COLLEGE OF NURSING

SANTIAGO CITY

Name_______________________________________________ Score___________

1. To evaluate effectiveness of levodopa/carbidopa, a nurse would observe for which of the

following results?
a. Improved visual acuity
b. Reduction in short-term memory
c. Decreased level of energy
d. Lessened rigidity and tremors
2. When evaluating the extent of Parkinson’s disease, a nurse observes for which of the following
conditions?
a. Bulging eyeballs
b. Muscle rigidity
c. Diplopia
d. Hemiparesis
3. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter from the basal ganglia
a. Acetylcholine
b. GABA
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin
4. The main excitatory neurotransmitter within the corpus striatum
a. Acetylcholine
b. GABA
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin
5. The most common postural deformity in patient with Parkinson’s disease.
a. Scoliosis
b. Kyphosis
c. Lordosis
d. Sway back
6. The triad of Parkinson’s disease are the following EXCEPT:
a. Rigidity
b. Spasticity
c. Bradykinesia
d. Resting tremor
7. The most common complaint and initial symptom of Parkinson’s disease
a. Rigidity
b. Spasticity
c. Bradykinesia
d. Resting tremor
8. A sustained blink response produced after repetitive tapping over the bridge of the nose.
a. Micrographia
b. Hypomimia
c. Myerson’s sign
d. Sialorrhea
9. The state of excessive drooling of saliva seen in patient with Parkinson’s disease.
a. Micrographia
b. Hypomimia
c. Myerson’s sign
d. Sialorrhea
10. The gait of patient with Parkinson’s disease is characterize by
a. increased speed, decreased stride length
b. Inability to change direction while walking
c. Increase arm swing
d. Both a and b
11. Tremor seen in Parkinson’s disease are the following EXCEPT.
a. Begins as “pill-rolling” tremor of the index finger and thumb
b. Postural tremor can be seen when muscles are used to maintain an upright position
against gravity
c. Usually disappears during at rest.
d. Lower extremity tremor is felt during supine position
12. The most disabling among the cardinal features of Parkinson’s disease
a. Rigidity
b. Bradykinesia
c. Resting tremor
d. Postural instability
13. The drug used to replace dopamine in the brain to treat sign and symptoms of Parkinson’s
disease.
a. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)
b. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
c. Cogentin (benztropine)
d. COMT (catechol Omethyltransferase)
14. Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder of the basal ganglia causing a serious disability. The
following are negative prognostic feature EXCEPT;
a. Bradykinesia
b. Rigidity
c. Postural instability
d. Gait difficulties
15. Which of the following diseases is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to
destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Huntington’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Creutzfeldt-Jacob’s disease
16. Nurse Carol is assessing a client with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse recognize bradykinesia
when the client exhibits:
a. Intentional tremor
b. Paralysis of limbs
c. Muscle spasm
d.Lack of spontaneous movement
17. Huntington's chorea has been linked with a deficiency in the amino acid ______.
a. Lysine
b. GABA
c. Valine
d. Tyrosine
18. Which of the following is not directly related with Alzheimer's disease?
a. Senile plaques
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Tangles
d. Dementia
19. Which of the following is not associated with Reye's syndrome?
a. Coma
b.Hyperglycemia
c. Influenza B
d. Fatty liver tissue
20. Which of the following is the most common site of disc herniation?
a. C6-7
b. T12-L1
c. L4-5
d. L5-S1
21. The following are true about Anterior Cord Syndrome EXCEPT:
a. Trauma on the anterior part of the cord or damage of anterior spinal artery
b. Loss of motor function
c. Loss of sense of pain and temperature.
d. Loss of proprioception and epicritic sensation below the level of the lesion.
22. Different mechanism of injury of the spinal cord will manifest different signs and symptoms. A
flexion injury is brought about by
a. A head-on collision in which head strikes steering wheel or windshield.
b. A strong Posterior force such as rear-end collision.
c. A falls with chin hitting a stationary object
d. A vertical or axial blow to head
23. Brown- Sequard Syndrome is hemisection of the cord caused by penetration wounds with the
clinical manifestation of the following EXCEPT;
a. Contralateral: loss of pain sensation
b. Ipsilateral: loss of sensation in the dermatome segment corresponding to the level of
lesion.
c. Ipsilateral: paresis.
d. Contralateral: impaired joint position sense.
24. The dermatomal level of the umbilicus
a. T2
b. T4
c. T6
d. T10
25. Segmental level of the spinal cord that supplied the diaphragm muscle
a. C3-C5
b. C6-C8
c. T1-T3
d. T4-T8
26. In autonomic dysreflexia there is massive sympathetic discharge that is triggered by noxious
stimuli and characterized by severe pounding headache, paroxysmal hypertension, profuse
diaphoresis, nausea, nasal congestion and baradycardia. Autonomic dysreflexia is most
commonly seen in person with injuries above
a. T2
b. T4
c. T6
d. T8
27. A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) complains about a severe throbbing headache that
suddenly started a short time ago. Assessment of the patient reveals increased blood pressure
(168/94) and decreased heart rate (48/minute), diaphoresis, and flushing of the face and neck.
What action should you take first?
a. Administer the ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol).
b. Check the Foley tubing for kinks or obstruction.
c. Adjust the temperature in the patient’s room.
d. Notify the physician about the change in status.
28. A patient with a spinal cord injury at level C3-4 is being cared for in the ED. What is the priority
assessment?
a. Determine the level at which the patient has intact sensation.
b. Assess the level at which the patient has retained mobility.
c. Check blood pressure and pulse for signs of spinal shock.
d. Monitor respiratory effort and oxygen saturation level.
29. Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and lower part of the trunk?
a. Hemiplegia
b. Paraparesis
c. Quadriparesis
d. Paraplegia
30. A quadriplegic client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The first nursing intervention is:
a. Elevate his head as high as possible
b. Monitor his BP and PR
c. Assist him in emptying his bladder
d. Notify the physician
31. Saturday night palsy is due to injury of which of the following nerve
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Brachial nerve
32. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs due to the injury of which of the following nerves?
a. Peroneal nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Radial nerve
33. You are caring for Conrad who has a brain tumor and increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP).
Keeping Conrad’s head and neck alignment results in:
a. increased intrathoracic pressure
b. increased venous outflow
c. decreased venous outflow
d. increased intra-abdominal pressure
34. Marco who was diagnosed with brain tumor was scheduled for craniotomy. In preventing the

development of cerebral edema after surgery, the nurse should expect the use
of:
a. Diuretics
b. Antihypertensive
c. Steroids
d. Anticonvulsants
35. A nurse is preparing to perform a Weber test on a client. The nurse obtains which item needed
to perform this test?
a. a tongue blade
b. a stethoscope
c. a tuning fork
d. a reflex hammer
36. Which of the following dx tests compare air conduction with bone conduction
a. Rinne’s test
b. Weber’s test
c. Barany’s Rotation Test
d. Caloric Ice Test
37. Which of the ff test assesses visual acuity
a. Snellen’s Test
b. Ishihara Plate
c. Retinoscopy
d. Tonometry
38. The test uses bone conduction to test lateralization of sound.
a. Weber Test
b. Whisper TesT
 c. Rinne Test
d. Electronystagmography Test
39. The test is for distinguishing between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses.
a. Weber Test
b. Whisper Tes
c. Rinne Test
d. Electronystagmography Test
40. The type of hearing loss if sound heard best in the affected ear using the Weber’s test
a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Sensory hearing loss
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
41. Sound heard best in the normal hearing ear using the Weber’s test.
a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Sensory hearing loss
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
42. Air conduction is audible longer than bone conduction in affected ear using the Rinne’s test.
a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Sensory hearing loss
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
43. Sound heard as long or longer in the affected ear using the Rinne’s test.
a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Sensory hearing loss
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
44. Tonometry is performed on the client with a suspected diagnosis of glaucoma. The nurse
analyzes the test results as documented in the client's chart and understands that the normal
intraocular pressure is:
a. 2 to 7 mm Hg
b. 10 to 21 mm Hg
c. 22 to 30 mm Hg
d. 31 to 35 mm Hg
45. The client comments, "I frequently change my eye glasses, none of which is satisfactory and I
have difficulty focusing on my work." Which of the following disorders may the client be
experiencing?
a. Cataract
b. Glaucoma
c. detached retina
d. myopia
46. The clinic nurse notes that following several eye examinations, the physician has documented a
diagnosis of legal blindness in the client's chart. The nurse reviews the results of the Snellen chart
test expecting note which finding?
a. 20/20 vision
b. 20/40 vision
c. 20/60 vision
d. 20/200 vision
47. The client's vision is tested with a Snellen chart. The results of the tests are documented as
20/60. The nurse interprets this as:
a. the client is legally blind
b. the client's vision is normal
c. the client can read at distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20
feet
 d. the client can read only at distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can
read at 60 feet
48. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of Meniere's disease. The nurse
anticipates that the client is most likely to report which of the following symptoms during an
acute attack?
a. Tinnitus
b. Headache
c. Fatigue
d. Insomnia
49. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of Meniere's disease who is being
admitted to the hospital. The priority nursing intervention in the plan of care should focus on:
a. safety measures
b. self-care measures
c. knowledge about medication therapy
d. food items to avoid
50. A client who suffered from automobile accident complains of seeing frequent flashes of light. The
nurse should expect:
a. Myopia
b. Detached retina
c. Glaucoma
d. Scleroderma
51. Nurse Rhia is performing an otoscopic examination on a female client with a suspected diagnosis
of mastoiditis. Nurse Rhia would expect to note which of the following if this disorder is present?
a. Transparent tympanic membrane
b. Thick and immobile tympanic membrane
c. Pearly colored tympanic membrane
d. Mobile tympanic membrane
52. A Client with glaucoma has been prescribed with miotics. The nurse is aware that miotics is for:
a. Constricting pupil
b. Relaxing ciliary muscle
c. Constricting intraocular vessel
d. Paralyzing ciliary muscle
53. The primary problem in cataract is:
a. Blurring of vision
b. Loss of peripheral vision
c. Presence of floaters
d. Halos around light
54. The client with retinal detachment would least likely manifest which of the following signs &
symptoms:
a. Floating spots before the eyes
b. Flashes of light
c. Progressive constriction of vision in one area
d. Pain in the eye
55. In acute glaucoma, the obstruction to the flow of aqueous humor is caused by:
a. Thickening of the trabecular meshwork
b. Displacement of the iris
c. Narrowing of the canal schlemm
d. Constriction of the pupil
56. Which of the following is true about glaucoma?
a. It is characterized by irreversible blindness
b. It is treated with mydriatics
c. The IOP is 14-21mmHg
d. Central vision is lost initially, followed by the peripheral vision
57. Which of the following is the most characteristic manifestation of Meniere’s Dse?
 a. Tinnitus
b. Headache
c. Vertigo
d. Nausea and Vomiting
58. The diet of the client with Meniere’s disease should be:
a. Low-Protein
b. Low-fats
c. Low-potassium
d. Low-Sodium
59. You decide to discuss glaucoma prevention. Which of the following diagnostic tests should these
clients request from their care provider?
a. fluorescein stain
b. snellen’s test
c. tonometry
d. slit lamp
60. Glioma is an intracranial tumor. Which of the following statements about gliomas do you know to
be false?
a. 50% of all intracranial tumors are gliomas
b. gliomas are usually benign
c. they grow rapidly and often cannot be totally excised from the surrounding tissue
d. most glioma victims die within a year after diagnosis

61. Acoustic neuromas produce symptoms of progressive nerve deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo due to
pressure and eventual destruction of:
a. CN5
b. CN7
c. CN8
d. The ossicles
62. Glaucoma is due to damage to the optic nerve related to increased intraocular pressure (IOP)
caused by congestion of the aqueous humor. The vision characterized by glaucoma is
a. Narrowing of vision
b. Vision that is cloudy, blurry, foggy, or filmy.
c. Sensation of a shade or curtain coming across the vision of one eye.
d. Loss of central vision.
63. Retinal detachment is characterized by
a. Narrowing of vision
b. Vision that is cloudy, blurry, foggy, or filmy.
c. Sensation of a shade or curtain coming across the vision of one eye.
d. Loss of central vision.
64. It is characterized by a pink appearance (Pink eye) because of subconjunctival blood vessel
hemorrhages.
a. Chalazion
b. Orbital Cellulitis
c. Hordeolum
d. Conjunctivitis
65. Acute suppurative infection of the glands of the eyelids caused by Staphylococcus Aureus. The lid
is red and edematous with small collection of pus in the form of an abscess.
a. Chalazion
b. Orbital Cellulitis
c. Hordeolum
d. Conjunctivitis
66. Sterile inflammatory process involving chronic granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian
glands; can appear as a single granuloma or multiple granulomas in the upper or lower eyelids.
a. Chalazion
b. Orbital Cellulitis
c. Hordeolum
d. Conjunctivitis
67. An inner ear disorder cause by disturbance of equilibrium due to constant motion that over
stimulate the vestibular system.
a. Ménière’s disease
b. Ataxia
c. Nystagmus
d. Motion sickness
68. An abnormal inner ear fluid balance caused by a malabsorption in the endolymphatic sac.
a. Ménière’s disease
b. Ataxia
c. Nystagmus
d. Motion sickness
69. The misperception or illusion of motion of the person or the surroundings
a. Ataxia
b. Nystagmus
c. Vertigo
d. Dizziness
70. An involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes.
a. Ataxia
b. Nystagmus
c. Vertigo
d. Dizziness