SANKALP EDUCATION
Marks: 200 Full Length Paper - 2
Q1. The type of surveying used to determine the
details of boundaries, fields etc, is known as
(a) City Surveying
(b) Geographical Surveying
(c) Cadastral Surveying
(d) Topographical Surveying
Q2. Using RF of 1/5000, the distance between two
points A and B on the map was found to be 500m.
The distance between the same points when
measured with a scale of RF 1/1000 will be?
(a) 1000 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 10000 m
Q3. When the length of chain used in measuring
distance is longer than the standard length, the error
in measured distance will be
(a) Positive Error
(b) Negative Error
(c) Compensating Error
(d) None of these
Q4. Reciprocal ranging is applied when
(a) Both ends of survey line are not inter-visible
(b) A high intervening ground is found in
between two end stations
(c) Long distance between two end stations
(d) All of the above
Q5. Which of the following is obstacle to chaining
but not to ranging?
(a) River
(b) Lake
(c) Pond
(d) Hill
Q6. When the image formed by the objective is not
situated in the plane of cross-hairs
(a) The cross-hair should be adjusted
(b) The eye-piece should be focused
(c) The objective should be focused
(d) The parallax should be removed
Q7. An angle measured clockwise from the preceding
survey line to the following survey line is called
(a) Direct angle
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Time: 120 minutes
(b) Vertical angle
(c) Deflection angle
(d) Horizontal angle
Q8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The distance measured parallel to the north-
south line is called latitude of the line
(b) The distance measured parallel to the east-
west line is called departure of the line
(c) The latitude is positive when measured
downward or southward
(d) The departure is negative when measured to
the left or westward
Q9. The method of intersection in plane tabling is
commonly used for
(a) Locating the distance and inaccessible points
(b) Locating the broken boundaries
(c) Locating the points which may be used
subsequently as the instrument station
(d) All of these
Q10. The method of plane tabling used commonly
for establishing the instrument stations only is a
(a) Method of Radiation
(b) Method of Intersection
(c) Method of traversing
(d) Method of Resection
Q11. The point where plumb line dropped from the
front nodal point pierces the photograph is known as
(a) Principal point
(b) Focal point
(c) Nodal point
(d) Nadir point
Q12. A camera having focal length of 20 cm is used
to take a vertical photograph to a terrain having an
average elevation of 1500m. What is the height
above sea at which an air-craft must fly in order to
get the photograph at a scale of 1:8000?
(a) 1500 m
(b) 3100 m
(c) 1600 m
(d) 4600 m
Q13. Two theodolite method of setting out a curve
involves
 (a) Linear measurements only (a) At least 50%
(b) Angular measurements only (b) At least 85%
(c) Both A & B (c) At least 100%
(d) None of these (d) At least 1.5 times
Q14. If D is the degree of curve, R is the radius of Q22. In case of ultrasonic pulse velocity test, we get
curve, what will be the relation between R and D for (a) Equivalent Compressive Strength
given length of chord equal to 30m? (b) Qualitative results
(a) R= 1520/D (c) Both A & B
(b) R= 1720/D (d) Neither A nor B
(c) R= 4500/D Q23. In a T – beam side face reinforcement shall be
(d) R= 1320/D (a) 1% Cross sectional area
Q15. The error which follows the mathematical law (b) 0.1% Cross sectional area
of probability is (c) 0.15% Cross sectional area
(a) Mistakes (d) 0.1% of web area
(b) Compensating Error Q24. Pitch of ties in a column of size 230mmx
(c) Systematic Error 450mm for seismic zone II shall be equal to
(d) Accidental Error (a) 230mm
Q16 Minimum cement content for mild environment (b) 16 times dia. of smallest longitudinal bars
using 10mm size aggregate, shall be ....................... (c) Least of (a) & (b)
kg per cubic meter of concrete (d) None of these
(a) 300 Q25. A beam is called a deep beam if it L/D ratio is
(b) 320 ................ in simply supported condition and
(c) 340 .............. in continuous beam structure
(d) 360 (a) 2,2.5
Q17. Maximum W/C ratio for RCC work (b) 2,2
(a) 0.30 (c) 2.5,2
(b) 0.50 (d) 1.5,2.5
(c) 0.45 Q26. Punching shear strength of concrete in Limit
(d) 0.60 state method is taken as
Q18. Effective span of end span of a continuous (a) 0.7√fck
beam supported on walls is (b) 0.25√fck
(a) Clear span + effective depth (c) 0.16√fck
(b) Clear span + 1/2 effective depth (d) 5000√fck
(c) Clear span + support width Q27. The surface crack width in case of structures in
(d) Center to center distance contact with groundwater should not exceed,
Q19. Torsion reinforcement is provided in form of (a) 1 mm (b) 0.3 mm
(a) Development length (c) 0.1 mm (d) 0.2 mm
(b) Stirrups Q28. Which grade of concrete is also represented as
(c) Minimum Longitudinal reinforcements mix with volume proportion 1:2:4
(d) Side face reinforcement (a) M15
Q20. Diameter of lateral ties should not be less than (b) M10
(a) 1/4 times dia. of largest longitudinal bar (c) M25
(b) 1/2 times dia. of largest longitudinal bar (d) M30
(c) 1/4 times dia. of smallest longitudinal bar Q29. In self compacted concrete, slump will be
(d) 1/2 times dia. of smallest longitudinal bar (a) 150 – 200 mm slump
Q21. In case of core test, the average strength of (b) Collapse slump
core should be ............. of cube strength (c) Flowing slump

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 (d) Shear slump (c) Reduces with time
Q30. Moist curing of concrete in case of concrete (d) Independent of time
made by OPC and PPC shall be ........... days and Q38. Which method of determination of water
.............. days respectively content can be used only when specific gravity of soil
(a) 7,14 (b) 10,14 solids is known in advance.
(c) 7,10 (d) 14,28 (a) Pycnometer method
Q31. The maximum compressive strain in concret (b) Calcium carbide method
subjected to combined axial compression and (c) Sand bath method
bending case is given as (d) Oven drying method
(a) 0.0035 Q39. The shape of the particle size curve can be
(b) 0.002 represented by
(c) 0.002 + 0.87fy/Es (a) Cu
(d) 0.002+ 0.75x Strain of most compressed fibre (b) Cc
Q32. Equivalent shear force in case of combined (c) Ip
shear and torsion, depends on? (d) If
(a) Depth of section Q40. For determination of liquid limit in laboratory
(b) Width of section the soil sample passing through_____ IS sieve Is
(c) Length of element used
(d) All of the Above (a) 75µ
Q33. Workability of concrete is inversely (b) 425µ
proportional to (c) 100µ
(a) w/c ratio (d) 200µ
(b) Size of aggregate Q41. From the plot of water content vs. no of blows
(c) Time of Transit on semi log graph the liquid limit is obtained as
(d) Amount of superplasticizer water content corresponding to ____ blows.
Q34. Which admixture is added to concrete to (a) 15
improve its ability to resist freezing and thawing of (b) 10
concrete? (c) 20
(a) Retarding admixtures (d) 25
(b) Accelerating admixtures Q42. Porosity for soil lies in the range of
(c) Super plasticizers (a) 0 to 1
(d) Air-entraining admixtures (b) 0 to ∞
Q35. Increase in quantity of C3S will convert the (c) 1 to 2
ordinary cement to which of the below (d) 0 to 0.1
(a) High Strength cement Q43. When soil is at liquid limit, (W= WL) , Ic= ____
(b) Rapid Hardening Cement (a) 0
(c) Slow setting cement (b) 1
(d) Low Heat Cement (c) ∞
Q36. Kelly Ball Penetration Test is carried out for (d) None of the above
(a) Consistency & Workability of fresh concrete Q44. Density index is the ratio of _______
(b) Hardness of set concrete (a) emax- e/emax- emin
(c) Brittleness of set concrete (b) e - emax/emax- e
(d) Durability of set concrete (c) emax- emin/emax- e
Q37. What would be the impact on rate of creep in (d) emin- e/emax
Concrete under the effect of constant stress
(a) Remains constant with time
(b) Increases with time

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Q45. A soil having liquid limit= 60% and Plasicity (c) Ratio of Total head loss to the flow length at
Index (Ip)=40 the given soil can be classified as exit
__________as per Casagrande plasticity chart (d) Ratio of Total head loss to total flow length
(a) CL (b) CH Q53. A flow net has 6 flow channels and 24
(c) SM (d) CL-ML equipotential drops, the shape factor is
Q46. Casagrande equation for IS plasticity chart to (a) 4
determine IP is __________ (b) 1/4
(a) 0.63( WL-20) (c) 144
(b) 0.9(WL-40) (d) 10
(c) 0.73(WL-20) Q54. Two soils A and B have 85% and 65%
(d) 0.73(WL-WP) respectively as the degree of saturation. The
Q47. Generally, honeycomb structure is observed in permeability of A ______than that of B.
case of __________ deposits (a) More
(a) Silt (b) Less
(b) Clay (c) Equal to
(c) Boulders (d) None of the above
(d) Gravels Q55. For a standard compression test the mass of
Q48. The ______ clay minerals has high swelling and hammer and the drop of hammer are as follows:
shrinkage characteristics (a) 2.6 Kg and 450 mm
(a) Kaolinite (b) 2.6 Kg and 310 mm
(b) Montmorillonite (c) 4.8 Kg and 310 mm
(c) Illite (d) 4.89 Kg and 450 mm
(d) Non of the above Q56. When drainage is not permitted throughout the
Q49. The liquid limit of soil mass is 20% and it’s triaxial test, the test is known as
plastic limit is 25% then plasticity index of soil is (a) Quick Test
(a) 5 (b) Slow Test
(b) -5 (c) Consolidated Undrained Test
(c) 0 (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above Q57. The O.C.R. (Over Consolidation Ratio) of an
Q50. A flownet is drawn for a weir ,the total head Normally consolidated clay is
lose is 6m, number of potential drop is 10 and length (a) Equal to 1
of flow path for the last square is 1 m. The exit (b) More than 1
gradient is_______ (c) Less than 1
(a) 0.7 (d) Less than Equal to 1
(b) 1.6 Q58. The permeability of a soil deposit in-situ can be
(c) 1 best obtained by
(d) 0.6 (a) Falling head permeameter
Q51. With an increase in the liquid limit, (b) Constant head permeameter
compression index (c) Pumping test
(a) Decreases (d) Yield test
(b) Increases Q59. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick
(c) Remains Constant condition in a sand stratum of thickness of 2 m, if G =
(d) May increase or decrease 2.7 and e = 0.7, is
Q52. The exit gradient is equal to ratio of (a) 0.5
(a) Slope of flow line (b) 2
(b) Ratio of head loss at exit to the flow length (c) 1
at exit (d) 2.5

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Q60. Lacustrine soils are soils equal to 1. Which one of the following shear test
(a) transported by rivers and streams represents this condition?
(b) transported by glaciers (a) Drained triaxial compression test
(c) deposited in sea beds (b) Undrained triaxial compression test
(d) deposited in lake beds (c) Undrained shear test
Q61. In an undrained compression test, the sample (d) Unconfined compression test
failed at a deviator stress of 200 kN/m2 when the cell Q68. Two footings, one circular and the other
pressure was 100 kN/m2. The cohesion intercept in square, are founded on the surface of purely
this case would be cohesionless soil. The diameter of the circular
(a) 200 kN/m2 footing is the same as that of the side of the square
(b) 100 kN/m2 footing. The ratio of the ultimate bearing capacities
(c) 300 kN/m2 of the square footing will be
(d) 50 kN/m2 (a) 1
Q62. Westergaard’s analysis for stress distribution (b) 1.3
beneath loaded areas is applicable to (c) 1.33
(a) Sandy soils (d) 0.75
(b) Clayey soils Q69. The load carrying capacity of an individual
(c) Stratified soils friction pile is 200 kN. What is the total load carrying
(d) Silty Soils capacity of a group of 9 such piles with a group
Q63. The safe bearing capacity of the soil is equal to efficiency factor of 0.8?
(a) Normal strength  Factor of safety (a) 1800 kN
(b) Ultimate bearing power/Factor of safety (b) 1640 kN
(c) Ultimate tensile strength/Factor of safety (c) 1440 kN
(d) Ultimate compressive strength/Factor of (d) 900 kN
safety Q70. The permissible stress in axial tension in steel
Q64. The correct sequence of minerals in soil in an member on the net effective area of the section shall
increasing order is not exceed the following value (Note: fy is the yield
(a) Silica, Kaolinite, Illite, Montmorillonite stress)
(b) Kaolinite, Illite, Montmorillonite, Silica (a) 0.8fy
(c) Montmorillonite, Silica, Kaolinite, Illite (b) 0.75fy
(d) Kaolinite, Illite, Silica, Montmorillonite (c) 0.6fy
Q65. Oedometer is used to calculate which of the (d) 0.5fy
following soil parameter Q71. Lacing bar shall be inclined at an angle  which
(a) Compressibility should be between
(b) Permeability (a) 200-500
(c) Specific gravity (b) 300-600
(d) Particle size analysis (c) 400-700
Q66. The total, neutral and effective vertical stresses (d) 500-800
(in t/m2) at a depth of 5m below the surface of a fully Q72. The slenderness ratio of lacing bar should not
saturated soil deposit with a saturated density of 2
exceed
t/m3 would respectively be
(a) 135
(a) 5, 5 and 10
(b) 145
(b) 5, 10 and 5
(c) 155
(c) 10, 5 and 10
(d) 165
(d) 10, 5 and 5
Q73. The thickness of battens shall be
Q67. A shear test was conducted on a soil sample. At
(a) 1/10th of effective length of batten
failure, the ratio of (P1 – P3)/2 to (P1 + P3)/2 was
(b) 1/15th of effective length of batten

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 (c) 1/10th of the distance between the (c) 2.5d
innermost connecting lines of rivets, bolt or (d) 3.0d
welds Q81. Flexibility method is also called as:
(d) 1/15th of the distance between the 1) force method
innermost connecting lines of rivets, bolt or 2) compatibility method
welds 3) consistent deformation method
Q74. The design compressive stress of an axially (a) Only1
loaded compression member in IS-800-2007 is given (b) 1 and 2
by (c) 1 and 3
(a) Ranking formula
(d) 1,2 and 3
(b) Secant formula
Q82. Matrix stiffness method
(c) Merchant Ranking formula
1) forms the basis for computerization
(d) Perry Robertson formula 2) yields the displacements and forces in one go
Q75. An example of light moment connection is 3) can be used to analyse both determinate and
(a) framed connection indeterminate structure
(b) unstiffened seat connection (a) 1 and 2
(c) clip angle connection (b) 1 and 3
(d) split beam connection (c) 2 and 3
Q76. A circle is marked on a mild steel plate and then (d) 1,2 and 3
it is subjected to two normal stresses is a mutually Q83. Deflection of simply supported beam at mid-
perpendicular direction along with simple shear. span under a concentrated load is
After the loading, the circle
(a) assumes the shape of a ellipse WL3
(a)
(b) assumes the shape of a cycloid 48El
(c) remains as a circle WL2
(b)
(d) assumes the shape of a square 8El
Q77. As per IS 1893:2002, dynamic analysis shall ber WL3
performed for regular buildings of height greater (c)
3El
than ______ m in zones IV
(a) 50 WL3
(d)
(b) 40 96El
(c) 45 Q84. Wiliot-Mohr diagram is used to find
(d) 60 (a) displacement in a structure
Q78. Percentage of imposed load to be considered (b) settlement of a structure
is______ in seismic weight consideration for Imposed (c) strain energy in a structure
uniformly distributed floor load above 3 kN/m2 (d) principal stresses in a structure
(a) 25 Q85. Unit load method is based on
(b) 30 (a) Internal Strain energy
(c) 50 (b) Theorem of Minimum Potential Energy
(d) 75 (c) Theorem of Minimum Deflection
Q79. Gantry girders are designed to resist (d) Castigliano’s theorem
(a) lateral loads Q86. Maximum deflection at mid-span of a simply
(b) longitudinal loads and vertical loads supported beam with UDL is
(c) lateral, longtidinal and vertical loads WL3
(d) lateral and longitudinal loads (a)
48El
Q80. Minimum pitch of the riverts shall not be less
4WL3
than (b)
(a) 1.5d 48El
(b) 2.0d

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 5WL4 (Actual answer is 5wl^4/384EI) (d) both 1 and 2 are false

(c) 38El CANCELLED Q92. Torsional failure surface of ductile material

occurs at
5WL4 (a) Transverse Plane
(d)
48El (b) 600 to transverse plane
Q87. Structures having more reactions than that (c) 450 to transverse plane
required for necessary and sufficient conditions are (d) Any random plane
1. Hyperstatic Q93. The square root of the ratio of moment of
2. Determinate inertia of the cross section to its cross-sectional area
3. Indeterminate is called
4. Hypostatic (a) Second moment of area
(a) Only 1 (b) Slenderness ratio
(b) 1 and 3 (c) Section modulus
(c) Only 2 (d) Radius of gyration
(d) 2 and 4 Q94. The point of contraflexure primarily occurs in
Q88. Statistically indeterminate beam can be solved (a) Cantilever beams
by: (b) Simply supported beams
1) Displacement Method (c) Overhanging beams
2) Energy Method
(d) Fixed beams
3) Matrix Method
4) Four moment equation Method Q95. Section modulus of Hollow Circular Section
(a) 1 and 2 having external Dia (D) and internal Dia (d) is
(a) (D - d)4/32
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3 (b) (D4 - d4)/36D
(d) All of the above (c) (D4 - d4)/32D
Q89. Which of the following yield criteria are (d) (D - d)4/36
suitable for ductile and isotropic material? Q96. Two shaft of different diameter d1 and d2 are
1) Maximum normal stress theory made from same material and are of same length
2) Maximum shear stress theory under the action of same torque T the ratio of strain
3) Maximum energy distortion theory energy V1/V2.
4) Maximum compressive theory (a) [d2/d1]3
(a) 1 and2 (b) [d1/d2]2
(b) 2 and 3 (c) [d2/d1]2
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) [d2/d1]4
(d) All of the above Q97. Two people weighing W each sitting on a plank
of length L floating on water at L/4 from either end.
Q90. Which one of the following is conservative
Neglecting the weight of the plank, the bending
failure theory for brittle material?
moment at the centre of the Plank is
(a) Maximum normal stress theory
(a) WL/8
(b) Maximum shear theory
(c) Coulomb-Mohr theory (b) WL/16
(d) St. Venant theory (c) WL/32
Q91. State true or false (d) Zero
1) Any two orthogonal surfaces are sufficient to Q98. If creep coefficient for concrete at 7 days is K1
completely specify the principal stresses for and 28 days is K2 then
a biaxial state of stress. (a) K1 > K2
2) Only one surface is required to specify the (b) K1 < K2
maximum shear stress completely.
(c) K1 = K2
(a) 1 is true but 2 is false
(d) K1 ≤ K2
(b) 1 is false, but 2 is true
(c) both 1 and 2 are true

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Q99. The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a (c) the difference of the degree of statically
distance of from its base measured along the vertical indeterminacy and kinematic indeterminacy
radius (d) the number of joints in the structure
(a) 4r/3 Q106. A single bay portal frame of height ‘h’ fixed at
(b) 8r/3 the base is subjected to a horizontal displacement 
(c) 3r/4 at the top. The base moment developed is
(d) 3r/8 proportional to
Q100. If the resultant of two forces has the same (a) 1/h
magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle (b) 1/h2
between the two forces is (c) 1/h3
(a) 900 (d) 1/h4
(b) 600 Q107. Influence line Diagram for redundant
(c) 1200 structures can be obtained by
(d) 300 (a) Castigliano’s Theorem
Q101. If a number of forces are acting at a point, (b) Muller-Breslau Principle
their resultant will be inclined at an angle  with the (c) Unit Load Theorem
horizontal, such that (d) All of the above
(a) tan  = V  H Q108. Free floats is mainly used to
(b) tan  = H / V (a) Identify the activities which can be delayed
(c) tan  = V + H without affecting the total float of the
preceding activities
(d) tan  = V / H
(b) Identify the activities which can be delayed
Q102. When a bar is subjected to a uniform change
of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the without affecting the total float of the
stress induced in the bar is succeeding activities
(a) shear stress (c) Identify the activities which can be delayed
(b) compressive stress without affecting the total float of the
(c) tensile stress preceding activities or succeeding activities
(d) bending stress (d) Establish priorities
Q103. Section shear centre is point through which ,if Q109. Critical Path is always
the resultant load passes the section will not be (a) The longest path
subjected to any (b) The shortest path
(a) Bending (c) The most profitable path
(b) Tension (d) The fastest path
(c) Compression Q110. Economic saving of time results by crashing
(d) Torsion (a) Cheapest critical activity
Q104. The Young’s modulus of a material is 125 GPa (b) Costliest critical activity
and Poission’s ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of (c) Cheapest non-critical activity
the material is (d) Costliest non-critical activity
(a) 100 GPa Q111. Interfering float is the difference between
(b) 80 GPa (a) Total float and Free float
(c) 50 GPa (b) Total float and Independent float
(d) 30 GPa (c) Independent float and Free float
Q105. The number of simultaneous equations to be (d) None of the above
solved in the slope deflection method is equal to Q112. Grader is used mainly for
(a) The degree of static indeterminacy (a) Trimming and finishing
(b) The degree of kinematic indeterminacy (b) Shaping and trimming
(c) Finishing and shaping

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 (d) finishing, shaping and trimming (d) 150 mm
Q113. The process of incorporating changes and Q120. Which of these does not the zone of aeration
rescheduling or replanning is called in the soil profile?
(a) resource leveling (a) Saturation zone
(b) resource smoothening (b) Capillary zone
(c) updating (c) Intermediate zone
(d) critical path scheduling (d) Soil water zone
Q114. A typical sequence of following development Q121. According to Kennedy, non-silting and non-
phases in a construction project is scouring velocity is called CANCELLED
(P) Plan development (a) Area of flow section and top water surface
(Q) Commissioning width
(R) Concept analysis (b) Area of flow section and the wetted
(S) Execution perimeter
(a) P-Q-R-S (c) Total cross sectional area and top water
(b) P-R-S-Q surface width
(c) P-S-R-Q (d) Total cross sectional area and the wetted
(d) R-P-S-Q perimeter
Q115. The full form of PERT method of project Q122. Lacey’s theory is applicable to flow
network analysis is: (a) through pipes
(a) Project Estimation and Review Technique (b) over spillways
(b) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (c) in alluvial rivers and canal
(c) Project Estimation and Report Technique (d) in concrete lined canals
(d) Partial Evaluation and Review Techniqe Q123. Isohyetal method is used for determination of
Q116. Given that the base period is 100 days and the (a) evapotranspiration
duty of the cannel is 1000 hectares per cumees, the (b) seepage loss
depth of water will be (c) precipitation
(a) 0.864 cm (d) intensity of flood
(b) 8.64cm Q124. Hyetograph is a plot of
(c) 86.4 cm (a) Cumulative rainfall v/s time
(d) 864 cm (b) Rainfall intensity v/s time
Q117. Acidic soils are reclaimed by (c) Rainfall depth v/s time
(a) Leaching of the soil (d) Discharge v/s time
(b) Using limestone as a soil amendment Q125. The error which follows the mathematical law
(c) Using gypsum as a soil amendment of probability is
(d) Provision of drainage (a) Mistakes
Q118. The delta for a crop having base period 120 (b) Compensating Error
days is 70 cm. What is the duty? (c) Systematic Error
(a) 2480 hectare/cumec (d) Accidental Error
(b) 1481 hectare/cumec Q126. Probable maximum flood is
(c) 14.81 hectare/cumec (a) an impossibly large flood discharge
(d) 1.481 hectare/cumec (b) largest flood that could conceivably occur at
Q119. What is the moisture depth available for a particular location
evapotranspiration in root of 1 m depth soil, if dry (c) a flood with maximum probability of
weight of soil is 1.5 gm/cc, field capacity is 30% and occurrence.
permenant wilting point is 10%? (d) the maximum possible flood which is
(a) 450 mm probable for that year
(b) 300 mm
(c) 200 mm

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Q127. The distance between centre to centre of two (b) aV2/2g
adjacent rivet holes should not be less than (c) LV/gt
(a) 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole (d) LV2/gt
(b) 1.5 times diameter of rivet Q135.Choose the best option for the Newtonian fluid
(c) 1.5 times diameter of rivet head (a) Frictionless and incompressible
(d) 2.5 times diameter of rivet (b) Viscosity in invariant with shear stress
Q128. Base flow separation is used in connection (c) Viscosity decreases at higher shear stress
with (d) Viscosity increases at higher shear stress
(a) Seepage flow Q136. Which one of the following pressure units
(b) Infiltration represent the least pressure
(c) Evaporation (a) Millibar
(d) Stream flow (b) Mm of Hg
Q129. Kor water is the (c) N/mm2
(a) first watering before a crop is sown (d) Kgf/m2
(b) first watering after a crop s sown Q137. Consider the following parameters related to
(c) first water after a crop is grown fluid flow:
(d) water of least depth (i) Vorticity
Q130. Permanent wilting point is (ii) Velocity potential
(a) a characteristics of a plant (iii)Stream Function
(b) a soil characteristic Which of these parameters exit both in rotational
(c) a soil characteristics modified by a plant irrotational flows
(d) dependent on soil water plant fertilizer (a) i and ii
interaction (b) ii and iii
Q131. The theory of Unit Hydrograph was (c) i and iii
propounded by (d) i,ii and iii
(a) L.K. Sherman Q138. Which of the following pair is incorrectly
(b) A.N. Khosla matched
(c) L. Prandtl (a) Piezometric Head: Sum of datum head and
(d) C. Inglis pressure head
Q132. If Reynold’s number is less than 1, then (b) Dynamic Head: Sum of datum head and
(a) Viscous forces are very strong as compared velocity head
to inertial forces (c) Stagnation Head: Sum of pressure head and
(b) Viscous forces are very weak as compared to velocity head
inertial forces (d) Total Head: Sum of piezometric head and
(c) Viscous forces are equal to inertial forces dynamic head
(d) Flow is turbulent is saturated soils Q139. The terminal velocity of a sphere settling in a
Q133. The cavitation and pitting can be prevented by viscous fluid varies as
creating which one of the following conditions? (a) the Reynolds number
(a) Reducing the pressure head (b) the square of its diameter
(b) Reducing the velocity head (c) Its diameter
(c) Increasing the elevation head (d) viscosity of the fluid
(d) Reducing the piezometric head Q140. Two identical pumps, each capable of
Q134. Maximum pressure rise due to water hammer delivering 0.2 cumec, against a head of 30m, are
in a pipeline is (Note: a = area of the pipe, V = connected in parallel. The resulting discharge will be
Velocity, g = acceleration due to gravity, t = time (a) 0.4 cumec against a head of 30m
period, length of the pipe line) (b) 0.4 cumec against a head of 60m
(a) aV/2g (c) 0.2 cumec against a head of 30m

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 (d) 0.2 cumec against a head of 60m covering the area, the resulting evapotranspiration is
Q141.If the velocity of flow as well as the diameter called
of the flowing pipe are respectively doubled, the (a) Potential evapotranspiration
head loss thereafter be (b) Actual evapotranspiration
(a) Halved (c) Consumptive evapotranspiration
(b) Doubled (d) Direct evapotranspiration
(c) Increased 4 times Q149. Lawn sprinkler can be best explained by which
(d) No change of the following equation of property?
Q142. Weber number can be best connected to (a) Energy equation
which of the following (b) Continuity equation
(a) Formation of liquid droplet (c) Moment of momentum principle
(b) High speed flow of a gas (d) Impulse-momentum principle
(c) Flow in closed conduits Q150. Sulphate attack over a building material is
(d) Sloping interface between fluids of different caused by salts of
densities (a) Calcium
Q143. Euler number is related to (b) Magnesium
(a) Inertia force and pressure force (c) Sodium
(b) Inertia force and elastic force (d) Potassium
(c) Inertia force and viscous force Q151. Porcelain is made by heating materials having
(d) Inertia force and gravity force (a) Kaolinite
Q144. The gases are considered incompressible (b) Montmorillonite
when Mach number is (c) Bentonite
(a) equal to 1.0 (d) Phyllite
(b) equal to 0.5 Q152. When a spur of short length is taken
(c) more than 0.3 perpendicular to the bank, it only deflects the flow
(d) less than 0.2 locally. Hence, it is called
Q145. Bernoulli’s theorem deals with the law of (a) Repelling spur
conservation of (b) Attracting spur
(a) Mass (c) Deflecting spur
(b) Momentum (d) Special spur
(c) Energy Q153. Bridge whose flooring is supported or
(d) None of the above suspended at the bottom of the superstructure is
Q146. The flow in open channel is laminar if the called
Reynold number is (a) Deck bridge
(a) Equal to 2000
(b) Through bridge
(b) Between 500-2000
(c) Semi through bridge
(c) Less than 500
(d) None of the above
(d) More than 4000
Q154. The stone cover laid to protect the face of the
Q147. The relation between probability (P) and
guide bank at river bed is called
recurrence interval (T) is given by
(a) Launching apron
(a) PT = 1
(b) Blanket
(b) PT2 = 1
(c) Cut off
(c) P/T = 1
(d) Curtain
(d) P/T2 = 1
Q155. If super elevation is not provided on a
Q148. If sufficient moisture is always available to
horizontal curve of a highway, then on which portion
completely meet the needs of vegetation fully
of the road are the pot holes likely to develop
(a) Outer edge of the road

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 (b) Inner edge of the road (c) Speed and volume studies
(c) Centre of the road (d) Axle and studies
(d) Shoulder of the road Q163. Speed and Delay study is conducted by which
Q156. Nagpur road plan formulae were prepared by of the following method instrument.
assuming (a) Floating car method
a. Radial or star and block road pattern (b) Workspot interview method
b. Radial or star and circular road pattern (c) Doppler Radar
c. Radial or star and grid road pattern (d) Electronic Detector
d. Rectangular and block road pattern Q164. Space mean speed is used for which of the
Q157. Full amount of super elevation on a horizontal following studies
curve is provided at the (a) Road conditions studies
(a) beginning of the transition curve (b) Accident studies
(b) centre of the circular curve (c) Traffic flow studies
(c) end of the transition curve (d) Delay studies
(d) centre of the transition curve Q165. Traffic volume can be defined as
Q158. With all other relevant conditions remaining (a) Number of vehicles occupying a unit length
the same, the speed of a vehicle negotiating a curve of road at a given instant of time
is proportional to (b) Number of vehicles at the cross roads.
(Note: W = Weight of the vehicle) (c) Number of vehicles passing a given point on
(a) W1/2 road in a given unit of time in a given
(b) W direction
(c) 1/W (d) Number of vehicles passing a given point on
(d) 1/W1/2 road in a given unit of time in all the possible
Q159. An ideal horizontal transition curve is a directions.
Labours Q166. Consider the following factors:
(a) Parabola (i) Reaction time
(b) Circle (ii) Speed
(c) Clothoid (iii)Coefficient of longitudinal friction
(d) Hyperbola (iv) Gradient
Q160. If R is the radius of the curve and L is the Which of these factors are taken into account for
length of the long chord, the shift of the curve is (all computing braking distance
in meter units) (a) (i) and (iv)
(a) L2/R (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) L2/2R (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) L2/24R (d) (ii) and (iii)
(d) L2/6R Q167. Total reaction time of a driver depend upon:
Q161. It is a common practice t design a highway to (i) Perception time
accommodate the traffic volume corresponding to (ii) Brake reaction time
the (iii) Speed of vehicle
(a) 30th hour (a) (i) and (ii)
(b) Peak hour (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) Average daily traffic (c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) 15 minute peak period (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q162. Which set of traffic is needed for functional Q168. California bearing ratio is a
design as well as for highway capacity design (a) Measure of soil strength
(a) Origin and Destination studies (b) Method of soil identification
(b) Parking and Accident studies

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 (c) Measure to indicate the relative strengths of Q176. To prevent local crushing of the web due to
paving materials concentrated loading, which type of stiffeners are
(d) Measure of shear strength under lateral provided?
(a) Torsion stiffeners
confinement
(b) Diagonal stiffeners
Q169. The essential difference between rigid and
flexible pavements is (c) Load carrying stiffeners
(a) Distribution of load over sub-grade (d) Bearing Stiffeners
(b) Distribution of load over sub-base Q177. The main undesirable properties of concrete
(c) Materials used are:
(d) Thickness of layers (i) Undergoes shrinkage
Q170. Rigid pavement are commonly made of (ii) Requires careful attention during
(a) Bitumen manufacturing, placing and curing
(b) Portland cement concrete (iii) Has lower tensile strength
(c) Dry lean concrete (iv) For equal load, cement members are
(d) High performance concrete heavier than steel members
(a) i and iv only
Q171. Which of the following pavement can be used,
(b) i, ii and iv only
for construction on black cotton soils?
(c) i, ii, iii and iv
(a) Flexible pavement
(d) ii, iii and iv
(b) Semi-flexible pavement
Q178. Test carried out to determine tensile strength
(c) Rigid pavement
of concrete is called
(d) Semi-Rigid pavement
(a) split test or Brazillian test
Q172. Which of the following layer of pavement
(b) Vee-Bee test
should withstand high level of deformation?
(c) triaxial loading test
(a) Base course
(d) compression test
(b) Sub-base
Q179. In plastic analysis of structures, the segment
(c) Sub-grade
between any two successive plastic hinges is
(d) Surfacing course
assumed to deform as _______
Q173. IRC 37-2001 revised version for flexible
(a) A plastic material
pavement design has been designed as
(b) A rigid material
1.0
(c) An elastic material
(a) 4-layer
(b) 3-layer (d) An inelastic material
(c) 2-layer Q180. The ratio of axial deformation to the original
(d) 5-layer length of the body is known as
Q174. Which one of the following expressions gives (a) Lateral Strain
the Intermediate Sight Distance as per IRC standards (b) Linear stress
(a) 2 SSD (c) Linear Strain
(b) (SSD + OSD)/2 (d) Poisson’s ratio
(c) (OSD - SSD)/2 Q181. The main advantage of adding pozzolanas in
(d) 2 OSD cement is
(a) longer life
Q175. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly
(b) reduced cost and permeability of concrete
matched
(c) slower setting time
(a) Horizontal curves – Super elevation
(d) faster setting time
(b) Origin and Destination studies – Desire Lines
Q182. The most undesirable properties of water
(c) Los Angeles Test – Hardness of aggregates
used for making concrete or mortar are:
(d) Soundness test – Purity of bitumen (a) high concentration of carbonates
(b) high concentration of bicarbonates

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 (c) high concentration of sulfate and chloride (b) high strength concrete from high strength
(d) high concentration of silicates standard concrete
Q183. A tube well having a capacity of 4 m3 per hour (c) standard concrete from an ordinary concrete
operates for 20 hours each day during the irrigation (d) ordinary concrete from a standard concrete
season. How much area can be commanded if the
Q191. Arrange the following sections in increasing
irrigation interval is 20 days and depth of irrigation is
torsional stiffness:
7 cm.
(a) 1.71  104 m2 1) Open ring section
2) Close ring section
(b) 1.14  104 m2
3) L-section
(c) 22.9  104 m2
4) Circular disk section
(d) 2.29  104 m2
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q184. IRC standard loading for bridge designs are (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(a) Class A, Class B, Class AB and Class 70-R (c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(b) Class A, Class B, Class AB and Class 90-R (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) Class A, Class B, Class BB and Class 70-R Q192. The split tensile strength of M15 grade
(d) Class A, Class B, Class AA and Class 70-R concrete when expressed as a percentage of its
Q185. Floats are used to be measure compressive strength is
(a) Discharge of stream (a) 10 to 15%
(b) Velocity of stream (b) 15 to 20%
(c) Flood discharge (c) 20 to 25%
(d) Afflux (d) 25 to 30%
Q186. Bessemer process is used for Q193. Shrinkage of concrete depends upon the
(a) Steel 1) relative humidity of the atmosphere
(b) cast iron 2) passage of time
(c) Wrought iron 3) applied stress
(d) Pig iron Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q187. Keeping the instrument height as 1.5m, height (a) 1 and 2
of staff 4 m, the slope of ground as 1 in 10, the sight (b) 2 and 3
distance on the down-slope must be less than (c) 1 alone
(a) 25m (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 30m Q194. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of
(c) 15m an outlet and parent channel is known as
(d) 20m (a) Flexibility
Q188. A catchment consists of 35% area with runoff (b) Rigidity
coefficient 0.45 with the remaining 65% area with (c) Efficiency
runoff coefficient 0.55. The equivalent runoff (d) Modular limit
coefficient will be
Q195. Live load as forces in dwelling home hospital
(a) 0.505
bedrooms dormitories is
(b) 0.515 (a) 2 kN/m2
(c) 0.500 (b) 3 kN/m2
(d) 0.450 (c) 4 kN/m2
Q189. A linear reservoir is one in which (d) 5 kN/m2
(a) Storage varies linearly with time Q196. The unit of coefficient of consolidation is
(b) Storage varies linearly with outflow rate
(c) Storage varies linearly with inflow rate (a) cm/sec
(d) Storage varies linearly with elevation (b) cm2/sec
Q190. In the fourth amendment May 2013 of IS 456- (c) cm/sec2
2000, M60 grade has been shifted to (d) No unit
(a) standard concrete from high strength concrete

SANKALP EDUCATION, GUJARAT’S NO.1 INSTITUTE FOR GPSC (CIVIL ENGG); Mo: +919979790003
Q197. The apparatus used for measuring soundness
of cement is
(a) Vicat’s apparatus
(b) Le Chatelier’s apparatus
(c) Briquette apparatus
(d) Lechate apparatus
Q198. The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible
stress is called…..
For more material
(a) Factor of safety
(b) Design factor
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(c) Stress factor /download
(d) Load factor
Q199. In simply supported beam of rectangular cross
section, the bending stress is ______ and shear stress
is ______ at neutral axis.
(a) Zero, Maximum Sankalp Education
(b) Maximum, Zero
(c) Zero, Zero
Ahmedabad
(d) Maximum, Maximum Gandhinagar
Q200. In case of industrial steel structure, sag roads Rajkot
are designed as ______
(a) Torsional member
Vadodara
(b) Compression member
(c) Bending member
(d) Tension member

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