram?

a) Describing the boundaries of the system.
b) Part of system documentation file.
c) Supports the logic behind the data flow
d) Physical considerations are left out.

98. Which of these is a type of diagram that represents an algorithm, workflow or process, showing
the steps as boxes of various kinds, and their order by connecting?
a) Entity Relationship Diagram
b) Decision Tree
c) Flowchart
d) Data Flow Diagram
99. is used in analyzing, deigning, documenting/managing process or program in various

field.
a) Documentation
b) Management Information System
c) Flowchart
d) Entity Relationship Diagram
100. Which of these is not the advantage of flowcharts?

a) Communication
b) Documentation
c) Standardization
d) Effective Analysis
101. Which of these is not the advantage of flowcharts?

a) Communication
b) Documentation
c) Modification
d) Quicker Grasp of relationship
102. is a collection of a basis (condition) and a conclusion (action).

a) Decision Tree
b) Logical Tree
c) Inference Tree
d) All the Above
103. Which logical operators are used to replicate the structure of If then rules?
a) AND & OR
b) SHALL & MUST
c) AND & IF
d) SHALL & WILL
104. Decision tree is specifically used in .

a) Decision Analysis
b) Operation Research
c) Both (a) & (b)

105. Which of these is the advantage of using decision tree?
a) Are simple to understand and interpret
b) Possible scenarios can be added.
c) Worst, best and expected values can be determined for different scenarios.
d) All the Above
106. Which of these may accompany a flowchart, defining possible contingencies that may be
considered within program & the appropriate course of action for each contingency?
a) Decision Tree
b) Flowchart
c) Decision Diagram
d) Decision Table
107. Decision Table Is divided in parts?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
108. Which type of decision table is comprehensively lists the comparisons or conditions?
a) Condition Stub-
b) Action Entries-
c) Condition Entries-
d) Action Stub-
109. Which type of decision table comprehensively lists the actions to be taken along the various
program branches?
a) Condition Stub-
b) Action Entries-
d) Action Stub-
110. Which type of decision table list in its various columns the possible permutations of answer to
the questions in the conditions stub?
a) Condition Stub-
b) Action Entries-
d) Action Stub-
111. Which type of decision table lists, in its columns corresponding to the condition entries the
actions contingent upon the set of answers to questions of that column?
a) Condition Stub-
b) Action Entries-
d) Action Stub-

112. Decision table can be directly coded in .
a) Program
b) File
c) Software
d) System
Answers
1 B 21 B 41 D 61 D 81 D 101 C
2 B 22 C 42 A 62 A 82 C 102 D
3 C 23 C 43 A 63 B 83 D 103 A
4 A 24 A 44 A 64 C 84 A 104 A
5 B 25 D 45 D 65 A 85 A 105 D
6 C 26 D 46 D 66 D 86 B 106 D
7 A 27 B 47 D 67 C 87 D 107 C
8 C 28 D 48 C 68 C 88 D 108 A
9 C 29 B 49 B 69 A 89 A 109 D
10 B 30 A 50 C 70 A 90 D 110 C
11 A 31 B 51 A 71 B 91 B 111 B
12 B 32 C 52 A 72 C 92 B 112 A
13 D 33 B 53 D 73 A 93 C
14 C 34 C 54 C 74 A 94 B
15 A 35 A 55 A 75 C 95 C
16 B 36 A 56 D 76 C 96 D
17 C 37 D 57 C 77 C 97 D
18 D 38 A 58 D 78 A 98 C
19 A 39 A 59 D 79 D 99 C
20 D 40 C 60 B 80 B 100 C

CHAPTER 2 : Information System & IT Fundamentals
1. Which of these is the reason for all the pervasive use of IT for business:
a) Communication Capabilities
b) Data and Information Management
c) Automated Processes
d) All the Above
2. provide a simple and inexpensive way to communicate with clients or customers as well
as vendors.
a) E-mail
b) Router
c) Server
d) Hub
3. Which is one such popular VOIP service, which allows people across the world to make free,
unlimited, superior quality voice calls via its innovative peer-to-peer?
a) E-mail
b) Router
c) Server
d) Skype
4. Which is a cross-platform mobile messaging application which allows us to exchange messages

without having to pay for SMS.
a) E-mail
b) WhatsApp
c) Server
d) Skype
5. Using a , information can be encrypted in a way to prevent unauthorized use, making

it quite safe and secure.
a) Policy
b) Program
c) Plan
d) Procedure
6. Which of these is a strategy that is used to optimize & stream- line essential business processes,
using latest technology to automate functions involved in carrying them out.
a) BPM
b) TQM
c) BPA
d) DBMS
7. Which is not the benefit of Automated Process?

a) Greater control over business
b) Shortened cycle times

c) Reduce risk through greater ability
d) None Of These
8. Which methodology of audits had an audit trail which assisted the auditors in conducing and
documenting the audit?
a) Operational
b) Virtual
c) Traditional
d) Electronical
9. Which is not the objective of audit?

a) Existence
b) Authorization
c) Cutoff
d) Virtualization
10. Which objective of audit verify that the assets, liabilities, ownership, and/or activities are real?
a) Existence
b) Authorization
c) Cutoff
d) Operational
11. Which objective of audit Verify that events have occurred in accordance with management’s
intent?
a) Existence
b) Authorization
c) Cutoff
d) Operational
12. Which objective of audit Verify that the transaction is re-coded in the proper accounting
period?
a) Existence
b) Authorization
c) Cutoff
d) Operational
13. Which objective of audit Verify that the program, area, or activity is performed economically,
efficient, and effectively?
a) Existence
b) Authorization
c) Cutoff
d) Operational

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14. is the usefully organized and reported facts which is usually generated (output) from
the data (input) using the computer (hardware) as per the procedures (Software) laid down by
the management (people).
a) Data
b) Process
c) Information
d) System
15. In simplest way we can define as removing the human element from existing business
processes by automating the repetitive or standardized process components
a) BPM
b) TQM
c) BPA
d) DBMS
16. entails understanding how information is collected & processed on a day-to-day

basis & then making recommendations on how best to automate those processes for maximum
benefit.
a) BPM
b) TQM
c) BPA
d) DBMS
17. Which are complementary technologies and concepts

a) BPM & BPA
b) TQM & XBRL
c) ERP TQM
d) XBRL & MIS
18. Which phase of ERP involves evaluation of potential solutions to meet identified needs,
business process designing & business process modeling?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Implementation
d) Run & Monitor
19. Which phase of ERP involves project preparation, blue printing, realization, final preparation, go
live and support?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Implementation
d) Run & Monitor
20. What is the full form of ODBC?

a) Orientation Database Council

b) Open Database Community
c) Obtainable Database Circle
d) Operable Database Center
21. Which of these refers to the scientific and practical approach to computation and its
applications?
a) Computer Science
b) Computer Engineering
c) Information System
d) Information Technology
22. Which of these refers to the discipline that integrates several fields of electrical engineering and
computer science required to develop computer hardware and software?
a) Computer Science
23. Which of these refers to the study of complementary networks of hardware and software that
enterprises, employees or individuals use to collect, process, create, store and distribute data?
a) Computer Science
24. Which of these refers to the application of computers and telecommunications to store, retrieve,
transmit and manipulate data in for processing of information in enterprises?
a) Computer Science
25. Which of these refers to the study of these approaches, which is primarily the application of
engineering to software?
a) Computer Science
b) Information System
c) Software Engineering
26. From a hardware perspective, is a computer or device on a network dedicated to

run one or more services, to serve needs of users of other computers on a network.
a) Server
b) Process

c) Information
d) System
27. What is the full form of ISA?

a) Information System Ability
b) Initial Secured Authorization
c) Instruction Set Architecture
d) Initial Software Assistant
28. , the center piece of the computer’s architecture, is in charge of executing the
instructions of the currently loaded program.
a) CPU (Processor)
b) ROM (Memory)
c) Printer (Output)
d) Keyboard (Input)
29. deals with what the chip does & it’s a sort of ‘bridge’ between software and hardware.
a) Instruction Set Architecture
b) Open Database Community
c) Software Engineering
d) Computer Engineering
30. If the control unit contains a number of micro-electronic circuitry to generate a set of control
signals and each micro- circuitry is activated by a micro-code, this design approach is called
design.
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) Both (a) & (b)
31. To execute each instruction, if there is separate electronic circuitry in the control unit, which
produces all the necessary signals, this approach of the design of the control section of the
processor is called design.
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) Both (a) & (b)
32. Since processors have a small instruction set, they place extra demand on
programmers.
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) Both (a) & (b)

33. , also known as Computer Organization.
a) System Design
b) Micro Architecture
c) Computer Engineering
d) Software Technology
34. Which is the term used to describe the resources and methods used to achieve architecture
specification.
a) System Design
b) Micro Architecture
d) Software Technology
35. Which refers to the creation of a virtual machine that acts like a real computer with an operating
system?
a) Hardware Virtualization
b) Software Virtualization
c) Network Virtualization
d) Storage Virtualization
36. Which is not a type of cloud computing?

a) Internal Cloud
b) Supportive Cloud
c) Hybrid
d) Community
37. Private Cloud is not known as :

a) Internal cloud
b) Corporate loud
c) Supportive Cloud
d) None of these
38. Part of software which interacts with user :

a) Front End
b) Back End
c) Both
d) None of these
39. Part of software which process data and generate report :

a) Front End
b) Back End
c) Internal system
d) None of these

40. It can speak both languages, User’s language and technical language :
a) Front End
b) Back End
c) Internal system
d) None of these
41. It is for storing and handling Data :

a) Front End
b) Back End
c) Internal system
d) None of these.
42. Which provides clients with access to server hardware, storage, bandwidth and other
fundamental computing resources.
a) IaaS
b) Caas
c) Naas
d) Paas
43. Which is a model of software deployment where an application is hosted as a service
provided to customers across the Internet.
a) Caas
b) Naas
c) Paas
d) Saas
44. Which provides clients with access to the basic operating software and optional services to
develop and use software applications without the need to buy and manage the underlying
computing infrastructure.
a) Caas
b) Naas
c) Paas
d) Saas
45. How many component does mobile computing have ?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
46. Which is not the component of mobile computing ?

a) Communication
b) Software
c) Hardware
d) Database

47. Which of these enable enterprises to connect with their employees at all times resulting in
increased productivity and a better return on investments?
a) Cloud Computing
b) Mobile Computing
c) Green Computing
d) Grid Computing
48. Which is not the concern of mobile computing?

a) Dangers of misrepresentation
b) Power Consumption
c) Potential Health Hazard
d) None of these
49. MS Office 2010 has MS World, MS Excel, MS Access etc. this is example of .
a) Content Access Software
b) Media Development
c) Application Suit
d) Information Worker Software
50. provides capabilities required to support enterprise software systems. E.g. email servers.
b) Media Development Software
c) Enterprise Infrastructure
51. Which of these is collection of bits?

a) Characters
b) Field
c) Record
d) File
52. Which of these is collection of Records?

a) Characters
b) Field
c) Record
d) File
53. Which of these is collection of Fields?

a) Characters
b) Field
c) Record
d) File
54. Which of these is collection of Characters?

a) Characters
b) Field

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c) Record
d) File
55. Which of these has multiple application bundled together?

b) Media Development
c) Application Suit
56. Which of these is collection of Files?

a) Database
b) Field
c) Record
d) File
57. The main feature of is that it permits all types of relationships i.e. one to one, one to
many, many to one & many to many.
a) Network Database Structure
b) Relational Database Structure
c) Object Oriented Database Model
d) Hierarchical Database Model
58. Which is not the advantage of DBMS?

a) Permitting data sharing
b) Minimizing Data Redundancy
c) Integrity can be maintained
d) Memory Management
59. is computer software that is designed to operate the computer hardware and to give
and maintain a platform for running application software.
a) Information System
b) System Software
d) Micro Architecture
60. Which is a set of computer programs that manages computer hardware resources and acts as
an interface with computer applications programs?
a) Information System
b) Operating System
d) Micro Architecture
61. What is the full form of API?

a) Authorized Process Infrastructure
b) Authenticate Payment Interface

c) Advance Policy Initiative
d) Application Program Interface
62. Which feature of operating system helps in allocating resources to make optimum utilization of
resources?
a) Task Management
b) Logical Access Security
c) Networking Capability
d) File Management
63. are devices through which we interact with the systems and include devices like
Keyboard, Mouse and other pointing devices.
a) Input Devices
b) Output Devices
c) Virtual Devices
d) Grid Devices
64. Which is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program instructions and
coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together?
a) CPU
b) Printer
c) Keyboard
d) Mouse
65. Which is not the functional unit of processing device ?

a) Control Unit
b) Arithmetic & logical unit
c) Registers
d) Local Area Network
66. Which function of the processing device performs operations as addition, subtraction,
multiplication & logical comparison of numbers ?
a) Control Unit
c) Registers
67. Which is the high speed memory units CPU for storing small amount of data ?
a) Control Unit
c) Registers
68. Which memory is used to bridge speed difference between register & primary memory ?
a) Processor Register
b) Cache Memory

c) RAM
d) ROM
69. What is the full form of R.A.M. ?

a) Random Access Memory
b) Read Access Memory
c) Read Advance Memory
d) Random advance memory
70. What is the full form of R.O.M. ?

a) Read Only Memory
b) Random Order Memory
c) Register Operating Memory
d) Real Oracle Memory
71. Which is not the functional unit of processing device ?

a) Control Unit
c) Registers
72. Which type of primary memory is volatile in nature ?

a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Register
d) Cache
73. In which type of Primary memory information can be read only and not be modified ?
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Register
d) Cache
74. Which is imaginary memory supported by some operating system in conjunction with the
hardware?
a) Primary Memory
b) Secondary Memory
c) Virtual Memory
d) Internal Memory
75. What is the full form of C.R.T. ?

a) Cathode Ray Tube
b) Capable Ray Transformation
c) Close Ray Turtles
d) Controlled Ray Translation

76. What is the full form of L.C.D ?
a) Liquid Crystal Display
b) Layout Computer Display
c) Large Capacity Display
d) Leading Cubic Display
77. A vacuum tube that uses an electron gun to emit a beam of electrons that illuminates
phosphors on a screen as the beam sweeps across the screen repeatedly. A monitor is often
called .
a) Cathode Ray Tube
b) Liquid Crystal Display
c) Plotter
d) Ledger Printer
78. Which is a low-powered display technology used in laptop computers where rod-shaped crystal
molecules change their orientation when an electrical current flows through them.
a) Cathode Ray Tube
b) Liquid Crystal Display
c) Plotter
d) Ledger Printer
79. Smart cards don’t need to be inserted into a reader. Just waving them near a reader is just
sufficient for the card to exchange data.
a) Contact Cards
b) Contactless Cards
c) Combi Cards
d) None of these
80. A printer that makes images by forcing ink droplets through nozzles.
a) Plotter
b) Multifunction Printer
c) Laser Printer
d) Dot Matrix Printer
81. A printer that uses computer-directed pens for creating high-quality images, blueprints,
schematicx, etc:
a) Plotter
b) Multifunction Printer
c) Laser Printer
d) Dot Matrix Printer
82. A is a group of devices connected to each other.

a) Plotter
b) CRT
c) Network
d) Process

83. Which of these refers to the process of deciding on how to communicate the data from source
to destination in a network?
a) Routing
b) Bandwidth
c) Resilience
d) Contention
84. Which of these refers to the amount of data which can be sent across a network in given time?
a) Routing
b) Bandwidth
c) Resilience
d) Contention
85. Which of these refers to the ability of a network to recover from any kind of error like
connection failure, loss of data etc.
a) Routing
b) Bandwidth
c) Resilience
d) Contention
86. Which of these refers to the situation that arises when there is a conflict for some common
resource?
a) Routing
b) Bandwidth
c) Resilience
d) Contention
87. Which phase of information system life cycle examines that ‘How will the Information System do
what it must do to obtain the solution to the problem’?
a) System Investigation
b) System Analysis
c) System Designing
d) System Implementation
88. In Which activity of conversion of master files, user stops using the old system one particular
day and starts using the new system from thereon, usually over a weekend or during a slack
period?
a) Direct changeover
b) Parallel Conversion
c) Phased Conversion
d) Pilot Conversion
89. In Which activity of conversion of master files, old system continues alongside the new system
for a few weeks or months?

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d) Pilot Conversion
90. Which activity of conversion of master files is used with larger systems that can be broken
down into individual modules which can be implemented separately at different times?
d) Pilot Conversion
91. In Which activity of conversion of master files, New system will first be used by only a portion
of the enterprise, for example at one branch or factory?
d) Pilot Conversion
92. Which is a wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances up to 50
meters (164 feet) from fixed and mobile devices?
a) Bluetooth
b) WI-FI
c) Laptop
d) Touchpad
93. Which is the name of a popular wireless networking technology that uses radio waves to
provide wireless high-speed Internet and network connections?
a) Bluetooth
b) WI-FI
c) Laptop
d) Touchpad
94. Which was originally designed to be similar to a desktop, but be small and light enough that it
could be used while sitting in our lap.
a) Bluetooth
b) WI-FI
c) Laptop
d) Touchpad
95. Which is a computer, or a piece general-purpose computer contained in a single panel.

a) Bluetooth
b) WI-FI
c) Android
d) Tablet

96. Which is a mobile phone built on a mobile operating system, with more advanced computing
capability connectivity than a feature phone.
a) Smartphone
b) I-Pad
c) I-Pod
d) UMPC
97. Which is designed for finger-based use and has none of the tiny features which required a
stylus on earlier tablets.
a) Smartphone
b) iOS
c) I-Pod
d) UMPC
98. Which is the iPod is a line of portable media players designed and marketed by Apple Inc.
a) Smartphone
b) I-Pad
c) I-Pod
d) UMPC
99. Which a small form factor version of a pen computer, a class of laptop whose specifications
were launched by Microsoft and Intel in spring 2006.
a) Smartphone
b) I-Pad
c) I-Pod
d) UMPC
100. Which is a Linux-based operating system designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices
such as smart phones and tablet computers.
a) Smartphone
b) I-Pad
c) I-Pod
d) Android
101. Smart cards that need to insert into a reader in order to work, such as a smart card reader or
automatic teller machines.
a) Contact Cards
b) Contactless Cards
c) Combi Cards
d) None of these

Answers
1 D 19 C 37 C 55 C 73 B 91 D
2 A 20 B 38 A 56 A 74 C 92 A
3 D 21 A 39 B 57 A 75 A 93 B
4 B 22 B 40 A 58 D 76 A 94 C
5 B 23 C 41 B 59 B 77 A 95 D
6 C 24 D 42 A 60 B 78 B 96 A
7 D 25 C 43 D 61 D 79 B 97 B
8 C 26 A 44 C 62 A 80 C 98 C
9 D 27 C 45 B 63 A 81 A 99 D
10 A 28 A 46 D 64 A 82 C 100 D
11 B 29 A 47 B 65 D 83 A 101 A
12 C 30 A 48 D 66 B 84 B
13 D 31 B 49 C 67 C 85 C
14 C 32 B 50 C 68 B 86 D
15 C 33 B 51 A 69 A 87 C
16 C 34 B 52 D 70 A 88 A
17 A 35 A 53 C 71 D 89 B
18 B 36 B 54 B 72 A 90 C

CHAPTER 3 : Telecommunication & Network
1. Which of these is a highly technical, rapidly changing field of information systems technology?
a) Telecommunication
b) Core Banking
c) Enterprise information System
d) Six Sigma
2. Which is not the advantage of computer network in an organization?

a) File Sharing
b) Remote Access
c) Shared Database
d) None Of These
3. Which are the starting and stopping points in any telecommunication network environment.
a) Protocols
b) Terminals
c) Servers
d) Packets
4. Any input or output device that is used to transmit or receive data can be classified as a
.
a) Shared Database
b) Telecommunication
c) Core Banking
d) Terminal Component
5. is a Computer hardware component that connects a computer to a computer network.

a) Network Interface Card
b) Modem
c) multiplexer
d) Internetwork Processor
6. is a device that converts a digital computer signal into an analog telephone signal and
converts an analog telephone signal into a digital computer signal in a data communication
system.
b) Modem
c) multiplexer
7. is a communications processor that allows a single communications channel to carry

simultaneous data transmissions from many terminals.
b) Modem
c) multiplexer

8. is a communications processor that makes connections between telecommunications

circuits in a network so that a telecommunications message can reach its intended destination.
a) Modem
b) Switch
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
9. is a communications processor that interconnects networks based on different rules or

protocols, so that a telecommunications message can be routed to its destination
a) Router
b) Switch
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
10. Which is a port-switching communications processor. This allows for the sharing of the network
resources such as servers, LAN workstations, printers, etc.?
a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
11. is a communications processor than connects numerous Local Area Networks (LAN).
a) Router
b) Switch
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
12. is a communications processor that boosts or amplifies the signal before passing it to
the next section of cable in a network.
a) Router
b) Repeater
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
13. is a communications processor that connects networks that use different

communication architectures.
a) Router
b) Repeater
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
14. Guided Transmission Media uses a ‚ ‛ system that guides the data signals along a
specific path.
a) Cabling

b) Wireless
c) Router
d) Bridging
15. is ordinary telephone wire, consisting of copper wire twisted into pairs.
a) Coaxial Cable
b) Fiber Optics
c) Twisted Pair
d) Radio Waves
16. Which telecommunication media consists of copper or aluminum wire wrapped with spacers to
insulate and protect it?
a) Coaxial Cable
b) Fiber Optics
c) Twisted Pair
d) Radio Waves
17. consists of a means for the data signals to travel but nothing to guide them along a
specific path.
a) Fiber Optics
b) Twisted Pair
c) Unbound Media
d) Radio Waves
18. of these involves earthbound microwave systems, which transmit high-speed radio
signals in a line-of-sight path between relay stations spaced approximately 30 miles apart.
a) Terrestrial Microwave
b) Twisted Pair
c) Unbound Media
d) Radio Waves
19. Wireless networks do not require any physical media or cables for data transmission.
a) Coaxial Cable
b) Fiber Optics
c) Twisted Pair
d) Radio Waves
20. are radio waves with wavelengths ranging from as long as one meter to as short as
one millimeter, or equivalents, with frequencies between 300 MHz (0.3 GHz) and 300 GHz.
a) Coaxial Cable
b) Fiber Optics
c) Infrared Waves
d) Micro waves
21. is used in industrial, scientific, and medical applications.

a) Radio Waves

b) Micro waves
c) Infrared Waves
d) Communication Satellites
22. ____________ use the atmosphere (microwave radio waves) as the medium through which to
transmit signals.
a) Radio Waves
b) Micro waves
c) Infrared Waves
23. A is a group of computers and network devices connected together, usually within the
same building, campus or spanned over limited distance. It provides high speed data transfer
and is relatively inexpensive.
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) VPN
24. A is a larger network that usually spans in the same city or town i.e. Cable network.
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) VPN
25. A is not restricted to a geographical location, although it might be confined within

the bounds of a state.
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) VPN
26. Which of these partitions tasks or workloads between the providers of a resource or service,
called servers, and service requesters, called clients.
a) Client Server
b) Peer to peer
c) Multi-Tier
d) Private Network
27. is a type of decentralized and distributed network architecture in which individual

nodes in the network act as both suppliers and consumers of resources.
a) Client Server
b) Peer to peer
c) Multi-Tier
d) Private Network

28. It provides a model by which developers can create flexible and reusable applications.
a) Client Server
b) Peer to peer
c) Multi-Tier
d) Private Network
29. Network established for all users across the world is known as .
a) Client Server
b) Virtual Private Network
c) Public Network
d) Private Network
30. A is a network that uses a public network, such as the Internet, to provide secure
access to organization’s private network.
a) Client Server
c) Public Network
d) Wild Network
31. are telecommunications networks that connect information-processing devices

within a limited physical area.
a) Local Area Networks
c) Metropolitan Area Network
d) Wide Area Network
32. A is somewhere between a LAN and a WAN.

33. are telecommunications networks that cover large geographic areas with various
communication facilities such as long distance telephone service, satellite transmission, and
under-sea cables.
34. The Client/Server computing is an environment that satisfies the business need buy appropriate
allocating the application processing between the client and the server processors.
a) Metropolitan Area Network
b) Client/Server Computing
c) Public Network Community

d) Virtual Private Network
35. A is a single-user workstation that provides a presentation services & appropriate

computing, connectivity and database services relevant to business need.
a) Modem
b) Network
c) Server
d) Client
36. performs the bulk of any data processing operations itself, and does not necessarily
rely on the server.
a) Fat / Thick Client
b) Private Network
c) Radio Waves
37. A generally only presents processed data provided by an application server, which
performs the bulk of any required data processing.
a) Thick Client
b) Fat Client
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None Of These
38. A is one or more multi-user processors with share memory providing computing,
connectivity and the database services and the interfaces relevant to the business need.
a) Modem
b) Hub
c) Client
d) Server
39. A network is created with two or more PCs connected together and share resources
without going through a separate server computer.
a) Client/Server
b) Peer to peer
c) Multi-Tier
d) Data-client
40. A network can be an ad hoc connection - a couple of computers connected via a

universal serial bus to transfer files.
a) Client/Server
b) Peer to peer
c) Multi-Tier
d) Data-client

41. A is a software architecture in which a presentation layer or interface runs on a client,
and a data layer or data structure gets stored on a server.
a) One Tier Architecture
b) Two Tier Architecture
c) Three Tier Architecture
d) None Of These
42. The is used when an effective distributed client/server design is needed that provides
increased performance, flexibility, maintainability, reusability and scalability, while holding the
complexity of distributed processing from the user.
a) One Tier Architecture
b) Two Tier Architecture
d) None Of These
43. A is defined as a network shared and accessed by users not belonging to a single
organization.
c) Public Data Network
44. A is a private network that uses a public network (usually the Internet) to connect remote
sites or users together.
45. is the allocation of resources, both hardware and software, to each individual
workstation, or office location.
a) Decentralized Computing
46. The geometrical arrangement of computer resources, remote devices and communication
facilities to known as _ .
a) Network Structure
b) Virtual Network
c) Decentralized Computing

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47. Which consists of a centralized computer system from which the various communication channels
originate?
a) STAR
b) BUS
c) MESH
d) RINGLOOP
48. In a single network cable runs in the building or campus and all modes are linked along
with this communication line called the bits or backbone or central cable.
a) STAR
b) BUS
c) MESH
d) RINGLOOP
49. In which topology the networks cable passes from one node to another until all nodes are
connected in the form of a loop or ring?
a) STAR
b) BUS
c) MESH
d) RINGLOOP
50. In which structure, there is a combination of two or more networks of different topologies
communication links?
a) STAR
b) BUS
c) MESH
d) RINGLOOP
51. In which approach, the bits of each byte are sent along a single path one after another serially?
a) Serial Transmission
b) Parallel Transmission
c) Asynchronous Transmission
d) Synchronous Transmission
52. In which approach the bits of a byte are simultaneously transmitted parallel paths as in the case
of parallel ports for printers?
53. In which each character is sent at irregular intervals in time as in the case of characters entered at the
keyboard in real time?

54. In which approach, transmitter and receiver are paced by same clock & receiver continuously
receives information at same rate transmitter sends it?
55. A communication mode permits data to flow in only one direction.

a) Simplex
b) Duplex
c) Half-Duplex
d) None Of These
56. Under this mode, data can be transmitted back and forth between two stations, but data can
only go in one of the two directions at any given point of time.
a) Simplex
b) Duplex
c) Half-Duplex
d) None Of These
57. A connection can simultaneously transmit and receive data between two stations.
a) Simplex
b) Duplex
c) Half-Duplex
d) None Of These
58. A is one that establishes a fixed bandwidth circuit between nodes and terminals
before the users may communicate, as if the nodes were physically connected with an electrical
circuit.
d) Circuit Switching Network
59. In , end-users communicate by sending each other a message, which contains the
entire data being delivered from the source to destination node.
a) Metropolitan Area
b) Messing Switching
d) Circuit Switching
60. Which is a sophisticated means of maximizing transmission capacity of networks?


c) Packet Switching
61. Which of these refers to protocols in which messages are broken up into small transmission units
called packets, before they are sent?
c) Packet Switching
62. refers to the layout of the network consisting of the hardware, software, connectivity,
communication protocols and mode of transmission, such as wired or wireless.
a) Network Architecture
b) Private Network
c) Radio Waves
63. are software that performs a variety of actions necessary for data transmission
between computers.
a) Protocols
b) Terminals
c) Servers
d) Packets
64. Which is an abstract description for layered communications and computer network protocol
design.
a) OSI
b) VPN
c) TQM
d) WAN
65. is the OSI layer is closest to the end user, which means that both the OSI
application layer and the user interact directly with the software application.
a) Application Layer
b) Presentation Layer
c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer
66. Which layer at times referred as Syntax Layer also?

c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer

67. is usually a part of an operating system, that converts incoming and outgoing data
from one format to another.
c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer
68. Which layer sets up, coordinates, and terminates conversations, exchanges, and dialogs between
the applications at each end?
b) Network Layer
c) Session Layer
d) Transport Layer
69. Which layer ensures reliable and transparent transfer of data between user processes, message
packets, provides error recovery and flow control?
b) Network Layer
c) Session Layer
d) Transport Layer
70. Which layer provides the functional and procedural means of transferring variable length data
sequences from a source to a destination via one or more networks, while maintaining the
quality of service requested by the Transport Layer.
b) Network Layer
c) Session Layer
d) Transport Layer
71. Which Layer responds to service requests from the Network Layer and issues service requests to
the Physical Layer?
b) Session Layer
c) Data-link Layer
d) Transport Layer
72. The is a hardware layer which specifies mechanical features as well as

electromagnetic features of the connection between the devices and the transmission.
a) Physical Layer
b) Session Layer
c) Transport Layer
d) Data-link Layer

73. These originate mostly from inexperienced individuals using easily available hacking tools from
the Internet.
a) Unstructured Threats
b) Structured Threats
c) External Threats
d) Internal Threats
74. These originate from individuals who are highly motivated and technically competent and
usually understand network systems design and the vulnerabilities of those systems.
c) External Threats
d) Internal Threats
75. These originate from individuals or organizations working outside an organization, which does
not have authorized access to organization’s computer systems or network.
c) External Threats
d) Internal Threats
76. Typically, these threats originate from individuals who have authorized access to the network.
c) External Threats
d) Internal Threats
77. Which is an inherent weakness in the design, configuration, or implementation of a network or

system that renders it susceptible to a threat?
a) Software Bug
b) Vulnerability
c) Timing Window
d) Configuration
78. are so common that users have developed techniques to work around the
consequences, and bugs that make saving work necessary every half an hour or crash the
computer every so often are considered to be a normal part of computing.
a) Software Bug
b) Vulnerability
c) Timing Window
d) Configuration

79. This problem may occur when a temporary file is exploited by an intruder to gain access to the
file, overwrite important data, and use the file as a gateway for advancing further into the
system.
a) Software Bug
b) Vulnerability
c) Timing Window
d) Configuration
80. occur when vendors use known default passwords to make it as easy as possible
for consumers to set up new systems.
a) Insecure default configuration
b) Vulnerability
c) Timing Window
d) Trusting Untrustworthy information
81. is usually a problem that affects routers, or those computers that connect one network
to another?
a) Vulnerability
b) Timing Window
c) Trusting Untrustworthy information
d) Insecure default configuration
82. is the practice and study of techniques for secure communication in the presence of
third parties.
a) Vulnerability
b) Authentication
c) Ring-loop
d) Cryptography
83. In Cryptography, ______________ is the process of encoding messages in such a way that
eavesdroppers or hackers cannot read it, but only authorized parties can.
a) Vulnerability
b) Encryption
c) Authentication
d) Ring-loop
84. Which is the message that is to be encrypted & transformed by a function that is parameterized
by a key?
a) Terminal
b) Packet
c) Plaintext
d) Cipher Text

85. It is the output of the encryption process that is transmitted often by a messenger or radio.
a) Terminal
b) Packet
c) Plaintext
d) Cipher Text
86. Which means that the receiver is sure of the sender’s identity and that an imposter has not sent
the message?
a) Vulnerability
b) Authentication
c) Ring-loop
d) Cryptography
87. This means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as it was sent.
a) Vulnerability
b) Authentication
c) Integrity
d) Cryptography
88. This means that a receiver must be able to prove that a received message came from a specific
sender and the sender must not be able to deny sending it.
a) Non-Repudiation
b) Authentication
c) Integrity
d) Cryptography
89. is a program to log into another computer over a network, to execute commands in a
remote machine, and to move files from one machine to another.
a) Secure Shell
b) Integrity
c) Multi-Tier
d) Data-client
90. is a computing network protocol for accessing & managing files on remote file systems.
a) SFTP
b) HTTP
c) SSL
d) WAN
91. is a communications protocol for secure communication over a computer network, with
especially wide deployment on the Internet.
a) SFTP
b) HTTP
c) SSL
d) WAN

92. is essentially a protocol that provides a secure channel between two machines
operating over the Internet or an internal network.
a) SFTP
b) HTTP
c) SSL
d) WAN
93. Which is a device that forms a barrier between a secure and an open environment when the
latter environment is usually considered hostile, for example, the Internet?
a) Site Blocking
b) IDS Technology
c) Anti-Malware
d) Firewall
94. is a software-based approach that prohibits access to certain Web sites that are
deemed inappropriate by management.
a) Site Blocking
b) IDS Technology
c) Anti-Malware
d) Firewall
95. are network links that use Internet technologies to interconnect the intranet of a
business with the intranets of its customers, suppliers, or other business partners.
a) Terminals
b) Packets
c) Extranets
d) Cipher Texts
96. enable a company to offer new kinds of interactive Web-enabled services to their
business partners.
a) Terminals
b) Packets
c) Extranets
d) Cipher Texts
97. refers to exchange of services, information and/or products from one business to
another.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C
98. It is defined as the exchange of services, information and/or products from a business to a
consumer, as opposed to between one business and another.
a) B2B

b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C
99. In e-Commerce model, consumers directly contact with business vendors by posting
their project work online so that the needy companies review it and contact the consumer
directly with bid.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C
100. e-Commerce is an Internet-facilitated form of commerce that has existed for span of
history in form of barter, flea markets, swap meets, yard sales & the like.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C
101. Using these machines customers can withdraw cash, make deposits, pay bills, transfer funds
electronically without going to the bank.
a) ATM
b) I-Mac
c) G-Trade
d) WTM
Answers
1 A 19 D 37 C 55 A 73 A 91 B
2 D 20 D 38 D 56 C 74 B 92 C
3 B 21 C 39 B 57 B 75 C 93 D
4 D 22 D 40 B 58 D 76 D 94 A
5 A 23 A 41 B 59 B 77 B 95 C
6 B 24 C 42 C 60 C 78 A 96 C
7 C 25 B 43 C 61 C 79 C 97 A
8 B 26 A 44 D 62 A 80 A 98 B
9 A 27 B 45 A 63 A 81 C 99 C
10 A 28 C 46 A 64 A 82 D 100 D
11 C 29 C 47 A 65 A 83 B 101 A
12 B 30 B 48 B 66 B 84 C
13 D 31 A 49 D 67 B 85 D
14 A 32 C 50 C 68 C 86 B
15 C 33 D 51 A 69 D 87 C
16 A 34 B 52 B 70 B 88 A
17 C 35 D 53 C 71 C 89 A
18 A 36 A 54 D 72 A 90 A

CHAPTER 4 : Business Information System
1. Which is a group of mutually related, cooperating elements working on reaching a common
goal by taking inputs and producing outputs in organized transformation processes System
a) System
b) Process
c) Information
d) Component
2. is a combination of people, hardware, software, communication devices,

network and data resources that processes (can be storing, retrieving, transforming
information) data and information for a specific purpose.
a) Scorecard System
b) Dashboard System
d) Grid-based System
3. is a raw fact and can take the form of a number or statement such as a date or a
measurement.
a) Component
b) Data
c) Feedback
d) Dashboard
4. may be defined as systems integrating information technology, people and

business.
a) Management Information System
b) Business Information system
c) Transaction Processing System
d) Executive Information System
5. is an activity or set of activities that will accomplish a specific organization goal.

a) Business Process
b) ABC Analysis
c) Business Intelligence
d) Data Mining
6. A is a specific ordering of work activities across time and place, with a beginning, an
end, and clearly defined inputs and outputs: a structure for action.
a) System
b) Terminal
c) Process
d) Procedure
7. Which of these is to track & deal with strategic issues, assisting long-range planning?
a) Strategic Level System

b) Strategic Control System
c) Explicit Strategic Component
d) Partial Strategic Extortion
8. Which of these is used for the monitoring, controlling, decision-making, and

administrative activities of middles management?
a) Management Level System
b) Strategic Level System
c) Operational Level System
d) Transaction Processing System
9. These can include tracking customer orders, invoice tracking, etc. & that business
procedures are followed.
10. Chief Executive officer will be considered under which level?

a) Strategic Level
b) Management Level
c) Operational Level
d) None of these
11. These include Managers or supervisors that are responsible for the daily management of the
line workers who actually produce the product or offer the service.
a) Strategic Level
b) Management Level
c) Operational Level
d) None of these
12. A may be defined as a type of information system that collects, stores, modifies and
retrieves the day-to-day data transactions of an enterprise.
13. Which of these ensures that people who are not authorized to use the system are not
permissible to influence or transform the transaction process?
a) Access Control
b) Equivalence
c) Trustworthiness
d) Rapid Processing
14. Which is not a prerequired component for ACID Test?

a) Atomicity

b) Isolation
c) Durability
d) Accessibility
15. Which of these means that a transaction is either completed in full or not at all. TPS systems
ensure that transactions take place in their entirety?
a) Atomicity
b) Isolation
c) Durability
d) Consistency
16. What is the full form of OAS?

a) Office Automation System
b) Offer Authentication System
c) Object Authorization System
d) None of These
17. refers to entire tools & methods that are applied to office activities which
formulate it achievable to practice written, visual, & sound data in a computer-aided mode.
a) Partial Strategic Extortion
b) Operational Level System
d) Office Automation System
18. Which is amalgamation of hardware, software, and other resources used to smooth progress
of communications and augment efficiency?
a) Partial Strategic Extortion
b) Office Automation System
19. refers to the use of computer and software to digitally generate, collect, store,
manipulate, and relay office information needed for accomplishing basic tasks andgoals.
b) Partial Strategic Extortion
20. Which of these is an old management tool, which has been long used by people for
superior management and scientific decision making.

21. refers to the data, equipment and computer programs that are used to develop
information for managerial use.
22. _______________ is a system which provides accurate, timely and meaningful data for
management planning, analysis and control to optimize the growth of the organization.
23. Which of these includes Input data-entry devices, CPU, Data Storage files and Output Devices?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) User Interface
d) Telecommunication
24. Which of these includes hardware and software components by which people interact with a
machine?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) User Interface
25. Which of these involves transmitting data from one place to another in a reliable networked system?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) User Interface
26. It is defined by some renowned researchers that ERP system is rooted in Materials
Requirement Planning and Manufacturing Resource Planning System .
a) Business Information system
b) Transaction Processing System
c) Executive Information System
d) Enterprise Resource Planning
27. are a contradictory compilation of interactive computer tools-first and foremost

customizable software - design ed to lend a hand in decision-making.

d) Decision Support System
28. A is a computer-based information system that supports business or organizational

decision-making activities.
a) Decision Support System
29. can be defined as an interactive software-based system intended to help decision

makers compile useful information from raw data, documents, personal knowledge, and/or
business models to identify and solve problems and make decisions.
c) Decision Support System
30. can either be general-purpose or special-purpose allowing users to perform

routine tasks and specific tasks respectively.
a) Model Base
b) Planning Languages
c) Terminals
d) User Interface
31. Model base is the brain of the DSS as it performs data manipulations and computations
with the data provided to it by the user and the database.
a) Model Base
b) Planning Languages
c) Terminals
d) User Interface
32. Which of these is the nature of IS used by executives to access and administer the data
they entail to make informed business decisions?
Transaction Processing System
b) Rapid Processing
c) Office Automation System
33. " is not a piece of hardware / software, but an infrastructure that supplies to a firm's
executives up-to-the-minute operational data, gathered & sifted from various databases.
b) Rapid Processing

34. Is extremely broad and its definition varies depending on author's point of view.
d) Decision Support System
35. It is the supervision of supply, storage and accessibility of items in order to make certain a sufficient
supply without excessive oversupply.
a) ABC Analysis
b) EOQ
c) JIT
d) Inventory Control
36. is that technique of material control in which we divide our material into three
categories and investment is done according to the value and nature of that category's
materials.
a) ABC Analysis
b) EOQ
c) JIT
37. Which of these is used as part of a uninterrupted review inventory system in which the level
of inventory is scrutinize at all times and a fixed magnitude is ordered each time inventory
level reaches a particular reorder point?
a) ABC Analysis
b) EOQ
c) JIT
38. is a production planning & inventory control system used to manage manufacturing
processes.
a) ABC Analysis
b) EOQ
c) JIT
d) MRP
39. It is defined as a method for valuable planning of all resources of a manufacturing company, preferably, it
addresses operational planning in units, financial planning, & has a simulation ability to respond "what-if"
questions & extension of closed-loop MRP which looks after production relatedactivities.
a) Material Requirement Planning
b) Manufacturing & Resource Planning
c) Enterprise Resource Planning
d) Distribution Resource Planning

40. may be defined as a business process in which client relationships customer loyalty
& brand value are built through marketing strategies & activities.
a) Customer Relationship Management
c) Know Your Customer
d) Customer Identification Program
41. may be defined as the process of planning, implementing and controlling the
operations of the supply chain with the purpose of satisfying the customer's requirement
as efficiently as possible.
a) Supply Chain Management
b) Facilitated Supply Chain
c) Supply Identification Program
d) Manufacturing & Resource Planning
42. Which of these is a software application that coalesce many functions, together with benefits
administration, payroll, recruiting and training, and performance analysis and assessment into
one parcel?
a) Customer Relationship Management
b) Human Resource Management
c) Project Management Module
d) Quality Management Module
43. enables organizations to extend the value of an HRMS implementation by

extracting HR related data for use with other business intelligence platforms.
a) Payroll Module
b) Training Module
c) Personal Module
d) Analytics Module
44. core banking solution is a comprehensive, agile, componentized yet integrated

business solution, addressing all the core needs of banks, in easy-to-configure modules.
a) Finacle
b) Oracle
c) NERO
d) Coral Draw
45. _________ provides all the building blocks of business functionality enabling users to
configure products and processes flexibly in order to adapt to a dynamic environment.
a) Oracle
b) NERO
c) Finacle
d) Coral Draw
46. Which of these is defined as a system of collection, storage and processing of financial and
accounting data that is used by decision makers?

a) Accounting Information System
47. Which is the vicinity of computer science focusing on creating machines that can fit into place on
behaviors that humans regard as intelligent?
a) Data Analytics
b) Artificial Intelligence
c) Analytics Module
d) Data Mining
48. Which is a computerized information system that allows non-experts to make decisions
comparable to those of an expert?
b) Rapid Processing
d) Expert System
49. is the delivery of accurate, useful information to the appropriate decision makers
within the necessary time frame to support effective decision makingfor business processes.
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) Business Intelligence
c) Data Analytics
d) Field Analytics
50. Which of these involves using the information gathered from the data warehouse and
making it available to users as snapshots of many different things with the objective of getting
response to the query: "Tell me a lot of things, but without too much effort".
a) Dash-word
b) Scorecards
c) Data Mining
d) Business Analytics
51. Which involves providing a visual representation of the enterprise strategy by taking critical
metrics and mapping them to strategic goals throughout the enterprise?
a) Dash-word
b) Scorecards
c) Data Mining
52. Which of these involves using statistical, artificial intelligence, and related techniques to
mine through large volumes of data and providing knowledge without users even having to
ask specific questions?
a) Dash-word

b) Scorecards
c) Data Mining
Answers
1 A 11 C 21 A 31 A 41 A 51 B
2 C 12 D 22 A 32 D 42 B 52 C
3 B 13 A 23 A 33 D 43 D
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 A
5 A 15 A 25 D 35 D 45 C
6 C 16 A 26 D 36 A 46 A
7 A 17 D 27 D 37 B 47 B
8 A 18 B 28 A 38 D 48 D
9 C 19 A 29 C 39 B 49 B
10 A 20 A 30 B 40 A 50 A

CHAPTER 5 : Business Process Automation Through
Application Software
1. Which of these is a software solution which fulfills the need of supercomputer in an
organization?
a) Grid Computing
b) Cloud Computing
c) Virtualization
d) Green Computing
2. Which is not a type of grid computing security ?

a) Single sign on
b) Protection of credentials
c) Exportability
d) Physical Lock on Device
3. Which is a special kind of distributed computing ?

a) Mobile Computing
b) Grid Computing
c) Cloud Computing
d) Green Computing
4. Which is not a benefit of grid computing ?

a) Resource Balancing
b) Resiliency
c) Parallel CPU Capacity
d) Use of underutilized resources
5. Scheduling Grid jobs on machines with low utilization is known as :

a) Parallel CPU Capacity
b) Resource Balancing
c) Exportability
d) Interoperability
6. Hardware virtualization is also known as ;

a) Platform Virtualization
b) System Virtualization
c) Performance Virtualization
d) Structure Virtualization
7. Allows its user to run multiple operating system simultaneously on a single machine.
a) Virtualization
b) Grid Computing

c) Artificial Intelligence
d) Web 3.0
8. Also known as Platform virtualization.

a) Server Consolidation
b) Hardware Consolidation
c) Database Consolidation
d) Software Consolidation
9. It allows administrators to improve network traffic control, enterprise and security ?

a) Network Virtualization
b) Hardware Virtualization
c) Database Virtualization
d) Software Virtualization
10. A computer that is using with Microsoft windows may host a virtual machine that looks like a
computer with Linux Operating system.
a) Server Virtualization
b) Hardware Virtualization
c) Database Virtualization
d) Software Virtualization
11. Which is not an objective of BPA ?

a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Alertness
12. To ensure that data is only available to person who have right to see the same .
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Timeliness
13. To ensure that no un-authorized amendments can be made in data .

a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Timeliness
14. Which is the Correct sequence of steps for implementing a BPA.

I. Define why we plan to implement a BPA ?
II. Engage the business process consultant.

III. Developing the BPA
IV. Define the objective/Goals
V. Calculate ROI of Project
VI. Testing the BPA
VII. Document the Process, we wish to automate
VIII. Understand rules/ regulation under which enterprise needs to comply with ?
a) (iii), (i), (viii), (iv), (ii), (v), (vi) , (vii)
b) (v), (vii), (iii), (vi), (ii), (iv), (viii), (i)
c) (viii), (iv), (ii), (v), (i), (vi), (iii), (vii)
d) (i), (viii), (vii), (iv), (ii), (v), (iii), (vi)
15. Which is not the criteria while deciding goal for implementing BPA ?
a) Specific
b) Measurable
c) Attainable
d) Accurate
16. How many steps are defined to implement a BPA ?

a) Four
b) Six
c) Eight
d) Ten
17. Which error occur when an extra digit or character is added to code ?
OR
83276 is recorded as 832766. which type of error is it?
a) Addition Error
b) Truncation Errors
c) Substitution Error
d) None of these
18. Which error occur when a digit or character is removed from the end of as code ?
OR
83276 is recorded as 8327. which type of error is it ?
a) Addition Error
d) None of these
19. Which error occur when one digit in a code is replaced with another ?
OR
a) Addition Error

d) None of these
20. Which errors occur when two adjacent digits are reversed?
OR
12345 is recorded as 21345. which type of error is it?
a) Single Transposition errors
b) Multiple transposition errors
c) Truncation Errors occur
d) None of these
21. Which error occur when an extra digit or character is added to code ?
OR
a) Addition Error
d) None of these
22. Which is to verify fields appearing in different files to see that the result tally ?
a) Limit Checks
b) Parity Check
c) Picture Checks
d) Cross Check
23. Which is to ensure that physical records follow a required order matching with logical records ?
a) Limit Checks
b) Valid Code Checks
c) Sequence Checks
d) Arithmetic Checks
24. In which the signals are transported along an enclosed physical path like - twisted pair, coaxial
cable, and Optical fiber .
a) Guided Bound Media
b) Sequence Check
c) Parity Check
d) Limit Check
25. Which is used to mitigate exposure associated with dial-up access to a computer system ?
a) Port protection Device
b) Sequence Check
c) Transmission Media

d) Communication Lines
26. Which data processing control are generated to identify errors in the processed data?
a) Run-to-Run totals
b) Edit Checks
c) Exception Reports
d) Field Initialization
27. Which of these is a basic test for data processing accuracy and may be applied to both the input
and output?
a) Limit Checks
b) Picture Checks
c) Valid Coad Checks
28. Which of these checks against entry into processing of incorrect/invalid character ?
a) Limit Checks
b) Picture Checks
c) Valid Coad Checks
29. By which method nodes in a network must compete with each other to gain access to a channe?
a) Sequence Check
b) Cross Check
c) Parity Control
d) Contention
30. Which is to verify fields appearing in different files to see that the result tally ?
a) Limit Checks
b) Parity Check
c) Picture Checks
d) Cross Check
31. Which perform validation checks to identify errors during processing of data ?
a) Real Memory Control
b) Virtual Memory Control
c) Data Processing Control
d) None of these
32. as a computer program used to fulfill a person's need for regular occupation or
commercial activity.
a) Data Analytics
b) Artificial Intelligence
c) Business Application

d) Virtualization
33. Which range from application software such as TALLY and wings to high-and applications such
as SAP and Oracle Financials.
a) Accounting Application
b) Compliance Application
c) Management Support Software
d) Logistic Management Software
34. applications help entities to manage their office requirements like word processors,
electronic spreadsheets, presentation software, file sharing systems, etc.
a) Office Management Software
35. are applications catering to decision-making needs of the management & they may
be further classified based on the level of management using them.
a) Accounting Management Application
b) Compliance Management Application
36. These applications called as software, which are used by entities to manage
resources optimally and to maximize the three Es i.e. Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness
of business operations.
a) Enterprise Resource Planning
37. It is an accounting application that helps entity to automate processes relating to

accounting of transactions.
a) Tally
b) SAP
c) MS-Office
d) Oracle
38. is ERP software, which allows an entity to integrate its business processes. ERP stands
for Enterprise Resource Planning, which aims at better utilization of the resources and helps
entity achieve better business performance.
a) Tally
b) SAPR/3
c) MS-Office

d) Oracle
39. There are programs that transform data into codes that appear meaningless to anyone who
does not possess the authentication to access the respective system resource or file.
a) Cryptography
b) Passwords
c) PIN
d) Identification Cards
40. User identification by an authentication mechanism with personal characteristics like name, birth
date, employee code, function, designation or a combination of two or more of these can be
used as a boundary access control.
a) Cryptography
b) Passwords
c) PIN
d) Identification Cards
41. is similar to a password assigned to a user by an institution based on the user

characteristics and encrypted using a cryptographic algorithm.
a) Cryptography
b) PIN
c) Identification Cards
d) None Of these
42. Which technique of boundary control are used to store information required in an authentication
process?
a) Cryptography
b) PIN
c) Identification Cards
d) Passwords
43. Which is defined as a processing of large set of data in a specific way, automatically, without
needing any user intervention?
a) Batch Processing
b) Online Processing
c) Real-time Processing
d) None of These
44. In which type of application data is processed immediately while it is entered, the user usually
only has to wait a short time for a response?
a) Batch Processing
b) Online Processing
c) Real-time Processing
d) None of These
45. These are the standard applications which are not free but are licensed.

a) Packaged Software
b) Leased Application
c) Custom Built Application
d) None of These
46. A new method for getting applications is being used today, where user pays fixed rent for using
the application for agreed terms.
a) Packaged Software
b) Leased Application
c) Custom Built Application
d) None of These
47. In which part, we shall examine controls over the managerial controls that must be performed
to ensure the development, implementation, operation and maintenance of information systems
in a planned and controlled manner in an organization?
a) Managerial Control
b) Application Control
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
48. Which of these include the programmatic routines within application program code & have
objective to ensure that data remains complete, accurate & valid during its input, update &
storage?
a) Managerial Control
b) Application Control
c) Both (a) & (b)
49. Auditors are members of the system development team. They assist the team in improving the quality of systems
development for the specific system they are building and implementing.
a) Concurrent Audit
b) Post-Implementation Audit
c) General Audit
d) None of these
50. Auditors seek to help an organization learn from its experiences in the development of a specific application system.
a) Concurrent Audit
c) General Audit
d) None of these
51. In which of these system development management control Auditors evaluate systems
development controls overall?
a) Concurrent Audit
c) General Audit

d) None of these
52. Which are designed to protect the privacy of data and to prevent unauthorized modifications
of data?
a) Cryptography Control
b) Access Control
c) Digital Signature
d) Plastic Card
53. restrict use of computer system resources to authorized users, limit the actions
authorized users can taker with these resources, and ensure that users obtain only authentic
computer system resources.
b) Access Control
d) Plastic Card
54. In computer system, _________________ establish the authenticity of persons and prevent the denial
of messages or contracts when data is exchanged electronically.
b) Access Control
d) Plastic Card
55. are used to store information required in an authentication process.

b) Access Control
d) Plastic Card
Answers
1 A 11 D 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 C
2 D 12 A 22 D 32 C 42 C 52 A
3 B 13 B 23 C 33 A 43 A 53 B
4 B 14 D 24 A 34 A 44 B 54 C
5 B 15 D 25 A 35 C 45 A 55 D
6 A 16 C 26 C 36 A 46 B
7 A 17 A 27 A 37 A 47 A
8 B 18 B 28 B 38 B 48 B
9 A 19 C 29 D 39 A 49 A
10 B 20 A 30 D 40 B 50 B

PART-A
1. A main purpose of business is that business exists to ____________.
a) Earn Profit
b) Reduce Cost
c) Minimize Competition
d) Create Customers
2. ________ group is nothing but family & its kith and kin.
a) Ethnic Mix
b) Kieretsus
c) Ownership
d) Cultural
3. Which objective of enterprise minimizes managerial tensions and demands less Dynamism
from managers?
a) Profitability
b) Initial
c) Growth
d) Stability
4. Which objective of business is equated with dynamism, promise and success?

a) Profitability
b) Initial
c) Growth
d) Stability
5. It is generally asserted that private enterprises are primarily motivated by the objective of
_______.
a) Growth
b) Stability
c) Efficiency
d) Profit
6. Which is the problem in understanding the environmental influences?

a) Environment encapsulates different influences.
b) Difficulty of uncertainty
c) No Difference in managers
d) All the Above
7. Determine the correct sequence of steps to understand environment of the organization.

i) Auditing of environmental influences, ii) Initial view of nature, iii) Focus more on explicit
consideration

a) (i),(ii),(iii)
b) (ii),(i),(iii)
c) (iii),(ii),(i)
d) (i),(iii),(ii)
8. When company ceases to adjust environment to its strategy the result is reduced achievement
of ________.
a) Huge Market
b) Corporate objectives
c) Product’s Demand
d) Customer’s Loyalty
9. From ___________ strategists get time to anticipate opportunities and to plan to take optional
responses to these opportunity.
a) Six Sigma
b) Portfolio Analysis
c) Environment Analysis
d) Movement Analysis
10. Which is not the goal of environmental analysis?

a) Understanding current & potential changes
b) Provide inputs for strategic decision making
c) It facilitate & foster strategic thinking
d) None of these
11. Which is not the characteristic of business environment?

a) Complexity
b) Dynamic
c) Multi-faceted
d) None of these
12. Environment is a complex that is somewhat easier to understand ______ but difficult to grasp
in ______.
a) In total, Part
b) In Part, Totality
c) Both (a) & (b)
13. What shape and character an environment assume depends on the perception of the
________?
a) Creator
b) Destroyer
c) Observer
d) User

14. The growth and profitability of the organization depends critically on the ___________ on which
it exists.
a) Market
b) Industry
c) Customer Group
d) Environment
15. Which is not the major are in which the relationship between the organization and
environment can be discussed?
a) Exchange of information
b) Exchange of resources
c) Environmental interactions
d) Exchange of Customer Group
16. Which is the way to get over the problems of uncertainty and complexity of the external
environment?
a) Information generation
b) Strategic Decision Making
c) Rationalize Marketing
d) Outcome Reporting
17. Organization is dependent on _______ for its disposal of its output of the products and
services to a wide range of clientele.
a) Strategists Planning
b) Internal Environment
c) Management Thinking
d) External Environment
18. Which of these is in position to impose its will over the organization & can force it to fall in
line?
a) Strategists Planning
b) External Environment
c) Internal Environment
d) Management Decision
19. Which of these is related with immediate periphery on an organization?

a) Micro Environment
b) Macro Environment
c) Both (a) & (b)
20. Which of these mainly consists of economic, technological, political, legal and socio-cultural?

c) Both (a) & (b)
21. A consumer occupies _________ in the marketing development.

a) Central Position
b) Last Position
c) Different Position
d) All The Above
22. Which is not the element of micro environment?

a) Customer
b) Organization
c) Intermediaries
d) Infrastructures
23. Understanding the threats from competition is the matter of _________.

c) Both (a) & (b)
24. Which is not the non-specific element of organization’s surroundings that may affect its
activities?
a) Owner
b) Board of directors
c) Employees
d) Competitors
25. _________ are the individuals, shareholders, groups, or organizations who have a major stake in
the organization.
a) Owner
b) Board of directors
c) Employees
d) Competitors
26. Who is the major force in the organization?

a) Customers
b) Employees
c) Competitors
d) Suppliers
27. ______ is larger than ______.

a) Market, Customers
b) Customers, Market

c) Micro, Macro
d) None of these
28. _________ with their own bargaining power affect the cost structure of the industry.
a) Customers
b) Competitors
c) Suppliers
d) Intermediaries
29. Which is not the element of macro environment?

a) Demographic
b) Political
c) Socio-cultural
d) Intermediaries
30. Which of these is largely external to the enterprise and thus beyond the direct influence and
control of the organization, but which exerts powerful influence over its functioning?
a) Macro Environment
c) PESTEL Analysis
d) Management Thinking
31. Which of these denotes characteristics of population in a area, district, country or in world?
a) Demographic
b) Environmental
c) Socio-Cultural
d) Economical
32. Which of these includes factors such as race, age, income, educational attainment, asset
ownership, home ownership, employment status and location?
a) Demographic
b) Environmental
c) Socio-Cultural
d) Economical
33. Population shifts from ________ may have an impact on a company’s strategic competitiveness.
a) One region to another region
b) Non-metropolitan to metropolitan
c) Both (a) and (b)
34. Which is not the factor under demographic environment?

a) Income Distribution
b) Ethnic Mix

c) Population size
d) Technology Mix
35. Which of these under demographic environment has implications for both, a company’s
potential customers and for the workplace?
a) Income Distribution
b) Ethnic Mix
c) Population size
d) Geographic Distribution
36. Which of these determines the strength and size of the organization?
a) Demographic Environment
b) Socio-Cultural Environment
c) Economic Environment
d) Political/Legal Environment
37. Which of these is considered under Socio-Cultural environment?

a) Population Size
b) Raw Material Components
c) Intellectual Property
d) Educational Levels
38. Which of these is the most important factor that is controlling and changing people’s life and
has changed the ways of how business operates now?
a) Technology
b) Political
c) Demographic
d) Socio-Cultural
39. Potential positive and negative impact of significant international events such as a sport meet
or terrorists attack, is a factor related to __________.
a) Technology Environment
b) Economic Environment
c) Demographic Environment
d) Global Environment
40. ____________ means several things for several people.

a) Geographical
b) Economical
c) Globalization
d) Demographic
41. Which of these must be insured at competitive prices, if the companies were to compete
globally?

a) Risk Reduction
b) Infrastructural Resources
c) Market Rationalization
d) Brand Loyalty
42. Which of these is used to describe a framework for analysis of macro environment?
a) SWOT Analysis
c) PESTEL Analysis
d) Strategic Analysis
43. _________ factors have major impacts on how businesses operate and take decision.
a) Social
b) Economic
c) Technology
d) Political
44. __________ factors affect the demand for a company’s products and how that company
operates.
a) Social
b) Economic
c) Technology
d) Political
45. __________ factors affect how a company operates, its costs, quality, and lead to innovation.
a) Social
b) Economic
c) Legal
d) Political
46. In which approach businesses just manage to survive by way of coping with their changing
external environment?
a) Least Resistance
b) Proceed with caution
c) Dynamic Response
d) All the Above
47. In which approach businesses take an intelligent interest to adapt with the changing external
environmental?
a) Least Resistance
c) Dynamic Response
d) All the Above

48. Which of these is a sophisticated strategy than to wait for changes to occur and then take
corrective-adaptive action.
a) Least Resistance
c) Dynamic Response
d) All the Above
49. In which approach businesses feedback system are highly dynamic and they not only
recognise but also convert threats into opportunity?
a) Least Resistance
c) Dynamic Response
d) All the Above
50. __________ is, wherein a small number of only manufacturers/sellers of a product may join
together to have monopolistic behavior.
a) Geography
b) Oligopoly
c) Typology
d) All The Above
51. In which country large cooperative networks of business are known as kieretsus?
a) Japan
b) Germany
c) England
d) America
52. In Japan the large cooperative networks of business are known as ________.
a) Gozaimasu
b) Douitashimash
c) Kieretsus
d) Konbanwa
53. Who determines what a business is?

a) Supplier
b) Manager
c) Customer
d) Stakeholders
54. Survival objective of a business gains more value and prominence during which stage of
establishment of enterprise?
a) Profitability
b) Initial
c) Growth

d) Stability
55. ________ is a loosely-coupled group of companies, usually in related industries.

a) Gozaimasu
b) Douitashimash
c) Kieretsus
d) Konbanwa
56. Business policy tends to emphasize on which aspect of strategic management?

a) System Analytical
b) Portfolio Analytical
c) Credit Analytical
d) Rational Analytical
57. In large organization strategies are formulated at which level ?

a) Corporate levels
b) Divisional Levels
c) Functional levels
d) All of the above
58. Which of these serves as a corporate defense mechanism against mistakes & pitfalls?
a) Strategic Management
b) Marketing Techniques
c) Strategic Awareness
d) Competitive Analysis
59. Which is a self-contained division?

a) Strategic business unit
b) Divisional structure
c) Corporate division
d) Managerial division
60. Successful hospital strategy for future will require renewed & deepened collaboration with
______.
a) Physicians
b) Ambulance Providers
c) CCTV Providers
d) Nurses
61. Which is used with reference to a key group in an organization in-charge of its affairs?
a) Strategy
b) Management
c) Execution
d) Monitoring
62. Which is a planned strategy ?

a) Proactive

b) Reactive
c) Adaptive
d) None of these
63. Which is not an advantage of strategic management?

a) Helps organizations to be proactive.
b) Control their own destiny in better manner.
c) Identify available opportunity
d) None of these
64. Who is the head of the division?

a) Corporate level manager
b) Business level managers
c) Functional level manager
d) None of these
65. Whole Strategic landscape of healthcare is changing because of _________.

a) Doctors
b) Nurses
c) Internet
d) Patients
66. Which is a set of interrelated functions & processes carried out by management of an
organization to attain its objective ?
a) Strategy
b) Execution
c) Monitoring
d) Management
67. Which is adaptive reaction to changing business environment ?

a) Proactive
b) Reactive
c) Adaptive
d) None of these
68. Which is not the limitation of strategic management ?

a) Time Consuming Process
b) Difficult Estimation of competitive responses
c) Costly Process
d) Understandable complex environment
69. Functional level managers are concerned with _________.

a) Strategies responsible for Specific business operations
b) Strategies that span individual business
c) Strategies that are specific to particular business
d) None of these
70. Public enterprise generally cannot diversify into__________.

a) Unrelated businesses
b) Profitable businesses
c) Private businesses
d) All of these
71. Which of these is something that has to do with war & ways to win over enemy?
a) Strategy
b) Management
c) Execution
d) Monitoring
72. Which strategy is used by companies to cope up with uncertain business environment?
a) Proactive
b) Reactive
c) Both
d) None of these
73. In competitive environment it is difficult to clearly estimate _______ about firm’s strategies.
a) Competitive Responses
b) Operating Process
c) Control System
d) Reasonable Outcomes
74. Who is more closer to the customers?

a) Corporate level manager
b) Business level managers
c) Functional level manager
d) None of these
75. Who enjoys more freedom in strategic decision making?

a) Government Strategists
b) Non-Government Strategists
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
76. Which of these seeks to relate the goals of organization to the means of achieving them ?
a) Strategy
b) Execution
c) Monitoring
d) Management
77. When market & competitive conditions take an unexpected turn then required strategy is
_______.
a) Proactive
b) Reactive
c) Both
d) None

78. In which level there are no general managers ?
a) Corporate Level
b) Business Level
c) Functional Level
d) None of these
79. Organization can be classified as _________ on the basis of interest they have.
a) Market Oriented & Prize Oriented
b) General & Specific
c) Broad & Narrow
d) Commercial & Non-Commercial
80. When did integrative course introduced in Harvard Business School?

a) 1865
b) 1911
c) 2001
d) 2015
81. What is a unified, comprehensive & integrated plan designed to assure that basic objectives
of enterprise are achieved?
a) Strategy
b) Execution
c) Monitoring
d) Management
82. What is required by companies to meet changing condition in their industries ?

a) Far-sighted
b) Visionary
c) Develop long term strategies
d) All the above
83. Corporate level of management does consist of ________.

a) Board of directors
b) Chief Executive Officer
c) Corporate staff
d) All the above
84. Who said that ‘I believe we do a far better job of strategic management than any company I
know?
a) Richard Cyert
b) Igor H. Ansoff
c) William F. Glueck
d) Michal Porter
85. Strategy is not a ________ for sound, alert & responsible management ?
a) Reason
b) Necessity

c) Substitute
d) Platform
86. Which of these involves developing a strategy to meet competition & ensure long term
survival & growth?
a) Strategy Planning
b) Strategy Implementation
c) Strategic Change
d) Monitoring
87. Role of corporate level managers is to oversee development of strategies for ___________.
a) Departments
b) SBU
c) Whole Organization
d) Division
88. Educational delivery system has undergone considerable changes with introduction of
_________.
a) Virtualization
b) Internet
c) Computers
d) All the above
89. In a sound strategy, allowances are made for ________ .

a) Possible miscalculations
b) Unanticipated events
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
90. Which is not the objective of strategic management?

a) To Create Competitive Advantage
b) To Guide Company Successfully
c) To Create Ethics in employees
d) None of these

Answers
1 d 16 a 31 a 46 a 61 b 76 a
2 c 17 d 32 a 47 b 62 a 77 b
3 d 18 b 33 c 48 b 63 d 78 c
4 b 19 a 34 d 49 c 64 b 79 d
5 d 20 b 35 b 50 b 65 c 80 b
6 d 21 a 36 c 51 a 66 d 81 a
7 b 22 d 37 d 52 c 67 b 82 d
8 b 23 a 38 a 53 c 68 d 83 d
9 c 24 d 39 d 54 b 69 a 84 a
10 d 25 a 40 c 55 c 70 a 85 c
11 d 26 b 41 b 56 d 71 a 86 a
12 b 27 a 42 c 57 d 72 c 87 c
13 c 28 c 43 b 58 a 73 a 88 d
14 d 29 d 44 a 59 a 74 c 89 c
15 d 30 b 45 c 60 a 75 a 90 c

PART-B
1.Which is involved in feature of dominant Economic feature?
a) Size & Nature of market
b) Scope of competitive rivalry
c) Types of distribution channel
d) All the above
2.Tangible resources are assets that can be ________

a) Perceived & Quantified
b) Unperceived & Quantified
c) Perceived & Unquantified
d) Unperceived & Unquantified
3. Which is not the characteristic of globalization?

a) Conglomerate of multiple units
b) Common Pool of resources
c) Common Strategy
d) High Transpersonal Cost
4. Value chain analysis was originally introduce as an _________ to shed light on the value added
task of separate activities.
a) Accounting Analysis
c) Controls Analysis
d) System Analysis
5. Which concepts exhibits the relationship of sales with respect of time for a product that
passes through the four successive stages?
a) BCG
b) PLC
c) SWOT
d) ADL
6. How many strategic group does an industry contains when all sellers pursue essentially
identical strategies & have comparable market position?
a) More than 2
b) Less than 10
c) Only One
d) None of these
7. It is the management of __________ which provides _________ and levels of performance which
are difficult to match.

a) Rules, Capabilities
b) Policies, Value
c) Linkages, Leverage
d) Procedures, Competencies
8. __________ is a to by which management identifies & evaluates the various businesses that
make up the company.
a) Strategic Analysis
c) Market Analysis
d) System Analysis
9. Which of these are low-growth, high market share businesses/product, generate cash & have
low costs ?
a) Star
b) Cash-Cow
c) Question-Mark
d) Dog
10. Which strategy has its objective to increase market share, even by foregoing short-term
earnings?
a) Build
b) Hold
c) Harvest
d) Divest
11. Which of the following is the riskiest strategy of Ansoff market product growth matrix?
a) Market Penetration
b) Market Development
c) Product Development
d) Diversification
12. Competitive strategy of firm evolves out of consideration of several factor that are ______to it.
a) Unrelated
b) Managerial
c) Internal
d) External
13. Which companies own a home company & also its subsidiaries?
a) MNC
b) TNC
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these

14. Which will not be considered as a supporting activity?
a) Firm Infrastructure
b) HR Management
c) Inbound Logistic
d) Technology Development
15. In which stage of product life cycle the competition is negligible?

a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
16. A ________ for a firm is whatever it does Best.

a) Core Competency
b) Driving Forces
c) Key Success Factors
d) Concurrent Filters
17. Which integration attempts to improve performance through ownership of more parts of the
value system, making linkages internal to organization?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-Centric
d) Stratified
18. Which can be defined as a technique that helps strategists in taking strategic decisions with
regard to individual products or businesses in a firm’s portfolio?
a) Strategic Analysis
c) Market Analysis
d) System Analysis
19. Industry & competitive analysis begins with _________.

a) Trigger of change
b) Dominant Economic Feature
c) Nature & strength of competition
d) Prospect of Industry
20. Which strategy has its objective of preserve market share?

a) Build
b) Hold
c) Harvest
d) Divest

21. Which of these is a portfolio analysis technique that is based on the product life cycle?
a) BCG Growth Matrix
b) Ansoff Growth Matrix
c) Arthur D. Little Matrix
d) General Electric Matrix
22. Which of the following does not have centralized management system?
a) MNC
b) TNC
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
23. Which of these will not be considered as primary activity?

a) Inbound Logistic
b) Marketing & Sales
c) Procurement
d) Service & Operation
24. The concept of TOWS matrix was developed by _______

a) Igor H. Ansoff
b) Willium F. Gluek
c) Heinz Weihrich
d) Arthur D. Little
25. Which is not the characteristic of SWOT analysis?

a) Provides Logical framework
b) Helps in crafting strategy
c) Present a cooperative account
d) Guides in strategy identification
26. Which of these are those things that most affect industry member’s ability to prosper in
marketplace?
a) Key Success Factors
b) Driving Forces
c) Core Identity Forces
27. Which of these under linkages seeks to improve performance through closer working
relationship between specialists within the value system?
a) Total Quality Management
b) Project Management
c) Customer Relation Management
d) Sales Management Module

28. Which is a unit of company that has a separate mission & objectives and which can be
planned independently from other company businesses?
a) SBU
b) TNC
c) ADL
d) BCG
29. Which strategy has its objective to increase short term cash flows regardless of long term
earning ?
a) Build
b) Hold
c) Harvest
d) Divest
30. Which position of ADL matrix is comparatively rare position & in many cases is attributable to
a monopoly?
a) Dominant
b) Tenable
c) Favourable
d) Strong
31. Industry’s economic feature & competitive structure revealed ________ about its fundamental
character & _______ about ways in which its environment may be changing.
a) A Lot, Little
b) Little, A lot
c) Nothing, A lot
d) A Lot, Nothing
32. Competitive strategy consist of moves to __________.

a) Attract Customer
b) Withstand Competitive pressure
c) Strengthen market position
d) All the above
33. Which of the following gain more interest in local market?

a) MNC
b) TNC
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
34. Companies often set _______ to reduce high transformational cost in globalization.
a) Bearer Plant
b) Overseas plant

c) Domestic Plant
d) All the above
35. The concept ADL Matrix is developed by _______.

a) Igor H. Ansoff
b) Willium F. Gluek
c) Heinz Weihrich
d) Arthur D. Little
36. Which is not the factor influencing market position of an organization?

a) Organization’s Correct market position
b) Nature of opportunity and threat
c) Capability to capitalize opportunity
d) Capability to stratify situation
37. Which of these are the rules that shape whether a company will be financially & competitively
successful?
a) Core Identity Forces
b) Driving Forces
c) Key Success Factors
38. Which of the following is based on commonly observed phenomenon that unit costs decline
as a firm accumulates experience in terms of a cumulative volume of production?
a) Experience Curve
b) Product Life Cycle
c) SWOT Analysis
d) Growth Share Matrix
39. Which strategy has its objective to sell or liquidate the business because resources can be
better used elsewhere?
a) Build
b) Hold
c) Harvest
d) Divest
40. In which position of ADL, a firm has considerable degree of freedom over its choice of
strategies & often able to act without its market position?
a) Dominant
b) Tenable
c) Favorable
d) Strong
41. Which of these is a measurement through which value can be measured?

a) Price
b) Willing to pay
c) Cost
d) All the above
42. Due to centralized system which of the following will face barrier in decision making?
a) MNC
b) TNC
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
43. The concept of the core competency was developed by _______.

a) H.N. Prashad & F.W. Taylor
b) R.K. Narayan & Arthur D. Little
c) C.K. Prahalad & Gary Hamel
d) Ansoff & Willium F. Gluek
44. In which stage of product life cycle the sales & profit falls down sharply due to some new
product replaces the existing product?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
45. Which approach has an advantage that it can be used to diagnose a portfolio of products in
order to establish stage at which each of them exist?
a) Experience Curve
c) SWOT Analysis
d) Growth Share Matrix
46. Which of the following is also known as ‚Problem Child‛ or ‚Wild Cats‛ ?
a) Star
b) Cash-Cow
c) Question-Mark
d) Dog
47. Which of these refers to a growth strategy where the business focuses on selling existing
products into existing markets?
d) Diversification

48. Which position in ADL matrix generally comes about when industry is fragmented & no one
competitor stand out clearly, result in market leaders a reasonable degree of freedom?
a) Dominant
b) Tenable
c) Favorable
d) Strong
49. Which of these refers to process of integration of world economy into one huge market.
a) Globalization
b) Privatization
c) Stratification
d) None Of these
50. Which of these is a widely used means of describing activities within & around an
organization & relating them to an assessment of competitive strength of an organization.
a) Accounting Analysis
c) Controls Analysis
d) System Analysis
51. Which concept is also known as ‚S-Shaped‛ Curve?

a) PLC
b) BCG
c) ADL
d) SWOT
52. Which is not the example of driving forces?

a) Increasing Globalization
b) Product Innovation
c) Changes in cost/efficiency
d) None of these
53. _________ is defined as a combination of skills & techniques rather than individual skill or
separate technique.
a) Competency
b) Driving Force
c) Core Identity Force
d) Concurrent Filter
54. Which area of value chain transform various inputs into the final product or service?
a) Marketing & Sales
b) Procurement
c) Infrastructure
d) Operation

55. Which of these is a simplest way to portray a corporation’s portfolio of investment?
a) Ansoff’s Growth Matrix
c) SWOT Analysis
d) BCG Growth Share Matrix
56. Which of these require a lot of cash to hold their share & need heavy investment with low
growth potential?
a) Star
b) Cash-Cow
c) Question-Mark
d) Dog
57. Which of these refers to a strategy where the business seeks to sell its existing products into
new market & this can be achieved by new product packaging, distribution channel etc?
d) Diversification
58. In which position of ADL matrix companies are generally vulnerable in the face of increased
competition from stronger & more proactive companies in market?
a) Dominant
b) Tenable
c) Favorable
d) Strong
59. A company which has gone global is called ______

a) MNC
b) TNC
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
60. In industries where rate of ________ is fast, ________ are quite likely to became obsolete.
a) Product Innovation, Product Patents
b) Market Innovation, Firm’s Name
c) Product Innovation, Firm’s Name
d) Market Innovation, Product Patents
61. The TOWS matrix is a tool of generating strategic _________.

a) Leadership
b) Environment
c) Options

d) Control
62. Which of these is useful analytical tool for comparing market position of each firm
separately when an industry has so many competitors that it is not practical to examine each
of them?
a) Strategic Group Mapping
b) Scenario Analysis
c) Strategic Core Analysis
d) PESTEL Analysis
63. Which is not the area identified in major core competencies?

a) Competitor differentiation
b) Customer Value
c) Profitability of industry
d) Application to other market
64. Which is a particularly important area of supportive activities in value chain that transcends
all primary activities?
a) Procurement
b) Technology Development
c) Human Resources Manager
d) Infrastructure
65. Which is not the factor on which company’s profitability depends?

a) Value customers place for product/service
b) Prize that company charges for its product
c) Contribution of telecommunication channel
d) Costs of creating those product
66. Which of these are products or SBU that are growing rapidly & also need heavy investment
to maintain their position & finance their rapid growth potential?
a) Star
b) Cash-Cow
c) Question-Mark
d) Dog
67. Which of these are low-growth, low-share businesses & products that may generate enough
cash to maintain themselves but do not have much future?
a) Star
b) Cash-Cow
c) Question-Mark
d) Dog
68. Which of these refers to a growth strategy where new products is market in new markets?

d) Diversification
69. General Electric Matrix does not known as __________.

a) Business Planning Matrix
b) Nine-Cell Matrix
c) Electric Model
d) S-Shaped Curve
70. Nine-Cell Matrix is developed on the basis of ________.

a) Traffic Control Lights
b) Electricity Cable Tools
c) General Electronics Functions
d) Power Failure Concept
Answers
1 d 8 b 15 a 22 b 29 c 36 d 43 c 50 a 57 b 64 c
2 a 9 b 16 a 23 c 30 a 37 c 44 d 51 a 58 b 65 c
3 d 10 a 17 a 24 c 31 a 38 a 45 a 52 d 59 c 66 a
4 a 11 d 18 b 25 b 32 d 39 d 46 c 53 a 60 a 67 d
5 b 12 d 19 b 26 a 33 b 40 d 47 a 54 d 61 c 68 d
6 c 13 a 20 b 27 a 34 b 41 b 48 c 55 d 62 a 69 d
7 c 14 c 21 c 28 a 35 d 42 a 49 a 56 c 63 c 70 a

PART-C
1. Which strategy actually steers the firms towards success?
a) Corporate Strategy
b) Business Strategy
c) Functional Strategy
d) None of these
2. Generally, result of strategic implementation are seen on which basis?

a) Short-term
b) Long term
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
3. Which of these implies blueprint of the company’s future position & despite organization’s
aspirations?
a) Vision
b) Mission
c) Goals & Objectives
d) Business Model
4. Which is the end result that organization want to achieve ?

a) Goals
b) Objectives
c) Vision
d) Mission
5. ‚To be a world class corporate constantly furthering interest of all its stakeholders’’ is vision
of ______.
a) Tata Motors
b) Reliance Industry
c) Microsoft
d) Amazon
6. Which of these is the expression of growth ambition of the firm?

a) Strategic Vision
b) Corporate Mission
c) Business Definition
d) Goals & Objective
7. Which is not the characteristic of objectives ?

a) Understandable
b) Challenging
c) Measurable
d) Uncontrollable
8. The managerial purpose of setting _______ is to convert the strategic vision into specific
performance targets – results and outcomes the management wants to achieve.

a) Mission
b) Objectives
c) Strategy
d) Strategic vision
9. Which is the heart & soul of managing a business enterprise?

a) Crafting & Executing strategy
b) Analysis of risk & Control
c) Monitoring & Testing
d) Redefine Business Process
10. Which of these is dynamic & uncertain?

a) External Environment
b) Organization Analysis
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
11. ________ means deciding what need to done in future & generating blueprint for action?
a) Implementation
b) Monitoring
c) Planning
d) Programing
12. __________Refers to purposes of what the organization strives for?

a) Strategic management
b) Strategic intent
c) Vision
d) Goals and objectives
13. Which of these delineates the firm’s business, its goals & ways to reach goals?
a) Vision
b) Mission
d) Business Model
14. Which is time-based measurable targets, which help in accomplishment of goals?

a) Business Model
b) Objectives
c) Vision
d) Mission
15. Which of these are central to strategic planning?
a) Vision & Mission
b) Mission & Business Definition
d) Business Model & Definition
16. Which of these serves as justification for the firm’s very presence & existence?

a) Strategic Vision
b) Corporate Mission
d) Goals & Objective
17. By spelling out ________ management indicates speed at which longer-range targets are to be
approached?
a) Annual Performance Targets
b) Measurable short-term targets
c) Qualitative Long-term targets
d) Quantitative time-based targets
18. Which of these provides the basis for major decision of the firm & also said the
organizational performance to be realized at each level?
a) Objectives
b) Mission
c) Business Model
d) Strategic vision
19. Which is not the stage of strategic management?

a) Strategic Vision, Mission & Objectives
b) Environmental & Organizational Analysis
c) Strategic Evolution & Control
d) Analysis of Risk & Control
20. Which is not involved in organizational analysis ?

a) Technological resources
b) Productive Capacity
c) Social Effect
d) Research & development
21. Which of these involves determination of the course of action to attain the predetermined
objectives?
a) Implementation
b) Monitoring
c) Planning
d) Programing
22. ________can be understand as the philosophical base of strategic management.

a) Goals and objectives
b) Mission
c) Vision
d) Strategic intent
23. Which of these explain the reason for existence of firm & identify what business company
undertakes?
a) Vision

b) Mission
d) Business Model
24. Which of these does not explain the philosophy of organization?

a) Vision
b) Mission
c) Goals & Objective
d) Business Model
25. Which is not the reason for having mission statement in organization?
a) Ensure unanimity of purpose
b) Develop basis for allocating resources
c) Establish organizational climate
d) Helpful in lawfully Strategy implementation
26. Business organization translate their vision & mission into ________?
a) Strategy planning
b) Business Definition
d) Business Model
27. What should be considered before setting long-term objectives?

a) Profitability
b) Productivity
c) Employee Relation
d) All the above
28. Strategic management process is cleanly divided and neatly performed in practice as ________
suggests.
a) Business Environment
b) Market Condition
c) Risk Appetite
d) Strategic Management Model
29. Top management views & conclusion about company’s direction & product-customer-
market-technology focus constitute ________ for company.
a) Corporate Mission
b) Business Model
c) Strategic Vision
d) Goals & Objectives
30. Which of these is operation-oriented, activity aimed at shaping performance of core business
activities?
a) Environmental analysis
b) Formulation
c) Implementation

d) Evolution & Control
31. Which of these is made by senior management?

a) Strategic Plan
b) Operational Plan
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
32. Strategic intent indicates the __________market position.

a) Long term
b) Short term
c) Both
d) None of these
33. Which seeks to explain business undertaken by firm, with respect to customer needs, target
markets & technologies?
a) Mission
b) Goals & Objective
d) Business Model
34. Which of these point out a particular direction, charts a strategic path to followed in future?
a) Vision
b) Mission
c) Goals
d) Objectives
35. Which is not the parameter to be assessed & controlled by mission statement ?
a) Risk
b) Cost
c) Time
d) Performance
36. Which of these are open-ended?

a) Goals
b) Objectives
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
37. Strategic management process is _______.

a) Dynamic
b) Continuous
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
38. Environmental and organizational analysis is at which stage of strategic management.

a) First
b) Second

c) Third
d) Fourth
39. Which of these delineates management’s aspirations for organization & highlights a
particular direction, or strategic path?
b) Business Model
c) Strategic Vision
40. Which is not the principal aspect in implementation of strategy?

a) Developing Budget
b) Staffing the organization
c) Creating Company Culture
d) Uninstalling Information system
41. Which can be employed when information gathering & additional are not able to reduce
uncertainty?
a) Report Analysis
b) Market Analysis
c) Risk Analysis
d) Scenario Analysis
42. ________ Depicts the organization’s aspirations and provides a glimpse of what the
organization would like to become in the future?
a) Vision
b) Mission
c) Strategic management
d) None of these
43. Which of these is not related with business definition?

a) Customer’s needs
b) Target Markets
c) Alternative Technologies
d) Organization Aspiration
44. Which is not the element of strategic vision?

a) Coming up with a mission statement
b) Using mission statement
c) Communicating strategic vision
d) Modifying strategic vision
45. Why an organization need mission statement?

a) To have its own special identity
b) To Reduce Rivalry in industry
c) To guide resources in proper way
d) To change Ethical environment

46. Which of these are close-ended?
a) Goals
b) Objectives
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
47. Strategy formulation, implementation, & evaluation activities should be performed _________?
a) At end of year
b) Semi Annually
c) At beginning of year
d) Continual Basis
48. Which of these is not the type of strategic analysis?

a) Environmental scanning
b) Organizational analysis
c) Ratio Analysis
d) None of these
49. Which of these communicates management aspirations to stakeholders & helps steer the
energies of company personnel in a common direction?
b) Business Model
c) Strategic Vision
50. Which is not the final stage of strategic management?

a) Evaluating company’s progress
b) Assessing impact of external development
c) Making corrective adjustment
d) Setting Vision, Mission & Objectives
51. Which is a managerial process of selecting best course of action out of several alternative
courses for purpose of accomplishment of organization goals?
a) Decision Making
c) Programming
d) Monitoring strategy
52. Which is not the element of strategic intent ?

a) Business Definition
b) Vision
d) None of these
53. Rivals firms, operating in the same industry rely on different __________ due to their strategic
choice.
a) Mission

d) Business Model
54. Forming a strategic vision is an exercise in intelligent ___________.

a) Execution
b) Monitoring
c) Planning
d) Entrepreneurship
55. Who was the first to agitate the issue of mission statement through writings?
a) Peter Drucker
b) Theodore Levitt
c) ‚Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
56. Which is more specific & translate goals to both short-term & long-term goals?
a) Vision
b) Mission
c) Objectives
d) Business Model
57. Strategy formulating is at which stage of strategic management.

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
58. Which of these is foundation & from this the network of goals is built?
a) Objectives
b) Business Model
c) Mission
d) Business Definition
59. Which stage is diagnostic phase of strategic analysis?

a) Strategy Implementation
b) Environmental & Organizational Analysis
c) Strategic Evolution & Control
d) Formulating Strategy
60. Which is not the major dimension of strategic decision making?

a) Top management involvement
b) Commitment of organizational resources
c) Future Oriented
d) Impact on short term prosperity of firm
61. Which is not the meaning of vision?

a) Blueprint of company’s future position

b) Where organization wants to land
c) Reason for existence of firm
d) Organization’s aspirations
62. Which of these are the base of measurement?

a) Vision
d) Business Model
63. Best-worded ______ statement clearly & crisply illuminates direction in which organization is
headed.
a) Vision
b) Mission
c) Goals
d) Objective
64. Which is not the question for deciding the mission statement?
a) What is our ultimate purpose?
b) What business are we in?
c) What do we want to become?
d) What resources organization have?
65. Objectives with _______ relate to outcomes that strengthen an organization‘s overall business
position & competitive vitality?
a) Strategic Focus
b) Monitoring
c) Risk Appetite
d) Fundamental Structure
66. A _________ delineates management’s aspiration for the organization and highlights a
particular direction, or strategic path for it to follow in preparing for the future, and modules
its identity.
a) Strategic vision
b) Strategy
c) Workers
d) Administration
67. Which question According to Peter Drucker, every organization must ask & get meaningful
answer?
a) What are our plans?
b) What are our resources?
c) What controls we have?
d) What business are we in?
68. Which of these consists of economic, social, technological, market & other forces which affect
its functioning?

a) External Environment
b) Organization Analysis
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answers
1 a 11 c 21 c 31 a 41 d 51 a 61 c
2 b 12 b 22 d 32 a 42 a 52 d 62 b
3 a 13 b 23 b 33 c 43 d 53 d 63 a
4 a 14 b 24 c 34 a 44 d 54 d 64 d
5 a 15 b 25 d 35 a 45 a 55 c 65 a
6 b 16 b 26 c 36 a 46 b 56 c 66 a
7 d 17 a 27 d 37 c 47 d 57 c 67 d
8 b 18 a 28 d 38 b 48 c 58 c 68 a
9 a 19 d 29 c 39 c 49 c 59 b
10 a 20 c 30 c 40 d 50 d 60 d

PART-D
1. Stability, Growth, Retrenchment & Combination are __________.
a) Initial Strategies
b) Environmental Strategy
c) Electric Model Strategy
d) Directional Strategy
2. Business conglomerates having multiple product folios formulate strategies at _________.

a) Corporate level
b) Business Level
c) Functional Level
d) Different Levels
3. In which strategy firm seeks significant growth-maybe within current, new, related or
unrelated business?
a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination
4. Which strategy is implemented by redefining business & enlarging scope of business ?

a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination
5. Which is not the type of expansion strategy?

a) Through diversification
b) Through mergers & acquisition
c) Through Strategic alliance
d) Through Tough Rivalry
6. In which diversification, firms opt to engage in businesses that are not related the existing
business of firm?
a) Vertical integrated
b) Horizontally integrated
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
7. Acquisition of one or more similar business operating at same stage of production-marketing

chain that is going into complementary or by or competitor’s product.
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate

8. Which is a process of combining two or more organization together?
a) Diversification
b) Acquisition or Merger
c) Strategic Alliance
d) None of these
9. Which of these is a merger of two organization that are operating in same industry but at
different stages of production or distribution system?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
10. Which is a relationship between two or more businesses that enables each to achieve certain
strategic objectives which neither would be able to achieve on its own?
a) Diversification
b) Acquisition
d) Merger
11. Which of these is not the disadvantage of strategic alliance?

a) Sharing knowledge & skill
b) Long-term court procedures
c) Create a potential competitor
d) None of these
12. Which is the third stage of turnaround strategy to stop bleeding & enable organization to
survive?
a) Assessment of current problems
b) Implementation of emergency action plan
c) Restructuring the business
d) Returning to normal
13. ‘When dead business is worth more than alive’ then which strategy should be opted by
entity?
a) Divestment
b) Liquidation
c) Expansion
d) Stratification
14. Which strategy is not suggested by Michael Porter ?

a) Cost Leadership Strategy
b) Focused Strategy
c) Differentiation Strategy
d) None of these
15. Which is also known as grand strategies?

a) Corporate level Strategies
b) Business Level Strategies
c) Functional Level Strategies
d) None of these
16. When the stability strategy is pursued by firm?

a) Serve in Similar Market
b) Deals in similar product/service
c) Focus on incremental improvement
d) All the above
17. Which is a popular strategy that tends to be equated with dynamism, vigor, promise &
success?
a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination
18. Which of these involve entry with substantially various skill, technology & knowledge?
a) Diversification
b) Penetration
c) Stratification
d) Merger & Acquisition
19. In which type of diversification firm moves forward or backward in chain & enters specific
process steps with intention of making them into new business for firm?
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
20. Which is the example of related diversification?

a) Employment of new product portfolios
b) Investment in new product portfolios
c) Defend against takeover bids
d) Share assets by exploiting brand name
21. When deals get finalized on friendly terms & both organizations share profits in the newly
created entity.
a) Acquisition
b) Merger
c) Penetration
d) Stratification
22. Which of these helps to create an advantageous position by restricting supply of inputs to
other players or providing input at higher costs?
a) Vertical

b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
23. Which is not the field of advantage with strategic alliance?

a) Organizational
b) Economic
c) Political
d) None of these
24. Which strategy is adopted by organization when if it chooses to focus on ways & means to
reserve process of decline?
a) Turnaround
b) Expansion
c) Stability
d) Stratification
25. Which of these is the next stage after implementing emergency action plan for turnaround?
26. Which is the major reason for retrenchment/turnaround strategy?

a) Continuous losses & unviability
b) Persistent negative cashflows
c) Severity of competition
d) All the above
27. We can classify different types of strategies on the basis of _________.

a) Levels of organization
b) Stages of business cycle
c) Competition
d) All the above
28. Which of these is formulated for each product division known as strategic business unit?
d) None of these
29. Which strategy involves keeping track of new developments to ensure that strategy continues
to make sense?
a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination

30. Which is not the characteristic of expansion strategy?
a) Redefinition of business
b) Opposite of stability strategy
c) Less Versatile strategy
d) Fresh investment
31. Which of these is the utilization of firm’s existing facilities & capabilities in more effective &
efficient manner?
a) Diversification
b) Penetration
c) Stratification
d) Merger & Acquisition
32. How many parts of vertical integrated diversification?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
33. In which type of diversification, the new business is linked to existing businesses through
process, technology or marketing?
a) Vertical Integrated
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
34. When two organization combine to increase their strength & financial gains along with
breaking the trade barriers.
a) Acquisition
b) Merger
c) Penetration
d) Stratification
35. In which type of merger organizations are associated in some way or related to production
processes, business markets, or basis required technologies?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
36. Strategic alliance helps to learn necessary skill and obtain certain capabilities from strategic
partners?
a) Organizational
b) Economic
c) Political
d) Strategic

37. Which strategy is adopted by organization if it cuts off loss-making units, division or SBUs,
curtails its product line or reduces functions performed?
a) Divestment
b) Expansion
c) Stability
d) Stratification
38. Which of these is the next stage after implementing emergency action plan for turnaround?
39. Which of these occupy highest level of strategic decision making & cover actions dealing
with objective of firm?
a) Corporate Level Strategy
b) Business Level Strategy
c) Functional Level Strategy
d) None of these
40. Which of these is formulated for each business areas like production, marketing etc.?
d) None of these
41. Which strategy is most suitable for those firm who are in the maturity stage of product life
cycle?
a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination
42. A firm with mammoth growth ambition can meet its objectives only through ___________.
a) Stability Strategy
b) Expansion Strategy
c) Retrenchment strategy
d) All The Above
43. Which is highly common intensification strategy?

d) None of these
44. Which of these is a step towards, creation of effective supply by entering business of input
providers?

a) Forward Integration
b) Backward Integration
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
45. In which type of diversification new product is a spin-off from existing facilities &
products/processes?
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
46. When organization takes over other organization & control all its business operations, it is
known as _______.
a) Acquisition
b) Merger
c) Penetration
d) Stratification
47. Which merger include extension of product-line or acquiring components that are required in
daily operations?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
48. Finally, partners can take advantage of co-specialization, creating additional value.
a) Organizational
b) Economic
c) Political
d) Strategic
49. Which is not the danger signal for turnaround strategy?

a) Decline market share
b) Mismanagement
c) Over staffing with low moral
d) Competitive product or services
50. Which is not an important element of turnaround strategy?

a) Changes in top management
b) Initial credibility-building actions
c) Identifying quick payoff activities
d) Slow rate of cost reduction
51. The nature of strategic decisions tends to be _______.

a) Time Oriented
b) Risk Oriented

c) Control Oriented
d) Value Oriented
52. In how many categories, corporate level strategies can be classified?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
53. Which is not the characteristics of stability strategy?

a) Less Risk
b) Involve minor improvement
c) Safety Oriented strategy
d) Involves redefinition of business
54. Which is not the route of expansion strategy ?

a) Intensification
b) Diversification
c) Stratification
d) None of these
55. When firm directs its resources to the profitable growth of its existing product in existing
market.
d) None of these
56. When a large supermarket chain considers to purchase a number of farms that would provide
it a significant amount of fresh produce.
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
57. In which type of diversification there is no linkages exist & new product are disjointed from
existing product in every way?
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
58. Which of these often happen during recession in economy or during declining profit
margins?
a) Acquisition
b) Merger
c) Diversification

d) Stratification
59. Which of these is a combination of organizations that are unrelated to each other ?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
60. When rivals can join together instead of compete, it is _______ advantage of strategic alliance.
a) Organizational
b) Economic
c) Political
d) Strategic
61. What is required to be focused for successful turnaround strategy?

a) Long-term
b) Short-term
c) Strategic issue
d) All the above
62. Which of these is usually a part of rehabilitation or restructuring plan & is adopted when a
turnaround has been attempted but has proved to be unsuccessful?
a) Divestment
b) Expansion
c) Stability
d) Stratification
63. Which is not the strategy to be followed at startup?

a) Competitive Strategy
b) Collaborative Strategy
c) Expansion Strategy
d) None of these
64. Stability, Expansion, Retrenchment & Combination strategies are related with _________.
a) Corporate Level
b) Business Level
c) Functional Level
d) None of these
65. Which strategy involves minor improvement with status quo-oriented strategy?
a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination
66. Which is not the major reason for expansion strategy?

a) Environment demand decrease in pace of activity
b) Organization perceived to be growth oriented

c) Greater control over market & competitor
d) Experience curve & scale of operation may accrue
67. Which of these consists marketing present products, to customer in related market areas by
adding different channels of distribution?
a) Market Development
b) Market Penetration
d) None of these
68. When firm is entering in business lines that use existing products & also when firm enters
into business of distribution channels.
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
69. When a cement manufacturer diversifies in the manufacture of steel and rubber products.
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
70. Which of these is not the type of merger?

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
71. Which type of merger has no linkages with respect to customer groups, customer functions
technologies being used?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
72. Strategic alliance may also be useful to create a competitive advantage by the pooling of
resources & skills.
a) Organizational
b) Economic
c) Political
d) Strategic
73. Which is the first stage of turnaround strategy?


74. Which is the reason for adoption of divestment strategy?

a) Business acquired proves to be mismatch
b) Persistent negative cashflows
c) Severity of competition
d) All the above
75. At which stage currently Patanjali is & which strategy it is following ?

a) Introduction, Expansion
b) Growth, Competitive
c) Maturity, Stability
d) Decline, Turnaround
76. In which strategy firm maintains the existing level of effort, & is satisfied with incremental
growth?
a) Stability
b) Expansion
c) Retrenchment
d) Combination
77. Which is not the major reasons for stability strategy?

a) Product has reached maturity stage
b) Less risky as it involves less changes
c) Expansion may be perceived as being threatening
d) Environment faced is relatively unstable
78. Which strategy have greater control over market as well as competitor?
c) Retrenchment strategy
d) Combination Strategy
79. Which of these is not the type of diversification through diversification?

c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
80. When a coffee bean manufacturer may choose to merge with a coffee bean.
c) Concentric
d) Conglomerate
81. _______ with existing concern is an instant means of achieving the expansion.
a) Diversification
b) Acquisition or Merger

d) None of these
82. Which of these is combination of firms engaged in same industry & is a merger with a direct
competitor?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
83. Which type of merger has no important common factors between organizations in
production, in marketing, research & development and technology?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Co-generic
d) Conglomerate
84. ‘When strategic alliance is formed with a local foreign business to gain entry into a foreign
market’, it is ______ advantage of strategic alliance.
a) Organizational
b) Economic
c) Political
d) Strategic
85. At second stage of turnaround strategy before any changes, determine chances of ________.
a) Business Survival
b) Business Expansion
c) Business Divestment
d) Business Risk
86. Which type of business units in India are mostly going thorough liquidation process?
a) Small Scale
b) Medium Scale
c) Large Scale
d) None of these

Answers
1 d 11 d 21 b 31 a 41 a 51 d 61 d 71 d 81 b
2 d 12 b 22 a 32 a 42 b 52 c 62 a 72 d 82 b
3 b 13 a 23 d 33 c 43 a 53 d 63 c 73 a 83 d
4 b 14 d 24 a 34 b 44 b 54 c 64 a 74 d 84 c
5 d 15 a 25 c 35 c 45 c 55 a 65 a 75 b 85 a
6 d 16 d 26 d 36 a 46 a 56 b 66 a 76 a 86 a
7 b 17 b 27 d 37 a 47 c 57 d 67 a 77 d
8 b 18 a 28 b 38 c 48 b 58 a 68 a 78 b
9 a 19 a 29 a 39 a 49 d 59 d 69 d 79 c
10 c 20 d 30 c 40 c 50 d 60 d 70 c 80 a

Part E
1. Which strategies are the course of action adopted by organization to serve identified
customer group & provide value to customer by satisfaction of their needs?
d) None of these
2. Which is one of most effective & enduring conceptual frameworks used to assess nature of
competitive environment & to describe an industry’s structure?
a) Porter’s five forces
b) Generic Strategy
c) Ansoff growth share matrix
3. Buyer bargaining power has leverage when __________.

a) Buyers have full knowledge
b) Buyers have invested a lot of money
c) Buyers are more concentrated than firms
d) All the above
4. Which strategy aimed at producing products & services considered unique industrywide &
directed at consumers who are relatively price incentive?
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused strategy
d) None of these
5. Which is not the risk of pursuing cost leadership strategy?

a) Competitors may imitate the strategy
b) Technological breakthrough in industry
c) Buyers interest may swing to differentiating feature
d) Higher prize may lead to less demand of product
6. Which is the measure that could be adopted by an organization?

a) Selecting specific niches
b) Creating superior skills
c) Developing innovating ways
d) All the above
7. Who believes that basic unit of analysis for understanding is a group of competitors
producing goods & services that compete directly with each other?

a) Michal Porter
b) Igor H. Ansoff
c) William F. Glueck
d) Richard Cyert
8. The interrelationship among ______ gives each industry its own particular competitive
environment.
a) Strategies
b) Resources
c) Controls
d) Porter’s Five Forces
9. Firms must search for products that perform the same, or nearly the same, function as their
existing products.
a) Threats of new entrance
b) Bargaining power of buyer
c) Threats of Substitutes
d) Nature of industry rivalry
10. Which means producing products & services that fulfill the needs of small groups of
consumers who are relatively price-sensitive?
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused strategy
d) None of these
11. Which action can be taken for achieving cost leadership strategy?
a) Forecast the demand promptly
b) Optimum utilization of resources
c) Resistance to differentiation
d) All the above
12. Which is measure for achieving differentiation strategy?

a) Elevate the performance of product
b) Rapid product innovation
c) Offer utility for customers
d) All the above
13. Which is not the advantage of focused strategy?

a) Premium Prize
b) Difficulty for competitors
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these

14. Which of these is a powerful & widely used tool for systematically diagnosing significant
competitive pressure in a market?
a) Porter’s five forces
b) Generic Strategy
c) Ansoff growth share matrix
15. A firm’s profitability tends to be ______ when other firms are blocked from entering the
industry.
a) Lower
b) Medium
c) Higher
d) Moderate
16. The more intensive the _______, the less attractive is the industry.
a) Rivalry
b) Controls
c) Strategy
d) Management
17. Which has detailed actions taken to provide value to customer & gain competitive advantage
by exploiting core competencies in specific, individual products/services.
a) Corporate level strategy
b) Business level strategies
c) Functional level strategies
d) None of these
18. Michael Porter’s strategy imply _______.

a) Organizational arrangements
b) Control Procedure
c) Incentive system
d) All the above
19. Which is he disadvantage of cost leadership strategy?

a) Technological changes
b) May not be remaining for longtime
c) Depend upon high sales volume
d) All the above
20. Which is not the disadvantage of differentiation?

a) Uniqueness is difficult to sustain
b) Charging Higher prize
c) Not valued by customers
d) None of These

21. Which is the disadvantage of focused differentiation strategy?
a) Lacking in distinctive competencies
b) Higher cost of product/services
c) Niche could be Disappear
d) All the above
22. Which of these is not the element of five forces?

a) Threats of new entrance
b) Bargaining power of buyer
c) Threats of complimentary
d) Nature of industry rivalry
23. What is not the effect of new entrance in the industry?

a) Reduce industry profitability
b) Increased supply of product
c) Higher prize of product
d) Erode market share prize
24. Which of these is concerned with firm’s position in an industry, relative to competitors & to
the five forces of competition?
a) Corporate level strategy
b) Business level strategies
c) Functional level strategies
d) None of these
25. Smaller firms often compete using ________strategy.

a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused
d) None of these
26. Product development is example of strategy that offers the advantage of _________.
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused
d) None of these
27. Which is depend on an industry segment that is of sufficient size, has good growth potential
& is not crucial to success of other major competitors?
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused Strategy
d) None of these

28. Which is not the way of best cost provider strategy?
a) Lower prize with comparable feature
b) Similar prize with more feature
c) Higher prize with same feature
d) None of these
29. Identify the specific competitive pressures associated with each of five forces.
a) First step of five forces model
b) Second step of five forces model
c) Third step of five forces model
d) Fourth step of five forces model
30. Who is the foundation of an organization’s business level strategies?

a) Cost
b) Control
c) Prize
d) Customer
31. Sharing activities & resources enhances competitive advantage by ________.

a) Lowering costs
b) Raising Differentiation
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
32. Which allows a firm when it is successful, to charge a higher price for its product & to
customer loyalty?
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused
d) None of these
33. Which strategy is most effective when consumers have distinctive preferences or requirement
& rival firms are not attempting to specialize in same target segment?
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused strategy
d) None of these
34. Evaluate how strong the pressure comprising each of the five forces are?
a) First step of five forces model
b) Second step of five forces model
c) Third step of five forces model
d) Fourth step of five forces model

35. Issue about which business level strategies are concerned with is ______.
a) Meeting needs of key customers
b) Achieving advantage over competitors
c) Avoiding competitive disadvantage
d) All the above
36. Which is a primary reason for pursuing forward, backward, & horizontal integration
strategies?
a) Differentiation
b) Cost Leadership
c) Focused
d) None of these
37. An organization using ________ strategy may concentrated on a particular group of customer
geographic markets or particular product line segment.
a) Cost Leadership
b) Differentiation
c) Focused
d) None of these
38. Which is not the generic strategy of Michael Porter?

a) Cost Leadership
b) Growth Share Matrix
c) Differentiation
d) Focused strategy
39. Which of these has a basic idea to underprice competitors & thereby gain market share and
sales, driving some competitors out of the market entirely?
a) Differentiation
b) Cost Leadership
c) Focused
d) None of these
40. Which of these can fluctuate based on its supply & demand and also be influence but
customer’s ideal value for product?
a) Product
b) Prize
c) Organization
d) None of these
41. Rolls Royce sells limited number of high-end, custom-built cars.

a) Only Cost Leadership

b) Only Differentiation
c) Focused Cost Leadership
d) Focused Cost Differentiation
Answers
1 b 8 d 15 c 22 c 29 a 36 b
2 a 9 c 16 a 23 c 30 d 37 c
3 d 10 c 17 b 24 b 31 c 38 b
4 b 11 d 18 d 25 c 32 b 39 b
5 d 12 d 19 d 26 b 33 c 40 b
6 d 13 d 20 d 27 c 34 b 41 d
7 a 14 a 21 d 28 c 35 d

PART-F
1. Which are designed to help in implementation of corporate & business unit level strategies?
d) None of these
2. In _________ it is more important to do what is strategically right than what is immediately

profitable.
a) Production
b) Marketing
c) Financing
3. To succeed in today’s competitive marketplace, companies must be ________ centered.

a) Profit
b) Cost
c) Customer
d) Prize
4. Modern marketing is highly ______ oriented.

a) Place
b) Price
c) Product
d) Promotion
5. In which form of promotion there is no requirement of payment by the organization?

a) Personal Selling
b) Advertisement
c) Publicity
d) Sales Promotion
6. Which is not included in an important marketing situation section?

a) Market Description
b) Product Review
c) Analysis of competition
d) Risk of decreased demand
7. Which of these is a marketing philosophy holding that a company’s marketing should

support the best long-run performance of marketing system?
a) Concentrated Marketing
b) Differential Marketing
c) Enlightened Marketing
d) Synchro Marketing

8. _______ should not be thought of as a tool for limiting expenditures but rather than as a
method for obtaining most productive & profitable use of organization’s resources.
a) Entity’s fund Analysis
b) Research & Development
c) Logistic Management
d) Financial Budget
9. Which is not the advantage of logistic management ?

a) Cost saving
b) Improved delivery time
c) Increased inventory
d) Competitive advantage
10. Which is not the R&D approach for implementing strategy?

a) Market new technological product
b) Innovator imitator of successful products
c) To be a low cost provider
d) None of these
11. The Prominent area where the human resources manager can play strategic role _________.
a) Providing purposeful direction
b) Building Core Competency
c) Managing Workforce Diversity
d) All the above
12. Which of these provide details to business strategy & govern as to how key activities of
business are to be managed?
d) None of these
13. Which of these induces or helps in moving people closer to making a decision to purchase
and facilitate a sale?
a) Production
b) Marketing
c) Financing
d) Research & Development
14. Organization formalize product differentiation through designating ___________ to their

respective products.
a) Prize Tag
b) Cost Component
c) Profit percentage
d) Brand Names
15. Which is the oldest form of promotion?

a) Personal Selling
b) Publicity
c) Sales Promotion
d) Advertisement
16. Discount, contests, money refund, instalments etc. are the various tool of ________.
a) Personal Selling
b) Promotion
c) Advertisement
d) Sales Promotion
17. Which of these involves monitoring & measuring of results & their evaluation?
a) Strategic Change
b) Strategic Intent
c) Strategic Control
d) None of these
18. _________ is market coverage strategy in which a firm decides to target several market
segments & design separate offer for each.
19. Implementation of project in pursuance of _________ typically results in increase in capital

work in progress & current assets.
c) Turnaround Strategy
d) Divestment Strategy
20. Which refers to the linkages between suppliers, manufacturers & customers ?
b) Business process Reengineering
c) Benchmarking
d) Strategic Change
21. Which approach of research & development is glamorous & exciting strategy but also a
dangerous one?
a) Market new technological product
b) Innovator imitator of successful products
c) To be a low cost provider
d) None of these
22. Which is not the prominent area where human resource manager can play strategic role?
a) Development of works ethics
b) Empowerment of human resources

c) Managing workforce Diversity
d) Restricting the change
23. Which is not the functional area of the organization?

a) Marketing
b) Financial
c) Production
d) None of these
24. Once corporate strategy has defined company’s overall mission & objectives, ___________ plays
a role in carrying out these objectives.
a) Production
b) Marketing
c) Financing
25. Which of these is composite expression of product’s value & utility to customer, its demand,
quality etc.
a) Product
b) Promotion
c) Place
d) Prize
26. Which of these involve face to face interaction with consumers & provides a high degree of
attention to them?
a) Personal Selling
b) Publicity
c) Sales Promotion
d) Advertisement
27. Which is not included in the expanded market mix?

a) Physical Evidence
b) Promotion
c) Process
d) People
28. Publicity campaign for prohibition of smoking in Delhi explained place where one can & can’t
smoke.
a) Augmented Marketing
b) Direct Marketing
d) Social Marketing
29. Which marketing can be used when demand for product is irregular due to season, some
parts of the day, or on hour basis, causing overworked capacity?

30. How many approaches are there to determining a business’s worth?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
31. Which of these is more broader concept ?

b) Product Development
d) Performance Management
32. ________ must develop performance incentives that clearly link performance and pay to
strategies.
a) Human Resource Development
b) Product Development
d) Manufacturing Department
33. The Human Resource manager will be more concentrated on _______ rather than ______.
a) Substance, Form
b) Accomplishment, Activities
c) Practice, Theory
d) All The Above
34. Which is not the reason why functional strategies are needed?
a) Lay down clearly what is to be done
b) Provide senses of direction to staff
c) Help in bringing harmony
d) None of these
35. Which is a set of controllable marketing variables that the firm blends to produce the
response it want in target market?
a) Market Technique
b) Market Mix
c) Market Zone
d) Market Condition
36. Which is not the objective for new product pricing strategy?
a) Product is acceptable to customer
b) Higher margin over cost
c) Catering to the market
d) None of these

37. Where oral communication is made with potential buyers of a product wit the intention of
making sale?
a) Personal Selling
b) Publicity
c) Sales Promotion
d) Advertisement
38. Which is not the component of marketing?

a) Planning
b) Implementation
c) Control
d) Analysis
39. Which of these is a provision of additional customer services & benefits built around core &
actual products that relate to introduction of high-tech services?
b) Direct Marketing
d) Social Marketing
40. Which of these is a market-coverage strategy in which a firm goes after a large share of one
or few sun market?
b) Augmented Marketing
41. Which is not the approach for determining the worth of business?
a) Outstanding share method
b) Selling price Method
c) Price Earning Ratio Method
d) Trigger of Change Method
e) Performance Management
42. Which of these requires careful resource planning, quality issue, identifying sources,
negotiation, order placement, inbound transportation and storage?
a) Physical Distribution
b) Procurement
c) Performance Management
d) Product Development
43. The workforce will be more competent if a firm can successfully identify, attracts & select the
most competent applicants.
a) Recruitment & Selection
b) Appraisal of performance
c) Compensation

d) Training
44. ___________ can be observed in terms of male & female workers, young & old workers, etc.
a) Empowerment
b) Workforce Diversity
c) Redesigned Ethics
d) Vibrant Culture
45. Which of these operate bellow the business level strategies or SBU?
d) None of these
46. Which is not a ‘4P’ variable of the market mix ?

a) Product
b) Promotion
c) Place
d) Portfolio
47. In skimming the prize of product are set at a very _______ level.
a) Low
b) Moderate
c) High
d) None of these
48. Which of these is not a cost effective way of reaching a large number of customer?
a) Personal Selling
b) Advertisement
c) Publicity
d) Sales Promotion
49. Marketing by actual procedure, mechanisms & flow of activities by which product/service is
delivered.
a) People
b) Process
c) Physical Evidence
d) Publicity
50. ___________ includes catalogue selling, e-mail, telecomputing, electronic marketing, shopping
& TV shopping.
b) Direct Marketing
d) Social Marketing
51. Which of these includes marketing strategies to reduce demand temporarily or permanently?

c) Demarketing
52. In second approach of determining business worth _____ times of current annual profit or
______ years average profit can be used.
a) Five, Five
b) Five, Four
c) Three, Two
d) Four, Four
53. Delivery of products to customers is the ______ in a marketing channel?

a) Beginning Position
b) Center Position
c) Last Position
d) None of these
54. _______ including human resource planning & job analysis.

a) Pre-Selection Practices
b) Selection Practices
c) Post Selection Practices
d) None of these
55. __________ means authorizing every member of an organization to take up his/her own destiny
his/her full potential.
a) Empowerment
b) Workforce Diversity
c) Redesigned Ethics
d) Vibrant Culture
56. Which is a social & managerial process by which individual & groups obtain what they need
and want through creating, offering & exchanging products of value with others?
a) Production
b) Marketing
c) Financing
57. Product stand for combination of _______ that the company offers to target market.
a) Goods
b) Services
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
58. Which of these stands for company activities that make the product available to target
customers?
a) Product

b) Promotion
c) Place
d) Prize
59. Which of these is Non-personal, Highly flexible & dynamic promotional method?
a) Personal Selling
b) Advertisement
c) Publicity
d) Sales Promotion
60. Marketing by environment in which market offering is delivered & where the firm & customer
interact.
a) People
b) Process
c) Physical Evidence
d) Publicity
61. Which of these is applying the concepts, tool, and techniques, of marketing to service?
b) Direct Marketing
d) Service Marketing
62. Which analysis is a central strategy implementation technique because it allows an

organization to examine expected results of various actions & approaches ?
a) Work Environment analysis
b) Market & Portfolio Analysis
c) Expected risk & control Analysis
d) Projected Financial Statement Analysis
63. Divide the market price of firm’s common stock by the annual earnings per share & multiply
this number by the average net income for past five years.
a) Outstanding share method
b) Selling price Method
c) Price Earning Ratio Method
d) Stockholders Equity Method
64. R&D policies can enhance strategy implementation efforts to:

a) Robotics or manual process
b) Within the firm or by contract
c) Be leaders or followers
d) All the above
65. _______ Meant to staff various position in the organization.


d) None of these
66. Which of these is an activity that creates & sustain exchange relationship among those who
are willing & able to buy & sale product, services, satisfaction and even ideas?
a) Production
b) Marketing
c) Financing
67. Which of these consist of everything that the firm can do to influence the demand for its
product?
a) Market Technique
b) Market Mix
c) Market Zone
d) Market Condition
68. Which of these stands for activities that communicate the merits of the product & persuade
target customers to buy?
a) Product
b) Promotion
c) Place
d) Prize
69. In which form of promotion organization skillfully seek to promote themselves & their
product without payment?
a) Personal Selling
b) Advertisement
c) Publicity
d) Sales Promotion
70. Which is a short summary of the main goals & recommendations to be presented in the
plan?
a) Modified Summary
b) Executive Summary
c) Qualified Summary
d) Quantified Summary
71. Which of these consists of activities undertaken to create, maintain or change attitude &
behavior towards particular person?
b) Direct Marketing
d) People Marketing
72. __________ are most common, although period of time for a budget can range from one day
to more than ten years.
a) Weekly Budget

b) Monthly Budget
c) Annual Budget
d) None of these
73. Which of these influence the operations system structure & objectives which are used to
determine operations plans & policies?
a) Production/Operation Strategy
b) Operation Oriented planning
c) Supply Chain Management
d) Logistic Management
74. _________to maintain & improve the workers job performance levels.
d) None of these
Answers
1 c 11 d 21 a 31 a 41 d 51 c 61 d 71 d
2 b 12 c 22 d 32 a 42 b 52 a 62 d 72 c
3 c 13 b 23 d 33 d 43 a 53 d 63 c 73 a
4 d 14 d 24 b 34 d 44 b 54 a 64 d 74 c
5 c 15 a 25 d 35 b 45 c 55 b 65 b
6 d 16 d 26 a 36 b 46 d 56 b 66 b
7 c 17 c 27 b 37 a 47 c 57 c 67 b
8 d 18 b 28 d 38 d 48 a 58 c 68 b
9 c 19 b 29 d 39 a 49 b 59 b 69 c
10 d 20 a 30 b 40 a 50 b 60 c 70 b

PART-G
1. To act and contribute as a manager and employee in today’s emerging business scenario,
skills related to _______ process is necessary.
a) Strategic
b) Organizational
c) Leadership
d) All the above
2. To coordinate more complex organizational functions, companies should abandon ________ in

favor of the functional structure.
b) Hourglass Structure
c) Simple Structure
d) Matrix Structure
3. A divisional structure by process is similar to _____________, because activities are organized

according to way is actually performed.
c) Functional Structure
d) Matrix Structure
4. Which of these is relevant to multi-product, multi-business enterprise?

b) Divisional Structure
d) M-Form Structure
5. In strategic business unit _______ products/businesses in any group are separated.

a) Unrelated
b) Related
c) Similar
d) None of these
6. Which structure is developed to combine the stability of the functional structure with the
flexibility of the product form?
c) M-Form Structure
d) Matrix Structure
7. Which structure is most useful when environment of a firm is unstable & is expected to retain
so?
a) Simple Structure
b) Network Structure

c) Divisional Structure
d) Functional Structure
8. Every organization has ________ organizational culture.

a) Similar
b) Related
c) Unique
d) None of these
9. The person who perceives the business idea & take steps to implement the idea is known
as______
a) Entrepreneur
b) Strategists
c) Consultant
d) Manager
10. _________ largely dictates how operational objectives and policies will be established to
achieve the strategic objectives.
a) Controls
b) Structure
c) System
d) Process
11. Which of these consists of a chief executive officer or a managing director and supported by
corporate staff with manager of production, financial, accounting department?
b) functional Structure
c) Hourglass Structure
d) Matrix Structure
12. A divisional structure __________ is similar to, functional structure because activities are
organized according to way is actually performed.
a) By Geographic area
b) Product/Services
c) By Customer
d) By Process
13. Which is the characteristic of strategic business unit?

a) Collection of related business
b) Own set of competitors
c) Responsible for strategic planning & profit performance
d) All the above
14. SBUs might be serving ______ & provide similar shorts of product & market.
a) Similar Market
b) Different market

c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
15. Which structure is very useful when the external environment is very complex & changeable?
c) Matrix Structure
d) Simple Structure
16. Which of these provides an organization with increased flexibility & adaptability tp cope up
with rapid technological change & shifting patterns of international trade &competition?
a) Simple Structure
c) Network Structure
d) Functional Structure
17. ________ use charisma & enthusiasm to inspire people to exert them for good of the
organization.
a) Transformational Leadership
b) Transactional Leadership
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
18. A sizable and prop0nged ________ conflict weakness & may even defeat managerial efforts to
make the strategy work.
a) Strategic Change
b) Strategic Intent
c) Strategic Culture
d) None of these
19. Who is not the entrepreneur ?

a) Initiates & innovates a new concept
b) Establishes a startup company
c) Doesn’t face risk & uncertainty
d) Recognizes & utilizes opportunity
20. _______ dictates how resources will be allocated to achieve strategic objective.
a) Controls
b) Structure
c) System
d) Process
21. Which is not the way by which divisional structure can be organized?
b) By Controls
c) By Customer
d) By Process

22. Multi-Divisional or M-form structure is developed in _______.
a) 1890
b) 1920
c) 1980
d) 2000
23. Which of these has a manager who has responsibility for strategic planning & profit
performance?
a) Divisional Structure
b) Strategic business unit
d) M-Form Structure
24. The identification of SBU convenient point for _______

a) Planning
b) Risk Analysis
c) Defining Controls
d) Monitoring
25. Which is not the condition for having matrix-structure?

a) Ideas needs to be cross fertilized
b) Resources are Enough
c) Abilities to make decision need to be improved
d) Process of information need to be improved
26. Which of these is the disadvantage of Network Structure?

a) Availability of numerous potential partners
b) Keep firm from discovering synergy
c) Choosing wrong function thus becoming Non-competitive
d) All the Above
27. ________ use charisma & enthusiasm to inspire people to exert them for good of the
organization.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
28. It is strategy maker’s responsibility to select strategy compatible with _______ parts of
prevailing corporate culture.
a) Changeable
b) Unchangeable
c) Similar
d) None of these
29. Changes to ________ lead to change in organizational structure.

a) System
b) Process
c) Strategy
d) Controls
30. Which is not the advantage of divisional structure?

a) Accounting is clear
b) Performance Evaluation of employees
c) Career development opportunity
d) It is less costly structure
31. In response to co-coordination & control related problems in large firs which structure is
developed?
c) M-Form Structure
d) Matrix Structure
32. Which of these facilitate comparison between divisions, improving allocation of resources, &
can be used to stimulate managers of poorly performing divisions?
d) M-Form Structure
33. When most organization find that organizing around either functions or around products &
geography provides an appropriate organizational structure, it is known as ______.
c) M-Form Structure
d) Matrix Structure
34. Which is not the phase of Matrix structure?

a) Cross Functional Task Force
b) Product/Brand Management
c) Mature Matrix
d) Process Matrix Management
35. In which structure roll played by middle management is diminishing as the tasks performed
by them are increasingly being replaced by the technological tools?
a) M-Form Structure
d) Matrix Structure
36. Which Leadership Offers excitement, vision, intellectual stimulation and personal satisfaction?
a) Transformational

b) Transactional
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
37. Changing a ______ is very difficult because of the heavy anchor of deeply held values and
habits-people Cling emotionally to the old & familiar.
a) Problem Culture
b) Strategic Control
c) Support process
d) None of these
38. Medium sized firms tend to be _________ structured.

a) Divisionally
b) Matrix
c) Hourglass
d) Network
39. ____________ can be costly because it requires an elaborate, headquarters-driven control

system.
d) Matrix Structure
40. Which is not the disadvantage of M-form structure?

a) Impossible to assess individual products profit contribution
b) Top managers become over involved in solving short-run problems
c) Optimal Allocation of firm resources between products was difficult
d) None of these
41. The principal underlying the grouping is that all related products-related from the standpoint
of _______-should fall under one SBU.
a) Control
b) Process
c) Function
d) System
42. In which structure functional & products forms are combined simultaneously at the same
level of organization?
b) Matrix Structure
d) M-Form Structure
43. Which of these are initially used when a new product line is being introduced?

c) Mature Matrix
d) None of these
44. ________ has obvious benefit of reduced costs & it also helps in enhancing responsiveness by
simplifying decision making.
a) M-Form Structure
d) Matrix Structure
45. Which Leadership style motivates followers to do more originally affected to do by stretching
their abilities & increasing their shelf confidence?
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
46. Creating & sustaining a strategy supportive culture is a job for the _____________ team.
a) Whole Management
b) Functional Level Managers
c) Supportive Staff
d) None of these
47. Which is an organizational form in which owner-manager makes all major decisions directly
& monitors all activities?
c) Matrix Structure
d) Simple Structure
48. A _______ by geographic area is appropriate for organizations whose strategies are formulated
to fit particular needs & characteristics of customer in different geographic areas.
c) Divisional Structure
d) Matrix Structure
49. Multi-divisional structure calls for _________.

a) Creating separate division, representing separate business
b) Each division would house its functional hierarchy.
c) Division Manager have responsibility to manage day-today operations
d) All the above
50. Which of these helps a multi business corporation in scientifically grouping its businesses into
a few distinct business unit?
b) Functional Structure

c) Strategic business unit
51. In which structure employees have two superiors, a product or project manager & a
functional manager?
a) Matrix Structure
d) M-Form Structure
52. Which phase involves true dual-authority structure, both functional & product structure are
permanent?
c) Mature Matrix
d) None of theses
53. In which structure the promotion opportunity for lower levels diminish significantly?
a) M-Form Structure
d) Matrix Structure
54. __________ uses the authority of its office to exchange rewards, such as pay and statue.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
55. _________ refers to company’s value, beliefs, business principles, tradition, ways of operating
and internal work environment.
a) Strategic Intent
b) Corporate culture
d) All the above
56. In which structure the communication is direct & frequent, and new products tend to be
introduced to the market quickly, which can result in a competitive advantage?
a) Simple Structure
d) Matrix Structure
57. A Divisional structure ________ allows local participation in decision making & improved co-
ordination within a region.
b) By Product/Services
c) By Customer

d) By Process
58. __________ refers to operational understanding by corporate officers of the strategies being
implemented within the firm’s separate business units.
a) Strategic Intent
b) Strategic Change
d) None of these
59. Which of these provides right direction to strategic planning by removing the vagueness &
confusion often experienced in such multi-business enterprise?
b) Functional Structure
c) Strategic business unit
d) Simple Structure
60. Which is most complex of all designs because it depends upon both vertical & horizontal
flows of authority & communication?
c) Matrix Structure
d) M-Form Structure
61. In which structure many activities are outsourced?

a) Simple Structure
d) Network Structure
62. According to _____________ ‚A leader lives in the field wit his troops.‛
a) Sun Zi
b) H. Ross Perot
c) Igor H Ansoff
d) Willium F. Glueck
63. Which style is more appropriate in settled environment, in growing or mature industries, and
in organization that are performing well?
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
64. What is the role played by strategic leader?

a) Esprit de corps
b) Promoting a culture
c) Ferreting out issues
d) All the above

Answers
1 d 11 b 21 b 31 c 41 c 51 a 61 d
2 c 12 d 22 b 32 d 42 b 52 c 62 b
3 c 13 d 23 b 33 d 43 a 53 c 63 b
4 a 14 c 24 a 34 d 44 c 54 b 64 d
5 a 15 c 25 b 35 c 45 a 55 b
6 d 16 c 26 d 36 a 46 a 56 a
7 b 17 a 27 a 37 a 47 d 57 a
8 c 18 c 28 b 38 a 48 c 58 c
9 a 19 c 29 c 39 b 49 d 59 c
10 b 20 b 30 d 40 d 50 c 60 c

PART-H
1. ___________ strategy affects an organization from top to bottom; it affects all functional &
decisional areas of a business.
a) Planning
b) Implementation
c) Forming
d) Crafting
2. Which of these varies substantially among different types & sizes of the organization?
a) Strategy Formulation
c) Strategy Planning
d) None of these
3. Which is broader term?

a) Programme
b) Policies
c) Procedures
d) Rules
4. Which of these is an action stage that requires implementation of changed strategy?

a) Institutionalize the change
b) Create a shared vision to manage change
c) Recognize need for change
d) None of these
5. Which of these involves internal changing of the individual’s thought processes in order to
adjust to a new environment?
a) Compliance
b) Identification
c) Internalization
d) None of these
6. Which of these is not the type of strategic control?

a) Premise Control
b) Strategic Surveillance
c) Special Alert Control
d) Processing Control
7. Strategic Implementation control unlike ________ continuously monitors the basic direction of
the strategy.
a) Special Alert Control
b) Operational Control
c) Premise Control
d) Management Control

8. Question that is ‚Can strategy be attempted within the physical, human & financial resources
of enterprise" is related with which criteria of strategic audit?
a) Consistency
b) Consonance
c) Feasibility
d) None of these
9. _______ means starting all over, starting from scratch.

a) Benchmarking
b) Strategic Change
c) Business Process Re-Engineering
10. Determine the correct sequence of steps in BPR.

i) Study the existing ii) Formulate a redesign process iii, Implement the redesign iv) Identify
customers & Determine their need, v) Determining Objectives and Framework
a) (ii),(iv),(v),(i),(iii)
b) (iii),(iv),(ii),(v),(i)
c) (v),(iv),(i),(ii),(iii)
d) (iv),(i),(v),(iii),(ii)
11. __________is a point of reference against which things maybe compared and by which
something can be measured and judged.
a) BPR
b) Strategic Change
c) Strategic Leadership
d) Benchmarking
12. ___________ requires introduction of change in the organization to make organizational

member adapt to the new environment.
a) Strategic Intent
b) Strategic Planning
c) Strategy Crafting
d) Strategy Implementation
13. Which of these deal with the impact of strategy formulation on strategy implementation?
a) Forward Linkages
b) Backward Linkages
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
14. _________ is a highly specific programme for which the time schedule and cost are
predetermined.
a) Project
b) Procedure
c) Policies

d) Control
15. It takes so much time for the _______ to Change & prevail.
a) Process
b) Controls
c) Culture
d) Programs
16. _________ when new behavior becomes a normal way of life.

a) Unfreezing
b) Change in new situation
c) Refreezing
d) None of these
17. When strategy is formed on the basis of certain assumption about the complex & turbulent
organizational environment.
a) Premise Control
d) Implementation Control
18. Which helps the managers to determine whether the overall strategy is progressing as
desired or whether there is need for readjustment?
a) Milestone Reviews
b) Premise Control
d) Monitoring Strategic Thrusts
19. Competitive advantage normally is the result of superiority in _______ area.

a) Resources
b) Skills
c) Position
d) All the above
20. Re-Engineering begins with a fundamental _______.

a) Redesigning
b) Control
c) Process
d) Re-thinking
21. _________ are the desired end results of the redesign process which the management and
organization attempts to realize.
a) Objectives
b) Mission
c) Goals
d) Vision

22. ________ helps in improving performance by learning from the best practices & the processes
by which they are achieved.
a) BPR
b) Strategic Change
c) Benchmarking
23. A company will be successful only when the strategy _________ is sound & _______ is excellent.
a) Implementation, Formulation
b) Formulation, Implementation
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
24. Which of these deal with the impact of strategy implementation on strategy formulation?
a) Forward Linkages
b) Backward Linkages
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
25. __________are required recourses for implementation of strategy.

a) Procedure
b) Project
c) Policies
d) Control
26. Which process simply makes the individuals or organizations aware of the necessity for
change & prepares them for such a change?
a) Unfreezing
c) Refreezing
d) None of these
27. Which is a function intended to ensure & make possible the performance of planned
activities & to achieve the pre-determined goals & result?
a) Strategic Control
b) Strategic Change
c) Strategic Intent
d) None of these
28. _________ is a tool for systematic & continuous monitoring of the environment to verify the
validity & accuracy of the assumption on which strategy is built.
a) Strategic Surveillance
b) Special Alert Control
c) Premise Control

29. Which of these involves complete reassessment of strategy & also assesses thee need to
continue or refocus the direction of an organization?
a) Milestone Reviews
b) Premise Control
d) Monitoring Strategic Thrusts
30. __________ are simply a set of activities that transforms a set of inputs into a outputs for
another person.
a) Business Process
b) Strategic Controls
c) Analytical Programs
d) Market Policies
31. _______ means going to the root of the problem areas and not attempting to make any
superficial changes.
a) Fundamental Re-thinking
b) Radical Redesigning
c) Dramatic Improvement
d) All the above
32. Impact of IT system on BPR are identified by _____

a) Compression of time
b) Overcoming restrictions of geography
c) Restriction of relationship
d) All of these
33. Which step involves selecting the type of benchmarking & by which organizations identify
realistic opportunity for improvements?
a) Identifying the need for benchmarking
b) Identify best processes
c) Evaluation
d) Clearly understanding existing business processes
34. Which of these is manage forces during the action?

d) None of these
35. In forward linkages organizational structure has to undergo a change in the light of the
requirements of __________.
a) Modified Strategy
b) Old Strategy
c) Classic Strategy
d) None of these

36. Which is the issue to be considered in strategy implementation?
a) Project Implementation
b) Procedure Implementation
c) Resource Allocation
d) All the above
37. _____ is a process of breaking down old attitudes & behaviors, customs & traditions
throughout organization.
a) Unfreezing
c) Refreezing
d) None of these
38. _________ intend to enable the organization to continuously learn from its experience and to
improve its capability to cope with demands of organizational growth & development.
a) Strategic Control
b) Strategic Change
c) Strategic Intent
d) None of these
39. Which of these involves general monitoring of various sources of information to uncover
unanticipated information having a bearing on the organizational strategy.
a) Strategic Surveillance
b) Special Alert Control
c) Premise Control
40. Which activity is included in strategic audit process?

a) Examining underlying bases of firm’s strategy
b) Comparing expected results with actual results
c) Ensuring that performance conforms to plan
d) All the above
41. Which of these is a set of logically related tasks or activities oriented towards achieving a
specified outcome?
a) Strategic Controls
b) Analytical Programs
c) Market Policies
d) Business Process
42. _________ is meant for replacement of the old process by altogether new one to achieve
dramatic improvement in the performance.
a) Benchmarking
b) Strategic Change
c) Re-Engineering

43. IT-initiatives, thus, provide business values in form of efficiency ___________.
a) By way of increased productivity
b) By way of better management
c) By way of improved products/services
d) None of these
44. Which step of benchmarking involve compiling information & data on performance &
includes mapping process?
a) Identifying the need for benchmarking
b) Identify best processes
c) Evaluation
d) Clearly understanding existing business processes
45. Which of these focuses on effectiveness?

d) None of these
46. It is essential that ______ managers be involved as much as possible in the strategy
formulation process.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
47. Which is not the method given by H.C. Kalman for reassigning new patterns of behavior?
a) Compliance
b) Identification
c) Internalization
d) Stratification
48. Which is not the type of organizational control?

a) Organizational Control
b) Management Control
c) Qualitative Control
d) Strategic Control
49. ______ involves casual environmental browsing, reading financial & other newspapers,
magazines etc.
c) Premise Control
50. Which is not the criteria of Richard Rumelt for strategic audit?
a) Consistency

b) Consonance
c) Feasibility
d) Disharmony
51. Which is a collection of activities that creates an output of value to the customer & often
transcends departmental or functional boundaries?
a) Strategic Controls
b) Business Process
c) Analytical Programs
d) Market Policies
52. Process pertaining to development & delivery of product(s) and/or services does not include
_________.
a) Manufacturing
b) Procurement
c) Engineering
d) Advertising
53. IT-initiatives, thus, provide business values in form of effectiveness ___________.

d) None of these
54. The concept of ___________ is much broader than mare ___________ as there are major strategic
dimensions involved.
a) Controlling, Benchmarking
b) Procedure, Programme
c) Benchmarking, Controlling
d) All the Above
55. Strategy Formulation is primarily an __________ process.

a) Intellectual
b) Irrational
c) Impudent
d) None of these
56. Programmes lead to the formulation of _________.

a) Process
b) Control
c) Projects
d) Planning
57. _________ is a complex process that involves a corporate strategy focused on new markets,
products, services and new ways of doing business.
a) Strategic Change
b) Strategic Intent

d) None of these
58. Which of these is achieved by strictly enforcing the reward & punishment strategy for good
or bad behavior?
a) Compliance
b) Identification
c) Internalization
d) None of these
59. Which control is more inclusive & more aggregative control?

a) Management Control
b) Operational Control
c) Supportive Control
d) Processing Control
60. Sudden change in government, natural calamities, terrorist attacks, industrial disasters etc.
c) Premise Control
61. __________ refers to the need for strategists to examine sets of trends, as well as individual
trends, in auditing strategy.
a) Consistency
b) Consonance
c) Feasibility
d) Disharmony
62. A set of interconnected processes comprise a __________.

a) Business System
b) Analytical Program
c) Market Policy
d) Strategic Control
63. Process involving interface(s) with customer is ________.

a) Manufacturing
b) Procurement
c) Advertising
d) Reporting
64. IT-initiatives, thus, provide business values in form of Innovation ___________.

d) None of these
65. Which of these requires combination among many Individuals?

d) None of these
66. Strategies should lead to formulation of different kind of ________.

a) Process
b) Control
c) Project
d) Programmes
67. Determine the correct sequence of strategic change.

i) Institutionalize the change, ii) Create a shared vision to manage change, iii) Recognize need
for change
a) (i),(iii),(ii)
b) (iii),(ii), (i)
c) (ii),(iii),(i)
d) (i),(ii),(iii)
68. _______ occurs when members are psychologically impressed upon to identify them selves
with some given role models whose behavior they would like to adopt & try to become like
them.
a) Compliance
b) Identification
c) Internalization
d) None of these
69. How many types of strategic controls are there?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
70. ___________ is directed towards assessing the need for changes in the overall strategy in light
of unfolding events & results associated with incremental steps & action.
c) Premise Control
71. Which is the final broad test of strategy?

a) Consistency
b) Consonance
c) Feasibility
d) Disharmony

72. Which of these refers to the analysis & redesign of workflows and processes both within and
between the organization?
a) Business Process Re-Engineering
b) Benchmarking
c) Strategic Change
73. Process that comprise management activities is _________.

a) Material Management
b) Order Fulfilment
c) Engineering
d) Building Infrastructure
74. ___________ helps an organization to get ahead of competition.

a) BPR
b) Benchmarking
c) Strategic Change
75. A definition of total quality management was indorsed in the year _______.
a) 1911
b) 1943
c) 1992
d) 2003
76. Which of these is a people-focused management system that aims at continual increase in
customer satisfaction at continually lower real cost?
a) Competitive Taskforce Management
b) Market Facility Management
c) Total Quality Management
d) Portfolio Risk Management
77. Who brought Deming in Japan?

a) General Douglas MacArthur
b) Thomas Edition
c) Toyotomi Hideyoshi
d) Sakamoto Ryoma
78. A sustained management commitment to quality is essential principle for _________.

a) TQM
b) ADL
c) PESTEL
d) SWOT

79. Which is the principle for that guide the total quality management philosophy?
a) Focusing on Customer
b) Root Cause Corrective Action
c) Thinking Statistically
d) All The Above
80. ________ is a philosophy that seeks to prevent poor quality in products and services, rather
than simply to detect and short out defects.
a) TQM
b) ADL
c) PESTEL
d) SWOT
81. Continuous improvement refers to which type of improvement?

a) Incremental
b) Breakthrough
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
82. Which of these is the way things are usually done in most organization in the absence of a
TQM focus?
a) Traditional Management
b) Portfolio Management
c) Synergy Management
d) Resource Management
83. On which factor the nature of TQM differs from common management practices?
a) Organization Structure
b) Organization Change
c) Motivation and job design
d) All The Above
84. Six Sigma is related to ___________, the company that has invented it.
a) Motorola
b) Microsoft
c) Amazon
d) Wall-mart
85. _________ Refers to degree of excellence and standard.

a) Ethnic
b) Kieretsus
c) Quality
d) Iligopoly

86. Which is primarily meant maintenance of the desired quality in processes and end products?
a) Six Sigma
b) PESTEL
c) SWOT
d) Kieretsus
87. Which of these strives to meet and improve organizational goals on quality, cost, scheduling,
manpower, new products and so on?
a) Six Sigma
b) PESTEL
c) SWOT
d) Kieretsus
88. Six Sigma strives _________ of products manufactured are defect free.
a) 99.98966 %
b) 99.99738 %
c) 99.99666 %
d) 99.99966 %
c) Reducing Defects
d) None of these
90. Which has meant that your process or product will perform with almost no defects?
a) Reaching Six Sigma
b) Ethnic Mix
c) Kieretsus
d) TQM
91. Which of these is a total management commitment and philosophy of excellence, customer
focus, process improvement, and the rule of measurement rather than gut feel?
a) Six Sigma
b) PESTEL
c) TQM
d) SWOT
92. Which methodology of six sigma is directed towards improvement of existing product,
process/service?
a) DMAIC
b) DMADV
c) Both (a) & (b)

93. Which is not the step of DMAIC in Six Sigma?

a) Define
b) Measure
c) Verify
d) Control
94. Which is not the step of DMADV in Six Sigma?

a) Define
b) Measure
c) Verify
d) Control
95. Which methodology of six sigma is directed towards designing new product, process/service?
a) DMAIC
b) DMADV
c) Both (a) & (b)
Answers
1 B 18 D 35 A 52 D 69 C 86 A
2 B 19 D 36 D 53 B 70 D 87 A
3 A 20 D 37 A 54 C 71 C 88 D
4 A 21 A 38 A 55 A 72 A 89 D
5 C 22 C 39 A 56 C 73 D 90 A
6 D 23 B 40 D 57 A 74 B 91 A
7 B 24 B 41 D 58 A 75 C 92 A
8 C 25 B 42 C 59 A 76 C 93 C
9 C 26 A 43 A 60 A 77 A 94 D
10 C 27 A 44 D 61 B 78 A 95 B
11 D 28 C 45 A 62 A 79 D
12 D 29 A 46 C 63 C 80 A
13 A 30 A 47 D 64 C 81 C
14 A 31 B 48 C 65 B 82 A
15 C 32 D 49 B 66 D 83 D
16 C 33 A 50 D 67 B 84 A
17 A 34 B 51 B 68 B 85 C

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INDEX

Ch No. Chapter Name Page No.

2. is a prescribed sequence of work steps performed to produce a desired result for

3. Define correct sequence of Business Process Flow :

4. Which of these capture data from the transection & event ?

6. Transaction is recorded in journals from the .

7. Appropriate entries are passed to transfer accounts to financial statements.

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13. Determine the correct sequence of purchase to pay cycle.

14. Which is not the category of business process?

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16. Which of these acts as supplier or consumer process?

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25. Which is a core benefit of using technology for BPM?

26. Which is the principle of business process management?

28. Which is not the type of process-oriented structure identified by BPM?

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33. Which phase of BPM Iterate for continuous improvement?

35. A sustained management commitment to quality is essential principle for .

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45. Six Sigma strives of products manufactured are defect free.

48. means starting all over, starting from scratch.

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53. Which is not the challenge in implementing BPA?

56. refers to separate activities which are necessary to strengthen an organization’s

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59. Which is not the benefit of Business process automation?

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67. If the process of updating of the data stored is periodic, it is referred to as .

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73. The controls on the data are maintained using .

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82. Good documentation helps system designers develop oriented software.

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88. Which is the advantage of using ER diagram?

90. Which of this is not the DFD component’s symbol?

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95. Which is not the type of data flow diagram?

96. Which of the following is not the advantage of dataflow diagram?

97. Which of the following is limitation of dataflow diagram?

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99. is used in analyzing, deigning, documenting/managing process or program in various

100. Which of these is not the advantage of flowcharts?

101. Which of these is not the advantage of flowcharts?

102. is a collection of a basis (condition) and a conclusion (action).

104. Decision tree is specifically used in .

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107. Decision Table Is divided in parts?

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4. Which is a cross-platform mobile messaging application which allows us to exchange messages

5. Using a , information can be encrypted in a way to prevent unauthorized use, making

7. Which is not the benefit of Automated Process?

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9. Which is not the objective of audit?

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16. entails understanding how information is collected & processed on a day-to-day

17. Which are complementary technologies and concepts

20. What is the full form of ODBC?

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26. From a hardware perspective, is a computer or device on a network dedicated to

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