THIRD GRADING PERIOD OUTPUT IN BIOTECHNOLOGY

Multiple Choices: Choose the letter of the correct answer and write it on your answer sheet.

1. Which of the following enzymes are used by bacteria to defend themselves against bacteriophage?
a. DNA polymerase
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Phosphofructokinase
d. Restriction endonuclease
e. None of the above
2. Most restriction sites are _______ base pairs long.
a. 1 or 2
b. 4–6
c. about 10
d. about 20
e. over 50
3. Which of the following is true about restriction enzymes?
a. They cut at regular intervals, every 4,000 base pairs.
b. They prefer to cut at DNA that has been methylated.
c. EcoRI’s restriction site is a palindrome.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
4. Southern blotting is used
a. to prevent restriction enzymes from inappropriately digesting DNA.
b. to reveal specific DNA sequences.
c. to make genetic knockouts.
d. in pharming.
e. to transfect cells.
5. Which of the following would most likely involve radioactively labeled, single-stranded DNA?
a. Restriction digestion
b. Pharming
c. Constructing a gene library
d. Southern blotting
e. None of the above
6. Restriction enzymes cleave DNA at specific sequences by hydrolyzing
a. the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the 5’ phosphate of the next one.
b. at the 1’ carbons to cleave the nitrogenous bases.
c. at the 2’ carbons to cleave hydroxyl groups.
d. two phosphodiester linkages on the same strand.
e. four phosphodiester linkages, two on each strand.
7. Which of the following is a palindromic recognition sequence?
a. 5’. . . CAATAG . . . 3’
b. 5’. . . CAATTG . . . 3’
c. 5’. . . CATTTG . . . 3’
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
8. Electrophoresis separates DNA fragments of different sizes, but this technique does not indicate which of
the fragments contains the DNA piece of interest. This problem is solved by
a. measuring the sizes of the bands on the gel.
b. removing the bands from the gel and hybridizing them with a known strand of DNA
complementary to the gene of interest.
c. knowing the isoelectric points of the piece in question.
d. identifying the molecular weights of the fragments in question.
e. None of the above
9. Which two methods are most often used in DNA fingerprinting?
a. Homologous and antisense RNA recombination
b. Pharming and phishing
c. Restriction digestion and gel electrophoresis
d. Gel electrophoresis and creation of expression vectors
e. Homologous recombination and the construction of gene libraries
10. DNA fingerprinting methods require at least one _______ of DNA.
a. picogram
b. nanogram
c. microgram
d. milligram
e. gram
11. Which of the following techniques can, in principle, amplify DNA from a single cell to produce sufficient
quantities of DNA for DNA fingerprinting?
a. SNP
b. Restriction digest
c. STR
d. PCR
e. Reverse transcription
12. Which of the following statements about DNA fingerprinting is true?
a. To date, DNA fingerprinting has been used forensically to prove guilt more often than it has
been used to prove innocence.
b. DNA fingerprinting cannot be used on skeletons over 50 years old.
c. DNA fingerprinting examines just a small fraction of the genome.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
13. A single hair is found at the scene of a crime. Which technology would you use first to determine if the
hair could have come from a certain suspect?
a. PCR
b. DNA sequencing
c. Fragment cloning
d. Probing
e. Antisense RNA
14. The DNA barcode project has the potential to
a. track species diversity in important ecological areas.
b. advance research in evolutionary biology.
c. detect undesirable microbes in food.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
15. The two enzymes that are most important in the construction of recombinant DNA are _______ and
_______.
a. restriction enzymes; reverse transcriptase
b. restriction enzymes; ligase
c. reverse transcriptase; DNA polymerase
d. TPA; reverse transcriptase
e. cytochrome oxidase; DNA polymerase
16. Which of the following statements about recombinant DNA is true?
a. DNA ligase can connect sticky-end fragments only.
b. Hydrogen bonds between base pairs are very strong.
c. Blunt ends are exposed bases that can hybridize with complementary sequence fragments.
d. Annealing takes place when temperatures are raised.
e. None of the above
17. The joining of different DNAs through the use of cutting and splicing DNA is called
a. PCR.
b. recombinant DNA.
c. complementary DNA.
d. DNA fingerprinting.
e. None of the above
18. EcoRI makes staggered cuts when it cleaves DNA, creating single-stranded tails called “sticky ends.”
These ends can form a complementary base pair. In order for this to happen, which of the following
conditions is necessary?
a. The presence of specific helicases
b. High enough temperatures
c. Methyl groups at each end
d. Low enough temperatures
e. None of the above
19. The production of many copies of a particular gene is called
a. transfection.
b. restriction.
c. cloning.
d. annealing.
e. inducing.
20. Reporter genes are used in the construction of transgenics because they
a. connect blunt-end fragments.
b. carry the DNA into host cells.
c. have an easily observed phenotype.
d. can replicate independently inside the host cell.
e. contain recognition sites for restriction enzymes.
21. Transgenic cells are created via the _______ of recombinant DNA into cells.
a. recombination
b. transfection
c. ligation
d. restriction
e. complementation
22. Yeasts are useful eukaryotic hosts for recombinant DNA studies because of their
a. rapid rate of cell division.
b. small genome size.
c. ease of growth in the laboratory.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
23. Bacteria are not particularly useful hosts for studies of the expression of eukaryotic genes because they
a. are totipotent.
b. lack the splicing machinery needed to remove introns from eukaryotic mRNA.
c. have a small genome size.
d. contain plasmids.
e. lack genetic markers.
24. The enzyme that can join pieces of DNA together is
a. RNA polymerase.
b. DNA polymerase.
c. DNA ligase.
d. -galactosidase.
e. None of the above
25. Plant cells are particularly useful as hosts for recombinant DNA because they
a. have plasmids.
b. lack introns.
c. are totipotent.
d. have reverse transcriptase.
e. None of the above
26. Which of the following characteristics would not be useful for a vector?
a. A recognition sequence for a restriction enzyme
b. Large size relative to the host chromosomes
c. The ability to replicate independently inside the host cell
d. A reporter gene
e. An origin of replication
27. Which would be an appropriate vector if one wanted to insert 100,000 base pairs of DNA into a host
cell?
a. Plasmid
b. Virus
c. Yeast artificial chromosome
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
28. An important vector for manipulation of plant genes comes from the bacterium A. tumefaciens and is
called a(n)
a. EcoRI plasmid.
b. raze bacteriophage.
c. pangene-site vector.
d. Ti plasmid.
e. None of the above
29. Which of the following makes plasmids useful as a vector?
a. Unlike viruses, plasmids do not need to be coaxed to infect cells by artificial means.
b. Many plasmids contain genes that convey antibiotic resistance.
c. Plasmids can accommodate a large amount of DNA.
d. Plasmids use the same origin of replication as eukaryotic cells.
e. All of the above
30. The disease called crown gall is caused by the
a. insertion of a transposable element carried on the Ti plasmid.
b. transcription of the Ti plasmid in the plant cells.
c. transfer of bacterial genomes into the plant cell genome.
d. rampant multiplication of A. tumefaciens bacteria within the plant.
e. None of the above
31. A researcher inserts a DNA segment at the BamHI recognition site within a plasmid; this site is located
within the tetracycline resistance gene. This plasmid also has a gene for ampicillin resistance. Following
DNA transformation, the researcher must differentiate the bacteria that have taken up the recombinant
DNA from those that have taken up either the foreign DNA only or intact plasmids. In doing so, the
researcher should select the bacteria that
a. will grow on ampicillin but are sensitive to tetracycline.
b. are sensitive to both antibiotics.
c. are resistant to both antibiotics.
d. will grow on tetracycline but are sensitive to ampicillin.
e. grow only on an enriched medium.
32. The DNA from the genome of an organism is chopped into numerous fragments, which are then
inserted into vectors that are taken up by host cells. The genetic information that is present in the resulting
colonies is called a gene
a. collection.
b. library.
c. museum.
d. bank.
e. farm.
33. Which of the following necessarily makes use of reverse transcriptase?
a. Southern blotting
b. Construction of a gene library
c. Construction of a cDNA library
d. Gene knockout studies
e. Pharming
34. What does the “c” in “cDNA library” stand for?
a. Cytoplasmic
b. Cellular
c. Compatible
d. Chip
e. Complementary
35. Which of the following statements is true?
a. A gene library constructed from human brain tissue will likely be different from a gene library
constructed from human pancreatic tissue.
b. A cDNA library constructed from human brain tissue will likely be different from a cDNA library
constructed from human pancreatic tissue.
c. A cDNA library would be very useful in examining DNA that does not code for mRNA.
d. Messenger RNAs have a long life span in the cytoplasm.
e. cDNA libraries are very useful in determining cause-and-effect relationships between
nucleotides and specific traits.
36. Geneticists have found _______ studies to be useful in revealing cause-and-effect relationships between
a trait and specific nucleotides of a gene.
a. homologous recombination
b. cDNA library
c. pharming
d. antisense RNA
e. mutagenesis
37. Homologous recombination can be used to
a. separate DNA fragments by size.
b. inactivate specific genes.
c. examine patterns of expression of genes in different tissues.
d. identify specific individuals.
e. produce sticky ends.
38. Which of the following can be used to inhibit translation of a specific gene?
a. Antisense RNA
b. Interference RNA
c. DNA chips
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
39. The use of which of the following would be most appropriate for inhibiting transcription of a specific
gene?
a. Antisense RNA
b. Interference RNA
c. DNA chips
d. Homologous recombination
e. PCR
40. The use of which of the following allows researchers to examine the patterns of gene expression for a
large number of genes simultaneously?
a. Antisense RNA
b. Interference RNA
c. DNA chip technology
d. PCR
e. Homologous recombination
41. Which of the following processes makes use of reverse transcriptase?
a. Homologous recombination
b. RT-PCR
c. Interference RNA
d. Mutagenesis
e. None of the above
42. Humans have been using biotechnology for _______ years.
a. less than 50
b. about 100
c. about 200
d. about 1,000
e. at least 8,000
43. Who discovered that a mold makes the antibiotic penicillin?
a. Laura van ’T Veer
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Francis Crick
e. Leroy Hood
44. An additional property that only an expression vector has is
a. its small size relative to host-cell chromosomes.
b. a recognition sequence for a restriction enzyme.
c. transcription binding sites.
d. a reporter gene.
e. the ability to replicate independently, within the host.
45. Expression vectors often have _______ promoters that respond to specific signals.
a. signal
b. recognition
c. complementary
d. inducible
e. None of the above
46. An enhancer would be used for which of the following purposes?
a. Constructing a gene library
b. Constructing an expression vector
c. Doing a restriction digestion
d. Attempting to “silence” a gene
e. Constructing a recombinant plasmid
47. In the construction of an expression vector, a signal sequence
a. allows for the expression of a gene in a particular tissue only.
b. allows the expression of a gene to be turned on or off.
c. allows the gene product to be directed to an appropriate location.
d. makes a gene responsive to hormonal stimulation.
e. None of the above
48. The enzyme TPA has a clinical use in
a. stopping cancer cells from dividing.
b. dissolving blood clots.
c. producing insulin.
d. producing antibodies.
e. treating anemia by producing hemoglobin.
49. The major limitation of the dried preparation of the insecticide produced by B. thuringiensis is that it
a. has not been approved for use in the United States.
b. degrades so easily that it has to be applied repeatedly.
c. is not very toxic.
d. is new and untested.
e. None of the above
50. Salt-tolerant tomato plants are an example of
a. a transgenic crop that is adapted to its environment.
b. tailoring the environment to the needs of crop plants.
c. a chloroplast enzyme system that has been inhibited.
d. plants that are able to make -carotene.
e. a medically useful product of biotechnology.
51. The manipulation and combination of DNA molecules from different sources is called
a. electrophoresis.
b. replication unit processing.
c. restriction endonuclease activity.
d. biotechnology.
e. recombinant DNA technology.
52. Genes that allow researchers to identify cells that have taken up a recombinant plasmid are called
a. reporter genes.
b. plasmid vectors.
c. announcer genes.
d. gene libraries.
e. marker genes.
53. A scientist used DNA chip technology on a tissue culture from a breast cancer tissue and normal breast
tissue and the scanner produced the following results: green spots, red spots and yellow spots. Which
conclusion is the most probable?
a. There was hybridization to cDNA from cancerous tissue, hybridization to cDNA to normal tissue,
and hybridization to both cancerous and normal tissues.
b. There was hybridization to cDNA from normal tissue and hybridization to cDNA from both
cancerous and normal tissues but not to cancerous tissue alone.
c. There was hybridization to cDNA from normal tissue and hybridization to cDNA from cancerous
tissue but not from both.
d. No hybridization occurred.
e. None of the above
54. The use of living cells to produce materials useful to people is called
a. a knockout experiment.
b. homologous recombination.
c. biotechnology.
d. the two-hybrid system.
e. DNA fingerprinting.
55. All of these are ways that DNA manipulation is changing agriculture except
a. creating plants that are unpalatable to farm animals.
b. creating plants that make their own insecticide.
c. making crops more resistant to herbicide.
d. creating transgenic organisms expressing useful genes.
e. creating plants with better nutritional profiles.
56. Restriction endonucleases (enzymes)
a. cleave single-stranded DNA.
b. are used by some bacteria as a defense against invading pathogens.
c. are inserted into bacteria by man-made vectors.
d. are made only by eukaryotic cells.
e. can phosphorylate ADP to ATP.
57. Which of the following is not an argument made against the use of genetically altered plants?
a. It interferences with nature.
b. Genetically altered foods are unsafe to eat.
c. Genetically altered crop plants could be dangerous to the environment.
d. The genes inserted to make transgenic crops are unknown.
e. Use of genetically altered crops could have unintended consequences.
58. Restriction enzymes cleave DNA at specific sequences of bases called
a. restriction sites.
b. plasmid vectors.
c. enzyme ports.
d. ligand recognition sites.
e. restriction ports.
59. Sticky ends are
a. double-stranded ends of DNA fragments.
b. identical for all restriction enzymes.
c. removed by restriction enzymes.
d. complementary to other sticky ends generated by the same restriction enzyme.
e. hundreds of bases long.
60. In gel electrophoresis,
a. DNA fragments are separated on the basis of size.
b. DNA does not have an electric charge.
c. DNA fragments cannot be removed from the gel.
d. the electric field separates positively charged DNA fragments from negatively charged DNA
fragments.
e. the DNA fragments are naturally fluorescent.
61. DNA chip technology is useful because it
a. permits genes to mutate freely.
b. conforms to the binding sites of cells or tissues.
c. determines which genes are expressed by a cell or tissue.
d. both a and b
e. none of the above
62. A labeled fragment of DNA that is complementary to a target region of DNA and which is used for
hybridization to the target is called
a. a ligase.
b. a restriction fragment.
c. a probe.
d. a vector.
e. a VNTR.
63. Probes
a. are arrays of 60,000 or more different DNA sequences.
b. are single-stranded.
c. usually are 20 nucleotides long.
d. represent unique regions in the genome.
e. all of the above
64. Why doesn’t a restriction enzyme cut the DNA of the bacterial cell that makes it?
a. It has immunity to restriction enzymes.
b. Methyl groups on the bacterial DNA inhibit the action of the restriction enzyme.
c. Restriction enzymes can and do cut bacterial DNA.
d. The bacteria can inactivate the restriction enzyme activity.
e. The bacterial DNA doesn’t have sequences that the restriction enzyme recognizes.
65. All of the following are agricultural examples of biotechnology except
a. rice that produces -carotene.
b. transgenic plants that produce insecticides.
c. transgenic plants that produce herbicides.
d. cows with microarray chips in their cells.
e. transgenic plants that can survive high salt environments.
66. DNA fingerprinting uses DNA sequences that are
a. large.
b. small.
c. highly polymorphic.
d. methylated.
e. antiquated.
67. Vectors are used in DNA technology
a. to carry a foreign DNA sequence into a host cell.
b. to make links between different species.
c. to generate a DNA barcode.
d. for DNA fingerprinting.
e. to generate a microarray chip.
68. DNA that has been cut with a restriction enzyme may be joined together with other DNA molecules by
a process known as
a. restriction digest.
b. ligation.
c. DNA fingerprinting.
d. pharming.
e. Southern blotting.
69. A cDNA library represents
a. all of the DNA present in a particular cell.
b. the genome of an organism.
c. a catalog of the mRNA in a cell.
d. a vector library.
e. None of the above
70. Restriction enzymes
a. play no role in bacteria.
b. cleave DNA at highly specific recognition sequences.
c. are inserted into bacteria by bacteriophage.
d. are made only by eukaryotic cells.
e. add methyl groups to specific DNA sequences.
71. When fragments of DNA of different sizes are placed in an electric field,
a. the smaller pieces move most rapidly toward the positive pole.
b. the larger pieces move most rapidly toward the positive pole.
c. the smaller pieces move most rapidly toward the negative pole.
d. the larger pieces move most rapidly toward the negative pole.
e. the smaller and larger pieces move at the same rate.
72. From the list below, select the sequence of steps for inserting a piece of foreign DNA into a plasmid
vector, introducing the plasmid into bacteria, and verifying that the plasmid and the foreign gene are
present:
(1)Transfect host cells.
(2)Select for the lack of plasmid reporter gene 1 function.
(3)Select for the plasmid reporter gene 2 function.
(4)Digest vector and foreign DNA with a restriction enzyme, which inactivates plasmid reporter gene 1.
(5)Ligate the digested plasmid together with the foreign DNA.

a. 45132
b. 45123
c. 13425
d. 32145
e. 13254
73. Possession of which feature is not desirable in a vector for gene cloning?
a. An origin of DNA replication
b. Genetic markers for the presence of the vector
c. Multiple recognition sequences for the restriction enzyme to be used
d. One recognition sequence each for one to several different restriction enzymes
e. Genes other than the target for transfection
74. RNA interference (RNAi) inhibits
a. DNA replication.
b. transcription of specific genes.
c. recognition of the promoter by RNA polymerase.
d. transcription of all genes.
e. translation of specific mRNAs.
75. Complementary DNA (cDNA)
a. is produced from ribonucleoside triphosphates.
b. is produced by reverse transcription.
c. is the “other strand” of single-stranded DNAs in a virus.
d. requires no template for its synthesis.
e. cannot be placed into a vector because it has the opposite base sequence of the vector
DNA.

God Bless!