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Class4 Safety written-Set1
Leave a Comment / Class4 Written / By marineexam
[MEO CLASS4 SAFETY WRITTEN COMPUTER BASED OBJECTIVE TYPE WRITTEN
QUESTION AND
ANSWER SHIP CONSTRUCTION & STABLITY PAPER.. BOLD MARK WORD/SENTENCE IS
ANSWER] [
1. As per MARPOL Annex -1 definition,Special area means:

1. Some specific areas where coastal state legislation doesn???t allow any bilge
water/slop discharges
2. Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge water/slop discharges are allowed
3. Areas as defined by Annex-1, where special mandatory methods are adopted
for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
4. Areas as defined by Coastal state regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory
methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
2. In which of the following documents on board, authentic information about the
circumstances and procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?

1. Safety Management Manual

2. The Ship Captain’s Medical Guide
3. First Aid Booklet
4. Code of safe working practices
3. Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS
convention?

1. Fire control plan/booklet

2. Maneuvering booklet
3. Minimum safe manning document
4. Records of hours of rest
4. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be

1. passed around so all can drink

2. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
3. saved to be used at a later time
 4. used to boil food
5. Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding
the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?

1. Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship

2. Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
3. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master???s fault even if
the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to
prevent/minimize discharge
4. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master???s fault,
but because of a third party???s fault and action awaited by Master from that
third party to prevent /minimize discharge
6. Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO),
in the event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?

1. Master
2. USCG
3. Qualified Individual
4. Technical Superintendent
7. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to
carry:

1. Crude oil and other dirty oils

2. Crude oil alongwith some refined products
3. Crude oil only
4. Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
8. Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?

1. Council
2. Assembly
3. Facilitation Committee
4. None of the above
9. The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is __
1. 13.5 Kgs
2. 23 Kgs
3. 9 Kgs
4. 46 Kgs
10. Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR)
issued?

1. CLC 1992
 2. Fund convention
3. LLMC
4. OPA 1990
11. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel
transfer operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?

A. Wait for the person-in-charge to act.

B. Notify the ballast control operator.
C. Shutdown the transfer operations
D. Sound the fire alarm.
12. As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed
to carry

1. Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
2. Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
3. A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a
parcel tanker
4. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13. As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of __ tones deadweight and above
delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using ___
1. 5000, Sea Water Washing
2. 10000, Fresh Water Washing
3. 20000, Crude Oil Washing
4. 30000, Bilge Water Washing
14. . As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:

1. Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
2. Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
3. Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward
bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
4. Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
15. Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?

1. Neil Robertson turn

2. Williamson turn.
3. Hard port
4. Hard starboard.
16. The parent instrument of IMO is:

1. UNCLOS I, 1958
2. UNCLOS II, 1960
 3. UNCLOS III, 1974
4. The IMO convention
17. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be

1. walked around until he is back to normal

2. given several shots of whiskey
3. kept lying down and warm
4. allowed to do as he wishes
18. Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?

A. Marpol 73/78
B. London convention
C. Hongkong convention
D. Kenya convention
19. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern
is

1. pitching
2. rolling
3. heaving
4. swaying
20. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping
system, you should FIRST

1. open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump

2. start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
3. open block valves, then start the cargo pump
4. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
21. The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called

1. yaw
2. sway
3. surge
4. heave
22. Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that

1. the forced ventilating system is operating

2. the cargo pumps are secured
3. no mono carbon gases are present
4. the oily water separator is de-energized
23 .Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL
convention?

1. IOPP certificate
2. Oil Record Book
3. SOPEP
4. Safety Management Certificate.
24. When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called
the

1. metacentric differential
2. height of the baseline
3. height of the metacenter
4. righting arm
25. Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required
to be installed on board certain ships as per_____________

1. ISPS code
2. ISM code
3. Chapter V of Solas
4. None of the above
26. Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?

1. Sea anchor
2. Fishing tackle
3. Drinking water cans
4. Life Jacket
27. As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped
under _functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency.
1. Seven
2. Four
3. Six
4. Three
28. Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance
issued?

1. COLREG 1972
2. SAR 1979
3. SOLAS 1974
4. SALVAGE 1989
5.
29. As required by Reg.31 of Annex 1 of Marpol the ODMCS should be provided with a
recording device for __ recording the discharge in litres per nautical mile and total quantity
discharged. This discharge should be kept onboard at least for a period of:
1. Intermittent, 1 year
2. Continuous, 1 year
3. Intermittent, 3 years
4. Continuous, 3 years
30. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done

1. without losing the rhythm of respiration

2. only with the help of two other people
3. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
4. at ten minute intervals
31. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:

1. Oils and chemicals

2. Oils other than crude oils
3. Oil product and occasionally crude oils
4. Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products
32. Which of the following statements is false?

1. A ship security plan is made by the CSO

2. A ship security plan is a confidential document.
3. A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration
4. None of the above
33. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel
who are

1. thirsty
2. sick or injured
3. wet
4. awake
34. Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds ?

1. Exposure to excessive heat.

2. Mixing of different grades of foam.
3. Exposure to air.
4. None of the above.
35. In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
 1. Oxygen content above 8%
2. Low water level in deck seal
3. Low water level in the scrubber tower
4. High scrubber water level
36. As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __ gross tonnage and above shall be
provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
1. 150 tonnes deadweight
2. 150 gross tonnage
3. 400 tonnes deadweight
4. 400 gross tonnage
37. Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least
______________ in calm waters.

1. 5 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 30 minutes
4. 60 minutes
38. Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of
______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then
___________________should be provided.

1. zero, cold starting spray

2. -5, heating arrangements
3. Zero, heating arrangements
4. -5,cold starting spray
39. Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without
passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________

1. B class divisions
2. A class divisions
3. A30 class divisions
4. B 30 class divisions
40. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should
be depressed about

1. 1/2 inch or less

2. 1/2 to 1 inch
3. 1 to 1 1/2 inches
4. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
41. As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010
with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:
 1. Any of the tanks without any restriction
2. Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
3. Deep tanks in protective locations
4. Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side
42. Which of the following statements is true?

1. The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.(for

MCQ)
2. The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.
3. The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
4. The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships
43. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __.
1. allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
2. prevent outside air from entering the tank
3. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
4. comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
44. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when
________
1. you first start to receive fuel
2. hoses are being blown down
3. final topping off is occurring
4. hoses are being disconnected
45. . An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __.
1. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
2. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
3. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
4. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
46. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to
the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

1. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
2. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
3. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
4. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
47. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

1. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below

the LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)
2. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the
UFL (UpperFlammable Limit)
 3. capable of supporting a fire once started
4. not safe for ballasting
48. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __.
1. shape
2. shallow draft
3. large sail area
4. All of the above
49. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a
cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?

1. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
2. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
3. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
4. Use an explosimeter
50. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __.
1. secure the engine room ventilation
2. secure the machinery in the engine room
3. evacuate all engine room personnel
4. All of the above
51. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should
secure the power, then__________.

1. use a portable foam extinguisher

2. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
3. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
4. determine the cause of the fire
52. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is
called the——

1. auto-ignition point
2. flash point
3. lower explosive limit (LEL)
4. threshold limit value (TLV)
53. The deck water seal of the inert gas system __.
1. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
2. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe
working pressure inthe hazardous zone
3. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
4. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
54. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __.
1. 0% to 1%
 2. 1% to 10%
3. 10% to 15%
4. 12% to 20%
55. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __.
1. oil from flowing out of the tank vent
2. air from entering the tank vent
3. vapors from leaving the tank vent
4. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
DG SHIPPING OLDER QUESTION ANSWER
56. Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of
the listed practices?

1. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material.
2. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before handling.
3. Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit entrance of steam, water, or air into a
fitting or other equipment.
4. Throwing materials from high places to the deck
57. Which of the following statements is true?

1. Ballast water exchange at mid ocean eliminates completely the risks associated with
introduction of non-native organisms and pathogens in alien habitats.
2. In the flow through method, the water pumped through a tank should be at
least 3 times the tank volume.
3. Over pressurization of a tank cannot take place during the flow through method.
4. Air pipes on ballast tanks are designed for continuous overflow.
58. The most common cause of engine room fires is:

1. Spontaneous combustion of oily rags

2. Back fire of boilers
3. Ignition sources coming in contact with stored fuel /lubes
4. Oil leakage coming in contact with hot exposed surfaces
59. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being “Safe for Men”
and “Safe for fire”. This condition may change if:

1. the ambient temperature changes

2. a product leaks into the certified tank
3. muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors
4. all of the above
60. As per MARPOL annex-1, the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content means:
 1. The rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in litres per hour at any instant divided by
the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant
2. The rate of discharge of oil in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed
of the ship in knots at the same instant
3. The average rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in litres per hour divided by the
average speed of the ship in knots
4. The average rate of discharge of oil mixture in litres per hour divided by the average
speed of the ship in knots
61. Which of the following statements about LRIT is False?

1. Regulation on LRIT is included in Chapter V of SOLAS

2. LRIT has longer range than AIS
3. LRIT, like AIS, is a broadcast system that transmits information about ship’s
identity, location date and time of position to all in range
4. LRIT and AIS should not have any interface
62. Pyrophoric ignition may occur_____________

1. On introduction of air in tanks deficient in oxygen.

2. In oxygen rich atmospheres.
3. In nitrogen rich atmospheres.
4. Only when an ignition source is introduced
63. Which of the following conditions need NOT be satisfied while discharging oil or oil
mixtures from ships into the sea?

1. The ship must be proceeding en route

2. The ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
3. The oily mixture is processed through an oil filtering equipment as per Reg. 14 of
Annex-1
4. The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 15 ppm
64. As per MARPOL annex I requirements:

1. Only crudes and petrochemical products come within the definition of Oil
2. All items mentioned in Appendix 1 of annex 1 come under the category of oil
3. Only crude oil and black oils have restrictions on pumping out, the remaining
products can be pumped out at sea in limited quantities
4. Anything having viscosity greater than that of water is considered to be oil
65. As per Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following entries should be
made in official log book of ships?

1. Every case of illness, hurt or injury to a member of the crew

2. Every case of death on board
 3. Every birth happening on board
4. All of the above
66. Which of the following instruments set out carrier’s obligations and liabilities with
respect to carriage of goods?

1. Hague Rules
2. Hamburg Rules
3. Hague- Visby rules
4. All of the above
67. Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?

1. Ship’s articles
2. Station bill
3. Certificate of Inspection
4. U. S. Coast Guard Regulations
68. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Purging is an essential operation to carry out before gas freeing is done prior to man
entry.
2. Purging makes sure that the mixture in a cargo tank never enters the flammable
range, when air is introduced.
3. Purging can be carried out by both displacement and dilution methods.
4. None of the above
69. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to

1. use the mouth-to-mouth method

2. clear airways
3. use rhythmic pressure method
4. know all approved methods
70. When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how many times per minute should
the chest be compressed?

1. 15
2. 30
3. 45
4. 80
71. Which of the following codes has been issued under both SOLAS and MARPOL
conventions?

1. STCW code
 2. IMDG code
3. IGC code
4. ISM code
72. Dispatch means

1. A.owner to charter <<>> after<<>>

2. owner to charter <<>> before<<>>
3. C.Charter to owner <<>> after<<>>
4. Charter to owner <<>> before<<>>
73. convention not yet forced

1. Balast water Management

2. .
3. .
4.
74. How many annex in MARPOL including newly added

1. 6
2. 8
3. 7
75. Who provide charter to ship

1. Agent
2. .Broker
3. .Chandler
4. .None
76. Sewage (disinfected )and communited sewage can be discharged from how many Miles

1. 3 NM from land provided if enroute

2. 12 NM from land provided if enroute
3. 15 NM from land provided if enroute
4. None
77. Helicopter convention

1. MARPOL
2. Indian aviation
3. .SOLAS
78. Certificate of insurance on financial <<>> during bunkering oil spill damage comes
under
 1. CLC 1969 convention
2. Marpol convention
3. Bunker convention
4. .CLC 1992
77. According to Indian merchant ship act 1958, registrar of ports of
Mumbai,Chennai,kolkatta

1. DG shipping
2. MMD
3. .Principle officer respective MMD
4. surveyer
78. International shore connection under which convention

1. ISPS
2. ISM
3. LLA
4. SOLAS
79. What is the minimum percentage of oxygen required before making an entry into an
enclosed space?

1. 20%
2. 18%
3. 11%
4. 21%
80. Selective catalytic reduction is a secondary method for reduction of which of the
following emissions?

1. SOX
2. NOX
3. Carbon oxides
4. All of the above
81. Air is removed from refrigration sytem by (1) at reciver after (2)(3)__ Gas in receiver.
Humidificaton is process of adding water/moiture to discharged airof AC blower.
Demumidification is process of removing water/moisture from air supplied from AC system.
For colecting gas in receiver you need to close the outlet valve of receiver with compressor
running
 1.PURGE 2.COLLECT . 3. CONDENSATE
82. One of the important precautions against cold injuries and frost bite would be:

1. Wear several layers of light clothing rather than one heavy layer of clothing
2. Wear tight fitting gloves
 3. Rub numb areas of body to warm them up
4. Work while facing the wind
83. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?

 Ship’s articles
 Station bill
 Certificate of Inspection
 U.S. Coast Guard Regulations
84. Ship Security Alert System is a requirement under ______
1. Part B of ISPS Code
2. SOLAS Chapter XI-2
3. SUA convention, 1988
4. None of the above
85. When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should continue the
victim’s ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?

1. 4
2. 8
3. 12
4. 20
86. Freight paid by charterers on a quantity of cargo short-shipped, i.e quantity agreed
upon but not loaded by the charterer, is called:

1. Pro-rata freight
2. Back Freight
3. Dead freight
4. None of the above
87. Which of the following extinguishing medium should never be used when fighting fire
involving magnesium?

1. Halon Dry
2. Chemical powder
3. Water
4. CO2
88. Under which Convention is Oil Pollution Insurance Certificate (OPIC) a statutory oil
pollution insurance cover requirement?

1. CLC
2. LLMC
3. Fund convention
4. Athens Convention
89. In refrigeration system vegetable room and meat rooms are maintained at different

1. Different expansion valves

2. By putting solenoid valves
3. By boiling the refrigerant at different pressures
4. By using smaller evaporator
90. The working duration of a 1200 litres SCBA bottle, after allowing for a reserve of 10 mins
is____________________ (if 1800litres =40mins)

1. 30 mins
2. 40 mins
3. 20 mins
4. 50 mins
91. Principle of fire fighting onboard is (MCQ)

1. watering of fire
2. * starving of fire
3. * cooling
4. * smothering of fire
92. The number within bracket of a resolution, say A.526 (13) refers to __.
1. The serial No. of the resolution.
2. The session No. in which the resolution was adopted.
3. The sub paragraph of the resolution.
4. The No. of clauses in the resolution
93. Certificate of insurance or other financial security in respect of civil liability for bunker oil
pollution damage is issued under what?

1. CLC 1969.
2. MARPOL convention.
3. Bunker convention 2001.
4. CLC 1992.
94. Cyclic Up & Down Movement of Vessel Along the VERTICAL AXIS…

1. Heaving,
2. yawing,
3. Swaying,
4. pitching
95. The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds,
pump-rooms etc., is known as _________
1. Williamson stretcher
2. Neil Hobson stretcher
 3. Neil Robertson stretcher
4. Stokes stretcher
96. Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?

1. Longitudinal
2. Transverse
3. Vertical
4. Centerline
97. When entering a compartment which is on fire,

1. you must wear rubber gloves

2. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog
3. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door
4. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters
98. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of
gravity, the metacentric height is equal to

1. height of the metacenter

2. height of the center of gravity
3. same as half the height of the metacenter
4. zero
99. The emergency generator should be capable of being started and be able to supply
required load within a maximum of ____
1. 30 seconds
2. 1 min
3. 45 seconds
4. 2 mins
100. Which of the following kinds of total flooding system is most suited for very large
spaces like car carrier car decks?

1. High pressure multi cylinder type CO2 installation

2. Low pressure bulk storage tank type CO2 installation
3. Low expansion foam systems
4. Fixed pressure water spraying systems
101. You are the 4th engineer of a ship. Your 3rd engineer handsover the watch to you and
informs you that the OWS is running with the ppm showing as zero. After taking over the
watch and during your rounds you find out that the rinsing fresh water to 15 ppm device
was crack open. After closing the same you find that the ppm goesto 15 and the OWS
stopped after giving alarm. What should you do?
 1. Nothing, as Marpol regulations are satisfied till the oily water is being pumped
through OWS and oil content is below 15 ppm
2. Should suspend the operation immediately, inform the Chief engineer about
the same and take appropriate action to restore correct OWS operation
3. Should never touch OWS and any stoppages to be informed either to Chief Engineer
or 2nd engineer
4. If no visible traces of oil are seen on the sea surface and oily water mixture is being
pumped through an OWS, then there is no harm in pumping out with fresh water
crack open, to keep the OWS running as it may give false alarm without Fresh water.
This is a practical approach to run OWS without any trouble without violating Marpol
regulations
102. All entries in the Oil record Book part-I are to be:

1. At least in English, Spanish or national language

2. At least in English, Spanish or French
3. At least in English or Spanish
4. At least in English or national language
103. Plasma reduction system is a secondary method of reduction of which of the following
kinds of emissions?

1. SOX
2. Greenhouse gases
3. NOX
4. All of the above
104. Back flow towards machinery spaces of cargo vapours in an Inert gas system is
prevented by_____________________

1. Pressure vacuum breaker

2. High velocity vents
3. Deck water seal
4. Pressure vacuum valves
105.. Which of the following is not a requirement under MARPOL Annex VI, for new
engines?

1. All engines above 130 KW to be tested and issued with EIAPP certificate and Nox
Technical file.
2. Life boat engines and emergency diesel engines to be also tested and issued
with EIAPP certificate and Nox Technical File
3. Periodical verification of EIAPP certificate is mandatory even when there has been no
modification in the engine
 4. Engines installed prior to the Nox technical code being applicable will not be subject
to certification and testing unless they undergo major conversion
106. An oil record book Part-I shall be retained onboard for a period of:

1. 1 year since the last entry has been made

2. 1 year since the first entry has been made
3. 3 years since the first entry has been made
4. 3 years since the last entry has been made
107. The life boat engine should be capable of starting at ___________
1. -15 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
2. -5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 5 mins
3. -5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
4. 0 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
108. A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish

1. galley grease fires

2. fuel oil fires
3. burning bedding materials
4. a fire in the paint locker
109. The maximum capacity of an Oil fuel tank for any ship built on or after 1st Aug. 2010 as
restricted by Marpol, Annex 1 is: (minimum capacity 600m3)

1. 600 m3
2. 1200 m3
3. 2500 m3
4. 3000 m3
110. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gage located

1. at the pump discharge

2. at the manifold connection
3. at each fire station discharge
4. at the pump station
111. Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the portable in-line foam
proportioner to produce foam?

1. A plain or common fire hose nozzle

2. The mechanical foam nozzle
3. Any low velocity applicator
4. An all-purpose nozzle
112. As per the Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following statements
about ownership of Indian Flag ships is False?
 1. A company or body established by or under any Central or State Act, which has its
principal business in India, may be registered as owner by its name
2. Joint owners shall be considered as constituting one person
3. A person can be registered as owner of a fractional part of a share in a ship, the
number of shares being ten
4. Not more than the names of Ten individuals shall be entitled to registered at the
same time as joint owners of any one ship
113. The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated

1. before you enter the water

2. after you enter the water
3. after one hour in the water
4. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
114. Following should not be done to a person in frostbite

1. Rubbing effected area.

2. Ask him to rest.
3. Remove wet cloths
4. Give him something warm to drink.
115. Procedure to obtain radio medical advice can be found in _.
1. First aid box.
2. Code of safe working procedure.
3. Safety management manual.
4. The ship captain medical guide.
116. EEDI is the Technical measure adopted by IMO to reduce _.
1. Greenhouse gas.
2. SOx
3. NOx
4. None of the above
117. What Agreement of hire called, in which the owner agreed to transport an agreed
volume of cargo over a specific period. The charter designates cargoes and loading date but
owner nominate suitable vessel which are not normally named in agreement.

1. Time charter.
2. Voyage charter.
3. Bare boat charter.
4. Contract of frightment.
118. When performing CPR, we must do chest compression_____.

1. 12 to 15 times/min.
2. 16 to 18 times/min.
 3. 2 to 5 times/min.
4. 18 to 19 times/min.
119. Movement of ship about an imaginary line joining aft and fore perpendicular is?

1. Pitching
2. Heaving
3. Sway
4. roll
120. Which of the following anti fouling paint is an accepted alternative to now banned TBT
based paint.

1. DOT based anti fouling paint

2. .Arsenic based anti fouling paint.
3. Mercury based anti fouling paint.
4. Copper based anti fouling paint.
121. Oil or oily mixture discharge into the sea from E/R of ships of 10,000 GRT & above, in
special areas is _
1. Not allowed.
2. Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering
equipment with oil content less than 15ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.—
3. Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering
equipment with oil content less than 5ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.
4. Allowed but outside 12Nm from the Nearest Land.
122. Which of the following Convention is also known as Minimum Standard Convention?

1. Maritime Labor Convention.

2. ILO convention no. 147.
3. STCW Convention 1978.
4. STCW Convention 1995.
123. ORB has to be regularly updated without delay and each completed page has to be _.
1. Signed by officer in charge and chief engineer.
2. Signed by officer in charge and Master.
3. Signed by chief engineer and master.
4. Signed by chief officer and chief engineer.
124. Number of maximum sprinkler head in a section should be _____.(minimum = 150)

1. 200
2. 150
3. 100
4. 250
125. Each section on a sprinkler system should not contain more than _____sprinkler heads.
 1. 200
2. 150
3. 100
4. 250
126. First rain water collected over canopy rain water harvesting arrangement has to be __.
1. Thrown overboard
2. .Rationed to each member
3. .Given to sick and injured.
4. Given to any one member.
127. In which of the following condition FD fan of Inert gas generator will be tripped?

1. Low sea water level in Deck water seal

2. Low sea water level in scrubber tower
3. O2 exceed 8%
4. None
128. Under following,which is not mandatory

1. LSA
2. FSS
3. BLU
4. FTP
129. sewage air compressor, freq of starting

1. .every 18 hrs
2. .Every 24 hrs
3. .Continously
4. .Once in two weeks
130. the resourse zone, not a security zone is

1. AInland water
2. terristrial water
3. Contigeous areas
4. Continental self
131. Demurrage means

1. A.Charter to owner before time expired

2. Charter to owner after time expired
3. C.owner to charter before time expired
4. owner to charter after time expired
132. What is to be checked 1st when entering into dry dock?
 1. engine room crane
2. engine room lift
3. gantrry crane
4. all of the above.
133. Intact capacity of foam min capacity.

1. 5lt.
2. 9lt.
3. 20lt.
4. none
134. Intact stability book is provided by…:

1. SOLAS
2. MARPOL
3. Load Line Convention
4. Load line Protocol
135. Shipboard incineration of which of the following substances is allowed?

1. Poly chlorinated Biphenyls(PCB s)

2. Refined petroleum products containing halogen residues
3. Sewage sludge
4. Cargo residues(of Annex I, II and III of MARPOL convention)
136. Compliance with which of the following ILO conventions is checked during Port State
Control Inspections?

1. ILO convention no.134-Prevention of accidents convention

2. ILO convention no.147- Minimum Standards Convention —-?
3. ILO convention no.178 -Labor inspection convention
4. All of the above
137. A coastal can take necessary action on the high seas to mitigate, prevent or eliminate
danger of OIL pollution to its coastline following a maritime casualty. Which IMO instrument
guarantees this right to the coastal state?

1. UNCLOS
2. MARPOL 73/78
3. INTERVENTION 1969
4. London Convention
138. Probably the largest amount of information covering the various aspects of oil spill
response in one place on the net. Which of the following codes is mandatory for chemical
tankers constructed on or after 1July 1986? ( before July 1986 for BCH code)
  IGC code
 BCH code
 IBC code
 IMDG code
139. A clean ballast tank is one which:(if SBT option A)

1. Is not allowed to carry any oil cargo and solely to be used for the purpose of carriage
of ballast water
2. Is used for the carriage of oil cargo, but has to be cleaned thoroughly prior
carriage of
ballast water during ballast voyage
3. Is allowed to carry some white and clean oil cargoes and has to be cleaned up
thoroughly
for the carriage of ballast water
4. Is a tank which was previously being used for the carriage of oil cargo, but was
converted to a ballast tank during last dry-docking, but still has a common pumping
system
for remaining cargo tanks and the converted clean ballast tank
140. A representative sample of fuel oil delivered on board during bunkering is to be
retained on
board ____________
1. For a period of 6 months
2. For a period of 12 months
3. Till the time the oil is substantially consumed
4. Till the time the oil is substantially consumed but not less than 12 months
141. The validity of which of the following certificates is not 5 years?

1. Safety equipment certificate

2. Load line certificate
3. Tonnage certificate
4. Safety radio telegraphy certificate
142. U r fighting with fire with jet hose and multiple fire where wil u first impinge water

1. Direct jet on mid of fire

2. Direct gog jet on mid of fire
3. Top of fire to absorb some heat—-
4. Bottom of bulkhed
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Class4 Safety Written-Set2
Leave a Comment / Class4 Written / By marineexam
[MEO CLASS4 SAFETY OBJECTIVE TYPE WRITTEN COMPUTER BASED QUESTION AND
ANSWER SHIP SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION
PAPER.. BOLD MARK WORD/SENTENCE IS ANSWER]
1.Lifebuoys are subject to which of the following tests?

1. Drop test
2. Fire test
3. Flotation test
4. All of the above
2. Who sets the security level of the ship?

1. Ship Security Officer

2. Company Security Officer
3. Port Facility Security Officer
4. None
3. Which of the following is considered to be the safest protection from static electric
discharge, when connecting or disconnecting cargo hoses and metal arms?

1. Insulating flange or a length of non-conducting hose

2. Switching off ICCP
3. Ship shore bonding cable
4. None of the above
4. Greater the hazard, smaller the parcel size. As per this principle of IBC code what is the
allowable parcel size in Type 1 chemical tankers?

1. 3000 m3
2. 1500 m3
 3. 1250 m3
4. 1650 m3
5. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is

1. carbon dioxide
2. flue gas
3. water
4. steam smothering
6. Water Ingress Monitoring Equipment, for detecting water ingress in cargo holds is a
requirement under:

1. MARPOL convention
2. SOLAS Chapter XII
3. BC code
4. BLU code
7. Which of the following are resource zones and not security zones?

1. Inland waters
2. Territorial seas
3. Contiguous zone
4. Continental shelf
8. Which of the following should never be done as a precaution against cold injuries/frost
bite?

1. Cover heads and ears

2. Wear several layers of light clothing
3. Rub numb parts of the body to warm them up
4. Keep dry
9. Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be substituted for a
lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?

1. When it is approved by the Coast Guard

2. When working near or over the water
3. When stowed away from the ring buoys
4. Never
10. Reporting ???Near misses’??? is encouraged under which maritime instrument?

1. Code of Safe Working Practices

2. ISM code
3. SOLAS Chapter II-2
 4. All of the above
11. Clean ballast tank is one which

1. Not allowed any oil

2. Carriage oil cargo
3. Some white and clean oil
4. Last dry docking converted clean ballast tank
12. MARPOL Annex 1 and IOPP certificate is mandatory for

1. All types of ships

2. Oil tanker 150 ton dead weight and above
3. All ship 150 ton dead weight and above
4. Oil tanker 150 gross ton and above
13. What convention about enter into force

1. Oprc
2. Afs convention
3. Bunker convention
4. Hong kong convention
14. In case of frostbite, First aid will be

1. wet cloth remove

2. shoe socks remove
3. clean affected area with warm water
4. None
15. Oily water separator discharge en route

1. 50 NM from nearest land

2. 50 NM from coast line
3. 12 NM from nearest land
4. No such distance criteria—-
16. Type of fire detector in machinery space

1. Flame detector
2. Obscuration smoke detector
3. Ionization smoke detector
4. Rise in temperature
[For single choice answer 1 and for Multiple choice 1,2,3 answer]

17. ISM code come under

 1. SOLAS
2. MARPOL
3. STCW
4. NONE
18. Life raft light usually what type

1. Galvanic Battery
2. Solar
3. Sea Water
4. None
19. Post Nox emission test bed trial and approval of an engine, periodic Nox emission limit
verification is normally done by:
1. Emission tests at regular intervals
2. Engine parameters/settings check method
3. By running the engine at full load and sending a sample of exhaust gas for
analysis
4. By checking emission monitors installed on exhaust outlet
[For single choice answer 1 and for Multiple choice 1,2,3 answer]

20. Which of the following IMO conventions has entered into force?

1. Hong Kong Convention-

2. Nairobi WRC 2007 ( for shipwreck in Kenya)
3. BWM Convention 2004
4. Bunkers Convention 2001
21. Which requirement regarding Oil Record Book Part I is correct?

1. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and Master

2. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and each completed page by the
Master
3. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned and each
completed page by the Master
4. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned, the Chief
engineer and the Master
22. Emergency Steering Test and pre- arrival/pre departure steering tests are requirements
under:

1. COLREG 72
2. SOLAS Chapter V
3. Under USCG rules only in US waters
4. INMARSAT C 1976
23. Damage suffered by a passenger in vessel

1. LLMC 1976 Convention

2. LLC 1969
3. Athens convention
4. Fund 1971
24. Every U.S crude oil tanker with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped
with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than

1. 1.100,000DWT(Long tons)
2. 100,000DWT(metric tons)
3. 50,000DWT(Long tons)
4. .50,000DWT(metric tons)
25. Jurisdiction over ships in high seas lies with

1. nearest coastal state

2. port state of last port
3. port state of next port
4. flagstate
26, Intact stability booklet comes under

1. Solas,
2. Marpol
3. .Loadline convention
4. Tonnage convention
27. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air ,This mean a vapor/air
mixture of

1. 3% methane by volume is too rich to burn

2. 20% methane by volume is too lean to burn
3. 10% methane by volume is too rich to burn
4. 5% methane by volume will give a reading of 100% LEL on a combustible gas
indicator
28. The flammable limit of methane by volume is 5%to 15%,if the combustible gas indicator
reading is 50% when sampling a compartment containing methane a flammable vapour
concentration at the sample point is

1. 0.5% by volume
2. 2.5% by volume
3. 7.5% by volume
 4. 50% by volume
29. which of these devices prevents the back flow of hydrocarbon??

1. pv breaker
2. pv valve
3. deck water seal
4. scrubber
30. Which of the following certificates issued to a ship does not have predetermined validity
for limited period?

1. International Load Line Certificate

2. International tonnage certificate (it is valid until ship is sent for scrap.)
3. Cargo Ship safety certificate
4. Safety Management Certificate
31. The physical data term on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) ‘hat indicates if the vapor
formed by the material is lighter or heavier than air is called _______

1. Vapor pressure
2. Vapor gravity
3. Vapor level
4. Vapor density
32. During loading and discharging operation in addition o when the cargo tanks have been
properly filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas
pressure of________.

1. 50 millimeters of water pressure

2. 25 millimeters of water pressure
3. 100 millimeters of water pressure
4. 5 millimeters of water pressure
33. The hand break of a life boat which is ___________ ?

1. Manually disengaged when hoisting a boat

2. applied by dropping the counterweighted lever
3. .controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism
4. automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
34. In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if _.
1. the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing
2. the dogs on a manhole cover are secure
3. you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
4. you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment
35. Executive Body Of IMO…
 1. Council,
2. Assembly,
3. Safety Committee
4. Pollution prevention committee
36. Highest body of IMO…

1. Council,
2. Assembly,
3. Safety Committee
4. Pollution prevention committee
37. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being
skidded by the wind or overturned?

1. .Ballast bags
2. A keel
3. .Strikes
4. Sea anchor
38. immediately after abandon ship vessel, look out in life raft for

1. Survivors in water
2. Food and water
3. Land
4. none
39. The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a demand-type self-contained breathing
apparatus is directly influenced by __.
1. the donning of the facepiece
2. the stowing of the facepiece
3. he maintenance of the facepiece
4. all of the above
40. Many uninspected vessels require load lines to indicate the maximum __.
1. reserve buoyancy under any condition
2. amidship’s draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged
3. angle of reduced freeboard for subdivision calculations
4. freeboard for the light ship displacement
41. With regards to the load line marks, the reason for the placement of mark “WNA” is __.
1. more severe weather is expected in the North Atlantic in winter
2. more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic in winter
3. less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in winter
4. all of the above
42. You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe.
Which of the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury?
 1. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch it if it falls.
2. Attach lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady the load.
3. Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent the load from hitting the deck.
4. Have a first aid kit at the job site.
43. While wearing a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus the alarm bell begins
ringing. Which of the following conditions does this indicate?

1. There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in the air cylinder.

2. There is approximately 500 psi (3.5 MPa) of pressure left in the air cylinder.
3. The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated area.
4. All of the above.
44. Vessel stability can be adversely affected by _.
1. increasing the free surface effect
2. decreasing the free surface effect
3. ballasting down by the bow
4. ballasting down by the stern
45. The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for determining
the exact location of the __.
1. ship’s displacement in seawater
2. position of the ship’s center of gravity
3. position of the ship’s center of buoyancy
4. position of the ship’s metacenter
46. What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a position lower in the
vessel?

1. The stability of the vessel is increased.

2. The trim of the vessel is changed substantially.
3. The stability of the vessel is significantly decreased.
4. The vessel will list in proportion to the volume of the cargo shifted.
47. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301?

1. The agent is extremely toxic in any concentration.

2. The agent leaves no residue.
3. The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering.
4. All of the above.
48. anti – static additives in petroleum products.

1. Increase conductivity
2. Reduce conductivity
3. Increase accumulation of charge
4. Reduce friction drag
49. what declare under SOLAS convection

1. CRB
2. ORB
3. Procedure and arrangement manual
4. Bulk carrier booklet
50. what coastal zone can extend beyond 200nm from baseline.

1. Exclusive economic zone

2. Continuers’ zone
3. Fisher zone
4. Continental zone
51. DPA requires under

1. STCW code
2. ISPC
3. MARPOL73/78
4. ISM code
52. latest annex VI incorporate the marpol convention

1. Annex 6
2. Annex 7
3. Annex 8
4. Annex 9
53. minimum no of life bouys of cargo ship of 200m and more.

1. 12
2. 14
3. 18
4. 24
54. EEBD service time

1. 15
2. 10
3. 20
4. 30
55. cause liability of ship occurs in case of loss of life.

1. CORE 1974
2. CLC 1969
 3. FUND 1971
4. LLMC 1976
56. annex I regulation 12 sludge takes concentration

1. Bilge pump to OWS

2. No line direct connection to OBD other than discharge give in regulation 13
3. No direct connection to OBD
4. Have direct connection to OBD all the valve to be close and sealed
57. the presence of toxic gases is measured by

1. Explosive meter
2. O2 analyser
3. LEL
4. none
58. immersion suit donning time without assistance

1. 30sec
2. 1min
3. 3min
4. 2min
59. Annex I collection of residue tank washing and also oily mixture to be

1. Bilge tank
2. Sludge tank
3. Oily bilge tank
4. Slop tank
60. class D fire

1. Fire in metal
2. Fire in liquid
3. Fire in electrical system
4. None
61. minimum capacity of SCBA

1. 1800L
2. 1200L
3. 1500L
4. 600L
62. parent instrument for the mandatory ISM code
A. SOLAS CH-IV
B. SOLAS & MARPOL
C. SOLAS CH-IX
D. UNCLDS
63. A state party to treaty or convention after the convention been recognized and signed
by other parties and enter into force this action is called.

1. Ratification
2. Acceptance
3. Approval
4. Accusation
64. in special areas any discharge of oil and oil mixtures from machinery spaces

1. Prohibited
2. Enroute and min 12NM
3. En route and min 50NM
4. En route with oil filtering equipment
65. standard discharge connection flange as per MARPOL ANNEX I Regulation( od-pcd-th)

1. 200,185,15
2. 215,183,20
3. 205,185,50
4. 200,183,20
66. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is
accomplished by ______________.

1. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only

2. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with pyrotechnic powder
3. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
4. recharging the cartridge and then refilling it with powder
67. A load line for a ship is assigned by the ______________.

1. Port health inspector

2. Assessors and Arbitrators
3. Institute of Marine Engineers
4. A recognized classification society approved by the Administration.
5. Company of Master Mariners.
68. In the event of a galley fire on board a general cargo ship, most dry chemical or carbon
dioxide portable extinguishers are automatically activated through the action of a stainless
steel cable, spring and a __.
1. fusible link of tritium, gallium arsenide alloy
 2. stack switch with sensors
3. thermostat of bimetallic type
4. pyrostat with activation of pyrotechnics
5. none of the above
69. The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full
because the _.
1. center of gravity is lowered
2. center of buoyancy is lowered
3. reserve buoyancy is unchanged
4. hull freeboard is increased
70.To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should _____________.

1. puncture the CO2 cartridge

2. open the handwheel
3. pull the pin and squeeze the trigger
4. turn it upside down and bump the deck
71. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it _____________.

1. is not higher than 30cm above the deck

2. does not block access to the fire station hydrant—
3. will cover no more than 25 % of deck space
4. will be easily visible from the bridge
5. is sufficient to enable the cadet to stroll through
6. gives a clear view to the bridge for navigation
72. Which of the listed systems related to an engineer’s signal alarm panel is required to be
indicated by a continuously illuminated light?

1. Deaerating tank low level

2. Shaft alley bilge high level
3. Port or starboard steering gear motor running
4. No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure
73. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?

1. Halon 1211
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Foam
4. Dry chemical
74. Bunker “C”, a grade “E” combustible liquid, will _.
1. self-ignite at temperatures below 150˚F (65.50C)
2. give off flammable vapors below 800F (26.70C)
3. have a Reid vapor pressure of 14 psi (96.5 kPa) or more
 4. have a flash point of 150̊˚F (65.5̊C) or more
75. Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using a Halon fire
extinguisher versus a CO2 fire extinguisher?

1. Halon cools rather than smothers a fire.

2. Halon is more effective than CO2.
3. Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires.
4. Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions.
76. You may improve a vessel’s stability by ___________.

 keeping the fuel tanks topped off

 increasing the free surface effect
 keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
 keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
77. In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look at the _.
1. Certificate of Inspection
2. Muster stations Chart
3. Ship’s Articles
4. Fire Control Plan
5.
78. LONDON CONVENTION- dumping of wastes
79. HONGKONG CONVENTION-recycling of ship
80) CAR CARRIER FIXED FIRE FIGHTING EXTINGUISHING SYSTEM –refrigerated bulk co2
81. PLASMA REDUCTION METHOD- reduction of nox
82. JAN 2010 ONWARDS ECA REGULATION –sox 1.5% m/m
83 HOW MANY MARPOL ANNEXES AS PER LATEST AMENDMENTS -VI
84. IMMERSION SUIT HOW MUCH TIME TO DON IT WITHOUT ASSISTANCE –2 min
85. GMDSS,EPIRD,SART UNDER WHICH CHAPTER OF- SOLAS IV
86. COW REGULATION- 35 annex1
87. CPR – AIR WAY SHOULD BE CLEAR
88. HOW TO FIGHT FIRE IN ALLEY WAY –entry with one fire hose and fight with fire on
one side
89. EEDI…WHY TO IMPLEMENT-energy efficiency design index
90. DCP HOW IT EXTINGUISHES FIRE -controls the chain reaction
91. HOW TO DIRECT PORTABLE HALON EXTINGUISHING MEDIA ON FIRE –at the base of
the fire
92. IGC CODE ?- solas chapter VII

93. LRIT AND AIS DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THEM -(long range identification and tracking
automatic identification system)
94. NO OF LIFEBUOY REQUIRED IF SHIP LENGTH (for cargo ship)
  length under 100 no – 8
 Length 100m-150m- 10
 Length 150m -200m – 12
 More than 200 no 14
 for passenger under 60–8; 60-120–12; 120-180–18; 180-240—24; 240 and over—30
95. Co2 FIXED FIRE FIGHTING FLOODING EXTINGUISHING MEDIA…SHOUD INJECT HOW
MUCH % WITHIN engine room HOW MUCH TIME?– 85% within 2 mins
96. WHO SETS SECURITY LEVEL OF SHIP –port facility security officer (PFSO)
97. What is oily mixture -mixture with any oil content.
98. ORB, languages –English , French , Spanish
100. Convention regarding civil & financial matters during bunker pollution refers-to CLC
1969
101. About Manila convention –STCW 2010
102. Minimum safety convention- ISM
103. Data logger system refers to which convention-solas
104. What is damage stability?

150 m above cargo density 1000kg/m3 constructed on or after 1st july 1999 . summer
load line any one of cargo hold flood means ship should not sink 1780kg/m3 before
1st july 1999 for most cargo flood means ship should not sink.
105. Most power wing of IMO marine safety committee- MSC
106. Purpose of scrubber -cool and clean flue gas
107. Foam is most effectively used for which class of fires- class B
108. Pressure should be fitted to which side –pump discharge
109.Static electricity means –by friction
110. Dimensions of shore coupling –178 OD, 64 ID, 132 PCD, 16MM BOLT 4 NOS
111. Most effective mode of water is- high fog
112. Types of Powders in DCP? – Mono-Ammonium Phosphate (MAP) and
Ammonium Sulphate (AS)
113. DCP can be spoiled by-whether high temp or mixing with another powders
114. Seggregated ballast tanks means the ballast water introduced into a tank which is
completely separated from the cargo oil and oil fuel system and which is permanently
allocated to the carriage of ballast or to the carriage of ballast or cargoes other than
oil or noxious liquid substances as variously defined in the Annexes of the present
Convention.
115. Disadvantages of CO2 –Does not cool the fire
116. What is the size of fire hose nozzle -12, 16,19 mm

117. SBT and CBT stands for? Segregated and clean ballast tank
119. Full form of IOPP? International oil pollution prevention certificate
120. Segregated ballast tank –Regulation 18 annex 1.
121. If a person rescued thru helicopter, comes under which chapter in SOLAS –chapter 3
122. DPA comes under which convention solas –chapter IX
123. Oily water content discharged from a ship’s engine room is record in the oil record
book under –code D
124. machinery space sludge incinerated or disposed to collection facilities in port is
recorded in the oil record book under- code C
125. Bunkering of lub oils, diesel oils and fuel oils is recorded in the oil record book under-
code H
126. DEEP PROTECTION CAPACITY –600 M3
127. MARPOL HEAD- Un clause
128. Oil discharge cargo residue -( 1/30000)
129. Following certificate for 5 years -(smc)
130. Ro ro type which type of extinguisher -( low expansion)(12:1) (1000:1for high)
131. CPR- (15:2)
132. OWS ALARM- (15PPM)
133. COW ( OPERATION & MAINTENANCE MANUAL)
134. ODMS DISHCHARGE HOW LONG..-(3YEARS)
135. LIFEBOUY SMOKE SIGNAL –TIME 15 MIN LIGHT SIGNAL 2 HOURS
136. COMPANY FOLLOWING ISM -(DOC- COMPANY) (SMC-SHIP)
137. COASTAL AREA –200 KNOTICAL MILE CONTINENTAL SHELL( BEFORE 200
ECONOMICAL)
138. FOAM BOTTLE –9 KG
139. FUEL OIL TANK CAPACITY- 2500M3
140. PYROPHORIC –( SPONTANEOUS O2 AUTO IGNITION)
141. A602– RELATED TO GUIDELINE OF PORTABLE EXTIGUISHER
142. IGG– ALARM 5% TRIP 8%
143. ISPS – International ship port security (SOLAS CHAPTER 11 PART 1&2)
144. RADIO COMMUNICATION GMDSS-( CHAPTER IV)
145. VDR AIS CHAPTER –V
146. PLASMA REDUCTION –Nox
147. EEDI –GREEN HOUSE EFFECT
148. IN WHCH TNK CANNOT TAKE OIL- FWD PEAK TANK
149. DETENTION OF FIRE FIGHTING – STATION BILL
150. CARGO PUMP ROOM BEFORE ENTERIN VENTILATION SHOULD BE- 30 MIN
151. IF UN CONCIOUS – UN CLOTHING
152. LIFEJACKET- 1 MIN
153. HULL PAINT – NON TOXIC
154. BALLAST SEA CONDITION – SEQUENTIAL TYPE
155. AIAS-CHANNEL
156. AIAS & LLIR – RANGE DECREASES
157. DCP STD SIZE – 5KG
158. SINGAPORE CONVECTION –AIR
 159.. MANILLA –STCW 2010
160. NAIROBI 0– REMOVAL OF WRACK
161. DCP WHICH TYPE OF REACTION – CHAIN REACTION
162. POSITION OF FUEL TANK ACCORDING TO WHICH ANNEX- ANNEX 1
163. FD FAN IGG TRIP –high WATER LEVEL IN SCRUBBER
164. SIZE OF FIRE HOSE – 15 M IN EngineRoom.. 20 M IN DecK
165. LIFEBOAT STARTIN REQ- 2 BATTERY .. BY MEANS OF 2 START
166. free – fall lifeboats – maneuvering once in six month
166. other life boats – maneuvering once in three month
167. HRU other than disposable shall be serviced at intervals- not exceeding 12 months. (
if practicable maximum 17 months)
168. passenger ship all survival crafts should be able to launch with 30min from abandon
ship signal
169. cargo ship able to launch within 10min from abandon ship.
170. Less than 150grt, as per less than 400 grt ( non- tanker) must have – oil record book.
171. slop tank capacity – 3% of oil carrying capacity of the ship.
172. IMO council consists of – 40 members.
173. Bunker delivery note time – 3 years
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 This blog provides with the required marpol, solas, imo regulations and study materials for class 4
mmd exams in india including orals. online exams for marine engineers with papers like electrical,
safety, naval.
Thursday, 15 August 2013
Safety online questions & answers collections
1. As per MARPOL Annex -1 definition, ???Special area??? means:
A. Some specific areas where coastal state legislation doesn???t allow any bilge water/slop discharges
B. Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge water/slop discharges are allowed
C. Areas as defined by Annex-1, where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by
oil
D. Areas as defined by Coastal state regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory methods are adopted for the
prevention of sea pollution by oil
2. In which of the following documents on board, authentic information about the circumstances and
procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?
A. Safety Management Manual
B. The Ship Captain's Medical Guide
C. First Aid Booklet
D. Code of safe working practices
3. Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A. Fire control plan/booklet
B. Maneuvering booklet
C. Minimum safe manning document
D. Records of hours of rest
4. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
A. passed around so all can drink
B. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
C. saved to be used at a later time
D. used to boil food
 5. Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of
oil or oily mixture into the sea?
A. Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
B. Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
C. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master???s fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has
taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
D. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master???s fault, but because of a third party???s fault
and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
6. Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the event of
spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?
A. Master
B. USCG
C. Qualified Individual
D. Technical Superintendent
7. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:
A. Crude oil and other dirty oils
B. Crude oil alongwith some refined products
C. Crude oil only
D. Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
8. Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?
A. Council
B. Assembly
C. Facilitation Committee
D. None of the above
9. The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________
A. 13.5 Kgs
B. 23 Kgs
C. 9 Kgs
D. 46 Kgs
10. Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
A. CLC 1992
B. Fund convention
C. LLMC
D. OPA 1990
11. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on
a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?
A. Wait for the person-in-charge to act.
B. Notify the ballast control operator.
C. Shutdown the transfer operations
D. Sound the fire alarm.

12. As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry:
A. Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
B. Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
C. A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
D. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13. As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight and above
delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using _______________
A. 5000, Sea Water Washing
B. 10000, Fresh Water Washing
C. 20000, Crude Oil Washing
D. 30000, Bilge Water Washing
14. As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A. Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B. Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C. Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo
area in case of tankers
D. Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
15. Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?
A. Neil Robertson turn
B. Williamson turn.
C. Hard port
D. Hard starboard.
16. The parent instrument of IMO is:
A. UNCLOS I, 1958
B. UNCLOS II, 1960
C. UNCLOS III, 1974
D. The IMO convention
17. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be
A. walked around until he is back to normal
B. given several shots of whiskey
C. kept lying down and warm
D. allowed to do as he wishes
17. Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?
A. Marpol 73/78
B. London convention
C. Hongkong convention
D. Kenya convention
18. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is
A. pitching
B. rolling
C. heaving
D. swaying
19. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should
FIRST
A. open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
B. start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
C. open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
19. The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called
A. yaw
B. sway
C. surge
D. heave
20.Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that
A. the forced ventilating system is operating
B. the cargo pumps are secured
C. no mono carbon gases are present
D. the oily water separator is de-energized
21. Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?
A. IOPP certificate
B. Oil Record Book
C. SOPEP
D. Safety Management Certificate.
22. When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the
A. metacentric differential
B. height of the baseline
C. height of the metacenter
D. righting arm
23. Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required to be installed on
board certain ships as per_____________
A. ISPS code
B. ISM code
C. Chapter V of Solas
D. None of the above
24. Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?
A. Sea anchor
B. Fishing tackle
C. Drinking water cans
D. Life Jacket
25. As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under _______
functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency.
A. Seven
B. Four
C. Six
D. Three
26. Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?
A. COLREG 1972
B. SAR 1979
C. SOLAS 1974
D. SALVAGE 1989
27. As required by Reg.31 of Annex 1 of Marpol the ODMCS should be provided with a recording device for
____________ recording the discharge in litres per nautical mile and total quantity discharged. This
discharge should be kept onboard at least for a period of:
A. Intermittent, 1 year
B. Continuous, 1 year
C. Intermittent, 3 years
D. Continuous, 3 years

28. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
A. without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. only with the help of two other people
C. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. at ten minute intervals
29. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A. Oils and chemicals
B. Oils other than crude oils
C. Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D. Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products
30. Which of the following statements is false?
A. A ship security plan is made by the CSO
B. A ship security plan is a confidential document.
C. A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration
D. None of the above
31. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are
A. thirsty
B. sick or injured
C. wet
D. awake
32. Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds ?
A. Exposure to excessive heat.
B. Mixing of different grades of foam.
C. Exposure to air.
D. None of the above.
33. In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
A. Oxygen content above 8%
B. Low water level in deck seal
C. Low water level in the scrubber tower
D. High scrubber water level
34. As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be
provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
A. 150 tonnes deadweight
B. 150 gross tonnage
C. 400 tonnes deadweight
D. 400 gross tonnage
35. Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least ______________ in
calm waters.
A. 5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
36. Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of
______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then
___________________should be provided.
A. zero, cold starting spray
B. -5, heating arrangements
C. Zero, heating arrangements
D. -5,cold starting spray
37. Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without passage of flame
or smoke are classified as____________________
A. B class divisions
B. A class divisions
C. A30 class divisions
D. B 30 class divisions
38. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed
about
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1 1/2 inches
D. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
39. As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate
oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:
A. Any of the tanks without any restriction
B. Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
C. Deep tanks in protective locations
D. Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side
40. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.(for mcq)
B. The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.
C. The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
D. The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships
41. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.
A. allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
B. prevent outside air from entering the tank
C. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
D. comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
42. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when ________
a. you first start to receive fuel
b. hoses are being blown down
c. final topping off is occurring
d. hoses are being disconnected
43. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.
a. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
b. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
d. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
44. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
45. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)
b. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (UpperFlammable Limit)
c. capable of supporting a fire once started
d. not safe for ballasting
46. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
a. shape
b. shallow draft
c. large sail area
d. All of the above
47. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is
explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
a. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
b. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
c. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
d. Use an explosimeter
48. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.
a. secure the engine room ventilation
b. secure the machinery in the engine room
c. evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of the above
49. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power,
then__________.
a. use a portable foam extinguisher
b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
d. determine the cause of the fire
50. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the
__________.
a. auto-ignition point
b. flash point
c. lower explosive limit (LEL)
d. threshold limit value (TLV)
51. The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
a. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
b. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure inthe hazardous
zone
c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
d. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
52. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.
a. 0% to 1%
b. 1% to 10%
c. 10% to 15%
d. 12% to 20%
53. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.
a. oil from flowing out of the tank vent
b. air from entering the tank vent
c. vapors from leaving the tank vent
d. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
SECTION - 2
1. Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed
practices?
A. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material.
B. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before handling.
C. Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit entrance of steam, water, or air into a fitting or other equipment.
D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck
2. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Ballast water exchange at mid ocean eliminates completely the risks associated with introduction of non-native
organisms and pathogens in alien habitats.----ans
B. In the flow through method, the water pumped through a tank should be at least 3 times the tank volume.
C. Over pressurization of a tank cannot take place during the flow through method.
D. Air pipes on ballast tanks are designed for continuous overflow.
3. The most common cause of engine room fires is:
A. Spontaneous combustion of oily rags
B. Back fire of boilers
C. Ignition sources coming in contact with stored fuel /lubes
D. Oil leakage coming in contact with hot exposed surfaces
4. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire".
This condition may change if:
A. the ambient temperature changes
B. a product leaks into the certified tank
C. muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors
D. all of the above
5. As per MARPOL annex-1, the ???instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content??? means:
A. The rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots
at the same instant
B. The rate of discharge of oil in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same
instant
C. The average rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in litres per hour divided by the average speed of the ship in
knots
D. The average rate of discharge of oil mixture in litres per hour divided by the average speed of the ship in knots

6. Which of the following statements about LRIT is False?

A. Regulation on LRIT is included in Chapter V of SOLAS
B. LRIT has longer range than AIS
C. LRIT, like AIS, is a broadcast system that transmits information about ship's identity, location date and time of
position to all in range
D. LRIT and AIS should not have any interface
7. Pyrophoric ignition may occur_____________
A. On introduction of air in tanks deficient in oxygen.
B. In oxygen rich atmospheres.
C. In nitrogen rich atmospheres.
D. Only when an ignition source is introduced
8. Which of the following conditions need NOT be satisfied while discharging oil or oil mixtures from ships
into the sea?
A. The ship must be proceeding en route
B. The ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
C. The oily mixture is processed through an oil filtering equipment as per Reg. 14 of Annex-1
D. The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 15 ppm
9. As per MARPOL annex ???I requirements:
A. Only crudes and petrochemical products come within the definition of Oil
B. All items mentioned in Appendix 1 of annex 1 come under the category of oil
C. Only crude oil and black oils have restrictions on pumping out, the remaining products can be pumped out at sea in
limited quantities
D. Anything having viscosity greater than that of water is considered to be oil
10. As per Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following entries should be made in official log
book of ships?
A. Every case of illness, hurt or injury to a member of the crew
B. Every case of death on board
C. Every birth happening on board
D. All of the above

11. Which of the following instruments set out carrier's obligations and liabilities with respect to carriage of
goods?
A. Hague Rules
B. Hamburg Rules
C. Hague- Visby rules
D. All of the above
12. Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?
A. Ship's articles
B. Station bill
C. Certificate of Inspection
D. U. S. Coast Guard Regulations
13. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Purging is an essential operation to carry out before gas freeing is done prior to man entry.
B. Purging makes sure that the mixture in a cargo tank never enters the flammable range, when air is introduced.
C. Purging can be carried out by both displacement and dilution methods.
D. None of the above
14. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to
A. use the mouth-to-mouth method
B. clear airways
C. use rhythmic pressure method
D. know all approved methods
14. When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how many times per minute should the chest be
compressed?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 80
15. Which of the following codes has been issued under both SOLAS and MARPOL conventions?
A. STCW code
B. IMDG code
C. IGC code
D. ISM code
16. Dispatch means
A. A.owner to charter <<>> after<<>>
B. owner to charter <<>> before<<>>
C. C.Charter to owner <<>> after<<>>
D. Charter to owner <<>> before<<>>
17..convention not yet forced
A. .BWM
B. ……………..
C. ………….
D. ……………..
18.How many annex in MARPOL including newly added
A. 6
B. 8
C. 7
 19.Who provide charter to ship
A. .Agent
B. .Broker
C. .Chandler
D. .None
20.Sewage (disinfected )and communited sewage can be discharged from how many Miles
A. 3 NM from land provided if enroute
21. Helicopter convention
a. A.MARPOL
b. B.Indian aviation
c. C.SOLAS
22. Certificate of insurance on financial <<>> during bunkering oil spill damage comes under
A. A.CLC 1969 convention
B. B.Marpol convention
C. C.Bunker convention
D. D.CLC 1992
23. According to Indian merchant ship act 1958, registrar of ports of Mumbai,Chennai,kolkatta
A. A.DG shipping
B. B.MMD
C. C.Principle officer respective MMD
D. D.surveyer
24. International shore connection under which convention
A. A.ISPS
B. B.ISM
C. C.LLA
D. solas
25.What is the minimum percentage of oxygen required before making an entry into an enclosed space?
A. 20%
B. 18%
C. 11%
D. 21%
26.Selective catalytic reduction is a secondary method for reduction of which of the following emissions?
A. SOX
B. NOX
C. Carbon oxides
D. All of the above
27. Air is removed from refrigration sytem by (1)________ at reciver after (2)________(3)________ Gas in
receiver. Humidificaton is process of adding water/moiture to discharged airof AC blower. Demumidification
is process of removing water/moisture from air supplied from AC system. For colecting gas in receiver you
need to close the outlet valve of receiver with compressor running
1.PURGE 2.COLLECT . 3. CONDENSATE
28. One of the important precautions against cold injuries and frost bite would be:
A. Wear several layers of light clothing rather than one heavy layer of clothing
B. Wear tight fitting gloves
C. Rub numb areas of body to warm them up
D. Work while facing the wind
29. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?
A. Ship's articles
B. Station bill
C. Certificate of Inspection
D. U.S. Coast Guard Regulations
30. Ship Security Alert System is a requirement under __________________
A. Part B of ISPS Code
B. SOLAS Chapter XI-2
C. SUA convention, 1988
D. None of the above
 31. When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should continue the victim's ventilation rate
at how many inflations per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
32. Freight paid by charterers on a quantity of cargo short-shipped, i.e quantity agreed upon but not loaded
by the charterer, is called:
A. Pro-rata freight
B. Back Freight
C. Dead freight
D. None of the above
33. Which of the following extinguishing medium should never be used when fighting fire involving
magnesium?
a. Halon
b. Dry Chemical powder
c. Water
d. CO2
34. Under which Convention is Oil Pollution Insurance Certificate (OPIC) a statutory oil pollution insurance
cover requirement?
A. CLC
B. LLMC
C. Fund convention
D. Athens Convention
35. In refrigeration system vegetable room and meat rooms are maintained at different
A. Different expansion valves
B. By putting solenoid valves
C. By boiling the refrigerant at different pressures
D. By using smaller evaporator
36. The working duration of a 1200 litres SCBA bottle, after allowing for a reserve of 10 mins
is____________________ (if 1800litres =40mins)
A. 30 mins
B. 40 mins
C. 20 mins
D. 50 mins
37. Principle of fire fighting onboard is
A. * watering of fire
B. * starving of fire
C. * cooling
D. * smothering of fire
38. The number within bracket of a resolution, say A.526 (13) refers to ____.
a. The serial No. of the resolution.
b. The session No. in which the resolution was adopted.
c. The sub paragraph of the resolution.
d. The No. of clauses in the resolution
39. Certificate of insurance or other financial security in respect of civil liability for bunker oil pollution
damage is issued under what?
A. CLC 1969.
B. MARPOL convention.
C. Bunker convention 2001.
D. CLC 1992.
40. Cyclic Up & Down Movement of Vessel Along the VERTICAL AXIS…
a. Heaving,
b. yawing,
c. Swaying,
d. pitching
 41. The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-rooms etc., is
known as _____________________
A. Williamson stretcher
B. Neil Hobson stretcher
C. Neil Robertson stretcher
D. Stokes stretcher
42. Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Vertical
D. Centerline
43. When entering a compartment which is on fire,
A. you must wear rubber gloves
B. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog
C. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door
D. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters
44. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the
metacentric height is equal to
A. height of the metacenter
B. height of the center of gravity
C. same as half the height of the metacenter
D. zero

45. The emergency generator should be capable of being started and be able to supply required load within a
maximum of ________________
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 min
C. 45 seconds
D. 2 mins
46. Which of the following kinds of total flooding system is most suited for very large spaces like car carrier
car decks?
A. High pressure multi cylinder type CO2 installation
B. Low pressure bulk storage tank type CO2 installation
C. Low expansion foam systems
D. Fixed pressure water spraying systems
47. You are the 4th engineer of a ship. Your 3rd engineer handsover the watch to you and informs you that
the OWS is running with the ppm showing as zero. After taking over the watch and during your rounds you
find out that the rinsing fresh water to 15 ppm device was crack open. After closing the same you find that
the ppm rose to 15 and the OWS stopped after giving alarm. What should you do?
A. Nothing, as Marpol regulations are satisfied till the oily water is being pumped through OWS and oil content is
below 15 ppm
B. Should suspend the operation immediately, inform the Chief engineer about the same and take appropriate action to
restore correct OWS operation
C. Should never touch OWS and any stoppages to be informed either to Chief Engineer or 2nd engineer
D. If no visible traces of oil are seen on the sea surface and oily water mixture is being pumped through an OWS, then
there is no harm in pumping out with fresh water crack open, to keep the OWS running as it may give false alarm
without Fresh water. This is a practical approach to run OWS without any trouble without violating Marpol
regulations

48. All entries in the Oil record Book part-I are to be:
At least in English, Spanish or national language
At least in English, Spanish or French
At least in English or Spanish
At least in English or national language
49. Plasma reduction system is a secondary method of reduction of which of the following kinds of emissions?
A. SOX
B. Greenhouse gases
C. NOX
D. All of the above
50. Back flow towards machinery spaces of cargo vapours in an Inert gas system is prevented
by_____________________
A. Pressure vacuum breaker
B. High velocity vents
C. Deck water seal
D. Pressure vacuum valves
51. Which of the following is not a requirement under MARPOL Annex VI, for new engines?
A. All engines above 130 KW to be tested and issued with EIAPP certificate and Nox Technical file.
B. Life boat engines and emergency diesel engines to be also tested and issued with EIAPP certificate and Nox
Technical File
C. Periodical verification of EIAPP certificate is mandatory even when there has been no modification in the engine
D. Engines installed prior to the Nox technical code being applicable will not be subject to certification and testing
unless they undergo major conversion
52. An oil record book Part-I shall be retained onboard for a period of:
A. 1 year since the last entry has been made
B. 1 year since the first entry has been made
C. 3 years since the first entry has been made
D. 3 years since the last entry has been made
53. The life boat engine should be capable of starting at _______________________
A. -15 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
B. -5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 5 mins
C. -5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
D. 0 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
54. A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish
A. galley grease fires
B. fuel oil fires
C. burning bedding materials
D. a fire in the paint locker
55. The maximum capacity of an Oil fuel tank for any ship built on or after 1st Aug. 2010 as restricted by
Marpol, Annex 1 is: (minimum capacity 600m3)
A. 600 m3
B. 1200 m3
C. 2500 m3
D. 3000 m3
56. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gage located
A. at the pump discharge
B. at the manifold connection
C. at each fire station discharge
D. at the pump station
57. Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the portable in-line foam proportioner to
produce foam?
A. A plain or common fire hose nozzle
B. The mechanical foam nozzle
C. Any low velocity applicator
D. An all-purpose nozzle
58. As per the Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following statements about ownership of
Indian Flag ships is False?
A. A company or body established by or under any Central or State Act, which has its principal business in India, may
be registered as owner by its name
B. Joint owners shall be considered as constituting one person
C. A person can be registered as owner of a fractional part of a share in a ship, the number of shares being ten
D. Not more than the names of Ten individuals shall be entitled to registered at the same time as joint owners of any
one ship
 59. The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated
A. before you enter the water
B. after you enter the water
C. after one hour in the water
D. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy

SECTION -3
1. Following should not be done to a person in frostbite.
a. Rubbing effected area.
b. Ask him to rest.
c. Remove wet cloths
d. Give him something warm to drink.
2. Procedure to obtain radio medical advice can be found in _____.
a. First aid box.
b. Code of safe working procedure.
c. Safety management manual.
d. The ship captain medical guide.
3. EEDI is the Technical measure adopted by IMO to reduce ___.
a. Greenhouse gas.
b. SOx
c. NOx
d. None of the above
4. What Agreement of hire called, in which the owner agreed to transport an agreed volume of cargo
over a specific period. The charter designates cargoes and loading date but owner nominate suitable vessel
which are not normally named in agreement.
a. Time charter.
b. Voyage charter.
c. Bare boat charter.
d. Contract of frightment.
5. When performing CPR, we must do chest compression_____.
a. 12 to 15 times/min.
b. 16 to 18 times/min.
c. 2 to 5 times/min.
d. 18 to 19 times/min.
6. Movement of ship about an imaginary line joining aft and fore perpendicular is?
a. Pitching
b. Heaving
c. Sway
d. roll
7. Which of the following anti fouling paint is an accepted alternative to now banned TBT based paint.
a. DOT based anti fouling paint.
b. Arsenic based anti fouling paint.
c. Mercury based anti fouling paint.
d. Copper based anti fouling paint.----ans
8. Oil or oily mixture discharge into the sea from E/R of ships of 10,000 GRT & above, in special areas
is _______.
a. Not allowed.
b. Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering equipment with oil content less than
15ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.----ans
c. Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering equipment with oil content less
than 5ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.
d. Allowed but outside 12Nm from the Nearest Land.
9. Which of the following Convention is also known as Minimum Standard Convention?
a. Maritime Labor Convention.
b. ILO convention no. 147.
c. STCW Convention 1978.
d. STCW Convention 1995.
10. ORB has to be regularly updated without delay and each completed page has to be _____.
a. Signed by officer in charge and chief engineer.
b. Signed by officer in charge and Master.
c. Signed by chief engineer and master.
d. Signed by chief officer and chief engineer.
11. Number of maximum sprinkler head in a section should be _____.(minimum = 150)
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 250
12. Each section on a sprinkler system should not contain more than _____sprinkler heads.
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 250
24. First rain water collected over canopy rain water harvesting arrangement has to be ____.
a. Rationed to each member.
b. Given to sick and injured.
c. Thrown overboard.
d. Given to any one member.

25. In which of the following condition FD fan of Inert gas generator will be tripped?
a. Low sea water level in Deck water seal
b. Low sea water level in scrubber tower
(and two more options... there)
26. Under following,which is not mandatory
A. LSA
B. FSS
C. BLU
D. FTP
27. sewage air compressor, freq of starting
A. A.every 18 hrs
B. B.Every 24 hrs
C. C.Continously
D. D.Once in two weeks
28. the resourse zone, not a security zone is
A. A.Inland water
B. B.terristrial water
C. C.Contigeous areas
D. D.Continental self---ans
29. Demurrage means
A. A.Charter to owner before time expired
B. Charter to owner after time expired
C. C.owner to charter before time expired
D. owner to charter after time expired
30. What is to be checked 1st when entering into dry dock?
A. engine room crane
B. engine room lift
C. gantrry crane
D. all of the above.
31. Intact capacity of foam min capacity.
A. 5lt.
B. 9lt.
C. 20lt.
D. none
 32. Intact stability book is provided by...:
A. a.. SOLAS
B. b.. MARPOL
C. c..Load Line Convention
D. d.. Load line Protocol
33. Shipboard incineration of which of the following substances is allowed?
A. Poly chlorinated Biphenyls(PCB s)
B. Refined petroleum products containing halogen residues
C. Sewage sludge
D. Cargo residues(of Annex I, II and III of MARPOL convention)
34. Compliance with which of the following ILO conventions is checked during Port State Control
Inspections?
A. ILO convention no.134-Prevention of accidents convention
B. ILO convention no.147- Minimum Standards Convention ----?
C. ILO convention no.178 -Labor inspection convention
D. All of the above
35. A coastal can take necessary action on the high seas to mitigate, prevent or eliminate
danger of OIL pollution to its coastline following a maritime casualty. Which IMO instrument
guarantees this right to the coastal state?

A. UNCLOS
B. MARPOL 73/78
C. INTERVENTION 1969
D. London Convention
36. Probably the largest amount of information covering the various aspects of oil spill response in one place
on the net. Which of the following codes is mandatory for chemical tankers constructed on or after 1July
1986? ( before July 1986 for BCH code)
A. IGC code
B. BCH code
C. IBC code
D. IMDG code
37. A clean ballast tank is one which:(if SBT option A)
a. Is not allowed to carry any oil cargo and solely to be used for the purpose of carriage
of ballast water
b. Is used for the carriage of oil cargo, but has to be cleaned thoroughly prior carriage of
ballast water during ballast voyage
c. Is allowed to carry some white and clean oil cargoes and has to be cleaned up thoroughly
for the carriage of ballast water
d. Is a tank which was previously being used for the carriage of oil cargo, but was
converted to a ballast tank during last dry-docking, but still has a common pumping system
for remaining cargo tanks and the converted clean ballast tank
38. A representative sample of fuel oil delivered on board during bunkering is to be retained on
board ________________________
A. For a period of 6 months
B. Till the time the oil is substantially consumed
C. For a period of 12 months
D. Till the time the oil is substantially consumed but not less than 12 months
39. The validity of which of the following certificates is not 5 years?
A. Safety equipment certificate
B. Load line certificate
C. Tonnage certificate
D. Safety radio telegraphy certificate

40. U r fighting with fire with jet hose and multiple fire where wil u first impinge water
a) Direct jet on mid of fire
b) Direct gog jet on mid of fire
c) Top of fire to absorb some heat----ans
d) Bottom of bulkhed
41) Primary Element Of Isps Part A Mandatory Section Comes Under –
A. -SOLAS XI,
B. -MARPOL,
C. -SUA CONVENTION 1988..
42. anti – static additives in petroleum products.
A. Increase conductivity
B. Reduce conductivity
C. Increase accumulation of charge
D. Reduce friction drag
43. what declare under SOLAS convection
A. CRB
B. ORB
C. Procedure and arrangement manual
D. Bulk carrier booklet
44.what coastal zone can extend beyond 200nm from baseline.
A. Exclusive economic zone
B. Continuers’ zone
C. Fisher zone
D. Continental zone
45. DPA requires under
A. STCW code
B. ISPC
C. MARPOL73/78
D. ISM code
46. latest annex VI incorporate the marpol convention
A. Annex 6
B. Annex 7
C. Annex 8----?
D. Annex 9
47. minimum no of life bouys of cargo ship of 200m and more.
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 24
48. EEBD service time
A. 15
B. 10--ans
C. 20
D. 30
49. cause liability of ship occurs in case of loss of life.
A. CORE 1974
B. CLC 1969
C. FUND 1971
D. LLMC 1976

50. annex I regulation 12 sludge takes concentration

A. Bilge pump to OWS
B. No line direct connection to OBD other than discharge give in regulation 13
C. No direct connection to OBD
D. Have direct connection to OBD all the valve to be close and sealed
51. the presence of toxic gases is measured by
A. Explosive meter
B. O2 analyser
C. LEL
D. none
52. immersion suit donning time without assistance
A. 30sec
B. 1min
C. 3min
D. 2min
53. Annex I collection of residue tank washing and also oily mixture to be
A. Bilge tank
B. Sludge tank
C. Oily bilge tank
D. Slop tank
55. class D fire
A. Fire in metal
B. Fire in liquid
C. Fire in electrical system
D. None
56. minimum capacity of SCBA
A. 1800L
B. 1200L
C. 1500L
D. 600L
57. parent instrument for the mandatory ISM code
A. SOLAS CH-IV
B. SOLAS & MARPOL
C. SOLAS CH-IX
D. UNCLDS
58. A state party to treaty or convention after the convention been recognized and signed by other parties and
enter into force this action is called.
A. Ratification
B. Acceptance
C. Approval
D. Accusation
59. in special areas any discharge of oil and oil mixtures from machinery spaces
A. Prohibited
B. Enroute and min 12NM
C. En route and min 50NM
D. En route with oil filtering equipment----ans
60. standard discharge connection flange as per MARPOL ANNEX I Regulation( od-pcd-th)
A. 200,185,15
B. 215,183,20
C. 205,185,50
D. 200,183,20

DG. SHIPPING SECTION - 4

1. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by

______________.
a. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
b. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with pyrotechnic powder
c. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
d. recharging the cartridge and then refilling it with powder
2. A load line for a ship is assigned by the ______________.
a. Port health inspector
b. Assessors and Arbitrators
c. Institute of Marine Engineers
 d. A recognized classification society approved by the Administration.
e. Company of Master Mariners.
3. In the event of a galley fire on board a general cargo ship, most dry chemical or carbon dioxide
portable extinguishers are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a
____________.
(a) fusible link of tritium, gallium arsenide alloy
(b) stack switch with sensors
(c) thermostat of bimetallic type
(d) pyrostat with activation of pyrotechnics
(e) none of the above
4. The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full because the
_____________.
(A) center of gravity is lowered
(B) center of buoyancy is lowered
(C) reserve buoyancy is unchanged
(D) hull freeboard is increased
5. To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should _____________.
(a) puncture the CO2 cartridge
(b) open the handwheel
(c) pull the pin and squeeze the trigger
(d) turn it upside down and bump the deck

6. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it _____________.

(a) is not higher than 30cm above the deck
(b) does not block access to the fire station hydrant---?
(c) will cover no more than 25 % of deck space
(d) will be easily visible from the bridge
(e) is sufficient to enable the cadet to stroll through
(f) gives a clear view to the bridge for navigation
7. Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's signal alarm panel is required to be indicated by
a continuously illuminated light?
(a) Deaerating tank low level
(b) Shaft alley bilge high level
(c) Port or starboard steering gear motor running
(d) No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure
8. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?
(a) Halon 1211
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Foam
(d) Dry chemical
9. Bunker "C", a grade "E" combustible liquid, will _______.
(A) give off flammable vapors below 800F (26.70C)
(B) have a Reid vapor pressure of 14 psi (96.5 kPa) or more
(C) self-ignite at temperatures below 150˚F (65.50C)
(D) have a flash point of 150̊˚F (65.5̊C) or more
10. Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using a Halon fire extinguisher versus
a CO2 fire extinguisher?
(A) Halon cools rather than smothers a fire.
(B) Halon is more effective than CO2.
(C) Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires.
(D) Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions.
11. You may improve a vessel's stability by ___________.
(A) keeping the fuel tanks topped off
(B) increasing the free surface effect
(C) keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
(D) keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
 12. In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look at the _____________.
(A) Certificate of Inspection
(B) Muster stations Chart
(C) Ship's Articles
(D) Fire Control Plan
13. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301?
(A) The agent is extremely toxic in any concentration.
(B) The agent leaves no residue.
(C) The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering.
(D) All of the above.
14. What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a position lower in the vessel?
(A) The stability of the vessel is increased.
(B) The trim of the vessel is changed substantially.
(C) The stability of the vessel is significantly decreased.
(D) The vessel will list in proportion to the volume of the cargo shifted.
15. The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for determining the exact
location of the __________.
(A) ship's displacement in seawater
(B) position of the ship's center of gravity
(C) position of the ship's center of buoyancy
(D) position of the ship's metacenter
16. Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ___________.
A. increasing the free surface effect
B. decreasing the free surface effect
C. ballasting down by the bow
D. ballasting down by the stern
17. While wearing a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus the alarm bell begins ringing.
Which of the following conditions does this indicate?
A. There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in the air cylinder.
B. There is approximately 500 psi (3.5 MPa) of pressure left in the air cylinder.
C. The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated area.
D. All of the above.
18. You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of
the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury?
A. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch it if it falls.
B. Attach lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady the load.
C. Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent the load from hitting the deck.
D. Have a first aid kit at the job site.
19. With regards to the load line marks, the reason for the placement of mark "WNA" is
______________.
A. more severe weather is expected in the North Atlantic in winter
B. more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic in winter
C. less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in winter
D. all of the above
20. Many uninspected vessels require load lines to indicate the maximum ______________.
A. reserve buoyancy under any condition
B. amidship's draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged
C. angle of reduced freeboard for subdivision calculations
D. freeboard for the light ship displacement
21. The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus is
directly influenced by ____________.
A. the donning of the facepiece
B. the stowing of the facepiece
C. he maintenance of the facepiece
D. all of the above
22. immediately after abandon ship vessel, look out in life raft for
A. Survivors in water
B. Food and water
C. Land
D. none
23. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind
or overturned?
A. A.Ballast bags
B. B.A keel
C. C.Strikes
D. D.Sea anchor
24. Highest body of IMO…
A. Council,
B. Assembly,
C. Safety Committee
D. Pollution prevention committee
25. Executive Body Of IMO…
A. Council,
B. Assembly,
C. Safety Committee
D. Pollution prevention committee
NEW SECTION - 1

1. In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if _____________.

(A) the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing
(B) the dogs on a manhole cover are secure
(C) you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
(D) you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment
2.The hand break of a life boat which is ___________ ?
A.Manually disengaged when hoisting a boat
B.applied by dropping the counterweighted lever
C.controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism
D.automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
3. During loading and discharging operation in addition o when the cargo tanks have been properly filled
each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of________.
a. 50 millimeters of water pressure
b. 25 millimeters of water pressure
c. 100 millimeters of water pressure
d. 5 millimeters of water pressure
4. The physical data term on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) ‘hat indicates if the vapor formed by the
material is lighter or heavier than air is called _______
A. Vapor pressure
B. Vapor gravity
C. Vapor level
D. Vapor density
Which of the following certificates issued to a ship does not have predetermined validity for limited period?
A. International Load Line Certificate
B. International tonnage certificate (it is valid until ship is sent for scrap.)
C. Cargo Ship safety certificate
D. Safety Management Certificate
which of these devices prevents the back flow of hydrocarbon??
A. pv breaker
B. pv valve
C. deck water seal
D. scrubber
 The flammable limit of methane by volume is 5%to 15%,if the combustible gas indicator reading is
50% when sampling a compartment containing methane a flammable vapour concentration at the sample
point is
1. 0.5% by volume
2. 2.5% by volume
3. 7.5% by volume
4. 50% by volume
The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air ,This mean a vapor/air mixture of
1. 3% methane by volume is too rich to burn
2. 20% methane by volume is too lean to burn
3. 10% methane by volume is too rich to burn
4. 5% methane by volume will give a reading of 100% LEL on a combustible gas indicator
Intact stability booklet comes under
1.Solas,
2.Marpol
3.Loadline convention
4.Tonnage convention
2. Jurisdiction over ships in high seas lies with
a. nearest coastal state
b. port state of last port
c. port state of next port
d. flagstate
Every U.S crude oil tanker with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas
system if the tonnage is more than
1.100,000DWT(Long tons)
2.100,000DWT(metric tons)
3.50,000DWT(Long tons)
4.50,000DWT(metric tons)
Damage suffered by a passenger in vessel
1.LLMC 1976 Convention
2.LLC 1969
3.Athens convention
4.Fund 1971
Emergency Steering Test and pre- arrival/pre departure steering tests are requirements under: ( solas chapter v
reg 26 para 4)
A. COLREG 72
B. SOLAS Chapter V
C. Under USCG rules only in US waters
D. INMARSAT C 1976
Which requirement regarding Oil Record Book Part ???I is correct?
A. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and Master
B. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and each completed page by the Master
C. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned and each completed page by the Master
D. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned, the Chief engineer and the Master
Which of the following IMO conventions has entered into force?

A. Hong Kong Convention----ans

B. Nairobi WRC 2007 ( for shipwreck in Kenya)
C. BWM Convention 2004
D. Bunkers Convention 2001 *
Post Nox emission test bed trial and approval of an engine, periodic Nox emission limit verification is
normally done by:
A. Emission tests at regular intervals
B. Engine parameters/settings check method
C. By running the engine at full load and sending a sample of exhaust gas for analysis
D. By checking emission monitors installed on exhaust outlet s-c, m-acd
 APRIL 2013
1. Life raft light usually what type
A. Galvanic Battery
B. Solar
C. Sea Water---ans
D. None
2. ISM code come under
A. SOLAS
B. MARPOL
C. STCW
D. NONE
3. Type of fire detector in machinery space
A. Flame detector
B. Obscuration smoke detector
C. Ionization smoke detector
D. Rise in temperature s-a, m-abc

4. Oily water separator discharge en route

A. 50 NM from nearest land
B. 50 NM from coast line
C. 12 NM from nearest land
D. No such distance criteria----ans
5. In case of frostbite, First aid will be
A. wet cloth remove
B. shoe socks remove
C. clean affected area with warm water
D. None
6. What convention about enter into force
A. Oprc
B. Afs convention
C. Bunker convention
D. Hong kong convention

7. MARPOL Annex 1 and IOPP certificate is mandatory for

A. All types of ships
B. Oil tanker 150 ton dead weight and above
C. All ship 150 ton dead weight and above
D. Oil tanker 150 gross ton and above---aans

8. Clean ballast tank is one which

A. Not allowed any oil----ans
B. Carriage oil cargo
C. Some white and clean oil
D. Last dry docking converted clean ballast tank

Reporting ???Near misses'??? is encouraged under which maritime instrument?

A. Code of Safe Working Practices
B. ISM code
C. SOLAS Chapter II-2
D. All of the above

Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the
required lifesaving gear?

A. When it is approved by the Coast Guard

B. When working near or over the water

C. When stowed away from the ring buoys

D. Never

Lifebuoys are subject to which of the following tests?

A. Drop test

B. Fire test

C. Flotation test

D. All of the above

Which of the following should never be done as a precaution against cold injuries/frost bite?
A. Cover heads and ears
B. Wear several layers of light clothing
C. Rub numb parts of the body to warm them up
D. Keep dry

Which of the following are resource zones and not security zones?
A. Inland waters
B. Territorial seas
C. Contiguous zone
D. Continental shelf---ans

Water Ingress Monitoring Equipment, for detecting water ingress in cargo holds is a requirement under:
A. MARPOL convention
B. SOLAS Chapter XII----ans
C. BC code
D. BLU code

The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is
A. carbon dioxide
B. flue gas
C. water
D. steam smothering

Greater the hazard, smaller the parcel size. As per this principle of IBC code what is the allowable parcel size in
Type 1 chemical tankers?
A. 3000 m3
B. 1500 m3
C. 1250 m3 ----ans
D. 1650 m3

Which of the following is considered to be the safest protection from static electric discharge, when connecting or
disconnecting cargo hoses and metal arms?
A. Insulating flange or a length of non-conducting hose
B. Switching off ICCP
 C. Ship shore bonding cable
D. None of the above

Who sets the security level of the ship?

A. Ship Security Officer
B. Company Security Officer
C. Port Facility Security Officer
D.

Posted by Unknown at 11:07 am

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MEP QUESTIONS NOV -2012 1. Impingement corrosion is a A. Physical action B. CHEMICAL action C. Physica

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