ENVIRONMENTS

Que.1. what is the name of the mineral whose practical diameter range
between 0.02-0.2mm.
A)Stone and gravels
B)Silt
C)Fine sand
D)Coarse Sand
Que.2. Edaphic factor comprises of two aspects .Which are they
A)Wind and temperature
B)Humidity and Water
C)Soil and Substratum
D)None of the above
Que.3. Is the statement Humidity is invisible vapour in the environment true
,false partially true or partially false
A)True
B)False
C)Partially True
D)Partially false
Que.4. The principle of biotic component are
A)Producers, Consumers and Decomposers
B)Autotrophs and Heterotrphs
C)First, Second, Third and fourth order consumers
D)None of the above
Que.5. The intersections of vital process of organisms between the same
species is called ___________ and intersection between those of different
Species ____________
A)Intra specific interaction and inter-specific interactions
B) Inter specific interaction and inter-specific interactions
C)Mutually dependent and mutually independent specific interactions
D)None of the above
Que.6. The general term environment means
A)Biotic factor only
B)Abiotic factor only
C)Biotic factor as well as abiotic factors
D)Biotic factor , abiotic factor and social factors
Que.7. The surrounding can be defined as environment when
A)The presence of conditions influencing development
B)There is specific surrounding
C) There is specific surrounding and continuous interactions
D) There is specific surrounding and continuous interactions and adaptation
Que.8. Which authority gave difference name to the minerals depending upon
their size

A)I.U.P.A.C
B)I.S.S.C
C) W.H.O
D) None of above

1
Que.9. Under holistic view the environments is defined as
A)Air and water qualities
B)Complex of interacting physical and cultural factor
C) Biotic and biotic factors
D) All of the above

Que.10. Which authority gave difference name to the minerals depending

upon their size
A)I.U.P.A.C
B)I.S.S.C
C) W.H.O
D) None of above
Que.11. Carbon dioxide gas comprises of ___________% in atmospheres
A)78
B)21
C) 0.03
D) None of above
Que.12. In sustainable development , Exploitations of resource ,direction of
investements ,orientations of technological developments and institution
change are in_________
A)Separate entity forms
B)Mixed forms
C) Harmony
D) Fully disintegrated forms
Que.13. What is the basic aim of holistic of the environments studies.
A)Improving the quality of life or human environment
B)Improving the aquatic life
C) Improving national resources
D) None of above
Que.14. Which one is not a merit of holistic approach of environments studies.
A)Establishment of substantive environments policy
B)Protection of environments quality of natural resources
C) Determine external conditions affecting grwth of organisms
D) All lof the above
Que.15. Environment pollution means
A)Presence of any pollutant in environment which impact advers
B)Alternation of characteristic leading to degradation of quality of environment
C) Presence of pollutions in any form but in such concentrations ehich may tend to
be injurious to environment giving rise to adverse effect on marketability of assets
D) All of the above

Que.16. Air pollutions means

A)levels of pollutant is moré than the the prescribed standard

B)Contamination of water
C)Alteration of physical chemical or boil;ogical properties of water
D) None of the above

2
Que.17. In which type of contaminatant Noise pollution is categorized
A)Hazardous ad toxic materials
B)Industrial wastewater
C) Physical contaminations
D) Non-Physical contaminations
Que.18. Price is ________value attached to goods or service offered in the
market.
A)Monetary
B)Market
C) Fact
D) None of the above
Que.18. Price is ________value attached to goods or service offered in the
market.
A)Monetary
B)Market
C) Fact
D) None of the above
Que.19. Open market price is
A)Fair market value
B)An estimate of goods and service at a given time
C) Estimated amount for which an asset should exchange between willing buyer and
willing seller after proper marketing where each acted prudenly
D) All of the above
Que.20. In which type of contaminant Chromium is categorized
A)Domestic Wastewater
B)Industrial Wastewater
C) Physical Contamination
D) Non-Physical Contamination
Que.21. The objective of environmental valuation is
A)Preparing valuation brief for the client
B)Determining the value of the assets in conditions of contamination
C) Determining the factors of the contaminations
D) Non of the above
Que.22. The impact of contaminants does not depend upon the
A)Type of the contaminant
B)The amount of the contaminant presence in the subject property
C) Shape of the contaminants
D) Size of the contaminant
Que.23. The heavy metals are major pollutants giving rise to
A)Impermeability
B)Viscosity
C) Toxicity
D) Personality

Que.24. The demand of the contaminated property falls as

A)The seller is ready to sell at a lower rate
B)Buyer is not interested in purchasing contaminated property
C) Buyer has option of purchasing non-contaminated property
D) none o the above
3
Que.25. Fall of demand of contaminated property is on account of
A)Discount demanded by the buyers
B)Buyer is unaware of such property
C)Market conditions are poor
D) none o the above
Que.26. Contaminated property gives rise to risk to risk of law suits
A)Discount demanded by the buyers
B)Buyer is unaware of such property
C)Market conditions are poor
D) none o the above
Que.27. In order to restore the asset back to the uncontaminated state
A)It is easier to get the finance from the funding institution
B)It is difficult to get the finance from the funding institutions
C)It is difficult to repay he loan as the rate of interest is high
D) none o the above
Que.28. Cost to control is
A)The gross cost of controlling a hazard in a property
B)The cost of breaking the routes of chemical absorption
C)The cost of remediation
D) none o the above
Que.29. in some of the industries ,Notices are displayed as regard protection
from hazard at the work . What type of cost is it.
A)cost to reduce revenues
B)cost to utility
C)Cost to control
D) none o the above
Que.30. The hazardous chemical enters normally by three route . Which one is
false from the option given below.

A)Inhalation
B)Dermal
C)Ingestion
D) Contact
Que.31. Providing isolation of risk from transportation of hazardous material
forms
A)Control by renovation
B)Control by remediation
C)Control by O and M
D) None of the above

Que.32. Public liability leads to aloss in property value because

A)The ower has to pay the costs related to release of the toxic contaminants
onto surrounding properties
B)The owner has control hazards by O and M programme
C)The owner has to incur the expenses on administration control
D) None of the above

4
Que.33. The duration of the operating cost is
A)For the specific period
B)Frequently
C)Twise in a years
D) None of the above
Que.34. Stigma is derived due to
A)Market imposed penalty
B)Always tangible negative input factor
C)Obvious visible pollution
D) None of the above
Que.35. Which one is not environment risk
A)Addition risk financing
B)Additional risk in buying
C)Additional risk in investing
D) None of the above
Que.36. Which one is incorrect with reference to environmental stigma
A)Stigma is difficult to be explained
B)Stigma is difficult to measure
C)Stigma is equal to cost to cure
D) None of the above
Que.37. Environment contaminated property is
A)Property known to be contaminated and market is not in a position to hide
B)Property known to be contaminated and market is in a position to hide
C)Property is suspected to be contaminated and confirmatory reports are not
available
D) None of the above
Que.38. Environment suspected property is
A)Property known to be contaminated and market is not in a position to hide
B)Property known to be contaminated and market is in a position to hide
C)Property is suspected to be contaminated and confirmatory reports are not
available
D) None of the above
Que.39. Environment remedial property is
A)Never contaminated property
B)Known to be contaminated work is completed
C)Property is suspected to be Contaminated and confirmatory report are not
available
D) None of the above
Que.40. Environment adjacent property is
A)Never contaminated property
B)Property which was never contaminated but are located in proximity
C)Property is suspected to be Contaminated and confirmatory report are not
available
D) None of the above
Que.41. An Environment valuation deals with
A)Valuation of environmental quality management
B)Valuation of various properties in the surrounding area
C)Valuation of all real estate and plant and machinery of the given environment.
D) None of the above
5
Que.42. Financial rewards or subsidy for waste treatment
A)Is not found proportionate
B)Is found proportionate
C)Is never proportionate
D) None of the above
Que.43. Financial penalty or financial reward or subsidies are
A)The value of the environmental contamination
B)Not the value of the environment contamination
C)The cost of redeveloping the properties
D) None of the above
Que.44. Charge method is
A)Not a good method from an economic point of view for that firm
B)Does not bring any pressure on the firm
C)Is a good method as it brings continuous pressure to update the waste
technology
D) None of the above
Que.45. In preliminary hazard analysis following is not done
A)Making a title search of the asset
B)Analyzing the risk associated with the hazard
C)Developing effective action plan to reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
D) None of the above
Que.46. In the risk analysis
A)Sample are taken and analyzed to decide the characteristics
B)Details are gathered by interviewing/interrogating properties owners/managers
C)Conducting site visit of adjacent property
D) None of the above
Que.47. Who can be environmental consultant for valuation
A)NEERI
B)GICEA
C)College awarding diploma in engineering
D) Engineering colleges affiliated to university
Que.48. The sale of comparison approaches involves

A)Analyzing the sales of contaminated properties

B)Comparing the sales of subject property
C)Comparing level of contamination
D) None of the above
Que.49. In a sales comparisons Approaches

A)There is no need to hire the services of environment expert

B)There is a need to hire the service of environmental expect
C)join effort of appraisers and environmental experts are needed
D) None of the two are needed
Que.50. Which step is not involved in the Sales comparison Approaches

A)Identification of contaminated properties

B)Analyzing and comparing the asset and contaminants characteristic
C)Preparing a report of environment contaminants presence in the adjacent property
D) Adjacent price of comparable properties and determination of value
estimate.
6
Que.51. Which one is the most important conation to use Salesa comparison
Approaches.
A)Sufficient statistics of comparable contaminated assets must exit along with
environment experts report.
B)Not only the amount of contamination but the risk associated must be known to be
the same.
C)Manufacturing and process of comparable properties must be identical
D) The current and future utility of the comparable contaminated properties must be
the same
Que.52. Cost approaches involves
A)Estimating the value of subject property unimparired and determination of
remediation cost
B)Comparing level of contamination
C)Comparing sales of contaminated properties
D) None of the above
Que.53. Which is the principle of cost approach for contamination property
valuation..
A)Determination of cost of producing similar property as a replacement
B)Systematic gathering recording and analyzing data of similarly affected appraised
C)Determination of income which the contaminated property still can derive
D) None of the above
Que.54. In a Cost Approaches
A)There is no need to hire environmental consultant
B)There is a need to hire environmental consultant
C)Only appraiser is needed
D) None of the two are required
Que.55. Determining direct cost in the contamination in cost approaches is

A)cost to cost to cure

B)Cost to operation
C)Cost to utility
D) None of the above
Que.56. The specialised cost in the approaches is

A)Additional cost per management of rededication and clean up.

B)Cost to consultant new facilities
C)Cost to operation
D) None of operation
Que.57. Contaminated property receive reduced income because

A)It has diminished utility

B)Property is off the market
C)It has lost the reputation
D) None of operation
Que.58. Base capitalization rate can be established in base on

A)Market rental data

B)Real estate market current rate
C)Remediation cost
D) None of operation
7
Que.59. The allowable expenses which must be subtracted from the gross
income
A)In expense involved to remove the specific contaminate
B) In expense involved to remove the specific contaminate and amortized
presence worth of the cost to cure
C)Is amortized present worth of the cost to cure
D) None of operation
Que.60. Which one is not allowable expense in income approaches of
valuations
A)Cost to cure
B)Disruption cost
C)Cost of discovery of contaminant and legal expenses
D) cost of maintenance
Que.61. State whether SO2 is
A)Primary pollutant
B)Secondary pollutant
C)Suspended particular matter
D) none of the above
Que.62. State the type of the source of air pollution for basic metal industries
A)Stationary sources
B)Community Sources
C)Mobile sources
D) none of the above
Que.63. State tobacco Smocking falls in which category of source.
A)Indoor Sources
B)Community Sources
C)Mobile sources
D) none of the above
Que.64. Taj Mahal had a great damaging impact due to air pollutions. pin
point the contaminant.
A)SO2
B)NO2
C)SPM
D) none of the above
Que.65. Cement concrete surface are vulnerable to acidic deposition because
of
A)The neutral property of cement concrete
B)Highly alkaline nature of cement concrete
C)Highly acid nature of cement concrete
D) none of the above
Que.66. Carbon soot appears to accelerate the process
A)Of weight loss of the metal
B)Of abrasive action on the surfaces
C)Of reaction of material in acidic atmosphere
D) none of the above
Que.67. Cellulose fibres adversely affect the the tensile strength due to
A)Acid droplets
B)Oxides of Nitrogen
C)Ozone
D) none of the above
8
Que.68. Acid rain is defined as
A)Rainfall which has PH less than 5.6
B)Rainfall which has PH less than 7
C)Rainfall which has PH more than 5.6
D) All of the above
Que.69. The statement Acid rain results in additional cost is _____________
A)True
B)Partially false
C)Absolutely false
D) Partially true
Que.70. Due to acid rain
A)Fish population declines
B)Human may get metal when they eat fish
C)Amphibians get deformity in embryos
D) All of the above
Que.71. Water pollution means
A)Change in characteristics of the water
B) Change in characteristics of water so that it cannot be rendered fit for its
best usage.
C) increases in cost due to maintenance.
D) Saline water which needs treatment.
Que.72 Whether any relation exists so far as water pollution and valuation is
concerned.
A)No.
B)Yes
C)Not at all
D) None of above
Que.73. How appraiser is concerned with water pollution.
A)Because it shows change in characteristics of water thereby it shows presence of
physical , chemical or biological change in properties of water.
B)Because degradation of water nexus in its impacts on valuation of
properties .
C)Because polluted water is injurious to health.
D) None of above
Que.74. What is pathogen.
A)Because It is floating matter which is not harmful.
B)It is bacterium which is innocent
C)It is bacterium which can be capable of producing disease.
D) None of above
Que.75. Ground water pollution is mainly due to
A)Percolation of pollutant in the soil system.
B)Heavy rainfall.
C)Development of algae in river due to presence of nutrients in sewage and sunlight.
D) Gel form.
Que.76. Bacteria are found in water in
A)Suspended form.
B)Dissolved form.
C)Never found in any form.
D) None of the above..

9
Que.77. Suspended solid and turbidity give rise to objectionable odours. State
whether it is true.
A)True
B)False
C) None of the above

Que.78. True colour is imparted to raw water by

A)Suspended Solids.
B)Chlorine
C)Dissolved solids
D) None of the above

Que.79. In which year the Stockholm conference was held.

A)1992
B)1972
C)2005
D) 1872
Que.80. What was the objective of Stockholm conference.
A)Preservation and improvement of natural resources and wildlife
B) Preservation and improvement of human environment
C) Preservation and improvement of forest and natural environment
D) None of the above
Que.81. Which was the first country to impose a constitutional obligation on
the state and citizens to protect and improve the environment as one of the
primary duties.
A)India
B) Japan
C) USA
D) None of the above

Que.82. Which country noticed the first casualties and human suffering in the
world dsue to pollution.
A)India
B) Japan
C) USA
D) None of the above

Que.83. In which year first casualties and human suffering in the world due to
pollution was noticed.
A)1980
B) 1905
C) 1950
D) 1999

Que.84. In which year Wild life (Protection) Act was enacted.

A)1972
B) 1948
C) 1981
D) 1974

10
Que.85. Under which Act the person can be punished for illegal poaching.
A)The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1974
B) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1981
C) The Forest (Conservation) Act,1981
D) The Wildlife (Protection) Act,1972

Que.86. Which Act, Expanded definition of environment to included water ,air

,land and the interrelationship which exists among and between water ,air,
land and human other living being and property.
A)The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1974
B) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1981
C) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
D) The Environmental (Protection) Act,1986

Que.87. Which Act Provides for maintain the wholesomeness of water in the
nation.
A)The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,1974
B) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act,1977
C) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
D) The Environmental (Protection) Act,1986

11
 Environment Legislation

1. The world as World Environmental day is celebrated on:

(a) December 1

(b) June 5

(c) November 14

(d) August 15

2. The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution

were made in:
(a) 1976

(b) 1950

(c) 1982

(d) 1960

ADVERTISEMENTS:

3. The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution

were made under:
(a) Article 5-A

(b) Article 21-B

(c) Article 27-B (h)

(d) Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)

4. The first of the major environmental protection act to be

promulgated in India was:
(a) Water Act

(b) Air Act

(c) Environmental Act

12
(d) Noise Pollution Rule

5. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year:

(a) 1986

(b) 1974

(c) 1980

(d) 1972

6. The Forest (Conservation) Act extends to the whole of India

except:
(a) Uttar Pardesh

(b) Karnataka

(c) Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Haryana

7. Penalty for conservation of the provisions of the Forest Act is

under:
(a) Section 3A

(b) Section 4A

(c) Section 12A

(d) Section 8A

8. Offences by the Authorities and Government Department in

Forest Act is under:
(a) Section 5B

(b) Section 5A

(c) Section 3B

(d) Section 8A

9. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

13
(a) 1986

(b) 1974

(c) 1994

(d) 1972

10. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of

central Government is Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:
(a) Section 38

(b) Section 39

(c) Section 18

(d) Section 27

11. The Wildlife (Protection) Act contains:

(a) 7 Chapters

(b) 6 Chapters

(c) 5 Chapters

(d) 8 Chapters

12. The Wildlife (Protection) Act contains:

(a) 66 Sections

(b) 6 Sections

(c) 7 Sections

(d) 46 Sections

13. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was

enacted in the year:
(a) 1986

(b) 1974

14
(c) 1994

(d) 1975

14. The Water Act contains:

(a) 4 Chapters

(b) 5 Chapters

(c) 7 Chapters

(d) 8 Chapters

15. The Water Act have:

(a) 64 Sections

(b) 68 Sections

(c) 45 Sections

(d) 62 Sections

16. The functions of Central Board are given under:

(a) Section 16

(b) Section 19

(c) Section 25

(d) Section 24

17. The functions of State Board are given under:

(a) Section 16

(b) Section 17

(c) Section 21

(d) Section 45

18. Power to give directions are declared under:

(a) Section 16
15
(b) Section 17

(c) Section 18

(d) Section 25

19. In the Water Act the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has
been declared as water pollution prevention control area under:
(a) Section 21

(b) Section 23

(c) Section 19

(d) Section 24

20. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in
the year:
(a) 1981

(b) 1996

(c) 2000

(d) 1974

21. The Air Act contains:

(a) 5 Chapters

(b) 6 Chapters

(c) 7 Chapters

(d) 8 Chapters

22. The Air Act have

(a) 56 Section

(b) 54 Section

(c) 58 Section

16
(d) 62 Section

23. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
(a) 1981

(b) 1987

(c) 1982

(d) 2000

24. The Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

(a) 1986

(b) 1992

(c) 1984

(d) 1974

25. The EPA consists:

(a) 2 Chapters

(b) 4 Chapters

(c) 8 Chapters

(d) 7 Chapters

26. The EPA contains:

(a) 25 Sections

(b) 12 Sections

(c) 26 Sections

(d) 14 Sections

27. NGOs stands for:

(a) Non-Governmental Organization

(b) Nine-Governmental Organization

17
 (c) Non-Gained Organizations

(d) National-Grade Organization

28. The Women’s Population in the world is almost:

(a) Half

(b) One-forth

(c) One-third

(d) One fifth

29. Litrate women can help in:

(a) Reducing infant mortality rate

(b) Reducing population growth

(c) Promoting female children education

(d) All of the above

Answers:

1. (b); 2. (a); 3. (d); 4. (a); 5. (c); 6. (c); 7. (a); 8. (c); 9. (d); 10. (a); 11.
(a); 12. (a); 13. (b); 14. (d); 15. (a); 16. (a); 17. (b); 18. (c); 19. (c); 20.
(a); 21. (c); 22. (b); 23. (b); 24. (a); 25. (b); 26. (c); 27. (a); 28. (a) 29. (d).

Air Pollution
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
According to EPA of USA, the following is not one of the six major
pollutants?
a. Ozone
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Nitrogen oxides
d. Carbon di-oxide
(Ans:d)

18
 The Pollution Standard Index (PSI) scale has span from
a. 0-200
b. 0-300
c. 0-400
d. 0-500
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is an organic gas?

a. Hydrocarbons
b. Aldehydes
c. Ketones
d. Ammonia
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is/are inorganic gas (es)?

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Hydrogen sulphide
c. Chlorine
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is

a. Motor vehicle
b. Industrial processes
c. Stationary fuel combustion
d. None of the above
(Ans:a)

Fugitive emissions consist of

a. Street dust
b. Dust from construction activities
c. Dust from farm cultivation
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Ozone of found in
a. Mesosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Stratosphere

19
d. Exosphere
(Ans:c)

Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by a photochemical

reaction with
a. Ultra violet solar radiation
b. Infra red radiation
c. Visible light
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

The principal source of volatile organics (Hydrocarbons) is

a. Transportation
b. Industrial processes
c. Stationary fuel combustion
d. Volcanoes
(Ans:b)

The function of automobile catalytic converter is to control

emissions of
a. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
b. carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
d. carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide
(Ans:b)

The list of industrial sources of air pollution and their emissions

are given. Match the following.
A. Ammonia 1. Carbon monoxide
B. Plating 2. Particulates
C. Fertilizers 3. Metal fumes
The correct order is
a. A-1, B-2, C-3
b. A-3, B-2, C-1
c. A-1, B-3, C-2
d. A-3, B-1, C-2
(Ans:c)

20
 The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any industrial
activity should not be permitted beyond
a. 2ppm
b. 3ppm
c. 4ppm
d. 5ppm
(Ans:d)

The threshold limit of benzene is

a. 15ppm
b. 20ppm
c. 25ppm
d. 30ppm
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is used as antiknock compound in gasoline?

a. tetramethyl lead
b. tetraethyl lead
c. trimethyl lead
d. triethyl lead
(Ans:b)

Which of the following is a fermentation product of molasses?

a. Methanol
b. Formaldeyde
c. Ammonia
d. Acetone
(Ans:d)

The boiler flue gas is source of

a. HCl
b. NO
c. HF
d. Volatile organic compounds
(Ans:b)

water Pollution & Acid Rain

21
1. Today, the world’s number one problem is:
(a) Pollution

(b) Population explosion

(c) Nuclear proliferation

(d) Natural calamities

2. The major cause of global population growth in the 18 and 19

centuries was:
ADVERTISEMENTS:

(a) Decrease in death rates

(b) Decrease in birth rates

(c) Industrial revolution

(d) None of the above

ADVERTISEMENTS:

3. Population explosion has occurred in the last:

(a) 500 years

(b) 300 years

(c) 700 years

(d) 150 years

4. The world has a population of:

(a) 4 billion

(b) 5 billion

(c) 6 billion

(d) 7 billion

22
5. Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of
future growth is called
(a) Demograph

(b) Biography

(c) Kalography

(d) Psychology

6. Which of the following is a problem not associated with

population growth?
(a) Increased resource consumption

(b) Environmental pollution

(c) Food and energy storages

(d) None of the above

7. One of the critical mechanism by which the environment controls

population of species is:
(a) Spread of disease

(b) Removal of excreta

(c) Check on death rate

(d) Supply of food

8. If the rate of addition of new member’s increases with respect to

the individual lost of the same population, then the graph obtained
has:
(a) Declined growth

(b) Exponential growth

(c) Zero growth

(d) None of the above

23
9. Doubling time (Td) can be calculated by:
(a) Td = 70 / r
(b) Td = r / 70
(c) Td = 70 × r
(d) Td = 70 + r
10. The number of babies produced per thousand individuals is
called:
(a) Natality

(b) Mortality

(c) Immigration

(d) Emigration

11. Population pyramids are useful to:

(a) Express the population growth rates

(b) Express the age-sex distribution

(c) Indicate the birth rates

(d) Indicate the death rates

12. The zero population growth due to equal birth and death rates is
called:
(a) Natural increase

(b) Demographic transition

(c) Fertility rate

(d) Replacement level

13. The average life expectancy around the world is currently:

(a) Decreasing

(b) Increasing

(c) Not changing

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(d) Stabilizing

14. The force which acts against the achievement of the highest
possible level of population growth is known as:
(a) Saturation level

(b) Population pressure

(c) Carrying capacity

(d) Environmental resistance

15. Short-term properties of the atmosphere at a given place and

time is referred as:
(a) Climate

(b) Microclimate

(c) Season

(d) Weather

16. Global atmospheric temperatures are likely to be increased due

to:
(a) Burning of fossil fuel

(b) Water pollution

(c) Soil erosion

(d) None of the above

17. Global Warming could affect:

(a) Climate

(b) Food production

(c) Melting of glaciers

(d) All of the above

18. Which of the following is not a solution of global warming?

25
(a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption

(b) Planting more trees

(c) Deforestation

(d) None of the above

19. Greenhouse effect is related to:

(a) Green trees on house

(b) Global warming

(c) Grasslands

(d) Greenry in country

20. Which of the following is not a ‘greenhouse gas’?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons

(d) Methane

21. Which important greenhouse gas other than methane is being

provided from the agricultural fields?
(a) SO

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Ammonia

(d) SO

22. Which of the following gases contributes maximum to the

‘Greenhouse effect on earth?
(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

26
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons

(d) Freon

23. The greenhouse effect is due to:

(a) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations through O3 layer
(b) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through CO of the
atmosphere

(c) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations through CO

(d) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through O3 layer

24. The primary cause of acid rain around the world is:
(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Ozone

25. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric

concentration of?
(a) Ozone and dust

(b) SO and NO

(c) SO and CO

(d) CO and CO

26. The primary air pollutant responsible for acid rains is:
(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Ozone

27
27. How many times more acidic a rain having pH = 5.6 will be in
comparison to a neutral rain having pH 7?
(a) 72 / 5.62 = 1.56
(b) 7 / 5.6 = 1.25

(c) 107 / 105.6 = 20

(d) 5.6 / 7 = 0.8

28. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to

checking and controlling acid rains?
(a) Catalytic converters are installed in cars

(b) Expensive scrubbers are installed in industries and thermal power

stations

(c) Use of petrol cars is promoted by discouraging the use of diesel cars

(d) None of the above

29. Ozone day is observed on:

(a) January 03

(b) March 26

(d) November 10

(c) September 16

30. Ozone layer is present in:

(a) Troposphere

(b) Mesosphere

(c) Stratosphere

(d) Thermosphere

31. Harmful U.V. radiations emanating from the sun are prevented
from reaching the Earth by the presence of ozone in the:
(a) Mesosphere

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(b) Thermosphere

(c) Stratosphere

(d) Troposphere

32. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being destroyed by:

(a) Ozone

(b) PAN

(c) Aldehydes

(d) All of the above

33. Which one of the following gases can deplete the ozone layer in
the upper atmosphere?
(a) Methane

(b) Ammonia

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Carbon dioxide

34. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays, is

caused by:
(a) CO

(b) PAN

(c) CFCs

(d) Coal burning

35. The ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere are absorbed by:

(a) Oxygen

(b) Ozone

(c) Sulphur dioxide

29
(d) Argon

36. Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over

(a) India

(b) Antarctica

(c) Europe

(d) Africa

37. The ozone hole appears in Antarctica during

(a) Late winter

(b) Peak summer

(c) Early winter

(d) Autumn

38. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of:
(a) Ozone depletion

(b) Acid rain

(c) CO pollution

(d) None of the above

39. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

(a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
(b) Ozone is highly reactive
(c) Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun
(d) All of the above
40. Ozone layer thickness is measured in:
(a) Millimeter

(b) Centimeter

(c) Decibels

30
(d) Dobson units

41. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause:

(a) Forest fires

(b) Increased incidence of skin cancer

(c) Global warming

(d) None of these

42. Nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons released by automobiles

interact to form:
(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Carbon monoxide

(c) PAN

(d) Aerosols

43. The first CFC was synthesised in:

(a) 1892

(b) 1920

(c) 1980

(d) 1800

44. This may be use as refrigerator:

(a) CFC

(b) Carbon

(c) Acids

(d) Ozone

45. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is:

(a) Chlorine

31
(b) Fluorine

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Nitrogen peroxide

Answers:
1. (b); 2. (c); 3. (d); 4. (c); 5. (a); 6. (d); 7. (d); 8. (b), 9. (a); 10. (a); 11.
(b); 12. (b); 13. (b); 14. (d); 15. (d); 16. (a); 17. (d); 18. (c); 19. (b); 20.
(a); 21. (b); 22. (a); 23. (b); 24. (b); 25. (b); 26. (b); 27. (c); 28. (d); 29.
(c); 30. (c); 31. (c); 32. (c); 33. (a); 34. (c); 35. (b); 36. (b); 37. (b); 38. (a);
39. (d); 40. (d) 41. (b); 42. (c); 43. (a); 44. (a); 45. (a)

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