C-TBIT44-71

Number: 000-000
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0

ht t p:/ / w w w .grati sexam.com/

www.Yesuse.com
Exam A

QUESTION 1
The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported? Note: There are 3
correct answers to this question.

A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the sender
IDoc adapter. Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.

B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. to perform a
SELECT statement and obtain the result set). What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI
JDBC adapter?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.

B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages? Note:
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
 ht t p:/ / w w w .grati sexam.com/

A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.

B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI? Note: There are 3
correct answers to this question.

1 / 21

A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping' functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.

Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can be achieved without
adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?

A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in these processes do
not usually provide information about their internal system landscape. Which configuration objects are
relevant for B2B configuration? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML messages. These XML
messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK. What is the purpose of the RFC adapter
parameter "Program ID"?

A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.

B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration process should be

2 / 21

canceled.
How can this be achieved?

A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert to inform the
administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in the normal way, you
can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this
question.

A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step? Note: There are 2 correct
answers to this question.

A. Incrementing a counter variable.

B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You can create multiple configurations for one Integration Process without changing the appropriate
process definition.
Which of these parameters allows you to achieve this behavior?

A. Process Signature
B. Container Definition
C. Correlation
D. Configurable Parameters in Conditions

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management and the integration
process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?

3 / 21

A. Within the SLD

B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?

A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.

B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode? Note: There are 3 correct
answers to this question.

A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.

B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific queue.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which transaction can be used in order to configure the Business Process Engine? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.

A. SWF_XI_CUSTOMIZING
B. SWIA
C. SMQ2
D. SWF_INB_CONF

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Considerable throughput improvements can be expected for BPE processes when using message
packaging.
What are the advantages of this feature?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Increased message throughput

B. Increased BPE performance
C. Improved alert handling
4 / 21
D. Reduced computer time

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
You can influence the transactional behavior during the definition of an integration process in the process
editor. This can improve the performance of your integration process. Which step types allow the
suppression of the creation of a new transaction? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Transformation Step
B. Receiver Determination Step
C. Receive Step
D. Send Step

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
When deciding whether an integration process might be the right solution for your integration scenario, you
have to consider some prerequisites.
Which of them are relevant for integration processes?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. The messages to be processed are related to each other in some way.

B. The scenario must require synchronous communication.
C. The process should have a clear end condition.
D. The scenario does not require complex user interaction.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a correct statement about a Software Component?

A. A Software Component is a unit of software delivery that has its own versioning and its own support
package track.
B. A Software Component is the basic building block of an enterprise service.
C. A Software Component is a collection of Products; both the Software Component and the Products
have their own versions.
D. A Software Component is an alternate means of organizing content development within the Enterprise
Services Directory.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
You are working in the System Landscape Directory (SLD) defining a Business System for use in an IDoc
scenario.
Why do you assign a Logical System name?

A. The IDoc adapter will make use of this entry to resolve a Business System name into an ALE logical
system name and vice-versa.
B. If a Logical System name is defined for the Business System, the Integration Directory can automatically
determine a receiver.
5 / 21
C. Definition of the Logical System name in the System Landscape Directory is required by the ALE
distribution model in the sender system.
D. The SOAP header of the inbound message uses the Logical System name.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
When creating a Technical System in the System Landscape Directory you select and add the Software
Products that are installed on this Technical System. As an option you can de-select the Software
Components associated with the selected Products.
Why is this option necessary?

A. The Software Component is required only for transport purposes.

B. Certain Software Components might not be part of the particular version of the product.
C. The developer using the Technical System description may not have sufficient authorization to work with
the Software Component in question.
D. The appropriate Technical System may not include all possible components of the selected products.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Business systems are systems which function as sender or receiver within SAP NetWeaver PI. Which
parameter defines the type of Business system in the SLD?

A. The type of Business system is defined by the used connectivity mode.

B. The type of Business system is created when the systems register automatically on the SLD.
C. The type of Business system is defined by the type of associated technical system.
D. The type of Business systems is always Third-Party.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
You assign each service interface an interface pattern, which describes the type of communication to be
executed.
Which of these patterns are supported by SAP NetWeaver PI? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this
question.

A. Stateless (XI 3.0-Compatible)

B. Tentative Update & Confirm/Compensate (TU&C/C)
C. Stateful
D. Synchronous

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
What are the features of an Integration Process? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. It is an executable, cross-system process.

B. It is required for configuring scenarios in the Integration Builder.
C. It is able to receive and collect messages.
D. It is not a part of configuration time activities.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
6 / 21

QUESTION 26
For which of the following is a Context object a placeholder for?

A. A Namespace.
B. An XPATH expression.
C. An Operation Mapping.
D. A Receiver Determination.
E. A Value Mapping.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
Proxies are interfaces that are generated in application systems to communicate with the Integration
Server.
Which of these statements correctly describe proxies?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Proxies are generated based on the service interfaces located in the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. SAP systems based on Release 4.6 are able to exchange data by using PI-SOAP protocol.
C. The service interface category determines which proxy objects are generated (consumer proxy or
provider proxy).
D. Proxies are generated in the Integration Builder.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
What are the three types of Communication Components in the Integration Directory?

A. Business Component, Integration Process, Business System.

B. Business System, Logical System, Application Component.
C. Name, Namespace, Software Component Version.
D. Business Service, Application Service, Abstract Service.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
There are three task areas in the Integration Directory: Collaboration Profiles, Logical Routing, and
Collaboration Agreements.
What do you define in a Collaboration Agreement?

ht t p:/ / w w w .grati sexam.com/

A. The security settings for specific sender/receiver pairs.

B. The flow of messages in a system landscape.
C. The technical options available to the communication parties for exchanging messages are
documented.
D. A Business Process is imported into the Integration Directory.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are true regarding Sender Agreement and Receiver Agreement? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. They specify a binding between an interface and a communication channel.
7 / 21
B. They contain additional security settings, such as certificates.
C. They are analyzed by the adapter engine.
D. They are defined in the Enterprise Services Repository.
E. They are configured in the 'Modules' tab of the Communication Channel.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
You use a receiver determination to define one or more receivers for a sender communication component
and an outbound service interface. You can make the receiver determination conditional on the value of a
field in the payload.
What do you do to set up this content-based routing?

A. Write a value mapping function in the Enterprise Services Repository and import it into the Integration
Builder.
B. Specify alternative identifiers in the definition of the party.
C. You can only set up content-based routing by using the Configuration Assistant.
D. Use the Condition Editor to enter conditions (XPATH/Context object) for routing.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Process Integration provides a lot of flexibility during the mapping/transformation process from source
document to target. This flexibility includes the usage of multiple mapping steps. Which statement correctly
describes the characteristics of combined mapping steps?

A. All of the mapping steps must be of one type of mapping, e.g. they must all be Message Mapping, or
they must all be XSLT mapping.
B. Multiple mapping steps can be used, only by using Java mapping, due to Java's ability to access internal
mapping programs.
C. Only by using XSLT mapping can we use multiple mapping steps. This is based on using "includes" of
multiple XSLT's within the mapping process.
D. Any mapping method can be used with any combination. E.g. you can create a graphical Message
Mapping followed by Java and XSLT mapping.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
You are developing a Message Mapping. In the mapping description, the source values for the target
elements first name, middle name and last name are all assigned to the same source element (e.g. name).
This results in a repeating occurrence for this source element. Which standard function would you
recommend for mapping the repeating element 'name' in the source to the specific fields (e.g. first name,
middle name and last name) in the target structure?

A. There is no such standard function in Process Integration, you would need to write a user defined
function.
B. You can use the "CopyValue" function in the Constant function group.
C. You can use the "SplitByValue" function in the Node function group.
D. You can use the "ValueMapping" function in the Conversions function group.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
8 / 21

QUESTION 34
You have created a Message Mapping by using the simple drag&drop from source to target element.
However, when testing the mapping by entering only one value for the source element, you find that the
target element has been created with 3 occurrences. Each of the target elements filled the same value as
the source element.
What might go wrong?

A. The data type for the source element has a minOccurs=3. Therefore, when only 1 value is entered for
the element, it is repeated 3 times.
B. The data type for the source element has a maxOccurs=3. Therefore, when only 1 value is entered for
the element, it is repeated 3 times.
C. The data type for the target element has a minOccurs=3. Therefore, when only 1 value is mapped to the
element, it is repeated 3 times.
D. The data type for the target element has a maxOccurs=3. Therefore, when only 1 value is mapped to
the element, it is repeated 3 times.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
While looking through some message mapping examples currently in production, you notice that the
function "exists" is used in several places.
Why might this step be necessary before you can apply the required mapping functions?

A. To check whether an element in the source document has any value before any mapping or
transformation is performed.
B. To check whether the element exists in the source document before any mapping or transformation can
be done.
C. To check whether a parent element has any child nodes before using their values in mappings and
transformations.
D. To check whether an element in the source document has any value before any mapping or
transformation can be performed.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Assume that during the mapping process, the customer asks for certain information to be logged to the
Process Integration monitor for examination using SXMB_MONI. A user-defined function will be used to
perform the appropriate mapping function.
Which of these statements correctly describes the user-defined function?

A. A user-function cannot be used to send information to the PI monitor.

B. All user-defined functions have access to a global static class, MappingTrace, which can be used to
send messages to the PI monitor.
C. An AbstractTrace object must be obtained from the Container object. Then, it can be used to send
messages to the PI monitor.
D. An AbstractMapping object must be obtained from the GlobalContainer object. The GlobalContainer
object can be obtained from the Container object. Then, AbstractMapping can be used to send
messages to the PI monitor.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
9 / 21

QUESTION 37
The graphical Process Integration mapping tool provides adjustment capabilities for message mappings.
This can be done using the mapping function "Reload with Improvements ()". Which of these statements
describe the purpose of this function? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Tool support to adjust mappings after structure changes (e.g. changes of the root name or namespace).
B. Applies to changes of the source and the target structure.
C. Reloading test messages.
D. Mapping original nodes to new nodes.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Message Mapping has a concept of "Queue", which can be used in a user-defined function with parameter
"Execution Type" set to "All Values of Queue". Which statements correctly describe working with Queues
and Contexts in Message Mapping? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Message Mapping works internally by using queues.

B. If no further elements are imported at a particular hierarchy level, a Context Change is inserted in the
queue.
C. Node functions are used to handle changes in the message hierarchy.
D. A context contains one or more queues.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
A mapping requires the concatenation of 2 source elements in order to create a target element. During
testing, the 1st source element occurs 2 times; the 2nd source element occurs 4 times.
How many occurrences will the target element contain?
A. The target will occur 2 times. This is based on the minimum number of occurrences between the 2
elements.
B. The target will occur 4 times. This is based on the maximum number of occurrences between the 2
elements.
C. The target will occur 8 times. This is based on the total number of possible concatenations between the
occurrences of the 2 elements. The number is the product of (2 * 4).
D. The target will occur 6 times. This is based on the sum of the number of occurrences for both elements.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
After reviewing the specifications for a transformation, you found out that you need to save certain data for
a later retrieval during the mapping process.
Which technique helps you to accomplish this goal?

A. You must use user-defined functions with execution type set to "All Values of Queue" or you will not
have access to the required java objects Container and GlobalContainer.
B. You can use the GlobalContainer object to store the values in parameters which can be retrieved later
10 / 21
in the same message mapping.
C. You can use the Container object to store the values in parameters which can be retrieved later in the
same message mapping.
D. The GlobalContainer object can be used to save and retrieve data by multiple message mappings. The
data is stored as persistent objects in the database, therefore, care must be taken to re-initialize, clear
or delete the data.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Which Lookup functions are supported in the graphical message mapping tool? Note: There are 2 correct
answers to this question.

A. JDBC Lookups
B. RFC Lookups
C. Java Library Lookups
D. ES Registry Lookups

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
While using Message Mapping during an implementation of a Process Integration project, you may want to
test the value of an element using the Boolean function. How does the Boolean function in Message
Mapping interpret the result of the test?

A. It interprets 1 and true (not case-sensitive) as true-value.

B. It interprets only true (not case-sensitive) as true-value.
C. It interprets only TRUE (case-sensitive) as true-value.
D. It interprets only true (case-sensitive) as true-value.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Within Process Integration Message Mapping you can set up Function Libraries for user-defined functions.
When would you do this?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. When you want to reuse user-defined functions.

B. When you want to avoid multiple user-defined functions for the same purpose.
C. When you want to avoid the usage of graphical mapping functions for complex mappings.
D. When you want to enhance the portability of user-defined functions.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
By using a mapping lookup, mapping programs can call functions from other application systems while a
mapping program on the Integration Server is being executed.
Why might this be necessary?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. To call existing mapping routines in the application system.

11 / 21
B. To enable user interaction at runtime.
C. To write data to a database from a mapping.
D. To read from application system data in the mapping program.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
You are considering the use of Process Integration adapters to implement an integration scenario.
Considering the nature of the backend applications, which of these questions should be addressed when
searching for the adapter to be implemented?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Is the backend application based on SAP Web AS 6.20 or above?

B. Does the backend application support JCA (Java Connector Architecture)?
C. Is the vendor of the backend application SAP-certified?
D. Does the backend application provide connectivity using Industry Standards?

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
After you have created a Business System in the SLD, you can assign a transport target to this system.
What is the purpose of a transport target?

A. A transport target is a SAP NetWeaver PI component to support the software logistic tasks.
B. With transport targets, you can associate the names of corresponding Business Systems in different
Business-System-groups.
C. Transport targets describe software dependencies.
D. Transport targets can be imported into the Integration Builder.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Some adapters come from SAP, and some come from 3rd parties.
Which of the following is a 3rd party adapter?

A. EDI
B. IDoc
C. RFC
D. HTTP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
The JDBC and JMS adapters are used to connect to database and queue providers respectively. Which of
these additional steps are needed for these adapters to function properly, apart from normal configuration
steps?

A. Update CPA-Cache in the adapter framework.

B. Deploy vendor-specific drivers into SAP J2EE engine.
C. Configure sender or receiver agreements in the integration builder configuration.
D. Create the communication channel with assignment either to a service or party.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
12 / 21

QUESTION 49
In a customer scenario, messages are sent from the PI Integration Server to the Advanced Adapter Engine.
What is the sequence of steps of a typical message flow through the adapter engine?

A. Message arrives in the adapter engine via JMS, message is persisted, multiple module processors are
 called, and message is delivered to backend system.
B. Message arrives in the adapter engine via HTTP, module processors are called, message is persisted,
and message is delivered to backend system.
C. Message arrives in the adapter engine via HTTP, message is persisted, module processors are called,
and message is delivered to backend system.
D. Message arrives in the adapter engine via RFC protocol, message is persisted, multiple module
processors are called, and message is delivered to backend system.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Which of these statements correctly describe the features of the Partner Connectivity Kit (PCK)? Note:
There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The PCK architecture is based on the Adapter Framework.

B. The PCK supports B2B messaging.
C. The PCK is a co-development of SAP and WebMethods.
D. The PCK requires an Adapter Engine or proxy to communicate natively with PI.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
Within your PI implementation project, you should choose the best mapping type for your interface
transformation requirements.
Why should you in most situations recommend graphical message mapping rather than XSLT mapping?

A. Message Mapping is always easier to construct than XSLT Mapping.

B. Message Mapping has a GUI tool; therefore, no programming knowledge is needed.
C. PI does not provide any tools to develop Message Mappings.
D. Message Mapping generates Java code that uses queues. XSLT mapping loads the entire source and
target structures into the memory. Therefore Message Mapping is more efficient and can handle deep
structured XML documents faster.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
A useful mapping feature in PI is "Multi-Mapping".
In which situation is Multi-Mapping most advantageous?

A. Multi-Mapping can be used when you want to map an interface from a sender business system to
multiple receiver business systems. Such mappings can be combined into 1 mapping for easier
development and maintenance.
B. Multi-Mapping can be used in ccBPM with abstract interfaces, when there is a need for n:m
transformations.
C. Multi-Mapping is an enhancement of PI's multi-mapping steps, where a target to a source can be 13 /
 21
defined to consist of more than 1 mapping steps.
D. Multi-Mapping is a tool which works in conjunction with Mapping Templates. This new tool provides a
consolidated view of all the mapping templates being used by a specific mapping.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Process Integration has the capability to use multiple mappings between interfaces. Which of these
statements correctly describes working with multiple mapping steps?

A. All mappings are declared in Operation Mappings within the Enterprise Services Repository. The types
of mappings and the names of the mapping programs can be specified there.
B. All the mapping steps are declared in Interface Determination within the Integration Builder, where the
interfaces and all the mapping programs for each interface are specified.
C. All the mapping steps are configured in the Message tab of the Message Mapping within the Enterprise
Service Repository.
D. Multiple mappings within an Operation Mapping should be registered in the SLD.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
Integration Processes run on the SAP Business Workflow Engine of the SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP. When
monitoring a workflow that was started by an Integration Process, which of following could be a valid status
for a workflow execution?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Started
B. Cancelled
C. Error
D. Reprocessed
E. Hold

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Integration Processes are executed by the Business Process Engine at runtime.
What is the Business Process Engine?

A. An enhancement of the SAP Business Workflow Engine.

B. An add-on component that is installed using transaction SAINT.
C. A component of the J2EE stack of the SAP NetWeaver Application Server.
D. A replacement for the SAP Business Workflow Engine.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
Technical systems are application systems that are installed on your system landscape. Which of these
statements correctly describe the properties of technical systems? Note: There are 3 correct answers to
this question.

A. Technical systems are logical systems which function as senders or receivers within SAP Netweaver PI.
14 / 21
B. ABAP Technical systems are normally registered in the SLD server automatically.
C. Technical systems can be assigned to products.
D. Technical systems from type XPI are infrastructure systems, e.g. Adapter Engines.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
SAP NetWeaver Process Integration supports major key capabilities within the integration area.
What areas belong to these capabilities?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Enterprise Service Repository and Registry

B. Knowledge Warehouse
C. BAM Infrastructure
D. Service Bus

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
In order to support portability and interoperability of integration processes, SAP supports and implements a
large set of industry standards.
Which of these standards are supported by SAP NetWeaver Process Integration? Note: There are 3
correct answers to this question.

A. WS-BPEL 2.0
B. XPDL
C. BPEL4WS1.1
D. UDDIv3

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which PI component belongs to the configuration time area?

A. Enterprise Services Repository

B. Business Process Engine
C. Integration Builder
D. Services Registry

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Application systems with a Local Integration Engine are able to communicate via PI protocol (SOAP with
attachments) with the Central Integration Engine.
Which of these statements correctly describe this type of communication? Note: There are 2 correct
answers to this question.

A. The local Proxy-Runtime converts between PI protocol and ABAP or Java format.
B. The application systems send messages directly to the Advanced Adapter Engine via PI protocol.
C. Proxy communication does not require adapters.
D. The application systems send messages directly to the Advanced Adapter Engine via the SOAP
adapter.
15 / 21

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
Whenever you are using Web services in business-critical applications, it is important that messages are
exchanged in a reliable manner.
Which statements correctly describe the features of the Web Service Reliable Messaging Protocol (WS-
RM)?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. A sequence covers all calls of a logical unit of work (LUW) and assigns numbers to them.
B. WS-RM is a protocol for synchronous communication.
C. WS-RM should be implemented at sender and receiver sides.
D. The WS-RM protocol combines one or multiple messages into sequences.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
A SOAP client calls a PI, using the sender SOAP adapter. Which of the following statements correctly
describe using the quality of service of 'Exactly Once'? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. A message ID must be provided with the message, otherwise an error will occur.
B. When providing the message ID externally, the parameters 'Use Encoded Headers' and 'Use Query
String' must be set to true.
C. A receiver determination is not necessary.
D. If the message ID has been used before, the message will be marked as duplicate and then discarded.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
The Services Registry provides visibility in an SOA landscape. Which statements describe the Services
Registry? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The Services Registry shows where in the landscape, services are located.
B. The Services Registry is used to create Enterprise Services.
C. The Services Registry is used by developers to find available Web services they can reuse.
D. The Services Registry provides a system landscape description.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 64
Enabling service consumption in a consumer application is a three step process.
Which of these steps are relevant within this process?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Generate Consumer Proxy.

B. Configure Service Consumer.
C. Create a Composite Application for Service Consumption.
D. Implement the service call within the consumer application.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
16 / 21

QUESTION 65
The IT landscape of your company has been transferred to an SOA Architecture. You want to develop a
Consumer application supporting credit management.
Which of these development environments can be used?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Composite Application Framework.

B. Any development environment which is able to create a Consumer Proxy from a WSDL file.
C. An ABAP report, created using transaction SE80.
D. Enterprise Service Builder.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
In the Web Service Reliable Messaging programming model (WS-RM) messages are transferred from the
service consumer to the service provider using logical sequences. What statements about a logical
sequence within WS-RM are true? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. It is a container that contains a technical sequence of one or more messages.

B. It has a unique identifier.
C. It describes the sequence of messages in EDI integration scenarios.
D. It is created in the Advanced Adapter Engine for incoming messages.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
You use a Direct Connection to configure direct communication between two business systems.
Which statements describe such a connection?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. In direct communication, two business systems use the Web service runtime to communicate with each
other directly without using a central Integration Server.
B. You can use Process Integration runtime services such as mapping in direct communication.
C. You can make the necessary configuration settings for the involved systems centrally in the Integration
Builder.
D. Direct communication is based on the standard Web Service Reliable Messaging protocol (WS-RM).

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
Which of the following statements about Enterprise Services are true? Note: There are 2 correct answers to
this question.

A. They are semantically harmonized across applications.

B. They are based on Global Data Types, which are defined using the UN/CEFACT Core Component
Technical Specification (CCTS).
C. They can only be executed synchronously.
D. They are not different from regular web services.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
17 / 21

QUESTION 69
What is a PI Pipeline?

A. A proxy object in the Java runtime

B. An integration engine configured as a HUB
C. An integration server on an application system
D. A configured sequence of pipeline services

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
Which of the following tuning parameters are used to improve performance when processing messages
with Quality of Service Exactly Once (EO)?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. EO_INBOUND_PARALLEL
B. EO_OUTBOUND_PARALLEL
C. QUEUE_COUPLING
D. QRFC_QUEUE_RESTART_ALLOWED
E. LOGGING_SYNC

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 71
Integration Pipelines are used to process messages in SAP NetWeaver Process Integration and in SAP
Applications.
Which of the following are valid pipeline types?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. CENTRAL
B. SENDER
C. SENDER_BACK
D. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
E. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT_BACK

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 72
XML validation allows you to check the structure of a PI message payload. Which of the following steps
within PI message processing allow the implementation of XML validation? Note: There are 2 correct
answers to this question.

A. In the inbound processing, the message is validated in the Business Process Engine or in the
Integration Engine.
B. In the inbound processing, the message is validated in the Advanced Adapter Engine or in the
Integration Engine.
C. In the outbound processing, message validation is not possible.
D. In the outbound processing, the message is validated in the Integration Engine as a new step in the
pipeline.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
18 / 21

QUESTION 73
Which statements correctly describe asynchronous messages within a PI environment? Note: There are 3
correct answers to this question.

A. They are persisted on the Integration Server and can be re-sent from this location in case of problems.
B. They are not persisted on the Integration Server unless logging is switched on.
C. They are processed with Quality of Service (QoS) Exactly Once (EO) or Exactly Once In Order (EOIO).
D. They are processed in a different pipeline as synchronous messages.
E. They are queued for processing by the Integration Engine.

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74
A database error caused a system failure on the SAP NetWeaver PI server and stopped the XBQIx queue.
Messages for which Quality of Service (QoS) will be affected by that?

A. Exactly Once In Order (EOIO)

B. Exactly Once (EO)
C. Best Effort (BE)
D. Acknowledgement (ACK)

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 75
The Advanced Adapter Engine is installed as a component on the central Integration Server. However, it
can also be installed de-centrally.
Why would you do this?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Because the transfer of data between an adapter and the underlying EIS may not use a protocol that
supports transmission across firewalls, additional adapter engines may need to be installed "close" (in a
network sense) to the Business System.
B. The Advanced Adapter Engine provides mapping and routing locally. You can gain a great improvement
in performance by using an Integrated Configuration.
C. So that the administrator can monitor the adapter environment without having to log on to the Integration
Server.
D. De-central adapter installations are more secure than central installations, as they have their own
certificate store.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
The Partner Connectivity Kit (PCK) is a program which enables smaller companies to exchange data with
bigger trading partners using the PI message protocol.
What is the platform needed to install and run the PCK?

A. A standalone J2SE engine running on any system.

B. An SAP Web Application Server (J2EE only) running on any system.
C. An SAP Web Application Server (ABAP only) running on any system.
D. An SAP Web Application server with both J2EE and ABAP stack installed.
19 / 21

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77
The CPA Cache is a key component of the adapter engine. Which statement correctly describes the
features of the CPA cache?

A. If necessary, the CPA Cache refresh can be initiated manually from transaction SXI_CACHE.
B. The CPA Cache can be modified online with the SAP NetWeaver Administrator.
C. In the CPA Cache, the object of type 'binding' corresponds to a communication channel in the directory.
D. The CPA Cache can be administered using the transaction SXMB_ADM.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 78
Performance monitoring is a component of both, the Runtime Workbench and the NWA. Which statements
describe the purpose of performance monitoring? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Performance monitoring is used to display statistical data on the performance of message processing.
B. Performance monitoring collects the data from the Integration Server or the Process Monitoring
Infrastructure (PMI).
C. Performance monitoring can be used to control load balancing on the PI Server.
D. Performance monitoring delivers individual detailed data for message processing performance.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79
When messages are processed by the Advanced Adapter Engine, which concepts are correct with regards
to monitoring?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. The messages are processed in the adapter engine with the same MSGUID as in the Integration
Server.
B. The status of the messages in the adapter engine can be monitored by drilling down into the MSGUID
from the transaction sxmb_moni.
C. The detailed status of the messages can be monitored by looking at the audit log via the Runtime
Workbench or the NWA.
D. The adapter engine and the integration engine share the same persistence layer.
E. The RFC adapter and SOAP adapter can be monitored directly in the Advanced Adapter Engine.

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80
You are implementing a scenario where an ERP system is sending messages to PI via the RFC adapter.
But they do not arrive at the integration server.
What are the possible reasons?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The Program-ID specified in the Integration Directory does not exactly match the one specified in the
RFC destination of type TCP/IP on the sender side.
B. The application sends the message asynchronously but the 'COMMIT WORK' statement is missing in
20 / 21
the calling program.
C. On the Integration Server, the RFC destination pointing to the ERP system was not properly set up for
the metadata call back.
D. The RFC metadata imported into the Integration Enterprise Services Repository is missing or obsolete.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
21 / 21

ht t p:/ / w w w .grati sexam.com/