VICTORIOUS TRAINING AND REVIEW CENTER

2nd Floor, Garcia Building, Catarata St., along Sayre-hi-way, Poblacion, Valencia City Bukidnon

DAY 1 (JULY 13, 2019)

ASSESSMENT TEST-CRIMINOLOGY BATCH 2019

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. “The mouse will play while the cat is away”. The presence of adequate patrol system and continuous effort in
crime fighting will surely reduce criminal activities.
a. Enforcement of Laws
b. Ordinances and Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct
c. Preservation of Peace and Order
d. Prevention of Crime
e. Repression of Criminal Activities
2. When was automobile patrol introduced in Manila?
a. 1934 d. 1944
b. 1954 e. 1964
c. 1990
3. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing
them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
a. Low profile theory
b. High visibility
c. Theory of police omnipresence
d. Team policing
e. None of these
4. Based on the fundamental theories of patrol, suppression of the desire of offenders to commit a crime refers to
a. a. Criminal jurisprudence d. Patrol activity
b. b. Crime suppression e. Crime prevention
c. e. Crime control
5. While conducting patrol at the central business district during the night shift
a. Walk near the road curb.
b. Stay on high ground such as roof top.
c. Walk near the buildings.
d. Stay in the shadows on the building.
e. None of these
6. Unlawful assembly and riot are as contagious as a plague unless they are quarantined from the unaffected areas of
the community. In here, all persons who are at the scene should be advised to leave the area, thereby reducing the
number of potential anti-police combatants. This is known in anti-riot operations as
a. Arrest of violators
b. Containment
c. Dispersal
d. Prevention of entry or reentry
7. Special problems in crowd control and anti-riot operations include the following, EXCEPT
a. a. Arsonist d. Provocateurs
b. b. Looters e. None of the above
c. Snipers
8. It is group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engage in the achievement of goals &
objectives.
a. a. Patrol d. Police Organization
b. b. Police Administration e. Police Patrol
c. A & E only
9. Why it is that patrol is the most important function of the police?
a. it is most popular in making arrest
b. it is the backbone of the police organization
c. policemen are known to the residents
d. criminals go away when policemen are around

10. He the most important officer in the police organization?

a. a. Desk Officer d. Traffic Officer
b. b. Investigating Officer e. Chief of Police
c. Patrol Officer
11. A group of trained personnel being given special tasks for specific incidents; the use of the squad wedge, squad
diagonal or deployed line would be most likely for:
a. a. Teachers` hunger strike d. Combat maneuvers
b. b. Civil disturbance/disobedience e. Disaster and relief operations
c. SWAT Team
12. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the same on all
three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the police service is
of greatest demand. This is organization by:
a. Clientele d. Time
b. Purpose e. Process
 c. Shifts

13. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is
called
a. Patrol deployment program d. Patrol visibility program
b. b. Roving patrol program e. Police patrol program
c. Patrol un-uniformed deployment
14. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since
there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend?
a. a. Horse patrol d. Foot patrol
b. b. Mobile patrol e. Helicopter patrol
c. Bicycle patrol
15. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consists of __________________.
a. A driver and intelligence agent
b. A driver and traffic man
c. A driver and a recorder
d. A driver, recorder and supervisor
e. All of the above
16. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a ___________ where telephones or any means of
communication shall ensure open lines of communication.
a. a. Command post d. Field room
b. b. Operations center e. Safe house
c. Safe room
17. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be operated very quietly and
without attracting attention.
a. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
b. Mobility and wide area coverage
c. Shorter travel time and faster response
d. Mobility and stealth
e. Any of the foregoing
18. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police stations, there is a
specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance.
a. a. Vice control d. Traffic enforcement
b. b. Criminal investigation e. Patrol
c. Communication
19. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
a. Training of station commander
b. Adequacy of resources of the police station
c. Rank of the patrol commander
d. Salary rates of police personnel
e. Competency of the patrolman
20. 20. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats.
Which of the following will you implement?
a. Assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
b. Assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
c. Maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
d. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats
which are not covered by foot patrol
e. Any of the tactics is practicable
21. Small alley like those in the squatter’s area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police through:
a. a. Foot patrol d. Highway patrol
b. b. Mobile patrol e. Helicopter patrol
c. Bicycle patrol
22. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol
techniques.
a. a. Low-visibility patrol d. Decoy patrol
b. b. Directed deterrent patrol e. High-visibility patrol
c. Modern patrol theory
23. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.
The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________ for
successful theft is.
a. a. Ambition d. Intention
b. b. Feeling e. Opportunity
c. Motive
24. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the vicinity. In
the police work, this is called:
a. a. Data gathering d. Interrogation
b. b. Field inquiry e. Interview
c. Debriefing
25. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal
drugs.
a. a. Smelling d. Eating
b. b. Hearing e. Drinking
 c. Touching
26. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
a. a. Motorcycle d. Patrol car
b. b. Helicopter e. Bicycle
c. Foot
27. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after
reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your
origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied?
a. a. Clockwise d. Counterclockwise
b. b. Straightway e. Free-wheeling
c. Criss-cross
28. 28. It increases the opportunity to apprehend offenders by just blending to the community and waiting until
offenders believed that they were not detected, thus, commit crime.
a. a. Low profile theory d. Theory of police omnipresence
b. b. High visibility e. Team policing.
c. Community oriented policing
29. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires
the use of
a. a. Bike patrol d. Marine patrol
b. b. Mounted patrol e. Helicopter patrol
c. Automobile patrol
30. Which of the following is the conventional type of patrol?
a. a. Horse d. Canine
b. b. Foot e. Police
c. e. Bicycle
31. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
a. a. Patrol d. Investigation
b. b. Records e. None of the above
c. Traffic
32. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and surprise is lost which is one of the ______________
of air patrol:
a. a. Advantages d. Disadvantages
b. b. Features e. Importance
c. Errors
33. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly
crowds and riots?
a. a. Foot d. Bicycle
b. b. Horse e. Dog
c. Police patrol
34. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
a. a. Trumpet d. Radio
b. b. Horn e. Siren
c. Tambourine
35. Normally, it is performed by the police in a given area either on foot, mobile of other methods guarding and
observation by the police for the purpose of enforcing the law and crime prevention and suppression.
a. a. Proactive Patrol d. Foot patrol
b. b. Aggressive patrol e. Police patrol
c. Reactive patrol
36. A patrol officer rendering police duties must have knowledge of the law. This is important because;
a. He deserves respect from people
b. He need to enhance PCR
c. He must know whether there are law violations
d. He is the primary representative of the organization
e. He is responsible in filing cases before the court
37. A strategy wherein members of the force in plain clothes patrol areas on foot or in unmarked police cars where
street crimes became high risk.
a. a. Low visibility patrol d. High visibility patrol
b. b. Psychology of omnipresence e. Saturated patrol
c. Covert intelligence
38. The following factors shall be considered in determining the size of the beat for patrol purposes, except:
a. Area to be patrolled
b. Man-made and natural barriers
c. Number of men to patrol the area
d. Frequency of patrol to be used
e. None of the foregoing
39. A patrol method which consists of continuously driving around the patrol area waiting for something to happen
and to react accordingly refers to:
a. Pro-active patrol
b. Reactive patrol
c. Low visibility patrol
d. Community oriented patrol
e. High visibility patrol
40. All but one is a division of patrol goals:
 a. Apprehension and arrest
b. Non-criminal related services
c. Sense of community security and satisfaction
d. Recovery of stolen or embezzled property by the owner
e. None of these
41. Why is patrol considered to as the “backbone” of police organization?
a. Because it serves as the organizational foundation from which other specialization branch relied with
b. Because it will develop the community awareness and consciousness
c. Because it will provide assistance in case there community called for help
d. Because it will enhance the patrol officers in the field of patrol and investigation
e. Any of the foregoing
42. Bicycle patrol is the most practical method of patrol in small subdivisions:
a. Because it provides stealth and mobility
b. Because it is not expensive of fuel
c. Because it is more healthy on the part of the officer
d. Because it afford safety and security on the part of officer
43. To increased pressure on specific criminal or social order problems, as well as specific criminal elements by the
police.
a. Aggressive patrol strategy must be applied
b. Directed patrol strategy must be applied
c. Saturated patrol strategy must be applied
d. High visibility patrol strategy must be applied
e. Police patrol must be applied
44. Why is it citizen usually call first the police when a social problem occurs?
a. The police is constantly available when not needed
b. Dependable when called upon by the offender
c. Capable of providing advice to decide or settle disputes
d. The police is an instrument of justice
e. None of the above
45. Distinguish Crime Prevention to Crime Control
a. The latter denotes arrest and prosecution while the former denotes patrol activity through intensive patrol
method and activity
b. The latter eliminates the desire and/or opportunity to commit felony while the former supplant the former
in case of failure to prevent crime before the act escalates into a serious proportion
c. The latter talks about the proactive measure of prevention while the latter talks about reactive measure
d. The latter involves the physical and psychological measures of criminality while the former involves the
intensive police high visibility patrol
e. All of the foregoing
46. Deceptive absence of the police officers will let criminals believe that they will not be detected or caught if they
commit crimes. This is a theory of?
a. Low profile
b. Police omnipresence
c. Visibility patrol
d. Covert intelligence
e. High visibility
47. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
a. Adequate training of station commander
b. Adequacy of resources of the police station
c. Commissioned rank of the patrol commander
d. Just remuneration of police personnel
e. None of the above
48. Which of the following strategies is FALSE?
a. Patrol officers are assigned to the New Cops on the Block
b. Foot patrol places the patrol officers to greater danger than mobile patrol
c. Helicopter patrol is of no use in search and rescue operation
d. The PNP does employ foot patrol
e. None of the foregoing
49. What statement best describes “proactive patrol”?
a. An economical alternative system of policing
b. Addresses crime as its very root before it is able to develop a felony
c. A theory of omnipresence
d. Eliminate the desire and opportunity of crime
e. Prepare for the future courses of action
50. A communication that which occur within the framework of the informal organization.
a. a. Formal d. Informal
b. b. Verbal e. Non-verbal
c. Mixed
51. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas projects _____ thus, an effective crime prevention strategy.
a. a. Police discretion d. Police omnipresence
b. b. Police authority e. Police Effectiveness
c. Police patrol
52. The transmission, storage and display of documents in the computer system.
a. a. Radio d. Facsimile
 b. b. Telephone e. Electronic Mail
c. Cellular phone
53. This is known as the vintage type of patrol…
a. a. Automobile patrol d. Motorcycle patrol
b. b. Foot patrol e. Bicycle patrol
c. Horse patrol
54. This is the only unit in the police organization which is directly and constantly in contact with the public.
a. a. Barangay tanod d. Patrol force
b. b. Police force e. Traffic division
c. Investigation unit
55. What is the essence of police function?
a. a. Enforcement d. Patrol
b. b. Police visibility e. Crime detection
c. Police organization
56. Which of the following is best suited to the word “stealth” in the types of patrol?
a. a. Motorcycle patrol d. Foot patrol
b. b. Canine patrol e. Automobile patrol
c. Bicycle patrol
57. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
a. a. Motorcycle d. Helicopter
b. b. Patrol car e. Bicycle
c. CCTV
58. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
a. a. Trumpet d. Horn
b. b. Radio e. Siren
c. Telephone
59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
a. a. Horse d. Foot
b. b. Canine e. Police
c. Mounted
60. Which type of patrol should be utilized in the event of securing the place for bomb threat?
a. a. Mounted patrol d. Marine patrol
b. b. Foot patrol e. Canine Patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
61. Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the patrol officer must immediately report to the ________.
a. a. Desk officer d. Commander
b. b. Unit supervisor e. Supervisor
c. Dispatcher
62. In the police organization, the division that had been regarded as the core and at the same time the operational
heart for the reason that it performs almost all the function of police organization is referred to as the;
a. a. Traffic d. Intelligence
b. b. Investigation e. Patrol
c. Police
63. The primary function of the patrol division is crime prevention. In the effort of the division to perform their
function, patrol officers on beat should be able to eliminate the factors that contribute to the development of
crime, especially the existence of;
a. a. Desire d. Instrumentality
b. b. Opportunity e. Motive
c. Discretion
64. In police patrol, timely and appropriate exercise of judgement or decision in answer to whatever services required
by the public to any forms of situation is best describe to as;
a. a. Judgement d. Decision making ability
b. b. Common sense e. Motive
c. Discretion
65. In the fight of patrol division to prevent crime, the division should be able to eliminate the existence of
opportunity, which is their primary concern, and this is being realized by means of;
a. a. Patrol d. Police visibility
b. b. Presence in the area e. Performance of function
c. e. Investigation
66. The objective of patrol that falls under the category of protection, for it involves the prevention of crime through
the noticeable presence of police vehicles and personnel are called;
a. a. Traffic enforcement d. Selective enforcement
b. b. Preventive enforcement e. Law enforcement
c. Police visibility
67. Robert Peel, being the father of modern policing system identified the soundest among all criminological
philosophies and this is the principle of;
a. a. Law enforcement d. Prevention of crime
b. b. Order and maintenance e. Protection of life and properties
c. Social services
68. A system applied by patrol division that has been proven to be very effective patrol procedure. This is being
performed by identifying a certain area subject to a high crime rate and spends a greater part of their patrolling
time is referred to as;
a. a. Law enforcement d. Preventive enforcement
 b. b. Selective enforcement e. Traffic enforcement
c. Order maintenance
69. Among the different types of patrol, this had been regarded to as the second oldest and its use is very minimal in
cities;
a. a. Bicycle patrol d. Motorcycle patrol
b. b. Automobile patrol e. Horse patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
70. A type of patrol that has an advantage on stilt and mobility is referred to as the;
a. a. Bicycle d. Motorcycle
b. b. Foot patrol e. Horse patrol
c. Beat patrol
71. In this method of patrol cover and search, two patrol officers alternately take the load in the search and cover
each other as they progressively move on.
a. a. Spot cover d. Foot search
b. b. Leaf frog e. Quadrant
c. Clover leaf
72. Which do not belong to the group?
a. Covers a wider area
b. Ability to observe closely
c. Provides faster response to public calls
d. Provides constant availability to public
e. None of the foregoing
73. What is the only form of police service that directly attempts to eliminate the desire and opportunity to commit
crime?
a. a. Traffic management d. Criminal investigation
b. b. Patrol e. Juvenile service
c. Crime laboratory
74. Mr. Mendoza is a policeman; his ultimate goal in the society is what?
a. a. Enforcement of laws d. Preservation of peace and order
b. b. Prevention of crime e. Safeguarding the life of the citizens
c. Eliminate crime
75. Which of the following strategies is not true?
a. Patrol officers are assigned to the New Cops on the Block
b. Foot patrol places the patrol officers to greater danger than mobile patrol
c. Helicopter patrol is of no use in search and rescue operation
d. The PNP does employ foot patrol
e. None of the foregoing
76. It is the police function which serves as the Backbone of the police service. In all types of police situations, there
is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance.
a. a. Vice control d. Traffic enforcement
b. b. Patrol e. Criminal investigation
c. Crime lab
77. Which of the following is not true about police patrol?
a. The show window of the PNP
b. An indispensable unit
c. A preventive measure
d. Relies on common prudence
e. None of the foregoing
78. Which of the following is an advantage to telephone system?
a. Used only for oral communication
b. Information’s can be conveyed rapidly
c. Telephone technology generally permits only one limited number of telephone calls to be received.
d. The person receiving the telephone call usually has no means of determining the true source of the call
e. None of these
79. Which of the following is not included in the patrol function?
a. Inspection of Identified hazards
b. Investigation of crimes after this reported to the investigation section
c. Routine preventive patrol
d. Response to citizen calls for assistance
e. Any of the foregoing
80. The utilization of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement
of laws and maintenance of peace and order.
a. a. Assignment d. Designation
b. b. Deployment e. Employment
c. Disposition
81. This communication refers to behaviors such as the inflection of the voice, emphasis to given words, gestures,
behaviors, or expression of the body that impart information to a receiver.
a. a. Formal d. Informal
b. b. Verbal e. Non-verbal
c. Sign language
82. The responsibility of this unit is to conduct foot patrol in areas of high crime, respond to unsecured building to
conduct searches, and assist fellow officers in tracking down wanted criminals.
a. a. Mounted patrol d. Marine patrol
 b. b. Aviation unit patrol e. Canine Patrol
c. CCTV Patrol
83. They are task to provide protection to our waters from poachers and smuggling, illegal fishing and all other illegal
activities, which directly affect the water resources of the country.
a. a. Mounted patrol d. Marine patrol
b. b. Aviation unit patrol e. Canine Patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
84. If a crime occurs in the community where mobile patrol is maintained by the local police office, a call thus is
made in an easily remembered telephone like 911 and 117 from the time of the receipt of the call by the police
dispatcher to the arrival of the mobile patrol at the scene is referred to as:
a. a. Effectiveness time d. Pronto time
b. b. Mobile run time e. Police Response time
c. Call time
85. You are a patrol officer. You use your own judgment to decide in a particular situation that comes your way. This
description is refers to what?
a. a. The use of investigation d. The use of crime prevention
b. b. The use of supervision e. The use of discretion
c. The use of discarte
86. Which of the following do not belong to the group?
a. Capable to provide advice
b. Constantly available when needed
c. Fosters police corruption
d. Dependable when called upon
e. None of the foregoing
87. The police when unable to think of where else to turn and the facts that police are often the only available source
of help is the primary reason that these type of services are provided by police department.
a. Apprehension
b. Sense of community security and satisfaction
c. Non criminal related services
d. Recovery of stolen property
e. All of these
88. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in-progress call has been received through telephone or by
direct alarm signal is to?
a. Assign an investigator to investigate the witness
b. Clear the air for emergency broadcast
c. Call the investigators to report to crime scene
d. Send augmentation force
e. Call back up
89. The Chief of Police was formally informed of his subordinates’ improper or unlawful act but tolerated it and he
failed to do something to prevent the occurrence of the same. The COP can be held liable under the doctrine of:
a. a. Command Responsibility d. Gross Negligence
b. b. Gross Insubordination e. Public Accountability
c. Light offenses
90. The COP evaluates the types of program they implemented. What program evaluation being used if the evaluation
focuses on how the programs of activities are being performed?
a. a. Program evaluation d. Process evaluation
b. b. Impact evaluation e. Definition of evaluation method
c. Stress evaluation
91. The random and unpredictable character of patrol, cultivation of feeling of police omnipresence, high hazard
areas, adequacy of the number of man to meet the need, likelihood of criminal apprehension, and safety of control
officers determine:
a. Patrol coverage and deployment
b. Degree of police-community relations
c. Type of weapon to be used
d. Deployment of intelligence agent
e. Type of personnel deployed
92. . As one of the future researchers in the PNP; you were given a task to present your output showing the
comparison of crime statistics. What type of research are you going to prepare?
a. a. Observation d. Experimentation
b. b. Forecasting e. Review of previous research
c. Instrumentation
93. You are a chief of police of Marikina City. In planning you should know where you are going and how to be
there. What skill should you possess?
a. a. Good analytical mind d. Forecasting
b. b. Sound objective setting e. Prioritizing
c. Foretelling
94. PO1 Juggy uses his own judgment to decide in a particular situation that comes his way. This description is refers
to what?
a. a. The use of investigation d. The use of supervision
b. b. The use of discretion e. The use of crime prevention
95. Peace Keeping and Community Service
a. a. Information services d. Custodial Escort
b. b. Assisting other agencies e. None of these
 c. Serving court notices
96. Other police patrol duties consisting intervention between husband and wife conflict, landlord – tenants,
businessman – customer and the like. When does police action’s may properly perform?
a. During the conflict burst
b. After the conflict burst
c. When children or minors are involved
d. When there is criminal aspect involved
e. All of the foregoing
97. The primary concern of the police, as the saying goes, “control before the act escalates into a serious proportion.
a. a. Crime control d. Crime prevention
b. c. Order maintenance e. Crime suppression
c. Crisis intervention
98. PO1 X and Y while performing their basic patrol duty are often driving around their patrol beat waiting for local
criminals to commit crime in order to effect arrest “in flagrante delicto”.
a. a. Proactive patrol d. Reactive patrol
b. b. Crime prevention e. Crime suppression
c. Order maintenance
99. Request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions/orders/writs shall be acted only, upon
compliance of the following condition, EXCEPT:
a. Based on the order of the court or quasi-judicial bodies
b. Signed by the Sheriff or equivalent officer in quasi-judicial bodies
c. The order/decision/writ specifically provided the person or property to be seized or searched
d. Filed at least five (5) working days prior to the actual implementation
e. e. Original document of the final decision/order/writ must be presented or a copy duly authenticated by
the Clerk of Court or other authorized representative of court will suffice
100. In the conduct of search of moving vehicles, there must be atleast one:
a. a. Supervisor d. Chief of Police
b. b. Inspector e. Commissioned Officer
c. Provincial Director

101. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from
b. among the respected members of the community.
c. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay
Captains.
d. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
e. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
f. None of the above
102. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
a. A. District Director D. Chief, PNP
b. B. Provincial Director E. All of the above
c. C. Chief of Police
103. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are _____________.
a. A. Staff D. Line
b. B. Supervision E. All of the above
c. C. Management
104. Cadets of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of:
a. A. Senior Superintendent C. Superintendent
b. B. Inspector D. None of the above
c. C. Senior Police Inspector
105. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG?
a. A. RA 8551 D. RA 8557
b. B. RA 6975 E. None of the above
c. C. RA 6974
106. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically
deputized as representatives of the
a. A.. NAPOLCOM D. DILG
b. B. DND E. All of the above
c. C. PLEB
107. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine
National Police.
a. A. DILG D. IAS
b. B. DND E. DFA
c. C. NAPOLCOM
108. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of the PNP.
a. A. C/PNP D. PLEB
b. B. NAPOLCOM E. IAS
c. C. Ombudsman
109. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in consequence of
an offense and violation of rules and regulations.
a. A. Dismissal D . Suspension
b. B. Restriction E. Reprimand
c. C. Incarceration
110. The head of a local peace and order council.
a. A. Judge D. Mayor
b. B. Chief of police E. Governor
c. C. Barangay captain
111. Most frequent cause of employee dissatisfaction
a. Favoritism
b. Strict implementation of rules and regulations
c. Failure to prepare employees in policy and procedural changes
d. Nepotism
e. All of the above
112. The implementation arm of the administration of any organization is
a. A. Management council D. Specialization Board
b. B. Administrative board E. Line Unit
c. C. Functional Unit
113. In the concept of Personnel management the most serious problem currently facing Philippine Police
Authorities is:
a. A. Promotion D. Gambling
b. B. Recruitment E. Womanizing
c. C. Discipline
114. Is the organization function that synchronizes all operations and staff activities.
a. A. Planning D. Budgeting
b. B. Controlling E. Synchronizing
c. C. Coordinating
115. Systematic assignment of functions to units in a police force is:
a. A. Police assignment D. Police supervision
b. B. Police organization E. Police deployment
c. C. Police personnel direction
116. A police officer who demonstrates most serious lack of leadership qualities is one who:
a. Seldom delegates authority to subordinate
b. Seldom asks others to do what he himself is not willing to do
c. Allows his men to hold group meetings to discuss their work
d. Frequently praises subordinates in the presence of others
e. Frequently assign to his subordinates to most difficult tasks
117. Logical arrangement of duties and responsibilities to members within an organization
a. A. Police Organization D. Police Personnel Management
b. B. Police management E. Police supervision
c. C. Police Administration
118. The police organization unit that does the most jobs to coordinate and relate together the other functional
units in a police agency
a. A. Personnel Division D. Finance Division
b. B. Records Management Division E. Intelligence Division
c. C. Criminalistic Division
119. A kind of supervisor who promptly conducts a complete and formal hearing as soon as a dispute among
his subordinates comes to his attention
a. A. Democratic D. Free-rein
b. B. Two- sided E. None of the above
c. C. Paternalistic
120. Budgeting as an administrative function is primarily a phase of:
a. A. Planning D. Directing
b. B. Coordinating E. Controlling
c. C. Financing
121. In case involving infraction of rules and regulations by newly recruited policemen, the supervisor should:
a. Temper discipline with the understanding
b. Be strict to empress them with a sense of duty
c. Tolerate minor infraction for a short time
d. Treat any infraction alike regardless of the violation
e. All of the above
122. In dealing with a new recruit, a good supervisor:
a. Praises the new policemen even if he failed to do what should be done
b. Praises work done above standard
c. Constructively criticizes work done below standard
d. Comments nothing
e. Any of the above
123. Among the following, which one is the best way of beginning a constructive critique of the report of your
subordinate
a. This is quite ok, but you can make it better
b. You know, you can do better work than this
c. You learn better how to write if you keep this up
d. This is partly right, now take it back and fix it.
e. Practice makes you perfect
124. Which of the following task of a supervisor may be best be delegated to one of his subordinates under his
supervision.
a. A. Planning and scheduling D. Cooperation with other supervisor
 b. B. Assignment of personnel E. Coordination with other supervisor
c. C. Keeping records and making reports
125. The following are the leadership principles except:
a. Be technically and tactically efficient
b. Set the example
c. Know yourself and seek self-improvement
d. Be technically and tactically proficient
e. None of the above
126. The supervisor assumes full responsibility for all action and seeks obedience from the group in the
following out of orders. He determines all policy, and considers decision making to be one man operation he
being the man.
a. A. One-man leadership D. Democratic leadership
b. B. Autocratic leadership E. Charismatic leadership
c. C. Free-rein leadership
127. One of the marks of integrity. It involves meeting obligations promptly.
a. A. Positive thinking D. Tact
b. B. Courtesy E. Dependability
c. C. Initiative
128. It is a doctrine that was established in order to ensure a more effective, sustained, and successful
campaign against unprincipled and erring government officials administering their office.
a. Administrative code
b. PNP Code of Ethics
c. Ethical Doctrine
d. Fundamental doctrine
e. Command Responsibility
129. It is a performance which ought not to be done
a. A. Misfeasance D. Mala in se
b. B. Malfeasance E. Mala prohibita
c. C. Nonfeasance
130. It deals with the performance of task to be done with commensurate authority to fulfill the responsibility
a. A. Direction D. Authority
b. B. Supervision E. Execution
c. C. Command
131. It deals with procedures what is to be done who is to do it, when, where, and how to do it is to be done:
a. A. Direction D. Policy formulation
b. B. Supervision E. Policy Procedures
c. C. Command
132. It involves what are to be done in the form of orders or broad statement of action.
a. A. Policy procedures D. Guidelines
b. B. Policy formulation E. Special orders
c. C. Direction
133. It consist the abandonment or renunciation of one’s loyalty to the government of the Philippines, or
advocating the overthrow of the government.
a. A. Dishonesty D. Violation of law
b. B. Rebellion E. Oppression
c. C. Disloyalty to the government
134. The following are the types of offenses involving internal discipline in the PNP except:
a. A. Simple misconduct D. A & C
b. B. Simple negligence E. None of the above
c. C. Frequent tardiness
135. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office, or connected with the
performance of his duties:
a. A. Disloyalty D. Violation of law
b. B. Dishonesty E. Misconduct
c. C. Unfaithfulness
136. Mayors of cities and municipalities, where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges,
restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of more
than (15) fifteen days but limited up to (30) thirty days. This statement is false.
a. A. True D. Doubtfully false
b. B. False E. It depends
c. C. Doubtfully true
137. Chief of police, where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified
limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of less than (16) sixteen days.
This statement is true.
a. A. True D. Doubtfully false
b. B. False E. It depends
c. C. Doubtfully true
138. To keep policemen on their toes, the most desirable method for a police supervisor to follow is:
a. Employment of “private eye and ear”
b. Application of disciplinary measures for violation of department rules and regulations
c. Encourage initiative via delegation of responsibility to policemen
d. Conduct frequent test on their knowledge and alertness
e. Frequent supervision, guidance and counseling
139. When subordinates do not make complaints, this means supervisors are/not:
a. Devoting on sufficient time checking on the men
b. Fault fingers
c. Democratic leader
d. Considerate leader
e. Sufficiently approachable by their men
140. Total period of time has acquired in a certain grade
a. A. Performance D. Accomplishment
b. B. Potential E. None of the above
c. C. Success
141. Which particular agency of government is vested with the duty of handling administrative control and
supervision of the PNP?
a. A. DILG D. Office of the President
b. B. IAS of the PNP E. None of the above
c. C. PLEB
142. A subordinate is emotionally upset when he reported to his supervisor with a problem; the superior should
in all likelihood.
a. Allow employee to take his day off to relax and calm down
b. B . Give immediate decision satisfactory to employee
c. Find out the policeman’s personal problem causing his emotional disturbance
d. Help the subordinate to calm himself before trying to discuss his problem
e. Give him comfort to his problem
143. Which of the following constitutes second level supervisors
a. A. Executives D. Administrators
b. B. Division chief E. None of the above
c. C. Section chief
144. It is leadership in which the commanding officer assumes minimum control but provides materials,
instructions and information to his subordinates.
a. A. Free-rein leadership D. Goal-oriented leadership
b. B. Democratic leadership E. Staff-oriented leadership
c. C. Autocratic leadership
145. By this type of leadership, staffs members are encourage to participate in making decisions, goals and
methods.
a. A. Free-rein leadership D. Goal-oriented leadership
b. B. Democratic leadership E. Staff-oriented leadership
c. C. Autocratic leadership
146. Executives are classified under the organizational pyramid as :
a. A. Top management level D. Second level supervisor
b. B. First level supervisor E. A & C
c. C. Middle management level
147. They are referred to as first level supervisors
a. A. Administrators D. Section chief
b. B. Executives E. Division chief
c. C. Policy makers
148. The art of influencing people in which the supervisor draws ideas and suggestions from his subordinates
by means of consultation and discussion.
a. A. Free-rein leadership D. Staff- oriented leadership
b. B. Democratic leadership E. Charismatic leadership
c. C. Autocratic leadership
149. It deals with the assistance and guidance given to subordinates to ensure successful performance
a. A. Direction D. Execution
b. B. Supervision E. Guidance
c. C. Policy formulation
150. It manifests lack of adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance of police duties. This has
reference to any physical, moral or intellectual quality the lack of which substantially incapacitates one to perform
the duties of a peace officer.
a. A. Dishonesty D. Incompetency
b. B. Oppression E. Incapability
c. C. Violation of law
151. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of:
a. A. Senior Police Officer I D. Police Officer III
b. Inspector E. Senior Inspector
C. Chief Inspector
152. Any applicant can be qualified to join the police service if they may not be:
a. Less than 20 nor more than 35
b. . Less than 21 nor more than 35
c. . Less than 21 nor more than 30
d. . Less than 20 nor more than 30
e. Any of these
153. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
 C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
a. Philippine National Police Academy
154. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences related to
crimes, emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service D. Communication and Electronic service
B. Crime Laboratory E. Finance Center
C. Crime Scene Investigation Service
155. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________.
A. Staff D. Management
B. Supervision E. Line
C. Administration
156. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
E. PNP Directotare for Intelligence
157. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate D. Medium
B. Strategic E. Short
C. Line
158. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year round needs is called
A. Meeting unusual needs D. Regular operating programs
B. Extra office E. Special operating programs
C. Field procedures
159. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and
downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command D. Unity of Command
B. Span of Control E. Delegation of Authority
C. Command responsibility
160. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in
relation to the performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. Chain of command D. Command responsibility
B. Delegation of responsibilityE. Span of control
C. Hierarchy of authority
161. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of
peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
E. Police Omnipresence
162. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objective. Also, no
one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. Chain of command D. Unity of command
B. Command responsibility E. Delegation of authority
C. Scalar chain
163. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing
education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA D. PNTC
B. PCCR E. PPSC
a. C. PMA
164. 64. In frame of reference, opinions or ideas of person who may speak with authority on the subject and
views of the police commander, other government officials, and other professionals may be considered.
a. A. This statement is true D. Partly false
b. B. This statement is false E. No comments
c. C. Partly True
165. Steps in planning includes the following except: A.
Collecting all pertinent facts D. All of the above
a. B. Selling the plan E. None of the above
b. C. Arranging for the execution of the plan
166. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be
approximately in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1,500) inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000) inhabitants.
E. Any of the foregoing
167. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and graduates of forensic sciences can enter
the police service as officers through:
a. A. regular promotion D. lateral entry
b. B. commissionship E. attrition
 c. C. demotion
168. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral
delinquencies is referred to as
a. A. integrity D. discretion
b. B. loyalty E. all of these
c. C. moral
169. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
a. A. Inspector D. Asst. chief
b. B. Senior Superintendent E. none of these
c. C. Chief Superintendent
170. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility?
a. A. ability D. believability
b. B. capacity E. none of these
c. D. vulnerability
171. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
a. A. observation D. called for service
b. B. crime prevention E. none of the above
c. C. criminal apprehension
172. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
a. A. 15 years service D. 30 years service
b. B. 25 years service E. 35 years service
c. C. 20 years service
173. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to what
percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of his original
appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied services?
a. 2 D. 10
b. 5 E. 20
c. 15
174. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose
of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service.
a. A. police credibility D. Criminology Board Examination
b. B. police visibility E. police eligibility
c. C. police pathola
175. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have this rank.
a. A. Inspector D. Senior Inspector
b. B. Chef Inspector E. Chief Superintendent
c. C. Superintendent
176. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
a. A. Chief Superintendent D. Director
b. B. Director General E. Senior Superintendent
c. C. Deputy Director General
177. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
a. A. Chief Superintendent D. Director
b. B. Director General E. Senior Superintendent
c. C. Deputy Director General
178. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment.
a. A. 25% D. 10%
b. B. 5% E. 25%
c. C. 20%
179. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order.
a. A. employment D. assignment
b. B. deployment E. attrition
c. C. designation
180. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP.
a. A. employment D. assignment
b. B. deployment E. attrition
c. C. designation
181. It exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
a. A. NBI D. Ombudsman
b. B. AFP E. DILG
c. C. COMELEC
182. Among the following subdivisions of management planning, which one is concerned to establish
expenditures reports to assist in making administrative decisions within the appropriations?
a. Personnel
b. Specifications & Purchasing procedures
c. Organizations
d. Accounting procedures
e. None of the above
183. All but one is the powers of the police officers:
a. prevent the commission of the crime
b. arrest criminal offenders
c. to investigate the commission of the crime
 d. to attain an acceptable degree of peace and order
e. All of the above
184. 84. What is the step in planning which attempts to develop a plan and all facts relating to it have been
gathered?
a. frame of reference D. clarifying the facts
b. analyzing the facts E. collecting the facts
c. dissemination of information
185. 85. What is the act of compelling the fulfillment of law on order or obedience thereto?
a. duty D. obligation
b. regulation E. enforcement
c. patrol
186. In the conduct of inspection to a police department, the inspector shall be
a. strict and detained in minor matters
b. rigid and fault finding
c. complacent and friendly
d. cooperative and suggest corrections
e. None of these
187. Spot promotion maybe extended to any member of the police force for acts of conspicuous courage and
gallantry at the risk of his life over and beyond of call of duty." This provision is found in the
a. A. Police act of 1996 D. Police Manual
b. Presidential Decree 765 E. Presidential Decree 448
c. Police Procedure
188. The essence of both organization mission and values statements that gives employees the attitude to
perform at their highest levels is called
a. mission application D. empowerment
b. enforcement E. All of these
c. commitment
189. What is the law provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examination?
a. A. RA 2260 D. RA 4864
b. B. RA 6040 E. RA 6141
c. RA 8551
190. What is the maximum tenure of
office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP?
a. A. 4 years D. 5 years
b. B. 6 years E. None of these
c. 7 years
191. If the CPNP assumes his office in July 8, 2005, his last day in office as the CPNP will be on
a. July 7, 2009 D. July 7, 2010
b. July 7, 2011 E. July 7, 2002
c. July 7 2008
192. 92. These include both expandable and non-expandable commodities except real property.
a. Personal property D. Property rights
b. Expandable Supplies E. Supplies
c. Non-expandable supplies
193. They are commodities which are durable in nature and when used do not suffer any substantial alteration
in form and size.
a. Personal property D. Property rights
b. . Expandable Supplies E. Supplies
c. Non-expandable supplies
194. They are perishable and consumable in nature.
a. Personal property D. Property rights
b. Expandable Supplies E. Supplies
c. Non-expandable supplies
195. A subordinate who never fails to comply with policy manual , rules and procedure, should be:
A. Reassigned to do a legal and research work.
B. Advise to use police direction
C. Held responsible for an intelligent compliance of the policy manual.
D. Ignored because he merely wants everybody to know that he is more familiar with the rules
than everybody else in the unit.
E. Any of the foregoing
196. One of the fundamental principles of leadership is “to know your men”, as a newly appointed supervisor,
you should:
A. Call a conference and compel full attendance of your subordinates
B. Talk with all of them personally
C. Study the personnel records of your new unit
D. Organized an informal get together to be acquainted with them
E. Employ eyes and ears of your new unit
197. The best measurement of effectiveness of each unit or division in a police force is:
A. Its inter-relationship with the community
B. Its inter-relationship with all units of the police force
C. the condition of accomplishment of its primary purpose
D. Its inter-relationship with closely related units of the police
E. Coordination with the other police unit
198. Control is implemented among others by inspection. This means that the main function of inspection is:
A. Maintain discipline
B. Acquire information
C. Insure uniformity of actions
D. Supervisions
E. Intelligence
199. In allocating authority in a police organization. Integration means:
a. Placing responsibility for final decisions to a Council
b. B. Providing administrator responsibility to refer all decisions to the chief executive officers
c. Delegating appropriate responsibility for each integral unit
d. Gathering of men to discuss the issues
e. Gathering into the hands of an administrator all administrative authority for the agency
200. A good attitude for a police supervisor to obtain the confidence of his men is to:
A. Make promises which can be fulfilled
B. Behave like a fatherly like attitude
C. Fraternize with his entire subordinate
D. Seek to know their problems before proposing a solution
E. Do not promise anything

201. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
202. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of
policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program

203. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence

with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector

204. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those

in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there
are several types of patrol, which of the following will you
recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol

205. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,

analysis, and interpretation of all available information which
concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is
immediately or potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
206. These are work programs of line divisions which related to
the nature and extent of the workload and the availability
of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
207. It is the premier educational institution for the police,
fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College

208. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of

A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
 D. a driver, recorder and supervisor

209. An industrial complex must establish its first line of

physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers

210. All of the following are members of the People’s Law

Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)

211. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its

suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing

212. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system

213. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss

which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence

214. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which

is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard

215. What form of intelligence is involved when information is

obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom
the information or documents may be used, or if the
information is clandestinely acquired?
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground
216. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director
from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the
Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city,
municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)

217. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,

the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
 A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700)
inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) C.inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500)
inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.

218. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a

______where telephones or any means of communication
shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room

219. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______.

A.Securities and Exchange Commission
B.National Police Commission
C.Department of National Defense
D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group

220. The cheapest form of police patrol.

A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
221. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure
requirements.
A.tactical plan
B.financial plan
C.work plan
D.control plan

222. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while
the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A.rabbit
B.surveillant
C.traffic enforcement
D.patrol
223. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the
police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific
unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A.vice control
B.criminal investigation
C.traffic management
D.patrol
224. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A.managers
B.Barriers
C.Personnel
D.inspections

225. Which of the following is considered as the most important

factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A.training of station commander
B.adequacy of resources of the police station
C.rank of the patrol commander
D.salary rates of police personnel

226. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers

over errant police members?
A.District Director
B.Provincial Director
C.Chief of Police
D.Chief, PNP

227. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t
have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
 B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait
for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats
but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which
are not covered by foot patrol

228. The father of organized military espionage was:

A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great

229. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer
can give information to the police?
A.wants to be known to the policeman
B.monetary reward
C.as a good citizen
D.revenge

230. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility

231. What administrative support unit conducts identification and

evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center

232. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the
agency’s mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line

233. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the

investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out

234. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be
best penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
235. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following,
EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
236. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information
comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media

237. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and

graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
 C. lateral entry
D. attrition

238. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a

municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
239. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can
prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial
plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education

240. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol

241. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety
of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command

242. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator

merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation

243. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed,

EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject

244. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1

Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thief’s
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity

245. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are

automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent

246. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of

the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership

247. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get

 information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview

248. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their

utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking

249. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of

geographic information because law enforcement officials must
know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources

250. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and

search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
251. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator
tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance

252. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover

253. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,

honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral

254. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching
the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other
end of the road and again turning right until you completed
the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling.What
patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling

255. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting
them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing

256. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large
park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
 C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol

257. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?

A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short

258. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or

year round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs

259. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?

A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police

260. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:

A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down

261. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintend

262. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the
word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability

263. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?

A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension

264. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic

265. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so
element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________
of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. import

266. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in

large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and
riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog .

267. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization

under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
 C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975

268. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?

A. investigator
B. patrol officer
C. traffic officer
D. The Chief of Police

269. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren

270. What type of cover uses actual or true background?

A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover

271. What is the principle of organization suggesting that

communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority

272. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years

723. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
274. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA

275. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint

against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS

276. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any

act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control

277. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the

community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
278. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
279. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent

280. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty

281. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of

performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand

282. The credential extended by the Civil Service

Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility

283. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento

284. The premier educational institution for the training, human

resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC

285. Under the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank
of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent

286. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.

A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General

287. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
 C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government

288. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General

289. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
290. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the
PNP
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

291. Which of the following administers and attends to cases

involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division

292. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM

representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP
units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals

293. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial

Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors

294. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor

295. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the

purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation

296. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or

units of the PNP.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation

297. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
298. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4

299. Who is the current Chief of the PNP?

A. Nicanor Bartome
B. Nicanor Bartomeo
C. Nick Bartolome
D. Nicanor Bartolome

300. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is

A. Arturo Cacdac Jr.
B. Emilito Sarmiento
C. Rommel Heredia
D. Alexander Roldan

301. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be

processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC

302. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of

a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old

303. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to

security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary

304. Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of

delaying illegal access to facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts

305. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees

making them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar

306. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical

defense,it refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located

307. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the

potential intruder and the object matter to be protected.As
criminologists,this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender

308. Weakest link in the security chain.

A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
 D. Personnel

309. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are

known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting

310. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually

barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase
physical protection from intruders of a certain area,this is
known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower

311. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter
barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation
and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
312. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of
electronic hardware,human guards and even animals.In
England,an owner to protect his compound used this and they
are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.This
man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck

313. The government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD

314. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this

particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area

315. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security

program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection

316. A security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other

terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit

317. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to

the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Body guards

318. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm
or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits
and disadvantages.To determine which type of guarding
 system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a
security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner

319. As a security officer, you can not prevent nor protect natural
hazards like storm,earthquakes,floods and the like.In order to
reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you
will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm

320. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its

effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan

321. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is

A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain
employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those
who are security risks.
322. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security.As
security officer,you can advice management on this aspect
although this is not totally your assigned work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
323. As a security chief of an industrial firm,inventory shows that
pilferage is rampant in the warehouses.What will be your
choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to
catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with
management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the
compound/complex

324. There are many types of electronic and electric protective

devices available for security buildings,storehouses and
compounds.One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection
for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the
dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular
electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards

325. The management of keys used in plant office or business

organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
326. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters
protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
 C. Document security
D. Physical security

327. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside

the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system

328. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000

cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe

329. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to

damage,loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality

330. It refers to the importance of the establishment with

reference to the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality

331. The association of all licensed security agencies operators

A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD

332.Who among below can own or operate security agency?

A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone provided he knows the job
C. An alien but living in the Philippines
D. All of them

333. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company

forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them

334. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of

A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them

335. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and

deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding
recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations

336. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall,fences,grill etc.

A. Structural barriers
B. Man made barriers
C. Physical barriers
D. Natural barriers

337. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected
 opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
C. Casual
D. Insider

338. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains, cliffs,

ravines, cliffs, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals

339. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to

the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list

340. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers

A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
341. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual
or motor driven.
A. Stand pipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump

342.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not

prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally
as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the
human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded

343. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing

entry to compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code

344. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the

facility caused by human action,accidental or intentional.It
includes sabotage,espionage,pilferage and
theft,disloyalty,disaffection and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard

345. Example of the Security Communication system.

A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them

346. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization

and operation of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces throughout the
country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law

347. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents

 or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe

348. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container

usually a part of the building structure used to keep and
protect cash,document and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin

349. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest
to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of
fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Stand pipe

350. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?

A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above

351. Tenure of security personnel is based on

A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the
client
C. Labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code

352. Before private security agencies render security services to

its clients,there must be a contract that must bind them,it is
called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract

353. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of

security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them

354. A security force maintained and operated by any private

company for its own security requirements only.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit

355. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or

secure a residence or business establishment or both is
A. Watchman
B. Security guard
C. B only
D. B and A

356. Include all the security measures designed to prevent

unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
government from gaining access to classified matter or to any
security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as
employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
 D. Both A and C

357. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and

loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability
to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI

358. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual

but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal
life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI

359. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the

circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI

360. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least

secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system

361. Factors considered in background investigation except:

A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty

362. Motives that cause people to be disloyal

A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
363. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure
A. Jealousy
B. Weakness of character
C. Close relative in foreign land
D. All of them

364. A security unit maintained and operated by any government

entity.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security agency

365. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person

particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI

366. Any person,association,partnership,firm or private

corporation,who contracts recruits,trains,furnishes or post
any security guards to do its functions.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security agency

367. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as

his shift is concerned.
 A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander

368. Before a security guard can practice his profession,he shall

possess a valid security license,What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license

369. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by
the security agency is allowed by law?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

370. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms

license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive
Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year

371. The aspect of security which involves the application of

security measures For the protection and safeguarding of
classified information
A. Top secret
B. Information security
C. Personnel security
D. Documents security

372. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification

categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance

373. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is

eligible for access to classified matter.
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance

374. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized

persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter.
A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
C. probability
D. Compromise

375. These are information and material,the unauthorized disclosure

of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation,politically,economically or from a security aspect,this
category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to
be used with great reserve.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters

376. These information and material,the authorized disclosure of

which would endanger national security,cause serious injury to
the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental
activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
 D. Top secret matters

377. These information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of

which while not endangering the national security would be
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any
government activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or
would be of the advantage to a foreign nation.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters

378. It is information that in some special way relates to the status

or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information

379. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound,a process of

manufacturing,treating or preserving materials,a pattern for
machine or device or a list of customers.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information

380. It is the protection resulting from the application of various

measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through communication.
A. Transmission security
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above

381. That component of communication security which results from

the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their
proper use.
A. Transmission security
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above

382. A system which uses words as the smallest element.

A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher

383. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.

A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher

384. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.

A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality

385. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.

A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality

386. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the

business,government or industrial environment for which the
risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
 B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk avoidance

387. It is an act of spying.

A. Saboteur
B. Espionage
C. pilferer
D. Sabotage

388. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards

which security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above

389. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always
any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above

390. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security
agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969

391. A natural hazards or acts of god.

A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure

392. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and

are usually escorted.
A. Exclusive area
B. Limited area
C. Restricted area
D. Protected area

393. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase

protection from intruder.
A. Guard house
B. Clear zone
C. Tower guard
D. Top guard

394.A conference similar to entrance conference,this is only done

after the completion of security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference

395. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or

combination of target where totally removed,destroyed or
both.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss

396. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to

sustain through theft and robbery.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
397. A term used in England for lock pickers,safe crackers and
penetrators of restricted rooms or area.
A. Superman
B. Peterpan
C. Batman
D. Peterman

398. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific

areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi pass system

399. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police
station so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station station system
400. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm
system near the object to be protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system

401. An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the Interior
and Local Government and for Other Purposes,” gave way to the creation of the country's police
force that is national in scope and civilian in character. It is administered and controlled by the
National Police Commission.
a. a. R.A 6975 b. R.A 8551 c. R.A 7456 d. Act 4864
402. A graduate of the U.S. Military Academy, a regular captain but then a Lieutenant Colonel of the
U.S. Cavalry Volunteers in the Philippines officially designated and confirms by the Commission as
Chief of Constabulary in 1901.
a. Howard Taft b. Henry T. Allen
b. c. Lapu-Lapu d. Marcos
403. “Philippine National Police Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998,” the PNP was envisioned to be
a community and service oriented agency. As mandated by law, the PNP activated the Internal
Affairs Service (IAS) on June 1, 1999. It is an organization within the structure of the PNP, and it is
headed by Inspector General.
a. a. R.A 6975 b. R.A 8551
b. c. R.A 7456 d. Act 4864
404. By the coming of the Spaniards, the country’s police system started. The police were then
called____
a. a. Guardillo b. Guardia civil
b. c. Safe guard d. Manpowers
405. In 1852, it took over the peace keeping duties in the island under a Royal Decree.
a. a. Guardillo b. Guardia civil
b. c. Safe guard d. Manpowers
406. Manila Police was formally organized by virtue of what act of the Philippine Commission.?
a. a. Act no. 433 b. Act no. 413
b. c. Act no. 175 d. Act no. 987
407. When was Manila Police was formally organized?
a. a. Dec. 3, 1900 b. Jan. 9, 1901
b. c. Dec. 4, 1903 d. Mar. 6, 1967
408. He was appointed PC Chief in December 1917. Thus, for the first time in sixteen (16) years of
existence, the Constabulary was placed under Filipino leadership.
a. Taft
b. Henry T. Allen
c. Brig. Gen. Rafael T. Crame
d. Marcos
409. Known as the Police Act of 1966 was enacted, by virtue of which, National Police Commission was
created, vested with the power to supervise and control the police forces all over the country. Under
 this act the administration, control and disciplinary measures, including training of each member are
placed under the exclusive jurisdiction of the NAPOLCOM.
a. a. R.A 6975 b. R.A 8551
b. c. R.A 7456 d. R.A 4864
410. It is a form of human association for the attainment of a goal or objective. It is the process of
identifying and grouping the work to be performed, defining and delegating responsibility and
authority establishing relationships for the purpose of enabling people work effectively.
a. a. Administration b. Organization
b. c. Police Organization d. Management
411. Is a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace and order, protection of
life and property, enforcement of the laws and the prevention of crimes?
a. a. Administration b. Organization
b. c. Police Organization d. Management
412. Which is not belonging to the functional units?
a. Post b. Bureau c. Division d. Section
413. Which is not belonging to the territorial units?
a. Post b. Beat c. area d. unit
414. Functional group within a section; or the smallest functional group within an organization.
a. Post b. Beat c. area d. unit
415. The largest organic functional unit within a large department. It comprises of numbers of divisions
a. Post b. Bureau c. Division d. Section
416. Functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization
a. Post b. Bureau c. Division d. Section
417. Primary subdivision of a bureau
a. Post b. Bureau c. Division d. Section
418. A section or territorial division of a large city each comprised of designated districts.
a. Post b. Beat c. area d. unit
419. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
a. Post b. Beat c. Sector d. District
420. An area containing two or more beats, routes, or posts.
a. Post b. Beat c. Sector d. District
421. An area assigned for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.
a. Post b. Beat c. Sector d. District
422. A length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is also called LINE BEAT
a. a. Post b. Route c. Sector d. District
423. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk or office
or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty. It is a spot location for general guard duty.
a. a. Post b. Route c. Sector d. District
424. It is usually a written communication unless otherwise specifies to be verbal; verbal should be
confirmed by written communication.
a. a. Data b. Record c. Report d. Files
425. An instruction given by a ranking officer to a subordinate.
a. a. command b. required
b. c. order d. direction
426. All personnel of the police department who have oath and who possess the power to arrest.
a. a. Arresting officer b. Officer in charge
b. c. Sworn officer d. power officer
427. One having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over officers of lower
rank.
a. a. Supervisor b. Superior officer
b. c. Superintendent d. Chief

428. An officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an area, or a district.
a. a. Superior officer b. Commanding officer
b. c. Ranking officer d. Chief officer
429. The officer who has the more senior rank/higher rank in a team or group.
a. a. Superior officer b. Comman.ding officer
b. c. Ranking officer d. Chief officer
430. The period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was administered. Previous active
services may be included or added.
a. a. length of service b. service oriented
b. c. service period d. police service
431. The period when an officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
 a. a. off duty b. on duty
b. c. present duty d. 24 hours duty
432. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty.
a. a. off duty b. on duty c. free
time duty d. 24 hours at home
433. The police service, its nature, which requires that the officer be excused from the performance of his
active regular duty.
a. Special duty
b. Sick leave
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter
434. Period, which an officer is excused from active duty by any valid/acceptable reason, approved by
higher authority.
a. Valid excuse
b. Leave of absence
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter
435. Period which an officer is excused from active duty by reason of illness or injury.
a. Disability excused duty
b. Sick leave
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter
436. A consequence of an act which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of performing his
duties as result of violating directives or other department regulations.
a. Consequence duty deprivation
b. Suspension
c. Deprivation duty
d. Temporary off duty
437. Rules established by department directors/supervisors to control the conduct of the members of the
police force.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d. Duty manual
438. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specified post or position.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d. Duty manual
439. Which is not belonging to the following orders by ranking officer?
a. General order b. Special order
c. Court order d. Personal order
440. The straight line organization, often called the individual, military or departmental type of
organization.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
441. Rarely found in present day organizations, except at or near the top of the very large organizations.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
442. The simplest and perhaps the oldest type; but it is seldom encountered in its channels of authority
and responsibility extends in a direct line from top to bottom within the structures,
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
443. Combination of the line and functional types. It combines staff specialist such as the criminalists, the
training officers, the research and development specialists, etc.
a. Staff organization
b. Line and staff organization
c. Functional organization
 d. Auxiliary organization
444. Authority is definite and absolute.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
445. Limited to the particular activity over which he has control, regardless of who performs the function.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
446. Channels of responsibility is to “think and provide expertise” for the line units.
a. Staff organization
b. Line and staff organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
447. It also has some inherent weaknesses which, for many organizations, make its use impractical.
Perhaps its greatest advantage is that, it is utterly simple.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
448. It involves a division of the work into units of eighth person with a person in charge who has
complete control and who can be hold directly responsible or accountable for results, or lack of
them.
a. Staff organization b. Line organization c. Functional
organization d. span of control
449. It combines staff specialist or units with line organization so that service of knowledge can be
provided line personnel by specialist.
a. Staff organization
b. Line and staff organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
450. The “backbone” of the police department.
a. a. Line functions
b. b. Staff functions
c. c. Auxiliary functions
d. d. primary functions
451. Those operations designed to support the line functions.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
452. The logistical operations of the department.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
453. These include training, communications, jailing, maintenance, record keeping, motor vehicles, and
similar operations.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
454. They include such operations as patrol, criminal investigation, and traffic control, as well as
supervision of the personnel performing those operations.
a. Line functions b. Staff functions c.
Auxiliary functions d. primary functions
455. Patrol officer, the detective, the sergeant, the lieutenant, the captain, and the chief of police.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members
456. Advisors who are typically assigned to planning, research, legal advice, budgeting, and educational
services.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members
457. Carrying out the majors’ purposes of the police department.
a. Line members b. Staff members c. Auxiliary
members d. primary members
458. Delivering the services provided by the department.
a. Line members b. Staff members c. Auxiliary
members d. primary members
459. Often civilians with specialized training who serve within the department but do not deal with daily
operations on the street.
a. Line members b. Staff members c. Auxiliary
members d. primary members
460. Their main function is to study police policies and practices and to offer proposals to the chief
executive of the department.
a. Line functions b. Staff functions c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
461. Highly specialized, involved in an advisory capacity. Detached from the public and not directly
responsible for the decisions made by department executive.
a. Line functions b. Staff functions c. Auxiliary
functions d. primary functions
462. Dealing directly with the department’s clientele. Making final decisions with respect to the activities
they perform.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members
463. The grouping of activities and segregation of line, staff, and auxiliary functions are large-scale
examples.
a. Line functions
b. Specialization
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
464. Important in all organizations, since it must be expected that some members will know more,
perform better and contribute more in one area of activity than in others, Disparities in job ability
among persons may be the result of physical attributes, mental aptitude, skills, interests education,
training, motivation, or adaptation, among other factors.
a. Line functions b. Specialization c. Auxiliary
functions d. primary functions
465. The norms and values that characterize a culture.
a. Social forces b. Economic forces c. Political
forces d. Arm forces
466. The ideas behind the concept of a market economy such as private ownership of property, economic
freedom, competitive markets and a limited role for government.
a. Social forces b. Economic forces c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
467. Governmental regulations play significant role in how organizations choose to manage themselves.
a. Social forces b. Economic forces c.
Political forces d. Arm forces
468. Influenced management theory in areas such as motivation and leadership.
a. Social forces b. Economic forces c. Political
forces d. Arm forces
469. Influenced management theory in the areas of environmental analysis, planning, control,
organization design and employee rights.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
470. If all persons within an organization were given the freedom to do what they like and to refuse to do
what they dislike, there would be little likelihood of accomplishment.
a. Hierarchy of authority
 b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
471. The maximum number of subordinates at a given position that superior can supervise effectively.
a. Span of Control
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
472. The right to command and control the behavior of employees in lower positions within an
organizational hierarchy.
a. Authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
473. Any collaborative effort such as that in a police department thus requires a system of checks and
controls on individual behavior. Hence, the department must have a person or persons with authority
to direct the actions of workers and ensure compliance with standards in order to achieve the
department’s goals.
a. Hierarchy of authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
474. The formal relationship among superiors and subordinates in any given organization.
a. a. Hierarchy b. Authority
b. c. Command d. Control
475. It can be illustrated by the situation in which a subordinate abstains from making his or her choice
among several courses of action and instead automatically accepts the choice made by the
supervisor regardless of whether one personally agrees.
a. a. Hierarchy b. Authority
b. c. Command d. Control
476. Effective organization requires that only a manageable number of subordinates be supervised by one
person at any given time.
a. Span of Control
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
477. It can be visualized as a ladder, with each rank representing a higher or lower level of authority.
a. Hierarchy b. Authority
c. Command d. Control

478. A hierarchy thus serves as the framework for the flow of authority downward and obedience upward
through the department.
a. a. Hierarchy b. Authority
b. c. Command d. Control
479. Any particular position of the ladder is expected to direct and control the activities of the ranks,
while obeying the directions and instructions received from higher ranks.
a. a. Hierarchy b. Authority
b. c. Command d. Control
480. This number will, of course, vary not only from one organization to another depending on each
organization’s definition of “effective supervision” but also within each organization depending on
the number of task and the size of personnel available at a given time.
a. Span of Control
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
481. The conferring of an amount of authority by a superior position onto a lower-level position.
a. Delegation
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
482. The process of sharing understanding and information on common subjects. More precisely, it is an
intercourse between, through or more people by means of words, letters symbols, or gestures for the
purpose of exchanging information.
 a. Procedure b. Communication c.
Globalization d. Bluetooth
483. These are the essential to effective communication within such large organization. Except
a. Procedure b. Channels c.
Standardized language d. Rapport
484. The backbone of any organizational structure.
a. Delegation b. Security authority c. Command
responsibility d. Unity of command
485. The person to whom authority is delegated becomes responsible to the superior for doing the
assigned job. However, they remain accountable for accomplishment of the job within the
guidelines and quality standards of the agency.
a. Delegation of authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
486. Organizations that are highly structured.
a. Formal organizations
b. Proper organization
c. Informal organization
d. Good organization
487. Organizations that are those without structure.
a. Formal organizations
b. Proper organization c. Informal organization

d. Good organization
488. Which statement is true?
a. The police organization are governed by only principle of unity of command
b. No formal or informal police organization governed by principles.
c. Every formal police organization whether small or large are governed by principles.
d. Every police organization has few principles.
489. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an unbroken chain of units from top
to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle
490. Organization is effective if it enables the individuals to contribute to the organization’s objectives.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle
491. Organization structure is effective if it is structured in such a way to aid the accomplishment of the
organization’s objectives with a minimum cost.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle
492. This is the scalar principle.
a. Line authority and change of command b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command
e. All of the above
493. This principle of organization suggests that communications should ordinarily go upward through
established channels in the hierarchy. Diverting orders, directives, or reports around a level of
command usually has disastrous effects on efficiency of the organization.
a. chain of command b. Span of Control c. Delegation
of authority d. Unity of Command
494. A supervisor over personnel or units shall not mean more than what he can effectively direct and
coordinate. In span of control, levels of authority shall be kept to a minimum.
a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of ControI
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command
495. Shall carry with it a commensurate authority and the person to whom the authority is delegated shall
be held accountable therefore. It implies that delegation must carry with it appropriate responsibility.

a. command responsibility b. Span of Control

c. Delegation of authority d. Unity of Command

496. Explains that subordinates should only be under the control of one superior.
a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command
497. Division of work according to type, place, time and specialization.
a. Functional principle b. Line and staff c. Principle of
balance d. Principle of delegation by results
498. System of varied functions arrange into a workable pattern. The line organization is responsible for
the direct accomplishment of the objectives while the staff is responsible for support, advisory or
facilitative capacity.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results

499. The main traditional purpose of the police.

a. To protect the celebrities
b. To protect the authority or the government
c. To protect the president only
d. To protect the property
500. The application of principles must be balanced to ensure the effectiveness of the structure in meeting
organization’s objectives.
a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results