Part A Office

Directions: In part A , you will hear short

conversations between two people. After 5.
each conversation you will hear a question A– It is the policy of the bank
about the conversation. The conversation
B– The man was not helpful at all
and questions will not be repeated, after
C– Her account at the bank is in order
you hear a question, read the four
possible answers in your book and choose D– The cheek should be cashed
the best answer. Then , on your
answer sheet , find the number of the 6.
question and fill in the space that A– Ask DR. Tyler to clarify the
correspond to the letter of the answer assignment
you have chosen. B– Show a preliminary version to DR.
Tyler
1.
C– Let her see the first draft before
A– Car repairs should be done at a
DR. Tyler see it
garage.
D– Talk to some of the other students in
B– The price was not too high
DR. Tyler’s class
C– The garage took advantage of the
woman
7.
D– The car had serious problems
A– DR. Clark is a good teacher
2.
B– Statistics is a boring class
A– Have a party
C– Two semesters of statistics are
B– Attend the International Students’
required
Association
D– The students do not like DR. Clark
C– Go to work
D– Get some rest 8.
A– He cannot do them
3.
B– They are finished
A– Leave immediately
C– It will be a difficult job.
B– Watch the game on TV
D– they will be ready Saturday
C– Start to play
afternoon
D– Eat a sandwich
9.
4.
A– A concert
A– He went to See the foreign
B– An art museum
student advisor
C– A flower shop
B– He went to Washington
D– A restaurant
C– He wrote to the Passport Office
D– He reported it to the Passport 10.
 A– He is at lunch
B– He is at the office
C– He is in class
D– He is at home
11.
A– Take the ten O'clock bus
B– Come back in five minutes
C– Go to New York another day
D– Call the airport
12.
A– a teacher
B– a textbook
C– An assignment
D– A movie
13.
A– Make corrections on the original
B– Make copies
C– Deliver the copies to Mr Brown.
D– Find the original
14.
A– She was sally Harrison's cousin
B– She was sally Harrison’s sister
C– She was sally Harrison's friend
D– She was sally Harrison
15.
A– The desk drawer won’t open
B– The pen is out of ink
C– She cannot find her pen
D– She is angry with the man.
16.
A– john is usually late
B– John will be there at eight-thirty
– John will not show up
D– John is usually on time
17.
A– She does not agree with the man
B– She needs a larger home
C– She regrets the cost of their
vacation
D– She thinks that houses are very
expensive
18.
A– He did not make a presentation.
B– He got confused during the
presentation
C– He should have spoken more loudly
D– He did a very complete job
19.
A– He has decided not to mail the
invitations.
B– He want to get Janet’s opinion.
C– He is waiting for Janet to answer the
phone.
D– He does not want to invite Janet.
20.
A– The baby is asleep.
B– The baby is very active.
C– The baby is not staying with the
woman.
D– The baby is just about to start
walking.
21.
A– The results of the test are not
available.
B– The experiment had unexpected
results.
 C– He has not completed the
experiment yet.
D– It is taking a lot of time to do the
experiment.
22.
A– She does not put much effort in
her studies.
B– She is very likable.
C– She prefers talking to the woman.
D– She has a telephone.
23.
A– See the doctor.
B– Get another job.
C– Go to the counter.
D– Buy some medicine.
24.
A– She will try her best.
B– She has to save her money.
C– She is still undecided.
D– She needs an application.
25.
A– She is glad to meet Robert.
B– She is surprised to hear from
Robert.
C– She does not enjoy talking with
Robert.
D– She was ready to call Robert.
26.
A– The man must stop working.
B– There is a little more time.
C– The test is important.
D– It is time for the test.
27.
A– The woman’s roommate took a
different class.
B– The book is very expensive.
C– The textbook may have been changed.
D– The course is not offered this
semester.
28.
A– Sally may get a bike for Christmas.
B– Sally already has a bike like that one.
C– Sally likes riding a bike.
D– Sally may prefer a different gift.
29.
A– He does not want to give Carol a ride.
B– He does not have a car.
C– He cannot hear well.
D– He does not know Carol.
‫قم بتشغيل الملف الصوتي واتبع التعليمات لالجابة على االسئلة‬
3 ‫ الى‬30 ‫من‬8
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test , you
will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation , you will hear several
questions. The conversations and questions
will not be repeated.
After you hear a question , read the four
possible answer in your book and choose the
best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space
that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take
notes or write on your test pages.
30.
A– Take a break
B– Go to work.
C– Do the other problems.
D– Keep trying.
31.
A– Whether to introduce the metric
system in the United States.
B– How the metric system should be
introduced in the United State.
C– Which system is better—the
English system or the metric system.
D– How to convert measurement from
the English system to the metric system
32.
A– Now the weather on radio and TV is office.
reported exclusively in metrics reported
exclusively metrics.
B– Road signs have miles marked on
them , but not kilometres.
C– Both the English system and the
metric system are being used on sign,
packages, and weather reports.
D– Grocery stores use only metrics
for their packaging.
33.
A– He though that a gradual adoption
would be better for everyone.
B– He thought that only metric should
be used.
C– He though that only the English
system should be used.
D– He thought that adult should use
both system , but that children should be
taught only the metric system.
34.
A– Unfriendly.
B– Patronizing.
C– Uninterested.
D– Cooperative.
35.
A– To change his travel planes.
B– To arrange a time to pick up his
tickets.
C– To reserve a hotel room.
D– To make a plane reservation.
36.
A– The man can save money by staying an
extra night.
B– The man should have called earlier.
C– She needs the man to come into the
D– She will mail the tickets to the man.
37.
A– Travel on May 19 as planned.
B– Wait for a cheaper fare.
C– Stay an extra day in Atlanta.
D– Return on Sunday.
38.
A– Go back to his hotel.
B– Pack his suitcase.
C– Call a different travel agent.
D– Go to the travel agent’s office in the
afternoon.
‫قم بتشغيل الملف الصوتي واتبع التعليمات لالجابة على االسئلة‬
50 ‫ الى‬39 ‫من‬
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test , you
will hear several short talks . After each
talk , you will hear some questions. The A– Transportations on the Pacific Coast.
talks and questions will not be repeated. B– History of California.
After you hear a question , read the four
C– Orientation to San Francisco.
possible answer in your book and choose
the best answer. D– Specifications of the Golden Gate
Bridge.
39.
44.
A– Private industry.
A– Golden Gate.
B– Advances in medicine.
B– San Francisco de Asis Mission.
C– Space missions.
C– Military Post Seventy-six
D– Technological developments.
D– Yerba Buena.
40.
45.
A– Contact tenses.
A– Gold was discovered.
B– cordless tools.
B– The Transcontinental Railroad was
C– Food packaging.
completed.
D– Ultrasound.
C– The Golden Gate Bridge was
constructed.
41.
D– Telegraph Communications were
A– To monitor the condition of
established with the East.
astronauts in spacecraft.
B– to evaluate candidates who wanted 46.
to join the space program.
A– Eighteen miles.
C– To check the health of astronauts
B– 938 feet.
when they returned from space.
C– One mile.
D– To test spacecraft and equipment
for imperfections. D– Between five and six miles.

42. 47.

A– Archaeologists and astronauts A- The term “essay”.

were compared. B– Prose writing.
B– Astronauts made photographs of C– Personal viewpoint.
the Earth later used by archaeologists. D– Brainstorming.
C– Archaeologists have used advances
in medical technology developed for 48.
astronauts. A– The work of Alexander Pope.
D– Space missions and underwater B– The difference between prose and
missions are very similar. poetry.
C– The general characteristics of
43.
essays.
D-The reasons that the phrase
“personal essay” is redundant.

49.
A– It is usually short.
B– It can be either prose or poetry.
C– It expresses a personal point of
view.
D– It discusses one topic.

50.
A– They will prepare for a quiz.
B– They will write their first essay.
C– They will read works by Pope.
D– They will review their notes.
Reading Comprehension 55 min

Questions 1-12 refer to the following passage. The reasons for 5. It can be inferred from the passage that a significant event of
the extinction of a species and for the rapid rates of change the Cretaceous Period was
in our environment are currently the focus of (A) the appearance of many taxa
Line much scientific research. An individual (B) the dramatic effect of the dinosaur on the environment
(5) species' susceptibility to extinction depends on at least two (C) the extinction of birds
things: the taxon (the bio- logical group—kingdom, (D) the extinction of dinosaurs
phylum, class, order, family, or genus) to which a species
belongs, and the overall rate of environ- 6. It can be inferred from the passage that dinosaurs
(10) mental change. Fossil evidence shows that more mammals (A) included species that were mammals
and birds become extinct (B) were better represented in the fossil record than other species
than do mollusks or insects. Studies of the extinction of the (C) possessed disadvantageous traits
dinosaurs and other rep- (D) were not susceptible to extinction
tiles during the Cretaceous Period show that
(15) a changing environment affects different t!"! in different ways. 7. The word dramatically in lines 16—17 means
Some may be dra- matically affected, others less so. (A) strongly
The best way to answer the question of what causes an (B) inspiringly
extinction is to combine (C) flimsily
(20) fields of inquiry and a variety of viewpoints. Using the fossil (D) visually
record and historical documentation, the different rates of
the extinc- tion of various taxa and different responses 8. The word fields in line 20 is closest in meaning to
to environmental change can be detected. (A) areas
(25) Then the evolutionary development of the different species can (B) meadows
be compared, and traits that may be disadvantageous can be (C) studies
singled out. Finally, researchers can use mathemati- cal (D) careers
formulae to determine whether a popu-
(30) lation is likely to adapt itself to the chan- ging environment 9.From the passage it can be inferred that disadvantageous
or disappear. Hopefully, as more of this information is traits are
collected, spe- cialists in different fields— e.g. physiological (A) occurring at different rates
and behavioral ecology, population ecology, (B) a contributing cause of extinction
35) community ecology, evolutionary biology and systematics, (C) adaptable
biogeography, and paleobi- ology — will work together to (D) learned by mathematical formulas
make predic- tions about the broader changes that might occur
in the ecosystem. 10. The expression singled out in lines 27-28 is closest in
meaning to
1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? (A) isolated
(A) assessment of the work of specialists concerned with ecology (B) blamed
(B) a discussion of possible causes of extinction, and of ways (C) seen
to make predictions about environmental change (D) divided
(C) the changing aspects of our environment
(D) a comparison of the extinction rates of different taxa 11. According to the passage, the likelihood of a population
becoming extinct can be
2. The word susceptibility in line 5 is closest in meaning to (A) lessened by the efforts of a few concerned specialists
(A) insensitivity (B) unaffected by environmental change
(B) receptiveness (C) determined by mathematical formulas
(C) immunity (D) almost impossible to ascertain
(D) vulnerability
12. The word broader in line 38 is closest in meaning to
3. An example of a taxon would be (A) fatter
(A) a phylum (B) extra
(B) the rate of environmental change (C) wider
(C) a fossil (D) many
(D) studies of extinction

4. The author compares mammals and birds to

(A) mollusks and insects
(B) phylum and class
(C) dinosaurs and reptiles
(D) ecologists and biologists
 17. Which of the following would be an example of "the outward
Questions 13-23 refer to the following passage.
trappings associated with Christianity" referred to in lines 12-13?
The Quakers, also called the Society of Friends, are
(A) clergy
a Christian group that arose in the mid-seventeenth
(B) silent, leaderless worship
century in England and the
(C) concern for social reform
Line American colonies. Quakerism came into
(D) the doctrine of "God in every man"
(5) being in England in or around 1652, when George Fox
began to organize converts to preach his doctrine of
18. It can be inferred from the passage that early Quakers
"God in every man." The Friends were silent at their
experienced official persecution because
meetings, wai- ting for the "inward light." They
(A) they were known for "quaking" during religious services
believed peo-
(B) they helped found the state of Pennsylvania
(10) ple should sense God inside of themselves (without
(C) they came to America from England
church buildings, appointed preach- ers, written liturgy,
(D) their religious beliefs were considered subversive
or many of the outward trappings associated with
Christianity).
19. Why does the author mention execution in lines 18-19?
The Society of Friends is part of the left wing
(A) It is an example of the persecution Quakers faced.
(15) of the seventeenth-century English Puritan movement;
(B) It is an outward trapping of Christianity.
in America, Quakers were perse- cuted by Puritans.
(C) This serves as an example of William Penn's policies.
Quakers experienced much official persecution,
(D) Many religions were concerned with this issue.
including imprisonment and execution, for their belief
that the worship
20.The paragraph after this passage would most likely be about
(20) of God should be very personal. The term "Quaker" may
(A) the decline of the Quaker population since World War I
refer to their penchant for "quaking" during religious
(B) the similarities and differences between Quakers and Puritans
services, or it may be a derogatory reference to supposed
(C) ways in which Quakers today show concern for others
Quaker cowardliness and belief in pacifism.
(D) social reforms enacted by Quakers during
(25) Quakerism in the American colonies existed mainly
the American Revolution
in the Northeast. The American
Quaker population surged after 1682 when Quaker
21.From the passage, it can be inferred that the Puritans were
William Penn founded the state of Pennsylvania as a
(A) Friends
haven for Quakers and as a
(B) persecuted
(30) "holy experiment" in religious toleration. Quakers
(C) intolerant
were prominent and powerful in the Pennsylvania state
(D) executed
government in the period before the American
Revolution. During and after the Revolution, Friends
22. The word penchant in line 21 most nearly means
concerned them-
(A) appreciation
(35) selves with the plight of Native Americans. They also
(B) propensity
worked with escaped slaves and for the abolition of
(C) disinclination
slavery. They continue to be known for their efforts in
(D) proposition
social reform.
23. Why did the American Quaker population surge after
13. In which of the following publications would this passage
be most likely to appear? William Penn founded Pennsylvania?
(A) an anthology of English literature (A) Pennsylvania tolerated the Quaker religion.
(B) an introductory American history book (B) Pennsylvania forbade religions other than Quakerism.
(C) a book about Eastern religions (C) The Pennsylvania government tried to help escaped slaves.
(D) a basic math textbook (D) Social reform was important to most Americans.

14. The word their in line 8 refers to

(A) trappings
(B) preachers
(C) religious services
(D) the Friends

15. The word persecuted in lines 16-17 is closest in meaning to

(A) scrutinized
(B) lauded
(C) harassed
(D) believed

16. Where in the passage does the author give an example

of Quaker involvement in social issues?
(A) lines 6-7
(B) lines 16-17
(C) lines 27-29
(D) lines 33-35
Questions 24-31 refer to the following passage. 29. The primary function of this passage is to
The appearance and character of a hardened lava (A) explain the primary chemical com-ponents of lava,
field depend on numerous factors. Among the key including silica and oxides
variables are the chemical nature of the (B) predict when volcanic lava will appear
Line magma and the degree of viscosity of the liq- (C) warn of the limitations of viscosity and chemical analysis
(5) uid rock once it begins to flow. (D) discuss two crucial determinants of a hardened lava field's
Since the ultimate nature of lava is influ- enced by character
chemical composition, it is possible to predict certain
aspects of the final appear- ance of the field from a 30. The word exhibit in line 32 is closest in meaning to
sample of the molten (A) give off
(10) fluid. The main components of lava are silica and (B) put on
various oxides, including those of potassi- um, iron, (C) show
calcium, magnesium, sodium, and aluminum. (D) cause
Magnesium and iron oxides are found in high
concentrations in the dark-col- 31. This passage would most likely appear in which type
(15) ored basic basalt, while silica, soda, and potash of publication?
preponderate in the lighter-colored, acidic fel- site (A) an introductory college textbook on geography
rocks. (B) the national events section of a local newspaper
The viscosity of the liquid rock helps to determine (C) an introductory college textbook on geology
the appearance of the hardened (D) a tourist brochure for a volcanic region
(20) field's surface. When it issues, the lava is red- or even
white-hot. It soon begins to cool, and the surface
darkens and crusts over. In extremely viscous flows,
the underpart may yet be in motion as the surface
solidifies. The crust
(25) breaks up into a mass of jagged blocks of rock that are
carried as a tumbling, jostling mass on the surface of
the slowly moving stream. When the stream
eventually stops and hardens, the field is extremely
rough and difficult to tra-
(30) verse. On the other hand, highly liquid lava may
harden with much smoother surfaces that
exhibit ropy, curved, wrinkled, and wavelike forms.

24. The degree of viscosity in newly issued lava is a

critical determinant of
(A) the chemical nature of the magma
(B) whether the lava will be red or white-hot
(C) the ultimate nature of the hardened lava field
(D) the viscosity of the liquid rock

25. The chemical composition of a hardened field

(A) has nothing to do with the viscosity of the liquid rock
(B) will cause the crusting phenomena common in hardened lava
(C) is important in shaping the ultimate appearance of the field
(D) depends upon the degree of viscosity of the original
liquid rock

26. In line 20, the word issues most nearly means

(A) is dormant
(B) heats up
(C) traverses
(D) comes out

27. Knots of surface rocks are characteristic of

(A) all types of ultimate lava fields
(B) the initial stage of some lava field formation
(C) the end result of some highly viscous flows
(D) only highly liquid, wavelike lava forms

28. If the hardened lava presents a smoother wavelike surface

it is likely that
(A) it was not initially a highly liquid lava
(B) it results from a highly liquid lava
(C) its final form will be rough and difficult to traverse
(D) at issue, it was red-hot
 38. The word tyranny in line 20 is closest in meaning to
Questions 32-42 refer to the following passage.
(A) domination
The period of the American Revolution was a
(B) bossiness
time of contrasts in American fashion. In urban
(C) importance
centers, women enjoyed a wide
(D) evilness
Line range of expression in the fashions available
(5) to them, even though shortages might force a
39. Which of the following can best be said about the Paris
young lady to wear an outfit made from the bright
fashion industry?
red uniform of her British beau. The patriots,
(A) It has come to the forefront only recently, compared to
however, tended to scorn fash- ion as frivolous in
New York.
time of war. In remote
(B) It has long exerted a powerful influ-ence on American fashion.
(10) areas, patriotic groups led boycotts of British
(C) It retains its taste for gaudy, "macaroni" type excess.
goods and loomed their own woolen cloth.
(D) It is unable to break free from New York's influence.
In selecting clothes, stylish American ladies
depended on "fashion babies"—foot-
40. Black armbands were worn to show
(15) high dolls illustrating the latest Paris styles. This
(A) the tyranny of Paris fashions
infatuation with the fashion trends of the
(B) imported cloth from England
"continent" remained intact well into
(C) fanciful detailing
the twentieth century. Indeed, even today,
(D) mourning
New York's fashion industry has not fully
(20) escaped the tyranny of French design.
41. The word elaborate in line 29 is closest in meaning to
Mourning garments were almost impossi- bl#
(A) gay
to obtain since black cloth had to be imported from
(B) vulgar
England; black arm bands were introduced as a
(C) intricate
substitute. Gauze,
(D) square
(25) indispensable for petticoats, aprons, and ladies'
headgear, was also in short supply. Th#$# was also
42. It can be inferred from the passage that "macaroni"
a taste for outlandish acces- sories and fanciful
(A) was so named because of its resemblance to the
detailing: feathers in hats, elaborate buttons, and
continent of Europe
gaudily patterned
(B) was a very short-lived and ill-conceived fashion trend
(30) fabrics. These excesses were called "macaroni"
(C) had a more mundane application to petticoats and aprons
and are immortalized in the song Yankee Doodle.
(D) was not the fashion style of avowed patriots
32. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for
this passage?
(A) A Revolution in Fashion
(B) Clothing Shortages of the Revolution
(C) Clothing Styles in Revolutionary America
(D) Conflict in the Fashion Industry

33. The word beau in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) male friend
(B) husband
(C) father
(D) son

34. Which of the following can be inferred from the

passage about people's attitudes toward fashion?
(A) They varied according to political beliefs.
(B) They were determined mainly by geography
(C) They corresponded to a persons social standing.
(D) They were a matter of personal taste.

35. The word loomed in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) grew bigger
(B) wove
(C) picked
(D) quilted

36. What were clothes made from in rural areas?

(A) home-made wool
(B) imported British goods
(C) cloth stolen from the British
(D) gauze

37. "Fashion babies" were

(A) dolls for children
(B) 12-inch figures used to display clothes
(C) life-sized models dressed in current styles
(D) illustrations from fashion magazines
 47. In the second paragraph, the author mentions Mandy
Questions 43-50 refer to the following passage.
Ringer in order to emphasize which point?
Sapphira and the Slave Girl was the last novel of
(A) The novel displays Cather's mixed feelings about slavery.
Willa Cather's illustrious literary career. Although the
(B) The characters are based on Gather's childhood friends.
story takes place in
(C) One of the novel s purposes was to paint a portrait of
Line 1856, well before her own birth, she drew
life in nineteenth-century rural Virginia.
(5) heavily on both vivid childhood memories and tales
(D) The novel's characters are shown in a positive light
handed down by older relatives to describe life in
because Gather was a supporter of the Old South.
rural northern Virginia in the middle of the nineteenth
century.
48. According to the author, why is cather's attitude
Of Cather's novels, Sapphira and the Slave
toward slavery somewhat ambiguous?
(10) Girl is the one most concerned with provid- ing an
(A) She was knowledgeable about the legal and political
overall picture of day-to-day life in a specific era. A
aspects of slavery.
number of the novel's charac- ters, it would seem, are
(B) She did not denounce slavery directly, only in indirect
included in the story only because they are
ways.
representative of the
(C) She identified equally with slaves and slaveholders.
(15) types of people found in 19th century rural Virginia;
(D) She was unable to fashion a firm opinion on the issue.
indeed, a few of them play no part whatsoever in the
unfolding of the plot. For instance, we are introduced
49. One can infer that the author would probably
to a poor white woman, Mandy Ringer, who is
(A) like Gather if the author met her
portrayed as
(B) consider the character of Mandy Ringer irrelevant to the plot
(20) intelligent and content, despite the fact that she has no
(C) oppose the academic study Cather's other novels
formal education and must toil constantly in the
(D) have no appreciation of the novel's merits
fields.
The title, however, accurately reflects that the
50. Which of the following would be the best title for the
novel is mainly about slavery. Cather's
passage?
(25) attitude toward this institution may best be summed
(A) Sapphira and. the Slave Girl: Fact Versus Fiction
up as somewhat ambiguous. On the one hand, she
(B) Willa Cather: Racist or Abolitionist?
displays almost total
(C) Some Comments on the Final Novel of Willa Cather
indifference to the legal and political aspects of
(D) Willa Cather's Depiction of Nineteenth-Century Virginians
slavery when she misidentifies certain
(30) crucial dates in its growth and development. She
END OF TEST.
never really offers a direct condemna- tion of slavery.
Yet the evil that was slavery gets through to us in her
typically subtle ways. Characters like Mrs. Blake who
(35) oppose the institution are portrayed in a sympathetic
light. Furthermore, the suffering of the slaves
themselves and the petty, nasty and often cruel
behavior of the slave owners are painted in stark
terms.

43. What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) Cather's anti-slavery stance
(B) The backdrop of Cather's last novel
(C) Cather's strangely titled novel
(D) Life in the Virginia country

44. The author refers to Sapphira and the Slave Girl as

(A) a heroic tale of the Civil War
(B) a sweeping epic of the Old South
(C) using Cather's personal recollections
(D) a political treatise on slavery

45. The word vivid in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) disturbing
(B) buried
(C) forgotten
(D) clear

46. What is NOT true of Mandy Ringer?

(A) She is a slave.
(B) She is intelligent.
(C) She is uneducated.
(D) She is poor.