PSYCHOLOGY 4th semester PSY416C

1. Statistical procedures used in describing the properties of samples or of populations where

complete population data are available, are referred to as:
(a) Inferential Statistics
(b) Descriptive Statistics
(c) Parameter
(d) Population
2. Statistical procedures used in the drawing of inferences about the properties of populations
from sample data are frequently referred to as
a) Inferential Statistics
(b) Population
(c) Descriptive Statistics
(d) Sample
3. A parameter is a property descriptive of:
(a) Sample
(b) Group
(c) Crowd
(d) Population
4. A property of a sample drawn at random from a population is known as:
(a) Estimate
(b) Data
(c) Statistics
(d) Scores
5. A psychologist wants to make a statement about the mean IQ in the complete population of
students in a particular university from a knowledge of the mean completed on the sample of 100
and to estimate the error involved in this statement. For this purpose, he will use procedures from:
(a) Mathematics
(b) Geometry
(c) Geography
(d) Inferential Statistics
6. The term which refers to a property whereby the members of a group or set differ one from
another is called:
(a) Data
(b) Variable
(c) Score
(d) Measurement
7. The term which refers to a property whereby the members of a group do not differ from one
another is called:
(a) Constant
(b) Variable
(c) Data
(d) Score
8. Sex is a:
(a) Variable
(b) Score
(c) Socio Economic Status
(d) Symbol
9. The particular values of a variable are referred to as:
(a) Score
(b) Variates or Variate Values
(c) Data
(d) Measurement
(e) None of the above
10. When we consider the height of adult males, height is the variable. But the height of any
particular individual is a:
(a) Variate
(b) Data
(c) Score
(d) Scale
11. The branch which deals with collection, analysis and interpretation of data obtained by
conducting a survey or an experimental study is known as:
(a) Psychology
(b) Statistics
(c) Sociology
(d) Mathematics
12. Statistical inference is concerned with derivation of Scientific inference about generalization of
results from:
(a) The study of a few particular cases
(b) The study of population as a whole
(c) The study of a random group
(d) The study of the entire population of the world.
13. The branch of mathematical statistics which deals with measurement of the extent of certainty
of events whose occurence depends on chance is popularly known as:
(a) Variable
(b) Probability
(c) Correlation
(d) Measures of Central Tendency
14. A fraction of a population drawn by using a suitable method so that it can be regarded
representative of the entire population is known as:
(a) Variable
(b) Estimate
(c) Group
(d) Sample
15. When the number of individual members is finite, it is known as:
(a) Sample
(b) Finite population
(c) Infinite population
(d) Group
16. We study the properties of a population in terms of some:
(a) Variable
(b) Data
(c) Scores
(d) Scales
17. The numerical quantities which characterise a population arc called:
(a) Parameters
(b) Statistics
(c) Data
(d) Scores
18. All the important characteristics of a population can be specified in terms of a few:
(a) Parameters
(b) Scores
(c) Data
(d) Statistics
19. The Characteristics on which individuals differ among themselves is called a:
(a) Variable
(b) Score
(c) Data
(d) Measurement
20. Whenever the measurement of a variable is possible on a scale in some appropriate units, it is
called a:
(a) Qualitative Variable
(b) Quantitative Variable
(c) Scans
(d) Data
21. Discrete variable is otherwise known as:
(a) Discontinous variable
(b) Continuous variable
(c) Qualitative variable
(d) Scores
22. Generally, measurements of a discrete variable are obtained by:
(a) Measurement
(b) Scales
(c) Counting
(d) Estimate
23. When the values of variables differ from one another by definite amounts, it is called:
(a) Discete variables
(b) Continuous variable
(c) Dependent variables
(d) Control variables
24. A variable which can theoretically assume all values within a certain interval and as such are
divisible into smaller and smaller fractional units is known as:
(a) Discrete Variable
(b) Continuous Variable
(c) Qualitative variable
(d) Score
25. The variable which shows variation in objects not in terms of magnitude, but in quality or kind
is popularly known as:
(a) Quantitative variable
(b) Qualitative variable
(c) Score
(d) Continuous variable
26. Which variable is unmeasurable with a scale and as such is unexpressible in magnitude?
(a) Qualitative variable
(b) Quantitative variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) Discrete variable
27. Sex, nationality, occupation, religion, marital status are examples of:
(a) Quantitative variable
(b) Qualitative variable
(c) Discontinuous variable
(d) Continuous variable
28. The Scale, where absolute zero point is known, is popularly known as:
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Ratio Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Nominal Scale
29. Weight, length, time and speed are some variables which can be measured on:
(a) Ratio Scale
(b) Interval Scales
(c) Nominal Scales
(d) Ordinal Scales
30. The scales where the absolute zero point is unknown are termed as:
(a) Interval scales
(b) Ratio Scales
(c) Nominal Scales
(d) Ordinal Scales
31. When the classification is done with respect to one attribute which is dichotomous in nature is
known as:
(a) Simple Classification
(b) Complex Classification
(c) Monotonous Classification
(d) Real Classification
32. The related facts or observations which are grouped into classes or categories are known as:
(a) Variable
(b) Classification
(c) Fact
(d) Data
33. The process of summarizing classified data in the form of a table is known as:
(a) Tabulation
(b) Classification
(c) Variation
(d) Assimilation
34. A table which contains data on two characteristics is called a:
(a) Bivariate table
(b) Simple Table
(c) Univariate Table
(d) Complex Table
35. When the data are depicted pictorially or graphically, we call it:
(a) Graphical Presentation of the Data
(b) Mathematical Presentation of Data
(c) A picture
(d) A geometric figure
36. A set of rectangles whose arcs were in Proportion to class frequencies is known as:
(a) polygon
(b) Histogram
(c) Ogive
(d) Cumulative Frequency Curve
37. If a curve has a long tail on right side, it is called:
(a) A positively skewed curve
(b) A negatively skewed curve
(c) An Ogive
(d) A smoothed curve
38. A curve having a long tail on the left is called:
(a) An ogive
(b) A negatively skewed curve
(c) A frequency polygon
(d) A histogram
39. When the classification is made according to similarity or difference observed with respect to
some characteristics or properties, it is in:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
40. When the people are classified like Blue- elyed, Black-eyed, Brown-eyed etc., they are in:
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Interval Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
41. Ranking order or Merit position are involved in:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
42. Rank order co-efficient of correlation can be easily calculated when the data are in:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ratio Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ordinal Scale
43. Centigrade thermometers and scores on intelligence lest come under:
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Interval Scale
(c) Ratio Scale
(d) Nominal Scale
44. In Psychology and Education, we come across measurement data heavily dependent upon:
(a) Nominal Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
45. Which scale has a true zero point and constitutes the highest type of scale in terms of
measurement?
(a) Nominal Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
46. The numerical facts such as measurement of height, weight and scores on intelligence are
known as:
(a) Fact
(b) Data
(c) Scale
(d) Score
47. Grouped data or Frequency Distribution may be represented graphically through
(a) Histogram
(b) Polygon
(c) Cumulative Frequency graph
(d) All of the above
48. Which one is the simplest but most useful measure of central tendency?
(a) Median
(b) Arithmetic Mean
(c) Mode
(d) None of these
50. What is the Mean of the following ungrouped data? Scores: 3, 2; 1, 4, 5:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
52. The point on the score scale which 50 per cent of the scores fall is called:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Median
(d) None of the above
53. The Median (Mdn) of the following ungrouped data is: Scores: 7, 8, 5, 0, 3, 4, 6
(a) 5.00
(b) 4.00
(c) 6.00
(d) 7.00
54. The Score which occurs most frequently is called:
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
56. The Median (Mdn) of the following ungrouped data will be: Scores: 2, 4, 6, 9, 18, 37, 49
(a) 9.00
(b) 6.00
(c) 37.00
(d) 18.00
57. The Median (Mdn) of the following ungrouped data will be: Scores: 0, 5, 9, 13, 14, 16
(a) 11.00
(b) 10.00
(c) 13.00
(d) 16.00
58. The mode of the following ungrouped data is:
2, 6, 9, 2, 5, 10, 3, 2, 1
(a) 1.00
(b) 9.00
(c) 5.00
(d) 2.00
59. The mean of a frequency distribution is 24.00 and Mdn is 28.00. What will be the mode?
(a) 84.00
(b) 72.00
(c) 48.00
(d) 36.00
60. The formula for finding out Mode from a frequency distribution is:
(a) 3Mdn — 2Mn
(b) 2Mdn —3Mn
(c) 2Mn—3Mdn
(d) 3Mn—2Mdn
61. Below are given mental age of 9 students in a class: 7, 10, 6, 8, 13, 9, 10, 11 and 6 locate the
median mental age
(a) 4.00
(b) 6.00
(c) 9.00
(d) 10.00
62. The mental ages of 8 students are given below: 7, 10, 6, 8, 13, 9, 10 and 11 Find out the median
mental age
(a) 6.50
(b) 7.50
(c) 8.50
(d) 9.50
63. The value in a series of observations which occurs with highest frequency is called:
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) Standard Deviation
65. Which measure of central tendency has the greatest stability?
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) All of these
66. Which measure of central tendency can be given an algebraic treatment and is better suited to
further arithmetical computation?
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) All of these
67. Which measure of central tendency is not appropriate when the series have extreme items?
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Crude Mode
(d) Mean
68. When the exact mid-point of the distribution is desired, the best measure of central tendency
is:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these
[N.B: Here Mean = Median Model
70. Which measure of central tendency can be calculated graphically if we have suitable graphs
like frequency curve, polygon and Ogive etc.:
(a) Mode
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) All of these
71. Which measure of central tendency is specifically useful for the data the items of which cannot
be measured quantitatively?
(a) Mode
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) All of these
72. Which Measure of Central Tendency can be computed by just having a look at the data?
(a) Crude Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
73. Where a quick and approximate measure of central Tendency is desired, we, generally,
compute:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) All of these
74. When data are grouped into a frequency distribution, the mid-point of that interval which
contains the largest frequency is called:
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
75. Which one of the following is approximately equal to the True Mode?
(a) Crude Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
76. Which one of the following is an unstable measure of Central Tendency?
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Crude Mode
(d) None of these
77. When the scores are distributed symmetrically around a central point and the distribution is
not badly skewed, we generally compute:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these
78. Curmulative percentage Frequency curve is otherwise known as:
(a) Histogram
(b) Polygon
(c) Line graph
(d) Ogive
79. The exact limit of the class interval (10-14) is:
(a) (9.50-14.50)
(b) (9-15)
(c) (10.50-14.50)
(d) (10.50-15.50)
80. The Square root of 2.00 is:
(a) 1.513
(b) 1.414
(c) 2.103
(d) 1.313
81. When the group is made up of individuals of nearly the same ability it is called:
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Complex
(d) None of the above
82. The interval between the highest and the lowest score is popularly known as:
(a) Range
(b) S.D.
(c) Quartile Deviation (Q)
(d) Mean Deviation (A.D.)
83. If the highest score is 89 and the lowest score is 19, the range (R) is:
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 70
84. The one-half of scale distance between the 75th and 25th percentiles in a frequency
distribution is known as:
(a) Range
(b) Standard Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Average Deviation
85. Q (Quartile Deviation) is calculated by the formula:
(a) Q3-Q2/2
(b) Q3-Q1/2
(c) Q,-Q2/2
(d) Q3-Q,/2
86. Q3 of a distribution is 24.00 and Q1 is 18.00 what will be Q (Quartile Deviation)?
(a) 3.00
(b) 2.00
(c) 6.00
(d) 12.00
87. Q2 is otherwise known as:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Median
(d) Co-efficient of correlation
88. The distance between Q1 and Q3 in a distribution is otherwise known as:
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Range
(d) Interquartile Range
89. The average deviation is otherwise known as:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mean Deviation (M.D)
(d) Standard Deviation (SD)
90. The most stable index of variability is:
(a) Average Deviation
(b) Standard Deviation
(c) Range
(d) Median
91. The measure of variability which is customarily employed in experimental work and in
research studies is:
(a) Standard Deviation
(b) Average Deviation
(c) Median
(d) Range
93. The AD for the following series is: Scores 2, 5, 9, 10, 15 and 19
(a) 5.85
(b) 4.67
(c) 3.87
(d) 4.87
94. The SD for the following series is: Scores 2, 5, 9, 10, 15 and 19
(a) 5.70
(b) 6.90
(c) 4.70
(d) 3.90
95. The S.D of the original scores 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 is 2.414. What will be the S.D, when a constant
number i.e. 5 is added to each score?
(a) 2.441
(b) 2.414
(c) 3.414
(d) 7.414
96. When the data are too scattered to justify the computation of a more precise measure of
variability, we generally use:
(a) S.D
(b) Range
(c) A.D
(d) Quartile Deviation
97. When it is desired to weight all deviations from the mean according to their size, we use:
(a) A.D
(b) S.D
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Range
98. The measurement of variability which we use as a unit of the scale of measurement in a normal
distribution is:
(a) A.D
(b) Standard Deviation
(c) Range
(d) Quartile Deviation
99. Experiments vary along a continuum from true experiments at one end to:
(a) Correlational or Observational studies at the other end
(b) Situational studies at the other end
(c) Clinical studies at the other end
(d) Artificial studies at the other end
(e) None of the above
100. A variable that is correlated with the independent variable and thus can be responsible for
the effect in question is known as:
(a) Independent Variable
(b) Dependent Variable
(c) Controlled Variable
(d) Confounded Variable
(e) None of the above
Answers
1.(b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b)
29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b)
42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (e) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (a)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (d)
68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b)
94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (d)

103. Experimental method starts with some problems which have:

(a) No solution for a brief time span
(b) No adequate solution
(c) An immediate solution
(d) No hypothesis
(e) None of the above
104. When we assign numbers to objects, events or mental phenomena, we obtain a:
(a) Scale
(b) Rule
(c) Test
(d) Measure
(e) None of the above
105. Interval Scales have:
(a) Equal appearing units
(b) No equal appearing units
(c) No statistical value
(d) No mathematical Design
(e) None of the above
106. We find a true zero in a/an:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Rating Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
(e) None of the above
107. Method of rating or Method of successive catagories is otherwise called as:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Method of Introspection
(c) Method of Observation
(d) Method of graded dichotomies
(e) None of the above
108. The first rating scale was developed by:
(a) Starch (1910)
(b) Diggory (1953)
(c) Ebbinghaus (1885)
(d) Galton (1883)
(e) J. B. Watson (1913)
109. The method of ranking was formerly known as the method of:
(a) Order of Merit
(b) Order of Steps
(c) Sequential Order
(d) Constant Intervals
(e) None of the above
110. The method of ‘paired comparison’ was introduced by:
(a) Watson
(b) Galton
(c) Cohn
(d) Weber
(e) Fechner
111. While studying colour preferences, the method of ‘paired’ comparison’ was introduced by
Cohn in:
(a) 1148 AD
(b) 1481 AD
(c) 1984 AD
(d) 1894 AD
(e) 1418 AD
112. From the following, who is the first scientist to undertake systematic and statistical
investigations of individual differences?
(a) 1. P. Pavlov
(b) C. E. Spearman
(c) J. B. Watson
(d) Francies Galton
(e) William Mc Dougall
113. The term “mental tests” was first employed by:
(a) Spearman
(b) Binet
(c) James
(d) Cattell
(e) Mc Daugall
114. According to P. T. Young, a comprehensive study of a social unit be that a person, a group, a
social institution, a district or a community is called a:
(a) Case study
(b) Cultural study
(c) Class study
(d) Group Study
(e) None of the above
115. Ex-Post Facto Research is a systematic empirical enquiry in which the scientist does not have
direct control of:
(a) Independent Variables
(b) Dependent Variables
(c) Both Independent and Dependent Variables
(d) Controlled Variables
(e) None of the above
116. A laboratory experiment is a research study in which the variance of all the possible
influential independent variables not pertinent to the immediate problem of the investigations is
kept at a:
(a) Maximum
(b) Constant level
(c) Highest Point
(d) Minimum
(e) None of the above
117. A research study in a realistic situation in which one or more independent variables are
manipulated by the experimenter under as carefully controlled conditions as the situation permit
is known as:
(a) A field experiment
(b) A situational experiment
(c) A case study
(d) Observational study
(e) None of the above
118. The variables in a field experiment operate more strongly than those used in:
(a) Case study
(b) Introspective method
(c) Laboratory Experiment
(d) Observational Method
(e) None of the above
119. The field experiments have the advantage of investigating more fruitfully the dynamics of
interrelationships of:
(a) Small groups of Variables
(b) Large groups of Variables
(c) Both small and large groups of Variables
(d) Independent Variables
(e) Dependent Variables
120. Which type of research is approached through the methods of personal interviews, mailed
questionnaires and personal discussions besides indirect oral investigation?
(a) Case Study
(b) Field Study
(c) Survey Research
(d) Observation
(e) Experimentation
121. Which type of research is a product of developmental programming that has been adopted on
a very large scale in the recent years more practically particularly after Second World War when
most of the Third World Countries emerged on the development scene?
(a) Case Study
(b) Survey Research
(c) Experimentation
(d) Evaluation Research
(e) None of the above
122. A research through launching of a direct action with the objective of obtaining workable
solutions to the given problems is known as:
(a) Action Research
(b) Survey Research
(c) Evaluation Research
(d) Experimentation
(e) None of the above
123. A proposition which can be put to determine its validity is called:
(a) Variable
(b) Error
(c) Hypothesis
(d) Problem
(e) None of the above
124. The least noticeable value of a stimulus is called:
(a) Stimulus Threshold
(b) Response Threshold
(c) Hypothesis
(d) Problem
(e) None of the above
125. Which method is regarded as the most preferred method of psychology?
(a) Observation
(b) Introspection
(c) Case Study
(d) Experimental Method
(e) Action Research
126. “I bet this will happen if I do this” design of experimentation otherwise known as:
(a) Exploratory Experimentation
(b) Case Study
(c) Hypothesis Testing
(d) Survey Research
(e) None of the above
127. To ensure that the influence of all relevant variables is the same for all the subjects and does
not change during the experimental period is the main objective of:
(a) Experimental Error
(b) Experimental Control
(c) Experimental Variables
(d) Hypothesis Testing
(e) None of the above
128. Field Study method is the method of:
(a) Laboratory Observation
(b) Situational Observation
(c) Naturalistic Observation
(d) Occasional Observation
(e) None of the above
129. In studying the public opinion:
(a) Field Study method is applied
(b) Action Research is applied
(c) Survey Research is applied
(d) Scaling method is applied
(e) None of the above
130. Which scale represents the lowest level of measurement and imparts the least information?
(a) Nominal Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
(e) None of the above
131. Which Scale has an absolute zero at the point of origin?
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Interval Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
(e) None of the above
132. The method of selecting a portion of the universe with a view to drawing conclusion about the
universe ‘in toto’ is known as:
(a) Scaling
(b) Leveling
(c) Randomizing
(d) Sampling
(e) None of the above
133. How many samples out of 100 samples drawn from a given population, the researcher wants,
should represent the true population estimates is known as:
(a) The confidence level
(b) The sampling level
(c) The situational level
(d) The experimental level
(e) None of the above
134. The most common method of sampling in marketing researches and election polls is:
(a) Random Sampling
(b) Stratified Random Sampling
(c) Quota Sampling
(d) Proportionate Stratified Sampling
(e) Cluster Sampling
135. Itemized rating scales are otherwise known as:
(a) Numerical Scales
(b) Rank Order Scales
(c) Graphic rating Scales
(d) Comparative Scales
(e) None of the above
136. The men of medicine of the ancient as well as the modern tribal groups are masters in the
techniques of:
(a) Suggestion and Hypnosis
(b) Experimentation
(c) Introspection
(d) Field Study
(e) None of the above
137. In India, the first psychological laboratory was started in the year 1916 in Calcutta University
and the second in 1923 in Mysore University. Both these laboratories are the result of the
endeavour of:
(a) Prof. K. Kautilya
(b) Prof. B. Sinha
(c) Prof. B. N. Seal
(d) Prof. R. N. Rath
(e) None of the above
138. In Observation Method, there is a tendency to read one’s own thought and feeling into other’s
mind. This may be otherwise called:
(a) Projection
(b) Sublimation
(c) Identification
(d) Rationalization
(e) None of the above
139. In the field of sensation, psychologists can easily gather valuable information’s by the help of:
(a) Survey Method
(b) Introspection Method
(c) Experimentation
(d) Clinical Method
(e) None of the above
140. When a person is becoming angry, if he starts observing and studying his state of mind
simultaneously, he will not be able to show his anger. The moment he starts observing his own
anger, it may subside. This problem can be partially solved by observing the experience after it is
over. This is popularly known as:
(a) Retrospection
(b) Introjection
(c) Projection
(d) Identification
(e) None of the above
141. There are some people in the world who can move objects which are away from them without
using any form of physical force. In psychology, this phenomenon is called:
(a) Psychoanalysis
(b) Telepathy
(c) Precognition
(d) Psychokinesis
(e) Leviation
142. The story of the Bible affirms that St. Peter walked on the surface of water. Among the
Indian mystics, Padmapada, a disciple of Adi Sankar is reported to have walked across water, his
steps being supported by lotus flowers. In psychology, this form of mysterious behaviour is
popularly known as:
(a) Leviation
(b) Telepathy
(c) Psychokinesis
(d) Precognition
(e) None of the above.
143. Some people are able to know and predict events long before others can. This process is
popularly known as:
(a) Telepathy
(b) Precognition
(c) Leviation
(d) Psychokinesis
(e) None of the above
144. Some people in this world who are able to understand the thought processes of other
individuals who are far away and perhaps even influence them without any form of contact. In
psychology, this phenomenon is popularly known as:
(a) Telepathy
(b) Precognition
(c) Leviation
(d) Psychokinesis
(e) None of the above
145. A recent development of “Applied Social Psychology” which is concerned with the application
of psychology in solving the problems of particular communities of people like village community,
the urban community and the socially backward community etc. is popularly known as:
(a) Community Psychology
(b) Group Psychology
(c) Educational Psychology
(d) Criminal Psychology
(e) None of the above
146. Non-naturalistic observations on children may be contrived in a:
(a) Society
(b) Group
(c) Laboratory
(d) School
(e) None of the above
147. Projective test is a:
(a) Non-naturalistic Observation
(b) Naturalistic Observation
(c) Self Observation
(d) Internal Observation
(e) None of the above
148. The qualitative changes occurring in behavioural characteristics of the child leading towards
maturity is otherwise known as:
(a) Development
(b) Growth
(c) Maturation
(d) Learning
(e) Intelligence
149. The earlier concepts of “Child Development” started with the:
(a) Birth of the Child
(b) Death of the Child
(c) Conception
(d) Phallic Stage
(e) Second year of the Child
150. The concept which refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same persons when re-
examined with the same test on different occasions is known as:
(a) Validity
(b) Reliability
(c) Standard Error
(d) Error Variance
(e) None of the above
151. Experimental Analysis enables us to discern lawful relationships between antecedents and
consequents involved in:
(a) Behaviour
(b) Experience
(c) Habit
(d) Attitude
(e) None of the above
152. When large groups of interconnected facts are considered together in a consistent manner, we
get a:
(a) Scientific Theory
(b) Critical Problem
(c) Combined Result
(d) Confirmed Fact
(e) None of the above
153. Suppose you have a glass of milk and with a measuring glass you continue to add half a c.c. of
plain tea at every step, till your friend reports a change in judgement in the colour of the milk.
The quantity of tea added, has just crossed what is just termed as:
(a) Illusion
(b) Absolute Threshold
(c) Colour Blindness
(d) Just Noticeable Difference
(e) None of the above
154. Suppose one Experimenter (E) in psychology firmly believes that Brahmin children are
inherently superior to the Harijan children. Naturally he would never think of home environment
as an explanation. This is a very obvious example of:
(a) Experimenter’s Bias
(b) Subject’s Bias
(c) Stimulus Error
(d) Response Error
(e) None of the above
155. Which one of the following approaches tries to analyze human behaviour in terms of
stimulus-response units acquired through the process of learning, mainly through instrumental
conditioning?
(a) Cognitive Approach
(b) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
(c) Stimulus-Response-Behaviouristic Approach
(d) Existential Approach
(e) Organismic, Wholistic and Self Approach
156. The approach which has its roots in Gestalt Psychology is popularly known as:
(a) Wholistic Approach
(b) Stimulus-Response-Behaviouristic Approach
(c) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
(d) Cognitive Approach
(e) None of the above
157. Which approach emphasises the role of instinctual processes and their modification in the
course of interaction with the society?
(a) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
(b) Cognitive Approach
(c) Wholistic Approach
(d) Stimulus-Response-Behaviouristic Approach
(e) None of the above
158. Which approach placed emphasis on human existence—the need to establish a sense of
personal identity and to build meaningful links with the world?
(a) Cognitive Approach
(b) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
(c) Wholistic Approach
(d) Existential Approach
(e) None of the above
159. Existentialism tries to reach modern man, offer him help in terms of clarifying his values,
work out a meaningful and purposive existence. Psychologists who shaped this approach were:
(a) Rollo May, R. D. Laing and Erick Fromm
(b) G. W. Allport, R. B. Catell and H. J. Eysenk
(c) Erickson and Sullivan
(c) Piaget, Bruner and Witkin
(e) None of the above
160. The system which still survives very nearly in its rigid forms is:
(a) Cognitive Approach
(b) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
(c) Wholistic Approach
(d) Existential Approach
(e) None of the above
Answers
(103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (d)
114. (a) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (c) 121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (c) 124. (a)
125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (d) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a)
136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (b) 140. (a) 141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (c)
147. (a) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (d) 157. (a)
158. (d) 159. (a) 160. (b)

Unit 3:

Internal reliability is:

about the consistency of a measure taken at two different points in time.

about how consistently all of the items in a scale measure the concept in
question.
about how a single individual's scores remain identical.

about the increase or decrease in scores over time.

Which one of these characteristics would you expect not to give high test-retest
reliability?
Religious beliefs.

Attention.

Dyslexia.

Intelligence.

Complete the following statement.

The better the internal reliability then:
the lower the maximum correlation of that test with any other variable.

the higher the correlation between that measure and other variables.

the more likely the test is measuring what it is intended to measure.

none of these.

Cronbach's alpha reliability is:

an average of all possible split-half reliabilities.

the correlation of each item with the sum of the items.

the correlation of half of the items with the total participants.

none of these.

Correlating between different versions of a test is known as what?

Test-retest reliability.

Alternate forms reliability.

Split-half reliability.

Objectivity.
If a lecturer wanted to replace your current examinations on research methods with
this multiple choice test, the lecturer could correlate your multiple choice scores with
your marks from the written exam also sat by you today. If the two sets of scores
correlated well the lecturer could be fairly confident that this multiple choice test
had good what?
Predictive validity.

Concurrent validity.

Content validity.

Face validity.

A measure which is capable of differentiating between one group of participants

from another group of participants on a particular construct may have good what?
Convergent validity.

Known-groups validity.

Predictive validity.

Discriminant validity.

Using different methods of collecting data, different sources of evidence, different

tests and in some cases different interviewers, is known as what?
Reliability.

Transferability.

Triangulation.

Convergent validity.

Choose the incorrect statement.

Creating a new measure using item-analysis procedures would usually be

followed by assessing the reliability and validity of the measure.
A measure that is valid for one purpose may not be valid for another purpose.

Reliability and validity are not inherent characteristics of measures.

 Reliability and validity should not be affected by the context and purpose of the
measure.

Why should tests used in clinical settings have higher levels of reliability and validity
than those used in research studies?
Because they are used to assess individuals.

Ideally the measures should have the same reliability and validity.

Because there are smaller samples used in clinical settings.

Because measures in research settings are less valuable and useful than those in
clinical settings.

1. Psychometric reliability refers to the degree to which a test is …

a. free from measurement error

b. consistent
c. dependable
d. all of the above

2. The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does
this imply?

a. Convergent validity
b. Content validity
c. Internal consistency
d. Retest reliability

3. To assess the convergent validity of a new test of self-esteem, a researcher should establish that…

a. it correlates highly with a different test of self-esteem

b. it does not correlate too highly with a different test of self-esteem
c. it correlates highly with a test of narcissism
d. it does not correlate too highly with a test of narcissism

4. Consider the following statements about a hypothetical personality test. Which one is not possible based
on the relationship between reliability and validity?

a. The test is high in predictive validity and high in reliability

b. The test is high in predictive validity and low in reliability
c. The test is low in predictive validity and high in reliability
d. The test is low in predictive validity and low in reliability

5. To test the predictive validity of a test of extraversion, a researcher could show that people’s scores on
the test correlate with …

a. their scores on another extraversion test

b. their scores on the same extraversion test at a later date
 c. another person’s ratings of their extraversion
d. their frequency of attending parties over a two-month period

6. Which of the following is not a weakness of interview methods of personality assessment?

a. They allow interviewers to follow personal lines of questioning

b. They are sensitive to the interpersonal dynamics between interviewer and interviewee
c. They have advantages when it comes to assessing personality disorders
d. They are time-consuming

7. A test-taker who repeatedly answers ‘false’ on a personality inventory with true/false response options is
showing which response bias?

a. Malingering
b. Faking bad
c. Nay-saying
d. Self-deception

8. Which of the following statements is not correct about personality inventories?

a. They tend to have high inter-rater reliability

b. They assess a single personality characteristic
c. They are developed through a process of selecting the best items from a larger set
d. They are susceptible to several response biases because they rely on self-report

9. The rationale for using projective tests is that they …

a. allow people to use the defence mechanism of projection

b. have superior re-test reliability
c. are labour-intensive
d. avoid self-report biases

10. Which of the following statements is correct about the Rorschach inkblot test?

a. All of the blots are monochromatic

b. Interpretation is based only on the content of people’s responses
c. It aims to bypass the test-taker’s defences
d. It has demonstrated strong evidence of incremental validity

11. Which of the following do the Thematic Apperception Test not aim to assess?

a. Traits
b. Defence mechanisms
c. Motives
d. Object relations

12. Which of the following is not a weakness of many projective personality tests?

a. Poor predictive validity

b. Poor inter-rater reliability
c. Susceptibility to faking good bias
d. Susceptibility to poor incremental validity relative to inventories

13. Implicit personality tests …

 a. rely on rapid responses to stimuli presented on computer screens
b. attempt to bypass the response biases that plague self-report inventories
c. often do not correlate strongly with inventory-based measures of the same characteristic
d. all of the above

14. The repertory grid is unlike self-report inventories because it …

a. assesses characteristics (constructs) that are unique to each person

b. is a projective test
c. is unsystematic
d. has very few items

15. What have most studies of clinical versus actuarial prediction shown?

a. Psychologists with access to personality test data make more valid predictions than statistical
formulas
b. Psychologists and statistical formulas make equally valid predictions
c. Statistical formulas make more valid predictions than psychologists
d. Statistical formulas fail to make valid holistic personality assessments

1. One of the turning points in psychology was the development of the first intelligence test in 1905 by:
a. Francis Galton
b. Cyril Burt
c. Lewis Terman
d. Alfred Binet
e. David Weschler
f. Jean Piaget
2. There is a positive correlation between almost every reliable measure that involves mental processing, retrieval,
or manipulation of information and almost any other measure that involves cognitive activity:
a. True
b. False
3. Without ___________________, the ability of a theory to make predictions is more difficult.
a. precision
b. parsimony
c. substantial research
d. all of the above
4. Theories are evaluated favourably to the extent that they are:
a. supported by research findings
b. accepted by a large number of psychologists
c. obviously correct
d. all of the above
5. Theory and research operate best when:
a. research always precedes theory
b. theory always precedes research
c. they are totally independent of each other
d. there is continuous cycling between them
6. Which of the following questions is useful in determining the explanatory and predictive value of a theory?
a. Is the theory stimulating in terms of further consideration and research?
b. Is the theory based on too narrow a set of information?
c. Does the theory feel reasonable or sensible?
 d. All of the above
7. Raven’s Progessive Matrices is an Intelligence Test which shows:
a. high loadings on Spearman’s g
b. contains perceptual analogies in the form of a matrix
c. has 3 forms for different levels of difficulty
d. has minimal cultural item loading
e. all of the above
8. Francis Galton measured intelligence by:
a. developing a test with more factors than anyone else had
b. scoring the detail of testee’s drawings
c. developing a battery of verbal and visual tasks
d. developing sensori-motor tasks
9. The Intelligence Quotient (IQ) was proposed in 1912 by:
a. Francis Galton
b. Alfred Binet
c. Lewis Terman
d. David Weschler
e. None of the above
10. During World I, ___________, developed a group-based method of intelligence testing in order to help
optimally place people in the US army:
a. Terman
b. Yerkes
c. Binet
d. Jensen
e. Piaget
11. Charles Spearman proposed a _____ factor theory of intelligence:
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. five
12. What prevents the results of a single case study from being applied to many people?
a. lack of retest reliability
b. lack of generality
c. general scoring error
d. singular inconsistency
13. Two variables, X and Y, are said to be correlated if:
a. the values of X and Y tend to go together in a systematic way
b. a change in X tends to cause a change in Y
c. variable X and variable Y both influence variable Z
d. none of the above
14. As a correlation moves from r = 0 to r = 1, it gets progressively:
a. more positive and stronger
b. more positive and weaker
c. more negative and stronger
d. more negative and weaker
15. Correlational research cannot provide information concerning the ____________ of the relationship between
two variables.
a. strength
b. causality
c. position
 d. direction
16. What method of personality research allows inferences to be drawn concerning the cause of a phenomenon
under investigation?
a. case study
b. experimental
c. correlational
d. all of the above
17. If a study categorizes subjects on the basis of some naturally occurring difference, it is most likely:
a. a correlational study
b. an experimental study
c. a cross-lagged study
d. a case study
18. Which type of study is best, correlational or experimental?
a. Correlational.
b. Experimental.
c. Impossible to tell.
d. There are advantages and disadvantages associated with each.
19. _________________ allow researchers to observe how different types of people respond to variations in
situations.
a. Single-factor designs
b. Crossed designs
c. Main effects
d. None of the above
20. A scale is "objective" if:
a. a person's responses are recorded directly, with no interpretations until a later time
b. an interpretation is made before information about behaviour is recorded
c. another researcher has used it
d. It is included in the "Manual of Personality Inventories"
21. Which of the following is a potential source of error in a measure?
a. the way an item is phrased
b. variations in an observer's attention
c. variation in what an observer is thinking about while administering a measure
d. all of the above
22. Reliability within a set of observations measuring the same aspect of personality is referred to as:
a. lack of random error
b. unified reliability
c. internal consistency
d. internal clarity
23. A measure is high in validity when:
a. the results obtained with the measure match the researcher's predictions
b. the operational definition closely matches the conceptual definition
c. all the researchers agree to its use
d. the experimenter has been found to be absolutely trustworthy
24. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of construct validity?
a. criterion
b. discriminant
c. split-half
d. convergent
25. Discriminant validity deals with the following general question:
a. Does the test measure the intended conceptual characteristics?
b. Does the test predict what it is supposed to predict?
c. Does the test correlate with measures of other characteristics thought to be similar?
d. Does the test fail to correlate with measures of other characteristics thought to be
different?
26. Acquiescence is a problem in research because:
a. everyone's degree of acquiescence is about the same
b. people vary a lot in how much they tend to acquiesce
c. the scores of people who are highly acquiescent are often deflated
d. It is difficult to counteract
27. The theoretical approach to assessment often results in measures that have a high degreee of
_______________ validity.
a. construct
b. face
c. discriminant
d. internal
28. Thurstone proposed ______ ‘primary mental abilities’:
a. three
b. five
c. seven
d. ten
e. twelve
29. In the 1960’s, Raymond Cattell proposed measurement of:
a. culture-free intelligence
b. non-verbal intelligence
c. fluid and crystallised intelligence
d. achievement rather than intelligence
e. practical intelligence
30. Probably the most widely accepted factorial description of intelligence is a hierarchical one, with g at the top
and specific mental abilities at the bottom:
a. True
b. False

Unit 4

1. Which of the following should not be a criterion for a good research project?
a. Demonstrates the abilities of the researcher
b. Is dependent on the completion of other projects
c. Demonstrates the integration of different fields of knowledge
d. Develops the skills of the researcher
2. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?
a. Objective reasoning
b. Positivistic reasoning
c. Inductive reasoning
d. Deductive reasoning
3. Research that seeks to examine the findings of a study by using the same design but a different sample is
which of the following?
a. An exploratory study
b. A replication study
c. An empirical study
d. Hypothesis testing
4. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence job-seeking behaviours.
The main purpose of the study was:
a. Description
b. Prediction
c. Exploration
d. Explanation
5. Cyber bullying at work is a growing threat to employee job satisfaction. Researchers want to find out why
people do this and how they feel about it. The primary purpose of the study is:
a. Description
b. Prediction
c. Exploration
d. Explanation
6. A theory:
a. Is an accumulated body of knowledge
b. Includes inconsequential ideas
c. Is independent of research methodology
d. Should be viewed uncritically
7. Which research method is a bottom-up approach to research?
a. Deductive method
b. Explanatory method
c. Inductive method
d. Exploratory method
8. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?
a. You should trust research findings after different researchers have replicated the findings
b. You should completely trust a single research study
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b
9. A qualitative research problem statement:
a. Specifies the research methods to be utilized
b. Specifies a research hypothesis
c. Expresses a relationship between variables
d. Conveys a sense of emerging design
10. Which of the following is a good research question?
a. To produce a report on student job searching behaviours
b. To identify the relationship between self-efficacy and student job searching behaviours
c. Students with higher levels of self-efficacy will demonstrate more active job searching behaviours
d. Do students with high levels of self-efficacy demonstrate more active job searching
behaviours?
11. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to :
a. Provide an up-to-date understanding of the subject, its significance, and structure
b. Guide the development of research questions
c. Present the kinds of research methodologies used in previous studies
d. All of the above
12. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not recommended by:
a. Ethnomethodology
b. Grounded theory
c. Symbolic interactionism
 d. Feminist theory
13. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Access to gatekeepers and respondents
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above
14. Research that uses qualitative methods for one phase and quantitative methods for the next phase is
known as:
a. Action research
b. Mixed-method research
c. Quantitative research
d. Pragmatic research
15. Research hypotheses are:
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. B but not A
d. Both A and B
16. Which research approach is based on the epistemological viewpoint of pragmatism?
a. Quantitative research
b. Qualitative research
c. Mixed-methods research
d. All of the above
17. Adopting ethical principles in research means:
a. Avoiding harm to participants
b. The researcher is anonymous
c. Deception is only used when necessary
d. Selected informants give their consent
18. A radical perspective on ethics suggests that:
a. Researchers can do anything they want
b. The use of checklists of ethical actions is essential
c. The powers of Institutional Review Boards should be strengthened
d. Ethics should be based on self-reflexivity
19. Ethical problems can arise when researching the Internet because:
a. Everyone has access to digital media
b. Respondents may fake their identities
c. Researchers may fake their identities
d. Internet research has to be covert
20. The Kappa statistic:
a. Is a measure of inter-judge validity
b. Compares the level of agreement between two judges against what might have been
predicted by chance
c. Ranges from 0 to +1
d. Is acceptable above a score of 0.5

PART B: RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

1. Which research paradigm is most concerned about generalizing its findings?
a. Quantitative research
b. Qualitative research
c. Mixed-methods research
d. All of the above
2. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called:
a. An intervening variable
b. A dependent variable
c. An independent variable
d. A numerical variable
3. Researchers posit that performance-related pay increases employee motivation which in turn leads to an
increase in job satisfaction. What kind of variable is ‘motivation”’ in this study?
a. Extraneous
 b. Confounding
c. Intervening
d. Manipulated
4. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. –1.00
b. +80
c. –60
d. +05
5. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two variables, it is
important not to:
a. Assume causality
b. Measure the values for X and Y independently
c. Choose X and Y values that are normally distributed
d. Check the direction of the relationship
6. Which of the following can be described as a nominal variable?
a. Annual income
b. Age
c. Annual sales
d. Geographical location of a firm
7. A positive correlation occurs when:
a. Two variables remain constant
b. Two variables move in the same direction
c. One variable goes up and the other goes down
d. Two variables move in opposite directions
8. The key defining characteristic of experimental research is that:
a. The independent variable is manipulated
b. Hypotheses are proved
c. A positive correlation exists
d. Samples are large
9. Qualitative research is used in all the following circumstances, EXCEPT:
a. It is based on a collection of non-numerical data such as words and pictures
b. It often uses small samples
c. It uses the inductive method
d. It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
10. In an experiment, the group that does not receive the intervention is called:
a. The experimental group
b. The participant group
c. The control group
d. The treatment group
11. Which generally cannot be guaranteed in conducting qualitative studies in the field?
a. Keeping participants from physical and emotional harm
b. Gaining informed consent
c. Assuring anonymity rather than just confidentiality
d. Maintaining consent forms
12. Which of the following is not ethical practice in research with humans?
a. Maintaining participants’ anonymity
b. Gaining informed consent
c. Informing participants that they are free to withdraw at any time
d. Requiring participants to continue until the study has been completed
13. What do we call data that are used for a new study but which were collected by an earlier researcher for
a different set of research questions?
a. Secondary data
b. Field notes
c. Qualitative data
d. Primary data
14. When each member of a population has an equal chance of being selected, this is called:
a. A snowball sample
b. A stratified sample
 c. A random probability sample
d. A non-random sample
15. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample of companies?
a. Randomly selecting a district and then sampling all companies within the district
b. Numbering all the elements of a company sampling frame and then using a random number
table to pick companies from the table
c. Listing companies by sector and choosing a proportion from within each sector at random
d. Choosing volunteer companies to participate
16. Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the larger the confidence interval
b. The smaller the sample size, the greater the sampling error
c. The more categories being measured, the smaller the sample size
d. A confidence level of 95 percent is always sufficient
17. Which of the following will produce the least sampling error?
a. A large sample based on convenience sampling
b. A small sample based on random sampling
c. A large snowball sample
d. A large sample based on random sampling
18. When people are readily available, volunteer, or are easily recruited to the sample, this is called:
a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Stratified sampling
d. Random sampling
19. In qualitative research, sampling that involves selecting diverse cases is referred to as:
a. Typical-case sampling
b. Critical-case sampling
c. Intensity sampling
d. Maximum variation sampling
20. A test accurately indicates an employee’s scores on a future criterion (e.g., conscientiousness). What
kind of validity is this?
a. Predictive
b. Face
c. Content
d. Concurrent

PART C: DATA COLLECTION METHODS

1. When designing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following EXCEPT
a. Pilot the questionnaire
b. Avoid jargon
c. Avoid double questions
d. Use leading questions
2. One advantage of using a questionnaire is that:
a. Probe questions can be asked
b. Respondents can be put at ease
c. Interview bias can be avoided
d. Response rates are always high
3. Which of the following is true of observations?
a. It takes less time than interviews
b. It is often not possible to determine exactly why people behave as they do
c. Covert observation raises fewer ethical concerns than overt
d. All of the above
4. A researcher secretly becomes an active member of a group in order to observe their behaviour. This
researcher is acting as:
a. An overt participant observer
b. A covert non-participant observer
c. A covert participant observer
d. None of the above
5. All of the following are advantages of structured observation, EXCEPT:
 a. Results can be replicated at a different time
b. The coding schedule might impose a framework on what is being observed
c. Data can be collected that participants may not realize is important
d. Data do not have to rely on the recall of participants
6. When conducting an interview, asking questions such as: "What else? or ‘Could you expand on that?’ are
all forms of:
a. Structured responses
b. Category questions
c. Protocols
d. Probes
7. Secondary data can include which of the following?
a. Government statistics
b. Personal diaries
c. Organizational records
d. All of the above
8. An ordinal scale is:
a. The simplest form of measurement
b. A scale with an absolute zero point
c. A rank-order scale of measurement
d. A scale with equal intervals between ranks
9. Which term measures the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer or predict performance
in some activity?
a. Face validity
b. Content reliability
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Construct validity
10. The ‘reliability’of a measure refers to the researcher asking:
a. Does it give consistent results?
b. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
c. Can the results be generalized?
d. Does it have face reliability?
11. Interviewing is the favoured approach EXCEPT when:
a. There is a need for highly personalized data
b. It is important to ask supplementary questions
c. High numbers of respondents are needed
d. Respondents have difficulty with written language
12. Validity in interviews is strengthened by the following EXCEPT:
a. Building rapport with interviewees
b. Multiple questions cover the same theme
c. Constructing interview schedules that contain themes drawn from the literature
d. Prompting respondents to expand on initial responses
13. Interview questions should:
a. Lead the respondent
b. Probe sensitive issues
c. Be delivered in a neutral tone
d. Test the respondents’ powers of memory
14. Active listening skills means:
a. Asking as many questions as possible
b. Avoiding silences
c. Keeping to time
d. Attentive listening
15. All the following are strengths of focus groups EXCEPT:
a. They allow access to a wide range of participants
b. Discussion allows for the validation of ideas and views
c. They can generate a collective perspective
d. They help maintain confidentiality
16. Which of the following is not always true about focus groups?
a. The ideal size is normally between 6 and 12 participants
 b. Moderators should introduce themselves to the group
c. Participants should come from diverse backgrounds
d. The moderator poses preplanned questions
17. A disadvantage of using secondary data is that:
a. The data may have been collected with reference to research questions that are not those of
the researcher
b. The researcher may bring more detachment in viewing the data than original researchers could
muster
c. Data have often been collected by teams of experienced researchers
d. Secondary data sets are often available and accessible
18. All of the following are sources of secondary data EXCEPT:
a. Official statistics
b. A television documentary
c. The researcher’s research diary
d. A company’s annual report
19. Which of the following is not true about visual methods?
a. They are not reliant on respondent recall
b. The have low resource requirements
c. They do not rely on words to capture what is happening
d. They can capture what is happening in real time
20. Avoiding naïve empiricism in the interpretation of visual data means:
a. Understanding the context in which they were produced
b. Ensuring that visual images such as photographs are accurately taken
c. Only using visual images with other data gathering sources
d. Planning the capture of visual data carefully

PART D: ANALYSIS AND REPORT WRITING

1. Which of the following is incorrect when naming a variable in SPSS?
a. Must begin with a letter and not a number
b. Must end in a full stop
c. Cannot exceed 64 characters
d. Cannot include symbols such as ?, & and %
2. Which of the following is not an SPSS Type variable?
a. Word
b. Numeric
c. String
d. Date
3. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called:
a. A bar chart
b. A pie chart
c. A line graph
d. A vertical graph
4. The purpose of descriptive statistics is to:
a. Summarize the characteristics of a data set
b. Draw conclusions from the data
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
5. The measure of the extent to which responses vary from the mean is called:
a. The mode
b. The normal distribution
c. The standard deviation
d. The variance
6. To compare the performance of a group at time T1 and then at T2, we would use:
a. A chi-squared test
b. One-way analysis of variance
 c. Analysis of variance
d. A paired t-test
7. A Type 1 error occurs in a situation where:
a. The null hypothesis is accepted when it is in fact true
b. The null hypothesis is rejected when it is in fact false
c. The null hypothesis is rejected when it is in fact true
d. The null hypothesis is accepted when it is in fact false
8. The significance level
a. Is set after a statistical test is conducted
b. Is always set at 0.05
c. Results in a p-value
d. Measures the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis
9. To predict the value of the dependent variable for a new case based on the knowledge of one or more
independent variables, we would use
a. Regression analysis
b. Correlation analysis
c. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
d. One-way analysis of variance
10. In conducting secondary data analysis, researchers should ask themselves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Who produced the document?
b. Is the material genuine?
c. How can respondents be re-interviewed?
d. Why was the document produced?
11. Which of the following are not true of reflexivity?
a. It recognizes that the researcher is not a neutral observer
b. It has mainly been applied to the analysis of qualitative data
c. It is part of a post-positivist tradition
d. A danger of adopting a reflexive stance is the researcher can become the focus of the study
12. Validity in qualitative research can be strengthened by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Member checking for accuracy and interpretation
b. Transcribing interviews to improve accuracy of data
c. Exploring rival explanations
d. Analysing negative cases
13. Qualitative data analysis programs are useful for each of the following EXCEPT:
a. Manipulation of large amounts of data
b. Exploring of the data against new dimensions
c. Querying of data
d. Generating codes
14. Which part of a research report contains details of how the research was planned and conducted?
a. Results
b. Design
c. Introduction
d. Background
15. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by managers and other professionals to
address issues in their organizations and/or professional practice?
a. Action research
b. Basic research
c. Professional research
d. Predictive research
16. Plagiarism can be avoided by:
a. Copying the work of others accurately
b. Paraphrasing the author’s text in your own words
c. Cut and pasting from the Internet
d. Quoting directly without revealing the source
17. In preparing for a presentation, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Practice the presentation
b. Ignore your nerves
c. Get to know more about your audience
 d. Take an advanced look, if possible, at the facilities
18. You can create interest in your presentation by:
a. Using bullet points
b. Reading from notes
c. Maximizing the use of animation effects
d. Using metaphors
19. In preparing for a viva or similar oral examination, it is best if you have:
a. Avoided citing the examiner in your thesis
b. Made exaggerated claims on the basis of your data
c. Published and referenced your own article(s)
d. Tried to memorize your work
20. Grounded theory coding:
a. Makes use of a priori concepts from the literature
b. Uses open coding, selective coding, then axial coding
c. Adopts a deductive stance
d. Stops when theoretical saturation has been reached