Civil Engineer - Zing Pkmcqs

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Building Materials and Construction

Which of the following is a mineral ? quartz
Gypsum is a_________________? chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
Which of the following is a rock ? gypsum
Slate is formed by metamorphic action on______________? shale
Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ? compact sand stone
The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is_____________? Quartz
Jumper is a tool used for_______________? quarrying of stones
A good building stone should not absorb water more than_____________? 5%
Sandstone is a ________________?
i. sedimentary rock
ii. aqueous rock
iii. silicious rock
The correct answer is:

A. only (i)
B. both (i) and (ii)
C. both (i) and (iii)
D. all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ? sand stone
Quartitze is a_____________? silicious rock
The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be____________? hard
Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics ? quartzite
The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is________________?
weight test
The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and
shape is known as______________? dressing of stones
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Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite,
marble, gypsum, mica______________? quartz and mica are minerals
Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge
? granite
Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between_____________?
2.5 to 3.0
Cross cut saw is used for_______________?
A. cutting soft stones

B. cutting hard stones
C. cutting large blocks of stones
D. dressing stones
Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than____________?
A. 50 MPa
B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 200 MPa
Spalling hammer is used for_____________?
A. driving wooden headed chisels

B. rough dressing of stones
C. carving of stones
D. breaking small projection of stones
Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
A. mulberry
B. mahogany
C. sal
D. deodar
Sapwood consists of______________?
A. innermost annular rings around the pith

B. portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
C. thin layers below the bark
D. thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood ?

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A. deodar and shishum

B. chir and sal
C. sal and teak
D. chir and deodar
Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?
A. deodar
B. chir
C. shishum
D. pine
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known
as________________?
A. heart shakes
B. cupshakes
C. starshakes
D. rindgalls
The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by_____________?
A. lack of ventilation
In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?
A. parallel to grains
B. 45° to grains
C. perpendicular to grains
D. same in all directions
Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock? (1) slate (2) shale (3) quartzite . The correct
answer is___________?
A. only (3)
B. both (1) and (3)
C. both (2) and (3)
D. all (1), (2) and (3)
Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork. Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an
excellent finish. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is_______________?

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A. 4% to 6%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 15% to 20%
D. 100%
Plywood has the advantage of_____________?
A. greater tensile strength in longer direction

B. greater tensile strength in shorter direction
C. same tensile strength in all directions
D. none of the above
The plywood______________?
A. has good strength along the panel only

B. can be spilt in the plane of the panel
C. has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
D. cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
First class timber has an average life of_____________?
A. less than one year

B. 1 to 5 years
C. 5 to 10 years
D. more than 10 years
The main function of alumina in brick earth is_______________?
A. to impart plasticity
B. to make the brick durable
C. to prevent shrinkage
D. to make the brick impermeable
A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more
than______________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 22%
D. 25%
Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains
of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is_________________?
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°
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The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as_______________?
A. log
B. batten
C. plank
D. baulk
The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is________________?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 35%
Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than_____________?
A. 3.5 N/mm2
B. 7.0 N/mm2
C. 10.5 N/mm2
D. 14.0 N/mm2
The age of a tree can be known by examining_________________?
A. cambium layer
B. annular rings
C. medullary rays
D. heart wood
Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick______________?
A. impermeable
B. brittle and weak
C. to lose cohesion
D. to crack and warp on drying
Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between_______________?
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________?
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A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________?
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________?
A. cracking and warping of bricks

B. loss of cohesion
C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia
The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________?
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying
The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________?
A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick

B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
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A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks
Pug mill is used for_______________?
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents
respectively of a good brick earth ?
A. lime stone and alumina

B. silica and alkalies
C. alumina and iron
D. alkalies and magnesium
The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________?
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side
Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________?
A. it takes less time for burning

B. it gives more output of first class bricks
C. it has less initial cost
D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________?. 500
Quick lime is_______________?

B. calcium oxide
Quick lime is? (a) slow in setting (b) rapid in slacking (c) good in strength ?
Glazing is used to make earthenware______________?A. hard

B. soft
C. porous
D. impervious
Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________?

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A. burning of lime stone

B. burning of kankar
C. adding water to quick lime
D. calcination of pure clay
The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________?
A. lime and silica

B. lime and alumina
C. silica and alumina
D. lime and iron
Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the_______________?

B. soundness of cement
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less
than_____________?
B. 30 minutes
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement
is____________?A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite
As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should
be_______________? 10 hours
Study the following statements. (a) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (b) Fat lime is suitable
for whitewashing, (c) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (d) Fat lime is suitable for making
mortar. The correct answer is______________?
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow
hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________?
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water
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The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement
is_________________?
tricalcium aluminate
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________? 50 mm
Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________?
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate
According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days
should not be less than________________?
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa
With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________?first increases to a certain

maximum value and then decreases
The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________?
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm
After storage, the strength of cement________________? decreases
The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________?30%
Gypsum consists of______________?
A. H2S and C02

B. CaS04 and H20
C. Lime and H20
D. C02 and calcium
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement
and standard sand in the proportions of___________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
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C. 1:4
D. 1:6
Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
low heat cement
The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight
of cement is_______________? 2
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete
is______________?
calcium chloride
Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur
Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel
are_______________? iron ore, coal and lime stone
Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
A. ordinary Portland cement

B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about_________________?
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2
The most commonly used retarder in cement is_________________?gypsum
The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is_____________?
A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
Which of the following is the purest form of iron ? wrought iron
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R :
Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given
below ?
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________? 0.6 liter
In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is
known as_______________?
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond
The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually______________?
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of_____? wood work
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R :
Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding
system given below ?. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels
is______________?less than 1
Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is_______________?less than 0.25
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________?
perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
A queen closer is a______________? brick having the same length and depth as the other
bricks but half the breadth
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________?
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm
Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
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A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer
The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints
is____________?
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________?
A. single flemish bond

B. double flemish bond
C. English bond
D. zigzag bond
Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________?
A. half brick thick

B. one brick thick
C. one and a half bricks thick
D. two bricks thick
Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________?
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction
are_______________?
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A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more
The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than__? 20
Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course,
where x is equal to_________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4
Single flemish bond consists of___________________?
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity
of soils is to_________________?
replace the poor soil
The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited
to______________? 65 mm
The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited
to______________?
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm
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The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where
noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________?
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring
Depth or height of the arch is the________________?
perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________?
batter pile
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_________? draining the soil
The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is_______________?0.9 m
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is
known as______________? rise
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of
carrying the load of the wall above is_______________?
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch
The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown
of an arch is known as___________? spandril
In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for________________?
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high
is______________?
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A. pitched and sloping roof

B. flat roof
C. shell roof
The lintels are preferred to arches because______________?
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above
The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess
is__________________?
A. mortise and tennon joint

B. oblique mortise and tennon joint
C. butt joint
D. mitred joint
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known
as_____________?
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof
The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is
called______________?
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter
Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for________________?
A. coastal regions
Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in________________?
A. two directions without break in the slope on each side

B. two directions with break in the slope on each side
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C. four directions without break in the slope on each side

D. four directions with break in the slope on each side
The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is
known as______________?
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of________________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more
covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________?
A. (1) and (3)

The function of cleats in a roof truss is______________?
A. to support the common rafter

B. to support purlins
C. to prevent the purlins from tilting
D. all of the above
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of______________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
The function of king post in a king post roof truss is_______________?
A. to support the frame work of the roof

B. to receive the ends of principal rafter
C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward
D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________?
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
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C. 60° and 10°

D. 40° and 25°
Sum of tread and rise must lie between_______________?
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm
The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to______________?
A. 10
B. 12
Minimum width of landing should be_______________?
A. equal to width of stairs

B. half the width of stairs
C. twice the width of stairs
D. one fourth the width of stairs
The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known
as_________________?
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings
The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than________________?
A. 2
B. 3
The term string is used for______________?
A. the underside of a stair

B. outer projecting edge of a tread
C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
D. a vertical member between two treads
In a colar beam roof_______________?
A. there is no horizontal tie beam

B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
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The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________?
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is_________________?
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has (1) high compressive strength (2) high tensile strength (3) low
compressive strength (4) low tensile strength The correct answer is_________________?
A. (1) and (2)

B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (1)and(4)
Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in__________?
1. better workability
2. better resistance to freezing and thawing
3. lesser workability
4. less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is:A. (1) and (2)
Highway Engineering
The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________?
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic
The stopping sight distance depends upon_______________?
A. total reaction time of driver

B. speed of vehicle
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C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above
Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is________________?
A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet
Camber in the road is provided for_______________?
A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal
to______________?
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance
The shoulder provided along the road edge should be_______________?
A. rougher than the traffic lanes

B. smoother than the traffic lanes
C. of same colour as that of the pavement
D. of very low load bearing capacity
When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the
wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________?
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving
For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber
is_______________?
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60
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The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is______________?
A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey

B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey
Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming______________?
rectangular or block road pattern

B. radial or star and block road pattern
C. radial or star and circular road pattern
D. radial or star and grid road pattern
Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance

is_______________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed
The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________?
A. overtaking sight distance

B. two times the overtaking sight distance
C. three times the overtaking sight distance
D. five times the overtaking sight distance
Select the correct statement______________?

C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway
Reaction time of a driver_______________?
A. increases with increase in speed

B. decreases with increase in speed
C. is same for all speeds
If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two
way traffic is_________________?
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m
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If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then
to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always
be________________?
A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction

B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction
The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations
is_____________?
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph
The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is_______________?
A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades

B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades
Stopping sight distance is always_______________?
A. less than overtaking sight distance

B. equal to overtaking sight distance
C. more than overtaking sight distance
The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________?
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%
For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced
by_____________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%
For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation
increases with_______________?
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A. increase in both speed and radius of curve

B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve
C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain
terrain is_______________?
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber
On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure
on the outer wheels will be_________________?
A. more than the pressure on inner wheels

B. less than the pressure on inner wheels
C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels
The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the
pavement_______________?
A. is preferable in steep terrain

B. results in balancing the earthwork
C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
D. does not change the vertical alignment of road
To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the design speed is
given by_________________?
A. 8 kmph
B. 12kmph
C. 16kmph
D. 20 kmph
In case of hill roads, the extra widening is generally provided______________?
A. equally on inner and outer sides of the curve

B. fully on the inner side of the curve
C. fully on the outer side of the curve
D. one-fourth on inner side and three-fourth on outer side of the curve
The maximum design gradient for vertical profile of a road is______________?
A. ruling gradient
B. limiting gradient
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C. exceptional gradient
D. minimum gradient
The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC recommendations
is_______________?
A. spiral
B. lemniscate
C. cubic parabola
D. any of the above
The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph
is______________?
B. 220 m
C. 440 m
D. 577 m
Select the correct statement_________________?
A. Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.

B. Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
C. Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.
D. Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle
For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is_____________?
A. A. based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration

B. based on rate of change of super elevation
C. higher of (A) and (B)
D. smaller of (A) and (B)
If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then the
compensated grade should be_________________?
A. 3 %
B. 4%
C. 5 %
D. 6%
Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ?A. simple parabola
B. cubic parabola
C. spiral
D. lemniscate
The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of radius
760 m is____________________?
24
A. 0.1 %
B. 1 %
C. 10%
D. no compensation
The camber of road should be approximately equal to___________________?
A. longitudinal gradient
B. two times the longitudinal gradient
C. three times the longitudinal gradient
D. half the longitudinal gradient
In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when_______________?
A. an ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient

B. an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient
C. a descending gradient meets with another descending gradient
D. an ascending gradient meets with a level surface
Enoscope is used to find______________?A. average speed

B. spot speed
C. space-mean speed
D. time-mean speed
If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 50, the length of summit

curve for a stopping sight distance of 80 m will be_______________?
A. zero
B. 64m
C. 80m
D. 60m
The value of ruling gradient in plains as per IRC recommendation is______________?
A. 1 in 12
B. 1 m 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 30
If the design speed is V kmph and deviation angle is N radians, then the total length of a valley
curve in meters is given by the expression_________________?
B. 0.38 (NV3)”2
Highway facilities are designed for_________________?A. annual average hourly volume

B. annual average daily traffic
C. thirtieth highest hourly volume
D. peak hourly volume of the year
25
For highway geometric design purposes the speed used is____? 98 “”percentile
The maximum width of a vehicle as recommended by IRC is________________?A. 1.85m

B. 2.44 m
C. 3.81 m
D. 4.72 m
Select the correct statement__________________?A. Traffic volume should always be more than
traffic capacity
B. Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume
C. Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section
D. 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed
Which of the following methods is preferred for collecting origin and destination data for a small
area like a mass business center or a large intersection ? A. road side interview method
B. license plate method
C. return postcard method
D. home interview method
Length of a vehicle affects________________?
extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius

Desire lines are plotted in_________________?
origin and destination studies
The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in accidents
is known as___________________?
collision diagram
Which of the following is known as design capacity ? basic capacity
Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is_____________?
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 0.5
D. 10
With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles________________?
increasesWith increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the
lane________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
D. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then the
theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is________________?
26
A. 1500 vehicles per hour

B. 2000 vehicles per hour
C. 2500 vehicles per hour
D. 3000 vehicles per hour
The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location like roadway
limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as_____________?
A. pie chart
B. spot maps
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram
The background colour of the informatory sign board is______________?
A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. white
When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero,then_______________?
A. traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
B. traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value
C. traffic density and traffic volume both become zero
D. traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value
Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be based
on_____________?
A. spot speed data

B. origin and destination data
C. traffic volume data
D. accident data
On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points
is______________?
24
Which of the following is indicated by a warning sign ? level crossing
The most efficient traffic signal system is________________?
A. simultaneous system
B. alternate system
C. flexible progressive system
D. simple progressive system
Select the incorrect statement?

27
A. Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow
B. Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow
C. Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds
D. The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals
“Dead Slow” is a______________?
A. regulatory sign
B. warning sign
C. informatory sign
The provision of traffic signals at intersections______________?
A. reduces right angled and rear end collisions

B. increases right angled and rear end collisions
C. reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
D. reduces rear end collisions but may increase right angled collisions
The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly marked by the
pavement marking known as________________?
A. stop lines
B. turn markings
C. crosswalk lines
D. lane lines
When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape of central
island is________________?
A. circular
B. elliptical
C. tangent
D. turbine
B. Centre line markings are used_____________?
A. to designate traffic lanes

B. in roadways meant for two way traffic
C. to indicate that overtaking is not permitted
D. to designate proper lateral placement of vehicles before turning to different directions
The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have_______________?
A. equal radii and equal widths of pavement

B. equal radii but pavement width is more at entrance than at exit curve
C. equal pavement widths but radius is more at entrance curve than at exit curve
D. different radii and different widths of pavement
28
The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function efficiently
is______________?
A. 500 vehicles per hour

B. 500 vehicles per day
C. 5000 vehicles per hour
D. 5000 vehicles per day
As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast
traffic is______________?
A. 10 lux
B. 15 lux
C. 20 lux
D. 30 lux
Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with_______________?
A. parallel parking
B. 30° angle parking
C. 45° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
A traffic rotary is justified where______________?
A. number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7

B. space is limited and costly
C. when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
D. when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the
suitable shape of rotary is________________?
A. circular
B. tangent
C. elliptical
D. turbine
When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking
system is________________?
A. parallel parking
B. 45° angle parking
C. 65° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is_______________?
29
A. single side lighting

B. staggered system
C. central lighting system
In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then_____________?
compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct______________?
abrasion test
The direct interchange ramp involves____________?
A. diverging to the right side and merging from left

B. diverging to the left side and merging from right
C. diverging to the right side and merging from right
D. diverging to the left side and merging from left
Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates ?
A. crushing strength test

B. abrasion test
C. impact test
D. shape test
If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as_______________?
A. exceptionally strong
B. strong
C. satisfactory for road surfacing
D. unsuitable for road surfacing
Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is______________?
A. more than that in tar

B. less than that in tar
C. equal to that in tar
In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at_______________?
A. 2.5 mm penetration only

B. 5.0 mm penetration only
C. 7.5 mm penetration only
D. both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course
is_______________?
30
A. 10%
B. 20 %
C. 30%
D. 45 %
The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less
than____________?
A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 60 cm
Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen ?
A. 30/40
B. 60/70
C. 80/100
D. 100/120
Bitumen of grade 80/100 means______________?
A. its penetration value is 8 mm

B. its penetration value is 10 mm
C. its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
D. its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum
temperature is 40° C should be______________?A. less-than 40°C
B. greater than 40°C
C. equal to 40°C
The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and
percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is______________?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Group index method of design of flexible pavement is_______________?
A. a theoretical method
B. an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
C. an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil
D. a semi empirical method
31
Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load_____________?
A. directly to subgrade
B. through structural action
C. through a set of layers to the subgrade
The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is____________?
A. group index method

B. CBR method
C. Westergaard method
D. Benkelman beam method
Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its_____________?
A. grade
B. viscosity
C. ductility
D. temperature susceptibility
The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is_______________?
A. RT-1
B. RT-2
C. RT.3
D. RT-5
The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction
is____________?
A. 0.4 %
B. 0.6%
C. 0.8 %
D. 1.0 %
RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to_______________?
A. same viscosity
B. viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
C. viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is______________?
A. gasoline
B. kerosene oil
C. light diesel
D. heavy diesel
32
Bottom most layer of pavement is known as_____________?
A. wearing course
B. base course
C. sub-base course
D. subgrade
The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should
be able to support during the life of pavement is______________?
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. 1000000
Tyre pressure influences the______________?
A. total depth of pavement

B. quality of surface course
C. both the above
Select the correct statement______________?
A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required
B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm2 is_______________?
A. equal to 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. zero
Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at______________?
A. expansion joints
B. contraction joints
C. warping joints
D. longitudinal joints
The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to______________?A. relieve warping

stresses
B. relieve shrinkage stresses
C. resist stresses due to expansion
D. allow free expansion
33
The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is_____________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5m
The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is____________?
A. load stress + warping stress frictional stress

B. load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
C. load stress + warping stress
D. load stress + frictional stress
If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is treated
as_____________?
A. good
B. fair
C. poor
D. very poor
The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is______________?
A. 0
B. 25 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 100 mm
The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is_____________?
A. climatic condition
B. type and intensity of traffic
C. subgrade soil and drainage conditions
D. availability of funds for the construction project
Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is______________?
A. 500 tonnes per day

B. 1000 tonnes per day
C. 1500 tonnes per day
D. 2000 tonnes per day
The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter width
and for 10 mm thickness is________________?
34
A. 8 cubic meter
B. 10 cubic meter
C. 12 cubic meter
The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is________________?
A. cement
B. lime
C. bitumen
For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after
spreading coarse aggregates is________________?
A. dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler

B. dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
C. dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
D. dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement
concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is________________?
A. seal coat
B. tack coat
C. prime coat
D. spray of emulsion
The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a_______________?
A. smooth wheeled roller

B. pneumatic tyred roller
C. sheep foot roller
D. vibrator
Most suitable material for highway embankments is______________?
A. granular soil
B. organic soil
C. silts
D. clays
The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is________________?
A. equal to the cross slope of pavement

B. less than the cross slope of pavement
C. greater than the cross slope of pavement
D. zero
35
In highway construction, rolling starts from________________?
A. sides and proceed to centre

B. centre and proceed to sides
C. one side and proceed to other side
D. any of the above
In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is__________________?
A. sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted

B. premixed with aggregates and then spread
C. sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
Which of the following premix methods is used for base course ?
A. bituminous carpet
B. mastic asphalt
C. sheet asphalt
D. bituminous bound macadam
The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is________________?
A. sheet asphalt
B. bituminous carpet
C. mastic asphalt
The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from__________________?
A. 20 to 25 mm
B. 50 to 75 mm
C. 75 to 100 mm
D. 100 to 120 mm
Select the correct statement________________?
A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during bituminous road
construction
C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black
top pavements ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
36
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes
is known as_______________?
A. sloping drain
B. catchwater drain
C. side drain
D. cross drain
In hill roads the side drains arc provided________________?
A. only on the hill side of road

B. only on the opposite side of hill
C. on both sides of road
The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as_______________?
A. 20 kmph
B. 30 kmph
C. 40 kmph
D. 50 kmph
In highway construction on super elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed

from_________________?
A. sides towards the centre

B. centre towards the sides
C. lower edge towards the upper edge
D. upper edge towards the lower edge
The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as________________?
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Surveying and levelling

37
The correction for sag is_________________?
always subtractive
Which of the following methods of offsets involves less measurement on the ground?
A. method of perpendicular offsets

B. method of oblique offsets
C. method of ties
D. all involve equal measurement on the ground
The allowable length of an offset depends upon the______________?
A. degree of accuracy required

B. method of setting out the perpendiculars and nature of ground
C. scale of plotting
D. all of the above
For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than______________?
30°
During chaining along a straight line, the . leader of the party has 4 arrows in his hand while the
follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is_____________?
A. 4 chains
B. 6 chains
C. 120 m
D. 180m
The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square is______________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff?
A. 45° only
B. 90° only
C. either 45° or 90°
D. any angle
The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly ground
is_____________?
38
A. 1 in 100
B. 1 in 250
C. 1 in 500
D. 1 in 1000
Normal tension is that pull which_______________?
A. is used at the time of standardising the tape

B. neutralizes the effect due to pull and sag
C. makes the correction due to sag equal to zero
D. makes the correction due to pull equal to zero
If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by______________?
straightening the links
Cross staff is an instrument used for________________?
A. measuring approximate horizontal angles

B. setting out right angles
C. measuring bearings of the lines
Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets ?
A. line ranger
B. steel tape
C. optical square
D. cross staff
For a line AB_______________?
A. the forebearing of AB and back bearing of AB differ by 180°

B. the forebearing of AB and back bearing of BA differ by 180°
C. both (A. and (B. are correct.
D. none is correct
If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30′, then the azimuth of the line AB is_____________?
A. 0° 30′
B. 89° 30′
C. 90° 30′
D. 269° 30′
The length of a chain is measured from_______________?
A. centre of one handle to centre of other handle

B. outside of one handle to outside of other handle
39
C. outside of one handle to inside of other handle

D. inside of one handle to inside of other handle
The maximum tolerance in a 20 m chain is_______________?
A. ±2 mm
B. ±3 mm
C. ±5 mm
D. ±8 mm
A. The true meridians at different places are parallel to each other

B. The true meridian at any place is not variable
C. The true meridians converge to a point in northern and southern hemispheres
D. The maps prepared by national survey departments of any country are based on true meridians
For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to chain because the steel
band______________?
A. is lighter than chain

B. is easier to handle
C. is practically inextensible and is not liable to kinks when in use
D. can be easily repaired in the field
In the prismatic compass______________?
A. the magnetic needle moves with the box

B. the line of the sight does not move with the box
C. the magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
D. the graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the N-S direction
In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30′ can be expressed
as______________? N66°30’W
The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is
called______________?
A. azimuth
B. declination
C. local attraction
D. magnetic bearing
Local attraction in compass surveying may exist due to________________?
presence of magnetic substances near the instrument
The prismatic compass and surveyor’s compass________________?

40
A. give whole circle bearing (WCB. of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB. of a line respectively
A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the________________?
A. eastern side of the true meridian

B. western side of the true meridian
C. southern side of the true meridian
Agate cap is fitted with a_________________?
A. cross staff
B. level
C. chain
D. prismatic compass
If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is 167°, the magnetic
declination at that place is________________?
A. 77° N
B. 23° S
C. 13° E
D. 13° W
The graduations in prismatic compass_____________?
1. are inverted
2. are upright
3. run clockwise having 0° at south
4. run clockwise having 0° at north
The correct answer is ?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is known
as______________?
A. transiting
B. reversing
C. plunging
D. swinging
A telescope is said to be inverted if its______________?

41
A. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down
B. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up
C. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down
Size of a theodolite is specified by________________?
A. the length of telescope

B. the diameter of vertical circle
C. the diameter of lower plate
D. the diameter of upper plate
If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the theodolite may be
rotated____________?
A. on its outer spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of lower plate
B. on its outer spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and gra-duated scale of lower plate
C. on its inner spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower
plate
D. on its inner spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower
plate
For which of the following permanent adjustments of theodolite, the spire test is used ?
A. adjustment of plate levels

B. adjustment of line of sight
C. adjustment of horizontal axis
D. adjustment of altitude bubble and vertical index frame
Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition of horizontal angle
measurement ?
A. error due to eccentricity of verniers

B. error due to displacement of station signals
C. error due to wrong adjustment of line of collimation and trunnion axis
D. error due to inaccurate graduation
The cross hairs in the surveying telescope are placed_____________?
A. midway between eye piece and objec¬tive lens

B. much closer to the eye-piece than to the objective lens
C. much closer to the objective lens than to the eye piece
D. anywhere between eye-piece and objective lens
The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used
for_____________? leveling
The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axes can be eliminated by________________?
42
A. reading both verniers and taking the mean of the two

B. taking both face observations and taking the mean of the two
C. double sighting
D. taking mean of several readings distributed over different portions of the graduated circle
In an internal focussing type of telescope, the lens provided is_______________?
A. concave
B. convex
C. plano-convex
D. plano-concave
The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on_______________?
A. backsight
B. intermediate sight
C. foresight
D. all of the above
A’level line’is a______________?
A. horizontal line
B. line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth
If a tripod settles in the interval that elapses between taking a back sight reading and the following
foresight reading, then the elevation of turning point will_________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. not change
D. either ‘a’ or ‘b’
In the double application of principle of reversion, the apparent error is_______________?
A. equal to true error

B. half the true error
C. two times the true error
D. four times the true error
Theodolite is an instrument used for_________________?
measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles
If altitude bubble is provided both on index frame as well as on telescope of a theodolite, then the
instrument is levelled with reference to_________________?
43
1. altitude bubble on index frame

2. altitude bubble on index frame if it is to be used as a level
3. altitude bubble on telescope
4. altitude bubble on telescope if it is to be used as a level
The correct answer is?
both (1) and (4)
Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking mean of bot face observations ?
A. error due to imperfect graduations

B. error due to eccentricity of verniers
C. error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels
D. error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to horizontal axis
The following sights are taken on a “turning point”________________?
A. foresight only
B. backsight only
C. foresight and backsight
D. foresight and intermediate sight
If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the backsight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m, the R.L. of the
forward station is_________________?
A. 99.345 m
B. 100.345 m
C. 100.655m
D. 101.870m
As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature and refraction are respectively The above
table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X should be________________?
A. 98.70
B. 100.00
C. 102.30
D. 103.30
Refraction correction________________?
partially eliminates curvature correction
The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by________________? increasing the diameter of
the tube
If the staff is not held vertical at a level¬ling station, the reduced level calculated from the observation
would be_______________?
44
A. true R.L
B. more than true R.L
C. less than true R.L
Which of the following errors can be neutralised by setting the level midway between the two
stations ?
A. error due to curvature only

B. error due to refraction only
C. error due to both curvature and re-fraction
The rise and fall method_______________?
A. is less.accurate than height of instrument method

B. is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels
C. provides a check on the reduction of intermediate point levels
The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that_______________?
A. level line is a curved line while hori-zontal line is a straight line

B. level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line at the tangent
point to level line
C. horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb line
D. both are same
With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube______________?
A. decreases
The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is 2.455 m. If the
foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L. of point B will
be_______________?
A. 94.80 m
B. 99.71 m
C. 100.29 m
D. 105.20 m
If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is d, then the error due
to curvature of earth is proportional to_______________?
A. d
B. 1/d
C. d2
D. 1/d2
45
The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is______________?
A. 2 m
B. 5m
C. 10 m
D. 20 m
Contour interval is_______________?
A. inversely proportional to the scale of the map
Dumpy level is most suitable when______________?
A. the instrument is to be shifted frequently

B. fly levelling is being done over long distance
C. many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
D. all of the above
Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by______________?
A. radius of level tube

B. length of level tube
C. length of bubble of level tube
The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the
instrument station should be_______________?
A. equidistant from A and B

B. closer to the higher station
C. closer to the lower station
D. as far as possible from the line AB
An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to the
horizontal is known as__________________?
A. contour line
B. horizontal equivalent
C. contour interval
D. contour gradient
Select the correct statement_______________?
A. A contour is not necessarily a closed curve

B. A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value con¬tour lies towards the higher
value contour
C. Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an overhanging
46
cliff
D. All of the above statements are correct
In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is
called_______________?
A. ranging
B. centring
C. horizontal control
D. vertical control
Which of the following methods of con-touring is most suitable for a hilly terrain ?
A. direct method
B. square method
C. cross-sections method
D. tacheometric method
Direct method of contouring is_________________?
A. a quick method
B. adopted for large surveys only
C. most accurate method
D. suitable for hilly terrains
Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a_______________?
A. depression
B. hillock
C. plain surface
A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a___________________?
A. steep slope
Benchmark is established by________________?
A. hypsometry
B. barometric levelling
C. spirit levelling
D. trigonometrical levelling
Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for________________?
A. forests
B. urban areas
47
C. hilly areas
D. plains
Three point problem can be solved by_________________?
A. Tracing paper method

B. Bessels method
C. Lehman’s method
D. all of the above
The type of surveying which requires least office work is________________?
A. tacheomefry
B. trigonometrical levelling
C. plane table surveying
D. theodolite surveying
Detailed plotting is generally done by________________?
A. radiation
B. traversing
C. resection
D. all of the above
The size of a plane table is________________?
A. 750 mm x 900 mm
B. 600 mm x 750 mm
C. 450 mm x 600 mm
D. 300 mm x 450 mm
The two point problem and three point problem are methods of________________?
A. resection
B. orientation
C. traversing
D. resection and orientation
The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re sectors from the
locations of the known stations is called_________________?
A. radiation
B. intersection
C. resection
D. traversing
Bowditch rule is applied to_________________?

48
A. an open traverse for graphical adjustment

B. a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
C. determine the effect of local attraction
If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and departure
respectively of the line AB will be________________?
A. +50 m, +86.6 m
B. +86.6 m, -50 m
Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the position of an
inaccessible point ?
A. radiation
B. intersection
C. traversing
D. resection
Select the correct statement?
A. Contour interval on any map is kept constant

B. Direct method of contouring is cheap¬er than indirect method
C. Inter-visibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained
D. Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours
The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is________________?
A. spirit level
B. alidade
C. plumbing fork
D. trough compass
The resection by two point problem as compared to three point problem_______________?
A. gives more accurate problem

B. takes less time
C. requires more labour
If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south latitudes and
also the sum of west departures is more than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of the
closing line is in the________________?
A. NE quadrant
B. SE quadrant
C. NW quadrant
D. SW quadrant
49
Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a traverse is used where________________?
A. linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal accuracy

B. angular measurements are more accurate than linear measurements
C. linear measurements are more accurate than angular measurements
D. all of the above
Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric observations_________________?
A. require slope correction

B. require tension correction
C. require slope and tension corrections
D. do not require slope and tension corrections
Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the details which are
far away from transit stations ?
A. measuring angle and distance from one transit station

B. measuring angles to the point from at least two stations
C. measuring angle at one station and distance from other
D. measuring distance from two points on traverse line
The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is ________________?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
For a tacheometer the additive and multi-plying constants are respectively________________?
A. 0 and 100
Different grades are joined together by a ________________?
D. vertical curve
If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass to the trunnion axis is
15 cm, the additive constant is_______________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 1.33
If the intercept on a vertical staff is ob-served as 0.75 m from a tacheometer, the horizontal distance
between tacheometer and staff station is________________?
50
A. 7.5 m
B. 25 m
C. 50
D. 75 m
Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using ________________?
A. compound curve
B. vertical curve
C. reverse curve
D. transition curve
Subtense bar is an instrument used for _______________?
A. levelling
B. measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
C. measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
D. measurement of angles
The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a traverse is called
________________?
A. deflection angle
B. included angle
C. direct angle
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at each plane table
station are ______________ ?
1. levelling
2. orientation
3. centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
B. (1), (3), (2)
The methods used for locating the plane table stations are_______________?
1. radiation
2. traversing
3.intersection
4. resection
The correct answer is
A. (1) and (2)

B. (3) and (4)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (1) and (3)
51
In the cross-section method of indirect contouring, the spacing of cross-sections depends

upon_____________?
1. contour interval
2. scale of plan
3. characteristics of ground
D. (1), (2) and (3)
A metallic tape is made of ______________ ?
A. steel
B. invar
C. linen
D. cloth and wires
Design of Concrete Structures

The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is
called____________?
A. segregation
Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is________________?
A. 0.003
B. 0.0003
C. 0.00003
D. 0.03
Workability of concrete is directly proportional to________________?
A. aggregate cement ratio

B. time of transit
C. grading of the aggregate
D. all of above
The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is
given by_______________?
A. tcr – rcs = tct

B. fcr>fcs>fc
C. fcr<fcs
D. fc5>fcr>fC
Strength of concrete increases with________________?

52
A. increase in water-cement ratio

B. increase in fineness of cement
C. decrease in curing time
D. decrease in size of aggregate
As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement_______________?
A. reduces workability
B. increases bleeding
C. increases shrinkage
D. increases strength
According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be taken
as______________?
A. Ec = = 5700
B. Ec = = 570
C. Ec = = 5700fck
D. Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in
The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time
is_______________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. sodium silicate
D. all of the above
The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about_______________?
A. 10 to 15% more
B. 15 to 20% more
C. 20 to 25% more
D. 25 to 50% more
Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called_______________?
B. accelerators
Increase in the moisture content in concrete_________________?
A. reduces the strength

B. increases the strength
C. does not change the strength
D. all of the above
The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is given
by_______________?
53
A. fcr=0.35Vf7
B. fcr=0.57f7
C. fcr=0.7Vf7
D. fcr=1.2Vf7
where fcr and fck are in N/mm2′
The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength
is_____________?
A. 0.33
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
Air entrainment in the concrete increases________________?
A. workability
B. strength
C. the effects of temperature variations
D. the unit weight
Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to______________?
A. time of transit
B. ‘vater-cement ratio
C. the air in the mix
D. size of aggregate
The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while placing
and compacting, is called________________?
A. segregation
B. bleeding
C. bulking
D. creep
To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is_______________?
A. 150 x150 x500 mm

B. 100 x100 x700 mm
C. 150 x150 x700 mm
D. 100 x100 x500 mm
The percentage of voids in cement is approximately_______________?
A. 25%
B. 40%
54
C. 60%
D. 80%
Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of_______________?
A. flexural tensile strength

B. direct tensile strength
C. compressive strength
D. split tensile strength
In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate
is_______________?
A. rounded
As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has______________?
A. higher initial setting time but lower final setting time

B. lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
C. higher initial and final setting times
D. lower initial and final setting times
Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about____________?
A. 2 %
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 10%
1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about______________?
A. 5%
B. 10 %
C. 15%
D. 20%
Finer grinding of cement______________?
A. affects only the early development of strength

B. affects only the ultimate strength
C. both (A. and (B.
D. does not affect the strength
Poisson’s ratio for concrete_______________?

55
A. remains constant
B. increases with richer mixes
C. decreases with richer mixes
The factor of safety for______________?
A. steel and concrete are same

B. steel is lower than that for concrete
C. steel is higher than that for concrete
The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of______________?
A. 2.0 to 3.5
B. 3.5 to 5.0
C. 5.0 to 7.0
D. 6.0 to 8.5
The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always_______________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by___________?
A. increasing the depth of beam

B. using thinner bars but more in number
C. using thicker bars but less in number
D. providing vertical stirrups
If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the
beam is called________________?
A. balanced beam
B. under-reinforced beam
C. over-reinforced beam
If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for a singly
reinforced rectangular balanced section will be___________________?
A. 0.35 d
B. 0.40 d
C. 0.45 d
D. dependent on grade of concrete also
56
Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-1978 is_____________?
A. M15
B. M20
C. M 10
D. M25
Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete

is_______________?
A. 28 liters
B. 30 liters
C. 32 liters
D. 34 liters
For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete expressed
as compacting factor should be________________?
A. 0.75-0.80
B. 0.80-0.85
C. 0.85 – 0.92
D. above 0.92
In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is__________________?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than______________?
A. ±5% of average
B. ± 10% of average
C. ± 15% of average
D. ±20% of average
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed
after_______________?
A. 24 to 48 hours
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed
after______________?
57
A. 24 to 48 hours
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6 In above formula, l0
signifies_______________?
A. effective span of T-beam

B. distance between points of zero moments in the beam
C. distance between points of maximum moments in the beam
D. clear span of the T-beam
For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical
deflection limits is__________________?
B. 75 mm
For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit
is______________?
A. 3.5 m
B. 4 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5 m
Diagonal tension in a beam______________?
A. is maximum at neutral axis

B. decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
C. increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
D. remains same
According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater
than________________?
A. the least lateral dimension

B. 2 times the least lateral dimension
C. 3 times the least lateral dimension
D. 4 times the least lateral dimension
For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical
deflection limits should be________________?
A. 600 mm
B. 750 mm
C. 900 mm
D. more than 1 m
58
According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is_______________?
A. less than 12
B. less than 18
C. between 18 and 24
D. more than 24
The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less
than_______________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 13 mm
The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is_______________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/6
D. 1/8
The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is not
less than________________?
A. 0.15
B. 0.12
C. 0.30
D. 1.00
For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the
diameter of bar nor less than_______________?
A. 15 mm
B. 25 mm
C. 30 mm
D. 40 mm
Lap length in compression shall not be less than______________?
A. 15 4>
B. 20
C. 24 (j)
According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is________________?
A. directly proportional to compressive strength

B. inversely proportional to compressive strength
59
C. directly proportional to square root of compressive strength

D. inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength
According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is_____________?
A. 2 %
B. 4%
C. 6 %
D. 8 %
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?A. Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal
reinforcement in a column is 0.8%
B. Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300 mm
C. Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
D. The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four
Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is________________?
A. the least lateral dimension of the member

B. sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied
C. forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
D. lesser of the above three values
A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth
(1/D. is less than__________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be_____________?
A. 50 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 150 mm
D. 200 mm
In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less
than______________?
A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 250 mm
The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is_____________?
60
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 1.5
C. between 1.5 and 2
D. greater than 2
If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength
is_____________?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of_______________?
A. effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel

B. d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is_______________?
A. increased by 10% for bars in compression

B. increased by 25% for bars in compression
C. decreased by 10% for bars in compression
D. decreased by 25% for bars in compression
Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 – 1978 is________________?
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 60 m
A higher modular ratio shows____________?
A. higher compressive strength of con-crete

B. lower compressive strength of concrete
C. higher tensile strength of steel
D. lower tensile strength of steel
Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is______________?
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 1.5
C. between 1.5 and 2.0
D. greater than 2
In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in
plain bars by_______________?
61
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a distance of x from
the center of slab bearing where x is equal to________________?
A. 1/3
B. 1/5
C. 1/7
D. 1/10
where 1 is the span
If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of column
strip and middle strip are__________________?
A. 3.0 m and 1.5 m

B. 1.5 m and 3.0 m
C. 3.0 m and 3.0 m
D. 1.5 m and 1.5 m
The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is_____________?
A. about 0.1 N/mm2

B. zero
C. 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2
D. about 1.0 N/mm2
When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by____________?
A. increasing the depth

B. providing shear reinforcement
C. using high strength steel
D. using thinner bars but more in number
The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is
to resist in that zone_________________?
A. compressive stress
B. shear stress
C. bond stress
The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is given by_____________?
A. 0.15% to 2%
B. 0.8% to 4%
62
C. 0.8% to 6%
D. 0.8% to 8%
The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than________________?
A. 15 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 50mm
Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to___________________?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
The diameter of ties in a column should be_______________?
A. more than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar

B. more than or equal to 5 mm
C. more than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
D. more than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is________________?
A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 16 mm
For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken
as_____________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is
about________________?
A. 5% less
B. 10% less
C. 5% more
D. 10% more
Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column________________?

63
A. capacity of column is decreased

B. ductility of column reduces
C. capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
D. both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m ?
A. L-shaped wall
B. T-shaped wall
C. counterfort type
D. all of the above
The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall
is______________?
A. not needed
B. provided equally on inner and front faces
C. provided more on inner face than on front face
D. provided more on front face than on inner face
For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus
correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine’s theory_______________?
A. is always less than 1

B. is always greater than 1
C. can be more than 1
D. can be less than 1
Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as______________?
A. 20 kN/cm2
B. 200 kN/cm2
C. 200kN/mm2
D. 2xl06N/cm2
If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by kd in working
stress design, then the value of k for balanced section_______________?
A. depends on as, only

B. depends on aCbC only
C. depends on both crst and acbc
D. is independant of both ast and acbc where d is the effective depth, ast is per-missible stress in steel in
tension and ocbc is permissible stress in concrete in bend¬ing compression
If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal shear
reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal
to__________________?
64
A. xv
B. xc
C. xv – TC
D. Tv + Tc
For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is_______________?
A. wholly parabolic
B. wholly rectangular
C. parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
D. rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on______________?
A. top face perpendicular to wall

B. bottom face perpendicular to wall
C. both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is_______________?
A. not provided
B. provided only on inner face
C. provided only on front face
D. provided both on inner and front faces
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided
on_______________?
A. front face only

B. inner face only
C. both front face and inner face
A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of_________________?
A. one cantilever
B. two cantilevers
C. three cantilevers
D. four cantilevers
To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed
for______________?
A. dead load only

B. dead load + live load
C. dead load + fraction of live load
65
In a pile of length /, the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are located at_______?
A. 0.207 1
B. 0.25 /
C. 0.293 /
D. 0.333 /
While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly_______?
A. both ends hinged

B. both ends fixed
C. one end fixed and other end hinged
D. one end fixed and other end free
The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is
located_______________?
A. at the middle of the wall

B. at the edge of the wall
C. halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load basis,
then_________________?A.there will be no settlement of columns
B. there will be no differential settlement
C. the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns
During erection, the pile of length / is supported by a crane at a distance of________________?
A. 0.207 /
B. 0.293 /
C. 0.7071
D. 0.793 /
from the driving end of pile which rests on the ground
According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a beam
of effective depth d is__________________?
A. 0.43 d
B. 0.55 d
C. 0.68 d
D. 0.85 d
The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at a
distance of__________________?
66
A. 0.367 xu
B. 0.416 xu
C. 0.446 xu
D. 0.573 xu
where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse
The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as_________________?
A. 1.5 and 2.2

B. 2.2 and 1.5
C. 1.5 and 1.5
D. 2.2 and 2.2
According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be_____________?
A. 0.03%
B. 0.1%
C. 0.3%
D. 3%
Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load. Reason R : The live loads
are more uncertain than dead loads?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is_______________?
A. 0.37 fy
B. 0.57 fy
C. 0.67 fy
D. 0.87 fy
where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
According to Whitney’s theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is
limited to_______________?
A. 0.43 d
B. 0.537 d
C. 0.68 d
D. 0.85 d
where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k]

67
As per Whitney’s theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the balanced section of a beam of
width b and effective depth d is given by_______________?
A. ^acybd2
B. ^acybd2
C. 0.185acybd2
D. 0.43acybd2
where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete
Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends
to_____________?
A. deflect downward
B. deflect upward
C. deflect downward or upward
A beam curved in plan is designed for_______________?
A. bending moment and shear

B. bending moment and torsion
C. shear and torsion
D. bending moment, shear and torsion
In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is_______________?
A. compressive everywhere
B. tensile everywhere
C. partly compressive and partly tensile
D. zero
In prestressed concrete______________?
A. forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged
B. forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the moment
C. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change
D. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain unchanged
Normally prestressing wires are arranged in the_______________?
A. upper part of the beam

B. lower part of the beam
C. center
D. anywhere
Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning and not in post-tensioning ?
68
A. elastic shortening of concrete

B. shrinkage of concrete
C. creep of concrete
D. loss due to friction
Which of the following has high tensile strength ?
A. plain hot rolled wires

B. cold drawn wires
Stress strain curve of high tensile steel_______________?
A. has a definite yield point

B. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
C. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
D. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress
Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and post-tensioned work
respectively should not be less than__________________?
A. 35 MPa and 42 MPa

B. 42 MPa and 35 MPa
C. 42 MPa and 53 MPa
D. 53 MPa and 42 MPa
Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires_______________?
A. increases with increase in diameter of bar

B. decreases with increase in diameter of bar
C. does not depend on diameter of bar
High carbon content in the steel causes_______________?
A. decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility

B. increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
C. decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
D. increase in both tensile strength and ductility
Prestress loss due to friction occurs________________?
A. only in post-tensioned beams

B. only in pretensioned beams
C. in both post-tensioned and preten-sioned beams
Most common method of prestressing used for factory production is________________?

69
A. Long line method

B. Freyssinet system
C. Magnel-Blaton system
D. Lee-Macall system
The purpose of reinforcement in prestressed concrete is________________?
A. to provide adequate bond stress

B. to resist tensile stresses
C. to impart initial compressive stress in concrete
D. all of the above
The maximum value of hoop compression in a dome is given by___________________?
A. wR / 4d
B. wR/2d
C. wR/d
D. 2wR/d
where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R = radius of curvature d = thickness of dome
In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly distributed load, the
meridional force is always________________?
A. zero
B. tensile
C. compressive
D. tensile or compressive
In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in concrete and steel are

respectively_______________?
A. compressive and tensile

B. tensile and compressive
The effect of creep on modular ratio is__________________?
A. to decrease it
B. to increase it
C. either to decrease or to increase it
D. to keep it unchanged
The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced brick work is______________?
A. 18
B. 30
C. 40
D. 58
70
In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on______________?
A. the front face in one direction

B. the front face in both directions
C. the inner face in one direction
D. the inner face in both directions
A. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
B. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel
C. Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel
D. High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel
A. Lean mixes bleed more as compared to rich ones

B. Bleeding can be minimized by adding pozzuolana finer aggregate
C. Bleeding can be increased by addition ‘of calcium chloride
The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is________________?
1. to increase shrinkage
2. to decrease shrinkage
3. to increase setting time
4. to decrease setting time
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1)and(4)
C. (2)and (3)
D. (2)and (4)
Examine the following statements ___________?
1. Factor of safety for steel should be based on its yield stress,

2. Factor of safety for steel should be based on its ultimate stress,
3. Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its yield stress,
4. Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its ultimate stress.
The correct statements are
A. (1) and (3)

B. (1) and(4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
In counterfort type retaining walls_____________?

71
1. the vertical slab is designed as a continuous slab

2. the heel slab is designed as a continuous slab
3. the vertical slab is designed as a cantilever
4. the heel slab is designed as a cantilever
A. (1) and (ii)

B. (1) and(4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (3) and (4)
The main reinforcement in the toe of a T- shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on_______________?
1. top face parallel to the wall

2. top face perpendicular to the wall
3. bottom face paralleUo the wall
4. bottom face perpendicular to the wall
The correct answer is ?only (4) is correct
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the_______________?
1. bottom face in front counterfort

2. inclined face in front counterfort
3. bottom face in back counterfort
4. inclined face in back counterEort
The correct answer is (1) and (4)
In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided
on_______________?bottom face near counterfort
2. top face near counterfort
3. bottom face near centre of span
4. top face near centre of span The correct answer is
both (1) and (4)
The depth of footing for an isolated column is governed by______________?
1. maximum bending moment

2. shear force
3. punching shear
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
Shrinkage of concrete depends upon_____________?

72
1. humidity of atmosphere
2. passage of time
3. stress
A. (1) and (2)

B. (2)and (3)
C. only (3)
D. All (1), (2)and (3)
Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam_____________?
1. reduces the negative moment at support

2. increases the negative moment at support
3. reduces the positive moment at center of span
4. increases the positive moment at center of span
The correct answer is? (1) and(4)
In a ring beam subjected to uniformly distributed load______________?
1. shear force at mid span is zero

2. shear force at mid span is maximum
3. torsion at mid span is zero
4. torsion at mid span is maximum
The correct answer is ? (1) and (3)
A. The loss of prestress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-tensioning system.

B. Pretensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.
C. For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning system is cheaper than
pretensioning system
A. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
Structural Design Specifications

Removal of props under______________?
A. slabs spanning upto 4.5 m is 14 days

B. beams spanning upto 6 m is 14 days
C. slabs spanning upto 4.5 m is 7 days
D. All the above
The spans of filler joists supporting a slab may be considered approximately equal if the longest span
does not exceed the shortest span more than__________________?
73
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 25%
All reinforcement should be free from_________________?
A. paints
B. loose rust
C. loose mill scales
D. All the above
The permissible bending stresses Pbet for steel slab bases should not exceed_______________?
A. 1500 kg/cm2
B. 1650 kg/cm2
C. 1800 kg/cm2
D. 1890 kg/cm2
Pick up the correct statement from the following?
A. For steel castings, the minimum tensile strength is 41 kg/mm2 and minimum yield stress is 20.5
kg/mm2
B. For high tensile steel, the minimum tensile strength is 58 kg/mm2
C. For mild steel the minimum tensile strength is 44 kg/mm2 and minimum elongation of 23% on a gauge
length of 5.65A
D. All the above
The anchorage value of standard U-type hook of a reinforcing bar of diameter d in tension,
is______________?
A. 4 d
B. 8d
C. 12 d
D. 16 d
A. The diameter of a rivet, before driving is taken as the nominal diameter of the rivet
B. The diameter of the rivet hole is taken as the gross area of the rivet
C. For rivets of nominal diameters less than 25 mm, the diameter of the rivet hole is taken as the nominal
diameter of the rivet plus 1.5 mm
D. All the above
A. The minimum pitch of rivets should not be less than 2.5 times the diameter of the rivet hole
B. The distance between centres of two adjacent rivets in line with the direction of stress shall not
74
C. The distance between the centres of two adjacent rivets in line with the direction of stress shall not
exceed 12 t or 203 mm whichever is less in compression members
D. All the above
Pick up the correct statement for the web stiffeners?
A. d is the distance between flange angles or the clear distance between flanges
B. vertical stiffeners are spaced at a distance not greater than 1.5 d and not less than 0.33 d
C. for horizontal stiffeners, d is the clear distance between the horizontal stiffener and the tension flange
D. all the above
Moist sand may contain surface water by mass upto__________________?
B. 2.5%
RCC Structures Design

The load stress of a section can be reduced by______________?
A. Decreasing the lever arm

B. Increasing the total perimeter of bars
C. Replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars
D. Replacing smaller bars by greater number of greater bars
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one direction,
is______________?
A. 35
B. 25
C. 30
D. 20
the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept The diameter of_____________?
A. 0.25 times the span length

B. 0.25 times the diameter of the column
C. 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
D. 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end and
intermediate spans is kept______________?
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 0.9
D. 0.6
In case the factor of safety against sliding is less than 1.5, a portion of slab is constructed downwards
at the end of the heel slab, which is known as___________________?
75
A. A key
B. A cut-off wall
C. A rib
D. All the above
Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size larger
than______________?
A. 18 mm diameter
B. 24 mm diameter
C. 30 mm diameter
D. 36 mm diameter
According to I.S. : 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down, are assumed to be
divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that the width of the middle strip,
is______________?
A. Half of the width of the slab

B. Two -third of the width of the slab
C. Three-fourth of the width of the slab
D. Four-fifth of the width of the slab
If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally
adopted, is__________________?
A. Square
B. Rectangular
C. Trapezoidal
D. Triangular
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of the same size should not be less
than________________?
A. One diameter
B. 2.5 diameters
C. 3 diameters
D. 3.5 diameters
For a ribbed slab______________?
A. Clear spacing between ribs shall not be greater than 4.5 cm

B. Width of the rib shall not be less than 7.5 cm
C. Overall depth of the slab shall not exceed four times the breadth of the rib
D. All the above
A very comfortable type of stairs is_______________?

76
A. Straight
B. Dog legged
C. Geometrical
D. Open newel
The width of the flange of a L-beam, should be less than______________?
A. One- sixth of the effective span

B. Breadth of the rib + four times thickness of the slab
C. Breadth of the rib + half clear distance between ribs
D. Least of the above
An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm. If it carries a U.D.L. of 12 t per
m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm2, the beam________________?
A. Is safe in shear
B. Is safe with stirrups
C. Is safe with stirrups and inclined bars
D. Needs revision of section
Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least lateral
dimension_______________?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times
A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because___________________?
A. Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
B. Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
C. Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
D. All the above
If is the net upward pressure on a square footing of side for a square column of side , the maximum
bending moment is given by_________________?
A. B.M = pb (c – a)/4
B. B.M = pb (b – a)²/4
C. B.M = pb (b – a)²/8
D. B.M = pb (b + a)/8
To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation, is__________________?
A. Kept uniform throughout

B. Increased gradually towards the edge
77
C. Decreased gradually towards the edge

longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups, is__________________?
A. Stress in concrete × area of concrete

B. Stress in steel × area of steel
C. Stress in concrete × area of concrete + Stress in steel × area of steel
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Tensile reinforcement bars of a rectangular
beam_______________?
A. Are curtailed if not required to resist the bending moment

B. Are bent up at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
C. Are bent down at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
D. Are maintained at bottom to provide at least local bond stress
The minimum thickness of the cover at the end of a reinforcing bar should not be less than twice the
diameter of the bar subject to a minimum of___________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm
The maximum permissible size of aggregates to be used in casting the ribs of a slab,
is______________?
A. 5 mm
B. 7.5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 15 mm
Top bars are extended to the projecting parts of the combined footing of two columns Ldistance apart
for a distance of_______________?
A. 0.1 L from the outer edge of column

B. 0.1 L from the centre edge of column
C. Half the distance of projection
D. One -fourth the distance of projection
is the pre- stressed force applied to tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of cross
section is and sectional modulus is . The minimum stress on the beam subjected to a maximum
bending moment is________________?
A. f = (P/A) – (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) – (M/Z)
78
C. f = (P/A) – (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) – (M/6Z)
If C is creep coefficient, f is original pre-stress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is Young’s modulus of

steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and shrinkage is________________?
A. (1 – C) mf – eE
B. (C – 1)mf + eE
C. (C – 1)mf – eE
D. (1 – C)mf + eE
An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m span in a brick wall. The height of the roof is 2.9 m
above the floor level and that of the opening is 2.1 m above the floor level. The lintel is to be designed
for self weight plus_______________?
A. Triangular load of the wall

B. UDL of wall
C. UDL of wall + load from the roof
D. Triangular load + load from the roof
The minimum clear cover for R.C.C. columns shall be_________________?
A. Greater of 40 mm or diameter
B. Smaller of 40 mm or diameter
C. Greater of 25 mm or diameter
D. Smaller of 25 mm or diameter
The design of heel slab of a retaining wall is based on the maximum bending moment due
to______________?
A. Its own weight

B. Weight of the soil above it
C. Load of the surcharge, if any
D. All the above
The neutral axis of a T-beam exists_________________?
A. Within the flange

B. At the bottom edge of the slab
C. Below the slab
D. All the above
The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken_________________?
A. L/32 for end panels without drops

B. L/36 for end panels without drops
C. L/36 for interior panels without drop
D. All the above
79
An R.C.C beam of 25 cm width has a clear span of 5 metres and carries a U.D.L. of 2000 kg/m inclusive
of its self weight. If the lever arm of the section is 45 cm., the beam is__________________?
. Safe in shear
A pre-cast pile generally used, is______________?
A. Circular
B. Square
C. Octagonal
D. Square with corners chamfered
In a pre-stressed member it is advisable to use________________?
A. Low strength concrete only

B. High strength concrete only
C. Low strength concrete but high tensile steel
D. High strength concrete and high tensile steel
Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by
providing_______________?
A. Straight bar splice

B. Hooked splice
C. Dowel splice
D. All the above
mutually perpendicular principal stresses acting on a soil mass, the normal stress If p1 and p2
are________________?
A. [(p – p p p to the principal plane carrying the principal stress p1, is:
sin 2
B. [(p – p p p cos 2
C. [(p p p – p cos 2
D. [(p p p – p /2] sin 2
carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at two A pile of length points, the
maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the points of suspension, is_________________?
A. WL/8
B. WL²/24
C. WL²/47
D. WL²/16
If is the uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of radius maximum positive radial moment at its
centre, is__________________?
80
A. 3WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. WR²/16
D. None of these
If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam will
ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a__________________?
A. Simply supported beam

B. Continuous beam
C. Cantilever beam
D. None of these
For M 150 grade concrete (1:2:4) the moment of resistance factor is_________________?
A. 0.87
B. 8.50
C. 7.50
D. 5.80
The spacing of transverse reinforcement of column is decided by the following

consideration_______________?
A. The least lateral dimension of the column

B. Sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal reinforcing rods in the column
C. Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
D. All the above
The self-weight of the footing, is_____________?
A. Not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing

B. Also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
If the bearing capacity of soil is 10 tonnes/cm2 and the projection of plain concrete footing from walls,
is a cm, the depth D of footing is_______________?
A. D = 0.0775 a
B. D = 0.775 a
C. D = 0.775 a
D. D = 0.775 a2
After pre-stressing process is completed, a loss of stress is due to______________?
A. Shrinkage of concrete
B. Elastic shortening of concrete
C. Creep of concrete
D. All the above
81
If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by a wall on one
side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as beams of
width_______________?
A. R + T
B. T – R
C. 2 + T2)
D. R – T
If p1 and P2 are effective lateral loadings at the bottom and top exerted by a level earth subjected to
a super-load on the vertical face of height h of a retaining wall, the horizontal pressure p per unit
length of the wall, is____________________?
A. [( – )/2] h
B. [( + )/4] h
C. [( + )/2] h
D. ( – h
The transverse reinforcements provided at right angles to the main reinforcement_______________?
A. Distribute the load

B. Resist the temperature stresses
C. Resist the shrinkage stress
D. All the above
Long and short spans of a two way slab are l and l and load on the slab acting on strips parallel to lx
and ly be wx and wy respectively. Accordingy to xRankine Grashoff theory___________________?
A. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)
B. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)²
C. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)4
D. None of these
In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm2, nominal reinforcement is
provided at a pitch of________________?
A. One -half lever arm of the section

B. One-third lever arm of the section
C. Lever arm of the section
D. One and half lever arm of the section
High strength concrete is used in pre-stressed member________________?
A. To overcome high bearing stresses developed at the ends

B. To overcome bursting stresses at the ends
C. To provide high bond stresses
D. All the above
82
on a circular slab of radius , the maximum radial moment at the centre of the If is the load slab, is
WR²/16_____________?
A. 2WR²/16
B. 3WR²/16
C. 5WR²/16
D> NON OF THESE
If the permissible compressive and tensile stresses in a singly reinforced beam are 50 kg/cm2 and
1400 kg/cm2 respectively and the modular ratio is 18, the percentage area At of the steel required for
an economic section, is__________________?
A. 0.496 %
B. 0.596 %
C. 0.696 %
The modular ratio m of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is C, may be obtained from
the equation.
A. m = 700/3C
B. m = 1400/3C
C. m = 2800/3C
D. m = 3500/3C
Enlarged head of a supporting column of a flat slab is technically known as______________?
A. Supporting end of the column

B. Top of the column
C. Capital
D. Drop panel
If A is the area of the foundation of a retaining wall carrying a load W and retaining earth of weight w
per unit volume, the minimum depth (h) of the foundation from the free surface of the earth, is )/(1 +
sin )]_________________?
A. h = (W/Aw) [(1 –
B. h = (W/Aw) [(1 + )/(1 + sin )]
C. h = (W/Aw) [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]²
D. h W/Aw) [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]²
Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as_____________?
A. Drop panel
B. Column head
C. Top of the column
D. None of these
83
The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective depth
by_____________?
A. Three times
B. Four times
C. Five times
D. Six times
If is the sectional area of a pre-stressed rectangular beam provided with a tendon pre -stressed by a
force through its centroidal longitudinal axis, the compressive stress in concrete, is_______________?
A. P/A
B. A/P
C. P/2A
D. 2A/P
Side face reinforcement shall be provided in the beam when depth of the web in a beam
exceeds_____________?
A. 50 cm
B. 75 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 120 cm
The minimum head room over a stair must be_______________?
A. 200 cm
B. 205 cm
C. 210 cm
D. 230 cm
If q is the punching shear resistance per unit area a, is the side of a square footing for a column of side
b, carrying a weight W including the weight of the footing, the depth D. of the footing from punching
shear consideration, is____________________?
A. D = W (a – b)/4a²bq
B. D = W (a² – b²)/4a²bq
C. D = W (a² – b²)/8a²bq
D. D = W (a² – b²)/4abq
84
If the length of a combined footing for two columns l metres apart is L and the projection on the left
side of the exterior column is x, then the projection y on the right side of the exterior column, in order
to have a uniformly distributed load, is (where is the distance of centre of gravity of column
loads______________?
A. y = L – (l – ) )
B. y = L/2 + (l –
C. y = L/2 – (l + )
D. y = L/2 – (l – )
If the tendon is placed at an rectangular beam (sectional top edge)________________?
A. Is increased by PZ/e
B. Is increased by Pe/Z
C. Is decreased by Pe/Z
D. Remains unchanged
The Young’s modulus of elasticity of steel, is__________________?
A. 150 KN/mm2
B. 200 KN/mm2
C. 250 KN/mm2
D. 275 KN/mm2
Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is__________________?
A. Kept constant throughout the length

B. Decreased towards the centre of the beam
C. Increased at the ends
D. Increased at the centre of the beam
Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free surface and from
the base at a distance of_____________________?
A. h /4
B. h/3
C. h/2
D. 2h/3
For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed__________________?
A. 1/15th of span
B. 1/20th of span
C. 1/25th of span
D. 1/30th of span
85
A pre-stressed rectangular beam which carries two concentrated loads W at L/3 from either end, is
provided with a bent tendon with tension P such that central one-third portion of the tendon remains
parallel to the longitudinal axis, the maximum dip h is_____________________?
A. WL/P
B. WL/2P
C. WL/3P
D. WL/4P
Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent the corners
from lifting, is made by_________________?
A. Rankine formula
B. Marcus formula
C. Rankine Grashoff formula
D. Grashoff formula
As per IS : 456, the reinforcement in a column should not be less than________________?
A. 0.5% and not more than 5% of cross-sectional area

B. 0.6% and not more than 6% of cross-sectional area
C. 0.7% and not more than 7% of cross-sectional area
D. 0.8% and not more than 8% of cross-sectional area
Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance greater
than____________?
A. 42 diameters from the centre of the column

B. 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column
C. 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column
D. 24 diameters from the centre of the column
The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to_______________?
A. Monolithic character
B. Fire-resisting and durability
C. Economy because of less maintenance cost
D. All the above
An R.C.C. column is treated as short column if its slenderness ratio is less than_______________?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 50
The allowable tensile stress in mild steel stirrups, reinforced cement concrete, is_______________?
86
A. 1400 kg/cm2
B. 190 kg/cm2
C. 260 kg/cm2
D. 230 kg/cm2
The thickness of the topping of a ribbed slab, varies between________________?
A. 3 cm to 5 cm
B. 5 cm to 8 cm
C. 8 cm to 10 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm
If the length of an intermediate span of a continuous slab is 5m, the length of the end span is
kept_______________?
A. 4.5 m
B. 4.0 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 3.0 m
The angle of internal friction of soil mass is the angle whose_______________?
A. Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane
to the normal pressure acting on the plane
B. Sine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane to the
normal pressure acting on the plane
C. Cosine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance sliding on any internal inclined plane to the
normal pressure acting on the plane
D. None of these
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions,
is_________________?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
If the loading on a pre-stressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to be provided
should be_______________?
A. Straight below centroidal axis

B. Parabolic with convexity downward
C. Parabolic with convexity upward
D. Straight above centroidal axis
If the maximum dip of a parabolic tendon carrying tension P is h and the effective length of the pre-
stressed beam is L, the upward uniform pressure will be________________?
87
A. 8hp/ l
B. 8hp/l²
C. 8hl/p
D. 8hl/p²
If depth of slab is 10 cm, width of web 30 cm, depth of web 50 cm, centre to centre distance of beams
3 m, effective span of beams 6 m, the effective flange width of the beam, is________________?
A. 200 cm
B. 300 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 100 cm
For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to its overall
depth does not exceed________________?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
The steel generally used in R.C.C. work, is_________________?
A. Stainless
B. Mild steel
C. High carbon steel
D. High tension steel
Pick up the assumption for the design of a pre-stressed concrete member from the
following_______________?
A. A transverse plane section remains a plane after bending

B. During deformation limits, Hook’s law is equally applicable to concrete as well as to steel
C. Variation of stress in reinforcement due to changes in external loading is negligible
D. All the above
If the ratio of long and short spans of a two way slab with corners held down is r, the actual reduction
of B.M. is given by
A. (5/6) (r/1 + r²) M

B. (5/6) (r²/1 + r²) M
C. (5/6) (r²/1 + r3) M
D. (5/6) (r²/1 + r4) M
By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more

than________________?
88
A. 10 %
B. 15 %
C. 20 %
D. 25 %
A singly reinforced beam has breadth b, effective depth d, depth of neutral axis n and critical neutral
axis n1. If fc and ft are permissible compressive and tensile stresses, the moment to resistance of the
beam, is____________________?
A. bn (fc/2) (d – n/3)
B. Atft (d – n/3)
C. ½ n1 (1 – n1/3) cbd²
D. All the above
A part of the slab may be considered as the flange of the T-beam if__________________?
A. Flange has adequate reinforcement transverse to beam

B. It is built integrally with the beam
C. It is effectively bonded together with the beam
D. All the above
per unit run exerted by the Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height retained
earth weighing per unit volume, is___________________?
A. wh [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]

B. wh² [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]
C. wh² [(1 – )/2(1 + sin )]
D. wh² [(1 – )/3(1 + sin )]
According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept
less than______________?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
The live load to be considered for an accessible roof, is________________?
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m3
C. 150 kg/m 2
D. 200 kg/cm 2
On an absolutely rigid foundation base, the pressure will________________?

89
A. Be more at the edges of the foundation

B. Be uniform
C. Not be uniform
If longitudinally spanning stairs are casted along with their landings, the maximum bending moment
per metre width, is taken as___________________?
A. wl²/4
B. wl²/8
C. wl²/10
D. wl²/12
If Ac, Asc and A are areas of concrete, longitudinal steel and section of a R.C.C. column and m and c
are the modular ratio and maximum stress in the configuration of concrete, the strength of column
is______________?
A. cAc + m cAsc
B. c(A – Asc) + m cAsc
C. c[A + (m – 1)ASC]
D. All the above
The diameter of transverse reinforcement of columns should be equal to one-fourth of the diameter
of the main steel rods but not less than________________?
A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 7 mm
If P kg/m2 is the upward pressure on the slab of a plain concrete footing whose projection on either
side of the wall is a cm, the depth of foundation D is given by________________?
A. D = 0.00775 aP
B. D = 0.0775 aP
C. D = 0.07775 aP
D. D = 0.775 Pa
For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate span
length, is____________________?
A. 0.6
B. 0.7
C. 0.8
D. 0.9
If the shear stress in a R.C.C. beam is_______________?
A. Equal or less than 5 kg/cm2, no shear reinforcement is provided

90
B. Greater than 4 kg/cm2, but less than 20 kg/cm2, shear reinforcement is provided
C. Greater than 20 kg/cm2, the size of the section is changed
D. All the above
The ratio of the breadth to effective depth of a beam is kept_______________?
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 0.70
D. 0.75
In a cantilever retaining wall without a heel slab______________?
A. Thickness of the stem is kept same throughout

B. Base slab is made 10 cm thicker than the stem
C. Width of the base slab is kept 0.7 time the total height of the wall
D. All the above
In a singly reinforced beam____________?
A. Compression is borne entirely by concrete

B. Steel possesses initial stresses when embedded in concrete
C. Plane sections transverse to the centre line of the beam before bending remain plane after
bending
D. Elastic moduli for concrete and steel have different values within the limits of deformation of the beam
A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral
axis______________?
A. Remains within the flange
A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long, 25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40 cm. It carries
a load of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry 1800 kg. Assuming concrete to carry
one-third of the diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of the beam, the number of shear stirrups
required, is___________________?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 45
A ribbed slab is provided for______________?
A. A plain ceiling
B. Thermal insulation
91
C. Acoustic insulation
D. All the above
To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of length L equals
the sagging moment at its centre, the distances of the points of suspension from either end,
is________________?
A. 0.107 L
B. 0.207 L
C. 0.307 L
D. 0.407 L
The width of the rib of a T-beam, is generally kept between_______________?
A. 1/7 to 1/3 of rib depth

B. 1/3 to 1/2 of rib depth
C. 1/2 to 3/4 of rib depth
D. 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth
For the design of a simply supported T-beam the ratio of the effective span to the overall depth of the
beam is limited to______________?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 20
is the pre-stressed force applied to the tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of cross
section is and sectional modulus is . The maximum stress in the beam, subjected to a maximum
bending moment , is_________________?
A. f = (P/A) + (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) + (M/Z)
C. f = (P/A) + (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) + (M/6Z)
The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width and 70 cm
effective depth, are 62.5 kg/cm2 and 250 kg/cm 2 respectively. If m = 15, the depth of its neutral axis
is_______________?
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 35 cm
If the depth of actual neutral axis of a doubly reinforced beam______________?

92
A. Is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, the concrete attains its maximum stress earlier
B. Is less than the depth of critical neutral axis, the steel in the tensile zone attains its maximum stress
earlier
C. Is equal to the depth of critical neutral axis; the concrete and steel attain their maximum stresses
simultaneously
D. All the above
The maximum diameter of a bar used in a ribbed slab, is______________?
A. 12 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 22 mm
A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension,
exceeds_________________?
B. 15
The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between______________?
A. 6 cm to 7.5 cm
B. 8 cm to 10 cm
C. 10 cm to 12 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm
If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars
is_____________?
A. 10 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 14 mm
D. 16 mm
According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams______________?
A. Tension is resisted by tension steel

B. Compression is resisted by compression steel
C. Stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel
D. All the above
The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the angle of repose
and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30° and 2000 kg respectively, the effective width of the
stem at the bottom, is_______________?
A. 51.5
B. 52.5
C. 53.5
D. 54.5
93
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes, should not be less
than________________?
A. One diameter of thinner bar

B. One diameter of thicker bar
C. Twice the diameter of thinner bar
D. None of these
A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with 18.75
cm2 steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is_________________?
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 35 cm
In testing a pile by load test, pile platform is loaded with one and half times the design load and a
maximum settlement is noted. The load is gradually removed and the consequent rebound is
measured. For a safe pile, the net settlement (i.e. total settlement minus rebound) per tonne of test
load should not exceed________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm
An intermediate T-beam reinforced with two layers of tensile steel with clear cover 13 cm encasted
with the floor of a hall 12 metres by 7 metres, is spaced at 3 metres from adjoining beams and if the
width of the beam is 20 cm, the breadth of the flange is__________________?
A. 300 cm
B. 233 cm
C. 176 cm
D. 236 cm
The diameter of main bars in R.C.C. columns, shall not be less than________________?
D. 12 mm
Based on punching shear consideration, the overall depth of a combined footing under a column A,
is_______________?
A. (Area of the column A × Safe punching stress)/Load on column A

B. (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A + Upward pressure × Area
of the column)
94
In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided
are______________?
A. 6 legged
B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
D. 12 legged
If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the centre of
the slab, is________________?
A. WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. 3WR²/16
D. Zero
The weight of reinforced concrete, is generally taken as______________?
A. 2200 kg/m3
B. 2300 kg/m3
C. 2400 kg/m3
D. 2500 kg/m3
A retaining wall and is the horizontal earth pressure, the factor of safety If is weight of against sliding,
is_____________?
A. 1.0
B. 1.25
C. 1.5
D. 2.0
In a beam the local bond stress Sb, is equal to_______________?
A. Shear force/(Leaver arm × Total perimeter of reinforcement)

B. Total perimeter of reinforcement/(Leaver arm × Shear force)
C. Leaver arm/(Shear force × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
D. Leaver arm/(Bending moment × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by______________?
A. mc/t = (d – n)/n
B. t/mc = (d – n)/n
C. t/mc = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = n/ (d – n)
If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 16 m effective span is 10
kg/cm2, the length of the beam having nominal reinforcement, is________________?
95
A. 8 cm
B. 6 m
C. 8 m
D. 10 m
If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span L, the load W
carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brickwork contained in an equilateral triangle,
producing a maximum bending moment____________________?
A. WL/2
B. WL/4
C. WL/6
D. WL/8
The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fibre in compression and tension in
steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously, is called_________________?
A. Balanced section
B. Economic section
C. Critical section
D. All the above
An under-reinforced section means_________________?
A. Steel is provided at the underside only

B. Steel provided is insufficient
C. Steel provided on one face only
D. Steel will yield first
The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than bar diameter x (Permissible stress
in bar / Five times the bond stress) or____________________?
A. 12 bar diameters
B. 18 bar diameters
C. 24 bar diameters
D. 30 bar diameters
In a doubly-reinforced beam if and the effective depth and is depth of critical neutral axis, the
following relationship holds good______________?
A. mc/t = n/(d – n)
B. (m + c)/t = n/(d + n)
C. (t + c)/n = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = (d – n)/t
96
The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as prestressing
tendons, is known as________________?
A. Freyssinet system
B. Magnel-Blaton system
C. C.C.L. standard system
D. Lee-McCall system
The angle of repose of a soil is the maximum angle which the outer face of the soil mass
makes_______________?
A. With the horizontal

B. With the vertical
C. With the perpendicular to the inclined plane of the soil
D. None of these
A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by______________?
A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 40 %
D. 50 %
A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall depth,
is______________?
A. 2.5
B. 2.0
C. Less than 2
D. Less than 2.5
The effective span of a simply supported slab, is_______________?
A. Distance between the centres of the bearings

B. Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall
C. Clear span plus effective depth of the slab
D. None of these
In favourable circumstances a 15 cm concrete cube after 28 days, attains a maximum crushing

strength______________?
A. 100 kg/cm2
B. 200 kg/cm2
C. 300 kg/cm2
D. 400 kg/cm2
intensity of pressure at a depth h on a block of earth weighing w per unit If p1 is the

vertical______________?
97
A. wh (1 – cos )/(1 + ) p2 is
B. wh (1 – sin )/(1 + ) )
C. wh (1 – tan )/(1 +
D. w (1 – cos )/h (1 + sin )
According to I.S. 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept
less than______________?
A. 20 cm
B. 30 cm
An R.C.C. beam of 25 cm width and 50 cm effective depth has a clear span of 6 metres and carries a
U.D.L. of 3000 kg/m inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm constant for the section is 0.865, the
maximum intensity of shear stress, is_______________?
A. 8.3 kg/cm2
B. 7.6 kg/cm2
C. 21.5 kg/cm 2
D. 11.4 kg/cm2
If the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is C kg/m2, the modular ratio
is_____________?
A. 2800/C
B. 2300/2C
C. 2800/3C
D. 2800/C2
Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than_______________?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 6 m
The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed_______________?
A. 0.15 %
B. 1.5 %
C. 4 %
D. 1 %
The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less than_________________?
A. One- third of the effective span of the T -beam

B. Distance between the centres of T-beam
C. Breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness of the slab
D. Least of the above
98
For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to
maximum positive radial moment, is___________________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, is________________?
A. 0.10 %
B. 0.12 %
C. 0.15 %
D. 0.18 %
According to I.S. : 456 specifications, the safe diagonal tensile stress for M 150 grade concrete,
is_____________?
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2
C. 15 kg/cm2
D. 20 kg/cm2
The maximum shear stress (qmax) in a rectangular beam is_______________?
A. 1.25 times the average

B. 1.50 times the average
C. 1.75 times the average
D. 2.0 times the average
If K is a constant depending upon the ratio of the width of the slab to its effective span l, x is the
distance of the concentrated load from the nearer support, bw is the width of the area of contact of
the concentrated load measured parallel to the supported edge, the effective width of the slab be
is_______________?
A. K/x (1 + x/d) + bw
B. Kx (1 – x/l) + bw
The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook, should be at
least_______________?
A. Twice the diameter

B. Thrice the diameter
C. Four times the diameter
D. Seven times the diameter
99
If is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base slab usually
provided, is________________?
A. 0.3 H
B. 0.4 H
C. 0.5 H
D. 0.7 H
If diameter of a reinforcement bar is d, the anchorage value of the hook is_______________?
A. 4d
B. 8d
C. 12d
D. 16d
As per I.S. 456 – 1978, the pH value of water shall be_______________?
A. Less than 6
B. Equal to 6
C. Not less than 6
D. Equal to 7
For M 150 mix concrete, according to I.S. specifications, local bond stress, is_________________?
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2
C. 15 kg/cm2
D. 20 kg/cm2
foundation is assumed as The weight of a_____________?
A. 5% of wall weight
B. 7% of wall weight
C. 10% of wall weight
D. 12% of wall weight
If the diameter of longitudinal bars of a square column is 16 mm, the diameter of lateral ties should
not be less than____________________?A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
In a combined footing if shear stress does not exceed 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided
are________________?
A. 6 legged
B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
D. 12 legged
100
The maximum shear stress (q) in concrete of a reinforced cement concrete beam is_____________?
A. Shear force/(Lever arm × Width)

B. Lever arm/(Shear force × Width)
C. Width/(Lever arm × Shear force)
D. (Shear force × Width)/Lever arm
An R.C.C. column is treated as long if its slenderness ratio is greater than____________?
D. 50
The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, is_____________?
A. One half of the width of the stem at the bottom

B. One -third of the width of the stem at the bottom
C. One fourth of the width of the steam at the bottom
D. Width of the stem at the bottom
If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 6 m effective span is 10
kg/cm2, the share stirrups are provided for a distance from either end where, is________________?
A. 50 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 200 cm
Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam, follows_________________?
A. A circular curve
B. A straight line
C. A parabolic curve
D. An elliptical curve
In a singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in concrete reaches earlier than that in steel, the
beam section is called________________?
A. Under-reinforced section
B. Over reinforced section
C. Economic section
D. Critical section
Design of R.C.C. simply supported beams carrying U.D.L. is based on the resultant B.M.
at________________?
A. Supports
B. Mid span
C. Every section
D. Quarter span
101
Design of R.C.C. cantilever beams, is based on the resultant force at______________?
A. Fixed end
B. Free end
C. Mid span
D. Mid span and fixed support
Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab, is provided to distribute_______________?
A. Load
B. Temperature stress
C. Shrinkage stress
D. All the above
If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns, are_____________?
A. Continued up
B. Bent inward at the floor level
C. Stopped just below the floor level and separate lap bars provided
D. All the above
The minimum number of main steel bars provided in R.C.C________________?
A. Rectangular columns is 4
B. Circular columns is 6
C. Octagonal columns is 8
D. All the above
A short column 20 cm × 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20 sq.
cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the Safe
load on the column, should not exceed_______________?
A. 4120 kg
B. 41,200 kg
If T and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, then_______________?
A. 2R + T = 60
B. R + 2 T = 60
C. 2R + T = 30
D. R + 2 T = 30
For stairs spanning l metres longitudinally between supports at the bottom and top of a flight carrying
a load w per unit horizontal area, the maximum bending moment per metre width,
is_______________?
A. wl²/4
B. wl²/8
102
C. wl²/12
D. wl²/16
In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression edge
to_________________?
A. Tensile edge
B. Tensile reinforcement
C. Neutral axis of the beam
D. Longitudinal central axis
Though the effective depth of a T-beam is the distance between the top compression edge to the
centre of the tensile reinforcement, for heavy loads, it is taken as__________________?
A. 1/8th of the span

B. 1/10th of the span
C. 1/12th of the span
D. 1/16th of the span
On piles, the drop must be at least_______________?
A. 80 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 120 cm
D. 140 cm
In a pre-stressed beam carrying an external load W with a bent tendon is having angle of -stressed
load P. The net downward load at the centre is_________________?
A. W – 2P
B. W – P
C. W – P
D. W – 2P
The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than_____________?
D. 12 mm
Steel beam theory is used for_______________?
A. Design of simple steel beams

B. Steel beams encased in concrete
C. Doubly reinforced beams ignoring compressive stress in concrete
D. Beams if shear exceeds 4 times allowable shear stress
To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall of width b, the resultant of
the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should have eccentricity not
more than________________?
103
A. b/3
B. b/4
C. b/5
D. b/6
Post tensioning system_______________?
A. Was widely used in earlier days

B. Is not economical and hence not generally used
C. Is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
D. None of these
A foundation is called shallow if its depth, is________________?
A. One-fourth of its width

B. Half of its width
C. Three-fourth of its width
D. Equal to its width
A flat slab is supported_______________?
A. On beams
B. On columns
C. On beams and columns
D. On columns monolithically built with slab
A pre-stressed concrete member__________________?
A. Is made of concrete
B. Is made of reinforced concrete
C. Is stressed after casting
D. Possesses internal stresses
[A + (m – 1)ASC] known as equivalent concrete area of R.C.C. is given by______________?
A. Modular ratio method

B. Load factor method
C. Ultimate load method
D. None of these
If permissible working stresses in steel and concrete are respectively 1400 kg/cm2 and 80 kg/cm2 and
modular ratio is 18, in a beam reinforced in tension side and of width 30 cm and having effective
depth 46 cm, the lever arms of the section, is______________?
A. 37 cm
B. 38 cm
104
C. 39 cm
D. 40 cm
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a cantilever slab, is_______________?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at the A pile of length centre and
from other two points 0.15 L from either end ; the maximum hogging moment will
be_______________?
A. WL²/15
B. WL²/30
C. WL²/60
D. WL²/90
The design of a retaining wall assumes that the retained earth________________?
A. Is dry
B. Is free from moisture
C. Is not cohesive
D. All the above
The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile, is_______________?
A. No decay due to termites
B. No restriction on length
C. Higher bearing capacity
D. All the above
For stairs spanning horizontally, the minimum waist provided is________________?
A. 4 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm
105
The horizontal portion of a step in a stairs case, is known as_________________?
A. Rise
B. Flight
C. Winder
D. Tread
A foundation rests on_______________?
A. Base of the foundation

B. Sub-grade
C. Foundation soil
D. Both B. and C
An R.C.C. roof slab is designed as a two way slab if________________?
A. It supports live loads in both directions

B. The ratio of spans in two directions is less than 2
C. The slab is continuous over two supports
D. The slab is discontinuous at edges
If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a bar
of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is__________________?
A. 28 d
B. 38 d
C. 48 d
D. 58 d
Piles are usually driven by________________?
A. Diesel operated hammer

B. Drop hammer
C. Single acting steam hammer
D. All the above
In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging bending
moment occurs at
A. Less loaded column

B. More loaded column
C. A point of the maximum shear force
D. A point of zero shear force
The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof, is______________?

106
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m2
C. 150 kg/cm 2
D. 200 kg/m2
If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in two
directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the negative
bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less
than________________?
A. WL/12 (L – 2D/3)²
B. WL/10 (L + 2D/3)²
C. WL/10 (L – 2D/3)²
D. WL/12 (L – D/3)²
If a bent tendon is required to balance a concentrated load W at the centre of the span L, the central
dip h must be at least________________?
A. WL /P
B. WL/2P
C. WL/3P
D. WL/4P
The radius of a bar bend to form a hook, should not be less than_______________?
A. Twice the diameter
A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects to form a_________________?
A. Semi-hemisphere
B. Ellipsoid
C. Paraboloid
D. None of these
The reinforced concrete beam which has width 25 cm, lever arm 40 cm, shear force 6t/cm2, safe shear
stress 5 kg/cm2 and B.M. 24 mt________________?
A. Is safe in shear
B. Is unsafe in shear
C. Is over safe in shear
D. Needs redesigning
If a rectangular pre-stressed beam of an effective span of 5 meters and carrying a total load 3840
kg/m, is designed by the load balancing method, the central dip of the parabolic tendon should
be_________________?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
107
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
If the effective length of a 32 cm diameter R.C.C. column is 4.40 m, its slenderness ratio,
is_______________?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
The anchorage value of a hook is assumed sixteen times the diameter of the bar if the angle of the
bend, is___________________?
A. 30°
B. 40°
C. 45°
D. All the above
The number of treads in a flight is equal to_______________?
A. Risers in the flight

B. Risers plus one
C. Risers minus one
D. None of these
The shear reinforcement in R.C.C. is provided to resist__________________?
A. Vertical shear
B. Horizontal shear
C. Diagonal compression
D. Diagonal tension
A simply supported beam 6 m long and of effective depth 50 cm, carries a uniformly distributed load
2400 kg/m including its self weight. If the lever arm factor is 0.85 and permissible tensile stress of
steel is 1400 kg/cm2, the area of steel required, is___________________?
A. 14 cm 2
B. 15 cm2
C. 16 cm2
D. 17 cm2
The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon___________________?
A. Minimum bending moment

B. Maximum bending moment
C. Maximum shear force
D. Minimum shear force
108
The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a pre-stressed member, is________________?
A. 50 kg/cm2
B. 150 kg/cm 2
C. 250 kg/cm2
D. 350 kg/cm2
If Sb, is the average bond stress on a bar of diameter subjected to maximum stress , the length of the
embedment is given by_____________?
A. l = dt/Sb
B. l = dt/2Sb
C. l = dt/3Sb
D. l = dt/4Sb
effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced If d and n are the
beam, the lever arm of the beam, is_________________?
A. d
B. n
C. d + n/3
D. d – n/3
bending moment of a simply supported slab is M Kg.cm, the effective depth of the If the maximum
slab is (where Q is M.R. factor)________________?
A. M/100Q
B. M/ Q
C. M/Q)
D. (M/100Q)
If the sides of a slab simply supported on edges and spanning in two directions are equal, the
maximum bending moment is multiplied by_________________?
A. 0.2
B. 0.3
C. 0.4
D. 0.5
The width of the flange of a T-beam, which may be considered to act effectively with the rib depends
upon____________________?
A. Breadth of the rib

B. Overall thickness of the rib
C. Centre to centre distance between T-beams
D. All the above
109
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear stress at the
elemental part of a beam section, is directly proportional to__________________?
A. Shear force
B. Area of the section
C. Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis
D. Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis
Pick up the true statement from the following?
A. Plain ceiling provides the best property diffusing light

B. In the absence of beams, it is easier to install piping
C. In the absence of beams, it is easier to paint
D. All the above
A. A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strata
B. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil
C. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction
D. A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than its width
Dimensions of a beam need be changed if the shear stress is more than_______________?
A. 10 kg/cm2
B. 15 kg/cm2
C. 20 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2
The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab, is_______________?
A. One-fourth the width of the panel

B. Half the width of the panel
The length of lap in tension reinforcement should not be less than the bar diameter × (actual tension /
four times the permissible average bond stress) if it is more than_______________?
A. 18 bar diameters
B. 24 bar diameters
C. 30 bar diameters
D. 36 bar diameters
As the percentage of steel increases________________?

110
A. Depth of neutral axis decreases

B. Depth of neutral axis increases
C. Lever arm increases
D. Lever arm decreases
For a number of columns constructed in a rcjw, the type of foundation provided, is_______________?
A. Footing
B. Raft
C. Strap
D. Strip
If the modular ratio is , steel ratio is and overall depth of a beam is , the depth of the critical neutral
axis of the beam, is___________________?
A. [m/(m – r)] d
B. [m/(m + r)] d
C. [(m + r)/ m] d
D. [(r – m)/m] d
In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at________________?
A. 1/4th of the span

B. 1/5th of the span
C. 1/6th of the span
D. 1/7th of the span
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following?
A. In the stem of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided near the earth side
B. In the toe slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the bottom of the slab
C. In the heel slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the top of the slab
D. None of these
A. Lateral reinforcement in R.C.C. columns is provided to prevent the longitudinal reinforcement from
buckling
B. Lateral reinforcement prevents the shearing of concrete on diagonal plane
C. Lateral reinforcement stops breaking away of concrete cover, due to buckling
D. All the above
Design of Steel Structures

If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension will be
taken as______________?
A. 120 mm
B. 160 mm
111
C. 200 mm
D. 300 mm
When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected
to________________?
A. only shear stresses

B. only tensile stresses
C. both (A) and (B)
Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on_________________?
A. net area and gross area

B. gross area and net area
C. net area in both cases
D. gross area in both cases
When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be the
one which________________?
A. is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group

B. is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group
C. gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
D. gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and Fm is the shearing load due to moment in
any rivet
The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter
is__________________?
A. 1.0 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 2.0 mm
D. 2.5 mm
If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per Unwin’s
formula will be__________________?
A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 27 mm
The heaviest I-section for same depth is_________________?

112
A. ISMB
B. ISLB
C. ISHB
D. ISWB
Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
A. lap joint
B. butt joint with single cover plate
C. butt joint with double cover plates
In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate,
then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate__________________?
A. fully by direct bearing

B. fully through fastenings
C. 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
D. 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be avoided ?
C. shear failure of the plate
Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering

A fully saturated soil is said to be________________?
A. one phase system

B. two phase system with soil and air
C. two phase system with soil and water
D. three phase system
Water content of soil can______________?
A. never be greater than 100 %

B. take values only from 0 % to 100 %
C. be less than 0 %
D. be greater than 100 %
Constant head permeameter is used to test permeability of_______________?
A. silt
B. clay
C. coarse sand
D. fine sand
If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as_______________?
113
A. air entrained soil

B. partially saturated soil
C. dry soil
D. dehydrated soil
Voids ratio of a soil mass can_________________?
A. never be greater than unity

B. be zero
C. take any value greater than zero
D. take values between 0 and 1 only
Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces ?
A. loess
B. talus
C. drift
D. dune sand
Residual soils are formed by______________?
A. glaciers
B. wind
C. water
Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is______________?
A. 0<n<100
B. 0<n0
D. n<0
Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is______________?
A. S>0
B. S<0
C. 0<S<100
D. 0 < S < 100
When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents______________?
B. two phase system with soil and air
Select the correct range of density index,ID ________________?
A. lD>0
B. ID>0
C. 0 < lD < 1
D. 0 < ID < 1
114
If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and
voids ratio respectively are________________?
A. 1.0 and 0.0

B. 0.0 and 1.0
C. 0.5 and 1.0
D. 1.0 and 0.5
If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample
is________________?
A. less than specific gravity of soil

B. equal to specific gravity of soil
C. greater than specific gravity of soil
D. independent of specific gravity of soil
Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to_____________?
A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.95
D. 1.20
Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil ?
A. oven drying method

The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called______________?
A. air content
B. porosity
C. percentage air voids
D. voids ratio
If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil
is______________?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%
If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is_____________?
A. zero
B. 1
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1
115
A pycnometer is used to determine_______________?
A. water content and voids ratio

B. specific gravity and dry density
C. water content and specific gravity
D. voids ratio and dry density
In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass______________?
A. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive

B. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
C. meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of
water content of a soil mass ?
A. oven drying method

B. sand bath method
C. alcohol method
D. calcium carbide method
A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil
is_______________?
A. 18.6 kN/m3
B. 20.0 kN/m3
C. 22.0 kN/m3
D. 23.2 kN/m3
Stoke’s law is valid only if the size of particle is________________?
A. less than 0.0002 mm

B. greater than 0.2 mm
C. between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
D. all of the above
Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?
A. effective size
B. uniformity coefficient
C. coefficient of curvature
Uniformity coefficient of a soil is__________________?
A. always less than 1

B. always equal to 1
116
C. equal to or less than 1

D. equal to or gi eater than 1
The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly
in_____________?
A. the principle of test

B. the method of taking observations
C. the method of preparation of soil suspension
D. all of the above
According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI
is____________?
A. 0 < PI < 7
B. 7<PI< 17
C. 17<PI27
If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is______________?
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. clayey silt
When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported
as_____________?B. zero
The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes______________?
A. decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index

B. decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
C. decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is
known as_________________?
A. liquid limit
B. plastic limit
C. shrinkage limit
D. plasticity index
At liquid limit, all soils possess________________?
A. same shear strength of small magnitude

B. same shear strength of large magnitude
117
C. different shear strengths of small magnitude

D. different shear strengths of large magnitude
Toughness index is defined as the ratio of____________________?
A. plasticity index to consistency index

B. plasticity index to flow index
C. liquidity index to flow index
D. consistency index to liquidity index
If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is
said to be in______________?
A. liquid state
B. plastic state
C. semi-solid state
D. solid state
Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. gravel
If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste
drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then______________?
A. the liquid limit of soil always increases

B. the liquid limit of soil always decreases
C. the liquid limit of soil may increase
D. the liquid limit of soil may decrease
Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by_________________?
A. MH
B. SL
C. ML
D. CH
Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having______________?
A. face to face or parallel orientation

B. edge to edge orientation
C. edge to face orientation
D. all of the above
Sand particles are made of________________?

118
A. rock minerals
The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is_______________?
A. kaolinite
B. illite
C. montmorillonite
The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are
respectively__________________?
A. zero and zero

B. 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
Quick sand is a________________?
A. type of sand
Rise of water table above the ground surface causes________________?
A. equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress

B. equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
C. increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
D. decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on__________________?
A. particle size composition

B. plasticity characteristics
C. both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the___________________?
A. effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change
B. effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does not
change
C. total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effec-tive stress does not change
D. total stress is increased due to de-crease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not change
According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is_________________?
A. 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
B. 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
C. 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
D. 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are________________?

119
A. viscosity only
B. unit weight only
C. both viscosity and unit weight
Effective stress on soil_____________?
A. increases voids ratio and decreases permeability

B. increases both voids ratio and permeability
C. decreases both voids ratio and permeability
D. decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific
gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to_______________?
A. 1.0m
B. 1.5 m
C. 2.0 m
D. 3m
If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is_______________?
B. sand
Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse-grained
soils ?
A. constant head method

B. falling head method
C. both the above
Effective stress is______________?
A. the stress at particles contact

B. a physical parameter that can be measured
C. important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
D. all of the above
Coefficient of permeability of soil______________?
A. does not depend upon temperature

B. increases with the increase in temperature
C. increases with the decrease in temperature
Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey soil ?
120
A. constant head method

B. falling head method
C. horizontal permeability test
Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to
60% and 90% respectively. If other things remain constant, the coefficient of
permeability__________________?
A. increases by 25%
B. increases by 50%
C. increases by 33.3%
D. decreases by 33.3%
The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is_________________?
A. sum of the discharges from individual wells

B. less than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
C. greater than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
D. equal to larger of the two discharges from individual wells
Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary
is______________?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 16
The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5 flow
channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03 mm/sec. The discharge per meter
length of dam is________________?
A. 0.00018 nrVsec
B. 0.0045 m3/sec
C. 0.18m3/sec
D. 0.1125m3/sec
The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of_______________?
A. effective stress with time

B. effective stress with depth
C. pore water pressure with depth
D. pore water pressure with time
The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is______________?
121
A. 0.028
B. 0.28
The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits________________?
A. parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification

B. parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratification
C. is always same in both directions
D. parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to stratification
Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay__________________?
A. a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure takes place and sum
of the two is constant
B. a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure takes place
and sum of the two is constant
C. both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
D. both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase
The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is________________?
A. well ppint system

B. vacuum method
C. deep well system
D. electroosmosis method
Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by_______________?
A. compressibility
B. permeability
C. both compressibility and permeability
Time factor for a clay layer is_______________?
A. a dimensional parameter
B. directly proportional to permeability of soil
C. inversely proportional to drainage path
D. independent of thickness of clay layer
Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally_______________?
A. decreases with increase in liquid limit

B. increases with increase in liquid limit
C. first increases and then decreases with increase in liquid limit
D. remains constant at all liquid limits
Degree of consolidation is________________?

122
A. directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to drainage path

B. directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to square of drainage path
C. directly proportional to drainage path and inversely proportional to time
D. directly proportional to square of drainage path and inversely proportional to time
Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand ?
A. over-consolidated ciay with a high over-consolidation ratio

B. over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
C. normally consolidated clay
D. under-consolidated clay
Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to achieve 50%
consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness with double drainage and
coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is_________________?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
Compressibility of sandy soils is______________?
A. almost equal to that of clayey soils

B. much greater than that of clayey soils
C. much less than that of clayey soils
Coefficient of compressibility is_______________?
A. constant for any type of soil

B. different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states of
consolidation
C. different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states of consolidation
D. independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil
Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a_______________?
A. drum roller
B. rubber tyred roller
C. sheep’s foot roller
D. vibratory roller
The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon____________?
A. moisture content only

B. amount of compaction energy only
C. both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
123
The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is________________?
A. directly proportional to the voids ratio

B. directly proportional to the compression index
C. inversely proportional to the compression index
A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100 kN/m2 to
200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the
settlement of the same clay is__________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 40 mm
The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil_______________?
A. decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio

B. decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
C. increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
D. increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be

made_______________?
A. only in fixed ring type consolido-meter

B. only in floating ring type consolido-meter
C. both (A) and (B)
With the increase in the amount of compaction energy________________?
A. optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases

B. optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
C. both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
D. both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease
For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective
stress_____________?
A. ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same

B. ultimate strength is different but peak strength is same
C. ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
D. ultimate strength is same but peak
For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are compacted
respectively as____________________?
124
A. dry of OMC and wet of OMC

B. wet of OMC and dry of OMC
The shear strength of a soil_________________?
A. is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil

B. is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
C. decreases with increase in normal stress
D. decreases with decrease in normal stress
Skempton’s pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is________________?
A. 1
B. zero
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1
In a deposit of normally consolidated clay_________________?
A. effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and un-drained strength decrease with
depth
B. effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength decreases with depth
C. effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content decreases with
depth
D. effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth
Unconfmed compressive strength test is________________?
A. undrained test
B. drained test
C. consolidated undrained test
D. consolidated drained test
Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of__________________?
A. effective stress only

B. total stress only
C. both effective stress and total stress
A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m2 when it was
laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an angle of 45°. The
values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are
respectively______________________?
A. 0.5 N/mm2 and 30°

B. 0.05 N/mm2 and 0°
125
C. 0.2 N/mm2 and 0°

D. 0.05 N/mm2 and 45°
If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks to
the horizontal is__________________?
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 22.5°
D. 0°
If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes
is________________?
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 225°
In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application of cell
pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell
pressure), the test is known as__________________?
A. consolidated drained test

B. consolidated undrained test
C. unconsolidated drained test
D. unconsolidated undrained test
Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as___________________?
A. percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition

B. ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a remoulded state
The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 30°
is___________________?
A. 1/3
B. 3
C. 1
D. 1/2
During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm2 to 0.26
N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15 “N/mm2. Skempton’s pore
pressure parameter B is___________________?
A. 0.5
B. -0.5
126
C. 2.0
D. – 2.0
In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress) on the
soil specimen produces shear stress on__________________?
A. horizontal plane only

B. vertical plane only
C. both horizontal and vertical planes
D. all planes except horizontal and vertical planes
The angle that Coulomb’s failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called________________?
A. cohesion
B. angle of internal friction
C. angle of repose
Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is_______________?
A. plane and smooth

B. plane and rough
C. vertical and smooth
D. vertical and rough
The major principal stress in an element of cohesionless soil within the backfill of a retaining wall
is________________?
A. vertical if the soil is in an active state of plastic equilibrium

B. vertical if the soil is in a passive state of plastic equilibrium
C. inclined at 45° to the vertical plane
A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The back of the wall is
inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of wall friction is 7°, then the
resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m above the base and inclined to the
horizontal at an angle of_________________?
A. 7°
B. 10°
C. 12°
D. 17°
Bishop’s method of stability analysis_______________?
A. is more conservative
B. neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
127
C. assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle

D. all of the above
The effect of cohesion on a soil is to______________?
A. reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
B. increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
C. reduce the active earth pressure in-tensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity
D. increase the active earth pressure in-tensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity
Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is__________________?
A. less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
B. greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
C. greater than both the active earth
Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon_______________?
A. allowable settlement only

B. ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
C. both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
D. none of above
Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity formula for a strip footing (C Nc + y D Nq + 0.5 Y NTB.
gives______________?
A. safe bearing capacity

B. net safe bearing capacity
C. ultimate bearing capacity
D. net ultimate bearing capacity where C = unit cohesion
Y =unit weight of soil D = depth of foundation B = width of foundation N„ Nq, NY = bearing capacity
factors
In the plate loading test for determining the bearing capacity of soil, the size of square bearing plate
should be_________________?
A. less than 300 mm

B. between 300 mm and 750 mm
C. between 750 mm and 1 m
D. greater than 1 m
A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a cohesionless soil under an
intensity of loading of 0.2 N/ram2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under
the same intensity of loading is_______________?
A. 15 mm
B. between 15 mm and 25 mm
128
C. 25 mm
D. greater than 25 mm
Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of______________?
A. cohesion only
B. angle of internal friction only
C. both cohesion and angle of internal friction
The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil mainly by
reducing_______________?
A. cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance

B. cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
C. effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
D. effective angle of shearing resistance
A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a cohesive soil when the
intensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under
the same intensity of loading is___________________?
A. 15 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 167 mm
Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is_________________?
A. less at edges compared to middle

B. more at edges compared to middle
C. uniform throughout
Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity
approximately by________________?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
A. Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load
Select the incorrect statement ?

129
A. In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined

B. Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test
C. Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is uniform
D. Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils
Effective angle of shearing resistance

A. increases as the size of particles increases
B. increases as the soil gradation im-proves
C. is limited to a maximum value of 45°
D. is rarely more than 30° for fine grained soil
In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample during
shear________________?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unchanged
D. first increases and then decreases
A. Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value

B. Effective angle of internal friction for coarse grained soils is rarely below 30°
C. Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increases as state of compact-ness increases
D. Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay size content
A. coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is less than that of a normally

consolidated clay
B. coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is greater than that of a normally
consolidated clay
C. coefficient of compressibility is cons-tant for any clay
A. The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability

B. The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability
C. The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability
D. Unit weight does not affect per-meability
A. A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil
B. A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil
130
C. Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability

D. Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil
Which of the following statements is correct ?
A. Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve
B. For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity
C. A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
A. Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil
B. For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight
C. Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water
D. Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water
Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics

Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A. discharge
B. velocity of gas
C. pressure intensity of gas
D. pressure intensity of liquid
Density of water is maximum at ___________________?
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 100°C
E. 20°C.
Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called ________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension
The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as________________?
A. compressibility
B. surface tension
C. cohesion
D. adhesion
E. viscosity.
131
The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m” _______________?
A. at norma] pressure of 760 mm

B. at 4°C temperature
C. at mean sea level
D. all the above
E. none of the above.
When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to
be____________________?
A. quasi static
B. steady state
C. laminar
D. uniform
E. static.
The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if_________________?
A. it is incompressible
B. it has uniform viscosity
C. it has zero viscosity
D. it is frictionless
E. it is at rest.
An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of ‘g’ at this place
is___________________?
A. 10m/sec2
B. 9.81 m/sec2
C. 10.2/m sec
D. 9.75 m/sec2
E. 9 m/sec .
The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water

is____________________?
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more or less depending on size of glass tube
For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids __________________?
A. remains same
B. increases
132
C. decreases
D. shows erratic behaviour
Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is ______________________?
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. higher/lower depending on temperature
E. unpredictable.
The bulk modulus of elasticity __________________?
A. has the dimensions of 1/pressure

B. increases with pressure
C. is large when fluid is more compressible
D. is independent of pressure and viscosity
E. is directly proportional to flow.
The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and temperature in
kg/cm is equal to _________________?
A. 1000
B. 2100
C. 2700
D. 10,000
E. 21,000.
Surface tension _____________________?
A. acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
B. is also known as capillarity
C. is a function of the curvature of the interface
D. decreases with fall in temperature
E. has no units
A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at
150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is _________________?
A. 400 kg/cm2
B. 4000 kg/cm2
C. 40 x 105 kg/cm2
D. 40 x 106 kg/cm2
E. none of the above
Units of surface tension are_________________?

133
A. energy/unit area
B. distance
C. both of the above
D. it has no units
Choose the correct relationship_________________?
A. specific gravity = gravity x density

B. dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
C. gravity = specific gravity x density
D. kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
E. hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having______________?
A. higher surface tension

B. lower surface tension
C. surface tension is no criterion
D. high density and viscosity
E. low density and viscosity
Alcohol is used in manometer, because___________________?
Choose the wrong statement ?
A. its vapour pressure is low

B. it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
C. its density is less
D. it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
E. it provides accurate readings.
The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called____________________?
A. surface tension
B. adhesion
C. cohesion
D. viscosity
The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at __________________?
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C D. 20°C
E. all temperature
The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as____________________?

134
A. specific viscosity
B. viscosity index
C. kinematic viscosity
D. coefficient of viscosity
E. coefficient of compressibility
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A. pascal
B. poise
C. stoke
D. faraday
Alcohol is used in manometers because_____________________?
A. it has low vapour pressure

B. it is clearly visible
C. it has low surface tension
D. it can provide longer column due to low density
E. is provides suitable meniscus
Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains ________________?
A. dissolved air
B. dissolved salt
C. suspended matter
D. all of the above
E. heavy water
Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
_________________?
A. surface tension
B. viscosity
C. friction
D. cohesion
E. adhesion
Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of ________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility
135
If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then the
free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be_________________?
A. higher than the surface of liquid

B. the same as the surface of liquid
C. lower than the surface of liquid
D. unpredictable
The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5
m below the water level will be____________________?
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
E. 4000 kg.
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called_________________?
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
The buoyancy depends on__________________?
A. mass of liquid displaced

B. viscosity of the liquid
C. pressure of the liquid displaced
D. depth of immersion
A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it
volume is under mercury ?
A. the metal piece will simply float over the mercury

B. the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
C. whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
D. metal piece will sink to the bottom
Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of_________________?
A. pressure
B. flow
C. shape
D. volume
E. temperature
136
An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following______________?
A. Newton’s law of motion

B. Newton’s law of viscosity
C. Pascal’ law
D. Continuity equation
E. Boundary layer theory
The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as_________________?
A. volumetric strain
B. volumetric index
C. compressibility
D. adhesion
E. cohesion
A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is________________?
A. incompressible
B. inviscous
C. viscous and incompressible
D. inviscous and compressible
E. inviscous and incompressible
Fluid is a substance that_______________?
A. cannot be subjected to shear forces

B. always expands until it fills any container
C. has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
D. cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
E. flows
Practical fluids____________________?
A. are viscous
B. possess surface tension
C. are compressible
D. possess all the above properties
E. possess none of the above properties
If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as___________________?
A. fluid
B. water
C. gas
D. perfect solid
E. ideal fluid
Liquids________________?
137
A. cannot be compressed
B. occupy definite volume
C. are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. GO are not viscous
The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is_______________?
A. 1
B. 1000
C. 100
D. 101.9
E. 91
Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as_________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility
Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is
called________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension
Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to_________________?
A. 1000 N/m3
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
D. 9.81 xlO6N/m3
E. 9.81 N/m3
Which of the following is dimensionless ________________?
A. specific weight
B. specific volume
C. specific speed
D. specific gravity
E. specific viscosity
138
The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid
is________________?
A. moving
B. viscous
C. viscous and static
D. inviscous and moving
E. viscous and moving
The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property_________________?
A. cohesion
B. adhesion
C. viscosity
D. surface tension
E. elasticity
A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain_________________?
A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shear stress
D. bending stress
E. all of the above
The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure___________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
E. unpredictable
A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle_________________?
A. law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. principle of buoyancy
D. all of the above
In a static fluid__________________?
A. resistance to shear stress is small

B. fluid pressure is zero
C. linear deformation is small
D. only normal stresses can exist
E. viscosity is nil
139
A perfect gas_________________?
A. has constant viscosity

B. has zero viscosity
C. is incompressible
D. is of theoretical interest
The increase of temperature results in_________________?
A. increase in viscosity of gas

B. increase in viscosity of liquid
C. decrease in viscosity of gas
D. decrease in viscosity of liquid
E. A. and D. above
Surface tension has the units of____________________?
A. newtons/m
B. newtons/m
C. new tons/m
D. newtons
E. newton m
The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is________________?
A. linear
B. parabolic
C. hyperbolic
D. inverse type
The units of viscosity are__________________?
A. metres2 per sec

B. kg sec/metre
C. newton-sec per metre2
D. newton-sec per metre
Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon________________?
A. pressure
B. distance
C. level
D. flow
E. density
Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity__________________?

140
A. Red wood
B. Say bolt
C. Engler
D. Orsat
Dimensions of surface tension are_________________?
A. MlL°T2
B. MlL°Tx
C. MlL r2
D. MlL2T2
E. MlL°t
If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following cm
of water___________________?
A. 51 cm
If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface, then pressure
intensity at that point will be____________________?
A. h
B. wh
C. w/h
The units of kinematic viscosity are_______________?
A. metres2 per sec

B. kg sec/meter
C. newton-sec per meter
D. newton-sec per meter
4-61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to________________?
A. dynamic viscosity/density
B. dynamicviscosity x density
C. density/dynamic viscosity
D. 1/dynamicviscosity x density
E. same as dynamic viscosity
A one dimensional flow is one which___________________?
A. is uniform flow
B. is steady uniform flow
C. takes place in straight lines
141
D. involves zero transverse component of flow

E. takes place in one dimension
A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to________________?
A. 25 kN/m2
B. 245 kN/m2
C. 2500 kN/m2
D. 2.5kN/m2
E. 12.5 kN/m2
A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without
touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will__________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
E. unpredictable
A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces
are_________________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. less at low temperature and more at high temperature
E. there is no such criterion
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to
act is known as____________________?
A. meta center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the body. This definition is according to____________________?
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes’ principle
D. Bernoulli’s theorem
E. Metacentric principle
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called__________________?

142
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
Poise is the unit of________________?
A. surface tension
B. capillarity
C. viscosity
D. shear stress in fluids
E. buoyancy
Metacentric height is given as the distance between_______________?
A. the center of gravity of the body andthe meta center

B. the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
C. the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
D. center of buoyancy and metacentre
The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5
m below the water level will be___________________?
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
E. 4000 kg
If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its_______________?
A. specific weight
B. specific mass
C. specific gravity
D. specific density
The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
called________________?
A. meta-center
D. center of gravity
The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon____________________?

143
A. the nature of the liquid and the solid

B. the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
C. both of die above
D. any one of the above
E. none of die above
Rain drops are spherical because of____________________?
A. viscosity
B. air resistance
C. surface tension forces
D. atmospheric pressure
If the surface of liquid is convex, men_________________?
A. cohesion pressure is negligible

B. cohesion pressure is decreased
C. cohesion pressure is increased
D. there is no cohesion pressure
To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided______________?
A. at the inlet
B. at the outlet
C. at the summit
The peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is
called_________________?
A. surface tension
B. co-efficient of viscosity
C. viscosity
The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are_______________?
A. metres2 per sec

B. kg sec/meter
C. newton-sec per meter
D. newton-sec2 per meter
The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim increase in size of tube
will_______________?
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
144
D. decrease
E. unpredictable
Capillary action is due to the__________________?
A. surface tension
B. cohesion of the liquid
C. adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. all of the above
Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to_________________?
A. Boyle’s law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal’s law
D. Newton’s formula
E. Chezy’s equation
The continuity equation is connected with_______________?
A. viscous/unviscous fluids
B. compressibility of fluids
C. conservation of mass
D. steady/unsteady flow
E. open channel/pipe flow
The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane is called
_______________?
A. viscosity
B. osmosis
C. surface tension
D. cohesion
E. diffusivity
The vapour pressure over the concave surface is__________________?
A. less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface

B. equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. zero
The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is_____________?
A.p = Txr
B.p = T/r
145
C. p = T/2r
D.p = 2T/r
The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-
proximately_______________?
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 30 mm
Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the______________?
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ___________________?
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
E. viscosity
The vapour pressure over the concave surface is________________?
A. less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface

B. equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. zero
To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is not more
than_______________?
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient

B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is________________?
146
A.p = Txr
B.p = T/r
C. p = T/2r
D. p = 2T/r
The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-
proximately____________________?
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 30 mm
Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to___________________?
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
E. viscosity
Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the_______________?
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases____________________?
A. linearly
B. first slowly and then steeply
C. first steeply and then gradually
D. unpredictable
An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely submerged in
a fluid having specific gravity of_________________?
A. 1
B. 1.2
C. 0.8
D. 0.75
147
Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between________________?
A. shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion

B. shear stress and viscosity
C. shear stress, velocity and viscosity
D. pressure, velocity and viscosity
E. shear stress, pressure and rate of angular distortion
Pressure of the order of 10″‘ torr can be measured by_______________ ?
A. Bourdon tube
B. Pirani Gauge
C. micro-manometer
D. ionisastion gauge
E. McLeod gauge
Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle
of_____________________?
A. gas law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Charle’s law
D. Pascal’s law
E. McLeod’s law
In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure__________________?
A. decreases linearly with elevation

B. remains constant
C. varies in the same way as the density
D. increases exponentially with elevation
E. unpredictable
Barometer is used to measure__________________?
A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.

B. atmospheric pressure
C. very low pressure
D. difference of pressure between two points
E. rain level
Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
________________?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
148
D. rotameter
E. pitot tube
Mercury is often used in barometer because _________________?
A. it is the best liquid

B. the height of barometer will be less
C. its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
D. both B. and C.
E. it moves easily
Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep
sea_________________?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
D. rotameter
E. pitot tube
Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature____________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
A. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a
will___________________?
A. sink to bottom
B. float over fluid
C. partly immersed
D. be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its ______________?
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. density
D. modulus of elasticity
E. absolute temperature
Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli’s theorem
__________________?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. nozzle
149
D. pitot tube
E. all of the above
Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature___________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
Euler’s dimensionless number relates the following_______________?
A. inertial force and gravity

B. viscous force and inertial force
C. viscous force and buoyancy force
D. pressure force and inertial force
E. pressure force and viscous force
Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity __________________?
A. U-tube with water

B. inclined U-tube
C. U-tube with mercury
D. micro-manometer with water
E. displacement type
Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on __________________?
A. Pascal’s law
B. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
C. Newton’s law of viscosity .
D. Avogadro’s hypothesis
E. Second law of thermodynamic
In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity
of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to_________________?
A. sin 9
B. sin 9
C. casS
D. cos 9
E. tan 9
The resultant of all normal pressures acts_________________?
A. at e.g. of body
B. at center of pressure
150
C. vertically upwards
D. at metacentre
E. vertically downwards
Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and___________________?
A. water surface
C. center of gravity
The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point____________________?
A. on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
Centre of pressure compared to e.g. is______________?
A. above it
B. below it
C. at same point
D. above or below depending on area of body
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-
merged body is called___________________?
A. upthrust
B. reaction
C. buoyancy
D. metacentre
E. center of pressure
A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity
is__________________?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
Center of buoyancy is the___________________?
A. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

B. center of pressure of displaced volume
C. e.g. of floating ‘body
D. does not exist
The horizontal component of buoyant force is__________________?

151
A. negligible
B. same as buoyant force
C. zero
D. non of these
A body floats in stable equilibrium________________?
A. when its meatcentric height is zero

B. when the metancentre is above e.g
C. when its e.g. is below it’s center of buoyancy
D. metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at
the centriod, if __________________?
A. the area is horizontal

B. the area is vertical
C. the area is inclined
D. all of the above
A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at vater surface. The
hydrostatic force on square surface is __________________?
A. 9,000 kg
B. 13,500 kg
C. 18,000 kg
D. 27,000 kg
E. 30,000 kg
If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm”, the pressure at a
depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be _____________________?
A. 2 meters of water column

B. 3 meters of water column
C. 5 meters of water column
D. 6 meters of water Column
E. 7 meters of water column
Choose the wrong statement___________________?
A. The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the normal force on the
vertical projection of the surface
B. The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection
C. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume of
the liquid above the area
D. he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
152
The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when the
water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is ______________________?
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 4.0 m
D.”2.5 m
E. 5.0 m
Metacentre is the point of intersection of _________________________?
A. vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. buoyant force and the center line of body
C. mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. all of the above
For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at _________________?
A. bottom surface of the body

B. e.g. of the body
C. metacentre
D. all points on the surface of the body
E. all of the above
According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up
by a force equal to __________________?
A. the weight of the body

B. more than the weight of the body
C. less than the weight of the body
D. weight of the fluid displaced by the body
E. weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body
Buoyant force is___________________?
A. resultant force acting on a floating body

B. equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C. force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
D. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as ________________________?
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold’s number
153
D. Weber’s number
When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about ___________________?
A. e.g. of body
D. metacentre
E. liquid surface
A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225. How
long should it take to empty the prototype ?
A. 900 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
D. 4 (225)1/3 minutes
E. 4 x V225 minutes
For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be_________________ ?
A. below the center of gravity

B. below the center of buoyancy
C. above the center of buoyancy
D. between e.g. and center of pressure
E. above the center of gravity
A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to
attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
A. 1 : 5
A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity
should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
A. 10 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
E. 250 m/sec
Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as _____________________?
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold’s number
154
D. Weber’s number
For a floating body to be in equilibrium __________________?
A. meta center should be above e.g.

B. center of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
C. a righting couple should be formed
D. all of the above
An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface
will___________________?
A. be horizontal
B. make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
C. make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
D. any one of above is possible
Center of pressure on an inclined plane is______________________?
A. at the centroid
B. above the centroid
C. below the centroid
D. at metacentre
E. at center of pressure
The two important forces for a floating body are___________________?
A. buoyancy, gravity
B. buoyancy, pressure
C. buoyancy, inertial
D. inertial, gravity
E. gravity, pressure
Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through _________________?
A. center of gravity
C. metacentre
D. center of buoyancy
E. in between e.g. and center of pressure
Differential monometer is used to measure _______________________?
A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.

B. atmospheric pressure
155
C. very low pressure

D. difference of pressure between two points
E. velocity in pipes
The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the ___________________?
A. submerged body
B. volume of the floating body
C. volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. displaced volume of the fluid
The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm”. The pressure at
2.5 m below the oil surface will be ___________________?
A. 2 meters of water column

B. 3 meters of water column
In an immersed body, center of pressure is ____________________?
A. at the center of gravity

B. above the center of gravity
C. below be center of gravity
D. could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
E. unpredictable
The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be________________?
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. lower/higher depending on weight of body
E. unpredictable
The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid ___________________?
A. only when the fluid is frictionless

B. only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
C. when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
D. irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
E. in case of an ideal fluid
Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water surface will
be ___________________?
A. 1000 kg
B. 4000 kg
C. 2000 kg
156
D. 8000 kg
E. 16000 kg
Rotameter is a device used to measure____________________?
A. absolute pressure
B. velocity of fluid
C. flow
D. rotation
E. velocity of air
Flow of water in a pipe about 3 meters in diameter can be measured by_________________?
A. orifice plate
B. venturi
C. rotameter
D. pitot tube
E. nozzle
True one-dimensional flow occurs when___________________?
A. the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each
plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is__________________?
A. constant
B. variable
C. zero
D. zero under limiting conditions
E. never zero
During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is___________________?
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. uniform
Gradually varied flow is____________________?
A. steady uniform
B. non-steady non-uniform
C. non-steady uniform
D. steady non-uniform
Non uniform flow occurs when ____________________?

157
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
C. the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy ___________________?
A. Pascal law
B. Newton’s law of viscosity
C. boundary layer theory
D. continuity equation
E. Bernoulli’s theorem
For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in__________________?
A. vertical line
B. horizontal line
C. inclined line with flow downward
D. inclined line with upward flow
E. in any direction and in any location
Uniform flow occurs when____________________?
A. the flow is steady

B. the flow is streamline
C. size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
D. size and cross section change uniform¬ly along length
E. flow occurs at constant fate
Steady flow occurs when____________________?
plane
The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other is
called____________________?
A. one dimensional flow

B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow
158
The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for any
given instant, is known as___________________?

B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow
Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is ______________________?
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. laminar
D. vortex
E. rotational
The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
_____________________?

B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow
The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as ____________________?
The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as_________________?

B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow
General energy equation holds for_________________?
A. steady flow
B. turbulent flow
C. laminar flow
D. non-uniform flow
E. all of the above
A streamline is defined as the line ________________?

159
A. parallel to central axis flow

B. parallel to outer surface of pipe
C. of equal yelocity in a flow
D. along which the pressure drop is uniform
E. which occurs in all flows
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its
volume is under mercury ?
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5
The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional
to___________________?
A. head of water (h)

B. h2
C. V/T
D. h2
E. h3/1.
In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is ________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero and finite
E. unpredictable
A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The
specific gravity of wood is__________________?
A. 0.83
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is known
as_________________?
A. wake
B. drag
C. lift
160
D. boundary layer
E. aerofoil section
The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is________________?
A. crest
B. nappe
C. sill
D. weir top
E. contracta
Uniform flow occurs when___________________?
B. the velocity of successive fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc¬cessive periods of time
Hydrometer is used to determine________________?
A. specific gravity of liquids

B. specific gravity of solids
C. specific gravity of gases
D. relative humidity
E. density
For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both
cases should also be equal__________________?
A. ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity

B. ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
C. ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
D. all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and
elasticity
Cavitation will begin when______________________?
A. the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure
of the liquid
B. pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. flow is increased
D. pressure is increased
Principle of similitude forms the basis of__________________?
A. comparing two identical equipments

B. designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
C. comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
161
D. hydraulic designs
E. performing acceptance tests
Cavitation is caused by___________________?
A. high velocity
B. high pressure
C. weak material
D. low pressure
E. low viscosity
Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of____________________?
A. mass
B. momentum
C. energy
D. work
E. force
A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight of 1
tonne. The force required on plunger is equal tc__________________?
A. 10 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 1000 kg
D. 1 kg
E. 10,000 kg
For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is_________________?
A. less than 2000

B. between 2000 and 4000
C. more than 4000
D. less than 4000
The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be equal
to________________?
A. 1 Pa
B. 91Pa
C. 981 Pa
D. 9810 Pa
E. 98,100 Pa
In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between
thes^ points must be more than_________________?
162
A. frictional force
B. viscosity
C. surface friction
D. all of the above
A large Roynold number is indication of_________________?
A. smooth and streamline flow

B. laminar flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. highly turbulent flow
Reynolds number is significant in____________________?
A. supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion

B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and
wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
D. all of the above
Froude number is significant in____________________?
A. supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion

B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces,
and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
D. all of the above
The equation of continuity holds good when the flow __________________?
A. is steady
B. is one dimensional
C. velocity is uniform at all the cross sec-tions
D. all of the above
According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow_______________?
A. principle of conservation of mass holds

B. velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
C. total energy is constant throughout
D. the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
Mach number is significant in___________________?
A. supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion

B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
163
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity force, and
wave making effects, as with ship’s hulls
D. all of fhe above
The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompres sible fluid flowing
in continuous sream________________?
D. keeps on increasing
B. keeps on decreasing
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease
E. unpredictable
Pitot tube is used for measurement of__________________?
A. pressure
B. flow
C. velocity
D. dsscharge
E. viscosity
Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to_______________?
A. steady flow
B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. uniform flow
E. critical flow
For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is___________________?
A. unity
B. greater than unity
C. greater than 2
D. greater than 4
Two dimensional flow occurs when___________________?
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation have dimension of_______________?

164
A. energy
B. work
C. mass
D. length
E. time
The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are__________________?
A. gravity, pressure and viscous

B. gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. gravity, viscous and turbulent
For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is__________________?
A. less than 2000

C. more than 4000
D. less than 4000
At the centre line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear stress
will be_______________?
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. negative value
E. could be any value
Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantites are
same______________?
A. friction loss and flow

B. length and diameter
C. flow and length
D. friction factor and diameter
E. velocity and diameter
In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is__________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero finite
E. unpredictable
165
Select the correct statement ?
A. Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only

B. Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
Choose the wrong statement ?
A. The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
B. For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly below the center of
buoyancy
C. If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium for all
positions
D. For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the center of buoyancy
E. All floating bodies are stable
Choose the wrong statement?
A. any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant force

B. Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
C. The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of buoyancy
D. Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the displaced liquid v
Choose the wrong statement?
A. fluids are capable of flowing

B. fluids conform to the shape of the con-taining vessels
C. when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
D. when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
E. fluids have some degree of compressibility and offer little resistance to form
Choose the wrong statement________________?
A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing force
B. Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
D. Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
E. Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds
Fluid Mechanics
An open tank contains 1 m deep water with 50 cm depth of oil of specific gravity 0.8 above it. The
intensity of pressure at the bottom of tank will be________________?
A. 4 kN/m2
B. 10 kN/m2
C. 12 kN/m2
D. 14 kN/m2
The total pressure on a plane surface inclined at an angle 9 with the horizontal is equal
to_______________?
166
A. PA
B. pA sin 9
C. pA cos 9
D. pA tan 9
where p is pressure intensity at centroid of area and A is area of plane surface
Centre of buoyancy always_________________?
A. coincides with the centre of gravity

B. coincides with the centroid of the volume of fluid displaced
C. remains above the centre of gravity
D. remains below the centre of gravity
Metacentric height for small values of angle of heel is the distance between the________________?
A. centre of gravity and centre of buoy-ancy

B. centre of gravity and metacentre
C. centre of buoyancy and metacentre
D. free surface and centre of buoyancy
A rectangular block 2 m long, 1 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water, the depth of immersion being
0.5 m. If water weighs 10 kN/m3, then the weight of the block is________________?
A. 5kN
B. lOkN
C. 15 kN
D. 20 kN
If a vessel containing liquid moves downward with a constant acceleration equal to ‘g’
then_____________?
A. the pressure throughout the liquid mass is atmospheric

B. there will be vacuum in the liquid
C. the pressure in the liquid mass is greater than hydrostatic pressure
An open cubical tank of 2 m side is filled with water. If the tank is rotated with an acceleration such
that half of the water spills out, then the acceleration is equal to_______________?
A. g/3
B. g/2
C. 2g/3
D. g
The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the_______________?

167
A. product of pressure intensity at its centroid and area

B. force on a vertical projection of the curved surface
C. weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface
D. force on the horizontal projection of the curved surface
The eddy viscosity for turbulent flow is______________?
A. a function of temperature only

B. a physical property of the fluid.
C. dependent on the flow
D. independent of the flow
In a two dimensional incompressible steady flow around an airfoil, the stream lines are 2 cm apart at
a great distance from the airfoil, where the velocity is 30 m/sec. The velocity near the airfoil, where
the stream lines are 1.5 cm apart, is_________________?
A. 22.5 m/sec
B. 33 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 90 m/sec
If the velocity is zero over half of the cross-sectional area and is uniform over the remaining half, then
the momentum correction factor is_______________?
A. 1
B. 4/3
C. 2
D. 4
The continuity equation pi V,A,= p2V2A2 is based on the following assumption regarding flow of
fluid______________?
A. steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. incompressible flow
D. frictionless flow
where pi and p2 are mass densities
The motion of air mass in a tornado is a________________?
A. free vortex motion

B. forced vortex motion
C. free vortex at center and forced vortex outside
D. forced vortex at center and free vortex outside
Stream lines and path lines always coincide in case of__________________?

168
A. steady flow
B. laminar flow
C. uniform flow
D. turbulent flow
In steady flow of a fluid, the total accele ration of any fluid particle______________?
A. can be zero
B. is never zero
C. is always zero
D. is independent of coordinates
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A. discharge
B. velocity of gas
C. pressure intensity of gas
D. pressure intensity of liquid
Which of the following is used to measure the discharge ?
A. current meter
B. venturimeter
C. pitot tube
D. hotwire anemometer
Size of a venturimeter is specified by________________?
A. pipe diameter
B. throat diameter
C. angle of diverging section
D. both pipe diameter as well as throat diameter
The discharge through a V- notch varies as______________?
A. H1/2
B. H3’2
C. H5/2
D. H5’4 where H is head
Coefficient of velocity of venturimeter_________________?
A. is independent of Reynolds number

B. decreases with higher Reynolds number
C. is equal to the coefficient of discharge of venturimeter
Coefficient of discharge for a totally submerged orifice as compared to that for an orifice discharging
free is__________________?
169
A. slightly less
B. slightly more
C. nearly half
D. equal
Coefficient of contraction for an external cylindrical mouthpiece is_________________?
A. 1.00
B. 0.855
C. 0.7H
D. 0.611
In a Sutro weir, the discharge is proportional to________________?
A. H1/2
B. H3/2
C. H5/2
D. H
where H is head
Which of the following statements is correct ?
A. Lower critical Reynolds number is of no practical significance in pipe flow problems.

B. Upper critical Reynolds number is significant in pipe flow problems.
C. Lower critical Reynolds number has the value 2000 in pipe flow
D. Upper critical Reynolds number is the number at which turbulent flow changes to laminar flow
The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates, both at rest,
is_______________?
A. constant over the cross section

B. parabolic distribution across the section
C. zero at the mid plane and varies linearly with distance from mid plane
D. zero at plates and increases linearly to midpoint
The boundary layer thickness in turbulent flow varies as______________?
A. x”7
B. x,/2
C. x4/5
D. x3/5
where x is the distance from leading edge
Ay between two stream lines represents________________?

170
A. velocity
B. discharge
C. head
D. pressure
Stanton diagram is a______________?
A. log-log plot of friction factor against Reynolds number

B. log-log plot of relative roughness against Reynolds number
C. semi-log plot of friction factor against Reynolds number
D. semi-log plot of friction factor against relative roughness
When an ideal fluid flows past a sphere________________?
A. highest intensity of pressure occurs around the circumference at right angles to flow
B. lowest pressure intensity occurs at front stagnation point
C. lowest pressure intensity occurs at rear stagnation point
D. total drag is zero
In which of the following the friction drag is generally larger than pressure drag?
A. a circular disc or plate held normal to flow

B. a sphere
C. a cylinder
D. an airfoil
The value of friction factor ‘f’ for smooth pipes for Reynolds number 106 is approximately equal
to________________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.01
C. 0.001
D. 0.0001
Separation of flow occurs when_________________?
A. the pressure intensity reaches a minimum

B. the cross-section of a channel is reduced
C. the boundary layer comes to rest
D. all of the above
The distance from pipe boundary, at which the turbulent shear stress is one-third die wall shear
stress, is_______________?
A. 1/3 R
B. 1/2 R
C. 2/3 R
D. 3/4R
171
where R is the radius of pipe
The Prartdtl mixing length is_________________?
A. zero at the pipe wall

B. maximum at the pipe wall
C. independent of shear stress
A fluid of kinematic viscosity 0.4 cm2/sec flows through a 8 cm diameter pipe. The maximum velocity
for laminar flow will be__________________?
A. less than 1 m/sec

B. 1 m/sec
C. 1.5 m/sec
D. 2 m/sec
The wake_______________?
A. always occurs before a separation point

B. always occurs after a separation point
C. is a region of high pressure intensity
The hydraulic grade line is_________________?
A. always above the centre line of pipe

B. never above the energy grade line
C. always sloping downward in the direction of flow
D. all of the above
If a sphere of diameter 1 cm falls in castor oil of kinematic viscosity 10 stokes, with a terminal velocity
of 1.5 cm/sec, the coefficient of drag on the sphere is________________?
A. less than 1
C. 160
D. 200
In series-pipe problems_______________?
A. the head loss is same through each pipe

B. the discharge is same through each pipe
C. a trial solution is not necessary
D. the discharge through each pipe is added to obtain total discharge
172
A valve is suddenly closed in a water main in wl.ich the velocity is 1 m/sec and velocity of pressure
wave is 981 m/ sec. The inertia head at the valve will be________________?
C. 100m
When time of closure tc = L/v0 (where L is length of pipe and v0 is speed of pressure wavE., the
portion of pipe length subjected to maximum head is__________________?
A. L/4
B. L/3
C. L/2
D. L
The length of a pipe is 1 km and its diameter is 20 cm. If the diameter of an equivalent pipe is 40 cm,
then its length is_____________________?
A. 32 km
B. 20 km
Two pipes of same length and diameters d and 2d respectively are connected in series. The diameter
of an equivalent pipe of same length is________________?
A. less than d
B. between d and 1.5 d
C. between 1.5 d and 2d
D. greater than 2d
The boundary layer thickness at a distance of l m from the leading edge of a flat plate, kept at zero
angle of incidence to the flow direction, is O.l cm. The velocity outside the boundary layer is 25 ml sec.
The boundary layer thickness at a distance of 4 m is__________________?
A. 0.40 cm
B. 0.20 cm
C. 0.10 cm
D. 0.05 cm
Assume that boundary layer is entirely laminar
The correct relationship among displacement thickness d, momentum thickness m and energy
thickness e is_________________?
A. d > m > e
B. d > e > m
C. e > m > d
D. e > d > m
Surge wave in a rectangular channel is an example of_________________?
1. steady flow
2. unsteady flow
173
3. uniform flow
4. non-uniform flow
D. (2) and (4)
If the elevation of hydraulic grade line at the junction of three pipes is above the elevation of
reservoirs B and C and below reservoir A, then the direction of flow will be___________________?
A. from reservoir A to reservoirs B and C

B. from reservoir B to reservoirs C and A
C. from reservoir C to reservoirs A and B
D. unpredictable
The horse power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the ratio of loss of head due to friction
and total head supplied is________________?
A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 2/3
For laminar flow in circular pipes, the Darcy’s friction factor f is equal to_________________?
A. 16/Re
B. 32/ Re
C. 64/ Re
D. none of the above where R,, is Reynolds number
Drag force is a function of________________?
1. projected area of the body

2. mass density of the fluid
3. velocity of the body
A. (1) and (2)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
The speed of a pressure wave through a pipe depends upon________________?
A. the length of pipe

B. the viscosity of fluid
C. the bulk modulus for the fluid
D. the original head
174
Two pipe systems are said to be equivalent when_________________?
A. head loss and discharge are same in two systems

B. length of pipe and discharge are same in two systems
C. friction factor and length are same in two systems
D. length and diameter are same in two systems
The maximum thickness of boundary layer in a pipe of radius r is____________________?
A. 0
B. r/2
C. r
D. 2r
The losses are more in_________________?
A. laminar flow
B. transition flow
C. turbulent flow
D. critical flow
The velocity distribution for laminar flow through a circular tube__________________?
A. is constant over the cross-section

B. varies linearly from zero at walls to maximum at centre
C. varies parabolically with maximum at the centre
The discharge of a liquid of kinematic viscosity 4 cm2/sec through a 8 cm dia-meter pipe is 3200n
cm7sec. The type of flow expected is__________________?
A. laminar flow
B. transition flow
C. turbulent flow
D. not predictable from the given data
The ratio of average velocity to maximum velocity for steady laminar flow in circular pipes
is_______________?
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 3/2
D. 2
For laminar flow in a pipe of circular cross-section, the Darcy’s friction factor f is________________?
A. directly proportional to Reynolds number and independent of pipe wall roughness

B. directly proportional to pipe wall roughness and independent of Reynolds number
175
C. inversely proportional to Reynolds number and indpendent of pipe wall roughness

D. inversely proportional to Reynolds number and directly proportional to pipe wall roughness
For hydro-dynamically smooth boundary, the friction coefficient for turbulent flow
is_______________?
A. constant
B. dependent only on Reynolds number
C. a function of Reynolds number and relative roughness
D. dependent on relative roughness only
With the same cross-sectional area and immersed in same turbulent flow, the largest total drag will
be on__________________?
A. a circular disc of plate held normal to flow
The distance y from pipe boundary, at which the point velocity is equal to average velocity for
turbulent flow, is________________?
A. 0.223 R
B. 0.423 R
C. 0.577 R
D. 0.707 R
where R is radius of pipe
In case of an airfoil, the separation of flow occurs________________?
A. at the extreme rear of body

B. at the extreme front of body
C. midway between rear and front of body
D. any where between rear and front of body depending upon Reynolds number
The depth ‘d’ below the free surface at which the point velocity is equal to the average velocity of
flow for a uniform laminar flow with a free surface, will be_________________?
A. 0.423 D
B. 0.577 D
C. 0.223 D
D. 0.707 D
where D is the depth of flow
If x is the distance from leading edge, then the boundary layer thickness in laminar flow varies
as________________?
A. x
B. x
176
C. x
D. x/7
For a sphere of radius 15 cm moving with a uniform velocity of 2 m/sec through a liquid of specific
gravity 0.9 and dynamic viscosity 0.8 poise, the Reynolds number will be_________________?
A. 300
B. 337.5
C. 600
D. 675
The discharge over a broad crested weir is maximum when the depth of flow is_______________?
A. H/3
B. H/2
C. 2 H/5
D. 2 H/3
where H is the available head
Which of the following has highest coefficient of discharge ?
A. sharp edged orifice

B. venturimeter
C. Borda’s mouthpiece running full
D. CipoUetti weir
The major loss of energy in long pipes is due to_______________?
A. sudden enlargement
B. sudden contraction
C. gradual contraction or enlargement
D. friction
Coefficient of velocity for Borda’s mouth piece running full is________________?
A. 0.611
B. 0.707
C. 0.855
D. 1.00
The pressure at the summit of a syphon is_______________?
A. equal to atmospheric
B. less than atmospheric
Due to each end contraction, the discharge of rectangular sharp crested weir is reduced
by________________?
177
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
The theoretical value of coefficient of contraction of a sharp edged orifice is_______________?
A. 0.611
B. 0.85
C. 0.98
D. 1.00
The pitot tube is used to measure________________?
A. velocity at stagnation point

B. stagnation pressure
C. static pressure
D. dynamic pressure
Equation of continuity is based on the principle of conservation of_________________?
A. mass
B. energy
C. momentum
In a forced vortex motion, the velocity of flow is________________?
A. directly proportional to its radial distance from axis of rotation

B. inversely proportional to its radial distance from the axis of rotation
C. inversely proportional to the square of its radial distance from the axis of rotation
D. directly proportional to the square of its radial distance from the axis of rotation
Which of the following velocity potentials satisfies continuity equation ?
A. x2y
B. x2-y2
C. cosx
D. x2 + y2
If velocity is zero over l/3rd of a cross-section and is uniform over remaining 2/3rd of the cross-
section, then the correction factor for kinetic energy is__________________?
A. 4/3
B. 3/2
C. 9/4
D. 27/8
178
Least possible value of correction factor for________________?
1. kinetic energy is zero

2. kinetic energy is 1
3. momentum is zero
4. momentum is 1
The correct statements are?
D. (2) and (4)
When the velocity distribution is uniform over the cross-section, the correction factor for momentum
is__________________?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 4/3
D. 2
Flow at constant rate through a tapering pipe is________________?
1. steady flow
2. uniform flow
3. unsteady flow
4. non-uniform flow
The correct answer is? B. (1)and(iv)
A. The pressure intensity at vena contracta is atmospheric

B. Contraction is least at vena contracta
C. Stream lines are parallel throughout the jet at vena contracta
D. Coefficient of contraction is always less than one
A closed tank containing water is moving in a horizontal direction along a straight line at a constant
speed. The tank also contains a steel ball and a bubble of air. If the tank is decelerated horizontally,
then________________?
1. the ball will move to the front

2. the bubble will move to the front
3. the ball will move to the rear
4. the bubble will move to the rear
Find out which of the above statements are correct ?
A. (1) and (2)

B. (1)and(4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (3) and (4)
179
Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
A. Coefficient of contraction of a venturimeter is unity

B. Flow nozzle is cheaper than venturimeter but has higher energy loss
C. Discharge is independent of orientation of venturimeter whether it is horizontal, vertical or inclined
D. None of the above statement is correct.
A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled with liquid and rotated about its vertical axis at such a
speed that half the liquid spills out, then the pressure intensity at the center of bottom
is___________________?
A. zero
B. one-fourth its value when cylinder was full
C. one-half its value when cylinder was full
D. cannot be predicted from the given data
When a liquid rotates at a constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, the pressure
intensity varies________________?
A. linearly with radial distance

B. as the square of the radial distance
C. inversely as the square of the radial distance
D. inversely as the radial distance
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to
act is known as__________________?
A. center of gravity
B. center of buoyancy
C. center of pressure
D. metacentre
The increase in meta centric height_________________?
1. increases stability
2. decreases stability
3. increases comfort for passengers
4. decreases comfort for passengers
The correct answer is? B. (1)and(iv)
If the weight of a body immersed in a fluid exceeds the buoyant force, then the body
will________________?
A. rise until its weight equals the buoyant force

B. tend to move downward and it may finally sink
C. float
180
A floating body is said to be in a state of stable equilibrium_________________?
A. when its metacentric height is zero

B. when the metacentre is above the centre of gravity
C. when the metacentre is below the centre of gravity
D. only when its centre of gravity is below its centre of buoyancy
A vertical rectangular plane surface is submerged in water such that its top and bottom surfaces are
1.5 m and 6.0 m res-pectively below the free surface. The position of center of pressure below the
free surface will be at a distance of________________?
A. 3.75 m
B. 4.0 m
C. 4.2m
The position of center of pressure on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static mass of fluid
is______________?
A. at the centroid of the submerged area

B. always above the centroid of the area
C. always below the centroid of the area
Newton’s law of viscosity relates________________?
A. intensity of pressure and rate of angular deformation

B. shear stress and rate of angular deformation
C. shear stress, viscosity and temperature
D. viscosity and rate of angular deformation
The viscosity of a gas_______________?
A. decreases with increase in temperature

B. increases with increase in temperature
C. is independent of temperature
D. is independent of pressure for very high pressure intensities
If the dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 0.5 poise and specific gravity is 0.5, then the kinematic viscosity of
that fluid in stokes is__________________?
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 1.0
An ideal fluid is_______________?

181
A. one which obeys Newton’s law of viscosity

B. frictionless and incompressible
C. very viscous
D. frictionless and compressible
Pascal-second is the unit of______________?
A. pressure
B. kinematic viscosity
C. dynamic viscosity
D. surface tension
The unit of kinematic viscosity is_______________?
A. gm/cm-sec2
B. dyne-sec/cm2
C. gm/cm2-sec
D. cm2/sec
A. The absolute roughness of a pipe de-creases with time

B. A pipe becomes smooth after using for long time
C. The friction factor decreases with time
D. The absolute roughness increases with time
Applied Mechanics and Graphic Statics

Select the correct statement ?
A. The body centrode rolls on the space centrode

B. The space centrode rolls on the body centrode
C. Both body and space centrodes may role on each other
D. The body centrode never touches space centrode
A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other. They are
balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is__________________?
A. 60 N
B. 80 N
C. 100 N
D. 120 N
If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the angle between
the two forces is____________________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
182
C. 60°
D. 120°
The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximum respectively
are__________________?
A. 0° and 90°
B. 180° and 90°
C. 90° and 180°
D. 180° and 0°
The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P.
Then_________________?
A. P = R
B. Q = R
C. P = Q
D. None of the above is correct
A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5m and moment of inertia 3 kg-m2 rolls on a horizontal surface so that its
center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is ___________________?
A. 50 J
B. 150 J
C. 200 J
D. 400 J
The following is in unstable equilibrium__________________?
A. a uniform solid cone resting on a generator on a smooth horizontal plane

B. a uniform solid cone resting on its base on a horizontal plane
C. a solid cube resting on one edge
D. a satellite encircling the earth
A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on the surface. Which is
more stable ?
A. pyramid
B. prism
C. both equally stable
A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force__________________?
A. can raise the CG of the body but can not lower it

B. tends to lower the CG of the body
C. neither raises nor lowers the CG of the body
D. none of above
183
Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different densities.
Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about its central axis ?
A. disc with larger density

B. disc with smaller density
C. both discs will have same rotational inertia
A symmetrical body is rotating about its axis of symmetry, its moment of inertia about the axis of
rotation being 2 kg -m2 and its rate of rotation 2 revolutions/see. The angular momentum of the body
in kg-m2/sec is_____________________?
A. 4
B. 6 7i
C. 8TC
D. 8
The torque produced by a force depends on__________________?
1) the magnitude of the force

2) the direction of the force
3) the’point of application of the force relative to origin
A. only (1)
B. both (1) and (2)
C. both (1) and (3)
D. all (1), (2) and (3)
A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and roll down the same
inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first ?
A. sphere with greater rotational energy at bottom than cylinder

B. sphere with lesser rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
C. cylinder with greater rotational energy at bottom than sphere
D. both reach the bottom simultaneously with equal rotational energy at bottom
A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The acceleration
of center of mass of rolling cylinder is________________?
A. (1/3) g sinB
B. (2/3) g cos 9
C. (2/3) g sin 0
D. g sin 9
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity and 0 is inclination of plane with horizontal
184
A cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination 0 if the coefficient of static friction between
plane and cylinder is_____________________?
A. less than (1/3) tan 0

B. less than (2/3) tan 0
C. less than (1/3) sin 6
D. less than (2/3) sin 6
If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 – 3t2, the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. is__________________?
A. 1 rad/sec2
B. 4 rad/sec2
C. 6 rad/sec2
D. 12 rad/sec2
A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6 t2 – t3 where t is
expressed in seconds and x in meters. The maximum velocity during the motion
is_________________?
A. 6 m/sec
B. 12 m/sec
C. 24 m/sec
D. 48 m/sec
Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is _________________?
A. constant
B. zero
C. maximum
D. minimum
A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal floor. Where will
be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping ?
1) 1.0 in from the wall

2) 1.732 m from the wall
3) 1.0 m above the floor
4) 1.732 m above the floor
D. (2) and (4)
The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are equal
to_____________________?
A. 36°
B. 45°
185
C. 56°
D. 76°
A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returns to the ground
in________________?
A. 5 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 10 sec
D. 20 sec
If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane, then the
range of projectile on the inclined plane is__________________?
A. zero
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. unpredictable
The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are equal
to___________________?
A. 45°
B. tan-1 (2)
C. tan-‘ (4)
D. tan”1 (1/4)
In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always_________________?
A. stable
B. unstable
C. neutral
The time period of a simple pendulum depends on__________________?
1) mass of suspended particle

2) length of the pendulum
3) acceleration due to gravity
B. both (2) and (3)

The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds
to__________________?
A. zero potential energy and maximum kinetic energy

B. zero kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
186
C. maximum kinetic energy and maxi-mum potential energy

D. minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If its amplitude is increased to
2 A, the energy becomes____________________?
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, at a displacement
equal to half its amplitude is given by__________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
Time period and length of a seconds pendulum respectively are_________________?
A. 1 sec and 99.4 cm

B. 1 sec and 92.7 cm
C. 2 sec and 99.4 cm
D. 2 sec and 92.7 cm
A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one complete
vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is___________________?
A. 1.00 m/sec
B. 1.57 m/sec
C. 3.14 m/sec
Joule is the unit of__________________?
A. power
B. impulse
C. work
D. momentum
A quantity whose dimensions are M2L2 T3 could be the product of_________________?
A. force and pressure

B. mass and power
C. energy and velocity
D. force and velocity
If y is force and x is velocity, then dimensions of —=r are dx2__________________?

187
A. M’^T’
B. M’L-‘T0
C. M’L-‘T1
D. M2L’T3
The dimensions of centrifugal force are__________________?
A. M1 L2 T2
B. M’L’T1
C. M’L’T2
D. M’L-‘T2
The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is________________?
A. cm4
B. kg-cm2
C. gm-cm2
D. gm-cm3
In SI units, the units of force and energy are respectively___________________?
A. Newton and watt

B. Dyne and erg
C. Newton and joule
D. kg-wt and joule
A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in the same horizontal line 100 m
apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull in the cable respectively
are____________________?
A. 1346.3 kN and 1500 kN

B. 1436.2 kN and 1250 kN
C. 1346.3 kN and 1250 kN
D. 1436.2 kN and 1500 kN
Impulse can be obtained from a_________________?
A. force-displacement diagram
B. force-time diagram
C. velocity-time diagram
D. velocity-displacement diagram
Which of the following is a scalar quantity ?
A. energy
B. momentum
C. torque
D. impulse
188
Coefficient of friction depends on__________________?
A. nature of surfaces only
If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less than the angle of friction,
then___________________?
1) a force is required to move the body upwards

2) a force is required to move the body downward
3) the body will not be in equilibrium
C. both (1) and (2)

A ladder of weight ‘w’ rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on rough horizontal ground,
the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground being 1/4. The maximum angle of
inclination of the ladder to the vertical, if a man of weight ‘w’ is to walk to the top of it safely, is
tan’1 x, where x is___________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 3
D. 4
The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is__________________?
A. circular
B. parabolic
C. catenary
D. cubic parabola
A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. The points of suspension
on the rope lie on a_____________________?
A. parabola
B. catenary
C. cycloid
D. ellipse
A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of restitution
between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic
energy lost is___________________?
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/9
D. 8/9
189
A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a horizontal floor. If it rebounds to a height of 9 m after

striking the floor, the coefficient of restitution between ball and floor is_____________________?
A. 1/4
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 4/3
When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration of the body is given
by__________________?
A. g
B. gsinG
C. g cos 6
D. g tan 6
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity and 9 is the angle of inclination of surface with the horizontal
A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two parts, one of
mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass drops vertically downward with initial velocity of
100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the horizontal of tan”1 x, where x
is______________________?
A. 3/4
B. 4/5
C. 5/3
D. 3/5
A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal pieces during an
explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in
the same direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must be____________________?
A. 20 m/sec
B. 30 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move towards each
other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction. The speeds of the objects
are____________________?
A. 2 m/sec and 2 m/sec

B. 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec
be___________________?
190
A. 0.1 rad/sec
B. 1 rad/sec
C. 10 rad/sec
D. 100 rad/sec
The condilion for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency should be_________________?
A. less than 50%

B. more than 50%
C. more than 66.67%
D. equal to 100%
In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of 6 kN. The
velocity ratio of the machine is_____________________?
A. 30
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80
A system of copianar forces acting on a rigid body can be reduced to________________?
A. one force only

B. one couple only
C. one force and one couple only
Force polygon method is applicable for_____________________?
A. any copianar force system

B. a system of parallel forces only
C. concurrent copianar force system
D. non-concurrent copianar force system
The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of forces in their plane is
called____________________?
A. vector diagram
B. space diagram
C. force diagram
D. funicular diagram
The bending moment in an arch is proportional to___________________?
A. vertical ordinate of funicular polygon

B. vertical ordinate of the arch
C. intercept between the arch axis and the funicular polygon
D. none of these
191
An ordinate in a funicular polygon represents__________________?
A. shear force
B. resultant force
C. bending moment
D. equilibrium
In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required for determining the forces in
all the members of the truss by graphic statics ?
A. howe truss
B. king post truss
C. fink truss
D. warren truss
The number of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through two specified points in the
space diagram are__________________?
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. infinity
If the given forces P,, P2, P3 and P4 are such that the force polygon does not close, then the system
will___________________?
A. be in equilibrium
B. always reduce to a resultant force
C. always reduce to a couple
D. both (A) and (C)
Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine deflection in__________________?
A. trusses only
B. beam only
C. rigid frames only
D. any type of structure
For a non-concurrent force system to be in equilibrium__________________?
A. only the closure of force polygon is sufficient

B. only the closure of funicular polygon is sufficient
C. both force polygon and funicular polygon must close
The condition of equilibrium for any system of forces in a plane is____________________?

192
A. that polygon of forces must close

B. that resultant couple must be zero
C. both (A) and (B)
A funicular polygon cannot be made to pass through___________________?
A. one specified point

B. two specified points
C. three specified points
D. more than three specified points
The pole distance is measured in___________________?
A. distance scale
B. force scale
C. mass scale
D. time scale
The member forces in a statically in determinate truss____________________?
A. can be obtained by graphic statics

B. cannot be obtained by graphic statics
C. may be obtained by graphic statics
D. can be obtained by graphic statics by trial and error
The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a truss is based
on________________?
A. method of joint
B. method of section
C. either method
D. none of the two methods
The force polygon representing a set of forces in equilibrium is a_____________________?
A. triangle
B. open polygon
C. closed polygon
D. parallelogram
A system of copianar forces is in equilibrium when___________________?
A. force polygon closes

B. funicular polygon closes
C. both force polygon” and funicular polygon close
Free body diagram is an____________________?

193
A. isolated joint with only body forces acting on it

B. isolated joint with internal forces acting on it
C. isolated joint with all the forces, internal as well as external, acting on it
In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kN is lifted through 200 mm by an effort of 0.1 kN moving through 15
m. The mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of the machine are
respectively_____________________?
A. 50 and 75
B. 75 and 50
C. 75 and 75
D. 50 and 50
A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec. After 5 seconds
another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both the stones strike the
ground at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown should be
(Assume g = 10 m/sec2)______________________?
A. 15 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which has a coefficient of restitution
with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the ball will rebound after striking the floor
is____________________?
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.75 m
C. 1.0 m
D. 1.5 m
One Joule is equivalent to________________?
A. 9.81 Newton – metre

B. 1 Newton – metre
C. 1 kg wt – metre
D. 1 dyne – metre
If a flywheel increases its speed from 10 rpm to 20 rpm in 10 seconds, then its angular acceleration
is_____________________?
A. —rad/sec 10
B. —rad/sec 20
C. —rad/sec 30
194
A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at which the road
must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan”1 x, where x is (Assume g = 10
m/sec2)_____________________?
A. 3/8
B. 1/2
C. 9/5
D. 5/8
A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body is projected vertically
upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will____________________?
A. never meet
B. meet after 1 sec
C. meet after 5 sec
D. meet after 10 sec
Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4 m/sec and 1 m/sec respectively,
towards each other along the line of their centers. After impact the 3 kg ball comes to rest. This can
happen only if the coefficient of restitution between the balls is____________________?
A. 2/3
B. 1/5
C. 3/5
D. 1/3
The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supported at two ends which
are at the same level, is at_____________________?
supports
Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to____________________?
A. horizontal thrust
B. support reactions
C. resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
D. half the weight of the cable
Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is_________________?
A. y = c cosh x/c
B. y = c sinh x/c
C. y = c tan x/c
D. y = c sin”1 x/c
Intrinisic equation of catenary is given by____________________?

195
A. S = C tan q>
B. S = C cos cp
C. S = C sin cp
D. S = C cot <p
where C is some constant
A rope is wrapped twice around a rough pole with a coefficient of friction ‘A . It is subjected to a force
Fj at one end and a gradually increasing force F2 is applied at the other end till the rope just starts slip-
ping. At this instant the ratio of F2 to Fi is_____________________?
A. 1
B. e2*
C. e4*
D. e*72
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium
if________________?
A. floor is smooth and wall is rough

B. floor is rough and wall is rough
C. both floor and wall are rough
D. both floor and wall are smooth
One Newton is equivalent to________________?
A. 1 kg-wt
B. 9.81 kg-wt
C. 981 dyne
D. 1/9.81 kg-wt
The dimensions of power are_______________?
A. M’L2T2
B. M’L’T3
C. M’L’r2
D. M’L-‘T*
The ratio of unit of force in gravitational system to that in absolute system is__________________?
A. 1
B. g
C. 1/g
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity
A quantity measured in the C.G.S system of units has dimensions M”2L3 T3/2. What numerical factor
would be required to convert the quantity to SI units ?
196
A. 1
B. 100
C. 1/100
D. 1/10000
The dimensions of Gravitational Universal constant ‘G’ are______________?
A. M-‘L2r2
B. M-‘L3r2
One Newton is equivalent to_________________?
A. 105 dyne
B. 106 dyne
C. 107 dyne
D. 981 dyne
The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through the earth (assumed
homogenous and spherical) is proportional to____________________?
A. log r
B. r
C. r2
D. 1/r
where r is the distance of’the particle from centre of the earth
At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is_________________?
A. zero
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. varying
Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium ?
A. a cube resting on one edge

B. a smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface
C. a smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface
One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the other end is
attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity. The particle is pulled down
vertically through a distance x, held at rest and then released. The motion is___________________?
A. a simple harmonic motion

B. a rectilinear motion with constant speed
197
C. a damped oscillatory motion

A simple pendulum of length / has an energy E, when its amplitude is A. If the length of pendulum is
doubled, the energy will be___________________?
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A are both
equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equal to_________________?
A. A
B. A/2
C. A/V2
D. AV2
It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent on the
frequency f. If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V, then V must be proportional
to_________________?
A. f
B. 1/f
C. 1/f2
D. f2
A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz and amplitude 0.25 m.
Its maximum kinetic energy is___________________?
A. 4.5 J
B. 9.0 J
C. 12.0 J
D. 18.0 J
If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the total energy E of the
particle is___________________?
A. proportional to A
B. proportional to A2
A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the slope must the
stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection ?
A. 15°
B. 30°
198
If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, its
horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are___________________?
A. 0 and 5 m/sec
B. 5 m/sec and 0
C. 5 V3 m/sec and 0
D. 5 and 5V3 m/sec
A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle of projection is a and the time
of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about__________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/5
Assume g = 10 m/sec2
The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with a velocity of 98 m/sec
is__________________?
A. 98 m
B. 490 m
C. 980 m
D. 1960 m
For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle of projection
is___________________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode and space centrode
respectively are________________?
A. straight line and parabola

B. straight line and circle
C. circle and straight line
D. circle and parabola
The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100m at 36 km/hour,
is_______________?
A. 0.1 radian/sec
B. 1 radian/sec
C. 100 radian/sec
D. 1000 radian/sec
The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder is_______________?
199
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. between 1 and 2
D. greater than 2
A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kg-m” is acted upon by a tangential force of 5 N at 2 m from its
axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian persecond is__________________?
A. 1/2
B. 3/2
C. 2
D. 3
A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of same mass and radius as the
disc and to have the same angular momentum is___________________?
A. n rpm
B. n/2 rpm
Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to_______________?
A. force
B. torque
A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls down a plane inclined at 0 with the horizontal. The
acceleration of sphere is_______________?
A. (1/3) g sin0
B. (2/5) g sin 0
C. (3/7) g sin 0
D. (5/7) g sin0
where g is acceleration due to gravity
A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its centre of mass has a
speed of 200 mm/sec, . The work required to stop the hoop is______________?
A. 2 J
B. 4 J
C. 6 J
D. 8 J
The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding with linear velocity 8 m/sec and
angular velocity 5 radian/sec is_________________?
A. 64 J
B. 400 J
C. 464 J
D. 89 J
200
Minimum potential energy of a system will be in the position of________________?
A. stable equilibrium
B. unstable equilibrium
C. neutral equilibrium
D. all of the above
A block in the shape of a parallelopiped of sides lm x 2m x 3m lies on the surface. Which of the faces
gives maximum stable block ?
A. 1 m x 2 m
B. 2 m x 3 m
C. 1 m x 3m
D. equally stable on all faces
A cube on a smooth horizontal surface___________________?
A. cannot be in stable equilibrium

B. cannot be in neutral equilibrium
C. cannot be in unstable equilibrium
D. can be in any of these states
When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be_____________?
A. P
B. PV2
C. P/V2
D. 2P
A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and 150 mm
respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point at which the rod will balance
is_______________?
A. 109.5 mm from A
Construction Planning and Management

Which of the following is a weakness of bar chart ?
A. interdependencies of activities
B. project progress
C. uncertainties
D. all of the above
Which of the following is not a PERT event ?
A. site investigation started

B. sessional work completed
201
C. bus starts from Jaipur

D. class is being attended
The area under the Beta – distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by_______________?
A. most likely time

B. optimistic time
C. pessimistic time
D. expected time
Which of the following does not represent an activity?
A. site located
B. foundation is being dug
C. the office area is being cleaned
D. the invitations are being sent
Latest start of an activity is always________________?
A. greater than or equal to latest event time of preceding node

B. less than or equal to latest event time of preceding node
C. equal to latest event time of preceding node
D. less than latest event time of preceding node
If the optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time for activity A are 4, 6 and 8 respectively
and for activity B are 5, 5.5 and 9 respectively, then______________?
A. expected time of activity A is greater than the expected time of activity B

B. expected time of activity B is greater than the expected time of activity A
C. expected time of both activities A and B are same
Whenever an activity has zero total float, then_______________?
A. free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero
B. independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero
C. free float and independent float both must be zero
D. free float and independent float both need not be zero
Critical path_____________?
A. is always longest
B. is always shortest
C. may be longest
D. may be shortest
A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone, she takes not less than 6 minutes
for a call and som? times as much as an hour. Fifteen minutes call are more frequent than calls of any
202
other duration. If these phone calls were an activity in PERT project, then phone calls expected
duration will be_______________?
A. 15 minutes
B. 20.143 minutes
C. 21 minutes
D. 27 minutes
The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding
activities is known as_______________?
A. total float
B. free float
C. interfering float
D. independent float
The reduction in project time normally results in_______________?
A. decreasing the direct cost and increasing indirect cost

B. increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost
C. increasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
D. decreasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called_______________?
A. resource levelling
B. resource smoothening
C. updating
D. critical path scheduling
The normal time required for the completion of project in the above problem is_______________?
A. 9 days
B. 13 days
C. 14 days
D. 19 days
Updating may result in_________________?
A. change of critical path

B. decrease of project completion time
C. increase of project completion time
D. all of the above
Interfering float is the difference between__________________?
A. total float and free float

B. total float and independent float
203
C. free float and independent float

A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when operated on a level road
having a rolling resistence of 30 kg per tonne. If this tractor is operated on a level road having a rolling
resistance of 40 kg per tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will________________?
A. reduce by 200 kg
B. increase by 200 kg
C. increase by 250 kg
D. reduce by 250 kg
Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under water?
A. Drag line
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dipper shovel
For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a fixed shovel size will be
maximum_______________?
A. Moist loam
B. Good common earth
C. We|l blasted rock
D. Wet sticky clay
Consider the following statements for a power shovel?
(i) Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of cut
(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of cut
(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum depth
(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel
select the correct statements? (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut is X, then the output for
120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of cut will be_________________?
A. equal to X
B. more than X
C. less than X
A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00/- and has an estimated life of 10 years. The salvage value at
the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000/-. The book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using
general straight line methodevaluation of depreciation is__________________?
A. Rs. 4,75,000/-
B. Rs. 5,75,000/-
204
C. Rs. 6,50,000/-
D. Rs. 8,50,000/-
If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum. A machine can excavate at a
fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs. 2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the cost of
excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is_________________?
A. 500 cum
B. 1000 cum
C. 1500 cum
D. 2000 cum
Rolling resistance of a wheel depends upon_____________?
(i) Vehicle load

(ii) Grade
(iii) Ground
select the correct statements?(i) and (iii) are correct
If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 t and rolling resistance is 30 kg/tonne, then the tractive
effort required to keep the truck moving at a uniform speed is__________________?
A. 30 kg
B. 300 kg
C. 900 kg
D. 1000 kg
A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded weight distribution of this
unit is: Drive wheels : 25000 kg Scraper wheels : 10000 kg If the coefficient of traction for wheeled
tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the rimpull which this tractor can exert without slipping
is_______________?
A. 10000 kg
B. 12500 kg
C. 22500 kg
D. 5000 kg
An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 10 years and a salvage
value of Rs. 50,000/-.What uniform annual amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10
years for replacement if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per
annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069 ?
A. Rs. 31050
B. Rs. 34500
C. Rs. 37950
D. Rs. 50000
205
The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is_________________?
A. 50%
B. 84.1%
C. 99.9%
D. 100%
If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the
expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is________________?
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 10 days
D. 16 days
A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the organization an amount of
rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The salvage value after the amortization period is 10% of
the purchase price. The capital recovery period will be________________?
A. 3.7 years
B. 4.23 years
C. 5 years
D. 7.87 years
In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be_____________?
Consider the following statements ?

1. greater than Total Float.
2. greater than Independent Float
3. equal to Total Float.
4. less than Independent Float. Of these statements
A. 1 and 4 are correct

B. 2 and 3 are correct
The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is_______________?
A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. between normal time and crash time
During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to__________________?
A. increase in rates of only important materials

B. variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-lubricant element
C. variation in total cost of the project on an ad hoc basis
D. rate of inflation
206
Sinking fund is_______________?
A. the fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
B. raised to meet maintenance costs
C. the total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants
D. a part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural modifications
In resources levelling________________?
A. total duration of project is reduced

B. total duration of project is increased
C. uniform demand of resources is achieved
D. cost of project is controlled
PERT is preferred for planning because of________________?
Consider the following features/factors
1. Projects are of the non-repetitive type.

2. Time required need not be known.
3. Time required is known precisely.
4. Events have been established for planning.
5. Emphasis is given to activities of project
A. 1,2 and 4
B. 3,4 and 5
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 5
The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is______________?
Consider the following operations :

1. Drilling
2. Blasting
3. Mucking
4. Placing steel
5. Placing concrete
C. 1,2,3,4,5
The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is 6300 kg. The
tractor weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent upgrade and the rolling
resistance is 45 kg/tonne. Pull available for towing the load is________________?
A. 3425 kg
B. 5515 kg
C. 4350 kg
D. 2975 kg
207
Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of equipment ?
A. Bulldozer
B. Clam shell
C. Scraper
D. Dump truck
For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used
is_______________?
A. Hoe
B. Shovel
C. Dragline
D. None of the above
Batching refers to________________?
A. controlling the total quantity at each batch

B. weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
C. controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at specified radius, for crawler-
mounted, and pneumatic tyremounted machines would be respectively_________________?
A. 80 and 90
B. 90 and 80
C. 85 and 75
D. 75 and 83
In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the activities
along the critical path is done starting with the activity having________________?
A. longest duration
B. highest cost slope
C. least cost slope
D. shortest duration
Wheeled tractors are replacing crawler tractors because________________?
Consider the following statements?
1. wheeled tractors travel faster

2. crawler tractors are more expensive
3. track parts of a crawler wear out quickly
4. crawler tractors have stick control
C. 1,2 and 3 are correct

Sensitivity analysis is a study of__________________?
208
A. comparison of profit and loss

B. comparison of assets and liabilities
C. change in output due to change in input
D. economics of cost and benefits of the project
Preliminary project report for a road project must contain___________________?
A. the detailed estimated cost based on detailed design

B. the several alternatives of the project that have been considered
C. the soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and approximate cost
D. the contract documents for inviting tenders
The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is_______________?
A. Kneading
B. Pressing
C. Tamping
D. Vibration
The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is_________________?
A. Smooth-wheeled rollers
B. Vibratory rollers
C. Sheep foot rollers
D. Tampers
Grader is used mainly for___________________?
A. trimming and finishing

B. shaping and trimming
C. finishing and shaping
D. finishing, shaping and trimming
For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are 5, 17
and 8 days respectively, The expected time is__________________?
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
The correct sequence of these activities is________________?
Consider the following activities in a building construction?
1. Concreting of roof slabs

2. Brick-jelly lime concrete terracing
209
3. Erection of form work for slab

4. Construction of parapet wall in terrace
C. 3,1,2,4
The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000/-. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of
five years is Rs. 1,000/-. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line
method of evaluation of depreciation) will be________________?
A. Rs. 8,800/-
B. Rs. 7,600/-
C. Rs. 6,400/-
D. Rs. 5,000/-
A contractor has two options : Invest his money in project A or (II) : Invest his money in project B. If he
decides to invest in A, for every rupee invested, he is assured of doubling his money in ten years. If he
decides to invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5 times in 5 years. If the contractor values
his money at 10% interest rate, he______________?
A. should invest in neither of the two projects

B. could invest in either of the two projects
C. should invest in project A
D. should invest in project B
Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor_______________?
A. on commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him

B. for the purchase of construction materials
C. for the payment of advances to labour and other staff
D. for all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract document
In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done____________?
A. on all the activities

B. on all the activities lying on the critical path
C. only on activities lying on the orginal critical path and having flatter cost slopes
D. on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in the order
of ascending cost slope
At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means________________?
A. measurement of risks to eliminate failures

B. applying the theory’ of probability to sample testing or inspection
C. reduction in wastage of inspection costs
D. reduction in costs for the removal of defects
In the bar chart planning____________?

210

1. interdependence of the operations cannot be portrayed
2. progress of work can be measured
3. spare time of the activities can be determined
4. schedule cannot be updated
A. 1,2 and 3 are correct

C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2 and 4 are correct
If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a standard deviation of 5 weeks, the
probability of completing the project in 50 weeks and 65 weeks respectively will
be__________________?
A. 2.3% and 84.1%

B. 97.7% and 84.1%
C. 97.7 % and 15.9%
D. 15.9% and 97.7%
A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is borrowed at 8% interest per
annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual
equipment cost of the machine will be________________?
A. Rs.1740
B. Rs.3480
C. Rs.5220
D. Rs.6960
If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest expected time for completion
of the project, then the probability of completion of the project within the scheduled completion time
will be__________________?
A. 50%
B. less than 50%
C. more than 50%
D. 100%
A four wheel trac*or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along a road having a rising slope of
2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the tow cable is
720 kg. The rolling resistance of the road will be___________________?
A. 20 kg/tonne
B. 30 kg/tonne
C. 40 kg/tonne
The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained by multiplying grade
percentage by a factor approximately equal to_________________?
211
A. 2 kg/tonne
B. 6 kg/tonne
C. 9 kg/tonne
D. 20 kg/tonne
Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a rubber tyred vehicle?
A. Concrete
B. Loose sand
C. Asphalt
D. Firm earth
Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler track
tractors?
A. Ice
B. Concrete
C. Loose sand
D. Earth
An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 8 years. It has no salvage value at the
end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator at the end of 3 years using general double declining
balance method is__________________?
A. Rs. 8,43,750/-
B. Rs. 8,75,000/-
C. Rs. 10,50,000/-
D. Rs. 11,56,250/-
Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be increased by decreasing the
angle of swing Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be
decreased_______________?

For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in_______________?
A. Moist loam
B. Sand and gravel
C. Good common earth
D. Wet sticky clay
Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
212
A. Drag line
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dipper shovel
Crash project duration is obtained by summing the________________?
A. normal durations for all the activities

B. crash durations for all activities
C. crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account the normal
duration for all the activities
D. crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account the
crash duration for all the activities
The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be_______________?
A. resources
B. project duration time
C. both resources and project duration time
Slack time refers to_______________?

B. an event
Economic saving of time results by crashing_________________?
A. cheapest critical activity

B. cheapest non-critical activity
C. costliest critical activity
D. costliest non-critical activity
The direct cost of a project with respect to normal time is________________?
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. infinite
The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known
as_________________?
A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. standard time
What estimate would you give for the variance in above problem ?
213
A. 81
B. 54
C. 36
D. 9
The independent float affects only_______________?
A. preceding activities
B. succeeding activities
C. the particular activity involved
Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between__________________?
A. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C. its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
D. its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity
Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between________________?
A. its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C. its latest start time and earliest finish time
D. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
Free float is mainly used to_________________?
A. identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of preceding activity
B. identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float of succeeding activity
C. establish priorities
D. identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of either the preceding or
succeeding activities
If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3 and 7 respectively, then its
expected time and variance are respectively___________________?
A. 3.5 and 5/6

B. 5 and 25/36
C. 3.5 and 25/36
D. 4 and 5/6
In the network shown in Fig. (15 fig) the latest start time of an activity 4-5 is_________________?
A. 2
B. 4
Earliest finish of an activity is always_______________?

214
A. greater than earliest event time of the following node

B. less than earliest event time of the following node
C. less than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
D. greater than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence
follow_______________?
A. normal distribution curve

B. Poisson’s distribution curve
C. Beta – distribution curve
A. Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale

B. The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity
C. Arrow bead represents the start of an activity
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for__________________?
A. small projects
B. large and complex projects
C. research and development projects
D. deterministic activities
A. Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.
B. Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.
C. Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.
A. Start float and finish float are always equal

B. Total float can be either start float or finish float
C. Start float and finish float need not be equal
D. Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event times
A. A critical path always begins at the very first event

B. A critical path always terminates at the last event
C. Critical activities control the project duration
D. Critical activity is the one for which free float is zero
215
Strength of Materials
The unit of power in S.I. units is______________?
A. newton meter
B. watt
C. joule
D. kilogram meter/sec
E. pascal per sec
Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in________________?
A. one point
B. one plane
C. different planes
D. perpendicular planes
E. different points
Effect of a force on a body depends upon________________?
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. position or line of action
D. all of the above
A force is completely defined when we specify________________?
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. point of application
D. all of the above
The unit of force in S.I. units is_________________?
A. kilogram
B. newton
C. watt
D. dyne
E. joule
Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in_______________?
A. one point
B. two points
C. plane
D. perpendicular planes
E. different planes
216
A force acting on a body may_______________?
A. introduce internal stresses

B. balance the other forces acting on it
C. retard its motion
D. change its motion
E. all of the above
If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible_________________?
A. not a replace them by a single force

B. to replace them by a single force
C. to replace them by a single force through C.G.
D. to replace them by a couple
E. to replace them by a couple and a force
If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be________________?
A. P/2 cos 9/2

B. IP sin 9/2
C. 2P tan 9/2
D. IP cos 9/2
E. Psin 9/2
Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?
A. Momentum and impulse

B. Torque and energy
C. Torque and work
D. Kinetic energy and potential energy
E. Moment of a force and angular momentum
Which of the following is not the unit of power ?
A. kW (kilowatt)
B. hp (horse power)
C. kcal/sec
D. kg m/sec
E. kcal/kg sec
The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the
resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle
of__________________?
A. forces
B. independence of forces
C. dependence of forces
217
D. balance of force
E. resolution of forces
Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?
A. if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides

of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
B. if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of
a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
C. if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
D. if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the
sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal
to__________________?
A. the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
B. the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
C. the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
D. the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
E. the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9
Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?
A. angstrom
B. light year
C. micron
D. millimeter
E. milestone
Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
A. kcal
B. kg m
C. kWhr
D. hp
E. hp hr
The weight of a body is due to____________________?
A. centripetal force of earth

B. gravitational pull exerted by the earth
C. forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
D. force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
E. gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth
When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied___________________?

218
A. coplanar force
B. non-coplanar forces
C. lever
D. moment
E. couple
According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body

is_______________?
A. maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body

B. different at different points in its line of action
C. the same at every point in its line of action
D. minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if_________________?
A. their total sum is zero

B. two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
C. sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
Which of the following is not a vector quantity_______________?
A. weight
B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. force
E. moment
D’ Alembert’s principle is used for___________________?
A. reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem

B. determining stresses in the truss
C. stability of floating bodies
D. designing safe structures
E. solving kinematic problems
According to Lami’s theorem________________?
A. three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium

B. three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
C. if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
219
D. if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the
angle between the other two
A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to________________?
A. 2n-3
B. n-l
C. ‘2n-l
D. n – 2
E. 3n-2
where n = number of joints in a frame
In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than___________________?
A. two members with unknown forces of the frame

B. three members with unknown forces of the frame
C. four members with unknown forces of the frame
D. three members with known forces of the frame
E. four members with two known forces
Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height_______________?
A. one-fourth of the total height above base

B. one-third of the total height above base
C. one-half of the total height above base
D. three-eighth of the total height above the base
Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of________________?
A. one-fourth of the total height above base

B. one-third of the total height above base
C. one-half of the total height above base
D. three-eighth of the total height above the base
The units of moment of inertia of mass are_____________________?
A. kg m2
B. m4
220
C. kg/m2
D. kg/m
E. m2/kg
A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve___________________?
A. catenary
B. parabola
C. hyperbola
D. elliptical
E. circular arc
From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find
the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate___________________?
A. 0.5 cm
The center of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will
be__________________?
A. L/2
B. L/3
C. 3L/4
D. 2L/3
E. 3L/8
The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will
be______________?
A. r/2
B. 2r/3
C. r/A
D. 3r/2
E. 3r/A
If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be___________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. infinity
E. same as the force applied
Angle oT friction is the___________________?

221
A. angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. ratio of static and dynamic friction
Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle)
applied in the direction__________________?
A. along the plane

B. horizontally
C. vertically
D. at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
E. unpredictable
Which one of the following statements is not correct_________________?
A. the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction

B. the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
C. the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
D. the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction
will be__________________?
A. downwards at its upper end

B. upwards at its upper end
C. perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
D. zero at its upper end
Coefficient of friction is the__________________?
A. angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
C. the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. tangent of angle of repose
A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point
of motion up the plane when P is equal to___________________?
A. W
B. W sin (a + $)
C. Wtan(a + <|))
D. Wan(a-)
E. Wtana
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If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his
umbrella_________________?
A. more inclined when moving

B. less inclined when moving
C. more inclined when standing
D. less inclined when standing
Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
E. has no correlation
Kinetic friction is the________________?
A. tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the resultant of normal reac-tion and the limiting
friction
C. the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. dynamic friction
A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and circular
portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and horizontal surface is
i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal.
When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will____________________?
A. remain horizontal
B. slant up towards direction of pull
C. slant down towards direction of pull
D. unpredictable
The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane
is________________?
A. equal to the moment of the couple

B. constant
C. both of above are correct
D. both of above are wrong
If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must
either__________________?
223
A. meet in a point
B. be all parallel
C. at least two of them must meet
D. all the above are correct
The co-efficient of friction depends upon________________?
A. nature of surfaces
B., area of contact
C. shape of the surfaces
D. ail of the above.
E. A. and B. above
If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be
in________________?
A. non-equilibrium
B. partial equilibrium
C. full equilibrium
D. unpredictable
Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a
fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than
one________________?
A. ellipse
B. hyperbola
C. parabola
D. circle
The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a______________?
A. right angled triangle

B. equilateral triangle
C. square
D. circle
E. rectangle
The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its
M.I. about horizontal axis is_________________?
A. same
B. double
A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of__________________?

224
A. zeioth order
B. first order
C. second order
D. third order
E. fourth order
The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to
move down is known as angle of__________________?
A. friction
B. limiting friction
C. repose
D. kinematic friction
E. static friction
In ideal machines________________?
A. mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio

B. mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
C. mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D. mechanical advantage is unity
In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows_________________?
A. W between P and F
B. F between W and P
C. P between W and F
D. W, P and F all on one side
In actual machines______________?
A. mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio

B. mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
C. mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D. mechanical advantage is unity
Which of the following is the example of lever of first order________________?
A. arm of man
B. pair of scissors
C. pair of clinical tongs
D. all of the above
225
The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the
base_____________?
A. h/2
B. J/3
C. h/6
D. h/4
E. 3/i/5
The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r_______________?
A. at distance — from the plane base 3r

B. at distance — from the plane base 3r
C. at distance — from the plane base 3r
D. at distance — from the plane base or
E. at distance — from the plane base
A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is
most nearly________________?
A. 38 m
B. 62.5 m
C. 96 m
D. 124 m
E. 240 m
A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which
is correct statement about density of metal________________?
A. density of metal can’t be determined
Which of the following is not the unit of energy________________?
A. kg m
B. kcal
C. wattr
D. watt hours
E. kg m x (m/sec)2
A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly
equal to______________?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 250
E. 500
226
If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =_______________?
A. j-2
B.2j-l
C. 2/-3
D.3/-2
E. 2/ -4
The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be_______________?
A. coplanar
B. meet at one point ;
C. both A. and B. above
D. all be equal
E. something else
The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another
surface is called_____________________?
A. limiting friction
B. sliding friction
C. rolling friction
D. kinematic friction
E. dynamic friction
A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body________________?
A. balance each other

B. cannot balance each other
C. produce moment of a couple
D. are equivalent
A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto height
of__________________?
A. r/2
B. r/A
C. r/%
D. 0.134 r
E. 3r/8
The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j) is equal
to_________________?
A. Wtan(a + )
B. Wtan(a-)
C. Wcos(a + )
227
D. Wsin(a + )
E. W (sin a + cos )
Tangent of angle of friction is equal to_________________?
A. kinetic friction
C. angle of repose
D. coefficient of friction
E. friction force
Coulomb friction is the friction between_________________?
A. bodies having relative motion
A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9
is_________________?
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
E. 90°
A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given by x = t2 (t –
4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation_________________?
A. 3t2-lt
B. 3t2+2t
C. 6f-8
D. 6f-4
E. 6t2-8t
Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is________________?
A. proportional to normal load between the surfaces

B. dependent on the materials of contact surface
C. proportional to velocity of sliding
D. independent of the area of contact surfaces
E. none of the above is wrong statement
Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called________________?
A. post friction
C. kinematic friction
D. frictional resistance
E. dynamic friction
228
On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will
be__________________?
A. towards the wall at its upper end

B. away from the wall at its upper end
C. upwards at its upper end
D. downwards at its upper end
The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as_______________?
A. coefficient of friction
B. angle of friction
C. angle of repose
D. sliding friction
E. friction resistance
The coefficient of friction depends on_________________?
A. area of contact
B. shape of surfaces
C. strength of surfaces
D. nature of surface
E. all of the above
The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, –
ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be_________________?
A. 20 kg, – ve sense
B. 20 kg, + ve sense
C. 10 kg, + ve sense
D. 10 kg, – ve sense
E. 45 kg, + ve sense
In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected_______________?
A. reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact

B. reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
C. reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is con-strained to turn
D. all of the above
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following _______________?
A. The C.G. of a circle is at its center

B. The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
C. The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals
D. The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
229
A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the
span________________?
A. 2.5 cm
B. 3.0 cm
C. 4.0 cm
D. 5.0 cm
E. 2.0 cm
The possible loading in various members of framed structures are_______________?
A. compression or tension
B. buckling or shear
C. shear or tension
D. all of the above
E. bending
The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of__________________?
A. concurrence of the medians

B. intersection of its altitudes
C. intersection of bisector of angles
The units of moment of inertia of an area are_______________?
A. kg m2
B. m4
C. kg/m2
D. m3
E. kg/m4
Center of percussion is______________?
A. the point of C.G.

B. the point of metacentre
C. the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a
certain axis
D. point of suspension
E. the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally and oscillate under the influence of gravity
The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at_______________?
A. the center of heavy portion

B. the bottom surface
C. the mid point of its axis
230
D. all of the above

The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called________________?
A. resultant couple
B. moment of the forces
C. resulting couple
D. moment of the couple
Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite moments_________________?

B. produce a couple and an unbalanced force
C. are equivalent
D. produce a moment of couple
E. can not balance each other
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium,
if______________?
A. the floor is smooth, the wall is rough

B. the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
C. the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
D. the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
E. will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions
If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then_______________?
A.these forces are equal

B. the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
C. the lines of action of these forces are parallel
D. B. and C. above
According to principle of moments_________________?
A. if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero

B. if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments about
any point in their plane is zero
C. the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
theiwesultant about the same point
D. positive and negative couples can be balanced
According to law of triangle of forces______________?

231
A. three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium

B. three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
C. if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction________________?

B. constitute a moment
C. constitute a couple
D. constitute a moment of couple
E. constitute a resultant couple
The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of VlOkg and
when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are____________________?
A. 2 and V6
B. 3 and 1 kg
C. V5andV5
D. 2 and 5
Which of the following is not a scalar quantity__________________?
A. time
B. mass
C. volume
D. density
E. acceleration
The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are
called______________?
A. coplanar non-concurrent forces

B. non-coplanar concurrent forces
C. non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
D. intersecting forces
Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?
A. kg/cm
B. ata
C. atmosphere
D. mm of wcl
E. newton
The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is________________?

E. joule
232
Theory of Structures
Maximum principal stress theory for the failure of a material at elastic point, is
known________________?
A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory
C. Rankine’s theory
D. Von Mises’ theory
Pick up the correct statement from the following ?
A. The moment of inertia is calculated about the axis about which bending takes place
B. If tensile stress is less than axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress
C. If tensile stress is equal to axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress
D. All the above
A. The bending stress in a section is zero at its neutral axis and maximum at the outer fibres
B. The shear stress is zero at the outer fibres and maximum at the neutral axis
C. The bending stress at the outer fibres, is known as principal stress
D. All the above
A composite beam is composed of two equal strips one of brass and other of steel. If the temperature
is raised___________________?
A. Steel experiences tensile force

B. Brass experiences compressive force
C. Composite beam gets subjected to a couple
D. All the above
A two hinged parabolic arch of span l and rise h carries a load varying from zero at the left end
to________________?
A. /4h thrust is
B. /8h
C. /12h
D. /16h
Maximum strain theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known as_______________?

D. Haig’s theory
A close coil helical spring when subjected to a moment M having its axis along the axis of the
helix_________________?
233
A. It is subjected to pure bending

B. Its mean diameter will decrease
C. Its number of coils will increase
D. All the above
Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is
known________________?

D. Haig’s theory
A cantilever of length is subjected to a bending moment at its free end. If EI is the flexural rigidity of
the section, the deflection of the free end, is_________________?
A. ML/EI
B. ML/2EI
C. ML²/2EI
D. ML²/3EI
constant, depth of a cantilever of length of uniform strength loaded with Keeping breadth uniformly
distributed load varies from zero at the free end and________________?
A. 2w w l at the fixed end

B. l) at the fixed end
The force in BC of the truss shown in the given figure, is___________________?
A. 3.0 t compression
B. 3.0 t tension
C. t tension
D. t compression
The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is______________?
A. Zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
A simply supported beam A carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam B carries the
same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of the maximum deflections of the
beams A and B, will be________________?
A. 2/3
B. 3/2
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C. 5/8
D. 8/5
In case of a simply supported I-section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length of
elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is_________________?
A. L/2
B. L/3
C. L/4
D. L/5
If Ix and Iy are the moments of inertia of a section about X and Y axes, the polar moment of inertia of
the section, is_________________?
A. (IX + IY)/2
B. (IX – IY)/2
C. IX + IY
D. (I /I )
If E, N, K and 1/m are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and Poisson ratio of the
material, the following relationship holds good_______________?
A. E = 3K (1 – 2/m)
B. E = 2N (1 + 1/m)
C. (3/2)K (1 – 2/m) = N (1 + 1/m)
D. All the above
Gradually applied static loads do not change with time their_______________?
A. Magnitude
B. Direction
C. Point of application
D. All the above
A body is said to be in equilibrium if___________________?
A. It moves horizontally
B. It moves vertically
C. It rotates about its C.G.
D. None of these
The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure
introduce_____________?
A. Compressive stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Shear stress
D. None of these
235
The load on a spring per unit deflection, is called______________?
A. Stiffness
A close coil helical spring of mean diameter D consists of n coils of diameter d. If it carries an axial load
W, the energy stored in the spring, is______________?
A. 4WD²n/d4N
B. 4W²Dn/d4N
C. 4W²D3n/d4N
D. 4W²D3n²/d4N
The moment of inertia of a triangular section (height h, base b) about its base, is_______________?
A. bh²/12
B. b²h/12
C. bh3/12
D. b3h/12
The assumption in the theory of bending of beams is_________________?
A. Material is homogeneous
B. Material is isotropic
C. Young’s modulus is same in tension as well as in compression
D. All the above
A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B is fixed. The
ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A, is______________?
A. /6
B. /2
A load of 1960 N is raised at the end of a steel wire. The minimum diameter of the wire so that stress
in the wire does not exceed 100 N/mm2 is________________?
A. 4.0 mm
B. 4.5 mm
C. 5.0 mm
D. 5.5 mm
The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over entire span of a
cantilever of length l and of flexural rigidly EI, is_________________?
A. wl3/3EI
B. wl4/3EI
C. wl4/8EI
D. wl4/12EI
236
The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure
introduce_______________?
B. Tensile stress
C. Shear stress
D. None of these
A spring of mean radius 40 mm contains 8 action coils of steel (N = 80000 N/mm2), 4 mm in diameter.
The clearance between the coils being 1 mm when unloaded, the minimum compressive load to
remove the clearance, is_____________?
A. 25 N
B. 30 N
C. 35 N
D. 40 N
The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being permanently
distorted, is called______________?
A. Stiffness
B. Proof resilience
C. Proof stress
D. Proof load
The strain energy due to volumetric strain________________?
A. Is directly proportional to the volume

B. Is directly proportional to the square of exerted pressure
C. Is inversely proportional to Bulk modulus
D. All the above
A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an isolated load W
at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same tensile load. The ratio of the
maximum deflection to the elongation, is________________?
A. L/d
B. L/2d
C. (L/2d)²
D. (L/3d)²
In the truss shown in given figure the force in member DC is________________?
A. 100 t compressive
B. 100 t tensile
C. Zero
D. Indeterminate
237
The ratio of lateral strain to axial strain of a homogeneous material, is known___________________?
A. Yield ratio
B. Hooke’s ratio
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Plastic ratio
The force in BF of the truss shown in given figure, is_______________?
A. 4t tension
B. 4t compression
C. 4.5t tension
D. 4.5t compression
The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam, is________________?
D. 4/3
For a strongest rectangular beam cut from a circular log, the ratio of the width and depth,
is________________?
A. 0.303
B. 0.404
C. 0.505
D. 0.707
m1 and m2 are the members of two individual simple trusses of a compound truss. The compound
truss will be rigid and determinate if__________________?
A. m = m1 + m2
B. m = m1 + m2 + 1
C. m = m1 + m2 + 2
D. m = m + m + 3
The greatest load which a spring can carry without getting permanently distorted, is
called_________________?
A. Stiffness
B. Proof resilience
C. Proof stress
D. Proof load
A bar L metre long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to a gradually applied tensile
load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is_________________?
A. WL/2AE
B. WL/AE
238
C. W²L/AE
D. W²L/2AE
An isolated load W is acting at a distance a from the left hand support, of a three hinged arch of span
2l and rise h hinged at the crown, the horizontal reaction at the support, is_________________?
A. Wa/h
B. Wa/2h
The force in CD of the truss shown in given figure, is________________?
A. 3t compression
B. 3t tension
C. Zero
D. 1.5t compression
The ratio of the area of cross-section of a circular section to the area of its core, is_______________?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
In the truss shown in the given figure, the force in member BC is______________?
B. 100 t tensile
C. Zero
D. Indeterminate
In plastic analysis, the shape factor for rectangular section, is________________?
A. 1.4
B. 1.5
C. 1.6
D. 1.7
A masonry dam (density = 20,000 N/m3) 6 m high, one metre wide at the top and 4 m wide at the
base, has vertical water face. The minimum stress at the base of the dam when the reservoir is full,
will be_______________________?
A. 75 N/m2
B. 750 N/m 2
C. 7500 N/m 2
D. 75000 N/m2
A shaft rotating N.R.M. under a torque T, transmits a power_______________?

239
A. /30 Newton metres/sec

B. /30 Newton metres/min
C. /60 Newton metres/min
D. /60 Newton metres/sec
The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and having flexural
rigidity EI, is_____________?
A. WL²/2EI
B. WL²/3EI
C. WL3/2EI
D. WL3/3EI
The ratio of the length and depth of a simply supported rectangular beam which experiences
maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress, due to same load at its mid span,
is_______________?
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/3
The force in EC of the truss shown in the given figure, is__________________?
A. Zero
B. 5t tension
C. 5t compression
D. 4t tension
If and are external and internal diameters of a circular shaft respectively, its polar moment of inertia,
is________________?
A. D4 – d4)
B. D4 – d4)
C. D4 – d4)
D. D4 – d4)
length of a column of length L, having one end fixed and other end hinged, is The
equivalent_____________?
A. 2 L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
240
A lift of weight W is lifted by a rope with an acceleration f. If the area of cross-section of the rope is A,
the stress in the rope is_______________?
A. [W (1 + f/ G)]/ A
B. (1 – g/f)/A
C. [W (2 + f/G)]/A
D. [W (2 + g/f)]/A
parabolic arch of span and rise , is given by The equation of a________________?
A. y = h/l² × (1 – x )
B. y = 2h/l² × (1 – x)
C. y = 3h/l² × (1 – x)
D. y = 4h/l² × (1 – x)
A rectangular column shown in the given figure carries a load P having eccentricities ex and ey along X
and Y axes. The stress at any point (x, y) is_______________?
A. (p/bd) [1 + (12ey. y/d²) + (12ex. x/d²)]

B. p [1 + (6ey. y/b) + (6ex. x/ b)]
C. (p/bd) [1 + (6ey. y/d) + (6ex. x/b)]
D. (p/bd) [1 + (ey. y/d) + ( ex. x/d)]
A simply supported beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the
length of the beam is a, the shear force will be zero at a distance x from least loaded point where x
is_________________?
A. a/2
B. a/3
C. a
D. a
The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from_______________?
A. 1.10 to 1.20
B. 1.20 to 1.30
C. 1.30 to 1.40
D. 1.40 to 1.50
Principal planes are subjected to_________________?
A. Normal stresses only

B. Tangential stresses only
C. Normal stresses as well as tangential stresses
D. None of these
241
A rolled steel joist is simply supported at its ends and carries a uniformly distributed load which
causes a maximum deflection of 10 mm and slope at the ends of 0.002 radian. The length of the joist
will be________________?
A. 10 m
B. 12 m
C. 14 m
D. 16 m
If the strain energy stored per unit volume in a hollow shaft subjected to a pure torque when t attains
maximum shear stress fs the ratio of inner diameter to outer diameter, is 17/64 (f
/N)s__________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/5
The eccentricity (e) of a hollow circular column, external diameter 25 cm, internal diameter 15 cm for
an eccentric load 100 t for non-development of tension, is__________________?
A. 2.75 cm
B. 3.00 cm
C. 3.50 cm
D. 4.25 cm
In the truss shown in given figure, the force in member BD is______________?
B. 100 t tensile
C. Zero
D. Indeterminate
The moment of inertia of a circular section about any diameter D, is______________?
A. /64
B. 4/32
C. 3/64
D. 4/64
A. For channels, the shear centre does not coincide its centroid
B. The point of intersection of the bending axis with the cross section of the beam, is called shear centre
C. For I sections, the shear centre coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam
D. All the above
242
Y are the bending moment, moment of inertia, radius of curvature, modulus of If M, I, R, E, F, and
elasticity stress and the depth of the neutral axis at section, then________________?
A. M/I = R/E = F/Y

B. I/M = R/E = F/Y
C. M/I = E/R = E/Y
D. M/I = E/R = Y/F
The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axes to the principal axis, is______________?
A. Straight line
B. Parabola
C. Circle
D. Ellipse
A steel plate d × b is sandwiched rigidly between two timber joists each D × B/2 in section. The steel
will be (where Young’s modulus of steel is m times that of the timber)_________________?
A. BD² + mbd²)/6D]
B. BD3 + mbd3)/6D]
C. BD² + mbd3)/4D]
D. BD² + mbd²)/4D]
The general expression for the B.M. of a beam of length l is the beam carries M = (wl/2) x –
(wx²/2)_______________?
A. A uniformly distributed load w/unit length

B. A load varying linearly from zero at one end to w at the other end
C. An isolated load at mid span
D. None of these
In the truss, the force in the member AC is_______________?
A. 6.25 t compressive
B. 8.75 t tensile
C. t tensile
D. t compressive
The point of contraflexure is the point where_______________?
A. B.M. changes sign

B. B.M. is maximum
C. B.M. is minimum
D. S.F. is zero
d constant, the width of a cantilever of length l of uniform strength loaded with Keeping the depth a
uniformly distributed load w varies from zero at the free end and________________?
243
A. (2w/ × l² at the fixed end

B. (3w/ × l² at the fixed end
C. (3w/ × l² at the fixed end
y/n) (1 – a l/r), is For calculating the allowable stress of long columns. The empirical formula 0 known
as_________________?
A. Straight line formula

B. Parabolic formula
C. Perry’s formula
D. Rankine’s formula
For determining the support reactions at A and B of a three hinged arch, points B and Care joined and
produced to intersect the load line at D and a line parallel to the load line through A at D’. Distances
AD, DD’ and AD’ when measured were 4 cm, 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. The angle between the
reactions at A and B is___________________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
The ratio of the maximum deflections of a simply supported beam with a central load W and of a
cantilever of same length and with a load W at its free end, is________________?
A. 1/8
B. 1/10
C. 1/12
D. 1/16
A square column carries a load P at the centroid of one of the quarters of the square. If a is the side of
the main square, the combined bending stress will be________________?
A. p/a²
B. 2p/a²
C. 3p/a²
D. 4p/a²
A material may fail if______________?
A. 0
B. Maximum strain exceeds /E
0 0/2
C. Maximum shear stress exceeds
D. All the above
A shaft is subjected to bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of the maximum
bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft, is____________________?
244
A. M/T
B. T/M
C. 2M/ T
D. 2T/M
A cantilever of length 2 cm and depth 10 cm tapers in plan from a width 24 cm to zero at its free end.
If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the deflection of the free end,
is________________?
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 5 mm
0. At its elastic limit, the following statement is true, 0/E__________________?
A. Strain is equal to
B. Maximum shear stress = /2
C. Strain energy = 0
0²/2E × volume
D. All the above
In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section, is_________________?
A. 1.5
B. 1.34
C. 2.34
D. 2.5
A steel bar 5 m × 50 mm is loaded with 250,000 N. If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2
MN/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25, the change in the volume of the bar is_________________?
A. 1.125 cm3
B. 2.125 cm3
C. 3.125 cm3
A steel rod 1 metre long having square cross section is pulled under a tensile load of 8 tonnes. The
extension in the rod was 1 mm only. If Esteel = 2 × 106 kg/cm2, the side of the rod,
is_________________?
A. 1 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 2.5 cm
Total strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is known_________________?
245

D. Haig’s theory
The horizontal deflection of a parabolic curved beam of span 10 m and rise 3 m when loaded with a
uniformly distributed load l t per horizontal length is (where Ic is the M.I. at the crown, which varies as
the slope of the arch)___________________?
A. 50/EIc
B. 100/EIc
C. 150/EIc
D. 200/EIc
Stress may be expressed in Newtons___________________?
A. Per millimetre square (N/mm2)

B. Per centimetre square (N/cm2)
C. Per metre square (N/m2)
D. None of these
The vertical reaction for the arch is________________?
A. wa/2l
B. wl/a
C. wa/l
D. wa²/2l
Flat spiral springs_______________?
A. Consist of uniform thin strips

B. Are supported at outer end
C. Are wound by applying a torque
D. All the above
In case of a simply supported rectangular beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length
of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is__________________?
A. L/2
B. L/3
C. L/4
D. L/5
A. In a loaded beam, the moment at which the first yield occurs is called yield moment
B. In a loaded beam, the moment at which the entire section of the beam becomes fully plastic, is called
plastic moment
246
C. In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the neutral axis divides the section in two sections of equal area
D. All the above
The stiffness of the close coil helical spring is_________________?
A. d4N/8D3n
B. d4N/4D3n
C. 4D3N/d4n
D. 8D3N/d4n
The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which experiences
maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span,
is___________________?
A. 1/8
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
The ratio of shear stress and shear strain of an elastic material, is________________?
A. Modulus of Rigidity
B. Shear Modulus
C. Modulus of Elasticity
D. Both A. and B
At yield point of a test piece, the material__________________?
A. Obeys Hooke’s law

B. Behaves in an elastic manner
C. Regains its original shape on removal of the load
D. Undergoes plastic deformation
The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a centroidal axis
parallel to its base, is_________________?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
The ratio of the deflections of the free end of a cantilever due to an isolated load at 1/3rd and 2/3rd
of the span, is________________?
A. 1/7
B. 2/7
C. 3/7
D. 2/5
247
In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a circular section, is_________________?
A. 1.5
B. 1.6
C. 1.7
D. 1.75
The maximum magnitude of shear stress due to shear force F on a rectangular section of area A at the
neutral axis, is__________________?
A. F/A
B. F/2A
C. 3F/2A
D. 2F/3A
For beams of uniform strength, if depth is constant______________?
A. Width b M
B. Width b M
C. Width b 3 M
D. Width b 1/M
There are two hinged semicircular arches A, B and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m and 10 m respectively and each
carries a concentrated load W at their crowns. The horizontal thrust at their supports will be in the
ratio of_______________?
A. 1 : 1½ : 2
B. 2 : 1½ : 1
C. 1 : 1 : 2
D. None of these
The equivalent length of a column of length L, having both the ends hinged, is_______________?
A. 2L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
Stress may be defined as_________________?
C. Force per unit area
For permissible shear stress fs, the torque transmitted by a thin tube of mean diameter D and wall
thickness t, is________________?
A. ( /2) t fs
B. ( /2) t fs
248
C. D2t fs
D. ( /4) fs
A three hinged arch is generally hinged at its supports and__________________?
A. At one quarter span

B. At the crown
C. Anywhere in the rib
D. None of these
A truss containing j joints and m members, will be a simple truss if_________________?
A. m = 2j – 3
B. j = 2m – 3
C. m = 3j – 2
D. j = 3m – 2
The locus of reaction of a two hinged semi-circular arch, is_________________?
A. Straight line
B. Parabola
C. Circle
D. Hyperbola
section modulus of a square section of side B and that of a circular section of The ratio of the diameter
D, is___________________?
A. 2 /15
B. 3 /16
C. 3 /8
D. /16
The radius of gyration of a rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis parallel to the
width is__________________?
A. D/2
B. D
C. D
D. D
a uniform circular bar of diameter d and length , which extends by an The deflection of amount under
a tensile pull , when it carries the same load at its mid-span, is___________________?
A. el/2d
B. e²l/3d²
C. el²/3d²
D. e²l²/3d²
249
The equivalent length of a column of length L having one end fixed and the other end free,
is______________?
A. 2L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
The equivalent length is of a column of length having both the ends fixed, is_________________?
A. 2 L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
A steel bar 20 mm in diameter simply-supported at its ends over a total span of 40 cm carries a load at
its centre. If the maximum stress induced in the bar is limited to N/mm2, the bending strain energy
stored in the bar, is___________________?
A. 411 N mm
B. 511 N mm=
C. 611 N mm
The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of span L, carrying an isolated load at the centre
of the span; flexural rigidity being EI, is______________?
A. WL3/3EL
B. WL3/8EL
C. WL3/24EL
D. WL3/48EL
In a shaft, the shear stress is not directly proportional to_________________?
A. Radius of the shaft

B. Angle of twist
C. Length of the shaft
D. Modulus of rigidity
Beams composed of more than one material, rigidly connected together so as to behave as one piece,
are known as________________?
A. Compound beams
B. Indeterminate beams
C. Determinate beams
D. Composite beams
Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is due to_________________?
250
A. Rankine
B. Guest or Trecas
C. St. Venant
D. Von Mises
The S.F. diagram of a loaded beam shown in the given figure is that of________________?
A. A simply supported beam with isolated central load

B. A simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load
C. A cantilever with an isolated load at the free end
D. A cantilever with a uniformly distributed load
P = /4L² is the equation of Euler’s crippling load, if__________________?
A. Both the ends are fixed

B. Both the ends are hinged
C. One end is fixed and other end is free
D. One end is fixed and other end is hinged
A steel rod of sectional area 250 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts at the ends
were tightened when the rod was heated to 100°C. If steel = 0.000012/C°, Esteel = 0.2 MN/mm2, the
tensile force developed at a temperature of 50°C, is_________________?
A. 80 N/mm2
B. 100 N/mm 2
C. 120 N/mm2
D. 150 N/mm2
H V are the algebraic sums of the forces resolved horizontally and vertically respectively, M is the
algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point, for the equilibrium of the body acted
upon____________________?
A. H = 0
B. V = 0
C. M = 0
D. All the above
cross sections of bronze and copper bars of equal lengt b c are their Ab and Ac are the respective
stresses due to load P. If Pb and Pc are the loads shared by them, (where Eb and Ec are their
modulii)____________________?
A. b c = Eb /Ec
B. P = Pb + Pc
C. P = Ab b + Ac b
D. All the above
251
The locus of the end point of the resultant of the normal and tangential components of the stress on
an inclined plane, is________________?
A. Circle
B. Parabola
C. Ellipse
D. Straight line
Co-efficient of wind resistance of a circular surface, is________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 3/2
static equations i.e. H V M = 0, to a determinate structure, we may By applying the

determine_________________?
A. Supporting reactions only

B. Shear forces only
C. Bending moments only
D. All the above
The force in AD of the truss shown in given figure, is________________?
A. 4.0t compression
B. 3.0t compression
C. 0.5t compression
D. 0.5t tension
The area of the core of a column of cross sectional area A, is_______________?
A. (1/3) A
B. (1/6) A
C. (1/12) A
D. (1/18) A
In case of principal axes of a section________________?
A. Sum of moment of inertia is zero

B. Difference of moment inertia is zero
C. Product of moment of inertia is zero
D. None of these
A simply supported rolled steel joist 8 m long carries a uniformly distributed load over it span so that
the maximum bending stress is 75 N/mm². If the slope at the ends is 0.005 radian and the value of E =
0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the depth of the joist, is________________?
252
A. 200 mm
B. 250 mm
C. 300 mm
D. 400 mm
If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the
following_______________?
A. Q = S + F
B. Q = S – F
C. Q = F – S
D. Q = S × F
A material is said to be perfectly elastic if__________________?
A. It regains its original shape on removal of the load

B. It regains its original shape partially on removal of the load
C. It does not regain its original shape at all
D. None of these
If a concrete column 200 × 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of 1200 mm2
total cross-sectional area. Calculate the safe load for the column if permissible stress in concrete is 5
N/mm2 and Es is 15 Ec________________?
A. 264 MN
B. 274 MN
C. 284 MN
The ratio of maximum and average shear stresses on a rectangular section, is________________?
A. 1
B. 1.25
C. 1.5
D. 2.5
A. A wire wound in spiral form, is called a helical spring

B. The pitch of a close coil spring, is very small
C. The angle made by the coil with horizontal, is called the angle of helix
D. All the above
At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of the
section by_________________?
A. Depth of the section

B. Depth of the neutral axis
253
C. Maximum tensile stress at the section

D. Maximum compressive stress at the section
The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam with a uniformly distributed load w/unit
length, is_________________?
A. WI/2
B. WI²/4
C. WI²/8
D. WI²/12
The maximum B.M. due to an isolated load in a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l and rise h) having
one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at a distance_______________?
A. l/4
B. h/4
C. l
D. l
For calculating the permissible stress 0 y /[(1 + a(l/r)²] is the empirical formula, known
as__________________?

C. Perry’s formula
D. Rankine’s formula
For beams breadth is constant__________________?
A. Depth d M
B. Depth d 3
C. Depth d
D. Depth d 1/M
A short column (30 cm × 20 cm) carries a load P 1 at 4 cm on one side and another load P2at 8 cm on
the other side along a principal section parallel to longer dimension. If the extreme intensity on either
side is same, the ratio of P1 to P2 will be_________________?
A. 2/3
B. 3/2
C. 8/5
D. 5/8
To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the given figure a section is passed through BD, CD
and CE, and the moments are taken about________________?
254
A. A joint
B. B joint
C. C joint
A simply supported beam which carries a uniformly distributed load has two equal overhangs. To
have maximum B.M. produced in the beam least possible, the ratio of the length of the overhang to
the total length of the beam, is_________________?
A. 0.207
B. 0.307
C. 0.407
D. 0.508
If a solid shaft (diameter 20 cm, length 400 cm, N = 0.8 × 105 N/mm2) when subjected to a twisting
moment, produces maximum shear stress of 50 N/mm 2, the angle of twist in radians,
is_________________?
A. 0.001
B. 0.002
C. 0.0025
D. 0.003
A compound truss may be formed by connecting two simple rigid frames, by_________________?
A. Two bars
B. Three bars
C. Three parallel bars
D. Three bars intersecting at a point
The ratio of crippling loads of a column having both the ends fixed to the column having both the ends
hinged, is________________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
For determining the force in the member AB of the truss shown in the given figure by method of
sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the moments are taken
about___________________?
A. Joint C
B. Joint B
C. Joint D
D. Joint A
The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is__________________?

255
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Zero
A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross -section is 3500 mm2and that of
brass bar is 3000 mm2. These are subjected to a compressive load 100,000 N. If Eb = 0.2 MN/mm2 and
Eb = 0.1 MN/mm2, the stresses developed are___________________?
A. b = 10 N/mm2 s = 20 N/mm 2
B. b = 8 N/mm2 s = 16 N/mm2
C. b = 6 N/mm2 s = 12 N/mm2
D. b = 5 N/mm2 s = 10 N/mm2
The ratio of circumferential stress to the longitudinal stress in the walls of a cylindrical shell, due to
flowing liquid, is__________________?
A. ½
B. 1
C. 1½
D. 2
The forces acting on the bar as shown in the given figure introduce________________?
B. Tensile stress
C. Shear stress
D. None of these
A simply supported beam carries varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the
length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be_______________?
A. wa/27
B. wa²/27
C. w²a
D. wa²
The yield moment of a cross section is defined as the moment that will just produce the yield stress
in_________________?
A. The outer most fibre of the section

B. The inner most fibre of the section
C. The neutral fibre of the section
D. The fibre everywhere
A road of uniform cross-section A and length L force P. The Young’s Modulus E of the material,
is_________________?
256
A. E = /A. L
B. E =/P. L
C. E = P. L/
D. E = P. A/
The forces in the members of simple trusses, may be analysed by________________?
A. Graphical method
B. Method of joints
C. Method of sections
D. All the above
P = / L² is the equation for Euler’s crippling load if_________________?

If a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load w/unit length
over the entire span__________________?
A. Horizontal thrust is wl2/8h

B. S.F. will be zero throughout
C. B.M. will be zero throughout
D. All the above
The ratio of the stresses produced by a suddenly applied load and by a gradually applied load on a
bar, is__________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. 2
Slenderness ratio of a long column, is_________________?
A. Area of cross-section divided by radius of gyration

B. Area of cross-section divided by least radius of gyration
C. Radius of gyration divided by area of cross-section
D. Length of column divided by least radius of gyration
The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two hinged semicircular arch of radius
carrying_________________?
A. A uniforml 4/3
B. end, is
257
C. All the above

D. non of these
A shaft subjected to a bending moment M and a torque T, experiences__________________?
A. Maximum bending stress = 32M d3

B. Maximum shear stress = 16 T d3
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
For calculating the allowable stress of long columns known as_________________?

P=4²EI/L² is the equation of Euler’s crippling load if________________?

Pick up the correct statement from the following_______________?
A. The structural member subjected to compression and whose dimensions are small as
B. compared to its length, is called a stmt
The vertical compression members are generally known as columns or stanchions
C. Deflection in lateral direction of a long column, is generally known as buckling
D. All the above
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly
proportional to___________________?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Angle of twist
C. Reciprocal of the length of the shaft
D. Moment of inertia of the shaft section
A. Mcg = M M2 + r2) where letters carry their usual meanings

B. Tcp = m2 + T2)where letters carry their usual meanings
C. The torque which when acting alone would produce maximum shear stress equal to the maximum
shear stress caused by the combined bending and torsion, is called equivalent torque
D. All the above

258
A. For a uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies linearly

B. For a uniformly distributed load, B.M. curve is a parabola
C. For a load varying linearly, the shear force curve is a parabola
D. All the above
inertia of a rectangular section of width and depth about an axis passing The moment of through C.G.
and parallel to its width is_______________?
A. BD²/6
B. BD3/6
C. BD3/12
D. B²D/6
A. Hoop strain of the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (1 – 1/2m)

B. Longitudinal strain in the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2 tE) (1/2 – 1/m)
C. Volumetric change in the cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (5/2 – 2/m)
D. All the above
For the close coil helical spring of the maximum deflection is__________________?
A. WD3n/d4N
B. 2WD3n/d4N
C. 4W²D3n/d4N
D. 8WD3n/d4N
Environmental Engineering
The hourly variation factor is usually taken as______________?
A. 1.5
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 2.7
The distribution mains are designed for________________?
A. maximum daily demand

B. maximum hourly demand
C. average daily demand
D. maximum hourly demand on maxi¬mum day
The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum_______________?
A. at a distance R from the well

B. close to the well
C. at a distance R/2 from the well
259

where R is the radius of influence
The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is____________?
A. air relief valve

B. reflux valve
C. pressure relief valve
D. sluice valve
As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have______________?
A. more depth
B. less depth
C. more discharge
D. less discharge
The polluted water is one which_______________?
A. contains pathogenic bacteria

B. consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use
C. is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use
D. is contaminated
The most common cause of acidity in water is_______________?
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
D. nitrogen
Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent_______________?
A. calcium carbonate
B. magnesium carbonate
The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is______________?
A. 0.1 mg/litre
B. 1.5 mg/litre
C. 5 mg/litre
D. 10 mg/litre
Turbidity is measured on_______________?
A. standard silica scale

260
Residual chlorine in water is determined by________________?
A. starch iodide method

B. orthotolidine method
C. both (A) and (B)
If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal
to________________?
A. total alkalinity
B. total hardness
C. total hardness – total alkalinity
D. non carbonate hardness
The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the
order of________________?
A. 1 mg/litre
B. 10 mg/litre
C. 100 mg/litre
D. 1000 mg/litre
The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than_______________?
A. B
B. 2B
C. 4B
D. 8B
where B is the width of the tank
Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is
about_______________?
A. 10 to 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if______________?
A. particle size is decreased

B. the surface area of tank is increased
C. the depth of tank is decreased
261
The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to
sedimentation with coagulation are generally_______________?
A. less and more

B. less and less
C. more and less
D. more and more
Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is______________?
A. 2 to 4
B. 4 to 6
C. 6 to 8
D. 8 to 10
The alum, when added as a coagulant in water_______________?
A. does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation

B. does not affect pH value of water
C. increases pH value of water
D. decreases pH value of water
In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove_______________?
A. dissolved organic substances

B. dissolved solids and dissolved gases
C. floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
D. bacteria and colloidal solids
The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is_______________?
A. 0.25 to 0.35 mm
B. 0.35 to 0.60 mm
C. 0.60 to 1.00 mm
D. 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters. Reason
R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters. Select your answer based
on the coding system given below?

The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is
about______________?
262
A. 0.2 to 0.4
B. 0.4 to 1.0
C. 2 to 4
D. 5 to 7
The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is_________________?
A. less than that of slow sand filters

B. in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
C. greater than that of rapid sand filters
D. equal to that of slow sand filters
Chlorine demand of water is equal to________________?
A. applied chlorine
B. residual chlorine
C. sum of applied and residual chlorine
D. difference of applied and residual chlorine
The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about________________?
A. 10 to 15
B. 20 to 25
C. 30 to 35
D. 40 to 50
The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is________________?
A. ultra violet rays treatment

B. lime treatment
C. by using potassium permanganate
D. chlorination
In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria____________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The
population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method
is________________?
A. 9500
B. 9800
C. 10100
D. 10920
263
Disinfection efficiency is________________?
A. reduced at higher pH value of water

B. unaffected by pH value of water
The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that_________________?
A. it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B. huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem
C. the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness
D. it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness
Activated carbon is used for_____________?
A. disinfection
B. removing hardness
C. removing odours
D. removing corrosiveness
The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is_______________?
A. dead end system

B. grid iron system
C. radial system
D. ring system
The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern
is______________?
A. grid iron system

B. dead end system
C. ring system
D. radial system
The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire
demand is considered is________________?
A. circle method
B. equivalent pipe method
C. electrical analysis method
D. Hardy cross method
The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street
corners and where the pipe lines intersect is_______________?
A. check valve
B. sluice valve
264
C. safety valve
D. scour valve
Scour valves are provided ______________?
A. at street corners to control the flow of water

B. at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there
C. at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water
D. at every summit of rising mains
A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of
immediate disposal is called________________?
A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C. main sewer
D. submain sewer
Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is______________?
A. 100 litres
B. 135 litres
C. 165 litres
D. 200 litres
Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
A. circular sewer
B. egg shaped sewer
The water carriage system of collection of waste product________________?
A. is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system

B. requires treatment before disposal
The time of concentration is defined as_______________?
A. the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer
B. the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
C. sum of (A) and (B)
D. difference of (A) and (B)
The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually_________________?
A. less than 1.0 m/sec

B. 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
C. 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec
D. 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec
265
The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as_____________?
A. equal to dry weather flow (DWF)

B. 2xDWF
C. 3 x DWF
D. 6xDWF
The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be_________________?
A. 15 cm and 100 cm
B. 15 cm and 300 cm
C. 30 cm and 450 cm
D. 60 cm and 300cm
Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is________________?
A. rectangular section
B. circular section
C. standard form of egg shaped sewer
D. modified egg shaped section
The velocity of flow does not depend on_______________?
A. grade of sewer
B. length of sewer
C. hydraulic mean depth of sewer
D. roughness of sewer
The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is_____________?
A. to decrease it
B. to increase it
C. fluctuating
D. nil
The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is_____________?
A. circular sewer
B. egg shaped sewer
C. horse-shoe type sewer
D. semi-elliptical sewer
The pathogens can be killed by_______________?
A. nitrification
B. chlorination
Sewage treatment units are normally designed for______________?

266
A. 5-10 years
B. 15-20 years
C. 30-40 years
D. 40-50 years
Standard BOD is measured at________________?
A. 20°C – 1day
B. 25°C- 3day
C. 20°C – 5day
D. 30°C- 5day
The rate of BOD exerted at any time is_____________?
A. directly proportional to BOD satisfied

B. directly proportional to BOD remain-ing
C. inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
D. inversely proportional to BOD re-maining
In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of
diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be___________?
A. 100 ppm
B. 200 ppm
C. 300 ppm
D. 400 ppm
The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen
required to satisfy BOD, is______________?
A. 1
B. 100
C. infinite
D. zero
Facultative bacteria are able to work in________________?
A. presence of oxygen only

B. absence of oxygen only
C. presence as well as in absence of oxygen
D. presence of water
Sewerage system is designed for_______________?
A. maximum flow only

B. minimum flow only
267
C. average flow only

D. maximum and minimum flow
Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of________________?
A. a theodolite
B. a compass
C. sight rails and boning rods
D. a plane table
If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in_________________?
A. grit chambers
B. detritus tanks
C. skimming tanks
D. sedimentation tanks
Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions ?
A. sludge digestion tank
The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in______________?
A. oxidation pond
B. oxidation ditch
C. aerated lagoons
D. trickling filters
In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by________________?
A. aerobic bacteria only

B. algae only
C. dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
D. sedimentation
Composting and lagooning are the methods of_______________?
A. sludge digestion
B. sludge disposal
C. sedimentation
D. filtration
For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be
maintained as___________________?
A. 4.5 to 6.0
B. 6.5 to 8.0
268
C. 8.5 to 10.0
D. 10.5 to 12.0
For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is________________?
A. 0 to 50
B. 50 to 150
C. 150 to 350
D. 350 to 500
For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the
quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be__________________?
A. X/4
B. X/2
C. X
D. 2X
The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of __________________?
A. nitrogen
B. carbon dioxide
C. hydrogen sulphide
D. methane
The process of lagooning is primarily a means of________________?
A. reducing the excessive flow in sewers

B. disposing of sludge
C. increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs
D. increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks
A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is
called______________?
A. vent pipe
B. antisiphonage pipe
C. waste pipe
D. soil pipe
Most of the bacteria in sewage are______________?
A. parasitic
B. saprophytic
The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is
called_______________?
269
A. waste pipe
B. soil pipe
C. vent pipe
D. antisiphonage pipe
When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is_______________?
A. 0
B. 1
C. infinity
Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of_______________?
A. percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight

B. percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
C. percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
D. percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that________________?
A. large area is required for construction

B. maintenance and operation cost are high
C. BOD removal is very low
The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as______________?

C. 10 to 15 days
The working conditions in imhoff tanks are_______________?
A. aerobic only
B. anaerobic only
C. aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
D. anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as_______________?
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 2-4 hours
D. 12 hours
Septic tank is a______________?
1) settling tank
2) digestion tank
270
3) aeration tank
The correct answer is?. (1) and (2)
Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by______________?
A. septic conditions
B. dissolved oxygen
C. chlorine
D. nitrogen
Sewage treatment units are designed for_______________?
A. maximum flow only

B. minimum flow only
C. average flow only
The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as_______________?
A. inlet
B. manhole
C. drop manhole
D. catch basin
Dissolved oxygen in streams is______________?
A. maximum at noon
B. minimum at noon
C. maximum at midnight
D. same throughout the day
The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic
life is______________?
A. 1 ppm
B. 4 ppm
C. 10 ppm
D. 40 ppm
The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about_______________?
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 1.0
The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
and Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by_______________?
271
A. TOD>BOD>COD
B. TOD>COD>BOD
C. BOD>COD>TOD
D. COD>BOD>TOD
Settling velocity increases with_______________?
A. specific gravity of solid particles

B. size of particles
C. depth of tank
D. temperature of liquid
Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?
A. higher temperature
B. sunlight
C. satisfying oxygen demand
The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are____________________?
A. acidic and alkaline

B. alkaline and acidic
C. both acidic
D. both alkaline
The most commonly used sewer under culverts is_______________?
A. circular brick sewer

B. circular cast iron sewer
C. semi-elliptical sewer
D. horse-shoe type sewer
An egg shaped section of sewer________________?
A. is economical than circular section

B. provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges
The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is________________?
A. less strength
B. difficulty in construction
C. difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
D. less life
The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as________________?
272
A. equal to rainfall
B. rainfall + DWF
C. rainfall + 2 DWF
D. rainfall + 6 DWF
The slope of sewer shall be__________________?
A. given in the direction of natural slope of ground

B. given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
C. zero
D. steeper than 1 in 20
The specific gravity of sewage is_______________?
A. much greater than 1

B. slightly less than 1
C. equal to 1
D. slightly greater than 1
If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of
Health formula will be__________________?
A. 4 mm/hr
B. lOmm/hr
C. 20 mm/hr
D. 40 mm/hr
The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less
intensity is_________________?
A. separate system
B. combined system
C. partially separate system
D. partially combined system
Sewerage system is usually designed for_________________?
A. 10 years
B. 25 years
C. 50 years
D. 75 years
The hydraulic mean depth (HMD. for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is_______________?
A. equal to HMD when flowing full

B. less than HMD when flowing full
C. greater than HMD when flowing full
273
If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD. of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg,
then population equivalent of town is_________________?
A. 1000
B. 4000
C. 100000
D. 400000
For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system
will be________________?
. separate system
A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called________________?
A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C. intercepting sewer
D. submain sewer
The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse
direction is____________________?
A. reflux valve
B. sluice valve
C. air relief valve
D. pressure relief valve
Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system________________?
1) involves successive trials

2) takes economic aspects into account
3) is time consuming
The correct answer is? (1) and (3)
Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and
narrow pipe system ?
A. circle method
B. equivalent pipe method
C. Hardy cross method
D. electrical analysis method
The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery
is_________________?
A. ring system
B. dead end system
274
C. radial system
D. grid iron system
As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are______________?
A. heavier
B. stronger
C. costlier
D. less susceptible to corrosion
Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
A. sodium sulphate
B. copper sulphate
C. sodium chloride
D. calcium chloride
In lime-soda process________________?
A. only carbonate hardness is removed

B. only non-carbonate hardness is re-moved
C. lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate hardness
D. lime reduces the non-carbonate hard-ness and soda-ash removes the carbo¬nate hardness
As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH
values is_________? . smaller
Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
A. carbon dioxide
B. bleaching powder
C. sulphur dioxide
The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as________________?
A. prechlorination
B. super chlorination
C. dechlorination
D. hypochlorination
The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known
as_________________?
A. prechlorination
B. post chlorination
C. super chlorination
D. break point chlorination
275
The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by_______________?
1) decreasing the time of contact

2) decreasing the temperature of water
3) increasing the temperature of water
. only (3)
Double filtration is used_______________?
A. to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of

B. to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
C. for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
D. all of the above
Disinfection of water results in______________?
A. removal of turbidity
B. removal of hardness
C. killing of disease bacteria
D. complete sterilisation
Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about________________?
A. 24 – 48 hours
B. 10-12 days
C. 2-3 months
D. 1-2 year
Cleaning is done by________________?
1) scraping and removal in filters slow sand

2) back washing in slow sand filters
3) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
4) back washing in rapid sand filters
The correct answer is_ __(1) and (4)
Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to_________________?
A. excessive negative head

B. mud ball formation
C. higher turbidity in the effluent
D. low temperature
As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give______________?
1) slower filtration rate

2) higher filtration rate
3) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
276
4) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria

The correct answer is?C. (1) and (4)
The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is
about_____________?
A. 50 to 60
The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage

is_______________?
A. sulphuric acid
B. copper sulphate
C. lime
D. sodium permanganate
The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as_______________?
A. 1 to 2 minutes
B. 30 to 45 minutes
C. 2 to 6 hours
D. 2 to 6 days
The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with_______________?
1) increase in turbidity of water

2) decrease in turbidity of water
3) increase in temperature of water
4) decrease in temperature of water
The correct answer is? (1)and (4)
For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased
by______________?
A. increasing the depth of tank

B. decreasing the depth of tank
C. increasing the surface area of tank
D. decreasing the surface area of tank
The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on__________________?
A. depth of tank
B. surface area of tank
C. both depth and surface area of tank
The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about__________________?

277
A. 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2

B. 1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2
C. 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2
D. 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2
The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if_________________?
A. particle size is decreased

B. the surface area of tank is increased
C. the depth of tank is decreased
The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about__________________?
A. 5 to 10 cm/sec.
B. 15 to 30 cm/sec.
C. 15 to 30 cm/minute
D. 15 to 30 cm/hour
The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is
about______________?
A. 0.01 to 0.05 ppm

B. 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
C. 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
D. 1.0 to 5.0 ppm
Orthotolidine test is used for determination of________________?
A. dissolved oxygen
B. residual chlorine
On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to_______________?
A. 10 ppm
B. 20 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 50 ppm
Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?
A. 2
B. 5
Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic aciD. solution is used to determine
the_______________?
A. hardness in water
B. turbidity in water
278
C. dissolved oxygen in water

D. residual chlorine in water
Ground water is usually free from________________?
A. suspended impurities
B. dissolved impurities
C. both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties
The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about_________________?
A. 5 litres/sec
B. 50 litres/sec
C. 500 litres/sec
D. 1000 litres/see
The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than_______________?
A. 0.1 ppm
B. 0.01 ppm
C. 0.001 ppm
D. 0.0001 ppm
Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?
A. dysentery
B. cholera
C. typhoid
D. maleria
Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention
(R)________________?
A. N = y + R
B. y = N + R
C. R = N + y
D. R > (N + y)
The suitable method of forecasting popu¬lation for a young and rapidly increasing city
is_________________?
A. arithmetical increase method

B. geometrical increase method
C. incremental increase method
D. graphical method
279
As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical increase method

gives________________?
A. lesser value
If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily con¬sumption on peak
hourly demand will be_______________?
A. 100000m3
B. 150000m3
C. 180000m3
D. 270000 m3
Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?
A. use of metering system

B. good quality of water
C. better standard of living of the people
D. hotter climate
Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure. Reason R
: Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water. Select your answer according to
the coding system given below?

The per capital consumption of a locality is affected by_________________?
1) climatic conditions
2) quality of water
3) distribution pressure
. all (1), (2) and (3)
The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called______________?
A. aquifers
B. aquiclude
C. filters
D. intakes
If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted
is_____________?
1) presumptive coliform test

2) confirmed coliform test
3) completed coliform test
280

D. all (1), (2) and (3)
A. 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD

B. 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same
C. 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same
Waste Water Engineering

The asbestos cement sewers are_________________?
A. Light in weight
B. Not structurally strong to bear large compressive stress
C. Susceptible to corrosion by sulphuric acid
D. All the above
Bottom openings 15 cm × 15 cm in the standing baffle wall are provided________________?
A. 15 cm c/c
B. 22.5 cm c/c
C. 30 cm c/c
D. 50 cm c/c
For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before putting them to use, is__________________?
A. Water test
B. Smoke test
C. Straightness test
D. All the above
For a continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks__________________?
A. Width of the tank is normally kept about 6 m

B. Length of the tank is normally kept 4 to 5 times the width
C. Maximum horizontal flow velocity is limited to 0.3 m/minute
D. All the above
For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that _____________?
A. Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec, is maintained at its minimum flow

B. A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec, is maintained at its maximum flow
C. Both A. and B.
The pressure exerted by_____________?

281
A. The sewage when running full from inside, is called internal pressure
B. The internal pressure if any, causes tensile stress in the pipe material
C. Pressure sewers are designed to be safe in tension
D. All the above
No treatment of the sewage is given if dilution factor is_____________?
A. Less than 150

B. Between 150 to 200
C. Between 200 to 300
D. More than 500
Acid regression stage of sludge digestion at a temperature 21°C extends over a period
of______________?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
A. The sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running full at maximum discharge
B. The sewer pipes of sizes greater than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running 2/3rd or 3/4th full at
maximum discharge
C. The minimum design velocity of sewer pipes is taken as 0.8 m/sec
D. All the above
Which of the following pumps in used to pump sewage solids with liquid sewage without clogging the
pump is ?
A. Centrifugal pump
The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the sewage, is__________________?
A. Alum
B. Ferric chloride
C. Ferric sulphate
D. Chlorinated copperas
If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in the upper layers of the sewer forms an explosive, the sewer
certainly contains_______________?
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
282
The Chezy’s constant C in the formula V = C_________________?
A. Size of the sewer

B. Shape of the sewer
C. Roughness of sewer surface
D. All the above
For the open drain (N = 0.025) shown in the below figure, the discharge is________________?
A. 26.88 cumecs
B. 27.88 cumecs
C. 28.88 cumecs
D. 29.88 cumecs
Assertion A.: The determination of pH value of sewerage is important. Reason (R): The efficiency of
certain treatment methods depends upon the availability of pH value________________?

B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
The drainage area of a town is 12 hectares. Its 40% area is hard pavement ( K = 0.85), the 40% area is
unpaved streets (K = 0.20) and the remaining is wooded areas (K = 0.15). Assuming the time of
concentration for the areas as 30 minutes and using the formula Ps = 900/(t + 60) the maximum run
off is__________________?
A. 0.10 cumec
B. 0.12 cumec
C. 0.15 cumec
D. 0.20 cumec
The rational formula for peak drainage discharge, was evolved by_________________?
A. Fruhling
B. Lloyd David
C. Kuichling
D. All of these
Dry weather flow is__________________?
A. Average daily rate of flow

B. Average monthly rate of flow
C. Average annual rate of flow
D. Water supply allowance per capita
¾th or ¼th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum discharge for_________________?
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A. Low estimates of the average and maximum flows

B. Large scale infiltration of storm water
C. Unexpected increase in population
D. All the above
Aerobic bacterias___________________?
A. Flourish in the presence of free oxygen

B. Consume organic matter as their food
C. Oxidise organic matter in sewage
D. All the above
Traps_________________?
A. Are water seals which prevent the entry of foul gases

B. Are used to trap the rats entering sewers
C. Dissolve the foul gases
D. Create symphonic action to increase the quick disposal of sewerage
Hydraulic mean radius is_______________?
A. Mean radius of sewer

B. Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes
C. Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross -sections
D. Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter
The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as_______________?
A. A trunk sewer
B. An outfall sewer
C. A main sewer
D. An intercepting sewer
For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend_________________?
A. A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant

B. A plant consisting of Imhoff tanks with low rate trickling filters
C. Sedimentation tanks with high rate trickling filters
D. None of these
1000 kg of sewage contains________________?
A. 0.112 kg in suspension
B. 0.112 kg in solution
C. 0.225 kg in solution
D. Both A. and C. of above
R.M.O. expenses include___________________?

284
A. Running expenses
B. Maintenance expenses
C. Operation expenses
D. All the above
The sludge does not contain waste water from_________________?
A. Bath rooms
B. Wash basins
C. Kitchen sinks
D. Toilets
A. Hydrogen sulphide gas in excess, may cause corrosion of concrete sewers

B. 4 ppm of Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.) is ensured before discharging the treated sewage in river
C. Solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% of that of distilled water
D. All the above
The rainfall at any place may be determined by__________________?
A. Its intensity
B. Its direction
C. Its frequency
D. All the above
A. Rate of digestion of sludge is more at higher temperature

B. Thermophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature ranges from 40° to 60°C
C. Mesophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature is between 25° and 40°C
D. All the above
The sewer which resists sulphide corrosion, is____________________?
A. Brick sewer
B. Cast iron sewer
C. R.C.C. sewer
D. Lead sewer
The formula which accepts the value of rugosity coefficient n = 0.012 to be used in Manning’s formula,
is given by______________________?
A. Bazin
B. Crimp and Bruges
C. William-Hazen
D. Kutter
285
Skimming tanks are__________________?
A. Used to remove the grease and oil

B. Those from which sludge is skimmed out
C. Tanks provided with self- cleansing screens
D. Improved version of grit chambers
If the peak discharge of a storm water drain (S.W. Drain) is expected to exceed 150 cumecs, the free
board to be provided, is_________________?
A. 100 cm
B. 90 cm
C. 80 cm
D. 50 cm
The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually____________________?
A. 4 to 8 hours
B. 8 to 16 hours
C. 16 to 24 hours
D. 24 to 36 hours
Hume steel pipes are__________________?
A. Steel pipes
B. Steel shell coated from inside with cement mortar
C. Steel shell coated from outside with cement mortar
D. Both B. and C.
If the length of overland flow from the critical point to the mouth of drain is 13.58 km and difference
in level between the critical point and drain mouth is 10 m, the inlet time is___________________?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
In a trickling filter_________________?
A. Filtration process is used

B. Biological action is used
C. Neither A. nor B.
D. Both A. and B.
The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended as____________________?
A. 30 litres/person/year
B. 25 litres/person/year
286
C. 30 litres/person/month
D. 25 litres/person/month
15 cumecs, the depth d and width are related by For drains up to___________________?
A. d = 0.2 B
B. d = 0.5 B
Self-cleansing velocity is__________________?
A. Velocity at dry weather flow

B. Velocity of water at flushing
C. Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains
D. Velocity of water in a pressure filter
If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and the dissolved oxygen depletion
was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is_________________?
A. 100 mg/l
B. 200 mg/l
C. 300 mg/l
D. 400 mg/l
A well oxidized sewage contains nitrogen mainly as___________________?
A. Nitrates
B. Nitrites
C. Free ammonia
D. None of these
In a sludge tank, the gas mainly produced, is_________________?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
are available in size Stoneware sewers________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. All the above
In normal conditions, the period for sludge digestion, is_______________?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
287
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
In trickling filter, B.O.D. is reduced to___________________?
A. 30 to 40%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 80%
D. 80 to 90%
The grit chambers of sewage treatment plants, are generally cleaned after__________________?
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 12 days
D. 14 days
Maximum permissible velocity 1.5 m/sec, is adopted in drains_______________________?
A. With beds of rocks and gravels

B. Lined with stones
C. Both A. and B.
If the discharge of a sewer running half is 628 1.p.s., i = 0.001, and n = 0.010, the diameter of the
sewer, is__________________?
A. 1.39 m
B. 1.49 m
C. 1.59 m
D. 1.69 m
running partially full with central angle , For a circular sewer of diameter__________________?
A. d/D = ½ (1 – –
B. a/A
C. r/R = [1 –
D. All the above
In the activated sludge process__________________?
A. Aeration is continued till stability

B. Aeration is done with an admixture of previously aerated sludge
C. Sludge is activated by constant stirring
D. Water is removed by centrifugal action
The settling velocity of a spherical particle of diameter less than 0.1 mm as per Stock’s law,
is__________________?
288
A. Vs = 418 (Gs – Gw) d [(3T + 70)/100]

B. Vs = 418 (Gs – Gw)d² [(3T + 70)/100]
C. Vs = 218 (Gs – Gw)d² [(3T + 70)/100]
D. Vs = 218 (Gs – Gw)d [(3T + 70)/100]
Inter-distance between ventilation columns in a sewer line is kept__________________?
A. 25 to 50 m
B. 50 m to 100 m
C. 100 m to 150 m
D. 150 m to 300 m
The intensity of rain is expressed in________________?
A. cm/minute
B. cm/hour
C. cm/day
D. None of these
Which one of the following part of human body withstands minimum radiation ?
A. Thyroid
B. Kidneys
C. Eyes
D. Ovaries/testis
The bottom of the sewage inlet chamber of septic tanks, is provided an outward
slope_________________?
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 10
C. 1 in 15
D. 1 in 20
Primary treatment of sewage consists of removal of__________________?
A. Large suspended organic solids

B. Oil and grease
C. Sand and girt
D. Floating materials
Cement concrete sewers are only suitable if non-scouring velocity is between_________________?
A. 2.5 to 3.0 m/sec

B. 3.0 to 4.0 m/sec
C. 3.5 to 4.5 m/sec
D. 4.5 to 5.5 m/sec
289
The most widely used pump for lifting sewage is_________________?
A. Centrifugal pump
A. Maximum daily flow = 2 times the average daily flow

B. Maximum daily flow = average daily flow
C. Sewers are designed for minimum permissible velocity at minimum flow
D. All the above
Setting out the alignments of sewers may start from__________________?
A. City
B. Out-fall
C. Tail end
D. Any point
Lead acetate test in sewer manhole is done to test the presence of ____________________?
A. Methane gas
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Carbondioxide gas
D. Diesel vapours
A. Small sewers are cleaned by flushing

B. Medium sewers are cleaned by cane rodding
C. Medium sewers may be cleaned by pills
D. All the above
In a grit chamber of a sewage treatment plant ____________________?
A. Flow velocity 0.15 m to 0.3 m/sec is kept

B. Depth of 0.9 m to 1.20 m is kept
C. One minute of detention period is kept
D. All the above
The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for mains up to 1 m in diameter,
is___________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
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The arrangement made for passing the sewer line below an obstruction below the hydraulic gradient
lines called ____________________?
A. Inverted syphon
B. Depressed sewer
C. Sag pipe
D. all of these
Chlorination of water is done for the removal of____________________?
A. Bacterias
B. Suspended solids
C. Sediments
D. Hardness
Sludge banks are formed if sewage is disposed of in____________________ ?
A. Rivers
B. Seas
C. Lakes
D. None of these
The temperature affects the________________?
a.Biological activity of bacteria in sewage

B. Solubility of gases in sewage
C. Viscosity of sewage
D. All the above
A. The water supply pipes carry pure water free from solid particles
B. The water supply pipes get clogged if flow velocity is less than self cleansing velocity
C. The sewers may be carried up and down the hills and valleys
D. The sewer pipes are generally laid along level hills
The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per day is 200
litres and sewage discharge is 80% of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of separate system,
is_____________________?
A. 0.05552 cumec
B. 0.05554 cumec
C. 0.05556 cumec
D. 0.0556 cumec
The sewer pipes__________________?

291
A. Carry sewage as gravity conduits

B. Are designed for generating self-cleansing velocities at different discharge
C. Should resist the wear and tear caused due to abrasion
D. All the above
The spacing of bars for perforations in coarse screens used for the treatment of sewage, is
____________________?
A. 20 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 40 mm
D. 50 mm
A. The maximum rate of storm runoff is called peak drainage discharge

B. Rational method of estimating peak run off, may be used precisely for areas less than 50 hectares
C. The period after which the entire area starts contributing to the runoff, is called the time of
concentration
D. All the above
The pH value of fresh sewage is usually ______________________?
A. Equal to 7
B. More than 7
C. Less than 7
D. Equal to zero
If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 5 ppm after incubating a 2.5% solution of sewage sample for
5 days at 21°C, B.O.D. of the sewage is_____________________?
A. 50 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 150 ppm
D. 200 ppm
Lead caulked joints are used for laying____________________?
A. Stone ware pipes

B. Earthenware pipes
C. C.I. pipes
D. G.I. pipes
A. In treated sewage, 4 ppm of D.O. is essential

B. Only very fresh sewage contains some dissolved oxygen
292
C. The solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% that is in distilled water

D. All the above
The spacing of man holes along a straight portion of a sewer is 300 m, the diameter of the sewer may
be__________________?
A. 0.9 cm
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.5 m
D. > 1.5 m
A five day B.O.D. at 15°C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5 day B.O.D. per head at 15°C
for standard sewage is 0.1 kg/day, the population equivalent is____________________?
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
A. The larger the sewer in size, more will be velocity

B. The smaller the sewer in size, less will be velocity
C. The larger the sewer in size, no deposition will take place
D. The larger the sewer in size, deposition will take place
The quantity of liquid waste which flows in sewers during the period of rainfall, is
known__________________?
A. Sanitary sewage
B. Industrial waste
C. Storm sewage
D. None of these
Depletion of ozone layer in the outer atmosphere may cause___________________ ?
A. Lung cancer
B. Skin cancer
C. Bronchitis
D. Heart disorder
A cylindrical ejector having its height 2 m fills after every 10 minutes with a peak sewage discharge of
0.0157 cumec. The diameter of the ejector chamber, is_____________________?
A. 2.30 m
B. 2.40 m
C. 2.45 m
D. 2.50 m
293
Which one of the following gases is most significant as air pollutant ?
A. Carbondioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Sulphur-dioxide
For sewers, inverted siphon is provided for___________________?
A. One pipe
B. Two pipes
C. Three pipes
D. Four pipes
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following ?
A. Septic tanks are horizontal continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks

B. Septic tanks are generally provided a detention period of 12 to 36 hours
C. Septic tanks are completely covered and high vent shafts are provided for the escape of foul gases
D. None of these
For large sewers, maximum distance between manholes may be_______________?
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 200 m
D. 300 m
The value of Chezy’s constant C = 157.6/(1.81 + K/ ) is used in__________________?
A. Chezy’s formula
B. Bazin’s formula
Pathogens (or pathogenic bacterias) in water may cause___________________?
A. Typhoid
B. Cholera
C. Dysentery
D. All the above
The screens are fixed___________________?
A. Perpendicular to the direction of flow

B. Parallel to the direction of flow
C. At an angle 30° to 60° to the direction of flow
D. None of these
294
In detritus tanks______________________?
A. Flow velocity is kept 0.09 m/sec

B. Detention period is kept 3 to 4 minutes
C. Organic and inorganic materials are separated
D. All the above
If the side of a square sewer is 1000 mm, the diameter of a hydraulically equivalent circular section,
is___________________?
A. 1045 mm
B. 1065 mm
C. 1075 mm
D. 1095 mm
A nuisance is experienced in diluting water if dilution factor is less than_________________?
A. 100
B. 60
C. 40
D. 20
A manhole is generally provided at each__________________?
A. Bend
B. Junction
C. Change of gradient
D. All the above
The design period in years for pumping plants, is___________________?
A. 1
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 5
D. 5 to 10
The disintegrating pump in which solid matter is broken up before passing out,
is__________________?`
A. Centrifugal pump
B. Reciprocating pump
C. Pneumatic ejector
D. None of these
Design period of 40 to 50 years is adopted for_________________?
A. Branch sewers
B. Main sewers
295
C. Trunk sewers
D. All the above
In very first stage of decomposition of the organic matter in sewage________________?
A. Nitrites are formed

B. Nitrates are formed
C. Carbondioxide is formed
D. Ammonia is formed
The self-cleansing velocity of water flowing through pipe lines, is___________________ ?
A. 2 metres/sec
B. 1 metre/sec
C. 0.5 metre/sec
D. 0.25 metre/sec
The first stage of neutral process of sludge digestion, is__________________?
A. Acid fermentation
B. Acid regressio
C. Alkaline fermentation
D. None of these
The formula V = (1/n) r2/3____________________?
A. Chezy’s formula
B. Bazin’s formula
C. Kutter’s formula
D. Manning’s formula
The maximum diameter of sewers adopted in the designs is_______________?
A. 1.0 m
B. 2.0 m
C. 3.0 m
D. 4.0 m
Facultative bacteria survive in_____________________?
A. The presence of oxygen

B. The absence of oxygen
C. Both cases A. and B.
The maximum spacing of manholes specified by Indian standard in sewers upto 0.3 m diameter
is____________________?
296
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 75 m
The underground sewers are more subjected to________________?
A. Tensile force
B. Compressive force
C. Bending force
D. Shearing force
Ventilating shafts are provided to a sewer line at every__________________?
A. 100 m
B. 150 m
C. 200 m
D. 300 m
Boussinesq’s equation for ascertaining unit pressure at a depth on sewers due to traffic loads,
is__________________?
A. pt = 3H3p/2 Z5
B. pt = 2H3p/3 Z5
C. pt = 3H3p/2Z5
D. pt = 2 3p/3Z5
For trunk sewers more than 1.25 m in diameter, the ratio of the maximum daily sewage flow to the
average daily sewage flow is assumed________________?
A. 1.5
If the pH value of sewage is 7__________________?

C. It is neutral
The normal values of over flow rates for secondary sedimentation tanks, ranges
between__________________?
A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day

B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
D. 80,000 to 10,000 litres/sqm/day
The width of a settling tank with 2 hour detention period for treating sewage 378 cu m per hour, is
__________________?
D. 7 m
297
For non-scouring velocity 5 m/sec, the type of sewers generally preferred to,
is____________________?
A. Cast iron sewers

B. Cement concrete sewers
C. Glazed bricks sewers
D. Stone ware sewers
The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for trunk mains having diameters more
than 1.25 m, is____________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
Large diameter sewers subjected to external pressure alone, are reinforced

______________________?
A. Near the inner surface of the pipe

B. Near the outer surface of the pipe
C. Both A. and B.
D. With elliptical cage
The liquid wastes from kitchens, bath rooms and wash basins, is not called________________?
A. Liquid waste
B. Sullage
C. Sewage
D. None of these
The detention time (t) of a settling tank, may be defined as the time required for_________________?
A. A particle to travel along its length

B. A particle to travel from top surface to bottom sludge zone
C. The flow of sewage to fill the tank
D. None of these
The effluent of a septic tank is_________________?
A. Fit for discharge into any open drain

B. Foul and contains dissolved and suspended solids
C. As good as that from a complete treatment
D. None of these
The design period of sewage treatment works in normally_________________?

298
A. 5 – 10 years
B. 15 – 20 years
In Chezy’s formula V = C rs for calculating the velocity of flow in circular sewer of diameter running
full, the value of hydraulic mean radius is_______________?
A. D
B. D /2
C. D/3
D. D/4
For sewer mains of 0.5 to 1 m diameter, the ratio of maximum daily sewage flow to the average daily
sewage flow is assumed__________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
The recommended detention period for grit chambers is_______________?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of a standard egg shaped section,
is___________________?
A. D
B. 1.25 D
C. 1.5 D
D. 1.75 D
A rainfall may be classified as acidic if its pH value is less or equal to________________?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 6.5
For house drainage minimum gradient is__________________?
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 80
C. 1 in 10
D. 1 in 400
299
A rain sanitary sewer is constructed to carry_________________ ?
A. Sanitary sewage
B. Storm sewage
C. Surface water
D. Ground water
The drop man holes are generally provided in sewers for____________________?
A. Industrial areas
B. Large town ships
C. Hilly town ships
D. Cities in plains
For design purposes, the normal rate of infiltration of ground water into the sewer,
is___________________?
A. 500 litres/km/cm
B. 1000 litres/km/cm
C. 1500 litres/km/cm
D. 2000 litres/km/cm
The algae dies out in the zone of_____________________?
A. Degradation
Assertion A. : Discharging the effluents from the oxidation ponds just up stream of lakes or reservoirs
is undesirable. Reason (R) : The discharged algae get settled in the reservoirs and cause anaerobic
decomposition and other water qualities_________________?

The dimensions of a rectangular settling tank are: length 24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m. If 2 hour
detention period for tanks is recommended, the rate of flow of sewage per hour,
is_____________________?
A. 204 cu.m
B. 208 cu.m
C. 212 cu.m
D. 216 cu.m
Disposal to sewage in large cities, is done in__________________?
A. Irrigation
B. Dilution
300
The digested sludge from septic tanks, is removed after a maximum period of__________________?
A. 3 years
B. 3.5 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
The presence of free ammonia in sewage, is detected by___________________?
A. Boiling
B. Adding potassium permanganate
C. Adding sulphuric acid
D. Phenol-di-sulphuric acid
The porosity of sediments in sewer pipes, is usually taken as___________________?
A. 0.010
B. 0.011
C. 0.012
D. 0.013
The minimum diameter of sewer to be adopted is_________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 12.5 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 25 cm
The sewerage system consists of______________________?
A. House sewer
B. Lateral sewer
C. Branch sewer
D. All of these
Oxidation process results in the formation of___________________?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrates
C. Sulphates
D. All the above
The angle subtended by the surface of sewer water with partial flow, at sewer centre is 120°, the
depth of sewerage is________________________?
D. 50 cm
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If the grit in grit chambers is 4.5 million litres per day, its cleaning is done____________________?
Manually
The ratio of depths at partial flo________________?
A. 1 –
B. 1 –
C. ½ (1 –
D. ½ (1 –
With self cleansing velocity in sewers___________________?
A. Silting occurs at bottom

B. Scouring occurs at bottom
C. Both silting and scouring occur at bottom
D. Neither silting nor scouring occurs at bottom
As compared to fresh river water, sea water contains oxygen_________________?

. 20% less
Imhoff cone is used to determine_____________________?
A. Settleable solids
B. Suspended solids
C. Dissolved solids
D. None of these
Discrete or granular particles change their_________________ ?
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Weight
D. None of these
The ratio of design discharge to the surface area of a sedimentation tank is

called____________________?
A. Surface loading
B. Overflow rate
C. Overflow velocity
D. All of these
Which one of the following resists hydrogen sulphide corrosion ?
A. R.C.C.
B. Glazed stone wares
C. Asbestos cement
D. Glazed ware
302
In olden days the type of section adopted in trunk and out fall sewers was__________________?
A. Parabolic shaped
B. Horse shoe shaped
C. Egg shaped
D. Circular shaped
In primary sedimentation, the 0.2 mm inorganic solids get separated if specific gravity
is_________________?
A. 2.25
B. 2.50
C. 2.55
D. 2.65
House connections to the laterals is generally made by___________________?
A. R.C.C.
B. P.C.C.
C. Cast iron
D. Glazed stonewares
In R.C. sewer pipes, the percentage longitudinal reinforcement to the cross-sectional area of concrete
is kept________________?
A. 10.0
B. 5.0
C. 2.0
D. 0.25
Rate of flow of sewage is generally assumed__________________?
A. More than the rate of water supply

B. Equal to the rate of water supply
C. Less than the rate of water supply
D. At 150 litres per capita
If the depth of partial flow in a sewer of diameter 2 m, is 50 cm, its wetted perimeter
is____________________ ?
A. 1/3
B. 0/2
C. 0/3
D. 2 /3
In sewers the gas generally found, is_________________?

303
A. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)

B. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
C. Methane (CH4)
D. All the above
The small sewers are cleaned by____________________?
A. Flushing
B. Cane rodding
C. Wooden pills
D. None of these
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the area of cross-section of a standard egg shaped sewer,
is____________________?
A. D²
B. D²
C. D²
D. D²
In sewage, the solids in mg per litre is__________________?
A. 100 to 500
B. 500 to 1000
C. 1000 to 1500
D. 1500 to 2000
The gas evolved in sewers is________________?
A. Carbondioxide
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Methane
D. All of these
If a paper moistened with lead acetate for five minutes when placed in manhole turns black. The
sewer certainly contains__________________?
The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment, is called________________?
A. House sewer
B. Out-fall sewer
C. Branch sewer
D. Main sewer
To test chemical oxygen demand (C.O.D.) of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by potassium
dichromate in the presence of_______________?
304
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Citric acid
If the diameter of a sewer is 100 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity
is__________________?
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 120
D. None of these
In 1000 kg of sewage, the total solids approximate___________________?
A. 0.5 to 1.0 kg
B. 1 kg to 2.0 kg
C. 5 kg to 7.5 kg
D. 7.5 kg to 10 kg
Before discharging the foul sewage into rivers, it is generally treated by_____________________?
A. Screening
B. Sedimentation
C. Oxidation
D. All the above
Aerobic activity is maximum_______________?
A. In freshly produced sewage

B. At sewer pipes
C. In sewer treatment plants
D. None of these
Sewer manholes are generally provided at________________?
A. The change of gradient

B. The change of direction
C. The junctions of sewers
D. All of these
hydraulically equivalent, the relationship which holds good, is _______________?
A. D8/3 = 4 b8/3
B. D3/8 = 4 b3/8
C. D2/3 = 4 b2/3
D. D3/2 = 4 b3/2
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Sewer pipes need be checked for_________________?
A. Minimum flow
B. Maximum flow
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
In septic tanks, decomposition of organic bacteria, is done by_____________________?
A. Anaerobic bacteria
The sewerage system originates from__________________?
A. House sewers
B. Lateral sewers
C. Branch sewers
D. Main sewers
During purification process of sewage the gas given off, is________________?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Ammonia
D. All the above
Drop manholes at the junctions of sewer lines, are provided if________________?
A. Invert level of a branch sewer is more than 60 cm that of the main sewer
B. Sewer line runs along a main road
C. Ordinary manhole cannot be built
D. Two sewer lines intersect
The sewage discharge in a detritus tank of a treatment plant is 576 litres/sec with flow velocity of 0.2
m/sec. If the ratio of width to depth is 2, the depth is____________________?
A. 100 cm
B. 110 cm
C. 120 cm
D. 150 cm
Fresh sewage may become stale in_________________?
A. One hour
B. Two to three hours
C. Three to four hours
D. Six hours
The standard B.O.D. of water is taken for_________________? 5 days

306
The gradient of sewers depends upon_________________?
A. Velocity of flow
B. Diameter of the sewer
C. Discharge
D. All the above
Removal of oil and grease from sewage, is known____________________?
A. Screening
B. Skimming
C. Filtration
D. None of these
The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is_________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 3/4
The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment, is_________________?
A. Alum
B. Ferric chloride
For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen is
prescribed________________?
A. 3 ppm
B. 4 ppm
C. 5 ppm
D. 10 ppm
In SI units the power of sound is represented in __________________? Watts
The width of a rectangular sewer is twice its depth while discharging 1.5 m/sec. The width of the
sewer is______________? 1.36 m
For providing an Indian type W.C., the R.C.C. slabs in the toilet portion__________________?
A. Should be sunk by 20 cm
B. Should be kept 20 cm above the adjacent portion
C. Should be sunk by 50 cm
D. Need not be sunk
Flocculated particles do not change their___________________?

307
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Weight
D. None of these
When drainage to sewage ratio is 20, the peak dry weather flow is_______________?
A. 20% of the design discharge

B. Slightly less than 5% of the design discharge
C. Slightly more than 5% of the design discharge
D. None of these
The non-clog pump which permits solid matter to pass out with the liquid sewage,
is________________? Centrifugal pump
Which one of the following tests is used for testing sewer pipes ?
A. Water test
B. Ball test
C. Mirror test
D. All of these
The sewage is pumped up_______________?
A. From low lying areas

B. From flat areas
C. From basements
D. All the above
If the diameter of sewer is 225 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity,
is___________________? 1 in 120
The sewer pipe which carries sewage from a building for immediate disposal is______________?
House sewer
Clogging of sewers, is caused due to_______________?
A. Silting
B. Low discharge
C. Greasy and oily matters
D. All the above
In sewage having fully oxidised organic matter, the nitrogen exists in the form of________________?
A. Nitrites
B. Nitrates
Dry water flow in a combined sewer, is______________________? Storm water
Assertion A.: The minimum self cleansing velocity in the sewer, at least once a day, must be
generated. Reason (R): If certain deposition takes place and is not removed, it obstructs
free flow and causes further deposition leading to complete blocking of the sewer?
308
3.0 ml of raw sewage is diluted to 300 ml. The D.O. concentration of the diluted sample at the
beginning of the test was 8 mg/l. After 5 day-incubation at 20°C, the D.O. concentration was 5 mg/l.
The BOD of raw sewerage is______________________?
300 mg/l
If is the rugosity coefficient, is the bed slope of sewer, the velocity of flow in m/sec may be obtained
by the formula V = (1/n) r2/3 s1/2 evolved by_________________? Manning
The sewage treatment in septic tanks is due to__________________?
A. Anaerobic decomposition
In a sludge digestion tank if the moisture content of sludge V1 litres is reduced from p1 %
to p2 % the volume V2 is____________________?
[(100 – P1)/(100 – P2)] V1
You are asked to design sewer pipes of diameters 0.4 m to 0.9 m at maximum flow, you will
assume the sewer flow running at___________________?
A. Full depth
B. Half full
For a peak discharge of 0.0157 cumec, with a velocity of 0.9 m/sec, the diameter of the sewer main,
is________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 18 cm
The most effective arrangement for diverting excess storm water into a natural drainage,
is____________________?
A. Leaping weir
B. Overflow weir
C. Siphon spill way
D. None of these
For estimating the peak run off the rational formula Q = 0.0278 KpA was evolved by______________?
A. Kinchling
B. Lloyd Davis
C. Frubling
D. All the above
309
The settlement velocity of a solid (diameter 0.5 mm, specific gravity 1.75) in water having
temperature 10°C, is______________________?
A. 213.5 cm/sec
B. 313.5 cm/sec
C. 413.5 cm/sec
D. 500 cm/sec
The laying of sewers is done with____________________?
A. Magnetic compass
B. Theodolite
C. Level
D. Clinometer
For detecting the nitrites in the sewage, the matching colour may be developed by
adding_________________?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
C. Phenol-di -sulphuric acid potassium hydroxide
D. None of these
Fresh sewage is generally_____________________?
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Highly decomposed
D. A source of objectionable odour
It is customary to design a sewer for D.W.F. on the basis of________________?
A. Average demand
B. Twice the average demand
C. Thrice the average demand
D. Four times the average demand
The following is the physical characteristic of sewage___________________?
A. Turbidity
B. Colour
C. Odour
D. All the above
For laying a sewer line in a trench of 2 m width, an offset line is marked on the ground parallel to the
given centre line at a distance of___________________? 160cm
310
The most dangerous pollutant in vehicular emissions is____________________? CO
The sewer which collects the discharge from a collecting system and delivers it to a treatment plant, is
known_____________________?
A. House sewer
B. Lateral sewer
C. Branch sewer
D. Sewer outfall
A sewer pipe contains 1 mm sand particles of specific gravity 2.65 and 5 mm organic particles of
specific gravity 1.2, the minimum velocity required for removing the sewerage,
is_____________________?
A. 0.30 m/sec
B. 0.35 m/sec
C. 0.40 m/sec
D. 0.45 m/sec
The settlement of a particle in sedimentation tank, is affected by_____________________?
A. Velocity of flow
B. Viscosity of water
C. Size and shape of solid
D. All the above
If the over land flow from the critical point to the drain is 8 km and the difference in level is 12.4 m,
the inlet time is________________?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours
The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is_________________?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
The suitable cross-section of sewers to carry combined flow, is__________________?
A. Circular
B. Egg shaped
C. Rectangular
D. Horse shoe shaped
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In sewers the highest non-scouring velocity is achieved in________________?
A. Glazed bricks sewers

B. Cast iron sewers
If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it indicates the zone
of__________________?
A. Degradation
B. Active decomposition
C. Recovery
D. Cleaner water
For trunk and out-fall, the type of sewers generally used, is_____________________?
A. Standard egg shaped

B. Circular shaped
C. Horse shoe shaped
The most efficient cross section of sewers in a separate sewerage system is__________________?
A. Parabolic
B. Circular
C. Rectangular
D. New egged
The stone ware sewers_________________?
A. Are used for carrying sewage and drainage from houses

B. Are manufactured from clays and shale
C. After casting are dried and burnt at temperature 150°C, 700°C and 1200°C
D. All the above
A manhole is classified as shallow if its depth is between_________________?
A. 0.4 to 0.5 m
B. 0.5 to 0.7 m
C. 0.7 to 0.9 m
D. 0.9 to 1.20 m
In case of sewer lines_________________?
A. Water test is carried out to check water tightness of the joints

B. Test for straightness is carried out with the help of a lamp and mirror
C. Obstruction test is carried out with the help of smooth ball of diameter 13 mm
D. All the above
312
In a city the ratio of the drainage to sewage is 20, the percentage discharge passing through non-
monsoon periods, is_____________________?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
A circular sewer section is preferred to because__________________?
A. It is cheaper in construction
B. It provides maximum area for a given perimeter
C. It provides maximum hydraulic mean depth
D. All the above
If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/litre after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage diluted to 250
ml for 5 days at 20°C, B.O.D. of the sewage is_________________?
A. 50 mg/l
B. 100 mg/l
C. 150 mg/l
D. 250 mg/l
A safety lamp when inserted in the upper portion of a manhole causes flames. It indicates the
presence of______________?
A. Carbondioxide gas
B. Hydrogen sulphide gas
C. Methane gas
D. Petrol vapours
The asbestos cement pipes are generally laid___________________?
A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. At an angle of 30°
D. At an angle of 60°
The water carried sewerage system removes__________________?
A. Domestic sewage
B. Industrial sewage
C. Storm sewage
D. All the above
The flow velocity in detritus tanks is________________?

313
A. 0.05 m/sec
B. 0.09 m/sec
C. 1.25 m/sec
D. None of these
In circular sewers if depth of flow is 0.2 times the full depth, the nominal gradient,______________?
A. Is only provided
B. Is doubled
The rate of accumulation of sludge per person per year, is_______________________?
A. 10 litres
B. 15 litres
C. 20 litres
D. 25 litres
The spacing of bars of perforations of fine screens used for the treatment of sewage,
is_______________? 2 to 3 mm
In sewers designed with self cleansing velocity________________?
A. The bottom is silted

B. The bottom is scoured
C. Both silting and scouring occur at the bottom
D. Neither silting nor scouring occurs at the bottom
Hazen’s formula VS = 418 (GS – Gw)d [(3T + 70)/100] is used for the settlement velocity of the
particles of diameter______________________?
A. Less than 0.01 mm

B. Less than 0.05 mm
C. Less than 0.1 mm
D. Greater than 0.1 mm
An inverted siphon is designed generally for____________________?-
A. One pipe
B. Two pipes
C. Three pipes
D. Four pipes
Pick up the correct statement from the following _________________?
A. The materials separated by screens, is called screenings

B. The screenings are disposed off either by burning or by burial or by dumping
C. The process of burning the screenings, is known as compositing
D. All the above
314
The minimum diameter of a sewer is kept __________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
Nitrogen cycle of sewage, is____________________?
A. Liberation of ammonia-formation of nitrites-formation of nitrates-liberation of nitrogen
Kjeldahl nitrogen is a mixture of___________________?
A. Ammonia and nitrogen

B. Nitrogen and organic nitrogen
C. Organic nitrogen and ammonia
D. All the above
A sewer running partially full and hurried with back filled, fails in compression due
to_________________?
A. Weight of the pipe

B. Weight of the back fill
C. Superimposed traffic loads
D. All the above
The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks, is kept__________________?
A. 3 m
In case of Imhoff tanks_____________________?
A. The shape is rectangular

B. Detention period is 2 hours
C. The velocity of flow is restricted to 0.30 m/minute
D. All the above
If D is the diameter of a circular sewer and D’ is the top horizontal diameter of an equivalent egg
shaped section, the relationship which holds good, is_______________?
A. D’ = 0.64 D
B. D’ = 0.74 D
C. D’ = 0.84 D
D. D’ = 0.94 D
In a residential colony, sewers of diameters 100 mm, 150 mm and 225 mm were laid with a gradient 1
in 120. Which portion of the sewage system does not choke in due course of time?
315
A. 100 mm dia.
B. 150 mm dia.
C. 225 mm dia
The clarigesters are_________________?
A. Circular septic tanks

B. Rectangular septic tanks
C. Circular Imhoff double tanks with bottom hoppers
D. Circular Imhoff double storey tanks without bottom hoppers
Assertion A.: A free board of 0.3 m is provided above the top sewage line in septic tanks. Reason (R): It
helps to accommodate the scum in the septic tank_________________?
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Pick up the incorrect size of stone ware sewers_________________?
A. 52.5 cm
B. 67.5 cm
C. 82.5 cm
D. None of these
pH value of sludge during alkaline regression stage, is__________________?
A. More than 7
Antisyphonage pipe is fitted_______________?
A. At the end of septic tanks

B. On manholes
C. With a W.C. trap
D. At the beginning of sewer line
The detention time of a circular tank of diameter d and water depth H, for receiving the sewage Q per
hour, is________________?
A. d² (0.011d + 0.785H)/Q
B. d (0.022d + 0.085H)/Q
C. d (0.785d + 0.011H)/Q
D. d (0.285d + 0.011H)/Q
weight of water, the hydraulic mean depth of the sewer and the bed slope w is the unit of the sewer,
then the tractive force exerted by flowing water, is________________________?
316
A. w r S S
B. w r1/2
C. w r S
D. w r2/3
In a fully mechanised composting plant, involves________________?
A. Mechanized receipt
B. Mechanized segregation
C. Mechanized pulverising of refuse
D. All of these
The sewers___________________?
A. Must be of adequate size to avoid over flow

B. Must flow under gravity ½ to ¾ full
C. Must be laid at least 2 to 3 m deep to collect /water from the basements
D. All the above
If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and depletion of oxygen was found
to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of the sewage is____________________?
A. 200 ppm
B. 225 ppm
C. 250 ppm
D. None of these
Drop manholes are the manholes___________________?
A. Without entry ladders

B. Without manhole covers
C. With depths more than 3.5 m
D. Having drains at different levels
The ratio of the diameter of a circular section and the side of a square section hydraulically
equivalent, is____________________?
A. 1.095
B. 1.085
C. 1.075
D. 1.065
Stone ware pipes are_______________?
A. Highly resistant to sulphide corrosion

B. Highly impervious
317
C. Hydraulically efficient because of their smooth interior surface

D. Especially suited to pressure pipes
In septic tanks__________________?
A. Free board of 0.3 m may be provided

B. The baffles or tees are extended up to top level of scum
C. The clear space between the baffle top and covering slab is about 7.5 cm
D. All the above
For detecting the nitrates in sewage, the colour may be developed by adding________________?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
C. Phenol-di -sulphuric acid and potassium hydroxide
The use of coarse screens for the disposal of sewage, may be dispensed with by______________?
A. Comminutor
B. Shredder
C. Both A. and B.
A drop manhole is provided if__________________?
A. A sewer drops from a height

B. A branch sewer joins the main sewer at higher level
‘Cowl’ is provided at___________________?
A. Lower end of ventilating column

B. Upper end of ventilating column
C. Upper end of the manhole
D. First step in manhole
For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is assumed_____________________?

75 to 80%
For evaporation and measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used, is________________?
. An Imhoff cone
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of New Egg shaped sewer section,
Is_____________________? 1.625 D
Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days in generally referred to_______________?
A. Initial demand
B. First stage demand
C. Carbonaceous demand
D. All of these
318
The moisture content of sludge is reduced from 90% to 80% in a sludge digestion tank. The percentage
decrease in the volume of sludge, is_______________? 50 %
Pick up the in-correct statement from the following?
A. Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals

B. Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge
C. Inlets are generally provided in all sewers
5 days-biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5) is taken at a temperature of_________________?
A. 0°C
B. 15°C
C. 20°C
D. 25°C
In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of sewerage system
to be adopted is_______________?
A. Separate system
B. Combined system
C. Partially combined system
Dried sewage after treatment is used as____________________? Fertilizer
In areas where rainy season is limited to a few months, the type of sewerage system
recommended is__________________?
A. Combined system
B. Partially separate system
C. Separate system
Which one of the following statements regarding septic tanks is wrong ?
A. A gap of 7.5 cm between the bottom of the covering slab and the top level of scum is provided
B. The outlet invert level is kept 5 to 7.5 cm below the inlet invert level
C. The minimum width of septic level is 90 cm
D. The depth of tank is kept equal to its width
The normal value of over flow rates for plain primary sedimentation tanks, ranges
between________________?

The pH value of sewage is determined with the help of_________________?

319
A. Imhoff Cone
B. Turbid meter
C. Potentiometer
To maintain aerobic biological activity, the moisture content of the compost mass should be
about_________________?
A. 45 %
B. 50 %
C. 55 %
D. 60 %
The factor responsible for purification of sewage in river is________________?
A. Hydrology
B. Dissolved oxygen in water
C. Temperature
D. All the above
The most efficient cross-section of sewers in a combined sewerage system is________________?
A. Parabolic
B. Circular
Water content of sewage is about___________________?
A. 90 %
B. 95 %
C. 99 %
D. 9.9 %
The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic biological
decomposition of sewage, is known_________________?
A. Bio-Chemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.)

B. Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.)
C. Chemical Oxygen Demand (C.O.D.)
D. None of these
In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for a discharge
Q, is____________________?
A. Q/(B × D)
B. Q/(L × D)
C. Q/L
D. Q/(B × L)
Sewer ventilating columns are generally placed at_______________?

320
A. Distances 150 m to 300 m

B. Upper ends of branch sewers
C. Every change in the size of sewers
D. All the above
In sewers the effect of scouring is more on__________________?
A. Top side
B. Bottom side
C. Horizontal side
D. All sides
In sewers the velocity of flow should not be_________________?
A. More than the self-cleansing velocity

B. Less than the self-cleansing velocity
C. Less than 10 m/sec
D. More than 20 m/sec
For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by K2Cr2O7 in the presence
of________________?
A. H2SO4
B. HNO3
The reduced levels of the string at the consecutive sight rails A and B are 203.575 m, 203.475 m
respectively. If the difference of their R.D.s is 10 m, the gradient of the sewer line
is_________________?
A. 1 in 100 upward
B. 1 in 500 upward
C. 1 in 100 downward
D. 1 in 503 upward
Dilution method of disposing of sewage, is not preferred to_______________?
A. When sewage is fresh

B. When diluting water has high dissolved oxygen content
C. When diluting water is used for water supply near the point of sewage disposed
D. When the diluting water is having flow currents
Imhoff cone is used to measure________________?
A. Total organic solids

B. Total solids
C. Total in organic solids
D. Settleable solids
321
The grit and silt of the grit chambers, may not be used for_________________?
A. Raising low lying areas by dumping

B. Concreting
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B
If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity,
is________________?
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of organic matter is used, are
called________________?
A. Imhoff tanks
B. Trickling filters
If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in a manhole extinguishes within 5 minutes, the sewer certainly
contains_______________?
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
If the depth of flow in a circular sewer is 1/4th of its diameter D, the wetted perimeter
is______________?
A. /2
B. /4
C. /3
D. D
If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage
flow______________?
A. Q = [(4 + )/(18 + )] q
B. Q = [(18 + P)/(4 + )] q
C. Q = [(18 + )/(4 + )] q
D. Q = [(5 + )/((15 + )] q
For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2
minutes, the length of the tank, is__________________?
322
A. 16 m
B. 20 m
C. 24 m
D. 30 m
The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called_________________?
A. Main sewer
B. Outfall sewer
C. Branch sewer
Sewer pipes are designed for maximum discharge with 25% to 33% vacant cross-sectional area
for__________________?
A. Unexpected large scale infiltration of stream water

B. Unexpected increase in the population
C. Under estimates of maximum and average flows
D. All of the above
At the junction of sewers___________________?
A. Top of smaller sewer is kept lower

B. Top of larger sewer is kept lower
C. Tops of both the sewers are at the same level
D. None of these
The normal values of over flow rates for sedimentation tanks using coagulant, ranges
between__________________?

To prevent settling down of sewage both at the bottom and on the sides of a large sewer, self-
cleaning velocity recommended for Indian conditions, is_________________?
A. 0.50 m/sec
B. 0.60 m/sec
C. 0.70 m/sec
D. 0.75 m/sec
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following for allowing workers to enter
sewers_______________?
A. The particular manhole and one manhole on upstream and one manhole on downstream should remain
open for 30 minutes
B. Proper tests for the presence of poisonous gases must be carried out
323
C. The men entering the manhole should be advised to smoke in the sewer
D. Warning signals should be erected
The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m per
sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is____________________?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hour and 30 minutes
D. 2 hours
The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is generally called________________?
A. Over flow rate

B. Surface loading
C. Over flow velocity
D. All the above
The gas which may cause explosion in sewers, is_________________?
A. Carbondioxide
B. Methane
C. Ammonia
D. Carbon monoxide
The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively piled above the ground to form a mound, is
called_______________?
A. A heap
B. Plateau
C. Windrow
D. None of these
A. Turbidity is more in strong sewage

B. The black colour indicates septic sewage
C. The sewage omits offensive odours after four hours
D. All the above
A. The boning rod is used for checking the levels of the sewer inverts
B. Manhole covers are made circular for the convenience of the cleaning staff
C. A manhole is classified as shallow manhole if its depth is less than 0.9 m
D. All the above

324
A. pH value indicates acidity and alkalinity of sewage

B. In acidic sewage, the pH value is less than 7
C. In alkaline sewage, the pH value is more than 7
D. All the above
A. Indore method of composting involves decomposition under aerobic conditions

B. Bangalore method of composting involves decomposing under anaerobic conditions
C. Fully stabilised refuse by the Bangalore method of compositing is a powdery mass called humus
D. all of these
A. Inlets are provided on the road surface at the lowest point for draining rain water
B. Inlets are generally provided at an interval of 30 m to 60 m along straight roads
C. Inlets having horizontal openings, are called horizontal inlets
D. All the above
A. The circular section of sewers provides maximum hydraulic mean depth

B. The circular sewers are provided for separate sewerage system
C. The circular sewers work efficiently if the sections run at least half full
D. All the above
A. Anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen

B. Aerobic bacteria flourish in the presence of oxygen
C. Facultative bacteria flourish with or without oxygen
D. All the above
A. The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage

B. The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops
C. The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called sewerage
D. The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage system
A. The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic conditions, is called sludge
digestion
B. Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank
C. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide
325
Water Supply Engineering

The fire demand of a city may be worked out by _________________?
A. Kuichling’s formula
B. Freeman formula
C. Under Writers formula
D. Bustan’s formula
E. All the above.
The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is__________________?
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
E. 35 times
Sunlight_________________ ?
A. helps growth of bacterias

B. impedes growth of algae
C. increases dissolved oxygen content
D. reduces turbidity
Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period
of________________?
A. 7 years
B. 14 years
C. 21 years
D. 28 years
E. 35 years
Surge tanks are used_______________?
A. for storage water

B. to increase the velocity in a pipeline
C. as overflow valves
D. to guard against water hammer
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be________________?
A. nil
In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at_______________? lower point
Asbestos pipes are ______________?

326
A. light in weight and easy to transport

B. highly resistant to corrosion
C. high flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°
D. very much smooth and hydraulically efficient
E. all the above
By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to_________________?
A. calcium sulphate
B. magnesium sulphate
C. calcium nitrate
D. calcium bicarbonate
E. none of these
The least thickness of class B cast iron (spun) pipe, is_________________?
A. 7.2 mm
B. 7.9 mm
C. 8.6 mm
The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of the stream water is
1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L. 1485 m to 1500 m, the gravity spring may
be expected at the point of reduced level_______________?
A. 1500 m
B. 1505 m
C. 1475 m
D. 1485 m
The underground sources of water, is from______________?
A. wells
B. springs
C. infiltration wells
D. storage reservoirs
E. none of these
According to IS : 1172-1963, a minimum of 135 litres of water capita per day, is required
for________________?
A. Boarding schools
B. Nurses home and medical quarters
C. hostels
D. all the above
The factor affecting per capita demand, is___________________?

327
A. size of the city

B. climatic conditions
C. pressure in water mains
D. cost of water
E. all the above
The specific retention is least in case of_______________?
A. Clay
B. Sand
C. Silt
D. Coarse gravel
For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly used non-empirical
formula is________________?
A. Darcy’s formula
The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks is limited to________________?

E. 6 m
Corrosion of well pipes may not be reduced by_________________?

D. using screens having larger area of openings
In slow sland filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to_________________?
A. 60 mg/litre
Time of concentration________________?
D. time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain
The expected discharge to be obtained from an open well sunk in coarse sand is 0.0059 cumec. If the
working depression head of the well is 3 m, the minimum diameter of the well, is________________?
E. 3.00 m
Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove_________________?

B. bacterias
Aeration of water is done to remove______________?
A. odour
If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three streams and
duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is______________________?
B. 2880 kilo litres
As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes,
is_______________?
E. 135 litres
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Tunnel Engineering
A good blast with a good yield is obtained if the cut hole is___________________?
A. normal to face
B. inclined at 45° to the face
C. inclined at 15° to the face
D. inclined at 30° to the face
Drifters can be used to drill_________________?
A. only up holes
B. only down holes
C. horizontal or up holes
D. horizor„al, down or up holes
The correct sequence of drilling equipment for increasing size of holes in tunnels
is________________?
A. wagon drill, churn drill, shot drill

B. wagon drill, shot drill, churn drill
C. shot drill, churn drill, wagon drill
D. churn drill, wagon drill, shot drill
In compressed air tunneling, the volume of free air provided is______________?
A. 6 mJ per second per m2 of face area

B. 6 m3 per minute per m2 of face area
C. 20 m3 per minute per m2 of face area
D. 6 m3 per hour per m2 of face area
Which of the following lining material is useful for shield driven tunnels in sub aqueous regions ?
A. stone masonry
B. timber
C. cast iron
D. cement concrete
Which one of the following tunnelling methods is used for laying under ground sewers ?
A. Needle beam method

B. Army method
C. German method
D. Italian method
The most suitable soil for compressed air tunneling is________________?
A. silt
B. sand
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C. clay
D. gravel
Which of the following methods of tunneling is used for long tunnels at great depths ?
A. Army method
B. Needle beam method
C. Austrian method
D. English method
What is the correct sequence of the following events in rock tunnelling?
1. marking tunnel profile

2. loading explosives and blasting
3. checking misfire
4. mucking
5. removing foul gas
6. setting up and drilling
7. guniting
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes ?
D. 1,6,2,5,3,4,7
Which one of the following is considered to be an advantage of the heading and benching method of
tunnel construction?
A. It is suitable for construction in unstable rocks

B. In this method, it is easy to install timber support
C. Tunnelling can be continuous and the work can be expedited
Which one of the following is a component of a shield for tunnelling ?
A. liner plate
B. trench jack
C. stiffener
D. cutting edge
Drift method of tunnelling is used to construct tunnels in__________________?
A. soft grounds
B. rock
C. self supporting grounds
D. broken grounds
In Belgium method of tunneling _________________?

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A. construction of side walls is completed before invert and roof arch are built
B. construction of roof arch is completed before side walls and invert are built
C. construction of invert is completed before side walls and roof arch are built
D. construction of invert and side walls is completed before roof arch is built
Ribs are used for strengthening and stiffening the liner plate for tunnels of diameter greater
than_____________________?
A. 2 m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
If ‘D’ is the diameter of tunnel in meters, then the thickness of lining in mm, as per the empirical
formula is given by_________________?
A. 42 D
B. 82 D
C. 104 D
D. 124 D
Which of the following is not a component of the shield ?
A. propelling jacks
B. liner plate
C. hood
D. tail
If ‘N’ is the number of shafts used, then the total number of feces available for attacking the
excavation and construction in tunnels are_________________________?
A. 2N
B. N + 2
C. 2 N + 1
D. 2 N + 2
Circular section of tunnels is not suitable for________________?
A. carrying water
B. non-cohesive soils
C. tunnels driven by shield method
D. placement of concrete lining
As compared to a single free face, if a charge of explosive is placed equidistant from two faces, then
the yield___________________?
A. remains same
B. decreases
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C. increases by 2.25 times

D. increases by 3.5 times
What is the correct sequence of the following events of construction of a shaft in rock ?
1. drilling and blasting

2. timbering
3. pumping
4. mucking
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes?
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,4,2,3
Which of the following are percussion drills ?
(i) shot drill

(ii) diamond drill
(iii) wagon drill
(iv) churn drill
select correct answer?
A. (i) and (ii) are correct

B. (iii) and (iv) are coiTect
Railway Engineering
The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to_________________?
A. increase the lateral strength

B. increase the vertical stiffness
C. avoid the stress concentration
D. reduce the wear
52 kg rails are mostly used in__________________?
A. Broad Gauge
B. Meter Gauge
C. Narrow Gauge
D. both (A) and (B)
Head width of 52 kg rail section is________________?
A. 61.9 mm
B. 66.7mm
C. 67mm
D. 72.33 mm
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Ordinary rails are made of_______________?
A. mild steel
B. cast iron
C. wrought iron
D. high carbon steel
Number offish bolts per fish plate is________________?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Largest dimension of a rail is its________________?
A. height
B. foot width
C. head width
D. any of the above
Gauge is the distance between_______________?
A. center to center of rails

B. running faces of rails
C. outer faces of rails
For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is_________________?
A. Broad Gauge
B. Meter Gauge
C. Narrow Gauge
D. any of the above
The slipping of driving wheels of locomotives on the rail surface causes_______________?
A. wheel burns
B. hogging of rails
C. scabbing of rails
D. corrugation of rails
The height of the rail for 52 kg rail section is_______________?
A. 143 mm
B. 156 mm
The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as______________?
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A. 1:1
B. 1.5:1
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge faces of the rail is
kept as_________________?
A. 10mm
B. 13mm
C. 16mm
D. 19 mm
Anti creep bearing plates are provided on_________________?
A. bridges and approaches

B. joints
C. both (A) and (B)
The maximum degree of curvature for Meter Gauge is limited to_________________?
A. 10°
B. 16°
C. 30°
D. 40°
When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as_________________?
A. supported rail joint

B. suspended rail joint
C. bridge joint
D. base joint
Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm with 75cm
sleeper spacing is________________?
A. 15 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 25 cm
D. 30cm
For a Broad Gauge route with M+7 sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail length
is________________?
A. 18
B. 19
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C. 20
D. 21
Composite sleeper index is the index of___________________?
A. hardness and strength

B. strength and toughness
C. toughness and wear resistance
D. wear resistance and hardness
Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is__________________?
A. one on either side

B. two outside and one inside
C. one outside and two inside
D. two outside and two inside
Flat mild steel bearing plates are used_________________?
A. for points and crossings in the lead portion
At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad Gauge
is______________?
A. 51
B. 62
C. 70
D. 78
The type of spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is_________________?
A. dog spike
B. rail screw
C. elastic spike
D. round spike
Loose jaws of steel trough sleepers are made of___________________?
A. cast steel
B. mild steel
C. cast iron
D. spring steel
Pandrol clips cannot be used with__________________?
A. wooden sleepers
B. concrete sleepers
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C. CST-9 sleepers
D. steel trough sleepers
The limiting value of cant excess for Broad Gauge is________________?
A. 55 mm
B. 65 mm
C. 75 mm
D. l00 mm
Normally the limiting value of cant is________________?
A. G/8
B. G/10
C. G/12
D. G/15
where G is the gauge
The limiting value of cant deficiency for Meter Gauge routes is__________________?
A. 40 mm
B. 50 mm
C. 75 mm
D. 100 mm
Normally maximum cant permissible in Meter Gauge is__________________?
A. 75 mm
B. 90 mm
C. 140 mm
D. 165 mm
The compensation for curvature on gradient for Meter Gauge is given by________________?
A. 70/R
B. 52.5/R
C. 35/R
D. 105/R
where R is radius of curve
A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as a contrary flexure from a main line If the superelevation
required for branch line is 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the superelevation to be actually
provided on the branch line will be__________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 64 mm
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C. 85 mm
D. 65 mm
Switch angle is the angle between___________________?
A. the gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail

B. the outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
C. the gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
D. the outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail
Maximum value of ‘throw of switch’ for Broad Gauge track is__________________?
A. 89 mm
B. 95 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 115 mm
Which of the following turnouts is most commonly used for goods train on Indian Railways ?
A. 1 in 8’/2
B. 1 in 12
C. 1 in 16
D. 1 in 20
Number of switches provided on a Gaunt-letted track is_______________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
The distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch for movement of
trains is called_________________?
A. flangeway clearance
B. heel divergence
C. throw of the switch
Heel divergence is__________________?
A. always less than flangeway clearance

B. equal to flangeway clearance
C. always greater than flangeway clearance
D. sometimes greater than flangeway clearance
The treadle bar is provided_____________________?

337
A. in the middle of the track a little in front of the toes of the tongue rail
B. near and parallel to inner side of one of the rails
C. at right angle to the rail
D. near and parallel to inner side of both the rails
Which of the following devices is used to transfer the wagons or locomotives to and from parallel
tracks without any necessity of shunting ?
A. triangle
B. turntable
C. traverser
D. scotch block
The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is_________________?
A. 5.5m
B. 6.5 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 8.5m
Yellow lighthand signal indicates____________________?
A. stop
B. proceed
C. proceed cautiously
In a shunting signal if the red band is inclined at 45° it indicates_________________?
A. stop
B. proceed
C. proceed cautiously
A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive. The number of driving wheels in this locomotive
is_________________?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14
On a single rail track, goods trains loaded with heavy iron material run starting from A to B and then
empty wagons run from B to A. The amount of creep in the rails__________________?
A. will be more in the direction of B to A

B. will be more in the direction of A to B
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C. will be maximum at the middle of A and B

D. cannot be determined from the given data
For laying the railway track, materials required are__________________?
A. Rails
B. FishPlates
C. Fish Bolts
D. Bearing Plates
The quantities required for one kilometer of Broad Gauge track will be
Metal sleepers are superior to wooden sleepers with respect to________________?
A. cost
B. life
C. track circuiting
D. fastening
For a 8° curve track diverging from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of a broad
gauge yard, the cant to be provided for the branch track for maximum speed of 45 km/h on the main
line and ‘G’ = 1.676 m is (Permitted cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6
cm)______________________?
A. 0.168 cm
B. -0.168 cm
C. 7.432 cm
D. 7.768 cm
Wear of rails is maximum in weight of___________________?
A. tangent track
B. sharp curve
C. tunnels
D. coastal area
A treadle bar is used for_____________________?
A. interlocking points and signal

B. setting points and crossings
C. setting marshalling yard signals
D. track maintenance
What will be the curve lead for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight broad gauge track?
A. 28.49 m
B. 21.04 m
C. 14.24 m
D. 7.45 m
339
The load on each axle of a locomotive is 22 tonnes. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then the hauling
capacity due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be________________?
A. 26.41
B. 19.81
C. 13.21
For a sleeper density of (n+5), the number of sleepers required for constructing a broad gauge railway
track of length 650 m is____________________?
A. 975
B. 918
C. 900
D. 880
A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive with 22.5 tonnes and on each driving axle. Assuming the
coefficient of rail-wheel friction to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive?
A. 15.0 tonnes
B. 22.5 tonnes
C. 45.0 tonnes
D. 90.0 tonnes
Consider the following statements about concrete sleepers_________________?
1. They improve the track modulus.

2. They have good scrap value.
3. They render transportation easy.
4. They maintain the gauge quite satisfactorily.Of these statements
D. 1 and 4 are correct
Which one of the following rail failures is caused by loose fish bolts at expansion joints ?
A. crushed head
B. angular break
C. split head
D. transverse fissures
Which of the following statements regarding ballast materials are correct ?
A. Brick ballast has poor drainage characteristics.

B. Coal ash is not used as ballast with steel or cast iron sleepers.
C. Gravel ballast gives better performance on soft formation.
D. Sand ballast causes excessive wear on top of rail
For the purpose of track maintenance, the number of turn out equivalent to one track km
are__________________?
340
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
When semaphore and warner are installed on the same post, then the stop indication is given
when___________________?
A. both arms are horizontal

B. semaphore arm lowered but warner arm horizontal
C. both semaphore and warner arms lowered
A triangle is used for__________________?
A. changing the direction of engine

B. transferring wagons to and from parallel tracks without shunting
C. separating all the sidings and shunting lines from main lines
D. preventing the vehicles from running off the track
The object of providing a point lock is_________________?
A. to ensure that each switch is correctly set
Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be changed while the
train is on the point even after putting back the signal ?
A. detectors
B. point lock
C. iock bar
D. stretcher bar
Flangeway clearance is the distance_________________?
A. between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing
B. between the gauge faces of the stock rail and the tongue rail
C. through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch
The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of cros¬sing (L) is given
by__________________?
A. CL = L – SL
B. L =CL-SL
C. SL = L + CL
D. L = (CL+SL)/2
Lead of crossing is the distance from the_________________?

341
A. heel of the switch to the toe of the switch

B. heel of the switch to the theoretical nose of the crossing
C. toe of the switch to the theoretical nose of crossing
D. toe of the switch to the actual nose of crossing
Lead of crossing is the distance from the__________________?
A. heel of the switch to the toe of the switch

B. heel of the switch to the theoretical nose of the crossing
C. toe of the switch to the theoretical nose of crossing
D. toe of the switch to the actual nose of crossing
If a is the angle of crossing, then the number of crossings ‘N’ according to right angle method is given
by_________________?
A. Vi cot(cc/2)
B. cot(oc/2)
C. cot(A)
D. Vi cosec(a/2)
Stretcher bar is provided________________?
A. to permit lateral movement of the tongue rail

B. to maintain the two tongue rails at the exact distance
C. to ensure exact gauge at the toe of the switch as well as the nose of crossing
D. to prevent any vertical movement between the wing rail and nose of crossing
One degree of curve is equivalent to__________________?
A. 1600/R
B. 1700/R
C. 1750/R
D. 1850/R
where R is the radius of curve in meters
The shape of transition curve used by Indian Railways is____________________?
A. cubic parabola
B. spiral
C. sine curve
D. lemniscate of Bernoulli
Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at_________________?
A. equilibrium speed
B. speeds higher than equilibrium speed
342
The steepest gradient permissible on a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having ruling gradient of 1 in
200 is___________________?
A. 1 in 250
B. 1 in 222
C. 1 in 235
D. 1 in 275
Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to
or_________________?
A. less than 2 mm/m

B. more than 2 mm/m
C. less than 4 mm/m
D. more than 4mm/m
The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is___________________?
A. 1 in 360
B. 1 in 720
C. 1 in 1000
D. 1 in 1200
The desirable rate of change of cant deficiency in case of Metre Gauge is_______________?
A. 20 mm/sec
B. 35 mm/sec
C. 55 mm/sec
D. 65 mm/sec
Number of cotters used in CST-9 sleepers is__________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is_________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is_________________?
A. 1.83 m
B. 2.25 m
343
C. 3.35 m
D. 4.30 m
The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by________________?
A. hook bolts
B. dog spikes
C. fang bolts
D. rail screws
The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is___________________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 10mm
Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the__________________?
A. wooden sleepers
Minimum composite sleeper index pres-cried on Indian Railways for a track sleeper
is_______________?
A. 552
B. 783
C. 1352
D. 1455
Standard size of wooden sleeper for Broad Gauge track is____________________?
A. 275x25x13cm
B. 180x20x11.5 cm
C. 225x23x13 cm
D. 250x26x12 cm
Sleeper density in India is normally kept as___________________?
A. M + 2 to M + 7
B. MtoM+2
C. M + 5toM+10
D. M
where M is the rail length in meters
The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the rails
is___________________?
344
A. flat mild steel bearing plate

B. mild steel canted bearing plate
C. cast iron anti creep bearing plate
Which of the following types of sleepers is preferred on joints ?
A. CST-9 sleeper
B. steel trough sleeper
C. wooden sleeper
D. concrete sleeper
Staggered joints are generally provided__________________?
A. on curves
B. on straight track
C. when two different rail sections are required to be joined
Creep is the_______________?
A. longitudinal movement of rail

B. lateral movement of rail
C. vertical movement of rail
D. difference in level of two rails
The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as adopted on
Indian Railways is___________________?
A. 6.10 m
B. 8.84 m
C. 10.21m
D. 10.82 m
The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on Indian
Railways is______________________?
A. 4.27 m
B. 4.88 m
C. 5.49 m
D. 6.10 m
The width of foot for 90 R rail section is__________________?
A. 100 mm
B. 122.2 mm
C. 136.5 mm
345
Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are deflected
at ends. These rails are called_________________?
A. roaring rails
B. hogged rails
C. corrugated rails
D. buckled rails
Fish plate is in contact with rail at________________?
A. web of rail
B. fishing plane
The main function of a fish plate is________________?
A. to join the two rails together

B. to join rails with the sleeper
C. to allow rail to expand and contract freely
60 R rails are mostly used in__________________?
A. Broad Gauge
B. Metre Gauge
C. Narrow Gauge
Tensile strength of steel used in rails should not be less than____________________?
A. 450 MPa
B. 500 MPa
C. 700 MPa
D. 850 MPa
The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is_________________?
A. 6155 mm2
B. 6615 mm2
C. 7235 mm2
D. 7825 mm2
Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its__________________?
A. head
B. web
C. foot
D. head and foot both
The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively __________________?
346
A. 12 m and 12 m
B. 12 m and 13 m
C. 13 m and 12 m
D. 13 m and 13 m
The rail is designated by its__________________?
A. length
B. weight
C. cross-section
D. weight per unit length
Two important constituents in the com-position of steel used for rail are_________________?
A. carbon and silicon

B. manganese and phosphorous
C. carbon and manganese
The following tests are conducted for rails _________________?
i) falling weight test

ii) tensile test
iii) hammer test
The compulsory tests are? (i)and(ii)
Which of the following factors govern the choice of the gauge ?
i) volume and nature of traffic

ii) speed of train
iii) physical features of the country
The correct answer is ? (i), (ii) and (iii)
The formation width for a railway track depends on the_________________?
i) type of gauge
ii) number of tracks to be laid side by side
iii) slope of sides of embankment or cutting
B. both (i) and (ii)
Study the following statements regarding creep_________________?
i) Creep is greater on curves than on tangent railway track

ii) Creep in new rails is more than that in old rails
iii) Creep is more on steep gradients than on level track
The correct answer is?B. (i)and(ii)
In a B.G. railway track, the specified ruling gradent is 1 in 250. The horizontal curve of 3°
on a gradient of 1 in 250 will have the permissible gradient of__________________?
A. 1 in 257
B. 1 in 357
347
C. 1 in 457
D. 1 in 512
If ‘A’ is the angle formed by two gauge faces, the crossing number will be____________________?
cot A
Airport Engineering
An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation
factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be___________________?
A. 1 aircraft per hour

B. 2 aircrafts per hour
C. 4 aircrafts per hour
D. 16 aircrafts per hour
The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require________________?
A. only clearway
B. only stop way ,
C. either a clearway or a stopway
D. either a clearway or a stopway or both
If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the
monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport
reference temperature is____________________?
A. 32°C
B. 35.5°C
C. 48°C
D. 25°C
As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical
curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of__________________?
A. 0.1 %
B. 0.2%
C. 0.3 %
D. 0.4%
As per International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) recommendation, minimum width of safety
area for instrumental runway should be_________________?
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
The minimum width of clearway is_______________?

348
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 150 m
D. 250 m
The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and
1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective
gradient of runway will be______________?
A. 0.10%
B. 0.26%
C. 0.43 %
D. 0.65%
The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon______________?
A. weather conditions and navigational aids available

B. lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
C. lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
D. lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available
As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in
percentage respectively are______________?
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5

B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its
reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25
percent, the corrected runway length will be________________?
A. 2500 m
B. 2600 m
C. 2700 m
Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is_________________?
A. equal to empty operating weight

B. equal to maximum landing weight
C. less than empty operating weight
D. equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not
exceed_________________?
349
A. 15 kmph
B. 25 kmph
C. 35 kmph
D. 45 kmph
For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop
within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is________________?
A. 40 %
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%
Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance

of_______________?
A. 3 m from runway end

B. 6 m from runway end
C. 10 m from runway end
D. 15m from runway end
In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located___________________?
A. along the extended centre line of runway end

B. about 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
C. at the runway threshold
D. about 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area
should be______________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 5.0 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 10.0 m
Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R : The speed of the
aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.?
Select your answer based on coding system given below

As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the
number of movements allowed are__________________?
350
A. Zero
B. 300
C. 3000
D. Unrestricted
The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be_______________?
A. 1:5
B. 1:7
C. 1:10
D. 1:12
In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km
distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more
than______________?
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that
the_______________?
A. aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.

B. hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
C. overall apron area required is more
D. all the above
Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for
aircraft landing ?
1. Normal maximum temperature

2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes?
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,3, and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 4
The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient
on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be_________________?
A. 2845 m
B. 2910 m
C. 3030 m
D. 3130 m
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In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the
future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be______________?
A. 32
B. 36
C. 44
D. 68
Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes
of_________________?
1. runway orientation
2. estimating the runway capacity
3. geometric design of holding apron
select the correct answer?

C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1 alone is correct
Castor angle is defined as the angle______________?
A. formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is__________________?
A. equal to the maximum structural landing weight

B. less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. more than the maximum structural landing weight
D. equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
A. Apron
B. Hanger
C. Terminal building
D. holding apron
Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
A. Alligator cracking
B. Mud pumping
C. Warping cracks
D. Shrinkage cracks
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For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is________________?
A. 60 m
B. 120 m
C. 180 m
Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be
spaced closer during poor visibility conditions?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below?

The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions
is______________?
A. 22.5 m x 22.5 m
B. 30 m x 30 m
C. 22.5 m x 30 m
D. 60 mx 120 m
The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should
be________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:8
D. 1:40
The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in
approach lighting system are_________________?
A. 3 m and 30 m
B. 4.2 m and 30 m
C. 4.2 m and 50 m
D. 3 m and 45 m
According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are___________________?
A. Yellow
B. White
C. Black
D. Red
Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than______________?
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A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed
and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be_________________?
A. 450 kmph and 500 kmph

B. 500 kmph and 450 kmph
As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will
be________________?
A. 1500 m and 600 m

B. 2100 m and 750 m
C. 1500 m and 750 m
D. 2100 m and 600 m
The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is________________?
A. 150 m
B. 300 m
C. 600 m
D. 750 m
Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway
length_________________?
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation
above the mean sea level
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at
the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard
atmospheric temperature at that elevation
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further
increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient
Select the correct statment
Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport capacity: Reason R
:Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation_________________?
Estimating and Costing

The rate of an item of work depends on_________________?
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A. Specifications of works
B. Specifications of materials
C. Proportion of mortar
D. All the above
The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is________________?
A. Quantity of the materials

B. Availability of materials
C. Transportation of materials
D. All the above
The plinth area of a building not includes_________________?
A. Area of the walls at the floor level

B. Internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
C. Lift and wall including landing
D. Area of cantilevered porch
While estimating a reinforced cement structure, the omitted cover of concrete is

assumed_______________?
A. At the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
B. In thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
C. For reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar which is
more
D. All the above
While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unit
is________________?
A. Metre for length

B. Cubic metre for area
C. Square metres for volume
D. Litre for capacity
The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of_______________?
A. One or more than one brick wall

B. Brick work in arches
C. Reinforced brick work
D. Half brick wall
The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is________________?
A. The end sections are parallel planes

B. The mid-area of a pyramid is half the average area of the ends
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C. The volume of the Prismoidal is over-estimated and hence a Prismoidal correction is applied
D. All the above
According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is_______________?
A. 23 cm × 11.5 cm × 7.5 cm
B. 25 cm × 13 cm × 7.5 cm
C. 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cmD. 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
The cross -sections for a highway is taken at_________________?
A. Right angle to the centre line

B. 30 metres apart
C. Intermediate points having abrupt change in gradient
D. All the above
In the mid-section formula__________________?
A. The mean depth is the average of depths of two consecutive sections

B. The area of mid-sections is calculated by using mean depth
C. The volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the distance
between the two original sections
D. All of the above
A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick
gravel. The box cutting in road crust is__________________?
A. 500 m3
B. 1000 m 3
C. 1500 m3
D. 2000 m3
If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length, and the ground is
also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by_______________?
A. Mid-section formula
B. Trapezoidal formula
C. Prismoidal formula
D. All the above
Brick walls are measured in sq. m if the thickness of the wall is_________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. None of these
The rate of payment is made for 100 cu m (per % cu m) in case of__________________?

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A. Earth work in excavation

B. Rock cutting
C. Excavation in trenches for foundation
D. All the above
Pick up the correct statement regarding the centre line method of estimating a building?
A. Product of the centre line of the walls and area of cross-section of any item, gives total quantity of the
item
B. The centre line is worked out separately for different sections of walls of a building
C. The centre line length is reduced by half the layer of main wall joining the partition wall
D. All the above
The following item of earth work is not measured separately ?
A. Setting out of works

B. Site clearance
C. Steps in deep excavation
D. All the above
The area of the cross-section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure,
is________________?
A. [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² – s²)

B. [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² – s5)
C. [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r – s)
D. None of these
The measurement is made in square metre in case of_________________?
A. Cement concrete in foundation

B. R.C.C. structure
C. Hollow concrete block wall
D. None of these
Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings________________?
A. Water closets
B. Flushing pipes
C. Lavatory basins
D. All the above
For the construction of buildings, the subheads of the estimate are________________?
A.Earthwork, Concrete work, Brick work

B. Brickwork, Stone work, Roofing
C. Brickwork Flooring, Wood work, Steel work
D. All the above
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The cross -section of a road partly in banking and partly in cutting is shown in the given
figure. The area of the shaded portion is__________________?
A. b – rd)²/(r – s)
B. b – rd)²/(r + s)
C. ½ × (b + rd)²/(r – s)
D. b – rd)²/(s – r)
The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq.m in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30 cm,
is termed as_______________?
A. Excavation
B. Surface dressing
C. Cutting
D. Surface excavation
As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per capita per
minute, is taken________________?
A. 1.80 litres for 5 to 10 users

B. 1.20 litres for 15 users
C. 1.35 for 20 users
D. All the above
The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is_________________?
A. 1.5 m 3
B. 2.5 m3
C. 3.5 m3
D. 5.0 m3
The area is measured correct to the nearest___________________?
A. 0.01 sqm
B. 0.02 sqm
C. 0.03 sqm
D. 0.04 sqm
In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to centre distance
between the walls and_________________?
A. Breadth of the wall

B. Half breadth of wall on each side
C. One fourth breadth of wall on each side
D. None of these
Pick up the excavation where measurements are made in square metres for payment ?
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A. Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m
B. Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths
C. Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths
D. Both B. and C.
The trap which is provided to disconnect the house drain from the street sewer is
called_________________?
A. Master trap
B. Intercepting trap
C. Interception manhole
D. All the above
The cost of the earthwork in excavation for the surface drain of cross-section shown in the given
figure for a total length of 5 metres @ Rs. 450% cum, is_______________?
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 425
C. Rs. 450
D. Rs. 500
The measurement is not made in square metres in case of________________?
A. D.P.C. (Damp proof course)

B. Form works
C. Concrete Jeffries
D. R.C. Chhajja
Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate
exceeds_________________?
A. 2.0 %
B. 2.5 %
C. 4.0 %
D. 5.0 %
The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per mansion per day__________________?
A. 2.5 sqm
B. 5.0 sqm
C. 7.5 sqm
D. 10 sqm
While preparing a detailed estimate__________________?

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A. Dimension should be measured correct to 0.01 m

B. Area should be measured correct to 0.01 sqm
C. Volume should be measured correct to 0.01 cum
D. All the above
The most reliable estimate is_________________?
A. Detailed estimate
B. Preliminary estimate
C. Plinth area estimate
D. Cube rate estimate
According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is_________________?
A. Length, breadth, height

B. Breadth, length, height
C. Height, length, breadth
D. None of these
The item of the brick structure measured in sq.m, is___________________?
A. Reinforced brick work

B. Broken glass coping
C. Brick edging
D. Brick work in arches
The reduced levels of points, 30 metres apart along the longitudinal section of a road portion between
chainages 5 and 9 are shown in the given figure. If there is a uniform up-gradient of the road 120 in 1,
the chainage of the point with no filling or cutting is__________________?
A. (6 + 15) chains
B. (6 + 12) chains
C. (6 + 18) chains
D. None of these
Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to__________________?
A. Main soil pipe

B. Bottom of P trap W.C.
C. Top of P trap W.C.
D. Side of water closet
A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular with radius 1000 m of
the centre line. It subtends 180° at the centre. If the height of the bank is 1 m at the lower end, and
side slopes 2:1, the earth work involved ?
A. 26,000 m3
B. 26,500 m3
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C. 27,000 m3
D. 27,500 m3
The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in square
metres_______________?
A. Root slabs
B. Floors
C. Wall panels
D. All the above
The total length of a cranked bar through a distance D. at 45° in case of a beam of effective length L,
is_________________?
A. L + 0.42 d
B. L + (2 × 0.42 d)
C. L – (0.42 d)
D. L – (2 × 0.4 d)
The measurement is made for stone work in square metre in case of________________?
A. Wall facing
B. Columns, lintels, copings
C. Building work
D. A. and D. of the above
The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is_______________?
A. 2.5 sq m
B. 4.0 sq m
C. 6.0 sq m
D. 8.0 sq m
Carpet area does not include the area of_________________?
A. The walls along with doors and other openings

B. Bath room and lavatory
C. Kitchen and pantry
D. All the above
In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes_______________?
A. Setting and laying

B. Bed concreting
C. Connection to drains
D. All of these
The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a base drainage system________________?

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A. At every change of direction

B. At every change of gradient
C. At every 30 m intervals
D. All the above
The ‘centre line method’ is specially adopted for estimating_________________?
A. Circular buildings
B. Hexagonal buildings
C. Octagonal buildings
D. All the above
The unit of measurement is per quintal for the following?
A. Collapsible gates with rails
B. Rolling shutters
C. Expanded metal wire netting
D. M.S. reinforcement of R.C.C. works
The order of booking dimensions is________________?
A. Length, breadth, height

B. Breadth, length, height
C. Height, breadth, length
D. None of these
The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is________________?
A. D [first area + last area + Even area + 2 odd areas]

B. D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Even area + 2 odd areas]
C. D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Even area + 4 odd areas]
D. D/6 [first area + odd areas]
A. The incidental expenses of a miscellaneous character which could not be predicted during preparation
of the estimate, is called contingencies
B. Additional supervising staff engaged at work site, is called work charged establishment
C. Detailed specifications specify qualities, quantities and the proportions of materials to be used for a
particular item
D. All the above
The diameter of a domestic sewer pipe laid at gradient 1 in 100 is

recommended___________________?
362
A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 175 mm
Pick up the incorrect statement regarding a master trap from the following ?
A. It is provided in between the lower end of the house drain and the street sewer
B. It is provided a cleaning eye at the top of the trap
C. The mica flap valve which opens inwards only, is fitted at the top of the inlet pipe
D. The water seal is less than that of ordinary traps
period in a septic tank is assumed___________________?
The detention
A. 20 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes
If B is the width of formation, d is the height of the embankment, side slope S : 1, for a highway with
no transverse slope, the area of cross-section is___________________?
A. B + d + Sd
B. Bd + Sd2
C. B × d – Sd1/2
D. ½ (Bd + Sd2)
Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate______________?
A. Wall thickness
B. Room area
C. W.C. area
D. Courtyard area
The minimum width of a septic tank is taken__________________?
A. 70 cm
B. 75 cm
C. 80 cm
D. 90 cm
The expected out turn for earth work in excavation in ordinary soil per workman per day
is_______________?
A. 1.00 cum
B. 2.00 cum
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C. 3.00 cum
D. 4.00 cum
The brick work is measured in sq metre, in case of_________________?
A. Honey comb brick work

B. Brick flat soling
C. Half brick walls or the partition
D. All the above
The item of steel work which is measured in sq.m, is_________________?
A. Collapsible gates
B. Rolling shutters
C. Ventilators and glazing
D. All the above
The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in________________?
A. Cub. m
B. Sq. m
C. Metres
D. None of these
The volume is measured correct to the nearest__________________?
A. 0.01 cum
B. 0.02 cum
C. 0.03 cum
D. 0.04 cum
88 is 1400 kg/cm2 and bond stress is 6 kg/cm2, the If tensile stress of a steel rod of diameter required
bond length of the rod is____________________?
A. 30 D
B. 39 D
C. 50 D
D. 59 D
Size, capacity and materials need be specified for__________________?
A. Bib-cocks
B. Stop-cocks
C. Ball valves
D. All the above
The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to_________________?

364
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 25 %
The weight of an item is measured correct to nearest_________________?
A. 0.25 kg
B. 0.50 kg
C. 0.75 kg
D. 1.00 kg
Berms are provided in canals if these are__________________?
A. Fully in excavation
B. Partly in excavation and partly in embankment
C. Fully in embankment
D. All the above
A. The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contingencies, work charged establishment,
tool and plants, is called work value
B. The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental, establishment and travelling
charges, is called actual cost
C. The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure on the work, is
called administrative approval
D. All the above
A. The earth work of cutting in trenches or borrow pits in fairly uniform ground is measured with the help
of average depths of the dead men
B. The earth work in trenches or borrow pits in irregular ground is measured by taking the difference in
levels before and after completion of work
C. The earth work in trenches or borrow pits, where neither a nor b is feasible, are measured from the
fillings after deduction of voids
D. All the above
Referring of given figure, pick up the correct statement from the following?
A. The total length of centre line of four walls is 20 m

B. Length of long wall out-to -out is 6.80 m
C. Length of short walls in-to-in is 3.20 m
D. All the above

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A. Lead is the average horizontal straight distance between the borrow pit and the place of spreading soil
B. The lead is calculated for each block of the excavated area
C. The unit of lead is 50 m for a distance upto 500 m
D. The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead exceeds 2 km
A. In order to check up the average depth of excavation, ‘Dead man s’ are left at the mid-widths of
borrow pits
B. The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with a level
C. The earth work in excavation to form the road embankment includes the formation of correct profile
and depositing the soil in layers
D. All the above
A. If the bed level is above N.S.L. the canal is called fully in baking and the berms are designed as 3 d
where d is full supply depth of water (F.S.D.)
B. Area of canal in cutting = BD + Sd2 where B = bed width, d = depth of cutting and S is the side slope
C. If F.S.L. is above N.S.L the canal is called partly in cutting and partly in filling and berms are designed
as 2d where d is full supply depth
D. All the above
A. Pointing is measured in sq.m

B. Plastering is measured in sq.m
C. Glazing is measured in sq.m
D. All the above
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following ?
A. No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement

B. No deduction is made for the openings upto 0.1 sq.m
C. No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq.cm in cross-section
D. None of these
A. Bricks are paid per thousand

B. Cement is paid per 50 kg bag
C. Lime is paid per quintal
D. All the above
Pick up the correct statement in case of water supply ?
A. Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately
B. Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item
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C. Pipes are classified according to their sizes and quality

D. All the above
A. The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth area
B. The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet area
C. The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath room and
glazed veranda, is called floor area
D. None of these

C. Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 cum
The slope of the outlet of ‘P trap’ below the horizontal is kept________________?

D. 14°
The expected out turn of half brick partition wall per mason per day is___________________?
B. 2.0 m3
For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required,
is_______________?
B. 0.94 m3
For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of cement required,
is___________________?
C. 0.274 m3
The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept____________________?
C. 75 cm to 80 cm
The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per day, is
________________?
B. 1.25 m3
Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is________________?
A. Cleats
B. Brackets
C. Bolts
D. All the above
The ground surface slopes 1 in 50 along a proposed railway embankment 150 m in length. The height
of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m and side slopes 2:1. If the falling
gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork calculated by Prismoidal
formula, is____________________?
B. 3225 m3
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S: 1 and length is______________?

C. L.D 1 + s2)
A. All pipes and fittings are classified according to their diameters

B. The diameter of the pipes is the nominal diameter of internal bore
C. All pipes are measured along the centre line of the pipes in metres
D. All the above

B. The gully trap collects waste water from the kitchen, sink, wash basins, etc
A. The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment

B. The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force
C. The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45°
D. All the above
Irrigation, Water Resources Engineering and Hydrology

The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between________________?
A. 0 to 10
B. 10 to 18
C. 18 to 26
D. 26 to 34
Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 Milli equivalent per
litre respectively will be classified as__________________?
A. low sodium water

B. medium sodium water
C. high sodium water
D. very high sodium water
The “outlet discharge factor” is the duty at the head of_________________?
A. main canal
B. branch canal
C. watercourse
D. distributory
For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity
equal to the greater of the water requirement of_______________?
A. rabi or kharif
B. rabi and kharif or sugarcane
368
C. rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane

D. rabi or kharif or sugarcane
The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of________________?
A. gravity water
B. capillary water
C. hydroscopic water
D. chemical water
With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops_________________?
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant
D. increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
Infiltration rate is always________________?
A. more than the infiltration capacity

B. less than the infiltration capacity
C. equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
D. equal to or more than the infiltration capacity
Infiltration capacity_________________?
A. is a constant factor
B. changes with time
C. changes with location
D. changes with both time and location
If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will
be______________?
A. equal to rate of rainfall

B. equal to infiltration capacity
C. more than rate of rainfall
D. more than infiltration capacity
Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?
A. tipping bucket type raingauge

B. Simon’s raingauge
C. Steven’s weighing type raingauge
D. floating type raingauge
Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly
inaccessible areas ?
369
A. tipping bucket type

B. weighing type
C. floating type
D. Simon’s raingauge
A 70% index of wetness means_______________?
A. rain excess of 30%

B. rain deficiency of 30%
C. rain deficiency of 70%
Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges

required per unit area is large for hilly areas. Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select
your correct answer according to the coding system given below ?

Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is________________?
A. cubic metre/sec
B. metre/sec
C. cubic metre
D. square metre
The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm
and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above
basin of 250 square km will be__________________?
A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 56 cm
D. 60 cm
If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing
water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be_____________________?
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm
and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100
mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will
be___________________?
370
A. 70mm
B. 80mm
The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of
the direct runoff hydrograph by_______________?
A. direct runoff volume

B. period of storm
C. total rainfall
S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of________________?
A. shorter duration from longer duration

B. longer duration from shorter duration
C. both (A) and (B)
Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are______________?
A. M°L°T°
B. rvfL’T”1
C. M° L2 T1
D. M’LV
An artesian aquifer is the one where______________?
A. water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure

B. water is under pressure between two impervious strata
C. water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation
A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is_________________?
A. designed for one purpose but serves more than one purpose
B. planned and constructed to serve various purposes
C. both (A. and (B.
The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called_______________?
A. useful storage
B. dead storage
C. valley storage
D. surcharge storage
Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of_______________?

371
A. capacity/inflow ratio
B. capacity/outflow ratio
C. outflow/inflow ratio
When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water
surface and at the base respectively will be_______________?
A. 0 and wH212
B. wH2/2and wH2/3
C. wH and 0
D. OandwII
where w is unit weight of water and H is the depth of water
The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as_________________?
A. hydrostatic pressure at toe

B. average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
C. two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of_________________?
A. 3H/47I above the base

B. 3H747t below the water surface
C. 4H/371 above the base
When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is
produced______________?
A. at the toe
For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal
to_______________?
A. 0.5 hw
B. 0.75 hw
C. 1.25 hw
D. 1.50 hw
where hw is height of wave
The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam
is_______________?
A. clay
B. coarse sand
C. silty clay
D. clay mixed with fine sand
372
Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing___________________?
A. rock toe
B. horizontal blanket
C. impervious cut off
D. chimney drain
Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?
A. ogee spillway
B. chute spillway
C. side channel spillway
D. shaft spillway
In a chute spillway, the flow is usually____________________?
A. uniform
B. subcritical
C. critical
D. super critical
If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be____________________?
A. one divide wall and one undersluice

B. one divide wall and two undersluices
C. two divide walls and one undersluice
D. two divide walls and two undersluices
The main function of a divide wall is to_______________?
A. control the silt entry in the canal

B. prevent river floods from entering the canal
C. separate the undersluices from weir proper
D. provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is
kept at_____________?
A. lower level
B. higher level
C. same level
D. any of the above depending on the design
According to Khosla’s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff
is_____________?
A. 0
B. unity
373
C. infinity
D. very large
The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to
flowing water is________________?
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. equal to zero
As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is_________________?
A. directly proportional to average par¬ticle size

B. inversely proportional to average par¬ticle size
C. directly proportional to square root of average particle size
D. not related to average particle size
Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel
into a natural drain ?
A. canal fall
B. canal outlet
C. canal escape
D. canal regulator
The sensitivity of a rigid module is_______________?
A. zero
B. between zero and one
C. 1
D. infinity
In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto______________?
A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs
A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called_____________?
A. vertical dropfall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall
Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto ___________?

374
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 5.0 m
The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of
distributing channel is called________________?
A. proportionality
B. flexibility
C. setting
D. sensitivity
If the R.L’s of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively,
then cross drainage work will be________________?
A. aqueduct
B. superpassage
C. syphon
D. syphon aqueduct
The meander pattern of a river is developed by_________________?
A. average discharge
B. dominant discharge
C. maximum discharge
D. critical discharge
An aggrading river is a_________________?
A. silting river
B. scouring river
C. both silting and scouring river
D. neither silting nor scouring river
River training for depth is achieved by_______________?
A. groynes
B. construction of dykes or leavees
C. both (A) and (B)
D. groynes and bandalling
If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken
as________________?
A. 1.2 D
B. 1.5 D
375
C. 2.0 D
D. 2.5 D
A repelling groyne is aligned________________?
A. pointing upstream
B. pointing downstream
C. perpendicular to bank
D. parallel to bank
A land is known as waterlogged_________________?
A. when the permanent wilting point is reached

B. when gravity drainage has ceased
C. capillary fringe reaches the root zone of plants
A river bend characterized by silting_______________?
A. scouring on concave side

B. silting on convex side
C. scouring on convex side and on concave side
D. scouring on concave side and silting on convex side
A runoff river plant is____________?
A. a low head scheme

B. a medium head scheme
A runoff river plant_________________?
A. is a medium head scheme

B. generates power during peak hours only
C. is suitable only on a perennial river
D. has no pondage at all
The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will
be equal to__________________?
A. load factor
B. plant factor
C. utilisation factor
A hyetograph is a graphical representation of___________________?

376
A. rainfall intensity and time

B. rainfall depth and time
C. discharge and time
D. cumulative rainfall and time
The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 100 mm. Depth-Area-
Duration (DAD. curves indicate that for the same area of 100 km2 the maximum average depth for a 3
hour storm will be__________________?
A. 100 mm
B. more than 100 mm
C. less than 100 mm
The most suitable chemical which can be applied to the water surface for reducing evaporation
is________________?
A. methyl alcohol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. cetyl alcohol
D. butyl alcohol
A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 2 cm. If <j) index remains at the
same value, the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 12 hours in the catchment is___________________?
A. 4.5 cm
B. 6.0 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 9.0 cm
The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m7sec at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is
(1/4000). The discharge of a flood at the same point and same stage of 10 m with a water surface
slope of(l/1000) will be________________?
A. V2 Q m3/sec
B. 0.5 Q mVsec
C. 2 Q m3/secA
D. 4 Q m3/sec
The flow-mass curve is graphical representation of__________________?
A. cumulative discharge and time

B. discharge and percentage probability of flow being equaled or exceeded
C. cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order
D. discharge and time in chronological order
The shape of recession limb of a hydrograph depends upon________________?

377
A. basin characteristics only

B. storm characteristics only
C. both (A) and (B)
For a catchment area of 120 km2, the equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of an S-curve obtained by the
summation of 6 hour unit hydro graph is_______________?
A. 0.2 x 106
B. 0.6 x 106
C. 2.4 xlO6
D. 7.2 xlO6
The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240 m3/sec . If the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow
which is constant is 40 m3/sec, then the peak of 4-hours unit hydrograph will
be__________________?
A. 20 3/sec
B. 25 m3/sec
C. 30 m3/sec
D. 35 m3/sec
For an annual flood series arranged in descending order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude
listed at position period m in a total data N is________________?
A. N/(m+l)
B. m/(N+l)
C. m/N
D. (N+l)/m
A unit hydro graph has one unit of_______________?
A. rainfall duration
B. rainfall excess
C. time base of direct runoff
D. discharge
If the risk of a flood occurring in the next 10 years is accepted to 10%, then the return period for
design should be__________________?
A. 1 + (0.9)010
B. 1 – (0.9)°l0
C. 1/(1-0.9°10)
D. 1/(1+ 0.9010)
If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it
indicates that______________?
378
A. demand cannot be met by inflow

B. reservoir was not full at the beginning
C. both (A) and (B)
The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called________________?
A. perennial stream
B. intermittent stream
C. ephemeral stream
Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks left
over in the past ?
A. slope-area method
B. area-velocity method
C. moving boat method
D. ultra-sonic method
The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability
of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring at least once in 10 years is given
by_____________?
A. (0.99)10
B. 1 – (0.99)10
C. (0.9)’00
D. l-(0.9)100
A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as_____________?
A. low head scheme

B. medium head scheme
C. high head scheme
The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called_________________?A.
design speed
B. rated speed
C. gross speed
D. operating speed
Lining of irrigation channels________________?
A. increases the waterlogging area

B. decreases the waterlogging area
C. does not change the water logging area
379
A river training work is generally required when the river is_______________?
A. aggrading type
B. degrading type
C. meandering type
D. both (A) and (B)
The main cause of meandering is________________?
A. presence of an excessive bed slope in the river

B. degradation
C. the extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when_______________?
A. high flood drainage discharge is small

B. high flood drainage discharge is large and short lived
C. high flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time
The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage
in___________________?
A. aqueduct and syphon aqueduct

B. aqueduct and super passage
C. super passage and canal syphon
D. level crossing
Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?
A. non-modular outlet
B. flexible outlet
C. rigid module
Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?
A. vertical drop fall

B. flumed glacis fall
C. unflumed glacis fall
D. all of the above
Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
A. vertical drop fall

B. glacis fall
380
C. Montague type fall

D. inglis fall
Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?
A. submerged pipe outlet

B. Kennedy’s gauge outlet
C. Gibb’s outlet
If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move
the grain on the bank is___________________?
A. 0.5 xc
B. 0.75 TC
C. xc
D. 1.33 TC
For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is______________?
A. zero
B. between zero and 1
C. 1
D. greater than 1
Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory will
be_________?
A. 19 m
B. 38m
C. 57m
D. 76m
The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic
mean depth R is given by______________?
A. 4RS
B. 11 RS
C. 7RS
D. 15 RS
Silt excluders are constructed on the________________?
A. river bed upstream of head regulator

B. river bed downstream of head regulator
C. canal bed upstream of head regulator
D. canal bed downstream of head regulator
381
A divide wall is provided_______________?
A. at right angle to the axis of weir

B. parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
C. parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it
D. at an inclination to the axis of weir
Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current
because______________?
A. it ensures less length of the weir

B. it gives better discharging capacity
C. it is economical
D. all of the above
For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope
is_______________?
A. sudden drawdown
B. steady seepage
C. during construction
D. sloughing of slope
In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway

is________________?
A. straight drop spillway

B. shaft spillway
C. chute spillway
D. ogee spillway
Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway________________?
A. depends on depth of approach and upstream slope

B. depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
C. remains constant
D. both (A) and (B)
The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway
respectively are_________________?
A. at right angle and parallel to weir crest

B. parallel and at right angle to weir crest
C. parallel to weir crest in both
D. at right angle to weir crest in both
Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is________________?

382
A. flood control
B. to provide sufficient depth of water in navigable channels, during low water periods
C. to preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
D. all of the above
Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by_______________?
A. drainage filters
B. relief wells
C. drain trenches
D. provision of downstream berms
As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams__________________?
A. are costlier
B. are less susceptible to failure
C. require sound rock foundations
D. require less skilled labour
The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam
is__________________?
A. B/2
B. B/3
C. B/4
D. B/6
The major resisting force in a gravity dam is___________________?
A. water pressure
B. wave pressure
C. self-weight of dam
D. uplift pressure
Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in______________?
A. hydrodynamic pressure
B. inertia force into the body of the dam
C. both (A) and (B)
The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by_________________?
1) constructing cutoff under upstream face

2) constructing drainage channels bet-ween the dam and its foundation
3) by pressure grouting in foundation
The corret answer is?
A. only (1)
383
B. both (1) and (2)

C. both (1) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres.
If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness
of the reservoir will start reducing after_________________?
A. 50 years
B. 150 years
C. 200 years
D. 250 years
For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to_______________?
A. useful storage – valley storage

B. useful storage + surcharge storage
C. useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage
D. useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage
The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between________________?
A. minimum pool level and maximum pool level

B. minimum pool level and normal pool level
C. normal pool level and maximum pool level
D. river bed and minimum pool level
A deep well_________________?
A. is always deeper than a shallow well

B. has more discharge than a shallow well
If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between
permeability k and transmissible T is given by_______________?
A. T = kd
B. T = k/d
C. T= Vkd
D. k= VTd
The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by_________________?
A. PT = 1
B. PT2 = 1
C. P/T = 1
D. P/T2 = 1
384
The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms
of_________________?
A. same duration only

B. same and shorter duration
C. same and longer duration
D. any duration
The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is________________?
A. 1 hour
B. one-fourth of basin lag
C. one-half of basin lag
D. equal to basin lag
The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm
respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated
as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be________________?
A. 50 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 140 mm
A current meter is used to measure the__________________?
A. velocity of flow of water

B. depth of flow of water
C. discharge
The runoff increases with________________?
A. increase in intensity of rain

B. increase in infiltration capacity
C. increase in permeability of soil
D. all of the above
When surface of transpiration is submerged under water, then potential evapotranspiration

is________________?
A. much more than evapotranspiration

B. much less than evapotranspiration
C. equal to evapotranspiration
D. equal to or less than evapotranspi-ration
Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate
of evaporation ?
385
A. flat water surface

B. convex water surface
C. concave water surface
D. independent of shape of water surface
A raingauge should preferably be fixed________________?
A. near the building

B. under the tree
C. in an open space
D. in a closed space
Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to________________?
A. pressure difference
B. temperature difference
C. natural topographical barriers
D. all of the above
Infiltration is the_______________?
A. movement of water through the soil

B. absorption of water by soil surface
C. both (A) and (B)
The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is
called_________________?
A. hygroscopic water
B. equivalent moisture
C. soil moisture deficiency
D. pellicular water
Hydrograph is the graphical representation of________________?
A. runoff and time

B. surface runoff and time
C. ground waterflow and time
D. rainfall and time
The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its
full growth is called________________?
A. effective rainfall
B. consumptive use
C. consumptive irrigation requirement
D. net irrigation requirement
386
The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually
delivered in the field is known as__________________?
A. water conveyance efficiency

B. water application efficiency
C. water use efficiency
Which of the following methods of applying water may be used on rolling land ?
A. boarder flooding
B. check flooding
C. furrow flooding
D. free flooding
Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is______________?
A. 135 mm
B. 165 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 215 mm
The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will
be_________________?
A. 637 hectares/m3/sec
B. 837 hectares/m3/sec
C. 972 hectares/m3/sec
D. 1172 hectares/m3/sec
Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if_________________?
1) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is increased

2) velocity of wind is decreased
3) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased
A. (1) and (i2)

B. (2) and (3)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under
empty reservoir condition, are________________?
1) Water pressure
2) Self weight
3) Uplift
387
4) Pressure due to earthquake

A. Only (2)
Presence of tail water in a gravity dam_____________?
1) increases the principal stress

2) decreases the principal stress
3) increases the shear stress
4) decreases the shear stress
A. (1) and (3)

B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
Variability of rainfall is____________?
1) largest in regions of high rainfall

2) largest in coastal areas
3) largest in regions of scanty rainfall
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. only (3)
Interception losses are due to_______________?
1) evaporation
2) transpiration
3) stream flow
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
To determine the discharge at a section in a stream from its rating curve, the required data
are_______________?
1) slope of water surface at the section

2) stage at the section
3) current meter readings at the section
388
C. only (2)
Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of________________?
1) unit duration
2) unit rainfall excess
3) infinitely small duration
4) infinitely small rainfall excess
The correct answer is?C. (2) and (3)
A. Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water logging

B. Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water logging
C. Lift irrigation increases water logging
D. all of the above
A. A meander increases the river length but a cut off reduces the river length
B. A cutoff increases the river length but a meander reduces the river length
C. Both meander and cutoff increase the river length
D. Both meander and cutoff decrease the river length
Study the following statements?
1. Levees are constructed parallel to river flow

2. Spurs are constructed parallel to river flow
3. Levees are constructed transverse to river flow
4. Spurs are constructed transverse to river flow
The correct answer isB. (1) and (4)
Dock and Harbor Engineering
When a ship floats at its designed water line, the vertical distance from water line to the bottom of
the ship is known as________________?
A. beam
B. depth
C. freeboard
D. draft
The minimum diameter of turning besin, where ships turn by going ahead and without tug assistance
should be___________________?
A. L
B. 1.5 L
C. 2.0 L
D. 4.0 L
where L is the length of the largest ship to use the port

389
As per Stevenson’s empirical formula, the approximate value of the height of the wave in metres is
given by__________________?
A. 0.34 VF
B. 0.5 VF
C. 1.5 VF
D. 3.4 VF
where F is the fetch in km
Assertion A : Intervention of undulations in the sea bed reduces the depth of wave at the section.
Reason R : No wave can have a height greater than the depth of water through which it passes?
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
At a given port, the fetch is 400 nautical miles, the maximum height of storm wave will
be_______________?
A. 2.073 m
B. 8.169 m
C. 9.144 m
D. 6.8 m
Minimum width of ship clearance shall be__________________?
A. B or 30 m
B. 1.5 B or 50 m
C. 1.5 B
D. 50 m
where “B” is beam of the design vessel
As compared to wall type breakwater, mound type breakwater_________________?
A. requires skilled labour

B. requires low maintenance cost
C. requires less material
D. results in less damage due to gradual failure
If the maximum spring rise is 2 m and height of the waves expected is 4 m , then the breakwater
height above the datum will be_________________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 4 m
390
C. 5 m
D. 7 m
In multiple point mooring system, vessel is secured to minimum of____________________?
A. two points
B. four points
C. six points
D. eight points
Which of the following is a fixed type mooring accessory ?
A. bollard
B. buoys
C. cables
D. anchors
Which of the following structures are constructed parallel to shore line to develop a demarcating line
between land area and water area ?
A. sea walls, bulk heads and groynes

B. sea walls, bulk heads and revetments
C. sea walls, revetments and groynes
D. bulk heads, revetments and groynes
Assertion A : Large size stones are required in stone revetment in shore protection. Reason R :
Resistance of stone to wave force is proportional to its volume and wave force is proportional to the
exposed area of the stone?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below

Which of the following structures protects the shore by trapping of littoral drift?
A. groynes
B. sea walls
C. revetments
D. moles
For designing the dock, the proportion of ship load assumed to be borne by keel blocks
is________________?
A. 5/8
B. 3/8
391
C. 3/16
D. 5/16
A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by principles of buoyancy Such a chamber is

called_________________?
A. Dry dock
B. Wet dock
C. Floating dock
D. Refuge dock
A ship strikes the berth generally at an angle_________________?
A. 90° with the face of the dock

B. 45° with the face of the dock
C. 30° with the face of the dock
D. 10° with the face of the dock
Which of the following conditions of loading imposes the greatest load on the foundation in case of
dry docks?
A. when the dock is empty

B. when the dock is empty with the ship of maximum tonnage
C. when the dock is full of water
D. when the dock is dry and is under construction
Which of the following are repair docks ?
A. marine railways, dry docks, floating docks, wet docks

B. dry docks, wet docks, floating docks, lift docks
C. wet docks, floating docks, lift docks, marine railways
D. wet docks, lift docks, marine railways, dry docks
Which of the following type of sea walls results in greatest protection of shore structures?
A. vertical sea wall

B. sea wall with batter
C. stepped sea wall
D. sea wall with concave face
When a wave strikes a vertical breakwater in deep water, it is reflected back and on meeting another
advancing wave of similar amplitude merges and rises vertically in a wall of water. This phenomenon
is called_________________?
A. Surf
B. Clapotis
C. Fetch
D. Swell
392
The significant wave height is defined is the average height of the_________________?
A. one – third highest waves

B. one – fourth highest waves
C. one – fifth highest waves
D. one – tenth highest waves
By increasing the rise of lockgates_______________?
(i) the length of the lock gate will increase

(ii) transverse stress due to water pressure on the gate will increase
(iii) compressive force on the gate will increase
select the correct statements?

B. (i) and (iii) are correct
C. Only (ii) is correct
D. Only (iii) is correct
If H is the height of the wave expected, then the height of the breakwater is generally taken
as______________________?
A. 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the datum

B. 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the low water level
C. 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the high water level
D. 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the mean sea level
The difference in height between highest high water and lowest low water is called_______________?
A. mean range
B. maximum range
C. maximum rise
D. mean rise
A. The progress of work in low level method of mound construction is very slow.
B. Barge method of mound construction is economical.
C. In low level method of mound construction, the area of working is limited.
D. In staging method of mound cons-truction, the work is not interrupted even during stormy weather
In a two lane channel, bottom width of channel is given by_______________?
A. Manoeuvring lane + 2 x Bank clearance lane

B. 2 x Manoeuvring lane + 2 x Bank clearance lane
C. 2 x Manoeuvring lane + 2 x Bank clearance lane + ship clearance lane
D. Manoeuvring lane + 2 x Bank clearance lane + ship clearance lane
393
As per Berlin’s formula, the length of wave in metres is given by_______________?
A. 1.3412
B. 1.5612
C. 1.7412
D. 1.9412
where ‘t’ is the period in seconds for two successive waves to pass the same section
In basins subjected to strong winds and tide, the length of the berthing area should not be less
than____________________?
A. the length of design vessel

B. the length of design vessel + 10% clearance between adjacent vessels
C. the length of design vessel + 20% clearance between adjacent vessels
D. twice the length of design vessel
Assertion A : Depth and width required at the entrance to a harbour are more than those required in
the channel. Reason R : The entrance to a harbour is usually more exposed to waves as compared to
the harbour itself__________________?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. A is false but R is true.
The maximum harbour depth below lowest low water is generally equal to_________________?
(i) loaded draft + 1.2 m when bottom is rock

(ii) loaded draft + 1.8 m when bottom is soft
(iii) loaded draft + 1.2 m when bottom is soft
(iv) loaded draft + 1.8 m when bottom is rock
select the correct the correct statements.
D. (iii) and (iv) are correct
Dead weight tonnage of a ship_______________?
i) varies with latitude and season

ii) is more than displacement tonnage
iii) is the difference between displacement load and displacement light
select the correct statemens.
A. i) and ii) are correct

B. ii) and iii) are correct
394
C. i) and iii) are correct

D. Only iii) is correct
Consider the following statements in regard to Beaufort scale for wind speeds______________?
(i) The Beaufort number ranges from 1 to 12.

(ii) Higher Beaufort number indicates higher speed of wind,
(iii) Beaufort number for calm is smallest and for hurricane is highest
select the correct statments.

B. (ii) and (iii) are correct
C. (i) and (iii) are correct
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Assertion A : Basin walls have to be of much grater height than dock walls. Reason R : Tidal basins are
subject to fluctuations of levels due to tidal variations?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
D. A is false but R is true.
If Hs is the significant wave height, then the average wave height and highest wave height
respectively are given by_______________?
A. 0.6 Hs and 1.67 Hs

B. 0.6 Hs and 1.87 Hs
C. 1.27 Hs and 1.87 Hs
D. 1.27 Hs and 1.67 Hs
(i) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in contact,
(ii) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent piers where ships are berthed,
(iii) Pier head is a structure constructed near the tip of a break water near the harbour entrance.
select the correct statements?
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

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1

Building Materials and Construction

Gypsum is a_________________? chemically precipitated sedimentary rock

Which of the following is a rock ? gypsum

Slate is formed by metamorphic action on______________? shale

Jumper is a tool used for_______________? quarrying of stones

A good building stone should not absorb water more than_____________? 5%

The correct answer is:

Quartitze is a_____________? silicious rock

The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be____________? hard

Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between_____________?

Cross cut saw is used for_______________?

A. cutting soft stones

Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than____________?

Spalling hammer is used for_____________?

A. driving wooden headed chisels

Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?

Sapwood consists of______________?

A. innermost annular rings around the pith

In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood ?

A. deodar and shishum

Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?

The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by_____________?

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is_______________?

Plywood has the advantage of_____________?

A. greater tensile strength in longer direction

A. has good strength along the panel only

First class timber has an average life of_____________?

A. less than one year

The main function of alumina in brick earth is_______________?

Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than_____________?

The age of a tree can be known by examining_________________?

Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick______________?

Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between_______________?

The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________?

The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________?

Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________?

A. cracking and warping of bricks

The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________?

A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick

Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?

Pug mill is used for_______________?

A. lime stone and alumina

The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________?

Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________?

A. it takes less time for burning

Quick lime is_______________?

Glazing is used to make earthenware______________?A. hard

Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________?

A. burning of lime stone

The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________?

A. lime and silica

Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the_______________?

A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________?

Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________?

With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________?first increases to a certain

The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________?

After storage, the strength of cement________________? decreases

The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________?30%

Gypsum consists of______________?

A. H2S and C02