001.

3DXXX Air Force specialties duties, responsibilities, and career fields

1. Which document would you reference to see your specific AFSC responsibilities?

2. What two groups make up the cyberspace support family?

3. Within the cyberspace support families, what career field is responsible for maintenance and
operation of cyberspace systems?

002. Career field qualifications and progression

1. What is the core AFSC document used to document training for enlisted personnel?

2. Duty position tasks describe.

3. What part of the CFETP includes general information about how to use it?

4. How many skill levels are there?

5. What AFI outlines the AF’s training program?

003. 3DXXX management

1. With whom does the Air Force career field manager directly communicate to disseminate policies and
program requirements?

2. Whose duty is it to assist in gathering input and data to complete enlisted grade allocation for career
progression group reviews?

004. Force management

1. What type of workshop brings MFMs and SMEs together to determine the most effective and efficient
way to ensure training standards and skill-level requirements of a career field are accurate?

2. What is the primary purpose of a STRT?

005. Conduct on-the-job training

1. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to
perform duty in their specialty?

2. What are the three components of the AF OJT program?

006. Quality assurance

1. What are the three essential elements in a QA program?

2. How is trend analysis used?

007. Inspections and assessments

1. What program reports compliance with requirements listed in self-assessment checklists to the chain
of command and appropriate staffs?

2. Who, in conjunction with the commander appointed self-assessment program manager, will oversee
the unit’s self-inspection/assessment program?

008. Automated information systems

1. What are automated information systems?

2. What is the standard Air Force system for maintenance information?

3. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement
through retirement?

Answers

001.

1. Specific AFSC responsibilities are located in the 3DXXX CFETP Section B, Career Field Progression and
Information.

2. The cyberspace support family of career fields consists of two sub-groups: Cyberspace Operations
(3D0XX) and Cyberspace Systems (3D1XX).

3. Cyberspace Systems

002.

1. The CFETP is the core AFSC training document used for training enlisted personnel.

2. The tasks assigned to an individual for the position currently held.

3. Part I includes general information about how to use the CFETP.

4. 5.

5. AFI 36–2201, Air Force Training Program

003.

1. He/she communicates directly with MFMs, AETC training managers to disseminate all Air Force and
career field policies and program requirements.

2. MFM.

004.

1. A U&TW brings MFMs and subject matter experts together from across the Air Force in an effort to
determine the most effective and efficient way to ensure training standards and skill level requirements
of a career field are accurate.
2. For the AFCFM and functional leaders to determine and present training requirements to the AETC
TPM.

005.

1. The AF OJT Program.

2. (1) Job knowledge.

(2) Job proficiency.

(3) Job experience.

006.

1. (1) Quality system.

(2) Quality assessments.

(3) Trend Analysis.

2. To collect, compile, analyze, and record data on the processes sampled by QA personnel.

007.

1. The self-assessment program.

2. QA personnel.

008.

1. AIS are combinations of computer hardware and computer software, data, and/or
telecommunications equipment that performs functions such as collecting, processing, storing,
transmitting, and displaying information.

2. The IMDS is the standard Air Force system for maintenance information.

3. Remedy.

Unit review

1. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment,
troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground
based satellite devices? a. Spectrum Operations. b. Ground Radar Systems. c. Cable and Antenna
Systems. d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

2. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for
large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations? a. Spectrum Operations. b.
Ground Radar Systems. c. Cable and Antenna Systems. d. Radio Frequency Transmission.
3. (002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI
36−2201, Air Force Training Program? a. Core task. b. Duty competency. c. Core competency. d. Duty
position task.

4. (003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field? a. Unit training manager (UTM). b.
Base functional manager (BFM). c. Major command functional manager (MFM). d. Air Force career field
manager (AFCFM).

5. (003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to
include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)? a. Unit
training manager (UTM). b. Base functional manager (BFM). c. Major command functional manager
(MFM). d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

6. (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field
Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)? a. Unit training manager (UTM). b. Base functional
manager (BFM). c. Major command functional manager (MFM). d. Air Force career field manager
(AFCFM).

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7. (003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the
development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)? a. Unit
training manager (UTM). b. Base functional manager (BFM). c. Major command functional manager
(MFM). d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

8. (003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned
officer (NCO)? a. Unit training manager (UTM). b. Base functional manager (BFM). c. Major command
functional manager (MFM). d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

9. (004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is
another use for occupational surveys? a. Modify local training. b. Allocate manpower. c. Develop a
Career Development Course (CDC). d. Assist the unit training manager in course development.

10. (004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)? a. Conduct
climate training surveys. b. Develop Career Development Courses. c. Review the occupational analysis
report. d. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

11. (004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)? a. Major
Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). b. Air
Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME. c. MFM in conjunction with the
subject matter expert (SME). d. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

12. (005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications
required to perform duty in their specialty? a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). b.
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS). c. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. d. Occupational
Analysis Program.

13. (006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program? a.
Quality Assessments. b. Quality Assurance. c. Quality System. d. Trend Analysis.
14. (006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program? a. Technical
Evaluation. b. Personnel Evaluation. c. Managerial Evaluation. d. Standard Evaluation.

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15. (006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data
on the processes sampled by QA personnel? a. Trend analysis. b. Quality System. c. Quality Assessments.
d. Managerial Assessments.

16. (007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection
elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness? a. Management
Inspection (MI). b. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). c. Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI). d.
Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).

17. (008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology
(IT) assets from procurement through retirement? a. Remedy. b. Training Business Area. c. Telephone
Management System. d. Integrated Maintenance Data System.

Unit 2

009. United States code

1. What is the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the U.S.?

2. Which title of the U.S. code spells out the general provisions and punitive articles of the UCMJ?

3. Who has inspection responsibility over the National Guard?

010. Cyberspace operations

1. What is cyberspace?

2. What type of cyberspace maneuverability occurs with the use of security protocols used by host
systems?

3. What are cyberspace operations?

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4. What are three major considerations to understand while supporting cyber operations?

5. What document provides AF leaders a particular principle in the execution of cyber operations?

6. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is driven by three priorities, what are those priorities?

7. Gaining and maintaining the initiative to operate within adversary decision cycles outlines what
strategy?
8. Before the employment of cyberspace capabilities, what considerations must be made?

9. What could prevent Air National Guard personnel from executing a cyber operation?

10. In addition to the implied legal parameters, what else must individuals be clearly aware of when
conducting cyber operations?

11. Define prohibited use.

12. Match the characteristics of each unethical situation to its corresponding title.

Column A

Column B

____ (1) Personal conflict of interest.

a. Disclosure of Privacy Act-protected records.

____ (2) Covered relationships.

b. Officially endorsing or sanctioning a non-federal entity, its products, services or activities.

____ (3) Misuse of position.

c. May be real or perceived and involve ethical/moral values.

____ (4) Non-public information.

d. May lead to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism.

011. Cyber weapons systems

1. What career field relies on many services provided by the Cyberspace Support Community?

2. What weapons system provides continuous monitoring and defense of AF unclassified and classified
networks?

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3. Describe the four sub-discipline areas of the ACD.

4. What resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous MAJCOM-specific stove-piped

networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three I-NOSCs?

5. What AF weapons system offers top-level boundary and entry point into the AFIN?

6. What are the four sub-discipline areas of the AFINC?

7. What weapon system is the single system providing overarching 24/7/365 awareness, management
and control of the AF portion of the cyberspace domain?

8. Describe CORA.

9. What is the mission of the CVA/Hunter?

10. How does end-to-end performance monitoring support mission assurance?

11. Who has the responsibility for determining what network elements should be monitored?

12. What two things did the DOD Consent to Monitoring policy do?

012. Cyberspace operational structure and missions

1. What Air Force command is appointed as the primary for cyberspace missions?

2. How do offensive operations support US cyberspace objectives?

3. (True/False) DCOs intend to defend DOD or friendly cyberspace through proactive and reactive
operations.

4. Besides technical vulnerabilities, how do we attempt to exploit user-friendly networks?

5. What are IRCs?

6. How does EW contribute to information operations?

7. What is the intent of MISO?

8. (True/False) PA cannot provide false or misleading information to influence operations.

9. What is the goal of MILDEC?

10. What does OPSEC deny adversaries?

11. Audience engagements are meant to mold perceptions and shape relations with whom?

12. What type of ISR support does IO require for integration?

13. Define CI.

013. Cyber operations in support of national defense

1. How do we influence the adversary’s decision-making while protecting our operations?

2. What reaches across geopolitical boundaries and is tightly integrated into the operation of critical
infrastructures and the conduct of commerce, governance, and national security?

3. What three things ensure our freedom of action and deny the same to our adversaries in relation to
cyber operations?

4. Describe the five elements that comprise the NMS-CO.

5. What are the DOD’s three main roles regarding cyber operations?

6. What items ensure critical infrastructure is protected?

7. Information superiority is a result of what abilities?

8. How would you define SCADA?

9. How are SCADA systems typically implemented?

10. What is the purpose of IO?

014. Communications squadron structure

1. How many flights typically make up Air Force communications Squadrons?

2. Which communications squadron flight provides technical and systems support for wing
communications and computer systems including ground radio, voice networks, and secure
communications maintenance?

3. Who authorizes the use of a Special Mission Flights within a communication squadron?

4. What is the primary mission of the AOC?

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5. How are cyberspace forces in an AOC tasked to execute cyber missions?

6. What squadron is a communications support squadron that directly supports the AOC?

7. What type of unit provides flyaway communications packages to expeditionary air bases?

8. What active duty combat communications groups are in the CONUS?

9. How are expeditionary communication units established to operate in a deployed environment?

10. Who is the major force provider for the 386th AEW?

11. Which EIS unit, currently part of the Air Combat Command, is an indispensable part of the USAF war-
fighting community?

12. What unit installs, reconstitutes and tests critical C4 systems for COCOMs, anywhere and anytime?

015. Air Force Network Operations

1. What term replaced Global Information Grid (GIG)?

2. What AF unit interfaces with theater and functional Air Operations Centers to establish, plan, direct,
coordinate, assess, and command & control cyber operations in support of Air Force (AF) and Joint
warfighting requirements.

3. Who provides around the clock situational awareness of the AFN?

4. How does the 624th OC translate CDR USCYBERCOM and theatre JFCs objectives, priorities and intent
into a coherent plan for AF cyberspace forces?

5. What unit prepares Airmen to execute computer network exploitation and attack?

6. What is the mission focus of the NOSC?

7. What entity performs security and operations functions and is the focal point for Tier-2 (regional)
execution of network enterprise security?
8. Regional computing and data centers that provide enterprise services are called?

9. What is the mission of the ESD?

10. From whom does the communications focal point collect data?

016. Joint Task Force organizational structure

1. Who creates JTFs?

2. Whom is a CCDR responsible to?

3. What responsibility does the CNAF commander assumes when joint military operations are in his or
her respective AO?

4. If air assets from more than one service are present within a joint force, what will the JFC
normallydesignate?

5. Who is designated by the JFC to be responsible for operating and supporting all Air Force forces
assigned or attached?

017. Aerospace Expeditionary Force Employment concepts

1. What does the five-character alphanumeric code UTC identifier represent?

2. What is the name of the process in which AF units use to present their capabilities?

ANSWERS

009

1. The US Constitution.

2. US Code Title 10, Armed Forces.

3. The Secretaries of the US Army and Air Force.

2–32

010

1. A global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent network of
information technology infrastructures, including the Internet, telecommunications networks, computer
systems, and embedded processors and controllers.

2. Logical maneuverability.

3. Cyberspace operations are the employment of cyberspace capabilities where the primary purpose is
to achieve military objectives or effect in or through cyberspace.
4. (1) Policy.

(2) Authority.

(3) Law.

5. AFDD 3–12 Cyberspace Operations, Appendix B, Policy and Doctrine Related to Cyberspace
Operations.

6. (1) Prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure.

(2) Reduce national vulnerability to cyber attacks.

(3) Minimize damage and recover time from cyber-attacks.

7. The NMS-CO.

8. Legal considerations and international legal obligations apply to the employment of cyberspace
capabilities.

9. Guardsmen in Title 32 status may train for Title 10 missions but may not execute them.

10. Authority for each operation they are a part of.

11. Prohibited Use where use adversely reflects on DOD; where use interferes with employee or office
productivity; or where use is to conduct outside commercial activity.

12. (1) c.

(2) d.

(3) b.

(4) a.

011

1. 1B4X1.

2. The Air Force Cyberspace Defense.

3. (1) Incident Prevention: Services include the protection of Air Force networks against new and existing
malicious logic. The system has the ability to assess/mitigate known software and hardware
vulnerabilitilites.

(2) Incident Detection: Conducts monitoring of classified/unclassified Air Force networks, identifies and
researches anomalous activity to determine problems and threats to networks, and monitors real-time
alerts generated from network sensors. In addition, the system can perform in-depth research of
historical traffic reported through sensors.

(3) Incident Response: Determines the extent of instrusions, develops course of action required to
mitigate threat(s), and determines and executes response actions. Crew interfaces with law
enforcement during malicious logic related incidents.
(4) Computer Forensics: Conducts in-depth analysis to determine threats from identified incidents and
suspicsious activities, and then assesses damage. Supports incident response process capturing the full
impact of various exploits and reverse engineers code to determine the impact to the network/system.

4. The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

5. The Air Force Intranet Control weapon system.

6. (1) Defense-in-Depth.

(2) Proactive Defense.

(3) Network Standardization.

(4) Situational Awareness.

7. Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

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8. CORA assesses data compromised through intrusions of AF networks with the objective of
determining the associated impact to operations resulting from that data loss. This sub-discipline is in
the second variant.

9. F2T2EA the APT.

10. It supports mission assurance by including the end user experience and the warfighter’s ability to
access critical information.

11. 24 AF.

12. (1) Established departmental guidance on the use of DODIN systems.

(2) Standardized the wording for to be included in user agreements.

012

1. AFSPC is the USAF major command for the cyberspace mission.

2. OCO supports US cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the
adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

3. True.

4. We attempt to exploit user-friendly networks by gaining footholds through their routine uses of
cyberspace.

5. IRCs, which are tools, techniques or activities employed within the physical, informational or cognitive
dimensions of the information environment that can be used to create effects and operationally
desirable conditions.

6. EW contributes to information operations by using offensive and defensive tactics and techniques to
shape, disrupt and exploit adversarial use of EMS.
7. The intent of MISO is to affect the behavior of foreign governments, organizations, groups or
individuals so that changes in foreign behavior or attitude favor an originator’s objectives.

8. True.

9. The goal is to cause the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that contribute to the
accomplishment of the friendly force mission.

10. OPSEC denies adversaries critical information and observable indicators about friendly forces and
actions.

11. The intent is to mold perceptions and shape relations with key military and civilian organizations.

12. IO requires a more concerted, tailored ISR support for IO integration.

13. CIis information gathered and activities to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt or protect against
espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign
powers, persons or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities.

013

1. By integrating the capabilities of influence operations, electronic warfare operations and network
warfare operations in concert.

2. Cyberspace.

3. (1) Network defense.

(2) Exploitation.

(3) Attack.

4. (1) Strategic Context provides the working definition and cyberspace characteristics.

(2) Threats and vulnerabilities create a common understanding of the context, threats, vulnerabilities,
and opportunities for cyberspace operations.

(3) Strategic considerations provide additional clarity to identify priorities.

(4) Military strategic framework presents ends, way, and means.

(5) Implementation and assessment identifies areas where change is needed and establishes a
mechanism to measure progress toward achieving the strategic goal.

5. (1) Defense of the nation.

(2) National incident response.

(3) Critical infrastructure protection.

2–34

6. Critical infrastructure protection relies on analysis, warning, information sharing, vulnerability

identification and reduction, mitigation, and aiding of national recovery efforts.
7. The ability to collect, process, and disseminate and uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting
or denying an adversary’s ability to do the same.

8. SCADA refers to a centralized system that monitors and controls industrial sites or complexes of
systems spread out over large areas.

9. SCADA systems are typically implemented as a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag
database, which contains data elements called tags or points.

10. The purpose of IO is to affect adversary decision-making with the intent to modify behavior.

014

1. Air Force Communications Squadrons are typically broken down into two flights with an optional third
flight.

2. Operations Flight (SCO).

3. Air Staff’s Manpower division (AF/A1M).

4. The primary mission of the AOC is to provide the Joint Forces with the tools necessary to fight and win
a major theater war (MTW) within the scope and coordination of all land, sea and air forces.

5. These cyberspace forces execute cyber missions through a cyber-tasking order (CTO).

6. Air Communications Squadron.

7. Combat communications.

8. There is presently one active duty combat communications group in the CONUS the 5th Combat
Communications Group (5 CCG) located at Robins AFB, Georgia.

9. Expeditionary units are established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

10. The 86th Airlift Wing (Ramstein Air Base).

11. 85th EIS.

12. 85th EIS.

015

1. DOD Information Network.

2. 624th OC.

3. 624th OC.

4. By using a cyber-tasking cycle.

5. 67th Cyberspace Wing.

6. To provide continuous operational and mission capable systems.

7. I-NOSC.
8. Area Processing Centers (APC).

9. The ESD mission is to provide help desk network support to all personnel at CONUS and OCONUS US
Air Force bases.

10. Communications squadron itself, depot, AFNetOps, DISA, and others in the areas of assembly,
collation, and assessment of logistics information and sustainment requirements.

016

1. Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a sub unified commander, or an existing joint force
commander

2. To the President and the SecDef.

3. JFACC.

4. A JFACC.

5. The COMAFFOR.

017

1. Combination of equipment and personnel.

2. UTC posturing (positioning) and coding.

Unit review

18. (009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense

(DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including

the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

a. Title 10.

b. Title 18.

c. Title 32.

d. Title 50.

19. (009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code

(USC)?

a. Title 3.

b. Title 8.

c. Title 10.
d. Title 18.

20. (010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure

cyberspace?

a. National Military Cyberspace Strategy.

b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

c. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.

d. National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

21. (010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as

a key strategic priority?

a. National Security Policy.

b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

c. Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

d. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

22. (010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic

approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber

domain?

a. National Security Policy.

b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

c. Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

d. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

23. (010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what

title status must they be in to execute those missions?

a. Title 10.

b. Title 30.

c. Title 50.

d. Title 52.

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24. (010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or

favoritism is an unethical situation known as

a. misuse of position.

b. covered relationships.

c. non-public information.

d. personal conflict of interest.

25. (010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is

an example of which type of unethical situation?

a. Misuse of position.

b. Covered relationship.

c. Personal conflict of interest.

d. None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

26. (011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center

(I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

a. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

b. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

c. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

d. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

27. (011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate

numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and

controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I- NOSC)?

a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

b. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

28. (011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air

Force Information Network (AFIN)?

a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

b. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

29. (011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace

defense weapon system?

a. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

b. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

c. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

d. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

30. (011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint

warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

b. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

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31. (011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a

comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

a. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

b. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

c. Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.

d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

32. (012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force

cyberspace mission?

a. Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.

b. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

c. Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.

d. Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.

33. (012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and

directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

a. Active and reactive.

b. Evasive and decisive.

c. Subversive and divisive.

d. Offensive and defensive.

34. (012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a

common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

a. Counterintelligence (CI).

b. Operation Security (OPSEC).

c. Military deception (MILDEC).

d. Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

35. (013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for

Securing Cyberspace?

a. Strategic Considerations.

b. Military Strategic Framework.

c. Implementation and Assessment.

d. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

36. (013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization

and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

a. Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

b. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

c. National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

d. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

37. (014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders

anywhere at any time?

a. 644th Combat Communication Squadron.

b. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

c. 83th Network Operations Squadron.

d. 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

38. (015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to

reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Area Processing Center (APC).

c. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

d. Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

2–39

39. (015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web

access, and storage?

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Area Processing Center (APC).

c. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

d. Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

40. (015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and

forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

a. Manpower.

b. Efficiency.

c. Reduce costs.

d. Department of Defense 8570 mandate.

41. (015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all

locations within a single ticketing system?

a. 2009.

b. 2010.

c. 2011.

d. 2012.

42. (016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

a. Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

b. Unified command and subordinate unified command.

c. Functional command and geographical command.

d. Unified command and functional command.

43. (016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force

(AETF) and provides unity of command to a

a. Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

b. Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

c. Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

d. Joint Force Commander (JFC).

44. (017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders

(CCDR)?

a. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

b. Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

c. Unit type codes (UTC).

d. Stratum levels (SL).

45. (017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace

Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

a. Coding.

b. Positioning.

c. Tempo bands.

d. Unit type code.

018. Information Technology Infrastructure Library

1. What is the core of the ITIL Framework?

2. What does the ITIL Service Life Cycle provide?

3. Match the ITIL Service Life Cycle Stage in Column B with the description in Column A. Items in Column
B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A

Column B

____ (1) Ensures that the framework developed in the Service Transition Stage is implemented.

____ (2) This stage includes determining risks, constraints, and whether the service will meet
requirements.

____ (3) An overarching stage for maintaining service quality.

____ (4) The stage in which the required service is designed and developed.

____ (5) A critical stage of the Service Life Cycle because the decisions made in this stage impact all
subsequent stages.

a. Service Strategy.

b. Service Design.

c. Service Transition.

d. Service Station.

e. Service Operation.

f. CSI.

019. Electornic communications

1. How does Air Force EIM enable mission capabilities?

2. What is the primary purpose of a chat room?

3. What services are provided by DCS?

3–10

4. What is the Air Force goal concerning Internet resources? 5. May government provided hardware and
software be authorized for personal use?

6. Define inappropriate use of the Internet.

7. Is it appropriate or inappropriate to view another user’s files or communications without permission?

8. What are the two types of Air Force Web pages/sites?

9. What is the difference between the public and private Air Force Web pages/sites?

10. Who will appoint Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private
websites?

11. What do properly written email summaries provide?

020. Enterprise Information Management

1. How many distinct EIM capabilities does SharePoint offer?

2. Which SharePoint workflow requests agreement from all involved parties?

3. What capabilities does SharePoint offer you for managing documents?

021. Records management program objectives

1. What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?

2. Whose rights must be protected through the proper implementation of the records management
programs?

3. What are draft records?

4. What are final records?

5. How must Air Force units at all levels manage records?

6. What records relate solely to an individual’s private affairs?

3–16

022. Records management responsibilities

1. Match the responsibility in column A with the position in column B. Items in column B may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A

Column B

____ (1) Manages the base staging area.

____ (2) Ensures offices of records receive a SAV a least every 24 months.

____ (3) Ensures records custodians attend record management training.

____ (4) Maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records.

____ (5) Ensures all personnel who create, maintain, and dispose of records, attend records
management training.

____ (6) Trains all personnel within three months of assignment, whose duties include filing,
maintaining, and disposing of records.
a. RM.

b. FARM.

c. COR.

d. RC.

2. What is the purpose of a staging area?

3. Who ensures installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a SAV
at least every 24 months?

ANSWERS

018

1. The ITIL Service Life Cycle.

2. A structure that enables you to organize information and processes into an interconnected
framework.

3. (1) e.

(2) c.

(3) f.

(4) b.

(5) a.

019

1. Through seamless integrated access to the right information anytime or anywhere.

2. To share information via text with a group of individuals.

3. Web conferencing and IM.

4. Within acceptable risks, provide maximum accessibility to personnel requiring access for official
business.

5. Yes, only if approved by appropriate officials.

6. Using the Internet for other than official or authorized purposes is the definition of inappropriate use.

7. Inappropriate.

8. Public and private.

9. Public webpages/sites are intended for viewing by the general public; private webpages/sites are
intended for a limited audience.

10. Wing commander.

11. They sum up a lengthy e-mail or re-emphasize topics of significant importance.

3–17

020

1. Four.

2. Approval workflow.

3. a. Store, organize, and locate documents.

b. ensure the consistency of documents.

c. manage metadata for documents.

d. Help protect documents for unauthorized access or use.

e. Ensure consistent business process in document handling.

021

1. Records.

2. US government and persons directly affected by Air Force actions.

3. Unsigned or unreleased records that may be altered.

4. Records that have been officially signed, released and cannot be altered.

5. Air Force units at all levels must manage records systematically to make sure they are complete,
accurate, trustworthy, and easily accessible.

6. Personal records.

022

1. (1) a.

(2) b.

(3) c.

(4) d.

(5) c.

(6) a.

2. Temporary storage of records pending destruction of transfer to a federal records center.

3. RM ensures offices of record receive a SAV at least every 24 months.

UNIT REVIEW

46. (018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

Service Life Cycle stages?

a. Service Transition.

b. Service Strategy.

c. Service Contact.

d. Service Design.

47. (018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage

for maintaining service quality?

a. Continual Service Improvement.

b. Service Transition.

c. Service Strategy.

d. Service Design.

48. (019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower

users to

a. safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.

b. exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

c. improve the effectiveness of the mission.

d. improve the efficiency of the mission.

49. (019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User

Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what

article of the UCMJ?

a. Article 32.

b. Article 40.

c. Article 92.

d. Article 100.
50. (019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

a. Two.

b. Four.

c. Six.

d. Eight.

51. (019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its

main purpose?

a. A rewriting of the main point.

b. A well-written summary.

c. A postscript message.

d. None of the above.

52. (020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

3–19

53. (021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an “official government record?” a. AFI 33-321.

b. AFI 33-322. c. AFI 33-329. d. AFI 33-332.

54. (021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

a. Published doctrines.

b. Geographical base maps.

c. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

d. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

55. (021) Records that are considered to be in draft format

a. can be altered and are not officially released.

b. can’t be altered, but are officially released.

c. can’t be altered and are officially signed.

d. officially signed and officially released.

56. (022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base

records managers?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager.

57. (022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager.

58. (022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force

organization or contractor to perform records management?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager.

59. (022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

a. Base records manager.

b. Command records manager.

c. Chief of the Office of Records.

d. Functional area records manager.

023. Department of Defense/Joint publications

1. Who is the principal defense policy advisor to the President?

2. What are all published DOD policies called?

3. What are the four major types of DOD issuances?

4–13
4. What are the two types of DODD?

5. What DODD authorized the publication of DODM 8570.1-M?

6. What do non-policy instructions not do?

7. If a DODM exceeds 100 pages in length, what action must be taken?

8. What DOD issuance is only used for a time-sensitive action that affects a current DOD issuance or that
will become a DOD issuance?

9. Who governs preparation of JP?

10. What Joint Doctrine Document provides a doctrine for information operations planning, preparation,
execution, and assessment in support of joint operations?

11. What website would you visit for more information on CJCS Publications?

12. What are DISA issuances?

024. Air Force Publications

1. What type of AF publication is a “how-to” guide?

2. Why are AFPAMs written in an informal style?

3. Define doctrine.

4. (True/False) Permanent visual aids must be attributable to guidance or information in a directive

publication.

4–14

5. What statement must be printed in the header on directive publications?

6. What purpose to AFPDs serve?

7. When would it be appropriate to issue a new AFPM?

8. What do AFIs provide?

9. What do AFNOIs provide?

10. How are OIs different from AFIs?

11. AFMAN 33–326, Preparing Official Communications, implements which AFPD?

12. Installation publications are issued by whom?

13. (True/False) All publications must be at least as restrictive as the higher headquarters publication
they implement and must not contradict the higher headquarters publication.

14. What organization manages AF publications?

15. What form would you use to recommend changes and improvements to Air Force publications?
025. Technical Order System

1. What information does the TO system include as outlined in TO 00–5–1?

2. What POC oversees TO requirements and distribution within an organization?

3. What are the Technical Order Distribution Office’s (TODO) duties?

4. What do TODA POCs oversee?

5. What type of TO provides information on basic electronics or installation practices?

4–20

6. Match the technical order type in Column B with the description in Column A. Items in Column B may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A

Column B

____ (1) Support equipment designed and manufactured for commercial use.

____ (2) Excerpts from one or more basic TOs that organize and simplify instructions.

____ (3) Used for modifying military systems and end items or performing one-time inspections.

____ (4) Category 00 and are general in content and are not issued against specific military systems or
end items.

____ (5) Developed for other services or government departments and authorized for use by Air Force
personnel.

____ (6) Used in lieu of specific equipment TOs, and are categorized into three types: Category, System,
and Equipment-series.

____ (7) Contain instructions for use in conjunction with data contained in their parent TOs, and are not
stand-alone publications.

____ (8) Covers installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration, servicing or
handling of Air Force military systems and end items.

____ (9) Include facility, system, subsystem, installation engineering and installation manuals, general
engineering and planning manuals, and standard installation practices .

a. TCTO.

b. MPTO.

c. SIPTO.

d. O&M TO.

e. General TO.
f. COTS Manual.

g. Abbreviated TO.

h. Supplemental TO.

i. Joint use publication.

026. Industry and military standards

1. What business sectors does the ANSI influence?

2. Where does the Telecommunications Industry Association obtain its accreditation?

3. What standards does the ECIA develop?

4. What specifications do MIL-STDs contain?

ANSWERS

023

1. The Secretary of Defense.

2. Issuances.

3. (1) Directives.

(2) Instructions.

(3) Manuals.

(4) Directive-type memorandums.

4. Direct oversight and chartering.

4–21

5. DODD 8570.01 Information Assurance (IA) Training, Certification, and Workforce Management.

6. Establish policy.

7. Must be broken down into multiple volumes.

8. Directive-type memorandums.

9. CJCS.

10. Joint Publication 3–13, Joint Doctrine for Information Operations.

11. www.jcs.mil.
12. DISA issuances are official Agency policy that establish, delegate, or implement specific policies;
assign and delineate responsibilities; and in some cases provide procedures for DISA employees and
mission partners who use any DISA managed system.

024

1. Nondirective publication.

2. To maintain the reader’s interest.

3. Fundamental principles by which the military forces or elements thereof guide their action in support
of national objectives.

4. True.

5. Compliance with this publication is mandatory.

6. Directive policy statement to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of
responsibility by Air Force activities.

7. When there is insufficient time to process a new AFPD or to rewrite and existing AFPD.

8. Essential procedural guidance on implementing DoD, Air Force, or higher departmental policies
and/or laws.

9. Provide operating procedures and checklists for network operations. AFNOIs are used to document
standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot network software and equipment and
are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force publications or technical orders.

10. OIs differ from AFIs in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron
or flight level.

11. AFPD 33–3, Information Management.

12. Installation commanders.

13. True

14. AFDPO.

15. AF Form 847.

025

1. The TOs, infrastructure, training, and resources to manage and use TOs.

2. The TODO.

3. Establish and maintain a TO Account in ETIMS, establish and maintain organization TODA for
organization subaccounts, and maintain records of TOs required and on hand in organization physical
distribution media TO libraries.

4. Physical distribution media TO/e-TO requirements and distribution activities within the assigned
mission area, shop or office.
5. SIPTO.

6. (1) f.

(2) g.

(3) a.

(4) b.

(5) i.

(6) e.

4–22

(7) h.

(8) d.

(9) c.

026

1. Nearly every sector of business.

2. ANSI.

3. IP&E electronic components under the ANSI-designation of EIA standards.

4. Specifications in which commercial vendors would have to meet or exceed when providing equipment
or services.

UNIT REVIEW

60. (023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

a. The President.

b. The Chief of Staff.

c. The Vice President.

d. The Deputy Secretary.

61. (023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary

of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function,

relationships and authority?

a. Direct oversight directives.

b. Secretary Policy memo.

c. Directive-type memo.

d. Chartering directives.

62. (023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of

Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA)

awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher

awareness?

a. DODD 8140.01.

b. DODD 5515.01.

c. DODD 8220.01.

d. DODD 8570.01.

63. (023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

64. (023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the

established subject groups and sub subject groups?

a. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

b. Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.

c. Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

d. Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

65. (023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series

of publications?

a. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

b. JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.

peration Planning.

d. JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.

4–24

66. (024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to

fit the circumstances?

a. Directive.

b. Non-directive.

c. Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).

d. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

67. (024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

a. AF Doctrine.

b. AF Handbook (AFH).

c. AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).

d. AF Visual Aid (AFVA).

68. (024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that

contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified

areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).

b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

d. Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

69. (024) What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded

by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).

b. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

d. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).

70. (024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization

and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).

b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

d. Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

71. (024) What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing

Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).

b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

d. Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

72. (025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO)

00–5–1?

a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

b. Resources required to manage and use TOs.

c. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

d. Training to manage and use TOs.

73. (025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

a. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

b. Office Automation System (OAS).

c. Decision Support System (DSS).

d. Training Business Area (TBA).

4–25

74. (025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an

organization?

a. Library custodian.
b. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

c. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

d. Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).

75. (025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized

access to the data?

a. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

b. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

c. Library custodian.

d. Any user.

76. (025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with “31” and

covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

a. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

b. Operation and Maintenance TO.

c. Methods and Procedures TO.

d. General TO.

77. (026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic

components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic

Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

a. Defense Standardization Program (DSP).

b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

c. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).