Red Pacop

Subject: HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
General Instructions: Select the letter of the BEST answer.
_____1. These are preparations intended for injection through the skin or other external boundary
tissue, rather than the alimentary canal.
A) Parenteral articles
B) Large-volume intravenous solutions
C) Small-volume injections
D) Intravenous push
E) Intravenous piggyback
Thompson JE and Davidow LW (2004). A Practical Guide to Contemporary Pharmacy Practice,
Second Edition. Lippincott Williams and Wilkins p 32.4
_____2. These are single dose injections containing more than 100mL of solution that are intended
for intravenous use.
D) Intravenous push
_____3. These are injections of 100mL or less and may either be single-dose and multi-dose
products.
D) Intravenous push
_____4. This term is used to designate the probability of finding a non-sterile unit following a
sterilization step or procedure.
A) Sterility
B) Sterilization assurance level
C) Sterilization
D) Terminal sterilization
E) Aseptic processing
______5. This is a procedure carried out at the end of processing, when a product is in its final
sealed container that destroys all viable organisms.
A) Sterility
C) Sterilization
_____6. This term refers to processing operations involving sterile products that are carried out in a
laminar airflow workbench or barrier isolator.
A) Sterility
C) Sterilization
______7. These are workbenches that provide an environment of specially filtered air that sweeps
the work area and provides an aseptic work area.
A) HEPA filter
B) Laminar flow
C) Laminar flow hood
D) Barrier isolator
E) Critical surfaces
______8. This area is designed and maintained to prevent particulate and microbiological
contamination of drug products as they are being prepared or processed.
A) Anteroom
B) Clean room
C) Critical surface
D) Controlled area
E) Critical area
______9. In this type of intravenous administration, the drug is added to a large volume parenteral
solution and the solution is then slowly and continuously dripped into a vein.
A) Continuous IV infusion
B) Intermittent IV infusion
C) IV push
D) IV injection
E) IV bolus
______10. In this type of intravenous administration, the drug is added to an intermediate volume
(25-100mL) and given in an intermediate period of time (15-60minutes), at spaced interval, such as
every 6 hours.
A) Continuous IV infusion
B) Intermittent IV infusion
C) IV push
D) IV injection
E) IV bolus
______11. It is the feeding of a patient by the intravenous infusion of fluids and basic nutrients.
A) Total parenteral nutrition

B) Partial parenteral nutrition
C) Parenteral infusion
D) Enteral nutrition
E) IV bolus
Ansel HC and Stoklosa MJ (2006). Pharmaceutical Calculations, 12th Edition. Lippincott Williams
and Wilkins p 215
_____12. It is a method of providing nutrition support via tubes inserted into the stomach or small
intestine.

E) IV bolus
and Wilkins p 213
_____13. This nutritional support supplements oral intake and provides only part of daily nutritional
requirements.

E) IV bolus
and Wilkins p 215
_____14. These preparations consist of one or more sterile drug products, added to an IV fluid,
generally dextrose or sodium chloride solution alone or in combination.

E) IV bolus
Comprehensive Pharmacy Review 6th ed., Shargel, Leon, Mutnick, Alan, Souney, Paul and
Swanson, Larry. Lippincott Williams and Wilkins p 567
______15. It is a therapeutic agent whose place in therapy is well-established.
A) Nonformulary drug
B) Formulary drug
C) Restricted drug
D) Investigational drug
E) Clinical evaluation drug
Durgin JM and Hanan ZI (1994). Pharmacy Practice for Technicians. Delmar Publishers Inc. p 433
______16. It is a commercially available, nonformulary agent that is temporarily made available to a

particular physician for the purpose of evaluation.
B) Formulary drug
C) Restricted drug
_____17. It is a therapeutic agent, admitted to the formulary, the use of which is authorized by a
specific group of physicians designated by the committee.
B) Formulary drug
C) Restricted drug
_____ 18.It is a therapeutic agent undergoing clinical investigation.
B) Formulary drug
C) Restricted drug
_____19. This is a mistake in prescribing, dispensing, or planned medication administration that is
detected and corrected through intervention (by another health-care provider or patient) before
actual medication administration.
A) Medication error
B) Potential error
C) Prescribing error
D) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
ASHP Guidelines on Preventing Medication Errors in Hospitals p 155
_____ 20. This includes incorrect drug selection, dose, dosage form, quantity, route, concentration,
rate of administration, or instructions for use of a drug product ordered or authorized by a physician.
A) Medication error
B) Potential error
D) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
______21. This includes illegible prescriptions or medication orders that lead to errors that reach the
patient.
A) Medication error
B) Potential error
D) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
_______22. The failure to administer an ordered dose to a patient before the next scheduled dose, if
any.
A) Medication error
B) Potential error
D) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
_______ 23. Administration of medication outside a predefined time interval from its scheduled
administration time (this interval should be established by each individual health care facility).
A) Medication error
B) Potential error
D) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
______ 24. Administration to the patient of medication not authorized by a legitimate prescriber.
A) Omission error
B) Unauthorized drug error
C) Wrong dosage form error
D) Improper dose error
E) Wrong time error
______ 25. Administration to the patient of a dose that is greater than or less than the amount
ordered by the prescriber or administration of duplicate doses to the patient i.e., one or more dosage
units in addition to those that were ordered.
A) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
______26. Administration to the patient of a drug product in a different dosage form than ordered by
the prescriber.
A) Omission error
E) Wrong time error
______ 27. Drug product incorrectly formulated or manipulated before administration.
A) Deteriorated drug error

B) Wrong administration-technique error
C) Wrong drug preparation error
D) Monitoring error
E) Wrong drug prescription
______ 28. Inappropriate procedure or improper technique in the administration of a drug.

D) Monitoring error
______ 29. Administration of a drug that has expired or for which the physical or chemical dosage
form integrity has been compromised.

D) Monitoring error
______ 30. Failure to review a prescribed regimen for appropriateness and detection of problems, or
failure to use appropriate clinical or laboratory data for adequate assessment of patient response to
prescribed therapy.

D) Monitoring error
______31. Inappropriate patient behavior regarding adherence to a prescribed medication regimen.
A) Omission error
C) Compliance error
E) Wrong time error
______ 32. This medication error severity level indicates that an error occurred did not result in
patient harm.
A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4
______ 33. This medication error severity level indicates that an error occurred resulted in the need
for increased patient monitoring but no change in vital signs and no patient harm.
A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4
_____ 34. Non medication error occurred.
A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4
______ 35. The medication error severity level indicates that an error occurred resulted in the need
for increased patient monitoring with a change in vital signs but to ultimate patient harm, or any error
that resulted in the need for increased laboratory monitoring.
A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4
______ 36. This medication error severity level indicates that an error occurred resulted in the need
for treatment with another drug or an increased length of stay or that affected patient participation in
an investigational study.
A) Level 2
B) Level 3
C) Level 4
D) Level 5
E) Level 6
______ 37. This medication error severity level indicates that an error occurred resulted in
permanent patient harm.
A) Level 2
B) Level 3
C) Level 4
D) Level 5
E) Level 6
______ 38. This medication error severity level indicates that an error occurred resulted in patient
death.
A) Level 2
B) Level 3
C) Level 4
D) Level 5
E) Level 6
______ 39. This is a continually updated list of medications and related information, representing the
clinical judgment of physicians, pharmacists, and other experts in the diagnosis, prophylaxis, or
treatment of disease and promotion of health.
A) Formulary system
B) Formulary
C) Drug monograph
D) Policy and procedure manual
E) Operating manual
ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee and the Formulary System
______ 40. An on-going process whereby a healthcare organization, through its physicians,
pharmacists, and other healthcare professionals, establishes policies on the use of drug products
and therapies and identifies drug products and therapies that are most medically appropriate and
cost-effective to best serve the health interests of a given patient population.
A) Formulary system
B) Formulary
C) Drug monograph
E) Operating manual
_______ 41. The substitution of drug products that contain the same active ingredient or ingredients
and are chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration to
the drug product prescribed.
A) Formulary system
B) Therapeutic Interchange
C) Therapeutic Alternatives
D) Generic Substitution
E) Therapeutic Substitution
_________42. The act of dispensing a therapeutic alternative for the drug product prescribed without
prior authorization of the prescriber. This is an illegal act because only the prescriber may authorize
an exchange of therapeutic alternatives.
A) Formulary system
B) Formulary
C) Drug monograph
E) Operating manual
________43. Authorized exchange of therapeutic alternatives in accordance with previously

established and approved written guidelines or protocols within a formulary system.
A) Formulary system
B) Formulary
C) Drug monograph
E) Operating manual
________44. Drug products with different chemical structures but of the same pharmacologic or
therapeutic class and usually have similar therapeutic effects and adverse-reaction profiles when
administered to patients in therapeutically equivalent doses.
A) Formulary system
B) Formulary
C) Drug monograph
E) Operating manual
________45. The use of a drug prescribed for an indication nor specifically approved by FDA is
often referred to as:
A) Formulary system
C) Off-label use
D) Generic Substitution
________46.An advisory committee that is responsible for developing, managing, updating and
administering a formulary system.
A) Formulary system
C) Off-label use
D) Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
________47. It is an immunologic hypersensitivity that occurs as the result of unusual sensitivity to a
drug formulary system.
A) Allergic reaction
B) Idiosyncratic reaction
C) Adverse drug reaction
D) Serious adverse event
E) Side effect
ASHP Guidelines on Adverse Drug Reaction Monitoring and Reporting p 126
_____ 48. It is an abnormal susceptibility to a drug that is peculiar to an individual.
E) Side effect
_____ 49. Any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at doses
normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease, or for the modification of
physiological function.
E) Side effect
____50. It is expected, well-known reaction resulting in little or no change in patient management.
E) Side effect
____51. The daily intravenous requirement of sodium is ____________.
A) 0.1-0.15 mmol/Kg
B) 0.1-0.2 mmol/Kg
C) 0.5-0.7 mmol/Kg
D) 1-2 mmol/Kg
E) 2-4 mmol/Kg
Winfield AJ and Richards RME (1998). Pharmaceutical Practice, Second Edition. Churchill Living
stone p 278
___52. The daily intravenous requirement of potassium is ____________.
A) 0.1-0.15 mmol/Kg
B) 0.1-0.2 mmol/Kg
C) 0.5-0.7 mmol/Kg
D) 1-2 mmol/Kg
E) 2-4 mmol/Kg
stone p 278
___53. The daily intravenous requirement of magnesium is ____________.
A) 0.1-0.15 mmol/Kg
B) 0.1-0.2 mmol/Kg
C) 0.5-0.7 mmol/Kg
D) 1-2 mmol/Kg
E) 2-4 mmol/Kg
stone p 278
___54. The daily intravenous requirement of calcium is ____________.
A) 0.1-0.15 mmol/Kg
B) 0.1-0.2 mmol/Kg
C) 0.5-0.7 mmol/Kg
D) 1-2 mmol/Kg
E) 2-4 mmol/Kg
stone p 278
______55. The daily intravenous requirement of phospate is ____________.
A) 0.1-0.15 mmol/Kg
B) 0.1-0.2 mmol/Kg
C) 0.5-0.7 mmol/Kg
D) 1-2 mmol/Kg
E) 2-4 mmol/Kg
stone p 278
___56. The daily intravenous requirement of chloride is ____________.
A) 0.1-0.15 mmol/Kg
B) 0.1-0.2 mmol/Kg
C) 0.5-0.7 mmol/Kg
D) 1-2 mmol/Kg
E) 2-4 mmol/Kg
stone p 278
_____57. This occurs when the effects of one drug is altered by the effects of another drug.
A) Medication error
B) Adverse drug reactions
C) Drug interactions
D) Pharmacodynaminc interactions
E) Pharmacokinetic interactions
stone p 361
_____ 58. This occurs when one drug alters the effect of another by acting at the same site of
action, on the same pharmacological receptors on the same pharmacological system.
A) Medication error
stone p 361
___59. This occurs when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism or excretion of
another drug.
A) Medication error
stone p 361
___60. It is the advancement of medical knowledge against diseases.
A) Education
B) Patient care
C) Public health
D) Research
E) All of the above
Philip P. Gerbino. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy, 21st ed., p. 2251
___61. This is where ambulatory patients are seen by appointment and where patient is not
confined.
A) Ambulatory surgery center
B) Clinic
C) Long-term health care facility
D) Resident treatment facility
E) None of the above
____62. Independent, voluntary organization that maintains and elevates the standards of health
care.
A) ASHP
B) AHA
C) JCAHO
D) ISO
E) PSHP
___63. Represents an investment interest of their owners and profits are legally shared among the
owners.
A) Federal hospital
B) Non-profit hospital
C) Profit hospital
D) State hospital
E) County hospital
___64. Function of hospital where it can provide practical learning experiences dealing with saving
human lives.
A) Education
B) Patient care
C) Public health
D) Research
E) All of the above
___65. Must produce a two-way channel of communication between the board, the hospital staff and
personnel.
A) Chairman
B) Chief executive officer
C) Governing body
D) Medical staff
E) Hospital staff
___66. Patients with chronic cases are confined in:
A) Governmental hospital
B) Long-term hospital
C) Private hospital
D) Short-term hospital
E) General hospital
___67. Public health activities include all except:
A) Poison prevention measures

B) Disease detection measures
C) Smoking cessation measures
D) Teaching routine hygienic practices
E) Clinical evaluation of investigational drugs
____68. Internal factor that affects the practice of hospital pharmacy.
A) Accreditation agency
B) Licensing agency
C) Organizational structure of the hospital
D) Third-party payer
E) Federal government
____ 69. Third-party payers exert their influence on:
A) Hospital operations
B) Hospital reimbursements
C) Services provided to indigent patients
D) Standards of practice
E) Hospital practices
____70. Fundamental functions of hospitals are education, public health, research, and:
A) Community development
B) Diagnostic procedures
C) Health maintenance
D) Training
E) Patient care
_____71. Requirements for registration of hospitals include all except:

A) Accreditation certificate
B) Identifiable governing body
C) With CEO
D) With food services
E) At least six in-patient beds
_____ 72. The following are sources of income of hospitals except:
A) Patients
B) Government
C) Hospitalization insurance
D) International accreditation agencies
E) Voluntary contributions
____73. The first hospital on the American continent built by the Spaniards in 1524 was:
A) Pennsylvania Hospital
B) Hospital of Jesus Nazareth
C) Bristol Royal Hospital
D) Massachusetts General Hospital
E) Johns Hopkins Hospital
____74. He is the Greek god of Medicine.
A) Kos
B) Hippocrates
C) Hygea
D) Fabiola
E) Aesculapius
____75. This act provided federal funds for hospital construction on a matching basis with local
communities.
A) Prospective Payment System

B) Hospital Standardization Program
C) Hospital Survey and Construction Act
D) Social Security Amendments of 1965
E) Generics Act
____76. Factors in the development and expansion of hospitals except:

A) Activities of Florence Nightingale during Crimean War
B) Civil War
C) Flexner report on medical education
D) Military influence
E) Establishment of religious orders
____77. Factors in the development and expansion of hospitals except
A) Activities of Florence Nightingale during Crimean War

B) Civil War
C) Flexner report on medical education
D) Military influence
E) Establishment of religious orders
_____78. The prime objective of this hospital function is to assist community in reducing the illness
and improving the general health of the population.
A) Patient Care
B) Research
C) Education
D) Public Health
_____79.. Parenteral products with an osmotic pressure less than that of blood or 0.9% sodium
chloride are referred to as:
A) Isotonic solutions
B) Hypertonic solutions
C) Hypotonic solutions
D) Iso-osmotic solutions
E) Neutral solutions
Shargel, L., et al., Comprehensive Pharmacy Review, 4th ed., p. 475-487
_____80. Aseptic technique should be used in the preparation of all of the following medications with
the exception of:
A) Neomycin irrigation solution

B) Ganciclovir intraocular injection
C) Phytonadione subcutaneous
D) Ampicillin IV admixture piggyback
E) Bacitracin ointment
_____81. Which needle has the smallest diameter?
A) 25-gauge 3 ¼”
B) 24-gauge 3 ½”
C) 22-gauge 3”
D) 20-gauge 3 3/8”
E) 26-gauge 3 5/8”
_____82. Intra-articular injection refers to injection into the:
A) Muscle mass
B) Subcutaneous tissue
C) Spinal fluid
D) Superficial skin layer
E) Joint space
_____83. Advantages of intravenous route include:
A) Ease of removal of the dose

B) A depot effect
C) Low incidence of phlebitis
D) Rapid onset of action
E) A localized effect
_____84. A central vein, either subclavian or internal jugular, may be considered a suitable route for
intravenous in which of the following situations:
A) When an irritating drug is given

B) When hypertonic drugs are given
C) For long-term therapy
D) For administering dextrose 35% as parenteral nutrition
E) All of the above
_____85. To prepare a TPN that requires 10 mEq of Calcium Gluconate and 15 mcg of Potassium
Phosphate, the appropriate action would be to:
A) Add the calcium first, add the other additives, then add the phosphate last,
thoroughly mixing the solution after addition
B) Add the calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate consecutively
C) Not combine the agents together but give them as separate infusions
D) All are correct
_____86. Which needle gauge would be most likely used as a subcutaneous injection of Epoetin?
A) 25 gauge 5/8 inches

B) 16 gauge 1 inch
C) 18 gauge 1 ½ inches
D) 22 gauge 1 ½ inches
_____87. Which of the following drugs should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
A) Ampicillin
B) Dopamine
C) Cis-Platinum
D) Nitroglycerin
E) Bretyllium tosylate
_____88. All of the following statements about D5W are true, except;
A) Its pH range is 3.5-6.5

B) It is hypertonic
C) It is a 5% solution of D-glucose
D) It should be used with caution in diabetic patients
E) It is often used in intravenous admixtures
_____89. All of the following are potential hazards of parenteral therapy, except:
A) Hypothermia
B) Phlebitis
C) Extravasation
D) Allergic reactions
E) Ileus
_____90. Procedures for the safe handling of antineoplastic agents include all of the following,
except;
A) Use of Luer-Lok syringe fittings

B) Wearing double-layered latex gloves
C) Use of negative-pressure technique when medication is being withdrawn from vials
D) Wearing closed-front, surgical type gowns with cuffs
E) Use of horizontal laminar flow hood
_____91. In preparation of an intraspinal dose of bupivacaine, the best pore size filter for cold
sterilization would be:
A) 8mm filter
B) 5µg filter
C) 0.45µg filter
D) 0.22µg filter
_____92. Process stimulation is:
A) A method of quality assurance

B) Evaluates the adequacy of a practitioner’s aseptic technique
C) Requires the use of a microbial growth medium
D) Is carried out in a manner identical to normal sterile admixture production
E) All of the above
_____93. The following definition, “one which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at does
normally used in man for the prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease, or for the modification of
physiological function” describes:
A) A side effect
B) An adverse drug reaction
C) An adverse drug event
D) A drug interaction
E) All of the above
_____94. Type A ADRs are characterized by which of the following?
A) Idiosyncratic reactions
B) A function of patient susceptibility
C) Caused by drug-drug interaction
D) All of the above
_____95. Preventable ADRs
A) Generally display mild symptoms

B) Are always easily recognized
C) Are problems that are easily medically managed
D) All of the above
_____96. Based on ASHP Guidelines: Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals, immunization
programs of hospitals are under what standard?
A) Facilities and equipment

B) Medication distribution and control
C) Optimizing medication therapy
D) Research
E) Drug information and education
ASHP Guidelines: Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals, Am J Health Syst Pharm. 1995
Dec 1;52(23):2711-7
_____97. Medical emergency services of the pharmacy department belong to:
A) Standard I
B) Standard II
C) Standard III
D) Standard IV
E) Standard V
Dec 1;52(23):2711-7
_____98. Medication therapy monitoring includes an assessment of the following, except;
A) Appropriateness of the route

B) Medication interactions
C) Therapeutic safety
D) Physical signs and cinical symptoms
E) Therapeutic appropriateness
Dec 1;52(23):2711-7
_____99. The director of pharmacy service is required to have an advanced management degree
such as the following, except;
A) M.B.A
B) M.H.A
C) M.S.
D) M.PEG.
Dec 1;52(23):2711-7
_____100. The following services are under drug information and education standard, except;
A) Clinical care plans

B) Medication therapy monographs
C) Patient education
D) Dissemination of drug information
E) Drug information requests
Dec 1;52(23):2711-7
_____101. Which of the following belongs to leadership and practice management standard for
pharmacies in hospitals?
A) Disaster services
B) Education and training
C) Patient education
D) Microbial resistance
E) Medication orders
Dec 1;52(23):2711-7
_____102. This is equipment that is designed to reduce the risk of airborne contamination during the
preparation of IV admixtures by providing an ultraclean environment.
A) Sterile area
B) Clean room
C) Hypodermic needle
D) Biorefridgerator
E) Laminar flow hood
Hunt, Max., Training Manual for Intravenous Admixture Personnel, 5th ed., p. 70
_____103. What are the two basic parts of a needle?
A) Bevel and lumen

B) Lumen and shaft
C) Hub and shaft
D) Bevel and hub
E) Hub and lumen
_____104. The part of a syringe that is a piston-type rod with slightly cone-shaped tip that passes
inside the barrel of the syringe.
A) Flange
B) Plunger
C) Rim
D) Barrel
_____105. The following are examples of macronutrients that make-up most of the volume of a
parenteral solution, except;
A) IV fat emulsion
B) Dextrose solution
C) Amino acid solution
D) Vitamins and minerals
_____106. Subclavian vein, to which most parenteral solutions are infused with, is located:
A) Under the collar bone

B) Beside the sternum
C) At the side of the neck
D) At the base of the heart
E) Near the liver
_____107. Hypersensitivity reactions are examples of what type of ADR?
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
E) Type E
_____108. Which is not a risk factor for ADR?
A) Age
B) Genetics
C) Duration of therapy
D) Concurrent medications
E) Social status
_____109. These are ADRs that are uncommon, dose and time related, and associated with the
culminative dose of the drug.
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
E) Type E
_____110. These devices are used for controlling the delivery of small volumes of intravenous
infusions over a predetermined period of time.
A) Infusion controllers
B) Infusion pumps
C) Elastomeric infusers
D) Syringe infusers
E) Heplock
Winfield AJ and Richards RME (1998). Pharmaceutical Practice, Second Edition, Churchill
Livingstone p 251
_____111. This medical staff is composed of physicians who have been active in the hospital but
who are retired and those whom it is desired to honor because of outstanding contributions.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
Philip P. Gerbino. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy, 21st ed.
_____112. This medical staff is composed of specialists who are recognized as such by right of
passing specialty boards or belonging to the national organization of their specialty and who serve
as consultants to other members of the medical staff when called upon.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
_____113. This medical staff is most actively involved in the hospital counseling.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
_____114. This group is composed of junior or less-experienced members of the staff.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
_____115, This group consists of those physicians who desire the privilege of attending to private
patients, but who do not desire active staff membership.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
_____116. This group is composed of junior or less-experienced members of the staff.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
_____117. This group is composed of residents who are full-time employees of the hospital.
A) Consulting
B) Honorary
C) Active
D) Courtesy
E) Associate
_____118. Small volumes of drug that are injected into the vein for a short period of time.
A) Volume control sets

B) Direct IV injection
C) Piggyback administration
D) IV stat or push
E) Continuous IV infusion
_____119. These units consist of calibrated, plastic, fluid chambers placed in a direct line under an
established primary IV container or more often attached to an independent fluid supply.

D) IV stat or push
_____120. Method of intravenous administration by which solution from two containers flow into the
patient’s vein through a common tubing and a common injection site (venipuncture).

D) IV stat or push
_____121. It refers to the responsible of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended
to improve a patient’s way of life.
A) Professional-patient relationship
B) Therapeutic drug monitoring
C) Drug therapy assessment
D) Pharmaceutical care
E) Formal documentation
There are several component of pharmaceutical care. The first is a belief and commitment by the
practitioner that he or she shares equal responsibility with the patient and the prescriber for optimal
drug therapy outcomes. Second is the establishment of a trusting professional-patient relationship.
The third critical component is formal documentation of not only the pharmaceutical care plan, but
also of all clinical interventions and therapeutic outcomes. Koda-Kimble 1-2
_____122. It involves measuring direct and indirect cost attributable to a specific disease.
A) Cost-of-illness evaluation
B) Cost-of-effectiveness analysis
C) Cost-minimization analysis
D) Cost-utility analysis
E) Cost-benefit analysis
A cost-of illness evaluation identifies and estimates the overall cost of a particular disease for a
defined population. By the successful identification of all cost of illness, be it direct or indirect, the
relative value of a treatment or prevention strategy can be determined. Dipiro 3
_____123. This method allows the identification, measurement, and comparison of the costs of a
program or treatment alternative.
Both costs and benefits are expressed in equivalent monetary value in the year in which they will
occur, these costs and benefits are expressed as a ratio, a net cost. This is an appropriate method
to use in documenting the value of an existing program or the potential worth of a new one.
_____124. The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternatives when
comparing two or more treatment alternatives.
With cost minimization Analysis, the alternatives must have an assumed or demonstrated
equivalency in safety and efficacy. This method only shows a “cost savings” of one program of
treatment over another. Dipiro 3
_____125. The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life.
In Cost-Utility analysis, the cost is measured in monetary units, and therapeutic outcome is
measured in patient-weighted utilities. This method is the most appropriate in comparing programs
and alternatives that are life extending with serious side effects, those which produce reductions in
morbidity rather that mortality. And when quality of life is the most important outcome being
considered. Dipiro 4
_____126. A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care
programs so that policy makers can choose from them.
Cost-effectiveness analysis involves the comparison of programs or alternatives with different safety
and efficacy profiles. Cost is measured in monetary units, and outcomes are measured in obtaining
a specific therapeutic outcome. Example of outcomes are lives saved, cases cured, or life
expectancy. Dipiro 3
_____127. It refers to the value assigned to the duration of life as modified by impairments,
functional states, perceptions, and social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury,
treatment or policy.
A) Optimum health
B) Quality of life
C) Health outcomes
D) Responsiveness
E) Wellness of being
The commonly measured dimensions of quality of life include: physical health and functioning:
psychological health and functioning; social and role functioning; and, perceptions of general well-
being. Health outcomes are the end results associated with medical care delivery systems and
specific medical interventions. Responsiveness is the ability or power of the measure to detect
clinically important change when it occurs. Dipiro 11, 15
_____128. A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which
group or intervention the subjects has been assigned.
A) Randomized control trial

B) Crossover study
C) Cohort study
D) Blinded study
E) Cross-sectional study
When both the subject and study staff are not aware of the assignments, it is a double-blinded study.
When only the subject is not aware of his or her assignment, it is single-blinded study. The blinding
minimizes the bias. Dipiro 30
_____129. A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposure in a group of persons with

disease and those of persons without disease.
A) Randomized control trial

B) Crossover study
C) Cohort study
D) Meta analysis
E) Open label trial
Persons with the disease are referred to as “cases”, and those without the disease are the “controls”.
The purpose of a case-control study is to find the clinical finding that occurs more frequently in the
cases than the control. Dipiro 30
_____130. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined

group in which a variable of interest is measured.
A) Cross-sectional study
B) Case control study
C) Crossover study
D) Cohort study
E) Open-label trial
In Cohort study, the exposure is measured before the development of the disease. The incidence,
risk and the relative risk are measured. Dipiro 30
_____131. A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are
switched to the other.
A) Cross sectional study

B) Cross over study
C) Meta analysis
D) Open label trial
E) Cohort study
In a crossover study, the drug therapies are administered in either a specified or random order to
each participant. Dipiro 30
_____132. A study that determines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a
defined population and the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval.
A) Cross sectional study

B) Cohort study
C) Case control study
D) Cross over study
E) Case series
In cross-sectional studies, exposure and outcome are determined simultaneously. The temporal
sequence of cause and effect cannot be necessarily determined. Dipiro 30
_____133. Which of the following describes the neonates?
A) Those who are 1 month-1 year of age

B) Those who are 1 year-12years of age
C) Those who are 12-16 years of age
D) Those between 1 day and 1 month of age
E) Those born before 37 weeks of gestation
Those between one month to one year old are referred to as infants; one to twelve years of age,
children; and 12 to 16 years, are adolescents. Dipiro 69
_____134. Which of the following best describes the infants?
A) Those who are 1 month-1 year of age

B) Those who are 1 year-12years of age
C) Those who are 12-16 years of age
D) Those between 1 day and 1 month of age
E) Those born before 37 weeks of gestation
Newborn before 37 weeks of gestational age are termed premature. Dipiro 69
_____135. Clinical manifestations of Gray Baby Syndrome include:
I. Characteristic gray color

II. Abdominal distention
III. Hypertension
IV. Progressive shock
A) I only
B) I and IV only
C) I, II, II only
D) I, II. IV only
E) I and III only
Gray Baby Syndrome was the first reported in two neonates who died after excessive
chloramphenicol doses. Gray Baby Syndrome patients usually have abdominal distention, vomiting,
diarrhea, a characteristic gray color, respiratory distress, hypotension, and progressive shock. Dipiro
69
_____136. Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?
I. Polyneuritis
II. Mental retardation
III. Limb deformities
A) I only
B) I, II and II only
C) II and III only
D) II only
E) I and II only
Thalidomide gained much attention due to its teratogenic effects. It has been implicated as the
cause of multiple congenital fetal abnormalities, polyneuriris, nerve damage and mental retardation.
_____137. Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include:
I. Polypharmacy
II. Inappropriate prescribing
III. Medication adherence
IV. Multiple diseases
A) I and II only
B) I, II, and III only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II, and IV only
E) I, II, III, and IV
In the elderly, the factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems include suboptinal
prescribing (e.g. overuse of medications or polypharmacy, inappropriate use, and underuse),
medication errors (both dispensing and administration problems), and patient medication
nonadherence (both intentional and unintentional). Dipiro 84
_____138. Potential difficulties that may occur while taking medication histories form the elderly
include:
I. Impaired hearing
II. Mental acuity
III. Multiple diseases and medication
IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the history
A) I, II, and III only
B) I. III, IV only
C) II, III, IV only
D) I, II, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
In history taking procedures, the potential difficulties that may occur with the elderly patients include:
communication problems due to impaired hearing and vision; underreporting due to health beliefs
and cognitive impairment; vague or nonspecific symptoms in the form of altered presentations;
multiple diseases and medications; reliance on a caregiver for history information; and lack of
medical records to confirm findings. Dipiro 89
_____139. Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects
of marketed drugs.
A) Pharmacoepidemiology
B) Pharmacovigilance
C) Pharmacoinformatics
D) Pharmacogenetics
E) Pharmacogenomics
Pharmacovigilance, definition. Dipiro 91
_____140. Study the use of and effects of drugs in a large number of people.
A) Pharmacoepidemiology
B) Pharmacovigilance
C) Pharmacoinformatics
D) Pharmacogenetics
E) Pharmacogenomics
Pharmacoepidemiology, definition. Dipiro 91
_____141. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in
humans for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy.
A) Adverse drug event

B) Allergy
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Adverse drug reaction
E) Idiosyncracy
Adverse drug reaction, definition. The term adverse drug event is used to describe an injury resulting
from administration of a drug. Dipiro 94
_____142. Which of the following is/are true regarding chest X-ray?
I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and is usually

the first diagnostic test in a cardiac workup
II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures
III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and
surrounding anatomy.
A) I only
B) I, II, III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
E) II and III only
Chest X-ray does not provide details of internal cardiac structure but give global information about
position and size of the heart and chambers of the surrounding anatomy. Initial assessment of the
chest x-ray evaluates the quality of the film for patient rotation, inspiratory effect, and penetration.
Dipiro 94
_____143.The manifestations of chromium deficiency include:
I. Alopecia
II. Depigmentation of the hair and skin
III. Red blood cell fragility
IV. Glucose intolerance
A) I and II only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) III only
E) IV only
Deficiency in chromium results to glucose intolerance, peripheral neuropathy, and metabolic
encephalopathy. Alopecia is a zinc deficiency state, and depigmentation of skin and hair, a copper
deficiency state. Red blood cell fragility results from selenium inadequacy. Walker 69
_____144. The manifestations of zinc deficiency include:
I. Poor wound healing

II. Poor growth
III. Poor resistance to infection
A) I only
B) II and III only
C) I and IV only
D) III only
E) I and IV only
Zinc deficiency may also cause alopecia and infertility. The daily intravenous requirement for zinc is
50-100 umol. Walker 69
_____145. Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which
of the following affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?
I. Nature of amino acid solution

II. pH
III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
IV. Electrolyte content
A) I, II, and III only

B) II, III and IV only
C) I, II and IV only
D) I and II only
E) I and IV only
An increased PH results in increased stability of fat emulsions. At the same time, lipid emulsions are
destabilized by the presence of divalent and trivalent cations. Walker 71
_____146. Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on:
I. Electrolyte content
II. Presence of trace minerals
III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
IV. pH
A) IV only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, III only
D) II, III, IV only
E) II and IV only
Ascorbic acid oxidizes to dehyroascorbic acid, which is metabolically active but rapidly degrades to
2, 3- diketoglonic acid and then to oxalic acid. The oxalic acid may cause the formation of oxalate
stones. Walker 72
_____147. Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin?
A) Riboflavin
B) Niacin
C) Thiamine
D) Cevitamic acid
E) Ascorbic acid
Thiamine is Vitamin B1. Its degradation rate can be increased by sodium metabisulfite and amino
acids. Walker 72
_____148. Which of the following are associated with dilutional hyponatremia?
I. Administration of albumin
II. Congestive heart failure
III. Cirrhosis
A) II only
B) II and III only
C) I and II only
D) I only
E) I, II, and III only
Dilutional hyponatremia occurs when the extracellular fluid compartment expands without an
equivalent increase in sodium. Circhosis, congestive heart failure, nephrosis and administration of
osmotically active solutes, like albumin and mannitol, are most commonly associated with its
occurrence. Koda-Kimble 2-3
_____149. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
I. End product of protein metabolism

II. Produced by liver and kidney
III. Filtered completely at glomerulus
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
E) I only
Urea nitrogen is solely produced by the liver, is transported in the blood, and is excreted by the
kidneys. The concentration of blood urea nitrogen in blood is filtered completely at the glomerulus of
the kidney, then reabsorbed and tubularly secreted with nephrons. Koda-Kimble 2-10
_____150. Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?
I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney

II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus
III. Metabolized in the kidney
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
E) II and III only
Creatinine is derived from the creatine and phosphocreatine, a major muscle constituent. Creatine is
filtered freely at the glomerulus and is not absorbed, secreted, aynthesized, or metabolized by the
kidney, making its clearance a good reflection of the glomerular filtration rate. Koda-Kimble 2-10
_____151. Considered drug of choice in the treatment of angina at rest.
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Calcium-channel blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Beta blockers
E) Clopidogrel
Calcium channel blockers prevent and reverse coronary spasm by inhibition of calcium influx into the
vascular smooth muscle and myocardial muscle. Such results in the increase in blood flow, which
enhances myocardial oxygen supply. Shargel 722
_____152. Used for the same arrhythmiasfro which quinidine is give, but possess added concern
when used intravenously because of increased cardiovascular effects such as hypotension, syncope
and myocardial infarction.
A) Procainamide
B) Disopyramide
C) Tocainamide
D) Mexiletine
E) Flecainide
Procainamide is used more frequently than quinidine because it can be administered intravenously
and in sustained-release oral preparations. Disopyramide may be used as an alternative to quinidine
and procainamide for treating ventricular arrhythmias. Procainamide, quinidine and disopyramide are
all Class IA anti-arrhythmics. Shargel 746
_____153. Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular

arrhythmias.
A) Propafenone
B) Flecainide
C) Phenytoin
D) Quinidine
E) Propranolol
Phenytoin can also be given to suppress ventricular arrhythmias associated with acute myocardial
infarction, open-heart surgery or ventricular arrhythmias that are refractory to lidocaine or
procainamide. Shargel 747
_____154. Class I arrhythmias work by blocking the rapid inward sodium content and thereby slowly
down the rate of rise of the cardiac tissue’s action potential. Which sub classification moderately
reduces the depolarization rate and prolong repolarization?
A) Class IA
B) Class IB
C) Class IC
D) Class ID
E) Class IA and Class IB
Class IB drugs are capable of shortenig repolarization or the refractory period, as they weakly affect
the repolarization rate. Class IC drugs are strongly depress depolarization but have a negligible
effect on the duration of repolarization. Shargel 748
_____155. Which of the following is/are not associated with cinchonism caused by Quinidine?
I. Hearing loss
II. Photophobia
III. Tinnitus
IV. Blurred vision
A) I and II only
B) III and IV only
C) I, II, III only
D) I, III, IV only
E) II, III, IV only
Cinchonism may also be manifested by gastrointestinal disturbance. In severe cases, nausea,
vomiting, diarrhea, headache, confusion, delirium, photopobia, diplopia and psychosismay also
occur. Shargel 749
_____156. Among the type III arrhythmics listed below, which has been reported as causing
Torsades de Pointes type of ventricular tachycardia?
A) Sotalol
B) Flecainide
C) Amiodarone
D) Quinidine
E) Lidocaine
Torsades de Pointes is defined as polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a twisting QRS complex
morphology, which sometimes occurs with drugs that prolong ventricular repolarization. Initial reports
of its occurrence centered around the use of quinidine, a Class IA anti-arrhythmic drug. Today, more
than 50 drugs have been shown to affect the duration of QT interval. Shargel 739
_____157. A Class I anti-arrhythmic drug that can cause fatigue, arthralgia, myalgia, and low-grade
fever, suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome.
A) Flecainide
B) Disopyramide
C) Mexiletine
D) Procainamide
E) Quinolone
The most severe side effects of procainamide are the hypersensitivity reactions. These reactions
include drug fever, agranulocytosis and SLE-like syndrome. Shargel 750
_____158. A Class IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular
tachyarrhythmias.
A) Verapamil
B) Disopyramide
C) Propanolol
D) Sotalol
E) Ibutilide
Class IV anti-arrhythmics are calcium channel blockers. They inhibit AV node conduction by
depressing SV and AV nodes, where calcium channel predominate. However, these drugs must be
used cautiously in patients with CHF, sick-sinus syndrome, myocardial infarction and hepatic or
renal impairment . Shargel 756
_____159. The New York Heart Association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of
effort necessary to elicit Heart Failure symptoms is equal to those that would limit normal individuals.
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
E) Class V
Class Degree I of effort to elicit HF symptoms equals those that would limit normal individuals. Class
II Degree of effort necessary to elicit HF symptoms occurs with less than ordinary exertion. Class II
Degree of effort necessary to elicit HF symptoms occurs with less than ordinary exertion. Class IV
Degree of effort necessary to elicit HF symptoms occurs while at rest. Shargel 785-786
_____160.The New York Heart Association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of
effort necessary to elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs with less-than ordinary exertion.
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
E) Class V
Refer to table in #159
_____161. The New York Heart Association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of
effort necessary to elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs while at rest.
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
E) Class V
Refer to table in #159
_____162. Term referred for that exerted on the ventricular muscle at he end of the diastole that
determines the degree of muscle fiber stretch.
A) Frank-Starling mechanism
B) Afterload
C) Cardiac output
D) Preload
E) Decompensation
Preload is known as ventricular and diastolic pressure. It is a key factor in contractility because the
more these muscles are stretched diastole, the more powerfully they contract in systole. Frank-
Sterling mechanism is a concept that works with the premise that an increased fiber dilation
heightens the contractile force, which then increases the energy released.
_____163. Determined by the amount of force needed to overcome pressure in the aorta.
A) Frank-Starling mechanism
B) Afterload
C) Cardiac output
D) Preload
E) Decompensation
Afterload, also known as the intraventricular systolic pressure, refers to the tension inventricular
muscles during contraction. It is sometimes use to describe the amount of force needed in the right
ventricle to overcome the pressure in the pulmonary artery. Shargel 790
_____164. Which of the following is/are true regarding precautions with the use of digoxin
I. Increased potassium levels favor digoxin binding to cardiac cells and

increase its effect
II. Increased calcium levels increase the force of myocardial contraction
III. Magnesium levels are inversely related to digoxin activity
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
E) II and III only
Potassium preparations seem to antagonize digitalis preparation. This antagonism is particularly
significant in patients taking diuretics, many of which decrease potassium levels. Shargel 793
_____165. Which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects in
treating the patient with Heart Failure?
A) 40 mg/kg/min
B) 40 ug/kg/min
C) 10-20 ug/kg/min
D) 5-10 ug/kg/min
E) 2 ug/kg/min
Dopamine exhibits a wide range of effects. At doses of 2-5 ug/kg/min, it increases renal blood flow
through its dopaminergic effects. At doses of 5-10 ug/kg/min, it increases cardiac output through its
beta-adrenergic stimulating effect. At doses of 10-20 ug/kg/min, it increases peripheral vascular
resistance through its alpha-adrenergic stimulating effect. Shargel 804
_____166. A loop diuretic that is useful as a rapid-acting intravenous agent in reversing acute
pulmonary edema.
A) Ethacrynic caid
B) Furosemide
C) Spironolactone
D) Bumetanide
E) Mannitol
The ability of furosemide to reverse acute pulmonary edema is due to its direct dilating effects on
pulmonary vasculature. Shargel 795
_____167. Diuretics which hav become preferred due to their ability to increase sodium excretion by
20-25% of the filtered load and maintain their efficacy until renal function is severely impaired:
I. Spironolactone
II. Ethacrynic acid
III. Furosemide
IV. Bumetanide
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, III only
D) II, III, IV only
E) I, III, IV only
Loop diuretics, which include furosemide, ethacrynic acid and bumetanide, are capable of exerting
such actions. They also share the advantage of reducing venous return independent of diuresis.
Shargel 795
_____168. Which of the following may be used in the acute management of digitalis toxicity?
I. Potassium
II. Cholestyramine resin
III. Fab fragment antibody
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
E) I, III and IV only
In digitalis toxicity, if the patient is hypokalemic, potassium supplements are administered and serum
levels are monitored. Cholestyramine may also be given because of its capability to bind to digitalis
glycosides. It may help prevent absorption and reabsorption of digitalis in the bile. In patients with
very high serum digoxin levels, purified digoxin-specific Fab fragment is given. Shargel 794
_____169. Which of the following best describes isoniazid?
A) May be nephrotoxic and ototoxic

B) Has limited use due to its hepatotoxic potential
C) Requires pyridoxine supplementation
D) May discolor the tears and urine orange red
E) A pyrazine analogue of nicotinamide
Isoniazid is a hydroxide of isonicotinic acid. It is the most widely used antitubercular agent and
should be used in combination with another antitubercular drug to prevent drug resistance in
tuberculosis. Shargel 860
_____170. Which of the following may be treated with streptomycin?
I. Bacterial endocarditis
II. Tularemia
III. Urinary tract infection
IV. Tuberculosis
A) I, II and III only

B) II, III and IV only
C) I and II only
D) II and IV only
E) III and IV only
Streptomycin may be used to treat plague, tularemia, acute brucellosis (in combination of
tetracycline), bacterial endocarditis caused by Streptococcus viridans (in combination with penicillin),
tuberculosis (in combination with other abtitubercular agents). Shargel 830
_____171. Which of the following best illustrates the relative ototoxicity of aminoglycosides?
A) Streptomycin=kanamycin>amikacin+gentamicin
B) Kanamycin>streptomycin=tobramycin>amikacin
C) Streptomycin=gentamicin>kanamycin=amikacin
D) Kanamycin>streptomycin>kanamycin
E) Streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin
In order to minimize or prevent serious adverse effets of aminoglycosides, blood drug
concentrations. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels should be monitored during therapy.
Shargel 830
_____172. Which of the following amonoglycosides can cause primarily vestibular damage?
A) Neomycin and amikacin

B) Gentamicin and streptomycin
C) Kanamycin and streptomycin
D) Amikacin and kanamycin
E) Streptomycin and amikacin
Vestibular damage caused by gentamicin and streptomycin may be manifested by tinnitus, vertigo
and ataxia. Such damage may be bilateral and irreversible. Shargel 830
_____173. Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause mainly auditory damage?
A) Gentamicin and streptomycin

B) Streptomycin and neomycin
C) Amikacin and kanamycin
D) Kanamycin and streptomycin
E) Amikacin and gentamicin
Auditory damage is manifested by hearing loss. Only tobramycin can result in both vestibular and
auditory damage. Shargel 830
_____174. Which is the least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?
A) Streptomycin
B) Tobramycin
C) Neomycin
D) Amikacin
E) Netilmicin
Mild renal dysfunction develop in up to 25% of patients receiving aminoglycosides for several days
or more. This is due to the accumulation of these drugs in the proximal tubule. Streptomycin remains
to be the least nephrotoxic aminoglycosides. Shargel 830
_____175. Which is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?
A) Streptomycin
B) Tobramycin
C) Neomycin
D) Amikacin
E) Netilmicin
Neomycin is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycosides. Risk factors for increased nephrotoxic effects
include: preexisting renal disease, previous of prolonged aminoglycosides therapy, concurrent
administration of other nephrotoxic and impaired renal flow unrelated to renal disease. Shargel 830
_____176. Which carbapenem need to be combined with cilastatin sodium to inhibit the action of
renal dipeptidases to this drug?
A) Aztreonam
B) Meropenem
C) Carbamazepine
D) Ertapenem
E) Imipenem
Carbapenems are beta-lactams that contain a fused beta-lactam ring and a 5-membered ring
system that differs from penicillin in being unsaturated and containing a carbon instead of a sulfur
atom. Cilastatin is not required with meropenem and ertapenem since these are not sensitive to
renal dipeptidase. Shargel 831
_______ 177. Which of the following is/are the routes of administration of Penecillin G sodium and
potassium?
I. Intradermal
II. Intravenous
III. Intramuscular
IV. Oral
A) II, III, and IV only

B) I, III and IV only
C) II and III only
D) IV only
E) II and IV only
Penicillin G sodium and potassium salts can be administered orally, intravenously or intramuscularly.
Penicillin V is administered orally. Penicillin G procaine and Penicillin G benzathine are repository
drug forms that can administered intramuscularly. Shargel 834
______178. Anaphylaxis is a life threatening reaction that most commonly occurs with parenteral
administration of penicillin. The following are its signs and symptoms:
I. Nausea
II. Bronchoconstriction
III. Abdominal pain
IV. Severe hypertension
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I, II, III only
D) I, II, IV only
E) II only
Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis due to penicillin include severe hypotension,
bronchoconstriction, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and extreme weakness. Shargel 835
______179. With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given 1 hour of penicillin
administration?
A) Tetracycline and cephalosphorins

B) Aminoglycosides and macrolides
C) Cabapenems and vancomycin
D) Erhythromycin and chloramphenicol
E) Carbenicillin and isoniazid
Antibiotic antagonism with penicillins occurs when erythromycin, tetracyclines or chloramphenicol is
given within one hour of the penicillin administration. The clinical significance of such is not yet
established. Shargel 835
_______180. An extended spectrum penicillin that is 10 times as active as carbenicillin against

Pseudomonas organisms.
A) Carbenicillin
B) Piperacillin
C) Ticarcillin
D) Meszlocillin
E) Tazobactam
Piperacillin is an extended-spectrum penicillin. Together with mezlocillin, they are referred to as the
ureidopenicillins. Piperacillin is also more active than carbenicillin against streptococcal organisms.
Shargel 836
______181. Include tumors of connective tissues such as bone or muscle.
A) Carcinomas
B) Sarcomas
C) Lymphomas
D) Leukemia
E) Hematoma
Sarcomas are solid tumors. They include tumors of bone like osteosarcoma, and tumors of muscles
like leiomyosarcomas. Shargel 1097
_____182. Include tumors of blood-forming elements and are classified as acute or chronic, myeloid
or lymphoid.
A) Carcinomas
B) Sarcomas
C) Lymphomas
D) Leukemia
E) Hematoma
Leukemias and lymphomas are hematological malignancies. Lymphomas are tumors of the
lymphatic system and include Hodgkin’s an non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas. Shargel 1097
_____183. The stage in cardiogenesis wherein the environment becomes altered to allow
preferential growth of mutated cells over normal cells.
A) Promotion
B) Initiation
C) Progression
D) Regression
E) Metastasis
Carcinogenesis or the mechanism of hoe cancer occur, is thought to be a multi-stage multifunctional
process that involves both genetic and environmental factors. It has three stages: initiation,
promotion and progression. Shargel 1096
_____184. The first stage of carcinogenesis wherein normal cells are exposed to a carcinogen.
A) Promotion
B) Initiation
C) Progression
D) Regression
E) Metastasis
Initiation, definition. Shargel 1096
_____ 185. A metabolite of cyclophosphamide and ifosmamide that is thought to cause a chemical
reaction of bladder mucosa leading to bleeding.
A) Mesna
B) Amifostine
C) Acrolein
D) Dexrazoxane
E) Histamine
Acrolein is thought to cause hemorrhagic cystitis and is usually seen after administration of
cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide. Preventive measures include aggressive hydration and frequent
urination and the administration of uroprotectant mesna. Shargel 1110
_____ 186. Which of the following is/are true regarding pain?
I. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience that is usually associated

with structural or tissue damage
II. A subjective, individual experience
III. Has physical, psychological, and social determinants
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, III only
D) III only
E) I only
Pain, definition and description. Shargel 1116
____ 187. Stimulation of mu receptors produces the characteristic necrotic effects. These morphine-
like effects include:
I. Analgesia
II. Euphoria
III. Sedation
IV. Physical dependence
A) I, II, III, IV
B) I, II III only
C) I, II, IV only
D) I III only
Aside from those listed, the other characteristics narcotic effects that are elicited upon the
stimulation of the Mu receptors include miosis, respiratory depression and bradycardia. Shargel
1120
_____ 188. A component of red paper that causes the release of substance P from sensory nerve
fibers, resulting in the prolonged cutaneous pain transmission, histamine release, and erythema
because of reflex vasodilation.
A) Glucosamine sulfade
B) Chondroitin
C) Capsaicin
D) Capsicum oleoresin
E) Cyclooxygenase
_____189. All of the following provide acid suppression similar to omeprazole 20mg every day
except:
A) Lansoprazole 30 mg every day

B) Pantoprazole 40 mg every day
C) Rabeprazole 20 mg every day
D) Famotidine 20 mg every day
E) All provide equivalent acid suppression
Doses of omeprazole 20mg, lansoprazole 30mg, pantoprazole 40mg and rabeprazole 20mg
administered once daily provide similar levels of acid suppression. All provide significantly better
acid inhibition than famotidine, even at doses of 20mg twice a day or more. Shargel et.al,
Comprehensive Pharmacy Review 6th Ed. p1124
_____ 190. Natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives that adsorb water to soften the stool and
increase the bulk.
A) Saline laxatives
B) Lubricant laxatives
C) Emollient laxatives
D) Bulk-forming laxatives
E) Stimulant laxatives
Bulk-forming laxatives work in both the small and large intestines. Their onset of action is slow.
Thus, they are used to prevent constipation rather than to treat severe acute constipation. Shargel
607
______ 191. Laxatives that act as surfactants by allowing absorption of water into the stool, which
makes the softened stool easier to pass.
A) Saline laxatives
B) Lubricant laxatives
C) Emollient laxatives
D) Bulk-forming laxatives
E) Stimulant laxatives
The increased volume results in distention of the intestinal lumen, causing increased peristalsis and
bowel motility. Shargel 608
____ 192. Clusters of dilated blood vessels n the lower rectum or anus.
A) Anal abcess
B) Cryptitis
C) Anal fissure
D) Polyps
E) Hemorrhoids
Hemorrhoids, definition. Shargel 616
_____ 193. Which of the following statements adequately describe bulk-forming laxatives?
A) Can cause diarrhea if not taken with water

B) Onset of action is 4-8 hours
C) Provide much more complete evacuation of constipation than stimulant products
D) Are derived from polysaccharides and resemble fiber in mechanism of action
E) All of its kind can cause abdominal cramping
Bulk-forming laxatives are natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives that adsorb water to soften
stool and increase bulk. Shargel 607-608
____ 194. Whjch of the following is/are risk factor/s for hyperphoshatemia and death from sodium
phosphate enema?
I. Renal insufficiency
II. Hirschsprung’s disease
III. Anorectal malformations
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, III only
D) III only
E) I only
Chronic renal disease, anorectal malformations and/or Hirschsprung’s disease allow phosphate
blood concentrations to become abnormally high and potassium and calcium to become low. These
conditions predispose patients to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially death. Shargel 627
_____ 195. Which of the following is true regarding lactulose?
I. An osmotic laxative
II. May cause flatulence and cramping
III. Should be taken with milk or juice to increase its palatability
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, III only
D) III only
E) II only
Lactulose is available only by prescription. It is used to decrease blood ammonia levels in hepatic
encephalopathy. Shargel 609
____ 196. A condition characterized in a poorly functioning colon and resembles the symptoms of
ulcerative colitis, caused by chronic use of stimulant laxatives.
A) Melanosis coli
B) Cathartic colon
C) Lipid pneumonitis
D) Laxative abuse
E) Hyperphosphatemia
Cathartic colon, definition and description. Shargel 609
____ 197. A dark pigmentation of the colonic mucosa that results from long-term used of
anthraquinone laxatives.
A) Melanosis coli
B) Cathartic colon
C) Lipid pneumonitis
D) Laxative abuse
E) Hyperphosphatemia
Melanosis coli, definition and description. Shargel 609
______ 198. Adverse effects of Metoclopramide limit its usefulness. These adverse effects include:
I. Insomnia
II. Depression
III. Extra pyramidal effects
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) II only
D) I, II III only
E) III only
Adverse effects of metoclopramide include sedation, depression and extrapyramidal effects. Shargel
622
_____ 199. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding emollient laxatives?
I. Not good for acute constipation

II. More effective than placebo for long term use
III. Good for patients who should not strain by passing hard stool
A) I, II, III only

B) I and III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I only
Clinical trials evaluating emollient laxatives show that these products, when compared to placebo, do
not affect the weight or water content of the stool or frequency of stool passing. Shargel 609
______ 200. Potential adverse effects of Aspirin include:
I. Gastrointestinal ulceration
II. Hypersensitivity asthma
III. Cardiac arrhythmias
A) I and II only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
E) I, II, III only
____ 201. If the hospital pharmacy is decentralized, each satellite pharmacy must be:
A) Supervised by a single pharmacist who is knowledgeable and experienced in

hospital operations
B) Supervised by a pharmacy technician or aide, in order to maximize human resources
in the hospital
C) Supervised by a licensed pharmacist who reports to the director of pharmacy
D) Supervised by pharmacy interns in order to facilitate full training experience
E) Supervised by a registered nurse if there is no pharmacist available
It is not always required that a pharmacist be a full-time employee. However, it is recommended that
a pharmacist be available at all times. The service extended by the pharmacist must meet the needs
of the patients in the hospital as determined by the medical staff. Brown 32
_____ 202. Routine inspections must be done in all areas where medications are dispensed,
administered and stored. Documented checks are to be made to make sure that:
I. Outdated and other unusable drugs are removed from locations where they
could be administered in error
II. The use of investigational drugs conforms poorly with pharmacy policies and
procedures
III. External and internal drug preparations must be stored in the same
pharmacy area
A) I, II III only
B) I and II only
C) II only
D) I only
E) I and III only
Documented checks must also ensure that drugs are stored under proper conditions, and that
emergency drug supplies are in order and adequate. The person assigned to do the routine
inspections must be qualified by previous training. Brown 33
_____ 203.Responsible for the development and surveillance of pharmacy and therapeutics policies
and practices, particularly drug utilization within the hospital.
A) Medical director
B) Board of directors
C) Pharmacy and therapeutics committee
D) Chief pharmacist
E) Pharmaceutical services director
The pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is responsible for advising on the use of all the drugs in
the hospital. It should also consider problems such as drug interactions, medication errors, and the
misuse of drugs Brown 35
____204. Which of the following are the recommended functions of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics
Committee?
I. Advises the medical staff and pharmacy service on matters pertaining to the
choice of drugs available for patient and diagnostic testing
II. Adds and deletes drugs in the hospital formulary or drug list and continually
reviews it
III. Ensures constant supply of drugs by facilitating regular inventory and stocks
review
A) I, II, III only

B) I, II only
C) I, III only
D) II and III only
E) I only
The pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is also mandated to review all drug reactions occurring
in the hospital, and to evaluate and approve the protocols for the use of investigational and
experimental drugs Brown 35
_____ 205. By custom, acts as the Secretary of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee.
A) Registered nurse
B) Head of the legal division of the hospital
C) Medical director
D) Pharmacist
E) Administrative clerk
By custom, it is the pharmacist who acts as the secretary of the Pharmacy and
Therapeutics Committee. However, this is not always a good idea since it is difficult to
take the minutes and at the same time participate actively in the meeting. Brown 35
____ 206. When medications are dispensed to patients at the time of their discharge, the labels
must not include:
I. Full name of the patient

II. Name of the drug, strength, and amount dispersed
III. Unit cost of the drug
IV. Name of prescribing practitioner
A) I, II, III only

B) I, II, III, IV
C) II only
D) I and II only
E) I, II and IV only
Other pertinent information that must be written on the label of medications include: name, address,
and phone number of the hospital pharmacy; date and pharmacy’s prescription number; directions
for use; identification of individual dispensing; and required or any other important cautionary labels.
Brown 39
_____ 207. Refers to a defined course or method to guide and determine present and future
decisions.
A) Framework
B) Policy
C) Operations
D) Procedure
E) Strategic planning
A policy is a broad, general plan that provides a framework for action. A policy statement addresses
specifically what must be done. Brown 45
_____ 208. Refers to a series of steps followed in a regular definite sequence in order to
accomplish something.
A) Framework
B) Policy
C) Operations
D) Procedure
E) Vision-mission statement
A procedure addresses the question of how the thing that must be done. It provides an explanation
of the means or method, by which a policy is carried out and, in so doing, starts at the beginning of
the task and, in step-by-step process, outlines that task through a complete cycle. Brown 45
______209. Which of the following are included in the administrative information division of most
policy and procedure manuals?
I. Personnel policies and procedure
II. Philosophy
III. Organizational relationships
IV. Job descriptions
A) I only
B) II only
C) I, II, III only
D) II and IV only
E) II, III, IV only
Administrative information section would include, but not limited to, information regarding personnel
policies and procedures, organizational relationships, job descriptions, and control procedures for
use of departmental resources. The institution’s and the department’s philosophies, together with
their description, development, objectives and goals, comprise the general information section.
Brown 46
_____ 210. Which of the following is/are characteristics of the information contained in policy and
procedure manuals?
I. Current
II. Reliable
III. Static
A) I only
B) II only
C) I, II III only
D) I, II only
E) II, III only
The information contained in the policy and the procedure manual must be current and reliable.
Because of the dynamic character of the pharmacy department, the manual must also be flexible
and readily revisable.Brown 56
_____ 211. Which of the following factors mainly determine the type of services offered by a
hospital?
I. Government health policies

II. The health care services demand of the patients in the target market
III. The resources of the organization
A) I only
B) II only
C) I, II III only
D) I, II only
E) II, III only
In health care terms, the product or good is presented in terms of service offered. The type of
service (i.e. inpatient care, outpatient care, rehabilitation service, etc.) is determined by the demands
of the patients in the target market and the resources of the organization available. Brown 58
____ 212. Which of the following are components of hospital marketing?
I. Product or type of service

II. Price
III. Place
IV. Promotion
A) I and II only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, III only
D) II, III, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
The four P’s of marketing include the product, price, place and promotion. Place refers to where the
services are offered. Promotion refers to how the organization lets know about its services. Brown
58-59
____ 213. Refers to an amount that is above the break-even cost of providing a product or service
and is necessary to provide for replacement and upgrading of hospital equipment and facilities.
A) Overhead costs
B) Revenue deductions
C) Direct personnel costs
D) Supply cost
Profit margin, definition. A revenue deduction refers to a percentage of third party disallowances,
contractual allowances, bad debts, etc., which reduces the actual revenue received from charges.
Direct personnel cost refers to salaries for the man hours required; a percentage for vacation and
absences ; a percentage to account for an average productivity of less than 100%; and, a
percentage for fringe benefits. Direct supply cost accounts for labels, vials, syringes, needles, etc.
used in preparing or distributing the product. Fixed overhead cost refers to a percentage of fixed
departmental management, supervision and clerical coat, office supplies, subscriptions, equipment,
depreciation etc. Brown 67
____ 214. Refers to the pricing method wherein the price is calculated by adding a fixed fee to the
acquisition cost of the unit of product dispensed.
A) Percentage markup method

B) Dispensing fee method
C) Per diem method
D) Standard method
E) Special cost method
Dispensing fee method is the most commonly used pricing method. This method allocates the
pharmacy service charge without any relationship to the cost of the product dispensed. Brown 68
____215. Refers to the pricing method where the patient receiving a more costly drug pays for a
proportionally larger part of overall pharmacy service costs regardless of amount of service received.

C) Per diem method
D) Standard method
The percentage mark up method is based on the assumption that the inventory holding cost of a
higher cost product is proportionally higher. This method ignores the professional service
component, and that the cost of drug product.Brown 68S
_____ 216. Refers to the pricing method wherein the average drug cost per patient day, the average
pharmacy service cost per patient day, and the desired profit margin are computed to arrive at a
single pharmacy charge for each day the patient stayed in the hospital.

C) Per diem method
D) Standard method
The per diem charge method has been promoted on the premise that the pharmacy costs do not
vary sufficiently among patients to warrant the clerical and logistical costs of processing charges for
individual units or doses of drugs. Brown 68
____ 217. A visual display technique that can be used as a scheduling tool for the entire planning
process.
A) Curve fitting
B) Gant chart
C) Cyclical change
D) Regression
E) Distribution
The Ghantt chart can be modified to show activities, persons responsible, and the time schedule in
graphic form. Brown 161
____ 218.A physical quantity of a drug product ordered by a prescriber to be administered to a

specific patient at one time, in ready to administer form with no further physical or chemical
alterations required.
A) Unit dose package

B) Single unit dose
C) Unit dose
D) Multiple dose
E) Unit dose dispensing system
Unit dose, definition. Brown 325
_____ 219. A package that contains one discrete pharmaceutical dosage form
A) Unit dose package

B) Single unit dose
C) Unit dose
D) Multiple dose
E) Unit dose dispensing system
Unit dose package, definition. Brown 325
____ 220. Refers to the act of a pharmacist in supplying one or more drug products to or for patient,
usually in response to an order from an authorized prescriber.
A) Patient counseling
B) Drug utilization review
C) Distribution
D) Compounding
E) Dispensing
Dispensing, definition. Brown 325
_____ 221. Refers to a system that has as its purpose the selection, acquisition, control, storage,
dispensing, delivery, preparation and administration of a drug product in health care institutions in
response of an authorized prescriber.
A) Drug distribution control system

B) Drug use information system
C) Drug distribution system
D) Drug packaging system
E) Drug availability system
Drug distribution system, definition. It may also be referred as medication distribution system, drug
management system, or drug management system, or drug delivery system. Brown 325
____ 222. Which of the following are considered as drug distribution control information necessary to
ensure that a unit dose package is delivered as ordered to the right patient, at the right date, at the
right time?
I. A description of the unit dose ordered

II. Socio-economic status of the patient
III. Identification and location of the patient
IV. Time and date of administration
A) I, II, III, IV
B) I, II, III only
C) I, III, IV only
D) II, III, IV only
E) I, II IV only
Other drug distribution control information include: an order validated by a pharmacist; transportation
instructions; labeling, both in route and in temporary storage locations; and feedback signaling
deviations from the performance standards. Brown 325-326
____223. A standard “bid” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at:
A) 7am and 7pm

B) 8am and 8pm
C) 6am and 6pm
D) 9am and 9pm
E) 10am and 10pm
There exists a standard dosing schedule in each hospital that dictates for a given patient care unit
the hours at which doses will be given. Generally, the dosing schedule are as follows: tid 9AM-1PM-
5PM; bid is 10AM-10PM; and 16h is 9 AM-3PM-9PM-3AM. Brown 325-326
_____ 224. A standard “tid” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at:
A) 8am-12nn-4pm
B) 9am-1pm-5pm
C) 10am-2pm-6pm
D) 7am-11am-3pm
E) 6am-10am-2pm
Refer to #223.
_____ 225.a standard “q6h” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at:
A) 7am-1pm-7pm-1am
B) 8am-2pm-8pm-2am
C) 9am-3pm-9pm-3am
D) 6amn-12nn-6pm-12am
E) 10am-4pm-10pm-4am
Refer to #223.
_____226. Refers to a drug distribution system wherein a bulk supply of each drug product is
maintained on the nursing unit in advance of need and the nurse prepares the dose s for
administration.
A) Patient prescription system

B) Floor stock
C) Emergency carts
D) Unit dose dispensing system
E) Decentralized system
Floor stock system cuts the lines of communication for drug orders short. Decisions about orders
and dose preparation are decentralized and can be made at the patient’s bedside. The distribution
from the pharmacy to patient care areas can be done as a batch. At present, this system is utilized
primarily on military and government hospitals, where the demand for unit dose is specialized and
thereby limited in variety. Brown 333
____ 227. Refers to a drug distribution system wherein all drugs are retained in the pharmacy until
the order is received, and then a multiple dose supply is dispensed to the nursing unit labeled for
use by a specific patient.
A) Patient prescription system

B) Floor stock
C) Emergency carts
D) Unit dose dispensing system
E) Decentralized system
The placing of each patient’s doses in drawer of a medicine cart or cassette with his or her name on
it performs essentially the same control function as labeling a prescription with the patient’s name.
Brown 333
____228. Factors aside from the system design that affect the total system cost of maintaining a
hospital drug distribution system.
I. Mission of the hospital

II. Bed size
III. Physical layout of the hospital
IV. Enforcement of performance standards
A) I, II, III,IV
B) II and III only
C) I, II, IV only
D) I, IV only
E) I, III, IV only
Other external factors that affect the total system cost of a hospital drug distribution system
maintenance include: objectives of the system; policies on personal utilization; and automation.
Brown 342
_____229. Which of the following is/are advantages of unit dose dispensing systems?
I. Less drug losses due to waste and pilferage

II. Greater accuracy in inventory control, cost accounting, and charging
III. Improved ability of the hospital to attract and retain highly qualified
and motivated pharmacy personnel
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) II only
E) I, II, III only
The cost per dose to the hospital operating under a unit dose system is less. Decentralized
distribution systems are more expensive than centralized systems due to loss of economies of scale,
poor utilization of personnel due to inflexibility in staffing, duplication of inventories, extra space and
equipment costs, and poor intrapharmacy communication control. Brown 345
____ 230. A “stat” order means:
I. The drug is to be administered immediately

II. The order takes precedence over the regularly scheduled medications
III. The drug is to be administered at a specified time
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II, III only
E) II and III only
A stat order takes precedence over the regularly scheduled medications since it needs to be
administered immediately. The ordering of such is sometimes abused with the result that they soon
become treated as any other routine order. Brown 352
_____231. Which of the following is/are true regarding subcutaneous injection administration?
I. The main areas of administration are the thigh, abdomen and the
upper arm
II. The needle is inserted through the skin at a 90 degree angle
III. Rotation of the injection site will reduce the chance of local irritation
A) I, II, III only

B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) II only
In subcutaneous injection administration, a 23-gauge needle of ¾-inch length is usually selected. It
is injected at a 45-60 degree angle with a quick dart-throwing action of the wrist. Brown 353
_____232. Which of the following is/are true regarding intramuscular injection administration?
I. The usual sites are the deltoid and gluteal muscles

II. 5-6mLis usually the recommended maximal volume
III. The needle is inserted through the skin at a 45-60 degree angle
A) I, II, III only

B) I, II only
C) I, III only
D) I only
E) III only
In intramuscular injection administration, the needle is inserted by the dart technique through the
skin at a 90-degree angle. The recommended maximal volume is usually set as 3-4 ml. Brown 353
______ 233. Which of the following is/are true regarding intradermal injection?
I. Used to check circulating antibodies to the injected antigen

II. Intradermal skin test is usually read at 24, 36, 48 hours
III. A reddened area of induration of 5mm or grater usually indicates an intact
immune system
A) I, II, III only

B) I, II only
C) I, III only
D) I only
E) III only
The intradermal injection is primarily used to inject antigens just below the dermal layer of the skin.
The technique for this type of injection is to cleanse the area with 70% alcohol or iodophor, hold the
skin taut, and insert the needle bevel up, approximately 1/8 inch into the skin, at an angle almost
parallel to the skin. Brown 354
_____ 234. Which of the following are indications of intravenous therapy?
I. Replacement of fluids and electrolytes

II. Parenteral nutrition
III. Administration of drugs requiring a rapid high blood level
IV. Emergency situations like cardiac arrest
A) I, III only
B) I, II, III only
C) I, III, IV only
D) II, III, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
In addition, intravenous therapy can also be indicated for administration of drugs that are too
irritating to be given intramuscularly or subcutaneously such as vincristine, and when no other route
is available for the administration of the medication. Brown 354
_____ 235. Which of the following are possible adverse effects of intravenous administration?
I. Thrombophlebitis
II. Air emboli
III. Speed shock
IV. Injection of pathogens
A) I, III only
B) I, II, III only
C) I, III, IV only
D) II, III, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
Although IV injection provides the mist rapid and complete absorption of a medication, there are
adverse effects and complications that could possibly result from it. These include thrombophlebitis,
speed shock, air emboli and injection of pathogens. Brown 354
_____ 236. The optimal pH for aminophylline:
A) Below 7.0
B) Above 7.0
C) Above 8.0
D) Below 8.0
E) Above 6.0
The optimal pH range for aminophylline is above pH 8.0 theophylline crystals will deposit below pH
8.0, but probably not unless the concentration is over 40mg/mg. the high pH of aminophylline may
also create stability problems with a number of antibiotics and other alkaline-labile compounds.
Brown 373
____ 237.Which of the following is/are nutrition support activities of a pharmacist?
I. Catheter care
II. Nutritional assessment
III. Parenteral formulation design
IV. Metabolic monitoring of therapy
A) I and III only

B) II and III only
C) I, III, IV only
D) III and IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
Nutrition support activities of a pharmacist also include ensuring the availability of IV nutrients,
proper preparation and delivery of TPN preparations, supply management and education of home
patients and pharmacologic interventions with nutrition support. Catheter care is a function of a
nurse and nutritional assessment is a function of a dietician. Brown 376
____ 238. Which of the following is/are the essential human nutrients for intravenous inlets?
I. Carbohydrates
II. Proteins
III. Electrolytes
IV. Fats
A) I and III only

B) II and III only
C) I, III, IV only
D) III and IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
The seven basic nutrients required by the human body that are essential for intravenous diets
include carbohydrate, protein, electrolytes, fats, vitamins, trace minerals and water. Brown 379
___ 239. The most important human nutrient required for tissue synthesis, repair, transport of body
nutrients and waste, and maintenance of immune function.
A) Carbohydrates
B) Proteins
C) Fats
D) Electrolytes
E) Water
For the hospitalized patient, protein of high biologic value as provided by commercially available
amino acid products is recommended. Brown 379
____ 240.The most widely utilized carbohydrate in parenteral nutrition because of its low cost,
availability, and proven utility.
A) Glycerol
B) Fructose
C) Sucrose
D) Dextrose
E) Lactose
Dextrose is available in a wide variety of concentration to allow formulation individualization. A
relatively new carbohydrate source is glycerol. Aside from its ability to yield same kcal/g as dextrose
, it has the advantage of not stimulating insulin release. Brown 381
____ 241. Which of the following is/ are mechanical tube feeding complications?
I. Aspiration pneumonia
II. Mucosal erosions
III. Hypertonic
IV. Nasopharyngeal irritation
A) I. II only
B) III, IV only
C) I, II, III, only
D) I, II, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
Mechanical tube feeding complications include aspiration pneumonia, mucosal erosions, tube lumen
obstruction, tube displacement. And nasopharyngeal irritation. Brown 387
____ 242. Which of the following is/ are metabolic tube feeding complication?
I. Electrolyte imbalance
II. Glucose intolerance
III. Diarrhea
IV. Distention
A) I, II only
B) III, IV only
C) I, II, III only
D) I, II, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
Metabolic tube feeding complications include electrolyte imbalance, fluid overload, glucose
intolerance, and hypertonic dehydration. Brown 387
______ 243. The extent to which a technique consistently measures whatever it measures
regardless of the investigator or the situation.
A) Validity
B) Dependability
C) Vulnerability
D) Sensitivity
E) Reliability
Reliability, definition. Brown 437
_____ 244. Which of the following is/are gastrointestinal tube feeding complications?
I. Electrolyte imbalance
II. Glucose intolerance
III. Diarrhea
IV. Distention
A) I and II only
B) III, IV only
C) I, II, III only
D) I, II, IV only
E) I, II ,III, IV
Gastrointestinal complications include cramping, diarrhea, distention and vomiting. Brown 387
_____ 245. The extent to which a technique measures what is intended to measure?
A) Validity
B) Dependability
C) Vulnerability
D) Sensitivity
E) Reliability
Validity, definition. Brown 437
____ 246. An authorized, structured and continuing program that reviews, analyzes, and interprets
patterns of the drug usage in a given health care delivery system against pre-determined standards.
A) Pharmaceutical care plan

B) Therapeutic drug monitoring
C) Drug utilization
D) Quality assurance
E) Drug auditing and inventory control
Drug utilization review, definition. Brown 449
____247. Pre-clinical studies that determine the new drug’s absorptive, distributive, metabolic and
excretory pathways.
A) Pharmacologic studies
B) Pharmacodynamic studies
C) Toxicologic studies
D) Pharmacokinetic studies
E) Biogenetic studies
The general purpose of pharmacokinetic studies is to estimate the pharmacokinetic parameters,
such as plasma drug concentration, biologic half-life, drug distribution, metabolism and excretion.
Brown 471
____ 248. Pre-clinical studies that determine the action of the new drug in animals to estimate the
magnitude of its intended therapeutic effect.
Pharmacologic studies are initiated to obtain data to show that there will not be unreasonable risks in
conducting human research. This is done by extrapolating, when possible, the animal data to
humans. Brown 471
_____ 249. Pre-clinical studies that determine the relative safety in human and monitor parameters
that will be used in clinical trials.
Preclinical toxicity studies are important because the initial benefit or risk assessment for use of the
drug in humans is made from these studies. Brown 471
______250. Any drug that has not yet been released for general use, and has not yet been cleared
for sale in commerce.
I. Investigational drug
II. Experimental drug
III. Regulated drug
IV. New drug
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I and IV only
E) I, II IV only
Investigational, or new drug, definition. This drug is not necessarily a new chemical substance, but
maybe an old or approved drug proposed for a new use, a new combination of old drugs in new
proportion, or a new dosage form or method of administration, or it maybe a new drug because it
contains a new component such as an excipient, a coating, or a menstrum. Brown 471
______ 251. Various strategies and techniques are in place for use in counseling and educating
patients. The affective domain of learning process involves:
I. Perceptions
II. Emotions
III. Memory
IV. Beliefs
A) I only
B) I, II only
C) I, II, IV only
D) I, II, III only
E) IV only
Tine affective domain of learning process involves the formation of attitudes such as feelings,
beliefs, perceptions, emotions, and appreciations. Remington 1679
_____ 252. The behavioral domain of learning process involves:
I. Decision making
II. Actions
III. Physical abilities
IV. Perceptions
A) I only
B) I, II only
C) I, II, IV only
D) I, II, III only
E) IV only
This behavioral domain of learning process is developed from what the person knows and feels, in
conjunction with the nature and requirements of their social environments. This domain covers
actions, decision making and physical abilities. Remington 1679
_______253. An order for medication issued by physician, dentist, or other properly licensed medical
practitioner.
A) Medication profile
B) Patient chart
C) Voucher
D) Prescription
E) Insurance policy
The prescription order is a part of the professional relationship among the prescriber, the
pharmacist, and the patient. Prescriptions designate a specific medication and dosage to be
administered to a particular patient at a particular time. Remington 1687
_______ 254. Medications that may be dispensed legally only on prescription.
A) Over-the-counter drugs
B) Sample drugs
C) Imported drugs
D) Investigational drugs
E) Legend drugs
Medications that may dispensed legally only on prescriptions are referred to as prescriptions or
legend drugs. Nonprescription drugs or over-the-counter drugs may be obtained without prescription.
Remington 1687
________ 255. Prescription part generally understood to be a contraction of the Latin verb “recipe”
meaning “take thou” or “you take”.
A) Superscription
B) Inscription
C) Subscription
D) Signature
E) Transcription
Superscription is the Rx symbol. This symbol is believed to have originated from the sign of Jupiter
which was employed by the ancients in requesting aid in healing. Remington 1688
_______ 256. The body or principal part of the prescription order that contains the names and the
quantities of the prescribed ingredients.
A) Superscription
B) Inscription
C) Subscription
D) Signature
E) Transcription
Today, since most drugs are already prepared or prefabricated into dosage forms, the medications
may be prescribed under their trademarked or manufacturer’s propriety name or by their generic
names. Remington 1688
______ 257. Part of prescription that consists of directions to the pharmacist for preparing the
prescription.
A) Superscription
B) Inscription
C) Subscription
D) Signature
E) Transcription
In a majority of prescriptions, the subscription serves merely to designate the dosage form and the
number of dosage units to be supplied. Remington 1688
______258. Part of the prescription where the prescriber indicates the directions for the patient’s use
of medication.
A) Superscription
B) Inscription
C) Subscription
D) Signature
E) Transcription
The word Signature is usually abbreviated to Signa or sig. which means mark thou. The directions
are commonly written using abbreviated forms of English and Latin terms or a combination of the
two. Remington 1690
_____ 259. They are commonly used abbreviations in prescription and medication orders.
A) Before meals
B) Up to
C) Left ear
D) Each ear
E) Of each
The abbreviation means as means of each. Remington 1689
______260. The abbreviation “po” means:
A) After surgery
B) Rectally
C) By mouth
D) When necessary
E) After eating
F) The abbreviation po means by mouth.
G) Remington 1689
_____261. The abbreviation “ss” means:
A) Without
B) Symptom
C) Suppository
D) One half
E) Immediately
The abbreviation as means one-half. Remington 1689
______262. Defined as the preparation, mixing, assembly, packaging, or labeling of a drug/ device
as a result of prescription-drug order.
A) Pharmacy dispensing
B) Pharmacy compounding
C) Pharmacy manufacturing
D) Pharmacy quality assurance
E) Pharmacy practice
Pharmacy compounding, definition. Remington 1689
______ 263. Used for bulk powders, large quantities of tablets, capsules, viscous liquids that cannot
be poured readily.
A) Prescription bottles
B) Applicator bottles
C) Wide-mouth bottles
D) Round vials
E) Sifter-top containers
Applicator bottles are used for applying liquid medication to a wound or skin surface. Round vials are
used primarily for solid dosage forms as capsules and tablets. Remington 1697
________ 264. Used for powders to be applied by sprinkling:
B) Slide boxes
D) Dropper bottles
E) Aerosol containers
Slide boxes are used for dispensing suppositories and powders appeared in packets. Aerosol
containers are used for pharmaceutical aerosol products. They are pressurized systems dispensed
by the pharmacist in the original container. Remington 1697
_______ 265. Used for dispensing solid dosage forms:
B) Applicator bottles
D) Round vials
E) Sifter-top containers
Ointment jars and collapsible tubes are used to dispense semi-solid dosage forms, such as creams
and ointments. Dropper bottles are used for dispensing ophthalmic, nasal, otic, or oral liquids to be
administered by drop. Remington 1697
______266. Any substance that may be considered a food or part of a food that provides medical or
health benefits, including prevention and treatment of disease.
A) Designer food
B) Nutraceutical
C) Pharmafood
D) Phytochemical
E) Chemopreventive agent
Nutraceutical, definition. Remington 1734
_____267. Substances found in edible fruits and vegetable that may be ingested by humans daily in
gram quantities and that exhibit an potential for modulating human metabolism in a manner
favorable for cancer prevention.
A) Designer food
B) Nutraceutical
C) Pharmafood
D) Phytochemical
Phytochemical, definition. Remington 1734
_____268. Nutritive or non nutritive food component being scientifically investigated as a potential
inhibitor of carcinogenesis for primary and secondary cancer.
A) Designer food
B) Nutraceutical
C) Pharmafood
D) Phytochemical
Chemopreventive agent, definition. Remington 1734
_____ 269. Processed food that are supplemented with food ingredients naturally rich in disease-
preventing substances.
A) Designer food
B) Nutraceutical
C) Pharmafood
D) Phytochemical
Designer food, definition. Remington 1734
_____270. Which of the following are considered as categories of Complementary and Alternative
Medicine?
I. Mind-body interventions
II. Biolectromagnetic interventions
III. Herbal medicine
IV. Diet and nutrition
A) I, II only
B) II, IV only
C) I, II ,III only
D) I, II, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
According to the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine, the seven categories
of complementary and alternative medicine are: mind-body interventions; bioelectromagnetic
therapies; alternative systems of medical practice; manual healing methods; pharmacological and
biological treatments; herbal medicine; and, diet and nutrition. Remington 1766
_____ 271. An ancient Chinese healing art that employs fine needles inserted at various locations in
the body to restore the smooth flow of energy.
A) Hypnosis
B) Allopathy
C) Acupuncture
D) Acupressure
E) Homeopathy
Acupuncture has been a primary practice of the health care system of China for at least 2500 years.
The National Institute of Health concluded that there is a clear evidence of efficacy for treating
postoperative and chemotherapy nausea and vomiting, the nausea of pregnancy and postoperative
dental pain Remington 1766
_______272. A therapeutic method that clinically applies the Law of Similar (like cures like) and the
uses medically active, potentized substances at weak or infinitesimal doses.
A) Ayurvedic medicine
B) Chiropractic
C) Hypnosis
D) Homeopathy
E) Allopathy
Homeopathy, definition. Remington 1779
______ 273. A state of altered consciousness, sleep or trance induced artificially in a subject by
means of verbal suggestion or by the subject concentrating upon some subject.
A) Hypnosis
B) Chiropractic
C) Allopathy
D) Homeopathy
E) Iridology
Hypnosis, definition. Remington 1779
______ 274. A diagnostic tool that purports to correlate changes in the color and texture of the iris
with mental and physical disorders.
A) Hypnosis
B) Chiropractic
C) Allopathy
D) Homeopathy
E) Iridology
Iridology, definition. Remington 1779
_____ 275. Referred to a specialty practice of pharmacy that focuses upon the safe and efficacious
use of radioactive drugs.
I. Nuclear pharmacy
II. Radiopharmacy
III. Institutional Pharmacy
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II ,III only
E) I, III only
Nuclear pharmacy deals with the safe and efficacious use of radioactive drugs. Nuclear pharmacy is
also known as radiopharmacy. Remington 1781
_____ 276. A drug that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of
nuclear particles or photons.
A) Designer drug
B) Prohibited drug
C) Dangerous drug
D) Over-the-counter drug
E) Radioactive drug
Radioactive drug, definition. It includes any non-radioactive kit or muscle generator that is intended
to be used in the preparation of any such substance. Remington 1781
____277. Which of the following is/are true regarding radiopharmaceutics?
I. Lack pharmacological effects

II. Employed as tracers of physiological functions
III. Small amounts produce negligible effects on biological processes
A) II only
B) I and II only
C) II, III only
D) I, II, III only
E) III only
Most radiopharmaceuticals consist of radioactive atoms attached to, or incorporated into other
chemical compounds that serve to carry the radioactive atoms to the intended tissues or organs.
Their radioactivity allows noninvasive external monitoring or targeted therapeutic irradiation.
Remington 1781
_____ 278. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for bone scans:
A) Tc-99m diphosphonates
B) Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin
C) TI- thalous chloride
D) Sr-89 strontium chloride
E) I-131 sodium iodide
Radiopharmaceuticals can either be diagnostic or therapeutic. Examples of diagnostic include: Tc-
99m diphoshonates for bone scans; Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin for lung scans; and TI-201
thallous chloride for myocardial perfusion scans. Remington 1781
_____ 279. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical for myocardial perfusion scans:
Refers to #278
____ 280. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for lung scans:
Refers to #278
____ 281. Which of the following is/are true regarding the functions of Vit. A?
I. Acts as anti-rachitic vitamin

II. Maintains the integrity of epithelial membranes
III. Essential in the formation of rhodopsin and the normal functioning of
the retina
A) I only
B) II, III only
C) I, II, III only
D) I, III only
E) II only
Vitamin A was the first fat-soluble vitamin discovered. Of its known function, it role in the visual
process is established best. It also participates in the maintenance of the integrity of the epithelial
membranes. Vitamin D is the antirachitic vitamin. Remington 1799-1800
_____282. Which of the following is/are true regarding the functions of Vit.C?
I. Formation of intercellular collagen

II. Healing of bone fractions
III. Metabolism of tyrosine
A) I only
B) II, III only
C) I, II, III only
D) I, III only
E) II only
Vitamin c, also known as the antiscorbutic vitamin, is needed to prevent and cure scurvy. It serves
as a function in the formation of intercellular collagen, healing of bone fractures and tyrosine
metabolism. Remington 1805
____283. Hospitals may be classified in different ways according to:
I. Type of service
II. Length of stay
III. Ownership
IV. Bed capacity
A) I, II, III, IV
B) I, II, II only
C) I, III only
D) I, IV only
E) I, II, IV only
Hospitals can be classified in different ways. The classification may be according to type of service,
length of stay, ownership and bed capacity. Remington 1915
_____ 284. Which of the following are fundamental functions of a hospital?
I. Patient care
II. Wellness
III. Research
IV. Education
A) I, II only
B) I, II, IV only
C) I, II ,III only
D) I, II only
E) I, II, III, IV
Traditionally, hospitals have a limited function of giving treatment and care of the sick and the
injured. However, through the years, its functions expanded to cover patient care, education,
research, and wellness. Remington 1916
_____285. Which of the following is/are true regarding open questions?
I. Allow the patient sufficient latitude in interpreting and responding to

requests for information
II. Cannot be answered in one phrase or with “yes” or “no”
III. Its unlimited use will result in an overly long unfocused and inefficient
interview
A) I only
B) II, III only
C) I, II, III
D) I, II only
E) II only
Open questions are broad and asks for information and specifics about the topic in a general way.
The excessive use of open questions will result in an overly long, rambling, unfocused, and
inefficient interview. Remington 1961
_____ 286. The provision of integrated, accessible health-care services by clinicians who are
accountable for addressing a large majority of personal health-care needs developing a sustained
partnership with patient, and practicing in the context of family and community.
A) Disease management
B) Acute care
C) Primary care
D) Institutional care
E) Long-term care
Primary care, definition. Remington 1991
_____ 287. An evaluative approach to health-care delivery system that attempts to improve
outcomes for patients with a specific disease while optimizing the overall use of health-care
outcomes.
A) Patient-focused care
B) Benefit management
C) Disease management
D) Case management
E) Primary care
Disease management, definition. Remington 1993
_____ 288. A process by which an experienced professional works with patients, providers, and
insurers to coordinate all services deemed necessary to provide the patient with medically
appropriate health care.
A) Patient-focused care
B) Benefit management
C) Disease management
D) Case management
E) Institutional care
Case management, definition. Remington 1994
_____ 289. Categories listed by application of the US Food and Drug Administration definitions to
available clinical data in order to define a drug’s potential to cause birth defects or fetal death.
A) Phenol coefficient
B) Relative risk ratio
C) Bioequivalence requirement
D) Pregnancy risk
E) Therapeutic index
The pregnancy risk category identifies the potential risk to the fetus. The categories are labeled A, B,
C, D, X, and NR. Drugs in category A usually are considered safe to use in pregnancy, category X
drugs are usually contraindicated. Physician’s Drug Handbook xi
_____290. A pregnancy risk category that indicates an adequate studies in pregnant women have
failed to shop a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy and no evidence of risks in later
trimesters.
A) Category B
B) Category D
C) Category A
D) Category C
E) Category S
Animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in
human.
_____ 291. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that studies in animals or human show fetal
abnormalities, or adverse reaction reports indicate evidence of fetal risk.
A) Category B
B) Category A
C) Category O
D) Category X
E) Category Y
There is evidence of risk to the human fetus.
_____292. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that animal studies have shown an adverse
effect on the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in humans.
A) Category C
B) Category B
C) Category D
D) Category E
E) Category O
Adequate studies in pregnant women have failed to show a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of
pregnancy, and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters.
_____ 293. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that there is evidence of risk to the human
fetus, but the potential benefits of use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite potential risks.
A) Category E
B) Category B
C) Category D
D) Category A
E) Category X
Animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in
humans.
____ 294. A pregnancy category that indicates that animal studies have not shown an adverse effect
on the fetus, but there are no adequate clinical studies in pregnant women.
A) Category D
B) Category B
C) Category X
D) Category A
E) Category C
Animal studies have not shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but there are no adequate clinical
studies in pregnant women.
____ 295. Which of the following is/ are forms of non-verbal communication?
I. Clothing and style

II. Posture
III. Eye contact
IV. Proximity to other person
A) II, III only

B) III only
C) I, II, III only
D) I. II, IV only
E) I, II, III, IV
Forms of non verbal communication may be speech related (e.g. timing and pauses), non-verbal
behavior (e.g. posture and position, eye contact, proximity to other person, etc.), use of body,
aspects of personal appearance (e.g. clothing and hairstyle, smell, etc.,), symbols, sign languages,
written word, or use of media. Katz 119-120
_____ 296. Which of the following is/are examples of mechanical barriers to effective listening and
communication?
I. Noise
II. Harsh lighting
III. Impaired eyesight
IV. Uncomfortable chairs
A) I, II, III, IV
B) I, II, III only
C) II, III only
D) I, II, IV only
E) I. II only
Mechanical barriers to effective listening and communication may include lack of a conducive
environment in which to communicate, fatigue, medication side effects and impaired sight. Katz 131
_____ 297. A skilled and principled use of relationships to facilitate self-knowledge, emotional
acceptance and growth, and the optimal development of personal resources.
A) Communication
B) Counseling
C) Listening
D) Health promotion
E) Problem-solving
Counselling, definition by British Association of Counselling, 1989. Katz 133
_____ 298. The ability to see the world from the point of view of another person, through their frame
of reference, through their conceptual and emotional spectacle.
A) Sympathy
B) Genuineness
C) Listening
D) Empathy
E) Involvement
Empathy, definition. Katz 143
____ 299. According to the preventive model, which of the following is/ are function/s of tertiaty level
of prevention?
I. Prevention of deterioration, relapse, and complications

II. Promotion of rehabilitation
III. Prevention of onset disease
A) I, II, III only

B) I, II only
C) I, III only
D) II. III only
E) I only
According to the preventive model, tertiary level of prevention is concerned to prevent deterioration,
relapse and complications, promote rehabilitation, and help adjustment to terminal conditions. Katz
164
____ 300. According to the preventive model, which of the following is/ are function/s of secondary
level of prevention?
I. Help adjustment to terminal conditions

II. Minimization of the severity of an existing disease
III. Reversal of progress of an existing disease
A) I, II III only
B) I, II only
C) I, III only
D) II, III only
E) I only
According to preventive model, secondary level of prevention is concerned to prevent development
of existing disease, minimize its severity, reverse its progress, and reduce prevalence. Primary level
of prevention is concerned to prevent onset of disease, and reduce incidence Katz 164

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Subject: HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY

General Instructions: Select the letter of the BEST answer.

A) Total parenteral nutrition

A) Total parenteral nutrition

A) Total parenteral nutrition

A) Total parenteral nutrition

______15. It is a therapeutic agent whose place in therapy is well-established.

______16. It is a commercially available, nonformulary agent that is temporarily made available to a

_____ 18.It is a therapeutic agent undergoing clinical investigation.

______ 27. Drug product incorrectly formulated or manipulated before administration.

A) Deteriorated drug error

______ 28. Inappropriate procedure or improper technique in the administration of a drug.

A) Deteriorated drug error

A) Deteriorated drug error

A) Deteriorated drug error

______31. Inappropriate patient behavior regarding adherence to a prescribed medication regimen.

________43. Authorized exchange of therapeutic alternatives in accordance with previously

_____ 48. It is an abnormal susceptibility to a drug that is peculiar to an individual.

____50. It is expected, well-known reaction resulting in little or no change in patient management.

____51. The daily intravenous requirement of sodium is ____________.

___53. The daily intravenous requirement of magnesium is ____________.

___54. The daily intravenous requirement of calcium is ____________.

______55. The daily intravenous requirement of phospate is ____________.

___56. The daily intravenous requirement of chloride is ____________.

___60. It is the advancement of medical knowledge against diseases.

___67. Public health activities include all except:

A) Poison prevention measures

____68. Internal factor that affects the practice of hospital pharmacy.

____ 69. Third-party payers exert their influence on:

_____71. Requirements for registration of hospitals include all except:

_____ 72. The following are sources of income of hospitals except:

____74. He is the Greek god of Medicine.

A) Prospective Payment System

____76. Factors in the development and expansion of hospitals except:

____77. Factors in the development and expansion of hospitals except

A) Activities of Florence Nightingale during Crimean War

A) Neomycin irrigation solution

_____82. Intra-articular injection refers to injection into the:

_____83. Advantages of intravenous route include:

A) Ease of removal of the dose

A) When an irritating drug is given

A) 25 gauge 5/8 inches

A) Its pH range is 3.5-6.5

A) Use of Luer-Lok syringe fittings

_____92. Process stimulation is:

A) A method of quality assurance

_____94. Type A ADRs are characterized by which of the following?

_____95. Preventable ADRs

A) Generally display mild symptoms

A) Facilities and equipment

_____97. Medical emergency services of the pharmacy department belong to:

_____98. Medication therapy monitoring includes an assessment of the following, except;

A) Appropriateness of the route

A) Clinical care plans

_____103. What are the two basic parts of a needle?

A) Bevel and lumen

A) Under the collar bone

_____107. Hypersensitivity reactions are examples of what type of ADR?

_____108. Which is not a risk factor for ADR?

_____114. This group is composed of junior or less-experienced members of the staff.

_____116. This group is composed of junior or less-experienced members of the staff.

A) Volume control sets

A) Volume control sets

51. The daily intravenous requirement of sodium is ________.

_53. The daily intravenous requirement of magnesium is __________.

_54. The daily intravenous requirement of calcium is __________.

55. The daily intravenous requirement of phospate is ______.

_56. The daily intravenous requirement of chloride is __________.