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1. What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of the analytical
methods?
a. Internal quality control
b. External quality control
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
2. In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between
the standard deviations of two groups of data.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. F-test
d. T-test
4. This is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory.
a. Gaussian Curve
b. Cumulative Sum Graph
c. Youden/Twin Plot
d. Levey-Jennings Chart
5. This type of error which can be observed on a Levey-Jennings chart is formed by control values
that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days.
a. Trend
b. Shift
c. Outliers
d. None of the above
10. According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error, the coefficient of variation
for HDL cholesterol should be on what range?
a. ≤ 2%
b. ≤ 3%
c. ≤ 4%
d. ≤ 5%
13. LDL can be calculated from measurements of the following except _________ by the Friedewald
formula:
a. Total cholesterol
b. VLDL
c. HDL
d. Triglyceride
14. Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific?
a. Colorimetric: kinetic
b. Colorimetric: end point
c. Enzymatic: UV
d. Enzymatic: H2O2
15. This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effect as the serum protein electrophoretic pattern.
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Hepatic cirrhosis
d. Pulmonary emphysema
16. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is elevated in plasma?
a. Conjugated bilirubin
b. Unconjugated bilirubin
c. Delta bilirubin
d. B and C
18. For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall _________& and pCO2 will rise _________%.
a. 7, 3
b. 3, 7
c. 2, 5
d. 5, 2
23. The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in %w/v are mental confusion, dizziness and
strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech).
a. 0.09 – 0.25
b. 0.18 – 0.30
c. 0.27 – 0.40
d. 0.35 – 0.50
MICROBIOLOGY
1. What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?
a. Amastigote
b. Trypomastigote
c. Promastigote
d. Sporozoites
7. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with
smooth walls?
a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
8. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of:
a. Chlamydospore
b. Urease
c. Germ tube
d. Inositol
10. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting:
a. A 24-hour urine collection
b. A first morning stool with proper preservative
c. Capillary blood
d. A scotch tape preparation from the perianal region
20. For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, how many units of
bacitracin is used?
a. 10.00
b. 0.02 - 0.04
c. 5.00
d. 1.00 – 2.00
21. Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as C. diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?
a. C. ulcerans
b. C. minutissimum
c. C. jeikeium
d. C. urealyticum
23. Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for bacteria and virus?
a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP)
b. Hank’s balanced salt solution
c. Eagles minimum essential medium
d. Stuart’s medium
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
1. If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this other type of abnormal crystal may be
precipitated:
a. Bilirubin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Leucine
d. Cystine
5. A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface:
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Uric acid
c. Cystine
d. Phosphate
7. The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approximately _________ of the head and
covers approximately _________ of the nucleus.
a. One half, two-thirds
b. One third, one half
c. Two-thirds, one fourth
d. One fourth, one third
8. Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine specimens may be reported using
rare/few/moderate/many by using the:
a. Scanner field
b. Low power field
c. High power field
d. Oil immersion field
9. In a urine specimen, ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen per high power field (HPF). How
do you report the finding?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
10. In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per high power field (HPF). How do you report the
finding?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
13. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip?
a. Blood
b. Bilirubin
c. Leukocytes
d. All of the above
15. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
a. Albumin
b. Bence Jones protein
c. Mucoprotein
d. Globulin
16. The best aid for chemical spills is flushing the area with large amounts of water for at least
________ minutes then seek medical attention.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
18. Normal synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ________ mg/dL lower than the blood
value.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
22. Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity is based on refractive index?
a. Total solids meter
b. Hydrometer
c. Reagent strip
d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
23. Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement”
a. 4.0
b. 3.0
c. 2.0
d. 1.0
HEMATOLOGY
1. Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy:
a. 0.5 – 1.0 inch
b. 1.0 – 1.5 inches
c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches
d. 2.0 – 2.5 inches
2. In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from the label or end of the slide
should be:
a. 1.0 cm
b. 2.0 cm
c. 3.0 cm
d. 4.0 cm
4. 12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear. How do report this finding?
a. Positive
b. Rare, few, moderate, many
c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
d. Average number / OIO
6. Polychromasia grading: 1+
a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%
7. How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in order to evaluate normal
platelet number in an appropriate area of a blood smear?
a. 4-10
b. 6-15
c. 8-20
d. 10-30
10. If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 1012/L, what is the approximate hemoglobin value?
a. 12 g/dL
b. 14 g/dL
c. 15 g/dL
d. 20 g/dL
11. What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle cell anemia?
a. Aplastic crises
b. Infectious crises
c. Vaso-occlusive crises
d. Bleeding
13. Condition in which blood escapes into large areas of skin and mucous membranes, but not into
deep tissues:
a. Petechiae
b. Purpura
c. Ecchymosis
d. Hematoma
16. Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the classification of anemia?
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
18. A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer, and 15,000 WBC/µL were counted.
When the differential count was performed, the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100
total WBC. Calculate the corrected WBC count.
a. 10,000 WBC/uL
b. 11,500 WBC/uL
c. 12,000 WBC/uL
d. 12,500 WBC/uL
20. If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as high as 100 to 300 x 10 9/L, a
__________dilution is used.
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:200
d. 1:250
21. How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 109/L?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
22. A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows the following abnormal
distribution, except:
a. Over 10% eosinophils
b. Below 2% basophils
c. Over 11% monocytes
d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children
IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY
1. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. None of the choices
a. Type O
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type AB
5. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected from the patient before the start
of surgery. The patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood
may be returned to the patient after the surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative
b. Normovolemic hemodilution
c. Intraoperative salvage
d. Postoperative salvage
11. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of bluish purple areas under the skin
of the donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
12. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of _____ occurring in
association with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.
a. 1°C or more
b. 1°F or more
c. 3°C or more
d. 3°F or more
13. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-D
15. What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the
recipient’s sample?
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood
b. O Rh-positive, whole blood
c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
16. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused by:
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
24. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus infected patients as early as
1 day post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1
b. C
c. E
d. prM
27. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin
c. Chemotaxin
29. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the
result.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate
30. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD21
4. Stat means:
a. Immediately
b. As soon as possible
c. Now
d. None of these