IT

A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network.
What are
three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.)
• better security
• easy to create
• better device performance when acting as both client and server
• lacks centralized administration
• less cost to implement
• scalable
Explanation:
Because network devices and dedicated servers are not required, peer-to-peer networks are easy to
create, less complex, and have lower costs. Peer-to-peer networks also have no centralized
administration. They are less secure, not scalable, and those devices acting as both client and server
may perform slower.
Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through
internetworks?
• a router
• a firewall
• a web server
• a DSL modem
Explanation:
A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take through the network. A firewall
is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL modem is used to provide Internet connection for
a home or an organization.
What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media?
(Choose two.)
• the types of data that need to be prioritized
• the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
• the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
• the number of intermediary devices installed in the network
• the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
Explanation:
Criteria for choosing a network medium are the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a
signal, the environment in which the selected medium is to be installed, the amount of data and the
speed at which the data must be transmitted, and the cost of the medium and its installation.
Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.)
• Intermediary devices generate data content.
• Intermediary devices alter data content.
• Intermediary devices direct the path of the data.
• Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network.
• Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process.
Explanation:
Applications on end devices generate data, alter data content, and are responsible for initiating the
encapsulation process.
What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)
• They originate the data that flows through the network.
• They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
• They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
• They are the interface between humans and the communication network.
• They provide the channel over which the network message travels.
Explanation:
End devices originate the data that flows through the network. Intermediary devices direct data over
alternate paths in the event of link failures and filter the flow of data to enhance security. Network
media provide the channel through which network messages travel.
Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result
of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school
resources?
• extranet
• intranet
• wired LAN
• wireless LAN
• wireless WAN
Explanation:
An extranet is a network area where people or corporate partners external to the company access
data. An intranet simply describes the network area that is normally accessed only by internal
personnel. The wired LAN is affected by BYODs (bring your own devices) when the devices attach to
the wired network. A college wireless LAN is most likely used by the tablet and smartphone. A
wireless WAN would more likely be used by college students to access their cell provider network.
What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?
• an intranet
• the Internet
• an extranet
• a local area network
Explanation:
Home users will go online shopping over the Internet because online vendors are accessed through
the Internet. An intranet is basically a local area network for internal use only. An extranet is a
network for external partners to access certain resources inside an organization. A home user does
not necessarily need a LAN to access the Internet. For example, a PC connects directly to the ISP
through a modem.
An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the
employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head
Office. What type of network would the employee access?
• an intranet
• the Internet
• an extranet
• a local area network
Explanation:
Intranet is a term used to refer to a private connection of LANs and WANs that belongs to an
organization. An intranet is designed to be accessible only by the organization’s members, employees,
or others with authorization.
Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to
computers in a home office? (Choose two.)
• cellular
• DSL
• satellite
• cable
• dial-up telephone
Explanation:
Cable and DSL both provide high bandwidth, an always on connection, and an Ethernet connection to
a host computer or LAN.
Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the
building? (Choose two.)
• DSL
• cellular
• satellite
• dialup
• dedicated leased line
Explanation:
Cellular connectivity requires the use of the cell phone network. Satellite connectivity is often used
where physical cabling is not available outside the home or business.
Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources
exceeds the available capacity?
• convergence
• congestion
• optimization
• synchronization
Explanation:
When the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity, the network becomes
congested. A converged network is designed to deliver multiple communication types, such as data,
video and voice services, using the same network infrastructure.
What type of network traffic requires QoS?
• email
• on-line purchasing
• video conferencing
• wiki
Explanation:
Video conferencing utilizes real-time audio and video communications. Both of these are time-
sensitive and bandwidth-intensive forms of communication that require quality of service to be active
on the network. QoS will ensure an uninterrupted user experience.
Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth?
• a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network
• a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media
• a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity
• a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources
Explanation:
A method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure is fault tolerance. A measure of the
data carrying capacity is bandwidth. A set of techniques to manage the utilization of network
resources is QoS. A state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity
is called congestion.
A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords.
Which data protection goal does this policy support?
• data integrity
• data quality
• data confidentiality
• data redundancy
Explanation:
A security policy requiring strong, complex passwords contributes to data confidentiality because only
authorized users can access the data.
Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing?
• A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP.
• Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using
any device, anywhere in the world.
• Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring.
• Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.
Explanation:
Cloud computing allows users to access applications, back up and store files, and perform tasks
without needing additional software or servers. Cloud users access resources through subscription-
based or pay-per-use services, in real time, using nothing more than a web browser.
What is the Internet?
• It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
• It provides network access for mobile devices.
• It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
• It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
Explanation:
The Internet provides global connections that enable networked devices (workstations and mobile
devices) with different network technologies, such as Ethernet, DSL/cable, and serial connections, to
communicate. A private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections is an intranet.
Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?
• New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
• A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
• A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical
outlet.
• Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home
LAN.
Explanation:
Powerline networking adds the ability to connect a device to the network using an adapter wherever
there is an electrical outlet. The network uses existing electrical wiring to send data. It is not a
replacement for physical cabling, but it can add functionality in places where wireless access points
cannot be used or cannot reach devices.
What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user?
• denial of service to your email server
• replication of worms and viruses in your computer
• capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft
• spyware that leads to spam emails
Explanation:
On a personal PC, denial of service to servers, worms and viruses, and spyware producing spam emails
can be annoying, invasive, and frustrating. However, identity theft can be devastating and life altering.
Security solutions should be in place on all personal devices to protect against this type of threat.
A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the
minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)
• implementing a firewall
• installing a wireless network
• installing antivirus software
• implementing an intrusion detection system
• adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device
Explanation:
Technically complex security measures such as intrusion prevention and intrusion prevention systems
are usually associated with business networks rather than home networks. Installing antivirus
software, antimalware software, and implementing a firewall will usually be the minimum
requirements for home networks. Installing a home wireless network will not improve network
security, and will require further security actions to be taken.
A converged network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the
same communication channels.
Fill in the blank.
The acronym byod refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices
in the business office to access the network and other resources.
Match the description to the form of network communication. (Not all options are used.)
Question
Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 001 Question
Answer
Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 001 Answer
Explanation:
podcast: an audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience
social media: interactive websites where people create and share user-generated content with friends
and family
wiki: web pages that groups of people can edit and view together
instant messaging: real-time communication between two or more people
Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all options are
used.)
Question
Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 002 Question
Answer
What is the function of the kernel of an operating software?
• It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task.
• The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.
• It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.
• The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.
Explanation:
Operating systems function with a shell, a kernel, and the hardware. The shell interfaces with the
users, allowing them to request specific tasks from the device. The kernel provisions resources from
the hardware to meet software requirements. The hardware functions by using drivers and their
underlying electronics. The hardware represents the physical components of the device.
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private
when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method
should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH
Explanation:
To be truly private a technician would use a Console connection however if remote management is
required SSH provides a secure method.
Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration
in a secure environment?
• Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network.
• Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the
PC.
• Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.
• Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.
Explanation:
Telnet and SSH require active networking services to be configured on a Cisco device before they
become functional. Cisco switches do not contain AUX ports.
Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the
command hierarchy?
• end
• exit
• Ctrl-Z
• Ctrl-C
Explanation:
End and CTRL-Z return the user to the privileged EXEC mode. Ctrl-C ends a command in process. The
exit command returns the user to the previous level.
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The
configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router
boots up, which mode will display?
• global configuration mode
• setup mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• user EXEC mode
Explanation:
If a Cisco IOS device has a valid IOS and a valid configuration file, it will boot into user EXEC mode. A
password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS
CLI? (Choose two.)
• providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
• displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
• allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB
key
• determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command
• selecting the best command to accomplish a task
Explanation:
Context-sensitive help provides the user with a list of commands and the arguments associated with
those commands within the current mode of a networking device. A syntax checker provides error
checks on submitted commands and the TAB key can be used for command completion if a partial
command is entered.
Which information does the show startup-config command display?
• the IOS image copied into RAM
• the bootstrap program in the ROM
• the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
• the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
Explanation:
The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show
running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in
RAM.
Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?
• a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set
• a hostname must be configured before any other parameters
• to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet)
• to allow local access to the device through the console port
Explanation:
It is important to configure a hostname because various authentication processes use the device
hostname. Hostnames are helpful for documentation, and they identify the device during remote
access.
Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices?
(Choose two.)
• Branch2!
• RM-3-Switch-2A4
• Floor(15)
• HO Floor 17
• SwBranch799
Explanation:
Some guidelines for naming conventions are that names should:
▪ Start with a letter
▪ Contain no spaces
▪ End with a letter or digit
▪ Use only letters, digits, and dashes
▪ Be less than 64 characters in length
How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco
routers and switches?
• It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.
• It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
• It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or
switch.
• It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or
switch with Telnet.
Explanation:
The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so
that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is
the purpose of this command?
Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 2 Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 001
• to display a message when a user accesses the switch

• to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1
• to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication
• to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the
enable command
Explanation:
A banner message can be an important part of the legal process in the event that someone is
prosecuted for breaking into a device. A banner message should make it clear that only authorized
personnel should attempt to access the device. However, the banner command does not prevent
unauthorized entry.
While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router
configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can
the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?
• Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
• Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
• Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.
• Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
Explanation:
The technician does not want to make any mistakes trying to remove all the changes that were done
to the running configuration file. The solution is to reboot the router without saving the running
configuration. The copy startup-config running-config command does not overwrite the running
configuration file with the configuration file stored in NVRAM, but rather it just has an additive effect.
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
Explanation:
As soon as configuration commands are entered into a router, they modify the device immediately.
Running configuration files can not be deleted nor are they saved automatically.
What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
• RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
• The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.
• The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.
• RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
• RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.
Explanation:
RAM stores data that is used by the device to support network operations. The running configuration
is stored in RAM. This type of memory is considered volatile memory because data is lost during a
power cycle. Flash memory stores the IOS and delivers a copy of the IOS into RAM when a device is
powered on. Flash memory is nonvolatile since it retains stored contents during a loss of power.
Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
• the AUX interface
• the console port interface
• the switch virtual interface
• the first Ethernet port interface
Explanation:
In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that provides a means for remotely
managing the device.
Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?
• FastEthernet 0/1
• GigabitEthernet 0/1
• VLAN 1
• VLAN 99
Explanation:
An SVI is a virtual interface and VLAN 1 is enabled by default on Cisco switches. VLAN 99 must be
configured to be used. FastEthernet 0/1 and GigabitEthernet 0/1 are physical interfaces.
Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
• to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
• to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
• to enable the switch to be managed remotely
• to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation:
A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices.
However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address.
The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not
switches, function as default gateways.
What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?
• ping
• ipconfig
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
Explanation:
On a Windows PC, the ipconfig command can be used to verify the current IP configuration. The ping
command can be used to verify connectivity to other network devices. The show interfaces and show
ip interface brief commands are both Cisco IOS commands that are used to see the status of router
and switch interfaces.
A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the
connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser,
and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network
with no additional configuration?
• The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network.
• The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory.
• The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP.
• The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server.
• The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.
Explanation:
The new PC was preconfigured to use DHCP. When the PC is connected to a network that uses DHCP,
it gets the IP address settings from the DHCP server that will allow it to function on the network. All
devices require at least an IP address and subnet mask to function on a LAN. DNS does not
automatically configure addresses on hosts. PC virtual interfaces are not universally compatible with
LANs and do not necessarily provide a host with an IP address. At this place in the course, virtual
interfaces are used on network switches.
What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?
• if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
• if there is connectivity with the destination device
• the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
• what type of device is at the destination
Explanation:
The ping destination command can be used to test connectivity.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is testing connectivity in a new network. Based on the
test results shown in the exhibit, which device does the technician have connectivity with and
which device does the technician not have connectivity with? (Choose two.)
• connectivity: switch 2
• connectivity: PC-D
• connectivity: PC-B
• no connectivity: switch 1
• no connectivity: switch 2
• no connectivity: PC-C
Explanation:
The exhibit shows ping tests to two devices. One device has the IP address of 192.168.1.2, which is
switch 2. The other test is to the IP address of 192.168.1.21, which is host PC-C. For the first test, to
switch 2, the results are successful, with four reply messages received. This means that connectivity
exists to switch 2. For the second test, all four messages timed out. This indicates that connectivity
does not exist to PC-C.
Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show
ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)
• Two physical interfaces have been configured.

• The switch can be remotely managed.
• One device is attached to a physical interface.
• Passwords have been configured on the switch.
• Two devices are attached to the switch.
• The default SVI has been configured.
Explanation:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and
managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.
An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the
administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the
configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)
Question
Answer
• Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 2 Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 005
Explanation:
The configuration mode that the administrator first encounters is user EXEC mode. After the enable
command is entered, the next mode is privileged EXEC mode. From there, the configure terminal
command is entered to move to global configuration mode. Finally, the administrator enters the line
console 0 command to enter the mode in which the configuration will be entered.
Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)
Question
Answer
Explanation:
The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute
What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because
too much data is being sent too quickly?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• access method
• response timeout
Explanation:
In order for two computers to be able to communicate effectively, there must be a mechanism that
allows both the source and destination to set the timing of the transmission and receipt of data. Flow
control allows for this by ensuring that data is not sent too fast for it to be received properly.
What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?
• broadcast
• multicast
• unicast
• allcast
Explanation:
Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast communication is a one-to-one

communication. Multicast is a one-to-many communication where the message is delivered to a specific
group of hosts. Allcast is not a standard term to describe message delivery.
What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source
to the destination?
• access control
• decoding
• encapsulation
• flow control
Explanation:
Encapsulation is the process of placing one message format into another message format. An example is
how a packet is placed in its entirety into the data field as it is encapsulated into a frame.
A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the
client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for
transmission?
• HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
• HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
• Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
• Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.
Which statement is correct about network protocols?
• Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in
racks.
• They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
• They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
• They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote
networks.
Explanation:
Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both. They interact with each other
within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the
network equipment. Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and
destination devices in both local and remote networks.
Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

• The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.
• The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.
• The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.
• The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the
TCP/IP internet layer.
Explanation:
The TCP/IP internet layer provides the same function as the OSI network layer. The transport layer of
both the TCP/IP and OSI models provides the same function. The TCP/IP application layer includes the
same functions as OSI Layers 5, 6, and 7.
What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

• A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.
• Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.
• Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a
protocol.
• Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with
unique requirements.
Explanation:
The TCP/IP internet layer provides the same function as the OSI network layer. The transport layer of
both the TCP/IP and OSI models provides the same function. The TCP/IP application layer includes the
same functions as OSI Layers 5, 6, and 7.
What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• NAT
• PPP
Explanation:
DNS, DHCP, and FTP are all application layer protocols in the TCP/IP protocol suite. ARP and PPP are
network access layer protocols, and NAT is an internet layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite.
What are proprietary protocols?

• protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
• protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
• protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and
operation
• a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite
Explanation:
Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of
them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite
is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.
What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

• Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same
vendor.
• A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully
exchange data.
• Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
• Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
Explanation:
An advantage of network devices implementing open standard protocols, such as from the TCP/IP suite,
is that clients and servers running different operating systems can communicate with each other. Open
standard protocols facilitate innovation and competition between vendors and across markets, and can
reduce the occurrence of monopolies in networking markets.
Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model
would be used?
• only application and Internet layers

• only Internet and network access layers
• only application, Internet, and network access layers
• application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
• only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
• application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
Explanation:
The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet, and network access layers. A file transfer
uses the FTP application layer protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of
the layers of the model and across the network to the file server.
Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the
TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• data link
• physical
• network
Explanation:
The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI
model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and
physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the
application layer of the TCP/IP model.
At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
Explanation:
Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at the network layer. Physical addresses are
edded at the data link layer. Port addresses are added at the transport layer. No addresses are added at
the physical layer.
Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a
host?
• file
• frame
• packet
• segment
Explanation:
When received at the physical layer of a host, the bits are formatted into a frame at the data link layer. A
packet is the PDU at the network layer. A segment is the PDU at the transport layer. A file is a data
structure that may be used at the application layer.
Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport
layer of the TCP/IP model?
• bits
• frame
• packet
• segment
Explanation:
At the transport layer, a host computer will de-encapsulate a segment to reassemble data to an
acceptable format by the application layer protocol of the TCP/IP model.
Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly
describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

• A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA.
• A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
• A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of ServerB.
Explanation:
In order to send data to ServerB, HostA will generate a packet that contains the IP address of the
destination device on the remote network and a frame that contains the MAC address of the default
gateway device on the local network.
Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
• The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
• The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
• The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
• The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
• A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
Explanation:
When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same network, it can forward the
message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use the
router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote
destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default
gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the default
gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same network, but
not with hosts on remote networks.
Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

• the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer
• the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer
• the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer
• the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router
Explanation:
The default gateway is the IP address of an interface on the router on the same network as the sending
host.
Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)
• Question
• Answer
•
Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network
client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.)
Question
Answer
•
•
Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)
Question
Answer
Explanation:
When a web client visits a web server, several network communication protocols are involved. These
different protocols work together to ensure that the messages are received and understood by both
parties. These protocols include the following:
▪ Application Protocol – governing the way a web server and a web client interact
▪ Transport Protocol – managing the individual conversations between web
servers and web clients
▪ Internet Protocol – taking the formatted segments from the transport protocol,
encapsulating them into packets, assigning them the appropriate addresses, and
delivering them across the best path to the destination host
▪ Network Access Protocol – preparing packets to be transmitted over the
network media
• Network Time Protocol is used to synchronize clocks between computer systems. It is
not involved in this case.
Explanation:
The EIA is an international standards and trade organization for electronics organizations. It is best
known for its standards related to electrical wiring, connectors, and the 19-inch racks used to mount
networking equipment.
What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose
two.)
• to reduce the number of collisions on the media
• to distinguish data bits from control bits
• to provide better media error correction
• to identify where the frame starts and ends
• to increase the media throughput
Explanation:
An encoding technique converts a stream of data bits in a predefined code that can be recognized by
both the transmitter and the receiver. Using predefined patterns helps to differentiate data bits from
control bits and provide better media error detection.
What is indicated by the term throughput?
• the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
• the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
• the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
• the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time
• the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver
Explanation:
Throughput is the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time.
Throughput is affected by a number of factors such as, EMI and latency, so it rarely matches the
specified bandwidth for a network medium. The throughput measurement includes user data bits and
other data bits, such as overhead, acknowledging, and encapsulation. The measure of the usable data
transferred across the media is called goodput.
A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt
and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights
and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in
signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
• EMI
• crosstalk
• RFI
• signal attenuation
• extended length of cabling
Explanation:
EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt data signals that are carried by copper media. These
distortions usually come from radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as motors and florescent
lights. Crosstalk is a disturbance that is caused by adjacent wires bundled too close together with the
magnetic field of one wire affecting another. Signal attenuation is caused when an electrical signal
begins to deteriorate over the length of a copper cable.
Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
• the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
• the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
• the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
• the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
Explanation:
EMI and RFI can distort network signals because of interference from fluorescent lights or electric
motors. Attenuation results in deterioration of the network signal as it travels along copper cabling.
Wireless devices can experience loss of signals because of excessive distances from a access point, but
this is not crosstalk. Crosstalk is the disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of the signal
carried on an adjacent wire within the same cable.
What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from
crosstalk?
• twisting the wires together into pairs
• wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
• encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
• terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
Explanation:
To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the
wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are
made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?
• 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through

• 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover
• 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
• 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through
Explanation:
A straight-through cable is commonly used to interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router.
A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar devices together like switch to a switch, a host to a
host, or a router to a router. If a switch has the MDIX capability, a crossover could be used to connect
the switch to the router; however, that option is not available. A rollover cable is used to connect to a
router or switch console port.
Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
• The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

• The wrong type of connector is being used.
• The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
• The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
Explanation:
When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires
are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not
the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.
Which type of connector does a network interface card use?
• DIN
• PS-2
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
• It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
• It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
• It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
• It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
Explanation:
Copper cabling is usually cheaper and easier to install than fiber optic cabling. However, fiber cables
generally have a much greater signaling range than copper.
Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
• The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
• They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
• They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
• They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
Explanation:
Light can only travel in one direction down a single strand of fiber. In order to allow for full-duplex
communication two strands of fiber must be connected between each device.
A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of
concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
• mobility options
• security
• interference
• coverage area
• extensive cabling
• packet collision
Explanation:
The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby
interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks,
as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility
options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for
specific types of media?
• application
• transport
• data link
• physical
Explanation:
Encapsulation is a function of the data link layer. Different media types require different data link
layer encapsulation.
What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• It encrypts data packets.
• It determines the path to forward packets.
• It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
• It provides media access control and performs error detection.
• It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.
Explanation:
The data link layer is responsible for the exchange of frames between nodes over a physical network
media. Specifically the data link layer performs two basic services:
▪ It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
▪ It provides media access control and performs error detection.
• Path determination is a service provided at Layer 3. A Layer 2 switch builds a MAC
address table as part of its operation, but path determination is not the service that is
provided by the data link layer.
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
• Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.
Explanation:
Physical topologies show the physical interconnection of devices. Logical topologies show the way the
network will transfer data between connected nodes.
Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time?
• full duplex
• half duplex
• multiplex
• simplex
Which statement describes an extended star topology?

• End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other
central intermediate devices.
• End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central
intermediate device.
• Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
• All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
Explanation:
In an extended star topology, central intermediate devices interconnect other star topologies.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used
by the networks in the exhibit?
• All three networks use CSMA/CA

• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

• logical address
• physical address
• data
• error detection
Explanation:
The trailer in a data-link frame contains error detection information that is pertinent to the frame
included in the FCS field. The header contains control information, such as the addressing, while the
area that is indicated by the word “data” includes the data, transport layer PDU, and the IP header.
As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the
beginning and end of a frame?
• The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
• The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.
• The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.
• The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning
of the frame.
Explanation:
When data travels on the media, it is converted into a stream of 1s and 0s. The framing process
inserts into the frame start and stop indicator flags so that the destination can detect the beginning
and end of the frame.
What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?
• to verify the integrity of the received frame
• to verify the physical address in the frame
• to verify the logical address in the frame
• to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
Explanation:
The CRC value in the FCS field of the received frame is compared to the computed CRC value of that
frame, in order to verify the integrity of the frame. If the two values do not match, then the frame is
discarded.
Fill in the blank.
The term bandwidth indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically
measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).
Fill in the blank.
What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer
protocol encapsulated in the frame? LLC
Fill in the blank.
A physical topology that is a variation or combination of a point-to-point, hub and spoke, or
mesh topology is commonly known as a hybrid topology.
Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.)
Question
Answer
Explanation:
Single-mode fiber uses a laser as the light source. Its small core produces a single straight path for
light and it is commonly used with campus backbones. Multimode fiber uses LEDs as the light source.
Its larger core allows for multiple paths for the light. It is commonly used with LANs.
What is the definition of bandwidth?
• the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time
• the speed at which bits travel on the network
• the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time
• the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time
Explanation:
Bandwidth is the measure of the capacity of a network medium to carry data. It is the amount of data
that can move between two points on the network over a specific period of time, typically one
second.
What is a role of the Logical Link Control sublayer?
• to provide access to various Layer 1 network technologies
• to provide data link layer addressing
• to define the media access processes performed by network hardware
• to mark frames to identify the network layer protocol being carried
Explanation:
There are two data link sublayers, MAC and LLC. The LLC sublayer is responsible for communicating
with the network layer and for tagging frames to identify what Layer 3 protocol is encapsulated.
What are two examples of hybrid topologies? (Choose two.)
• partial mesh
• extended star
• hub and spoke
• point-to-point
• full mesh
Explanation:
A hybrid topology is one that is a variation or a combination of other topologies. Both partial mesh
and the extended star are examples of hybrid topologies.
What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

• The frame is dropped.
• The frame is returned to the originating network device.
• The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
• The frame is sent to the default gateway.
Explanation:
In an attempt to conserve bandwidth and not forward useless frames, Ethernet devices drop frames
that are considered to be runt (less than 64 bytes) or jumbo (greater than 1500 bytes) frames.
What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)
• 56 bytes
• 64 bytes
• 128 bytes
• 1024 bytes
• 1518 bytes
Explanation:
The minimum Ethernet frame is 64 bytes. The maximum Ethernet frame is 1518 bytes. A network
technician must know the minimum and maximum frame size in order to recognize runt and jumbo
frames.
What statement describes Ethernet?
• It defines the most common LAN type in the world.
• It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication.
• It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works.
• It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.
Explanation:
Ethernet is the most common LAN protocol in the world. It operates at Layer 1 and 2, but is not
required for Internet communication. The OSI model is used to describe how networks operate. A
WAN connects multiple sites located in different countries.
Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in
Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
• Logical link control is implemented in software.
• Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
• The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.
• The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol
suite.
• The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off
the media.
Explanation:
Logical link control is implemented in software and enables the data link layer to communicate with
the upper layers of the protocol suite. Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.2 standard. IEEE
802.3 is a suite of standards that define the different Ethernet types. The MAC (Media Access Control)
sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media. The MAC
sublayer is also responsible for adding a header and a trailer to the network layer protocol data unit
(PDU).
What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?
• They must be globally unique.
• They are only routable within the private network.
• They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.
• They have a 32-bit binary value.
Explanation:
Any vendor selling Ethernet devices must register with the IEEE to ensure the vendor is assigned a
unique 24-bit code, which becomes the first 24 bits of the MAC address. The last 24 bits of the MAC
address are generated per hardware device. This helps to ensure globally unique addresses for each
Ethernet device.
Which statement is true about MAC addresses?
• MAC addresses are implemented by software.
• A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
• The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
• The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.
Explanation:
A MAC address is composed of 6 bytes. The first 3 bytes are used for vendor identification and the last
3 bytes must be assigned a unique value within the same OUI. MAC addresses are implemented in
hardware. A NIC needs a MAC address to communicate over the LAN. The IEEE regulates the MAC
addresses.
Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
• 127.0.0.1
• 01-00-5E-00-AA-23
Explanation:
The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the destination host on an Ethernet LAN.
The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to all devices on the Ethernet LAN. The frame contains the
IP address of the destination and the broadcast MAC address, FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?
• the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets
• the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames
• the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets
• the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames
Explanation:
A switch builds a MAC address table by inspecting incoming Layer 2 frames and recording the source
MAC address found in the frame header. The discovered and recorded MAC address is then
associated with the port used to receive the frame.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC
address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with
the frame?
• The switch will discard the frame.

• The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
• The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
• The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
• The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
Explanation:
The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because the switch does not
know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the frame to all the switch
ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.
Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?
• cut-through
• fast-forward
• fragment-free
• store-and-forward
Explanation:
When the store-and-forward switching method is used, the switch receives the complete frame
before forwarding it on to the destination. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) part of the trailer is
used to determine if the frame has been modified during transit. In contrast, a cut-through switch
forwards the frame once the destination Layer 2 address is read. Two types of cut-through switching
methods are fast-forward and fragment-free.
What is auto-MDIX?
• a type of Cisco switch
• an Ethernet connector type
• a type of port on a Cisco switch
• a feature that detects Ethernet cable type
Explanation:
Auto-MDIX is a feature that is enabled on the latest Cisco switches and that allows the switch to
detect and use whatever type of cable is attached to a specific port.
True or False?
When a device is sending data to another device on a remote network, the Ethernet frame is
sent to the MAC address of the default gateway.
• true
• false
Explanation:
A MAC address is only useful on the local Ethernet network. When data is destined for a remote
network of any type, the data is sent to the default gateway device, the Layer 3 device that routes for
the local network.
The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
• Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
Explanation:
The switch ARP table keeps a mapping of Layer 2 MAC addresses to Layer 3 IP addresses. These
mappings can be learned by the switch dynamically through ARP or statically through manual
configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this
scenario, what will happen next?
• PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.

• RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.
• RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
• SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
• SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
Explanation:
When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a
broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination
device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.
Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for
host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?
• Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D.

• Host D sends an ARP request to host A.
• Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the
host D, which in turn responds.
• Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to
the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.
Explanation:
Whenever the destination MAC address is not contained within the ARP table of the originating host,
the host (host A in this example) will send a Layer 2 broadcast that has a destination MAC address of
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. All devices on the same network receive this broadcast. Host D will respond to this
broadcast.
Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to
communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway.
Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?
• only host D
• only router R1
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts B and C
• only hosts B, C, and router R1
Explanation:
Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an
ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and
router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.
Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?
• They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.
• They are received and processed by every device on the local network.
• They are dropped by all switches on the local network.
• They are received and processed only by the target device.
Explanation:
One of the negative issues with ARP requests is that they are sent as a broadcast. This means all
devices on the local link must receive and process the request.
What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)
• Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC
address spoofing.
• On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data
communication delays.
• Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP
messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
• Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table
to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
• Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that
match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
Explanation:
Large numbers of ARP broadcast messages could cause momentary data communications delays.
Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the
intent to intercept network traffic. ARP requests and replies cause entries to be made into the ARP
table, not the MAC address table. ARP table overflows are very unlikely. Manually configuring static
ARP associations is a way to prevent, not facilitate, ARP poisoning and MAC address spoofing.
Multiple ARP replies resulting in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC
addresses of connected nodes and are associated with the relevant switch port are required for
normal switch frame forwarding operations. It is not an ARP caused network problem.
Fill in the blank.
A collision fragment, also known as a RUNT frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.
Fill in the blank.
On a Cisco switch, port-based memory buffering is used to buffer frames in queues linked to
specific incoming and outgoing ports.
Fill in the blank.
ARP spoofing is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts in the
LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.
Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)
• Question
•
• Answer
•
Explanation:
A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC and
frame length. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field,
thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be
forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All
forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.
What is the minimum Ethernet frame size that will not be discarded by the receiver as a runt
frame?
• 64 bytes
• 512 bytes
• 1024 bytes
• 1500 bytes
Explanation:
The minimum Ethernet frame size is 64 bytes. Frames smaller than 64 bytes are considered collision
fragments or runt frames and are discarded.
What is a characteristic of port-based memory buffering?
• All frames are stored in a common memory buffer.
• Frames are buffered in queues linked to specific ports.
• All ports on a switch share a single memory buffer.
• Frames in the memory buffer are dynamically linked to destination ports.
Explanation:
Buffering is a technique used by Ethernet switches to store frames until they can be transmitted. With
port-based buffering, frames are stored in queues that are linked to specific incoming and outgoing
ports.
What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?
• to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
• to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses
• to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
• to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests
Explanation:
In an ARP spoofing attack, a malicious host intercepts ARP requests and replies to them so that
network hosts will map an IP address to the MAC address of the malicious host.
1. Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying
packets for multiple types of communications among many hosts?
• the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers
• the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination
• the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet
• the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts
Explanation:
The function of the network layer protocols specifies the packet structure and
processing used to carry the data from one host to another host. The actual
communication data is encapsulated in the network layer PDU. The feature of its
operation without regard to the data carried in each packet allows the network layer
to carry packets for multiple types of communications.
2. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

• does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
• operates independently of the network media
• retransmits packets if errors occur
• re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
• guarantees delivery of packets
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP
requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also
media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media
carrying the packets.
3. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model,

how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?
• Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.
• Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can
request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.
• Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented
transport services are not available.
• The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.
Explanation:
When connectionless protocols are in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, upper-
level protocols may need to work together on the sending and receiving hosts to
account for and retransmit lost data. In some cases, this is not necessary, because for
some applications a certain amount of data loss is tolerable.
4. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a
network endlessly?
• Time-to-Live
• Sequence Number
• Acknowledgment Number
• Differentiated Services
Explanation:
The value of the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in the IPv4 header is used to limit the lifetime
of a packet. The sending host sets the initial TTL value; which is decreased by one each
time the packet is processed by a router. If the TTL field decrements to zero, the router
discards the packet and sends an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Time
Exceeded message to the source IP address. The Differentiated Services (DS) field is
used to determine the priority of each packet. Sequence Number and Acknowledgment
Number are two fields in the TCP header.
5. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the
packet?
• Protocol
• Identification
• Version
• Differentiated Services
Explanation:
It is the Protocol field in the IP header that identifies the upper-layer protocol the
packet is carrying. The Version field identifies the IP version. The Differential Services
field is used for setting packet priority. The Identification field is used to reorder
fragmented packets.
6. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?
• smaller-sized header
• little requirement for processing checksums
• smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses
• efficient packet handling
Explanation:
The IPv6 simplified header offers several advantages over IPv4:

· Better routing efficiency and efficient packet handling for performance and
forwarding-rate scalability
· No requirement for processing checksums
· Simplified and more efficient extension header mechanisms (as opposed to the
IPv4 Options field)
· A Flow Label field for per-flow processing with no need to open the transport inner
packet to identify the various traffic flows
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to
reach PC2?
• .
ITN v6.0 CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 1
• .

• .
• .
Explanation:
PC1 and PC2 are both on network 192.168.10.0 with mask 255.255.255.0, so there is no
need to access the default gateway (entry 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0). Entry 127.0.0.1
255.255.255.255 is the loopback interface and entry 192.168.10.10 255.255.255.255
identifies the PC1 address interface.
8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address

192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?
• FastEthernet0/0
• FastEthernet0/1
• Serial0/0/0
• Serial0/0/1
Explanation:
If a route in the routing table points to a next hop address, the router will perform a
second lookup to determine out which interface the next hop is located.
9. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a
Cisco router?
• static route
• default route
• directly connected route
• dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP
Explanation:
Some of the IPv4 routing table codes include the following:
• C – directly connected
• S – static
• D – EIGRP
• * – candidate default
10. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a
destination network?
• directly-connected routes
• local routes
• remote routes
• C and L source routes
Explanation:
Routing table entries for remote routes will have a next hop IP address. The next hop
IP address is the address of the router interface of the next device to be used to reach
the destination network. Directly-connected and local routes have no next hop,
because they do not require going through another router to be reached.
11. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router

that has the default hardware configuration?
• It does not have an AUX port.
• It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access.
• It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console.
• It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS.
Explanation:
The connections in a Cisco 1941 router include two types of ports that are used for
initial configuration and command-line interface management access. The two ports
are the regular RJ-45 port and a new USB Type-B (mini-B USB) connector. In addition,
the router has an AUX port for remote management access, and two Gigabit Ethernet
interfaces for LAN access. Compact Flash can be used increase device storage, but it
does not perform the functions of the CPU, which is required for operation of the
device.
12. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot
sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
Explanation:
There are three major steps to the router boot sequence:
1. Perform Power-On-Self-Test (POST)

2. Load the IOS from Flash or TFTP server
3. Load the startup configuration file from NVRAM
13. What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.)
• SVI
• LAN
• DHCP
• Telnet
• WAN
Explanation:
Router interfaces can be grouped into two categories:
· LAN interfaces – Used for connecting cables that terminate with LAN devices, such as
computers and switches. This interface can also be used to connect routers to each other.
· WAN interfaces – Used for connecting routers to external networks, usually over a
larger geographical distance.
14. Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router
during normal operation? (Choose two.)
• Cisco IOS
• backup IOS file
• IP routing table
• basic diagnostic software
• startup configuration file
Explanation:
The Cisco IOS file is stored in flash memory and copied into RAM during the boot up. The
IP routing table is also stored in RAM. The basic diagnostic software is stored in ROM and
the startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM.
15. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
• The IOS image is corrupt.
• Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
• The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
• The POST process has detected hardware failure.
Explanation:
The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM and contains the commands needed to
initially configure a router. It also creates the running configuration file that is stored in
in RAM.
16. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?
• to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device
• to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup
• to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using
• to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full
featured IOS
Explanation:
The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM and contains the commands needed to
initially configure a router. It also creates the running configuration file that is stored in in
RAM.
17. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router
through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)
• interface fastethernet 0/0
• line vty 0 4
• line console 0
• enable secret cisco
• login
• password cisco
Explanation:
The three commands needed to password protect the console port are as follows:
line console 0
password cisco
login
The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is commonly used to access the configuration
mode used to apply specific parameters such as the IP address to the Fa0/0 port.
The line vty 0 4 command is used to access the configuration mode for Telnet.
The 0 and 4 parameters specify ports 0 through 4, or a maximum of five simultaneous
Telnet connections. The enable secret command is used to apply a password used on
the router to access the privileged mode.
18. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

• IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on
32-bit hierarchical addressing.
• The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.
• Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.
• The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit hierarchical addressing, and the IPv6 header has
been simplified with fewer fields, improving packet handling. IPv6 natively supports
authentication and privacy capabilities as opposed to IPv4 that needs additional features
to support those. The IPv6 address space is many times bigger than IPv4 address space.
19. Open the PT Activity. The enable password on all devices is cisco.
Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
For what reason is the failure occurring?
• PC1 has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• SW1 does not have a default gateway configured.
• The IP address of SW1 is configured in a wrong subnet.
• PC2 has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Explanation:
The ip default-gateway command is missing on the SW1 configuration. Packets from PC2
are able to successfully reach SW1, but SW1 is unable to forward reply packets beyond the
local network without the ip default-gateway command issued.
20. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is
entered. (Not all options are used.)
• Question
• Answer
Explanation:
The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in
R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered
in R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in
R1(config-if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global
configuration mode.
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

• 32
• 64
• 128
• 256
Explanation:
An IPv4 address is comprised of 4 octets of binary digits, each containing 8 bits, resulting in a 32-bit
address.
Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
• subnet portion
• network portion
• logical portion
• host portion
• physical portion
• broadcast portion
Explanation:
An IPv4 address is divided into two parts: a network portion – to identify the specific network on
which a host resides, and a host portion – to identify specific hosts on a network. A subnet mask is
used to identify the length of each portion.
What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?
• network address
• multicast address
• host address
• broadcast address
Explanation:
The /24 shows that the network address is 172.17.4.0. The broadcast address for this network would
be 172.17.4.255. Useable host addresses for this network are 172.17.4.1 through 172.17.4.254.
What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?
• to uniquely identify a host on a network
• to identify whether the address is public or private
• to determine the subnet to which the host belongs
• to mask the IP address to outsiders
Explanation:
With the IPv4 address, a subnet mask is also necessary. A subnet mask is a special type of IPv4
address that coupled with the IP address determines the subnet of which the device is a member.
What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
Explanation:
The slash notation /20 represents a subnet mask with 20 1s. This would translate to:
11111111.11111111.11110000.0000, which in turn would convert into 255.255.240.0.
A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?
• limited broadcast
• multicast
• directed broadcast
• unicast
Explanation:
A directed broadcast is a message sent to all hosts on a specific network. It is useful for sending a
broadcast to all hosts on a nonlocal network. A multicast message is a message sent to a selected
group of hosts that are part of a subscribing multicast group. A limited broadcast is used for a
communication that is limited to the hosts on the local network. A unicast message is a message sent
from one host to another.
What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)
• The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to
224.0.0.255.
• A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
• Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
• The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local
network.
• Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
• Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
Explanation:
Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are sent to all hosts on a network segment. These
types of messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map upper layer addresses to lower layer
addresses. A multicast transmission is a single packet sent to a group of hosts and is used by routing
protocols, such as OSPF and RIPv2, to exchange routes. The address range 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is
reserved for link-local addresses to reach multicast groups on a local network.
Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6
Explanation:
The private IP addresses are within these three ranges:
10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains?
(Choose two.)
• trunking
• dual stack
• encapsulation
• tunneling
• multiplexing
Explanation:
There are three techniques to allow IPv4 and IPv6 to co-exist on a network. Dual stack allows IPv4 and
IPv6 to coexist on the same network segment. Dual stack devices run both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol
stacks simultaneously. Tunneling is a method of transporting an IPv6 packet over an IPv4 network.
The IPv6 packet is encapsulated inside an IPv4 packet, similar to other types of data. Network Address
Translation 64 (NAT64) allows IPv6-enabled devices to communicate with IPv4-enabled devices using
a translation technique similar to NAT for IPv4.
Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?
• 3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57
• 3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057
• 3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57
• 3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057
• 3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57
• 3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057
What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that
interface?
• global unicast
• link-local
• loopback
• unique local
Explanation:
When IPv6 is enabled on any interface, that interface will automatically generate an IPv6 link-local
address.
What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
• multicast
• loopback
• link-local
• anycast
• broadcast
Explanation:
Multicast, anycast, and unicast are types of IPv6 addresses. There is no broadcast address in IPv6.
Loopback and link-local are specific types of unicast addresses.
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
• an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that
has been provided by an ISP
• a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address
provided by a local administrator
• an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
Explanation:
There are three elements that make up an IPv6 global unicast address. A global routing prefix which is
provided by an ISP, a subnet ID which is determined by the organization, and an interface ID which
uniquely identifies the interface interface of a host.
An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves
by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a
DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?
• SLAAC
• stateless DHCPv6
• stateful DHCPv6
• RA and EUI-64
Explanation:
Stateless DHCPv6 allows clients to use ICMPv6 Router Advertisement (RA) messages to automatically
assign IPv6 addresses to themselves, but then allows these clients to contact a DHCPv6 server to
obtain additional information such as the domain name and address of DNS servers. SLAAC does not
allow the client to obtain additional information through DHCPv6, and stateful DHCPv6 requires that
the client receive its interface address directly from a DHCPv6 server. RA messages, when combined
with an EUI-64 interface identifier, are used to automatically create an interface IPv6 address, and are
part of both SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6.
Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of
IPv6 addresses to a host?
• ARPv6
• DHCPv6
• ICMPv6
• UDP
Explanation:
SLAAC uses ICMPv6 messages when dynamically assigning an IPv6 address to a host. DHCPv6 is an
alternate method of assigning an IPv6 addresses to a host. ARPv6 does not exist. Neighbor Discovery
Protocol (NDP) provides the functionality of ARP for IPv6 networks. UDP is the transport layer
protocol used by DHCPv6.
Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
• the number of routers between the source and destination device
• the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
• the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to
return to the source
• the destination device is reachable through the network
• the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to
respond
Explanation:
A ping command provides feedback on the time between when an echo request was sent to a remote
host and when the echo reply was received. This can be a measure of network performance. A
successful ping also indicates that the destination host was reachable through the network.
What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
• to inform routers about network topology changes
• to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
• to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
• to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
Explanation:
The purpose of ICMP messages is to provide feedback about issues that are related to the processing
of IP packets.
What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?
• The host is cabled properly.
• The default gateway address is correctly configured.
• All hosts on the local link are available.
• The link-local address is correctly configured.
• IP is properly installed on the host.
Explanation:
The IPv6 address ::1 is the loopback address. A successful ping to this address means that the TCP/IP
stack is correctly installed. It does not mean that any addresses are correctly configured.
A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the
path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?
• when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
• when the RTT value reaches zero
• when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
• when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
• when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero
Explanation:
When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the
value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP
Time Exceeded message back to the source.
What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
• TTL field
• CRC field
• Hop Limit field
• Time Exceeded field
Explanation:
ICMPv6 sends a Time Exceeded message if the router cannot forward an IPv6 packet because the
packet expired. The router uses a hop limit field to determine if the packet has expired, and does not
have a TTL field.
Fill in the blank.
The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is 149 .
Fill in the blank.
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is 11101000
Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? 63
Explanation:
1. Hex 0x3F is 63 in decimal.
(3*16)+(15*1) = 63
Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)
• Question
•
• Answer
•
Explanation:
Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS environment and are located in the block
169.254.0.0/16. The private addresses ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16.
TEST-NET addresses belong to the range 192.0.2.0/24. The addresses in the block 240.0.0.0 to
255.255.255.254 are reserved as experimental addresses. Loopback addresses belong to the block
127.0.0.0/8.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?
• 11101000
• 11000110
• 10011000
• 11110010
Explanation:
232 in binary is 11101000. 128+64+32+8 = 232
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?
• 149
• 157
• 168
• 192
Explanation:
Binary 10010101 maps to 149 in decimal. 128+16+4+1 = 149
What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

• The number of broadcast domains is increased.
• The size of the broadcast domain is increased.
• The number of collision domains is reduced.
• The size of the collision domain is increased.
Explanation:
When two or more switches are connected together, the size of the broadcast domain is increased
and so is the number of collision domains. The number of broadcast domains is increased only when
routers are added.
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
Explanation:
A router is used to route traffic between different networks. Broadcast traffic is not permitted to
cross the router and therefore will be contained within the respective subnets where it originated.
What are two reasons a network administrator might want to create subnets? (Choose two.)
• simplifies network design
• improves network performance
• easier to implement security policies
• reduction in number of routers needed
• reduction in number of switches needed
Explanation:
Two reasons for creating subnets include reduction of overall network traffic and improvement of
network performance. Subnets also allow an administrator to implement subnet-based security
policies. The number of routers or switches is not affected. Subnets do not simplify network design.
Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What
subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough
host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
Explanation:
The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host
bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of
providing the maximum number of subnets.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address
range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to
accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring
the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is
always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable
host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup
server to allow connectivity to the Internet?
• IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway:

192.168.10.76
192.168.10.33
192.168.10.33
192.168.10.46
192.168.10.1
Explanation:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)
If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this
network?
• 256
• 254
• 62
• 32
• 16
• 14
Explanation:
A /28 mask is the same as 255.255.255.240. This leaves 4 host bits. With 4 host bits, 16 IP addresses
are possible, but one address represents the subnet number and one address represents the
broadcast address. 14 addresses can then be used to assign to network devices.
Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
Explanation:
The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.128 results in 7 host bits.
The mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. Finally, 255.255.255.240 represents 4 host bits.
How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of
255.255.252.0?
• 510
• 512
• 1022
• 1024
• 2046
• 2048
Explanation:
A mask of 255.255.252.0 is equal to a prefix of /22. A /22 prefix provides 22 bits for the network
portion and leaves 10 bits for the host portion. The 10 bits in the host portion will provide 1022
usable IP addresses (210 – 2 = 1022).
How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router
with five connected networks?
• two
• three
• four
• five
Explanation:
Each network that is directly connected to an interface on a router requires its own subnet. The
formula 2n, where n is the number of bits borrowed, is used to calculate the available number of
subnets when borrowing a specific number of bits.
A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular
small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed
The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this
site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to
use for the four subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252
Explanation:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for the
number of hosts, which in this case is 22 hosts. Thus, 5 host bits are needed. The /27 or
255.255.255.224 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.
A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The
company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts
respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.16/28
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.128/27
• 192.168.1.96/28
• 192.168.1.192/28
Explanation:
Subnet 192.168.1.64 /27 has 5 bits that are allocated for host addresses and therefore will be able to
support 32 addresses, but only 30 valid host IP addresses. Subnet 192.168.1.96/28 has 4 bits for host
addresses and will be able to support 16 addresses, but only 14 valid host IP addresses.
A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of
255.255.255.248. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?
• 4
• 6
• 8
• 10
• 12
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.255.248 is equivalent to the /29 prefix. This leaves 3 bits for hosts, providing a total
of 6 usable IP addresses (23 = 8 – 2 = 6).
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many
total host addresses are unused in the assigned subnets?
• 56
• 60
• 64
• 68
• 72
Explanation:
The network IP address 192.168.5.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 provides 30 usable IP
addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are no addresses wasted. Subnet
B uses 2 of the 30 available IP addresses, because it is a serial link. Consequently, it wastes 28
addresses. Likewise, subnet C wastes 28 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 16
addresses. The total wasted addresses are 0+28+28+16=72 addresses.
Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the
10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing
25 hosts?
• 10.16.10.160/26
• 10.16.10.128/28
• 10.16.10.64/27
• 10.16.10.224/26
• 10.16.10.240/27
• 10.16.10.240/28
Explanation:
Addresses 10.16.10.0 through 10.16.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses
10.16.10.192 through 10.16.10.207 are used by the center network.The address space from 208-255
assumes a /28 mask, which does not allow enough host bits to accommodate 25 host addresses.The
address ranges that are available include 10.16.10.64/26 and10.16.10.128/26. To accommodate 25
hosts, 5 host bits are needed, so a /27 mask is necessary. Four possible /27 subnets could be created
from the available addresses between 10.16.10.64 and 10.16.10.191:
10.16.10.64/27
10.16.10.96/27
10.16.10.128/27
10.16.10.160/27
A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center.
Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?
• random static addresses to improve security
• addresses from different subnets for redundancy
• predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
• dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
Explanation:
When monitoring servers, a network administrator needs to be able to quickly identify them. Using a
predictable static addressing scheme for these devices makes them easier to identify. Server security,
redundancy, and duplication of addresses are not features of an IP addressing scheme.
Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to
hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates most address configuration errors.
• It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent
address.
• It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
• It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the
network.
• It reduces the burden on network support staff.
Explanation:
DHCP is generally the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks because
it reduces the burden on network support staff and virtually eliminates entry errors. However, DHCP
itself does not discriminate between authorized and unauthorized devices and will assign
configuration parameters to all requesting devices. DHCP servers are usually configured to assign
addresses from a subnet range, so there is no guarantee that every device that needs an address will
get one.
A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address
pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use
reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be
assigned to other hosts?
• 254
• 251
• 252
• 253
Explanation:
If the block of addresses allocated to the pool is 192.168.10.0/24, there are 254 IP addresses to be
assigned to hosts on the network. As there are 3 printers which need to have their addresses assigned
statically, then there are 251 IP addresses left for assignment.
Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The
company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for
the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical
sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the
subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme,
what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?
• 0
• 4
• 16
• 256
Explanation:
Because only one hexadecimal character is used to represent the subnet, that one character can
represent 16 different values 0 through F.
What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
• 2001:DB8:BC15
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
Explanation:
The network portion, or prefix, of an IPv6 address is identified through the prefix length. A /64 prefix
length indicates that the first 64 bits of the IPv6 address is the network portion. Hence the prefix is
Network A is a MAN. 2001:DB8:BC15:A.
Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60
Explanation:
All the addresses have the part 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A in common. Each number or letter in the
address represents 4 bits, so the prefix-length is /60.
Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all
options are used.)
• Question
•
• Answer
•
Explanation:
Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.62 with the
broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy
the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)
• Question
•
• Answer
•
Explanation:
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.
CCNA 1: Chapter 1 Quiz
1. Fill in the blank.
Refer to the exhibit.
This represents an example of an “internal” security threat to an organization.
Explanation:
Typical internal security threats include weak or exposed passwords, lost or stolen
devices, and malicious employees.
Noted: The correct answers can be two : internal and inside.
2. What is a WAN?
a) a network infrastructure designed to provide data storage, retrieval, and
replication
b) a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a large
geographic area*
c) a network infrastructure that spans a limited physical area such as a city
d) a network infrastructure that provides access in a small geographic area
Explanation:
A WAN provides access to other networks over a large geographic area. A SAN provides
data storage, retrieval, and replication. A MAN spans a limited physical area such as a
city. A LAN provides access in a small geographic area.
3. Match the Internet connectivity type to the appropriate description or
characteristic. (Not all options are used.)
Metro Ethernet high-speed business class copper or fiber

connection
satellite requires a dish and clear line of sight for

service
SDSL business class service that provides the
same upload and download speeds over
telephone lines
cable signal carried on the same copper or
fiber medium as the television signal
cellular access via the cell phone network
Explanation:
DSL uses a high-speed modem to split the existing telephone line into voice, download,
and upload signal channels. SDSL is a format of DSL that provides business class service
featuring the same speeds for uploading and downloading. Cable uses the same coaxial
or fiber optic cable that carries television signals into the home to provide Internet access.
Satellite requires a clear line of sight and is affected by trees and other obstructions.
Cellular access to the internet is provided by the cell phone network. Cellular provides
access in areas that otherwise have no other form of access. Metro Ethernet is a
dedicated business class of service that connects organizations to the internet via
copper or fiber cable at speeds up to 10Gb/s.
4. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)

a) easily overloaded with increased traffic
b) grows in size without impacting existing users*
c) is not as reliable as a small network
d) suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion*
e) offers limited number of applications
Explanation:
Scalable networks are networks that can grow without requiring costly replacement of
existing network devices. One way to make a network scalable is to buy networking
devices that are modular.
5. Which three devices are considered end devices in a network? (Choose three.)
a) router
b) switch
c) VoIP pone*
d) security camera*
e) access point
f) TelePresence endpoint*
Explanation:
Routers, switches, and access points are intermediary devices.
6. Refer to the exhibit.
Match the example networks to the type of network. (Not all options are used.)
Network A MAN
Network B LAN
Network C WLAN
Network D WAN
Explanation:
Network A is a MAN. It consists of a number of different types of facilities that are

connected within the same geographic area. Network B is a LAN. It is located in a limited
geographic area in a single building. Network C is a WLAN. It is a LAN in which the devices
are connected wirelessly. Finally option D shows a WAN. It is two geographically separate
LANs that are connected to the same enterprise.
The “Arpanet” project started the development of inter-network connections using

TCP/IP that has evolved into the Internet today.
Noted: The correct answers can be 4 : arpanet, ARPANET, Advanced Research Projects
Agency Network, and Advanced Research Projects Agency in netacad.
8. How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?
a) BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
b) BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the
need for organizational security policies.
c) BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an
organization.
d) BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.*
Explanation:
A BYOD environment requires an organization to accommodate a variety of devices
and access methods. Personal devices, which are not under company control, may be
involved, so security is critical. Onsite hardware costs will be reduced, allowing a
business to focus on delivering collaboration tools and other software to BYOD users.
9. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?
a) an Internet cafe in a city

b) a farm in a rural area without wired broadband access*
c) any home with multiple wireless devices
d) an apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet
Explanation:
Wireless Internet Service Providers (WISPs) are typically found in rural areas where DSL or
cable access is not available. A dish or antenna on the property of the subscriber
connects wirelessly to a WISP transmitter, eliminating the need for physical cabling
outside the building.
10. What is an ISP?
a) It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
b) It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network
communicate.
c) It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the
Internet.*
d) It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different
networking devices in one.
Explanation:
An ISP, or Internet Service Provider, is an organization that provides access to the

Internet for businesses and individuals.
11. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the
ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a
fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data
center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a
very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown
here?
a) quality of service (QoS)

b) scalability
c) security
d) fault tolerance*
e) integrity
Explanation:
Fault tolerance is the characteristic of a network which allows it to quickly respond to
failures of network devices, media, or services. Quality of service refers to the measures
taken to ensure that network traffic requiring higher throughput receives the required
network resources. Scalability refers to the ability of the network to grow to
accommodate new requirements. Security refers to protecting networks and data from
theft, alteration, or destruction. Integrity refers to the completeness of something and is
generally not used as a characteristic of networks in the same way as the other terms.
12. Which statement describes a characteristic of a converged network?
a) A single network that delivers voice, video, and data to a variety of devices.*
b) Network services are delivered over a wide range of network platforms.
c) The network establishes separate communication channels for each network
service.
d) The network uses different technologies for voice, video, and data.
Explanation:
A converged network unifies different network services, such as streaming video, voice,
and data, on a single platform and within a single infrastructure.
13. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed
on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of
the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
DoS attack
identity theft
spyware*
zero-day attack
Explanation:
Spyware is software that is installed on a network device and that collects information.
14. An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the
safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure
remote access to a company network?
a) ACL
b) IPS
c) VPN*
d) BYOD
Explanation:
Virtual private networks (VPN) are used to provide secure access to remote workers.
Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?
a) source
b) end
c) transfer
d) intermediary*
Explanation:
Intranets connect LANs and WANs that should only be accessible by internal
employees, whereas an extranet allows organizations to do business directly with other
external organizations by allowing them access to part of the internal network.

An “Intranet” is a private connection of LANs and WANs that belongs to an
organization, and is designed to be accessible only by the members and employees of
the organization, or others with authorization.
Explanation:
Routers and switches are intermediary devices. End devices consist of PCs, laptops, and
servers. They also include printers, VoIP phones, security cameras, and hand-held
devices.
Noted: The correct answers can be 7 : Intranet, intranet, Intra net, intra net, Intra-net,
intra-net
, INTRANET in netacad.
1. When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming
conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)
a) the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length*

b) the hostname should be written in all lower case characters
c) the hostname should contain no spaces*
d) the hostname should end with a special character
e) the hostname should begin with a letter*
Explanation:
A hostname can be configured with upper or lower case characters and should end
with a letter or digit, not a special character. A hostname should start with a letter and
no space is allowed for a hostname.
2. Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?
a) to remove all configurations from the switch

b) to save an active configuration to NVRAM
c) to copy an existing configuration into RAM*
d) to make a changed configuration the new startup configuration
Explanation:
Usually, changes are made to a running configuration in RAM and copied to NVRAM.
However, in this case, the technician wants to copy a previously saved configuration
from NVRAM into RAM in order to make changes to it.?
3. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
a) All router commands are available.

b) Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
c) The device prompt for this mode ends with the “>” symbol.*
d) Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
e) Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.*
Explanation:
User EXEC mode limits access to some show and debug commands. It is the first level of
user interface encountered when configuring a router and is intended for investigation
of certain functions of the device. The User EXEC prompt is identified with the “>”
symbol.
4. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text
in a configuration file?
a) (config)# enable password secret

b) (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
c) (config-line)# password secret
d) (config)# service password-encryption*
e) (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
Explanation:
To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in configuration files,
an administrator can execute the service password-encryption command. This
command encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.
5. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by
typing which key or key combination?
a) Tab*
b) Ctrl-P
c) Ctrl-N
d) Up Arrow
e) Right Arrow
f) Down Arrow
6. How is SSH different from Telnet?
a) SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band
access.
b) SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user
authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.*
c) SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be
used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
d) SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is
used to connect to a device from a console connection.
Explanation:
SSH is the preferred protocol for connecting to a device operating system over the
network because it is much more secure than Telnet. Both SSH and Telnet are used to
connect to devices over the network, and so are both used in-band. PuTTY and Terra
Term can be used to make both SSH and Telnet connections.
7. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the
modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
a) VTY interface*
b) console interface*
c) Ethernet interface
d) boot IOS mode
e) privileged EXEC mode*
f) router configuration mode
Explanation:
Access to the VTY and console interfaces can be restricted using passwords. Out-of-band
management of the router can be restricted in both user EXEC and privileged EXEC
modes.
8. Which device acts as a gateway to allow hosts to send traffic to remote IP networks?
a) DNS server
b) DHCP server
c) local router*
d) local switch
Explanation:
For hosts to reach remote networks, they must send traffic to a local router that can route
the traffic to the correct destination network. This local router is known as the default
gateway and hosts must be configured with this address in order to communicate with
devices on remote networks.
9. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device.

What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?
a) Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.

b) Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running
configuration.
c) Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.
d) Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take
effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been
pressed.*
Explanation:
Changes to router and switch configurations take effect as soon as the command is
entered. For this reason, it is very important that changes to live production devices are
always carefully planned before being implemented. If commands are entered that
render the device unstable or inaccessible, the device may have to be reloaded,
resulting in network downtime.
10. A technician configures a switch with these commands:
What is the technician configuring?

a) Telnet access
b) SVI*
c) password encryption
d) physical switchport access
Explanation:
For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface must be configured. This
allows the switch to be managed remotely over the network.
11. An IT technician has manually configured an IP address on a laptop for a new

employee. Each time the employee tries to connect to the LAN, the employee receives
a duplicate IP address error message. What can the company do to prevent this
situation from arising again?
a) Configure the IP address on an SVI on the laptop.

b) Use a virtual private network instead of the company LAN.
c) Use DHCP to automatically assign addresses.*
d) Use laptops that do not require IP addresses.
Explanation:
Assigning IP addresses automatically using DHCP will greatly eliminate the chance of a
duplicate IP address error.
12. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of
the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
a) providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

b) displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode*
c) allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with
the TAB key
d) determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered
command*
e) selecting the best command to accomplish a task
Explanation:
Context-sensitive help provides the user with a list of commands and the arguments
associated with those commands within the current mode of a networking device. A
syntax checker provides error checks on submitted commands and the TAB key can be
used for command completion if a partial command is entered.
In order to test end-to-end connectivity, you would use the “ping” command.
Noted: There are 4 answers. You can use one of the following: ping, trace, traceroute,
and tracert, but in our system you can use only ping.
Explanation:
Connectivity between two end devices can be tested using the ping, tracert, or
traceroute commands.
14. True or False?
Mobile devices do not require IP addresses to communicate on the Internet.
a) True
b) False*
Explanation:
All devices that communicate over data networks need unique IP addresses.
The component of the operating software that provides the user interface is called the
“shell” .
Explanation:
Operating systems function with a shell, a kernel, and the hardware. The shell interfaces
with the users, allowing them to request specific tasks from the device. The kernel
provisions resources from the hardware to meet software requirements. The hardware
functions by using drivers and their underlying electronics. The hardware represents the
physical components of the device.
1. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same
message simultaneously?
a) duplex
b) unicast
c) multicast
d) broadcast*
Explanation:
When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the message would
be delivered as a broadcast. Unicast delivery occurs when one source host sends a
message to one destination host. The sending of the same message from a host to a
group of destination hosts is multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers to the
ability of the medium to carry messages in both directions.
2. What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the
network?
a) application
b) transport
c) internet*
d) network access
Explanation:
The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network
access. The internet layer determines the best path through the network.
3. At which layer of the OSI model would a physical address be encapsulated?

a) physical layer
b) data link layer*
c) network layer
d) transport layer
Explanation:
Physical addresses are encapsulated at the data link layer. Logical addresses, also known
as IP addresses, are encapsulated at the network layer. Port addresses are encapsulated
at the transport layer. No addresses are encapsulated at the physical layer.
4. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on
communications?
a) The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
b) The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on remote networks.*
c) The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on the local network.
d) There is no impact on communications.
Explanation:
A default gateway is only required to communicate with devices on another network.
The absence of a default gateway does not affect connectivity between devices on
the same local network.
5. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network

communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
a) connector specifications
b) message encoding*
c) media selection
d) message size*
e) delivery options*
f) end-device installation
Explanation:
The protocols used in network communications define the details of how a message is
transmitted, including requirements for message delivery options, message timing,
message encoding, formatting and encapsulation, and message size.
6. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a
networking model?
a) frame
b) packet
c) protocol data unit*
d) segment
Explanation:
The term protocol data unit (PDU) is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a
networking model. A packet is the PDU at the network layer. A frame is the data link
layer PDU. A segment is the PDU at the transport layer.
7. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?
a) specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of

communication
b) specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication
c) providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur*
d) dictating the content of the message sent during communication
Explanation:
Protocols provide rules that define how a message is transmitted across a network.
Implementation requirements such as electronic and bandwidth details for data
communication are specified by standards. Operating systems are not specified by
protocols, but will implement protocols. Protocols determine how and when to send a
message but they do not control the contents of a message.
8. Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for
individual communications between end devices?
a) application
b) presentation
c) session
d) transport*
e) network
Explanation:
The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport,
network, data link, and physical. The transport layer defines services to segment, transfer,
and reassemble the data for individual communications between the end devices.
9. Why are open standards important in the data communications industry?
a) They are required for devices to gain access to the Internet.

b) They eliminate the threat of security breaches.
c) They enable interoperability between software and hardware from different
vendors.*
d) They encourage network organizations to develop proprietary software to retain
their competitive edge.
Explanation:
Open standard protocols facilitate interoperability between software and hardware

made by different manufactures. For example, open standards allow a client with a Linux
operating system to connect to a server running a Microsoft Windows operating system.
They would also be able to successfully exchange data. If all software, hardware, and
protocols were proprietary, this would not be possible.
10. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?
a) destination MAC address

b) destination IP address*
c) destination port number
d) source MAC address
e) source IP address
Explanation:
The destination IP address is used for end-to-end delivery of data to a remote network.
The destination MAC address is used for delivery on a local network. The destination port
number identifies the application that should process the data at the destination. Source
addresses identify the sender of the data.

The MAC address of a PC does not change when the PC is moved to a different
network because the MAC address is embedded in the “NIC” of the PC.
Explanation:
The MAC address is also known as the physical or Ethernet address. Because it is encoded
on hardware, on the Ethernet NIC, it will stay the same no matter where the NIC is
geographically located.
Noted: There are 6 answers. You can use one of the following in netacad: NIC, network
interface card, network card, Ethernet NIC, Ethernet network interface card, and
Ethernet network card.
12. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)
a) IANA*
b) TCP/IP
c) IEEE*
d) IETF*
e) OSI
f) MAC
Explanation:
TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP, FTP, and
DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the
Internet. A MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI
is the 7 layer model that is used to explain how networking works.
13. What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
a) remote delivery
b) local and remote delivery
c) local delivery*
d) remote delivery using routers
Explanation:
If a device is sending frames to another device on the same local network, it uses ARP to
determine the MAC address of the receiving device. The sending device then uses the
Layer 2 addresses to send the frames.
14. What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?
a) static
b) unicast
c) dynamic
d) multicast*
e) broadcast
Explanation:
A communication from a single source to a single destination is called a unicast. A

communication from a single source to a group of destinations is called a multicast. A
communication from a single source to all destinations on the same local network is
called a broadcast.
1. A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared media. Which
physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?
a) bus
b) extended star*
c) ring
d) partial mesh
Explanation:
An extended star topology is an example of a hybrid topology as additional switches are

interconnected with other star topologies. A partial mesh topology is a common hybrid
WAN topology. The bus and ring are not hybrid topology types.
2. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings?

(Choose three.)
a) greater distances per cable run*
b) lower installation cost
c) limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI*
d) durable connections
e) greater bandwidth potential*
f) easily terminated
3. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

a) controlling access to media
b) transmitting bits across the local media*
c) performing error detection on received frames
d) exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
Explanation:
The physical layer is responsible for transmitting the actual signals across the physical
media as bits. Exchanging frames, controlling media access, and performing error
detection are all functions of the data link layer.
4. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the
same time?
1. full dúplex*
2. half duplex
3. multiplex
4. simplex
5. Match the description with the media. (Not all options are used.)
STP This type of copper media is used in industrial or similar

environments where there is a lot of interference.
wireless This type of media provides the most mobility options.
optical fiber This type of media is used for high transmission speed and can
also transfer data over long distances.
coaxial Traditionally used for television but can now be used in a network
to connect the customer location to the wiring of the customer
premises.
Explanation:
UTP cables are used in wired office environments. Coaxial cables are used to connect
cable modems and televisions. Fiber optics are used for high transmission speeds and to
transfer data over long distances. STP cables are used in environments where there is a
lot of interference.
6. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data
link layer?
a) They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
b) Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.
c) They vary depending on protocols.*
d) They include information on user applications.
Explanation:
All data link layer protocols encapsulate the Layer 3 PDU within the data field of the
frame. However, the structure of the frame and the fields that are contained in the
header vary according to the protocol. Different data link layer protocols may use
different fields, like priority/quality of service, logical connection control, physical link
control, flow control, and congestion control.
7. Which two factors influence the method that is used for media access control?
(Choose two.)
a) how data is generated by end devices applications
b) how the connection between nodes appears to the data link layer*
c) how signals are encoded by the NICs on end devices
d) how nodes share the media*
e) how the IP protocol forwards the packet to the destination
Explanation:
The media access control method used depends on the topology (how the connection
between the nodes appears to the data link layer), and how the nodes share the media.
The type of data generated by end devices applications, the way signals are encoded
by the NICs on end devices, and even the way the IP protocol forwards the packet
through the network have no influence on the choice of the method used for media
access control.
8. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

a) CSMA/CD
b) priority ordering
c) CSMA/CA*
d) token passing
Explanation:
Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used with wireless
networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple access with
collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet technology to mediate media
contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not a method) for media
access control.
9. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)
addressing This field helps to direct the frame toward

its destination.
error detection This field checks if the frame has been
damaged during the transfer.
type This field is used by the LLC to identify the
Layer 3 protocol.
frame start This field identifies the beginning of a
frame.
Explanation:
Place in the following order:

error detection – This field checks if the frame has been damaged during the transfer.
The second answer is not used.
addressing – This field helps to direct the frame toward its destination.
frame start – This field identifies the beginning of a frame.
type – This field is used by the LLC to identify the Layer 3 protocol.
One end of the cable is terminated as displayed, and the other end is terminated in
accordance with the T568A standard. What type of cable would be created in this
manner?
a) crossover
b) rollover
c) straight-through*
d) fiber-optic
Explanation:
A straight-through cable can have either a T568A or T568B standard termination at one
end and the same at the other end. A crossover cable has a T568A standard termination
at one end and a T568B standard at the other end. A rollover cable can have either a
T568A or T568B standard termination at one end, and at the other end have the same
standard, but with the wires connected in reverse order. A fiber-optic cable is not
terminated using RJ-45 connectors.
11. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both
wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection
be recommended?
a) The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
b) The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance
requirements.
c) The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.*
d) The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.
Explanation:
When the end-user devices need mobility to connect to the network, wireless is
recommended. If an end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC, the user will only be able
to use Ethernet cabling. If RFI is an issue, wireless is not recommended. An end-user device
that requires a dedicated connection for performance would perform better with a
dedicated Ethernet cable.
12. What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router
console port?
a) crossover
b) rollover*
c) straight-through
d) coaxial
Explanation:
UTP cable wire pairs can be terminated in different configurations for use in different
applications. To use a UTP cable for consoling into a Cisco router from a PC serial port, it
must be terminated as a rollover or console cable.

In fiber optic media, the signals are represented as patterns of “LIGHT”.
Explanation:
In fiber optic media, the physical layer produces the representation and groupings of bits
as patterns of light.
Noted: There are 3 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in netacad: LIGHT,
Light, and light.
What is the maximum possible throughput between the PC and the server?
a) 128 kb/s*
b) 10 Mb/s
c) 100 Mb/s
d) 1000 Mb/s
Explanation:
The maximum throughput between any two nodes on a network is determined by the
slowest link between those nodes.
15. Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

a) It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
b) It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced
time durations.
c) It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary
numbers of the frame.
d) It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern
to help distinguish data bits from control bits.*
Explanation:
Frame encoding converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code that is recognized
by both the sender and receiver. These codes are used for a variety of purposes, such as
distinguishing data bits from control bits, and identifying the beginning and end of a
frame.
16. What is a characteristic of a WAN hub-and-spoke topology?

a) It requires that some of the branch sites be interconnected through point-to-
point links.
b) It requires that every site be interconnected to each other through point-to-point
links.
c) All sites require a hub device that connects to a router.
d) The branch sites are connected to a central site through point-to-point links.*
Explanation:
A hub-and-spoke topology is a WAN version of the star topology in which a central site
interconnects branch sites using point-to-point links. A mesh topology requires that every
end system be interconnected to every other system using point-to-point links. A partial
mesh is a variation of this topology, where some but not all end devices are
interconnected. There is no topology where all the sites have to have hub devices that
are connected to a router.
17. Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?
a) to define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware
b) to provide data link layer addressing
c) to identify which network layer protocol is being used*
d) to accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets
Explanation:
Defining the media access processes that are performed by the hardware and providing
data link layer addressing are functions of the MAC sublayer. The data link layer accepts
Layer 3 packets and packages them into data units that are called frames.
1. Refer to the graphic.
H2 has sent a broadcast message to all of the hosts. If host H1 wants to reply to the
broadcast message, which statement is true?
a) H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the switch forwards it to all devices.
b) H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the switch forwards it directly to H2.*
c) H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the switch forwards it to all devices.
d) H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the switch forwards it directly to H2.
Explanation:
Since H2 has just sent a broadcast message to all hosts, the MAC address for H2 is already
in the switch MAC table. A unicast message from H1 to H2 will therefore be forwarded by
the switch directly to H2.
2. What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal value of 3F?

a) 18
b) 34
c) 45
d) 46
e) 63*
Explanation:
In order to convert a hexadecimal number to decimal, consider that the digit to the far
right represents the 1s column where values 0 through F can appear. A hexadecimal
value of A equals the decimal number 10. B equals 11, and so on through F equaling 15.
The value of F in the number F equals15. Next consider the value of 3 in the hexadecimal
number of 3F. That place holder is the 16s column. Multiple the number 3 times 16 for a
total of 48. Add 48 to 15 for the grand total of 63. Hexadecimal 3F equals a decimal value
of 63.
3. Fill in the blank using a number.
The minimum Ethernet frame size is “64” bytes. Anything smaller than that should be
considered a “runt frame.”
Explanation:
Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame as 64 bytes and the
maximum as 1518 bytes.
4. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

a) translate URLs to IP addresses
b) resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses*
c) provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
d) convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC3. In this scenario,
what will happen next?
a) RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.

b) RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.*
c) RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
d) SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
e) RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.
Explanation:
When a network device has to communicate with a device on another network, it

broadcasts an ARP request asking for the default gateway MAC address. The default
gateway (RT1) unicasts an ARP reply with the Fa0/0 MAC address.
6. Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast

frame?
a) It drops the frame.
b) It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame.*
c) It sends the frame to all ports that are registered to forward broadcasts.
d) It sends the frame to all ports.
Explanation:
When a Layer 2 switch receives a frame with a broadcast destination address, it floods
the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame.
On Ethernet networks, the hexadecimal address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF represents the

“broadcast” MAC address.
Explanation:
On Ethernet networks, the broadcast MAC address is 48 binary ones displayed as

hexadecimal FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
Noted: There are 3 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in netacad:
broadcast, Broadcast, BROADCAST.
8. When the store-and-forward method of switching is in use, what part of the Ethernet
frame is used to perform an error check?
a) CRC in the tráiler*
b) source MAC address in the header
c) destination MAC address in the header
d) protocol type in the header
Explanation:
The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) part of the trailer is used to determine if the frame
has been modified during transit. If the integrity of the frame is verified, the frame is
forwarded. If the integrity of the frame cannot be verified, then the frame is dropped.
9. Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer? (Choose
two.)
a) It is responsible for Media Access Control.*

b) It performs the function of NIC driver software.
c) It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.*
d) It handles communication between upper and lower layers.
e) It adds control information to network protocol layer data.
Explanation:
The MAC sublayer is the lower of the two data link sublayers and is closest to the physical
layer. The two primary functions of the MAC sublayer are to encapsulate the data from
the upper layer protocols and to control access to the media.
The Ethernet “MAC” sublayer is responsible for communicating directly with the physical
layer.
Explanation:
Ethernet at the data link layer is divided into two sublayers – the MAC and the LLC
sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for communicating with the upper layers, and
the MAC sublayer communicates directly with the physical layer.
MAC, Mac, mac.

What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it leaves the web server if
the final destination is PC1?
a) 00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
b) 00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
c) 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC*
d) 00-60-2F-3A-07-DD
Explanation:
The destination MAC address is used for local delivery of Ethernet frames. The MAC (Layer
2) address changes at each network segment along the path. As the frame leaves the
web server, it will be delivered by using the MAC address of the default gateway.
The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as “0A” in hexadecimal.
Explanation:
The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as 0A in hexadecimal.
Noted: There are 6 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in netacad: 0A,
0a, A, a, 0x0a, and 0x0A.
13. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port
connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work
best for this task?
a) port-based buffering
b) level 1 cache buffering
c) shared memory buffering*
d) fixed configuration buffering
Explanation:
With shared memory buffering, the number of frames stored in the buffer is restricted only
by the of the entire memory buffer and not limited to a single port buffer. This permits
larger frames to be transmitted with fewer dropped frames. This is important to
asymmetric switching, which applies to this scenario, where frames are being exchanged
between ports of different rates. With port-based memory buffering, frames are stored in
queues that are linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports making it possible for a
single frame to delay the transmission of all the frames in memory because of a busy
destination port. Level 1 cache is memory used in a CPU. Fixed configuration refers to the
port arrangement in switch hardware.
14. What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?
a) an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet

b) an address that reaches one specific host
c) an address that reaches every host in the network
d) an address that reaches a specific group of hosts*
Explanation:
The multicast MAC address is a special value that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal.
It allows a source device to send a packet to a group of devices.
15. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port

basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is
reached?
a) fragment-free
b) fast-forward
c) cut-through
d) store-and-forward*
Explanation:
When the store-and-forward switching method is used, the switch receives the complete
frame before forwarding it on to the destination. In contrast, a cut-through switch
forwards the frame once the destination Layer 2 address is read.
1. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)
a) carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination
hosts
b) providing end devices with a unique network identifier*
c) placing data on the network medium
d) directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks*
e) providing dedicated end-to-end connections
Explanation:
The network layer is primarily concerned with passing data from a source to a destination
on another network. IP addresses supply unique identifiers for the source and destination.
The network layer provides connectionless, best-effort delivery. Devices rely on higher
layers to supply services to processes.
2. How does the network layer use the MTU value?

a) The network layer depends on the higher level layers to determine the MTU.
b) The network layer depends on the data link layer to set the MTU, and adjusts the
speed of transmission to accommodate it.
c) The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer.*
d) To increase speed of delivery, the network layer ignores the MTU.
Explanation:
The data link layer indicates to the network layer the MTU for the medium that is being
used. The network layer uses that information to determine how large the packet can be
when it is forwarded. When packets are received on one medium and forwarded on a
medium with a smaller MTU, the network layer device can fragment the packet to
accommodate the smaller size.
If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the “metric” is used to
determine which route is used in the routing table.
Explanation:
If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the metric is used to
decide which route appears in the routing table.
metric or Metric.
Fill in the blank.
A packet leaving PC-1 has to traverse “3” hops to reach PC-4.
Explanation:
A hop is an intermediary Layer 3 device that a packet has to traverse to reach its
destination. In this case, the number of hops a packet has to traverse from PC-1 to PC-4
is three, as there are three routers from source to destination.
Noted: There are 4 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in netacad: 3,
three, Three, or THREE.
5. Here is a link to the PT Activity.
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the
question.
Which interfaces in each router are active and operational?
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/0

R1: G0/1 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/0**
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/1
Explanation:
The command to use for this activity is show ip interface brief in each router. The active
and operational interfaces are represented by the value “up” in the “Status” and
“Protocol” columns. The interfaces in R1 with these characteristics are G0/0 and S0/0/0.
In R2 they are G0/1 and S0/0/0.
6. Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a

default gateway address?
a) Hosts that are connected to the switch can use the switch default gateway
address to forward packets to a remote destination.
b) A switch must have a default gateway to be accessible by Telnet and SSH.
c) The default gateway address is used to forward packets originating from the
switch to remote networks.*
d) It provides a next-hop address for all traffic that flows through the switch.
Explanation:
A default gateway address allows a switch to forward packets that originate on the
switch to remote networks. A default gateway address on a switch does not provide
Layer 3 routing for PCs that are connected on that switch. A switch can still be accessible
from Telnet as long as the source of the Telnet connection is on the local network.

Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A
in the 192.133.219.0 network?
a) 192.135.250.1
b) 192.31.7.1
c) 192.133.219.0
d) 192.133.219.1*
The acronym ”PAT” is used to define the process that allows multiple devices to share a
single routable IP address.
Explanation:
NAT or Network Address Translation is the process of modifying the IP packet header
information on packets going outside the corporate network. Corporate networks
typically use private addresses on the inside LAN and need a public address to be able
to communicate through the WAN.
Noted: There are 6 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in netacad: PAT,
Pat, pat, NAT, Nat, or nat.
9. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?
a) 126.0.0.1
b) 127.0.0.0
c) 126.0.0.0
d) 127.0.0.1*
Explanation:
A host can ping the loopback interface by sending a packet to a special IPv4 address
within the network 127.0.0.0/8.
10. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each
router that receives a packet?
a) Differentiated Services
b) Fragment Offset
c) Header Length
d) Time-to-Live*
Explanation:
When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the Time-to-Live (TTL) field
by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving router will discard the packet and
will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message to the sender.
11. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
a) host portion
b) broadcast address
c) network portion*
d) gateway address
12. During the boot process, where will the router bootstrap program look for the IOS
image by default?
a) flash
b) NVRAM
c) RAM*
d) ROM
Explanation:
The IOS image is typically stored in flash memory. If the image is not in flash memory
when the router boots, the router bootstrap program can look for it on a TFTP server.
13. When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio and
video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and switches to
maintain the same path for the packets in the same conversation?
a) Next Header
b) Flow Label*
c) Traffic Class
d) Differentiated Services
Explanation:
The Flow Label in IPv6 header is a 20-bit field that provides a special service for real-time
applications. This field can be used to inform routers and switches to maintain the same
path for the packet flow so that packets will not be reordered.

A router may have to fragment a packet when forwarding it from one medium to
another medium that has a smaller ”maximum transmission unit” .
maximum transmission unit, Maximum Transmission Unit, MTU, or mtu.
15. Which key combination allows a user to abort setup mode?
a) Ctrl-C*
b) Ctrl-R
c) Ctrl-Z
d) Ctrl-Shift-6
Explanation:
The setup mode can be interrupted at any time using the Ctrl-C key combination.
1. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)
a link-local address 169.254.1.5

a public address 198.133.219.2
an experimental address 240.2.6.255
a loopback address 127.0.0.1
Explanation:
Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS and are located in the block
169.254.0.0/16. The private address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and
192.168.0.0/16. The addresses in the block 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 are reserved as
experimental addresses. Loopback addresses belong to the block 127.0.0.0/8.
2. Match the IPv6 address with the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)
2001:DB8::BAF:3F57:FE94 global unicast

FF02::1 all node multicast
::1 loopback
FF02::1:FFAE:F85F solicited node multicast
Explanation:
FF02::1:FFAE:F85F is a solicited node multicast address.
2001:DB8::BAF:3F57:FE94 is a global unicast address.
FF02::1 is the all node multicast address. Packets sent to this address will be received by
all IPv6 hosts on the local link.
::1 is the IPv6 loopback address.
There are no examples of link local or unique local addresses provided.
3. Which two types of devices are typically assigned static IP addresses? (Choose two.)
a) workstations
b) web servers*
c) printers*
d) hubs
e) laptops
Explanation:
Servers and peripherals are often accessed by an IP address, so these devices need
predictable IP addresses. End-user devices often have dynamic addresses that are
assigned. Hubs do not require IPv4 addresses to operate as intermediary devices.
The 8-digit binary value of the last octet of the IPv4 address 172.17.10.7 is
__00000111__ .
Explanation:
7 = 4 + 2 + 1 = 00000111
5. In which alternative to DHCPv6 does a router dynamically provide IPv6 configuration

information to hosts?
ARP
EUI-64
ICMPv6
SLAAC*
Explanation:
Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) can be used as an alternative to DHCPv6.

In this approach, a router provides global routing prefix, prefix length, default gateway,
and DNS server information to a host. The host is not provided with a global unicast
address by SLAAC. Instead, SLAAC suggests that the host create its own global unicast
address based on the supplied global routing prefix. ARP is not used in IPv6. ICMPv6
messages are used by SLAAC to provide addressing and other configuration information.
EUI-64 is a process in which a host will create an Interface ID from its 48-bit MAC address.
The last host address on the 10.15.25.0/24 network is __10.15.25.254__ .
Explanation:
The host portion of the last host address will contain all 1 bits with a 0 bit for the lowest
order or rightmost bit. This address is always one less than the broadcast address. The
range of addresses for the network 10.15.25.0/24 is 10.15.25.0 (network address) through
10.15.25.255 (broadcast address). So the last host address for this network is 10.15.25.254.
10.15.25.254, .254, 254, and 10.15.25.254/24.
7. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
/25
/26
/27*
/28
Explanation:
The binary format for 255.255.255.224 is 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000. The
prefix length is the number of consecutive 1s in the subnet mask. Therefore, the prefix
length is /27.
8. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)
This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets. ——> subnet ID
This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider. ——> global routing
prefix
This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address. ——>
interface ID
Explanation:
A global IPv6 unicast address contains three parts. The Global Routing Prefix of an IPv6 is
the prefix or network portion of the address assigned by the provider, such as an ISP, to
a customer or site. The Subnet ID Field is used by an organization to identify a subnet
within its site. The interface ID field of the IPv6 Interface ID is equivalent to the host
portion of an IPv4 address.
9. Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to
carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?
encapsulation
translation
dual-stack
tunneling*
Explanation:
The tunneling migration technique encapsulates an IPv6 packet inside an IPv4 packet.
Encapsulation assembles a message and adds information to each layer in order to
transmit the data over the network. Translation is a migration technique that allows IPv6-
enabled devices to communicate with IPv4-enabled devices using a translation
technique similar to NAT for IPv4. The dual-stack migration technique allows IPv4 and
IPv6 protocol stacks to coexist on the same network simultaneously.

The network portion of the address 172.16.30.5/16 is __172.16__ .
Explanation:
A prefix of /16 means that 16 bits are used for the network part of the address. The
network portion of the address is therefore 172.16.
The shortest compressed format of the IPv6 address

2001:0DB8:0000:1470:0000:0000:0000:0200 is ___2001:DB8:0:1470::200__
Explanation:
A double colon (::) can replace any single, contiguous string of one or more 16-bit
segments (hextets) consisting of all 0s, and can only be used once per IPv6 address.
Any leading 0s (zeros) in any 16-bit section or hextet can be omitted.
2001:DB8:0:1470::200, and 2001:db8:0:1470::200.
12. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::1.
What is the target of this packet?
the one IPv6 device on the link that has been uniquely configured with this address
all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link or network*
only IPv6 DHCP servers
only IPv6 configured routers
Explanation:
This address is one of the assigned IPv6 multicast addresses. Packets addressed to
FF02::1 are for all IPv6 enabled devices on the link or network. FF02::2 is for all IPv6 routers
that exist on the network.
13. Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a
single subnet?
global unicast address
link-local address*
loopback address
unique local address
unspecified address
Explanation:
Link-local addresses have relevance only on the local link. Routers will not forward
packets that include a link-local address as either the source or destination address.
14. A user who is unable to connect to the file server contacts the help desk. The
helpdesk technician asks the user to ping the IP address of the default gateway that is
configured on the workstation. What is the purpose for this ping command?
to obtain a dynamic IP address from the server
to request that gateway forward the connection request to the file server
to test that the host has the capability to reach hosts on other networks*
to resolve the domain name of the file server to its IP address

Explanation:
The ping command is used to test connectivity between hosts. The other options
describe tasks not performed by ping. Pinging the default gateway will test whether the
host has the capability to reach hosts on its own network and on other networks.
1. What is the subnet address for the IPv6 address 2001:D12:AA04:B5::1/64?
2001::/64
2001:D12::/64
2001:D12:AA04::/64
2001:D12:AA04:B5::/64*
Explanation:
The /64 represents the network and subnet IPv6 fields which are the first four groups of
hexadecimal digits. The first address within that range is the subnetwork address of 2001:
D12:AA04:B5::/64.
2. A network engineer is subnetting the 10.0.240.0/20 network into smaller subnets. Each
new subnet will contain between a minimum of 20 hosts and a maximum of 30 hosts.
Which subnet mask will meet these requirements?
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.224*
255.255.255.240
Explanation:
For each new subnet to contain between 20 and 30 hosts, 5 host bits are required.
When 5 host bits are being used, 27 network bits are remaining. A /27 prefix provides the
subnet mask of 255.255.255.224.
Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts?
Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already
assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)
10.18.10.200/28
10.18.10.208/28*
10.18.10.224/28*
10.18.10.200/27
10.18.10.224/27
10.18.10.240/27
Explanation:
Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses
192 through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4 host bits are needed to
accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network
number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.
4. An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network address

192.168.1.0/24. What is the network address and subnet mask of the second useable
subnet?
subnetwork 192.168.1.64
subnet mask 255.255.255.192**
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
subnet mask 255.255.255.224
Explanation:
The number of bits that are borrowed would be two, thus giving a total of 4 useable
subnets:
192.168.1.0
192.168.1.64
192.168.1.128
192.168.1.192
Because 2 bits are borrowed, the new subnet mask would be /26 or 255.255.255.192
5. A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26
masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?
2
4*
8
16
64
Explanation:
The normal mask for 192.168.10.0 is /24. A /26 mask indicates 2 bits have been borrowed
for subnetting. With 2 bits, four subnets of equal size could be created.
6. Three methods allow IPv6 and IPv4 to co-exist. Match each method with its
description. (Not all options are used.)
The IPv4 packets and IPv6 packets coexist in the same network. —-> dual-stack
The IPv6 packet is transported inside an IPv4 packet. —-> tunneling
IPv6 packets are converted into IPv4 packets, and vice versa. —-> translation
Explanation:
The term for the method that allows for the coexistence of the two types of packets on
a single network is dual-stack. Tunneling allows for the IPv6 packet to be transported
inside IPv4 packets. An IP packet can also be converted from version 6 to version 4 and
vice versa. DHCP is a protocol that is used for allocating network parameters to hosts on
an IP network.
7. A college has five campuses. Each campus has IP phones installed. Each campus
has an assigned IP address range. For example, one campus has IP addresses that start
with 10.1.x.x. On another campus the address range is 10.2.x.x. The college has
standardized that IP phones are assigned IP addresses that have the number 4X in the
third octet. For example, at one campus the address ranges used with phones include
10.1.40.x, 10.1.41.x, 10.1.42.x, etc. Which two groupings were used to create this IP
addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
geographic location*
device type*
department
personnel type
support model
Explanation:
The IP address design being used is by geographic location (for example, one campus
is 10.1, another campus 10.2, another campus 10.3). The other design criterion is that
the next octet number designates IP phones, or a specific device type, with numbers
starting with 4, but which can include other numbers. Other devices that might get a
designation inside this octet could be printers, PCs, and access points.
8. What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?
subnetwork address
multicast address
unicast address
broadcast address*
Explanation:
A broadcast address is the last address of any given network. This address cannot be
assigned to a host, and it is used to communicate with all hosts on that network.
9. What are two benefits of subnetting networks? (Choose two.)
combining multiple smaller networks into larger networks
reducing the size of broadcast domains*
decreasing the number of broadcast domains
grouping devices to improve management and security*
increasing the size of collision domains
Explanation:
When a single network is subnetted into multiple networks the following occurs:
A new broadcast domain is created for every network that is created through
subnetting.
The amount of network traffic that crosses the entire network decreases.
Devices can be grouped together to improve network management and security.
More IP addresses are usable because each network will have a network address and
broadcast address.
10. How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/26 network?
30
32
60
62*
64
Explanation:
A /26 prefix gives 6 host bits, which provides a total of 64 addresses, because 26 = 64.
Subtracting the network and broadcast addresses leaves 62 usable host addresses.
11. A network administrator has received the IPv6 prefix 2001:DB8::/48 for subnetting.
Assuming the administrator does not subnet into the interface ID portion of the address
space, how many subnets can the administrator create from the /48 prefix?
16
256
4096
65536*
Explanation:
With a network prefix of 48, there will be 16 bits available for subnetting because the
interface ID starts at bit 64. Sixteen bits will yield 65536 subnets.
The last host address on the 10.15.25.0/24 network is __10.15.25.254__ .
Explanation:
The host portion of the last host address will contain all 1 bits with a 0 bit for the lowest
order or rightmost bit. This address is always one less than the broadcast address. The
range of addresses for the network 10.15.25.0/24 is 10.15.25.0 (network address) through
10.15.25.255 (broadcast address). So the last host address for this network is 10.15.25.254.

The network portion of the address 172.16.30.5/16 is __172.16__ .
Explanation:
A prefix of /16 means that 16 bits are used for the network part of the address. The
network portion of the address is therefore 172.16.
14. Three devices are on three different subnets. Match the network address and the
broadcast address with each subnet where these devices are located. (Not all options
are used.)
Device 1: IP address 192.168.10.77/28 on subnet 1
Device 2: IP address192.168.10.17/30 on subnet 2

Device 3: IP address 192.168.10.35/29 on subnet 3
Subnet 1 network number —-> 192.168.10.64
Subnet 1 broadcast address —-> 192.168.10.79

Explanation:
To calculate any of these addresses, write the device IP address in binary. Draw a line
showing where the subnet mask 1s end. For example, with Device 1, the final octet (77)
is 01001101. The line would be drawn between the 0100 and the 1101 because the
subnet mask is /28. Change all the bits to the right of the line to 0s to determine the
network number (01000000 or 64). Change all the bits to the right of the line to 1s to
determine the broadcast address (01001111 or 79).
CCNA 1: Chapter 8 Section 8.3 Quiz
1 Match the IPv6 address with the IPv6 address type.
2001:DB8::BAF:3F57:FE94 -> global unicast
FF02::1 -> all node multicast
::1 -> loopback
FF02::1:FFAE:F85F -> solicited node multicast
2 Which IPv6 network prefix is only intended for local links and can not be routed?
2001::/3
FC00::/7
FE80::/10*
FEC0::/10
Explanation:
FE80::/10 is a link-local prefix. Devices with only link-local addresses can communicate
with other devices on the same network but not with devices on any other network.
3 What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled

on that interface?
global unicast
link-local*
loopback
unique local
What is the global IPv6 address of the host in uncompressed format?
2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0000:0BAF:3F57:FE94
2001:0DB8:0000:0BAF:0000:0000:3F57:FE94
2001:DB80:0000:0000:BAF0:0000:3F57:FE94
2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0BAF:0000:3F57:FE94*
Explanation:
In the compressed format, the :: represents two contiguous hextets of all zeros. Leading
zeros in the second, fifth, and sixth hextets have also been removed.
5 A network administrator has received the IPv6 prefix 2001:DB8::/48 for subnetting.
Assuming the administrator does not subnet into the interface ID portion of the address
space, how many subnets can the administrator create from the /48 prefix?
16
256
4096
65536*
6 What is the interface ID of the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94?
FE94
FE57:FE94
47FF:FE57:FE94
A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94*
1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94
Explanation:
The interface ID of an IPv6 address is the rightmost 64 bits, or last four hextets, of the
address if no interface ID bits have been used for subnets.

Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:0600:: to 2001:0DB8:BC15:0FFF::
The prefix length for the range of addresses is __52__ .
Explanation:
All the addresses have the part 2001:0DB8:BC15:0 in common. Each number or letter in
the address represents 4 bits, so the prefix is /52.
Noted: There are 2 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in netacad: 52,
or /52.
1. Network congestion has resulted in the source learning of the loss of TCP segments
that were sent to the destination. What is one way that the TCP protocol addresses this?
The source decreases the amount of data that it transmits before it receives an
acknowledgement from the destination.*
The source decreases the window size to decrease the rate of transmission from the
destination.
The destination decreases the window size.
The destination sends fewer acknowledgement messages in order to conserve
bandwidth.
Explanation:
If the source determines that the TCP segments are either not being acknowledged or
are not acknowledged in a timely manner, then it can reduce the number of bytes it
sends before receiving an acknowledgment. This does not involve changing the
window in the segment header. The source does not decrease the window that is sent
in the segment header. The window in the segment header is adjusted by the
destination host when it is receiving data faster than it can process it, not when network
congestion is encountered.
2. What is an advantage of UDP over TCP?
UDP communication requires less overhead.*

UDP communication is more reliable.
UDP reorders segments that are received out of order.
UDP acknowledges received data.
Explanation:
TCP is a more reliable protocol and uses sequence numbers to realign packets that
arrive out of order at the destination. Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to identify
applications. UDP has less overhead than TCP because the UDP header has fewer bytes
and UDP does not confirm the receipt of packets.
3. Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server

via the use of UDP at the transport layer?
The client sets the window size for the session.

The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.
The client randomly selects a source port number.*
The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.
Explanation:
Because a session does not have to be established for UDP, the client selects a random
source port to begin a connection. The random port number selected is inserted into
the source port field of the UDP header.
4. Which number or set of numbers represents a socket?

01-23-45-67-89-AB
21
192.168.1.1:80*
10.1.1.15
Explanation:
A socket is defined by the combination of an IP address and a port number, and
uniquely identifies a particular communication.
5. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission
and low overhead? (Choose two)
FTP
DNS*
HTTP
POP3
VoIP*
Explanation:
Both DNS and VoIP use UDP to provide low overhead services within a network
implementation.
6. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
UDP ACK flag

TCP 3-way handshake*
UDP sequence number
TCP port number
Explanation:
TCP uses the 3-way handshake. UDP does not use this feature. The 3-way handshake
ensures there is connectivity between the source and destination devices before
transmission occurs.
7. What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?
to notify the remote device that the conversation is over

to assemble the segments that arrived out of order
to keep track of multiple conversations between devices*
to inquire for a nonreceived segment
Explanation:
The source port number in a segment header is used to keep track of multiple
conversations between devices. It is also used to keep an open entry for the response
from the server. The incorrect options are more related to flow control and guaranteed
delivery.

What does the value of the window size specify?
the amount of data that can be sent at one time

the total number of bits received during this TCP session
the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required*
a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the 3-way handshake
Explanation:
The window size specifies the amount of data that can be sent before an
acknowledgment is received from the receiver. This value specifies the highest number
of bytes, not the required number of bytes.
9. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward

to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data*
to end communication when data transmission is complete
to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
Explanation:
The TCP sliding window allows a destination device to inform a source to slow down the
rate of transmission. To do this, the destination device reduces the value contained in
the window field of the segment. It is acknowledgment numbers that are used to
specify retransmission from a specific point forward. It is sequence numbers that are
used to ensure segments arrive in order. Finally, it is a FIN control bit that is used to end a
communication session.
10. What OSI layer is responsible for establishing a temporary communication session
between two applications and ensuring that transmitted data can be reassembled in
proper sequence?
Transport*
network
data link
session
Explanation:
The transport layer of the OSI model has several responsibilities. One of the primary
responsibilities is to segment data into blocks that can be reassembled in proper
sequence at the destination device.
11. Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)
Window Size
Length*
Source Port*
Acknowledgment Number
Checksum*
Sequence Number
Explanation:
A UDP header consists of only the Source Port, Destination Port, Length, and Checksum
fields. Sequence Number, Acknowledgment Number, and Window Size are TCP header
fields.
12. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session with a server.
Place the termination process steps in the order that they will occur. (Not all options are
used.)
step 1 —-> client sends FIN

step 2 —-> server sends ACK
step 3 —-> server sends FIN
step 4 —-> client sends ACK
Explanation:
In order to terminate a TCP session, the client sends to the server a segment with the FIN
flag set. The server acknowledges the client by sending a segment with the ACK flag
set. The server sends a FIN to the client to terminate the server to client session. The
client acknowledges the termination by sending a segment with the ACK flag set.
13. What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any*

multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the
same network*
identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle
transmitted data*
directing packets towards the destination network
formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices
conducting error detection of the contents in frames
Explanation:
The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the primary responsibilities
include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source
and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of
port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single network
Managing the reliability requirements of applications
14. What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?
applications that are sensitive to delay*

applications that need reliable delivery
applications that require retransmission of lost segments
applications that are sensitive to packet loss
Explanation:
UDP is not a connection-oriented protocol and does not provide retransmission,
sequencing, or flow control mechanisms. It provides basic transport layer functions with
a much lower overhead than TCP. Lower overhead makes UDP suitable for applications
which are sensitive to delay.
1. Which TCP/IP model layer is closest to the end user?
Application*
internet
network access
transport
Explanation:
End users use applications to interact with and use the network. The application layer of
the TCP/IP model is closest to the end user. Application layer protocols are used to
communicate and exchange messages with other network devices and applications.
The layers of the TCP/IP model are from top to bottom (memory aid – ATIN):
application, transport, internet, network access
2. What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?
Only with SMB can data transfers occur in both directions.

Only SMB establishes two simultaneous connections with the client, making the data
transfer faster.
SMB is more reliable than FTP because SMB uses TCP and FTP uses UDP.
SMB clients can establish a long-term connection to the server.*
Explanation:
SMB and FTP are client/server protocols that are used for file transfer. SMB allows the
connecting device to access resources as if they were on the local client device. SMB
and FTP use the TCP protocol for connection establishment and they can transfer data
in both directions. FTP requires two connections between the client and the server, one
for commands and replies, the other for the actual file transfer.
3. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?
the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service

the IP address for an FQDN entry
the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers*
the IP address of an authoritative name server
Explanation:
MX, or mail exchange messages, are used to map a domain name to several mail
exchange servers that all belong to the same domain.
4. Which three protocols or standards are used at the application layer of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose three.)
TCP
HTTP*
MPEG*
GIF*
IP
UDP
Explanation:
HTTP, MPEG, and GIF operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model. TCP and
UDP operate at the transport layer. IP operates at the internet layer.
5. True or False?
In FTP transactions, an FTP client uses the pull method to download files from an FTP
server.
True*
false
Explanation:
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a commonly used application layer protocol. FTP allows
for data transfers between a client and a server. During data transfers, the FTP client
downloads (pulls) data from the server. The FTP client can also upload (push) data to
the server.
6. On a home network, which device is most likely to provide dynamic IP addressing to

clients on the home network?
a dedicated file server

a home router*
an ISP DHCP server
a DNS server
Explanation:
On a home network, a home router usually serves as the DHCP server. The home router
is responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to clients on the home network. ISPs
also use DHCP, but it usually assigns an IP address to the Internet interface of the home
router, not the clients on the home network. In businesses, it is common to have a file or
other dedicated server provide DHCP services to the network. Finally, a DNS server is
responsible for finding the IP address for a URL, not for providing dynamic addressing to
network clients.
7. What is a common protocol that is used with peer-to-peer applications such as

WireShare, Bearshare, and Shareaza?
Ethernet
Gnutella*
POP
SMTP
Explanation:
The Gnutella protocol is used when one user shares an entire file with another user. A
person would load a Gnutella-based application such as gtk-gnutella or WireShare and
use that application to locate and access resources shared by others.
8. What is true about a client-server network?
The network includes a dedicated server.*

Each device can function as a server and a client.
Workstations access network resources using SAMBA or Gnutella.
Each peer accesses an index server to get the location of a resource stored on another
peer in what is considered a hybrid network system.
Explanation:
In a client-server network, a dedicated server responds to service requests from clients.
The roles of client and server are not shared on each host in the network. In a peer-to-
peer network, computers are connected via a network and can share resources. Each
host can function as a server or a client based on the nature of the transaction and
what resources are used or requested. A hybrid network is one in which a server supplies
index information that enables a peer to locate resources on other peers. In this case
the peers can still have the role of client or server depending on the nature of the
network transaction.
9. Which protocol can be used to transfer messages from an email server to an email
client?
SMTP
POP3*
SNMP
HTTP
Explanation:
SMTP is used to send mail from the client to the server but POP3 is used to download
mail from the server to the client. HTTP and SNMP are protocols that are unrelated to
email.
10. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared
so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking
model is in use?
peer-to-peer (P2P)*
client-based
master-slave
point-to-point
Explanation:
Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share
resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.
11. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those
provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
physical layer
session layer*
transport layer
application layer*
presentation layer*
data link layer
Explanation:
The three upper layers of the OSI model, the session, presentation, and application
layers, provide application services similar to those provided by the TCP/IP model
application layer. Lower layers of the OSI model are more concerned with data flow.
12. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two

configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
DNS server*
source port number
HTTP server
default Gateway*
source MAC address
Explanation:
In order to use a URL such as http://www.cisco.com, the DNS protocol must be used in
order to translate the URL into an IP address. Furthermore, the host device requesting
this web page must have a default gateway configured in order to communicate with
remote networks.
13. Why is DHCP preferred for use on large networks?
Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address resolution than do smaller
networks.
DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol.
It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted.
It is a more efficient way to manage IP addresses than static address assignment.*
Hosts on large networks require more IP addressing configuration settings than hosts on
small networks.
Explanation:
Static IP address assignment requires personnel to configure each network host with
addresses manually. Large networks can change frequently and have many more hosts
to configure than do small networks. DHCP provides a much more efficient means of
configuring and managing IP addresses on large networks than does static address
assignment.
14. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host
name?
Nslookup*
ipconfig /displaydns
tracert
ping
Explanation:
The nslookup command was created to allow a user to manually query a DNS server to
resolve a given host name. The ipconfig /displaydns command only displays previously
resolved DNS entries. The tracert command was created to examine the path that
packets take as they cross a network and can resolve a hostname by automatically
querying a DNS server. The ping command was created to test reachability on a
network and can resolve a hostname by automatically querying a DNS server.
1. Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds if
there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?
RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30

RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10*
Explanation:
The correct syntax is RouterA(config)# login block-for (number of
seconds) attempts (number of attempts) within (number of seconds).
2. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer.

What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web
page?
ipconfig /all
arp -a
ipconfig /displaydns*
nslookup
3. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)
hardware threats ——-> physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling

plant, and workstations
environmental threats ——-> temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity
extremes (too wet or too dry)
electrical threats ——-> voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts),
unconditioned power (noise), and total power loss
maintenance threats ——-> poor handling of key electrical components
(electrostatic discharge), lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor labeling
Explanation:
Physical threats can be classified into four categories:
Environmental threats -Temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes
(too wet or too dry)
Hardware threats – Physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and
workstations
Electrical threats – Voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts),
unconditioned power (noise), and total power loss
Maintenance threats – Poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic
discharge), lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor labeling
4. Which statement is true about Cisco IOS ping indicators?
‘!’ indicates that the ping was unsuccessful and that the device may have issues finding
a DNS server.
‘U’ may indicate that a router along the path did not contain a route to the destination
address and that the ping was unsuccessful.*
‘.’ indicates that the ping was successful but the response time was longer than normal.
A combination of ‘.’ and ‘!’ indicates that a router along the path did not have a route
to the destination address and responded with an ICMP unreachable message.
Explanation:
The most common indicators of a ping issued from the Cisco IOS are “!”, “.”, and “U”.
The “!” indicates that the ping completed successfully, verifying connectivity at Layer 3.
The “.” may indicate that a connectivity problem, routing problem, or device security
issue exists along the path and that an ICMP destination unreachable message was not
provided. The “U” indicates that a router along the path may not have had a route to
the destination address, and that it responded with an ICMP unreachable message.
5. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host

with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command, when issued on a Windows PC, will display
the path to the remote host?
trace 10.1.1.5
traceroute 10.1.1.5
tracert 10.1.1.5*
ping 10.1.1.5
Explanation:
The tracert command is used to initiate a trace from the command prompt on a
Windows PC. The traceroute command is used to initiate a trace from a Cisco router or
switch. Some other PC operating systems, such as Linux and Mac OS also use the
traceroute command. The ping command does not display the network path to the
remote host.
6. What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?
Change system passwords every 30 days.

Ensure that all systems have the most current virus definitions.
Ensure that AAA is configured in the network.
Download security updates from the operating system vendor and patch all vulnerable
systems.*
Explanation:
Because worms take advantage of vulnerabilities in the system itself, the most effective
way to mitigate worm attacks is to download security updates from the operating
system vendor and patch all vulnerable systems.
7. Which element of scaling a network involves identifying the physical and logical
topologies?
traffic analysis
network documentation*
device inventory
cost analysis
Explanation:
To scale a network, several elements are required:
Network documentation – physical and logical topology
Device Inventory – list of devices that use or make up the network
Budget – Itemized IT budget, including fiscal year equipment purchasing budget
Traffic analysis – protocols, applications, and services and their respective traffic
requirements should be documented
8. Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive echo-
requests and echo-replies?
SNMP
ICMP*
Telnet
TCP
Explanation:
Traceroute uses the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to send and receive
echo-request and echo-reply messages.
9. A small company has only one router as the exit point to its ISP. Which solution could
be adopted to maintain connectivity if the router itself, or its connection to the ISP, fails?
Activate another router interface that is connected to the ISP, so the traffic can flow
through it.
Have a second router that is connected to another ISP.*
Purchase a second least-cost link from another ISP to connect to this router.
Add more interfaces to the router that is connected to the internal network.
Explanation:
Small networks generally have only one link to an ISP to establish a connection to the
Internet. Problems can occur in the network, which can cause the disruption of this
service. In order to keep connectivity, redundancy has to be provided. If the problem is
in the router interface that is connected to the ISP, another interface can be activated
on the router, so if one interface fails, traffic may be redirected toward the other
interface. However, if the router itself fails, a second router that is connected to another
ISP can be used as a backup.
10. On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring executive
timeouts? (Choose two.)
Fast Ethernet interfaces

console ports*
serial interfaces
vty ports*
loopback interfaces
Explanation:
Executive timeouts allow the Cisco device to automatically disconnect users after they
have been idle for the specified time. Console, vty, and aux ports can be configured
with executive timeouts.
11. What is one of the most effective security tools available for protecting users from
external threats?
Firewalls*
router that run AAA services
patch servers
password encryption techniques
Explanation:
A firewall is one of the most effective security tools for protecting internal network users
from external threats. A firewall resides between two or more networks, controls the
traffic between them, and helps prevent unauthorized access. A host intrusion
prevention system can help prevent outside intruders and should be used on all
systems.
The exhibited configuration is entered by a network administrator into a new router.

Sometime later a network technician proceeds to log in to the router via a console
connection. The technician enters techadmin as the user name and tries a password of
63t0ut0fh3r3!. What will be the result of this action?
ITN Chapter 11 Quiz Answers 01

The router will deny access and display an error message.
The router will deny access and display a banner message.
The router will display the DT_ATC_RS3> prompt.*
The router will be locked for 2 minutes and 30 seconds.
Explanation:
Whenever an administrator connects to the console port, the configuration applied
under the line con 0 interface determines how the user is authenticated. The console
port configuration has the login command with local as the keyword. That means the
username and password are required before the administrator is even allowed to see
the enable mode prompt. Because the correct username and password was typed,
the administrator will be presented with the enable mode prompt.
13. How should traffic flow be captured in order to best understand traffic patterns in a
network?
during low utilization times
during peak utilization times*
when it is on the main network segment only
when it is from a subset of users
Explanation:
Capturing traffic during low utilization time will not give a good representation of the
different traffic types. Because some traffic could be local to a particular segment, the
capture must be done on different network segments.
14. Which process failed if a computer cannot access the Internet and received an IP
address of 169.254.142.5?
IP
DNS
DHCP*
HTTP
Explanation:
When a Windows computer cannot communicate with an IPv4 DHCP server, the
computer automatically assigns itself an IP address in the169.254.0.0/16 range. Linux
and Apple computers do not automatically assign an IP address.
15. An administrator wants to back up a router configuration file to a USB drive that is
connected to the router. Which command should the administrator use to verify that the
USB drive is being recognized by the router?
pwd
cd USB
dir flash0:
show file systems*
Explanation:
The show file systems command displays all of the available file systems on the device. If
usbflash0: appears then the router recognizes the USB drive as a valid storage device.
The pwd command shows the current directory being navigated, and
the cd command is used to change the current directory. The dir flash0: command will
show the contents of flash memory, not the USB drive.
Network services use __Protocols__ to define a set of rules that govern how
devices communicate and the data formats used in a network.
Explanation:
Each application or network service uses protocols, which define the standards and
data formats to be used. Without protocols, the data network would not have a
common way to format and direct data.
Noted: There are 4 possible answers. You can fill in one of the following in
netacad: Protocols, protocol, protocols, or Protocol.
17. What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the network?
FTP
instant messaging
voice*
SNMP
Explanation:
Not all traffic should receive the same treatment or priority through a network. Some
types of traffic, such as voice and video, require the highest priority because they are
very sensitive to network latency and delay. Other types of traffic, such as FTP, which is
not sensitive to latency and delay, should be given the lowest level of priority so that
the higher priority traffic can get through.

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A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network.

• to display a message when a user accesses the switch

• Two physical interfaces have been configured.

Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast communication is a one-to-one

Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

What are proprietary protocols?

What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

• only application and Internet layers

At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

• A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

• 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through

• The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

Which statement describes an extended star topology?

• All three networks use CSMA/CA

What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

• The switch will discard the frame.

• PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.

• Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D.

2. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

3. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model,

The IPv6 simplified header offers several advantages over IPv4:

ITN v6.0 CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 1

ITN v6.0 CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 2

ITN v6.0 CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 3

ITN v6.0 CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 4

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address

11. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router

There are three major steps to the router boot sequence:

1. Perform Power-On-Self-Test (POST)

18. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

• IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway:

1. Fill in the blank.

Refer to the exhibit.

This represents an example of an “internal” security threat to an organization.

Noted: The correct answers can be two : internal and inside.

Metro Ethernet high-speed business class copper or fiber

satellite requires a dish and clear line of sight for

4. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)

Routers, switches, and access points are intermediary devices.

6. Refer to the exhibit.

Network A is a MAN. It consists of a number of different types of facilities that are

7. Fill in the blank.

The “Arpanet” project started the development of inter-network connections using

9. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

a) an Internet cafe in a city

10. What is an ISP?

An ISP, or Internet Service Provider, is an organization that provides access to the

a) quality of service (QoS)

15. Refer to the exhibit.

16. Fill in the blank.

a) the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length*

2. Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a) to remove all configurations from the switch

a) All router commands are available.

a) (config)# enable password secret

6. How is SSH different from Telnet?

9. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device.

a) Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.

10. A technician configures a switch with these commands: