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2010 REGULATIONS SYLLABUS – B.
Tech (Biotechnology)
SEMESTER I
SCHX1001- EVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
UNIT 1
1. Salinization is _______
a. Accumulation of salts in water
b. Accumulation of salts in soil
c. Accumulation of salts in body
d. Accumulation of salts in animals
2. When oil and gas resources are burnt they kill many forests and lakes by
a. Deforestation
b. Water pollution
c. Acid rain
d. Forest fire
3. Fine organic or inorganic particles suspended in air is called
a. Particulate pollutant
b. Gaseous pollutant
c. Aerosol
d. None of these
4. CFC are used as
a. Refrigerants
b. Insulators
c. Aerosol pollutants
d. All the above
5. The instrument that measures temperature, pressure and humidity at various altitudes in
the atmosphere:
a. Barograph
b. Radiosonde
c. Aneroid barometer
d. Altimeter
UNIT2
1. the term ecology was coined by

a. A.G Tansley
b. Earnst Haeckel
c. Aristotle
d. Linnaeus
2. The term ecosystem was termed by
a. Odum
b. Clements
c. Arthur G Tansley
d. Elton
3. The phenomenon of accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in human beings
a. Bio magnification
b. Bioaccumulation
2010 REGULATIONS SYLLABUS – B.Tech (Biotechnology)
c. Biodegradation
d. Bioremediation
4. The study of food chains and food webs is observed in the phenomenon known as
a. Biological chain
b. Ecosystem
c. Biological magnification
d. Energy flow
5. BOD stands for
a. Biological Oxygen Decrease
b. Biotic Oxygen Demand
c. Biological Oxygen Demand
d. None of these
UNIT 3
1. Soil pollution is caused by

a. Aerosol
b. Ozone
c. Acid rain
d. PAN
2. Disease aggregated by air pollution is
a. Cholera
b. Rheumatism
c. Bronchitis
d. Hemophilia
3. Evaporation is a _______ process
a. Cooling
b. Heating
c. Can’t tell – depends on the temperature
d. Both a and c
4. Which of the following greenhouse gas trap more heat?
a. Methane
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Trifluoro methyl sulphurpentafluoride
5. Earth summit of Rio de Janerio (1992) resulted in
a. Compilation of red list
b. Establishment of biosphere reserves
c. Conservation of biodiversity
d. IUCN
UNIT 4
1. BOD of a river water is found very high. This means water

a. Is clear
b. Is highly polluted
c. Contains algae
d. Contain many dissolved minerals
2. Which one of the following is the more stable ecosystem?
a. Forest
b. Mountain
c. Desert
d. Ocean
3. Carbon sequestration is a strategy used to control
a. Pollution
b. Population explosion
c. Desertification
d. Global warming
4. First biosphere reserve in India
a. Nilgiri
b. Agastyamala
c. Eravikulam
d. Chinnar
5. Algal bloom results in
a. Global warning
b. Salination
c. Eutrophication
d. Bio magnification
UNIT 5
1. ________ is the phenomenon where the earth retains heat.

a. Air pollution
b. Greenhouse effect
c. Global effect
d. Land pollution
2. Infection of HIV is usually detected by which test
a. Elisa test
b. Hybridization
c. Gram staining
d. None
3. The maintenance of relatively constant internal environment is called
a. Homeostasis
b. Exotherms
c. Homeobox
d. Endotherms
4. Mulching helps in
a. Soil fertility
b. Moisture conservation
c. Improves soil structure
d. Soil sterility
SBTX1001 CELL BIOLOGY

Unit 1
1. In mitochondria ,cristae acts as sites for
a) Protein synthesis
b) Phosphorylation of flavoproteins
c) Breakdown of macromolecules
d) Oxidation – reduction reaction
2. Nucleus are absent in

a) Red blood cellsand bacterium
b) Red blood cells ,sieve cells and bacterium
c) Red blood cells only
d) None of the above
3. The major aminoacids in histones are

a) Glutamate and aspartic acid
b) Lysine and arginine
c) Arginine,lysine, and histidine
d) Histidine
4. Major difference between plant cell and animal cell by

a) Presence of cell wall
b) Presence of plastid
c) Presence of vacuoles
d) All of the above
5. It is the smallest cell

a) Bacteria
b) Mycoplasm
c) Yeast
d) BGA
6. The association of more than one ribosome with a single molecule of m RNA
COMPLEX is called as
a) Polypeptide
b) Polysome
c) Polymer
d) Polysaccharide
UNIT 2
1. Not the function of plasma membrane
a) Intracellular interactions
b) Responding to external stimuli
c) Energy transduction
d) Assisting in chromosome segregation
2. The enzymes phospholipase and acetyltransferase essentially helpful in integrity of

the plasma membrane
a) Maintaining the bilayer nature of membrane
b) Maintains the semipermeability of the membrane
c) Maintaining fluidity of the membrane
d) Maintains the transmembrane proteins in the membrane
3. Series of cell division is

a) Prophase , metaphase anaphase , telophase
b) Prophase , anaphase , metaphase, telophase
c) Prophase ,metaphase ,telophase , anaphase
4. The average cell cycle span of a human cell?

a) 17 hrs
b) 20hrs
c) 24 hrs
d) 30 hrs
5. Spindle fibres are composed of

a) Lipids
b) Pectin
c) protein
d) cellulose
6. structure that can be observed at the surface of centromere during metaphase

a) kinetochore
b) chromatophore
c) kinetophore
d) chromatophore
UNIT 3
1. movement of a molecule against a concentration gradient is
a) simple diffusion
b) osmosis
c) passive transport
d) active transport
2. the resting membrane potential is mainly determined by

a) k+ gradient
b) cl – gradient
c) Ca 2+ gradient
d) Na+ gradient
3. The process requires membrane proteins

a) Pinocytosis
b) Exocytosis
c) Phagocytosis
d) Receptor mediated endocytosis
4. The endocytosis is used by the cells to

a) Ingest bacteria and cell debris
b) Retrieve elements of the cell membrane after exocytosis
c) Secrete large molecules into the extracellular space
d) None
5. Transport a single type of molecule known its concentration gradient

a) Uniporters
b) Antiporters
c) Symporters
UNIT 4
1. Signaling among thye close proximity of cells
a) Endocrine signaling
b) Autocrine signaling
c) Paracrine signaling
2. Full form of growth factor EFG stands for

a) Epithelial growth factor
b) Endothelial
c) Epidermal
d) Endocrine
3. The harmonbes which is produced by goandotrophs cells of PG ,

a) Prolactin
b) Growth harmone
c) FSH
d) LH
4. The function of c AMP dependent protein kinase is

a) Dephophorylation
b) Glycosylation
c) Phosphorylation
d) Transamination
5. The c AMP is synthesized from ATP by the action of enzyme

a) Phosphodiesterase
b) Adenylyl cyclase
c) Phosphatase
d) Glycosylase
UNIT 5
1. Death or mental retardation takes place if accumulation happens in
a) somatic cells
b) sensory cells
c) meristematic cells
d) brain cells
2. In a normal human being number of chromosomes is

a) 23
b) 46
c) 53
d) 26
3. Pigments containing bodies which are bounded by membrane are called

a) Plastids
b) Chlorophyll
c) chloroplast
d) hemoglobin
4. Phagocytosed food is digested with help of enzymes which are present in
a) ribosome
b) lysosomes
c) mitochondria
d) Golgi complex
1. In word Lysosoma, 'lyso' means splitting and 'soma' means

a) Cell
b) Body
c) Tissue
d) organic
SBTX1002 Microbiology
UNIT 1
1. The event that triggered the development and establishment of microbiology as a science is the
a. development of Microscope
b. germ theory of disease
c. spontaneous generation
d. use of disinfectants
2. Kingdom Animalia includes

a. unicellular organisms
b. multicellular organisms
c. micro-organisms
d. invertebrates
3. Which among the following come under Gram-positive eubacteria?

a. clostridium
b. actinomyces
c. rhizobium
d. clostridium,Actinomyces
4. As compared to light microscope, the resolving power of electron microscope is

a. 10 times
b. 5 times
c. 1000 times
d. 100 times
5. The differential staining property of Gram staining is primarily due to

a. difference in protoplasmic contents in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
b. difference in lipid contents in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
c. difference in teichoic contents in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
d. all of these
UNIT 2
1. If the division of bacterial cell takes place in three planes it will produce a cube of 8 cocci
which is names as
a. tetrad
b. sarcina
c. spiral
d. helical
2. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?

a. Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
b. The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
c. DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses.
d. Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
3. Actinomycetes' are known as

a. fungi
b. algae
c. true bacteria
d. eubacteria
4. What does a viral DNA becomes after being associated with the bacterial chromosome?
a. gene
b. prophage
c. plasmid
d. plaque
5. Identify the order of lytic cycle

a. Adsorption-injection of genetic material-maturation-biosynthesis-lysis and release
b. Adsorption-injection of genetic material-prophage
c. Adsorption-injection of genetic material-biosynthesis-maturation-lysis and release
d. Adsorption-injection of genetic material-lysis
UNIT 3
1. Identify the term that can describe a disinfectant that can inhibit the growth of fungi:
a. Fungicidal
b. Fungistatic
c. Microbicidal
d. Microbiostatic
2. Moist heat destroys microbes by

a. Dehydration of cells
b. Denaturation of cellular DNA
c. Inactivation of cell membranes
d. Coagulation of cellular proteins
3. Tyndallisation is the method of sterilization using________

a. Moist heat above 100 C
b. Moist heat below 100 C
c. Dry heat above 100 C
d. Moist heat at 100 C
4. Choose the correct ones for decreasing order of resistance to sterilization

a. Prions, bacterial spores, bacteria
b. bacterial spores, bacteria, prions
c. Prions, bacteria, bacterial spores
d. None of the above
5. All of the following disinfectant contains heavy metal EXCEPT

a. Chlorine
b. Mercurochrome
c. Copper sulphate
d. Silver nitrate
UNIT 4
1. The microorganisms that grow best in low oxygen environment are called____
a. Aerobe
b. Anaerobe
c. Facultative
d. Microaerophile
2. Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following segments of
the growth curve?
a. Lag phase
b. Exponential phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Dealth phase
3. The average size of cells during the exponential phase of growth is

a. Greater than the lag phase
b. Lesser than the lag phase
c. Equal to the lag phase
d. None of these
4. Since the enumeration of microorganisms involves the use of extremely small dilutions
and extremely large numbers of cells, scientific notation is routinely used in calculations.
Which one of the following is used for the accurate bacterial count?
a. Petroff-Hausser counting chamber
b. Direct microscopic count
c. Plate-count method
d. Membrane-filter count
5. Colony-forming units per ml is the unit of _____________

a. Microscopic count
b. Turbidimetric enumeration
c. Plate count
d. Electronic enumeration
UNIT 5
1. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally

occurring microbes is called
a. Exsitu bioremediation
b. Intrinsic bioremediation
c. Extrinsic bioremediation
d. None of these
2. A mixture of gases composed of methane (50-80%), carbon dioxide (15-40%), nitrogen

(4%) and hydrogen sulfide (1%) with traces of hydrogen, oxygen and carbon monoxide is
the produced by:
a. Biosorption
b. Biogas production
c. Biodegradation
d. Biomining
2. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through uses of?

a. Manures
b. Fertilizers
c. Resistant varieties
d. All of these
Which one of the following statement is correct?

a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrofication of nearby water bodies
c. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers

d. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants
4. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be

adversely affected, because
a. mineral movement will be blocked
b. the rate of decomposition will be very high
c. energy flow will be blocked
d. herbivores will not receive solar energy.
SEMESTER II
SBTX1003 GENETICS
UNIT 1
1. GERM PLASM THEORY was proposed by
a) Gregor mendel
b) Weismann
c) Hippocrates
d) Aristotle
2. When the F1 plants were self-fertilized in F2 generation plants obtained were
a) Very tall
b) Very short
c) Both tall and dwarf
d) Only tall and dwarf
3. Father of genetics
a) Bateson
b) Morgans
c) Mendel
d) Watson
4. The pedigree chart shows

a) The genotypic ratios of the offspring
b) The types of gametes produced by the parents
c) The pattern of inheritance of a specific gene
d) Which genes are codominant
5. The innate tendency of offspring to resemble their parents is called

a) Variation
b) Heredity
c) Inheritance
UNIT 2
1. The term CHROMOSOME was coined by
a) W.flemming
b) Roux
c) Waldeyer
d) Sutton
2. The number of autosomes in humans

a) 44
b) 21 pairs
c) 46
d) 45
3. Chromosome is thickest during

a) Metaphase
b) Prophase
c) Anaphase
d) Interphase
4. A chromosome with very short arm and a very long arm termed
a) Telophase
b) Acrocentric
c) Metacentric
d) sub metacentric
5. chromatin has
a) DNA
b) DNA & RNA
c) DNA RNA and proteins
d) None
UNIT 3
1. DNA is made of two chains that twist with one another in the shape of a
a) Broken ladder
b) Straight ladder
c) Straight spiral
d) Double helix
2. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

a) Genetic engineering
b) Organ transplant
c) Sex determination
d) Forensic science
3. RNA molecules that act as enzymes are

a) Polymerase
b) Ribozymes
c) Transcriptase
d) Both a and b
4. Organelles in the cell – protein systhesis

a) Ribosomes
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Nucleus
d) m RNA
5. OKAZAKI fragments are known for

a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) DNA replication
d) Mutation
UNIT 4
1. what are approximate no of base pairs in bacterial DNA
a) 5× 10^10
b) 5X 10 ^6
c) 5X 10^ 8
d) 5X10^11
2. Which one or more base pair are deleted or added in sequence , shifts reading
frames on ribosome, such mutations are called
a) Substitution
b) Nonsense
c) Missense
d) Frameshift
3. Bacteria composed of single chromosomes , having single copy of gene known as

a) Diploid
b) Haploid
c) Polyploidy
d) Monoploidy
4. genetic material of bacteria is composed of a single stranded

a) Linear DNA
b) Ladder like DNA
c) Coiled DNA
d) Circular DNA
5. Extra chromosomal genetic elements plasmids are autonomously replicating

a. true
b. false
UNIT 5
1. During the transcription of a certain protein, an extra cytosine was placed into a
gene region, throwing off the correct amino acid sequence. What type of mutation
occurred?
A. Transposon
B. Insertion
C. Base-pair substitution
D. Deletion
2. DNA requires which of the following?

A. Sunlight
B. Protein synthase
C. Meiotic division
D. Many enzymes
3. Why is there no duplication of the DNA between meiosis I and meiosis II?
A. To produce genetically identical daughter cells
B. To increase genetic variability resulting daughter cells
C. The chromosomes duplicate twice during meiosis I.
D. To reduce the chromosome number to haploid in the
4. The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia is an example of

a. pleiotropy.
b. heterozygous dominance.
c. epistasis.
d. homozygous dominance.
5. What is the key difference between mitosis in plant cells and mitosis in animal
cells?
A. The chromosomes aren't duplicated during interphase in plant cells.
B. Animal cell mitosis results in two daughter cells; plant mitosis produces three.
C. The two daughter cells formed in plant cell mitosis aren't genetically identical.
D. A cell plate is formed during mitosis in plant cells.
SBTX1004 - MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
UNIT 1
1. Considering Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) structure, backbone outside double helix is

made up of
a. sugar and nitrogen

b. nitrogen and carbon
c. phosphate and sugar
d. phosphate and nitrogen
2. Scientists who proposed Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) structures are
a. Francis Crick and James Watson
b. James Crick and Francis Watson
c. Marie Curie and Niels Bohr
d. Nikola Tesla and Marie Curie
3. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4. According to Chargaff’s rule, in a DNA molecule

a. The amount of adenine and thymine is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
b. The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of thymine and cytosine
c. The amount of adenine and uracil is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
d. The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of uracil and cytosine
5. One of the following nucleic acids has a left handed helix

a. M-RNA
b. T-RNA
c. A-DNA
d. Z-DNA
UNIT 2
1. Semi-conservative DNA replication was first demonstrated in

a. Drosophila melanogaster
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Drosophila melanogaster
2. DNA replication is
a. Conservative
b. Non-conservative
c. Semi-conservative
d. None
3. In transcription, particular segment of DNA is copied to RNA by enzyme

a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. Gyrase
d. Helicase
4. Stretch of DNA transcribed into an RNA molecule is called

a. transcription
b. unit cell
c. translation unit
d. transcription unit
5. MRNA links up with ribosomes to start

a. translation
b. transcription
c. replication
d. Splicing
UNIT 3
1. How many kinds of mutation are found in DNA which includes mutation of only one base?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
2. The mutation occurs at a random basis within a genome.

a. True
b. False
3. How many types of excision repair systems are known?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4. Which enzyme is activated during double stranded break?

a. DNA polymerase
b. Translational polymerase
c. RNA polymerase
d. Klenow fragment
5. An operon is made up of
a. Promoter
b. Operator
c. Structural genes
d. All of the above
UNIT4
1. Nucleosome is made up of __________

a. DNA, histone core protein
b. DNA, histone core protein, linker H1
c. RNA, histone core protein
d. RNA, histone core protein, linker H1
2. Histones have a high content of negatively charged amino acids.

a. True
b. False
3. Association of DNA and histone is mediated by_________

a. Covalent bonding
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Hydrophobic bonding
d. Vander Waals interactions
4. The promoter sequence may determine the expression of one gene or a number of linked
genes downstream.
a. True
b. False
5. The TATA box is often used as an indicator of the presence of a promoter.

a. True
b. False
UNIT 5
1. The 3’ end of an intron is marked by __________

a. Donor site
b. Acceptor site
c. AT rich site
d. Branch point site
2. mRNA of which of the following organism does not undergo processing?

a. Human
b. Yeast
c. Bacteria
d. Fungi
3. Which of the following is not a type of RNA processing?

a. Polyadenylation at the 3’ end
b. Capping of 5’ end
c. Removal of exons
d. Splicing
4. Viruses that contain two complete copies of positive strand RNA and the enzyme reverse
transcriptase are:
a. Toga viruses
b. Rhabdoviruses
c. Retroviruses
d. Reoviruses
e. Enteroviruses
5. Cancer is caused due to

a. Controlled mitosis
b. Uncontrolled mitosis
c. Controlled meiosis
d. Uncontrolled meiosis
SEMESTER III
SBTX1006 MOLECULAR BIOTECHNOLOGY

UNIT 1
1. The most commonly and widely used engineered plasmid vector is

a. pUC19
b. pUC vectors
c. pSC101
d. pBR322
2. Autonomously replicating sequences (ARS) is a characteristic feature of

a. Phage vectors
b. E. coli vectors
c. Yeast vectors
d. Plasmid vectors
3. What is the approximate copy number of Yeast Episomal plasmids?

a. 20-50
b. 2-5
c. 100-200
d. 500
4. Which of the following restriction sites are used in a pYAC3 vector?

a. EcoR1, BamHI
b. BamHI, SnaBI
c. SnaBI, EcoR1
d. HindIII, BamHI
5. Which is the recognition sequence for SnaBI?

a. TACGTA
b. TCAGTA
c. TAAGTA
d. GTATAC
UNIT 2
1. How can the presence of insert DNA in the YAC vector be checked?
a. Insertional inactivation
b. Insertion activation
c. Antibiotic resistance
d. Plaque formation
2. What are opines?

a. Bacterial nutrients
b. Plant nutrients
c. Telomere sites
d. T-DNA ends
3. In the binary vector strategy, the sizes of the two vectors used are _____ for bigger
plasmid and ______ for smaller T-DNA plasmid.
a. 200,20
b. 170,20
c. 200,50
d. 170,50
4. The DNA repair mechanism know as ‘cut and patch mechanism ‘ is:
a. Mismatch repair
b. Base excision repair
c. Nucleotide excision repair
d. None of these
5. In E. coli, inactivation of cellular DNA methylase enzyme causes severe mutation in the
genomic DNA. Which of the following DNA repair mechanism would be most probably
inhibited?
a. Mismatch repair
b. Double stranded break repair
c. Nucleotide excision repair
d. Base excision repair
UNIT 3
1) What is the half life cycle for Taq polymerase?

a. 40 minutes
b. 80 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 50 minutes
2) Electroporation is also used for taking up the DNA by the cells. It constitutes of:
a. inserting the DNA into the cells via an electric shock.
b. Increased efficiency than both natural and chemical methods.
c. Causing the least amount of damage in comparison to other methods.
d. Decreased efficiency than both natural and chemical methods
3) Many bacterial species are having a natural ability to take up the exogenous DNA material.
Which of the statement is not correct in regard to it?
a. This ability is termed as competence
b. It is not limited to growth phase
c. The bacteria may develop new biochemical abilities under special conditions
such as nutrient deprivation
d. Induction of specific set of bacterial proteins may take place
4) Chemical transformation refers to the methods which use chemicals in order to carry out
transformation. The true statement is:
a. Chemical transformation decreases the efficiency of transformation as compared to
natural transformation.
b. Ice cold calcium solution followed by heat shock is responsible for affecting the
efficiency of DNA uptake.
c. The mechanism responsible for it named as ‘the heat shock model’.
d. Other complex mixtures such as those containing Manganese and hexamine cobalt can’t
be used to affect the efficiency.
5) Transformation carried out using a particle gun is known as biolistic transformation. The type
of transformation is?
a. Physical
b. Chemical
c. Electroporation
d. Natural
UNIT 4
1. Genomic DNA is made up of

a. T4 phage
b. T6 phage
c. λ phage vectors
2. The technique used to detect the presence of DNA or RNA in a non – fractioned DNA
sample is
a. Dot blot technique
b. In situ hybridization
c. Colony hybridization
d. Western blotting
3. At times, a specific fragment of the molecules of DNA which are analyzed needs to be
separated. One of the methods is digesting the gels simply. Which of the following
statement is not correct in with respect to it?
a. The gelling temperature has an important role to play.
b. For higher gelling temperatures, digestion of DNA is done via addition of agarose
or some chaotropic agents.
c. For lower gelling temperatures, simply slicing out of target DNA is done which is
followed by melting.
d. The DNA can be extracted via addition of sodium or any positively charged group.
4. The technique used to locate specific genes in chromosome is

a. In situ hybridization
b. Western blotting
c. Northern blotting
d. None of these
5. Vector and insert are mixed, ligated and packaged and introduced into the host by:
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Infection
d. Transformation and infection both
UNIT 5
1. The RP13 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein _____

a. Involved in eye development
b. Involved in determination of personality
c. Involved in growth development
2. The gene that code for a protein which play a major role in WBC function?
a. DCP1
b. GLUT4
c. MPO
d. RP13
3. First discovered, type II restriction endonuclease was _____

a. Eco K
b. Hind II
c. Hind I
d. EcoRI
4. The technique used to determine the defective gene for developing cancer?
a. Western blot
b. Northern blot
c. Polymerase chain reaction
d. Southern blot
5. The restriction enzyme which does not require ATP?

a. Type I
b. Type III
c. Type II
d. Type IV
SBTX1007 -INTRODUCTION TO IMMUNOLOGY
UNIT 1
1. Immunity acquired after an infection is

a. active immunity
b. Passive immunity
c. Innate immunity
d. Both B and C
2. Innate immunity is provided by

a. Phagocytes
b. Antibodies
c. T-Lymphocytes
d. B-Lymphocytes
3. Macrophages are derived from

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Basophils
4. Passive immunity is
a. Acquired through natural overt or latent infection
b. Acquired through Vaccination
c. Acquired through readymade antibodies
d. Acquired by activating immune system of the body
5. Immunological destruction of body tissue or product due to antibodies reacting with it as

antigen is called
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Autoimmune diseases
c. Prophylaxis
d. Immunodeficiency disease
UNIT 2
1. Which of the following immunoglobulin is the most abundant immunoglobulin in

newborns?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
2. Which of the following immunoglobulin has the highest avidity of the immunoglobulins?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgG
3. Complement fixation is one of the most important host defense against infections. The
complement is activated by;
a. IgM Only
b. IgG only
c. both IgM and IgG
d. all five classes of antibodies activate complements.
4. In monoclonal antibody technology, tumor cells that can replicate endlessly are fused with
mammalian cells that produce an antibody. The result of this cell fusion is a
a. Hybridoma
b. Myeloma
c. Natural killer cell
d. Lymphoblast
5. The primary B cell receptor is
a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE
UNIT 3
1. In the processing pathway for extracellular antigens, synthesis of MHC class II and
invariant chain (li) occurs in the____.
a. Cytosol
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Ribosomes
e. Lysosomes
2. Which of the following describes where class I MHC is found and not where class II
MHC is found?
a. B cells
b. Macrophages
c. Dendritic cells
d. Antigen presenting cells (A,B and C)
e. All nucleated cells
3. Major Histocompatibility Complex is a tight cluster of linked___________

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Genes
d. Lipid molecules
4. Name the class of MHC which is recognized by CD4 TH cell.

a. MHC cannot recognize T cells
b. MHC III
c. MHC I
d. MHC II
5. Name the cell which receives antigen presented by MHC molecule.

a. Nk cells
b. B-cells
c. T-cells
d. Macrophages
UNIT 4
1. Which hypersensitivity reactions are T cell mediated?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
e. None of these
2. Which of the following is considered an autoimmune disease?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. AIDS
c. SCID
d. agammaglobulinemia
e. CJD
3. A transplant between individuals of different animal species is termed as:

a. allograft
b. isograft
c. enterograft
d. endograft
e. xenograft
4. Graft versus host disease results when the recipient lacks or has a poor immune system,
and the donor organ and recipient express different:
a. HLA
b. T cells
c. Antibodies
d. Autoantibodies
e. Interleukins
5. Type II hypersensitivity is due to:

a. IgE
b. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
c. Pollen
d. IgM
e. Mismatched blood types in transfusion
UNIT 5
1. Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for the detection of

a. Antigens
b. Antibodies
c. Complement
d. antigen-antibody complexes
2. Precipitation reaction is relatively less sensitive for the detection of

a. Antigens
b. antigen-antibody complexes
c. antibodies
d. Complement
3. Commercially available ELISA kits are used for the detection of

a. Rotavirus
b. hepatitis B surface antigen
c. anti-HIV antibodies
d. all of these
4. Fluorescent treponemal antibody test is an example of

a. indirect immunofluorescence
b. direct immunofluorescence
c. both (a) and (b)
d. all of these
5. Counter-immunoelectrophoresis is used for the detection of

a. Meningococcal antigen
b. Hepatitis B surface antigen
c. Alpha-fetoprotein
d. All of these
SBTX1008- CONCEPTS IN BIOTECHNOLOGY
UNIT 1
1. Yeast two-hybrid system involves the use of

a. Domains of transcription factors
b. Histone proteins
c. Two point crossovers
d. Homologous recombination
2. The name Kary Mullis is associated with

a. Gel retardation assay
b. Chain termination reaction
c. Restricted fragment length polymorphism
d. Polymerase chain reaction
3. Introduction of foreign gene for improving genotype is

a. Tissue culture
b. Biotechnology
c. Genetic engineering
d. Vernalisation
4. ELISA
a. Uses complement mediated cell lysis
b. Uses radiolabelled second antibody
c. Involves addition of substrate which is converted into coloured end product
d. Requires RBCs
5. Suitable host in genetic engineering to introduce DNA fragments of donor is
a. Yeast
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Escherichia coli
d. Bacteriophages
UNIT 2
1. Fermenters are designed for

a. Aerobic processes
b. Anaerobic processes
c. Both a and b
d. Antirobic processes
2. Purpose of cooling jacket is to

a. Prevent heavy financial losses
b. Help in easy cleansing of culture medium
c. Help in utilizing unproductive time
d. None
3. The Candida species require fermentation equipment lined with plastic because they are
extremely sensitive to
a. Traces of cobalt
b. Traces of nickel
c. Traces of iron
d. None of these
4. Unicelled microbes grown as source of proteins are called

a. Microbial proteins
b. Single cell proteins
c. Unicelled proteins
d. None
5. Temperature of fermenter to produce Fusarium is maintained at

a. 20ºC
b. 30ºC
c. 40ºC
d. 50ºC
UNIT 3
1. Heterosis is
a. Appearance of spontaneous mutations
b. Induction of mutations
c. Mixture of two or more traits
d. Superiority of hybrids over their parents
2. The quickest method of plant breeding is
a. Introduction
b. Selection
c. Hybridisation
d. Mutation breeding
3. Azolla is used as bio fertilizer as it has

a. Rhizobium
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Mycorrhiza
d. Large quantity of humus
4. Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

a. Aldrin
b. BHC
c. Endosulphan
d. Malathion
5. Pyrethrin is obtained from

a. Carthamus
b. Azadirachta
c. Amaranthus
d. Chrysanthemum
UNIT 4
1. Translation of mRNA into proteins takes place in the

a. Host cell nucleus
b. Host cell cytoplasm
c. Viral nucleus
d. Viral cytoplasm
2. For which viral disease, vaccine has been recently developed through the use of tissue
culture?
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rabies
d. Small pox
3. Some cross reactions with monoclonal antibodies can occur. Unexpected cross reactions
occur more frequently with
a. Ig MAbs
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE
4. HGPRT- mutant cells are raised by including mutations using

a. 5-bromouracil
b. 8-azaguanine
c. Colchicine
d. 6-methy isocyanate
5. Which of the following is most controversial approach in gene therapy

a. Germ line therapy
b. Somatic therapy
c. Ex vivo therapy
d. Anti-sense therapy
UNIT 5
1. The first transgenic plant to be produced

a. Rice
b. Maize
c. Cotton
d. Tobacco
2. The genetically engineered ‘Golden Rice’ synthesize large amount of

a. Vitamin K
b. Beta-carotene
c. Vitamin C
d. Beta-galactosidase
3. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into
bacteria or yeast
Reason: both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which express
the desired gene
a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
b. If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion
c. If assertion is true statement but reason is false
d. If both assertion, and reason are false statements
4. Read the statements I to IV which two of them have mistakes

I. First transgenic buffalo Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin
enriched
II. Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macromolecules
III. Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNA technology
IV. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of rDNA into the host
a. II and III
b. III and IV
c. I and III
d. I and II
5. Transgenic organisms have modified

a. Chemicals
b. Hormones
c. Enzymes
e. Genetic makeup
SEMESTER IV
SBTX1010 GENETIC ENGINEERING

UNIT 1 : INTRODUCTION
1. The term ‘ endonuclease’ refers to cutting the DNA sequence from
a) Only with the polynucleotide chain , not at the end
b) The ends of the chain
c) Anywhere in the chain
d) Exactly in the middle of the chain
2. The restriction endonuclease is having a defence mechanism in bacterial system against
foreign DNA such as viruses. But how it is able to protect its own DNA?
a) Methylation of bacterial DNA by RE
b) By phosphorylation of bacterial DNA by RE
c) By methylation foreign DNA by RE
d) By phosphorylation of foriegn DNA by RE
3. How many classes of RE are there?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. Blunt ends created by the RE can be ?
a) True
b) False
5. If two successive PCR are carried out , it is called as
a) Touch down PCR

b) Hot start PCR
c) Combined PCR
d) Nested PCR
UNIT 2 DNA FINGERPRINTING

1. DNA fingerprinting was developed by
a) Francis crick
b) Khorana
c) Alec jefferey
d) James watson
2. Techniques used to distinguish the individuals based on their DNA finger patterns is called
a) DNA fingerprinting
b) DNA profiling
c) Molecular fingerprinting
d) All of the above
3. Minisatellites are
a) 10-40 bp sized short seq within the genes
b) Short coding repetitive regions on the eukaryotic genome
c) Short non coding repetitive seq present throughout the chromosome
d) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction
4. DNA profiling is used :
a) In forensic studies
b) In pedigree analysis
c) To confirm cell line identity
d) All of the above
5. DNA fingerprinting relies on
a) Difference in patterns of gene between individuals
b) Difference in the order of genes between individuals
c) Difference in junk DNA pattern between individuals
d) None
UNIT 3 DNA SEQUENCING METHODS

1. Find the untrue statement
a) New strands of DNA are synthesised from the end of primer
b) Taq polymerase is heat sensitive
c) DNA is double helix
d) Fragments of DNA is amplified by PCR
2. DNA sequencing refers to
a) Technique used to determine sugar seq in a DNA
b) Technique used to determine phosphate seq in a DNA
c) Technique used to determine base sequence in a DNA molecule
d) All of the above

3. Which of the following is a chemical nucleotide sequencing method
a) Sanger method
b) Maxam gilbert method
c) Edman method
d) Automated sequencing method
4. Which of the following is not a DNA sequencing method
a) LMPCR
b) Sanger method
c) Maxam gilbert method
d) Edman method
5. Samples in sangers method after reactions are separated by
a) AGE
b) PAGE
c) PFGE
d) 2 – D gel electrophoresis
UNIT 4 CLONING METHODS

1. Which does not cut as a RE?
a) ECOR I
b) Bam HI
c) Hind III
d) Polyribonucleotide synthase
2. Which enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy from RNA?
a) Reverse transcriptase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) RNA poly III
3. Which of the following can be termed as a restriction modification system?
a) ENDONUCLEASE + METHYLASE
b) ENDONUCLEASE + ACETYLASE
c) Ligase + acetylase
d) Ligase + methylase
4. Which of the following endonuclease removes a length of DNA between two telomerase
sequences?
a) ECOR I
b) ECOR2
c) Bam HI
d) HIND III
5. Site directed mutagenesis is facilitated research on
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Fats
UNIT 5 EXPLOITATION OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

1. Ds RNA is cleaved by a nuclease called as dicer and small fragments are generated known
as
a) Short interfering RNAs
b) Long interfering RNAs
c) Short interspersed RNAs
d) Long interspersed RNAs
2. Down regulation of expression of genes generate sense RNA , by a process called
a) Supression
b) Co suppression
c) Multi suppression
d) Anti suppression
3. The process of RNA inactivation by Si RNA is termed
a) RNA silencing
b) RNA interference
c) Short RNA inactivation
d) RNA disfunction
4. DNA ………… is also a method for gene silencing through short RNAs
a) Acetylation
b) Phosphorylation
c) Methylation
d) Acylation
5. RNA silencing triggered by …………. RNA leading to the suppression of gene expression
a) dsRNA
b) ssRNA
c) Mutated RNA
d) None
SBTX1011 PROTEIN ENGINEERING
UNIT 1
1. Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?
a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine
2. Which of the following is an imino acid?

a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Proline
d) Serine
3. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. Peptide bond is a
a) Covalent bond
b) Ionic bond
c) Metallic bond
d) Hydrogen bond
5. . Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

a) Renaturation
b) Denaturation
c) Oxidation
d) Reduction
UNIT 2
1. Which of the following does not affect the stability of a α-helix?

a) Electrostatic repulsion
b) Bulkiness
c) Interaction between R groups spaced three residues apart
d) Occurrence of alanine and glycine residues
2. β-pleated sheets are the examples of

a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure
3. Which of the following rays are used in the powder method of crystals?
a) Gamma rays
b) α-rays
c) β-rays
d) Monochromatic X-rays
4. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Mass Spectrometry Protein Identification?

a) The proteolysis doesn’t generate a pattern according to molecular weight
b) Proteins can be identified and characterized using MS
c) The proteins from a two dimensional gel system are first digested in situ with a
protease
d) Protein spots of interest are excised from the two-dimensional gel
5. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Protein Identification through Database
Searching?
a) MS characterization of proteins is highly dependent on bioinformatic analysis

b) Bioinformatics programs can be used to search for the identity of a protein in a
database of theoretically digested proteins
c) Even in reality, the protease digestion is always perfect in MS
d) The purpose of the database search is to find exact or nearly exact matches
UNIT 3
1. Amino acids interact with each other to produce a well-defined 3D structure known as
a. native state
b. denaturing
c. 1° structure of proteins
d. synthesis of proteins
2. Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

a. Temperature
b. pH
c. Removal of water
d. Presence of hydrophilic surfaces
3. __________ are parts of __________ molecules that do not contain information about a
protein's primary structure.
a. Introns . . . pre-mRNA
b. Exons . . . pre-mRNA
c. Exons . . . mRNA
d. Introns . . . mRNA
4. The method is used to study the structure and function of proteins

a. Mass spectrometry
b. Site-specific mutagenesis
c. Immunochemistry
d. All
5. Thermodynamically stable configuration of protein is

a. Primary structure
b. Secondary Structure
c. Tertiary strucutre.
d. Quaternary structure.
UNIT 4
1. The study of energy relationships and conversions in biological systems is called as

a) Biophysics
b) Biotechnology
c) Bioenergetics
d) Microbiology
2. What does first law of thermodynamics state?

a) Energy can neither be destroyed nor created
b) Energy cannot be 100 percent efficiently transformed from one type to another
c) All living organisms are composed of cells
d) Input of heat energy increases the rate of movement of atoms and molecules
3. As folding progresses which of the following does not take place?

a) Entropy decreases
b) Amount of protein in native state increases
c) Free energy increases
d) Amount of protein in native state decreases
4. If enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, then ∆G° equals to

a) -T∆S°
b) T∆S°
c) -∆H°
d) lnkEq
5. Unfolding of regular secondary protein structure causes

a) Large decrease in the entropy of the protein
b) Little increase in the entropy of protein
c) No change in the entropy of the protein
d) Large increase in the entropy of the protein
UNIT 5
1. Which of the following forces is favorable for protein folding?

a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Vander Waals forces
d) Ionic bonding
2. Process of folding does not depend on

a) Concentration of salts
b) pH
c) Solute
d) Solvent
3. What is the source of protein structures in SCOP and CATH?

a) Uniprot
b) Protein Data Bank

c) Ensemble
d) InterPro
4. The first step in structure classification is to remove redundancy from databases.

a) True
b) False
5. Members within the ____ fold ______ have evolutionary relationships.

a) same, always
b) same, do not always
c) one, always
d) different, do not
SCHX1013 ENZYME ENGINEERING
UNIT 1
1. Β-amylase is
a. Endoenzyme
b. Exoenzyme
c. Saccharifying enzyme
d. Both (b) and (c)
2. Enzymes act as antimicrobials by depriving an organism of an necessary metabolite

a. Yes
b. No
c. May be
d. None of these
3. The bitter taste of the high protein materials is reduced by using

a. Invertase
b. Dectinase
c. Protease
d. None of the these
4. Milk digestibility is improved by using

a. RNase
b. Lactase
c. Β-amylase
d. None of these
5. Which of the following mainly serve to convert starch into high fructose corn syrup
(HFCS)?
a. Alpha- amylase
b. Gluco-isomerase
c. Gluco-amylase
d. All of these
UNIT 2
1. Which of the enzyme combination is commercially used for the removal of oxygen
a. Glucose oxidase-cellulase
b. Glucose oxidase-catalse
c. Glucose oxidase-lactase
d. All of these
2. Chymosin hydrolysis the bond between

a. Alanine and glycine
b. Phenyl alanine and methionine
c. Glutamic acid and alanine
d. Alanine and phenyl alanine
3. Lysozyme is naturally present in

a. Egg white
b. Bacteria
c. Tears and milk
d. All of these
4. Sulphydryl oxidase is used for

a. Discoloration
b. Clarification of images
c. UHT milk off flavor removal
d. All of these
5. Alpha amylase is an endo enzyme which requires

a. Ca
b. Cu
c. Mn
d. None of these
UNIT 3
1. Hersperidinase is used for

a. Juice clarification
b. Juice debittering
c. Off flavor reduction
d. RNA reduction in fish
2. Which of the following metallic ion is there is ascorbic acid oxidase?

a. Mg
b. Fe
c. Cu
d. Mn
3. Citrus juice debittering can be carried out using

a. Limoninase
b. Inulinase
c. Anthocyanase
d. None of these
4. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for causing vitamin B deficiency beriberi?
a. Ascorbic acid oxidase
b. Thiaminase
c. Lipoxygenase
d. None of these
5. Soya off flavor removal may be achieved using

a. Diacetyl reductase
b. Beta amylase
c. Aldehyde oxidase
d. Protease
UNIT 4
1. Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

a. Km, the michaelis constant, is defined as that concentration of substrate at which
enzyme is working at maximum velocity
b. It describes single substrate enzymes
c. Km, the michaelis constant is defined as the dissociation constant of the enzyme-
substrate complex
d. It assumes covalent binding occurs between enzyme and substrate
2. When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate concentration, which of
the following is obtained?
a. Hyperbolic curve
b. parabola
c. Straight line with positive slope
d. Straight line with negative slope
3. The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is
a. Repressor
b. Inhibitor
c. Modulator
d. Regulator
4. The rate determining step of Michaelis-Menten kinetics is

a) The complex dissociation step to produce products
b) The complex formation step
c) The product formation step

d) None of the above
5. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition?

a) At active site
b) Allosteric site
c) Does not bind on enzyme
d) Binds on substrate
UNIT 5
1. What is the general mechanism of an enzyme?

a. It acts by reducing the activation energy
b. It acts by increasing the activation energy
c. It acts by decreasing the pH
d. It acts by increasing the pH
2. Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor?

a. Disulfiram
b. Oseltamivir
c. Protease inhibitors
d. DIPF
3. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition?

a. At active site
b. Allosteric site
c. Does not bind on enzyme
d. Binds on substrate
4. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of the
following factor?
a. Km
b. Product formation
c. Size of the enzymes
d. pH of optimum value
SBTX1013 Analytical techniques:

UNIT 1
1. The microscopy that made possible for biologists to study living cells and how they
proliferate through cell division and does not use fluorescence is
a. Phase contact microscope
b. Scanning electron microscope
c. Transmission electron microscopy
d. All of these
2. Which of the following is best suited to get the surface view of an object?
a. Compound microscope
b. SEM
c. TEM
d. Confocal microscope
3. Electrons of Scanning Electron Microscope are reflected through

a. Glass
b. Specimen
c. Metal-coated surfaces
d. Vacuum chamber
4. The electrodes used in pH measurement have which of the following internal resistances?
a. Very low resistance
b. Moderate resistance
c. Very high resistance
d. No resistance
5. Mass of cork is 13200 kg and volume is 55 m³, density of cork as calculated would be
a. 240 kg m-3
b. 24 kg m-3
c. 2400 kg m-3
d. 4.2 × 10-3
UNIT2
1. NMR is the study of absorption of __________ by nuclei in a magnetic field?

a. Radioactive radiation
b. IR radiation
c. Radio frequency radiation
d. Microwaves
2. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting a

substance to magnetic fields in which of the following manner?
a. Both fields should be stationary
b. Both fields should be varying
c. One field should be stationary and the other should be varying
d. It must be subjected to only one field
3. Which of the following wavelength ranges is associated with UV spectroscopy

a. 0.8-500µm
b. 400-100nm
c. 380-750nm
d. 0.01-10nm
4. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter results in the emission of radiation

of same or longer wavelengths for a long or a short time, the phenomenon is termed as
a. Luminescence
b. Fluorescence
c. Phosphorescence
d. Spontaneous emission
5. Absorbed wavelengths in atomic absorption spectrum appear as

a. dark background
b. Dark lines
c. Light backgrounds
d. Light lines
UNIT 3
1. Protein separation techniques are often based on the following properties except
a. Solubility of the protein
b. Viscocity of the protein
c. Charge of protein
d. Specific binding
2. Which of the following detergent is commonly used to release integral proteins from its
membranes?
a. Urea
b. Dimethyl sulphoxide
c. Triton X 100
d. Cyanogens bromide
3. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on

a. Magnitude of charge and mass of molecules
b. Magnitude of chage and shape of molecules
c. Shape and size of molecules
d. Magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules
4. The use of insulin hormone to purify its receptors is an example of

a. Ion exchange chromatography
b. Affinity chrpmatography
c. Gel filtration chromatography
d. Ligand mediated chromatography
5. If proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility than type of

electrophoresis is
a. SDS PAGE
b. free flow electrophoresis
c. electro focusing
d. affinity electrophoresis
UNIT 4
1. In liquid scintillation counter, which of the following is used to convert light into
electrical signals?
a. Photo multiplier tube
b. Photo emissive tube
c. Photo voltaic cell
d. Photo reflector
2. In which type of quenching, the radiation emitted by the isotope is not detected due to
absorption of the radiation by the sample itself?
a. Chemical quench
b. Interference quench
c. Colour quenching
d. Self-absorption
3. If fast moving objects rapidly decelerate, the rays produced are called as
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. Gamma rays
d. X-rays
4. The technique used to visualize the distribution of radioactive labeled substance with
radioisotope in a biological sample.
a. liquid scintillation counter
b. p3 lab technique
c. autoradiography’
d. crystallography
5. The structure and function of many biological molecules, including vitamins, drugs,
proteins and nucleic acids such as DNA can be revealed by
a. NMR
b. X-ray crystallography
c. X-ray diffraction
d. All of these
UNIT 5
1. From the given techniques, which is suitable for identification of mRNA molecule in a
sample
a. Western blotting
b. Southern blotting
c. Northern blotting
d. Eastern blotting
2. Chemicals used for gene transfer methods include

a. Poly ethylene glycol

b. CaCl2
c. Dextran
d. All of the ABOVE
3. The virus mediated gene transfer using genitically modifies bacteriophages is called
a. Transfection
b. Transduction
c. Transformation
d. Conjugation
4. Primer used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are ______________
a. Single stranded DNA oligonucleotide
b. Double stranded DNA oligonucleotide
c. Single stranded RNA oligonucleotide
d. Double stranded RNA oligonucleotide
5. The variation in the restriction fragment lengths between individuals of a species is called
a. Restriction fragment length polymorphism(RFLP)
b. Random amplified polymorphic DNA
c. Amplified fragment length polymorphism(AFLP)
d. Simple sequence repeats(SSR)
SBIX1028 BIOINFORMATICS AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY DATABASES
UNIT 1
1. Which of the following is not a variant of BLAST?

a. BLASTN
b. BLASTP
c. BLASTX
d. TBLASTNX
2. Literature databases include

a. MEDLINE and PubMed
b. MEDLINE and PDB
c. PubMed and PDB
d. MEDLINE and PDS
3. The hierarchical genome sequencing approach is _____

a. entirely dissimilar to the shotgun approach
b. dissimilar to the shotgun approach
c. similar to the shotgun approach, but on a larger scale
d. similar to the shotgun approach, but on a smaller scale
4. Which of the following is incorrect about Phred?

a. It is a UNIX program
b. It doesn’t give a probability score in output
c. It is used for base calling
d. It uses a Fourier analysis to resolve fluorescence traces and predict actual peak
locations of bases
5. Which of the following is incorrect about Data Collection?

a. The two-color microarray uses multiple dyes at times
b. The most common type of microarray protocol is the two-color microarray
c. The cDNAs are obtained by extracting total RNA or mRNA from tissues or cells
and incorporating fluorescent dyes in the DNA strands during the cDNA
biosynthesis
d. The expression of genes is measured via the signals from cDNAs hybridizing with
the specific oligonucleotide probes on the microarray
UNIT 2
1. Which of the following is not a protein sequence?

a. EMBL
b. PSD
c. SWISS PROT
d. All of these
2. The “first secondary database” was developed by?

a. PIR
b. PRINTS
c. PROSITE
d. PDB
3. “Sequence Alignment Tool” is

a. PROSITE
b. BLAST
c. a and b
d. PRINT
4. Which of the following is not a member database of InterPro?

a. SCOP
b. HAMAP
c. PANTHER
d. Pfam
5. What is the source of protein structures in SCOP and CATH?

a. Uniprot
b. Protein Data Bank

c. Ensemble
d. InterPro
UNIT 3
1. The command used to display the Unix version
a. Kernel
b. Uname-r
c. Uname-c
2. The command used to find the resource limits of the session:

a. ulimit
b. setrlimit
c. reslimit
d. rlimit
3. Which of the following is untrue about the Sfold algorithm?

a. It uses a unique algorithm to aid in the design of siRNA
b. The algorithm combines thermodynamic stabilities, calculations of
target accessibility, and empirical rules
c. The website offers specialized programs for the design of siRNA,
antisense RNA, trans-cleaving RNA, and mRNA-microRNA interactions
d. The website doesn’t offer programs for the design of a general program
for statistically sampling suboptimal RNA structures
4. Which of the following is incorrect about EULER?

a. It is an assembly algorithm
b. It uses a Eulerian Super path approach, which is a polynomial algorithm
c. In this approach, a sequence fragment is broken down to tuples of five
nucleotides
d. The tuples are distributed in a diagram with numerous nodes that are all
interconnected
5. FlyBase is a ___________ database

a. Biomolecular database
b. Biodiversity database
c. Model organism database
UNIT 4
1. The procedure of aligning many sequences simultaneously:
a. Multiple sequence alignment
b. Local alignment
c. Global alignment
d. Pair wise alignment
2. The tool responsible for sequence alignment:

a. Rasmol
b. Blast
c. Fasta
d. All the above
3. A phylogenetic tree that is ʺrootedʺ is one

a. That extends back to the origin of life on earth.
b. At whose base is located the common ancestor of all taxa depicted on that
tree.
c. That illustrates the rampant gene swapping that occurred early in life’s
history.
d. With very few branch points.
4. The correct sequence, from the most to the least comprehensive, of the taxonomic levels l
isted here is
a. family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus.
b. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.
c. phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus.
d. phylum, order, class, species, family, species and genus.
5. If organisms A, B and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms
orders and if organisms D, E and F belong to the same order but to different families,
which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree
of structural homology?
a. A and B
b. B and D
c. C and F
d. D and F
UNIT 5
1. Which of the following amino acids is most compatible with an α- helical structure?
a. Alanine
b. Tetracycline
c. Proline
d. Leucine
2. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of:
a. Myoglobin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Collagen
3. A child with tall stature, loose joints, and detached retinas is found to have a mutation in
collagen. Which of the following amino acid is the recurring amino acid most likely to be
altered in mutation that distort molecules?
a. Tyrosine
b. Glycine
c. Alanine
d. Tryptophan
4. Which of the following is untrue about Ab initio prediction?

a. The limited knowledge of protein folding forms the basis of ab initio prediction.
b. The ab initio prediction method attempts to produce all-atom protein models
based on sequence information alone without the aid of known protein structures.
c. The ab initio prediction method attempts to produce all-atom protein models
based on sequence information alone with some aid of known protein structures.
d. The perceived advantage of this method is that predictions are not restricted by
known folds and that novel protein folds can be identified.
5. In the pairwise energy-based method, a protein sequence is searched for in a structural

fold database to find the best matching structural fold using ______ criteria.
a. Sequence-based
b. Residue-based
c. Structure-based
d. Energy based
SBTX1014 Plant Biotechnology
UNIT 1
1. In the beads on a string model, the bead is made up of __________
a. 6 histone proteins
b. 8 histone proteins
c. 6 histone proteins and DNA
d. 8 histone proteins and DNA
2. Modification of histones can affect

a. Transcription
b. Gene expression
c. Both A and B
d. Translation
3. More than what proportion of mitochondrial proteins are coded by nuclear DNA?
a. 95%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 40%
4. What are epigenetic modifications?

a. The addition of reversible changes into histone proteins and DNA
b. The removal of nucleosomes from the DNA
c. The addition of more nucleosomes to the DNA
d. Mutation of the DNA sequence
5. What feature is probably most responsible for the success of angiosperms?

a. Seeds
b. Fruit
c. Broad leaves
d. Flowers
UNIT 2
1. Out of the following, which one is NOT the basic component of culture media used for
plant cultivation?
a. Complex mixture of salts
b. Amino acids
c. Serum albumin
d. Sugar/ sucrose
2. The ability of the component cells of callus to form a whole plant is known as
a. Redifferentitation
b. Dedifferentiation
c. Either a or b
d. None of these
3. DMSO is used as
a. Gelling agent
b. Chelating agent
c. Alkylating agent
d. Cryoprotectant
4. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?

a. Plasmid
b. Cosmid
c. Phasmid
d. Agrobacterium
5. Which technique is used to introduce genes into dicots?

a. Electroporation
b. Particle acceleration
c. Microinjection
d. Ti plasmid infection
UNIT 3
1. Which of the agricultural challenges below cannot be solved with transgenic techniques?
a. Crops are damaged by frost
b. Crops are killed by a virus
c. Public concern about safety of synthetic pesticides
d. Public preference for organic vegetables
2. Flowers that have bright colored petals rather than dull petals are pollinated by
a. insects
b. wind
c. humans
d. rain
3. crown gall tissue
a. can be cultivates invitro in absence of bacteria
b. retains tumorous properties when cultivated
c. both a and b
d. shows tumorous properties only in presence of bacteria
4. Mutations which occur in body cells which do not go on to form gametes can be
classified as:
a. auxotrophic mutations
b. somatic mutations
c. morphological mutations
d. oncogenes
5. Polyploidy refers to:

a. extra copies of a gene adjacent to each other on a chromosome
b. an individual with complete extra sets of chromosomes
c. a chromosome which has replicated but not divided
d. multiple ribosomes present on a single mRNA
UNIT 4
1. Reactions in second phase of photosynthesis that does not utilize light directly are called
a. adenine reactions
b. night reactions
c. light reactions
d. dark reactions
2. Plants derived sexually from the same plant are ______ while those derived from
somatic tissue from the same plant ____
a. identical, different
b. different, also different
c. different, identical
d. plants cannot be derived from somatic tissue
3. Low temperatures induce the expression of many cold-induced genes. Transgenic

plants with improved cold tolerance have been produced by
a. expressing the protein that activates expression of these genes all the time in plants
b. cooling plants using the Peltier effect
c. expressing a gene for production of antifreeze (ethylene glycol) in plants
d. increasing evaporative cooling from leaf surfaces
4. A vaccine can be
a. an antigenic protein
b. weakened protein
c. live attenuated pathogen
d. all of these
5. The vector for T-DNA is

a. Thermus aquaticus
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d. Bacillus thuringiensis
UNIT 5
1. In transgenesis, only cloned genes are introduced into the donor

a. True
b. False
2. Name the first transgenic virus resistant plant?

a. Rice
b. Cotton
c. Tobacco
d. Tomato
3. Starch content of potatoes can be increased by using a bacterial gene, known as

a. Sucrose phosphate synthase gene
b. ADP glucose pyrophosphorylase gene
c. Polygalactouranase gene
4. Which of the following self-pollinating plant tend to be homozygous?

a. Peas
b. Tomato
c. Peach
d. All of these
5. A human female has ____ pairs of autosomes and _____ of the sex chromosome
complement
a. 23,XX
b. 23,X
c. 22,XX
d. 22,XY
SEMESTER 6
SBTX1016 MEDICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY
UNIT 1
1. Genes are said to be linked when

a. Their loci are located to each other
b. They inherit together for two or more generations
c. Their chromatids do not separate during chromosomal cross over
d. All of these
2. If your quantitative proteomics experiment contains a large number of samples, which of

these would be a good method to choose?
a. iTRAQ
b. SILAC
c. Label-free quantification
d. Western blotting
3. Polymorphisms in the multidrug resistance gene most likely would affect which of the
following drugs?
a. Indinavir
b. Nortriptyline
c. Mercaptopurine
d. Captopril
4. The enzyme system responsible for the metabolism of most drugs is

a. P- glycoprotein
b. Alkaline phosphatase
c. HMG- CoA
d. Cytochrome P -450
5. Which of the following is known as Royal disease?

a. Sickle cell anaemia

b. Haemophilia
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Colour blindness
UNIT 2
1. Which clinical sample is used to diagnose hepatitis B?

a. Blood
b. Liver biopsy
c. Faeces sample
d. Throat swab
2. Throat culture is not useful to diagnose

a. Diphtheria
b. Thrush
c. Streptococcal sore throat
d. Pneumonia
3. Identify the most commonly used diagnostic technique in the virus laboratory:
a. Deep sequencing (NGS)
b. Virus isolation in cell culture
c. Reverse transcriptase PCR
d. Immuno – serology
4. The replicative intermediate of a positive RNA virus is:

a. The mRNA
b. Positive RNA
c. The same as the genomic RNA
d. Identical to the progeny RNA
5. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?
a. Cortisol
b. Adrenaline
c. Aldosterone
d. Cholecystokinin
UNIT 3
1. Benzylpenicillin is the chemical name for which of the following penicillin?

a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Penicillin F
d. Phenethicilin
2. Polymyxins inhibits the growth of the microbes by carrying out which of the following
actions?
a. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
b. Damage to cytoplasmic membrane
c. Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein synthesis
d. Inhibition of specific enzyme systems
3. Which of the following vaccines is a live virus vaccine?

a. Measles
b. Rabies
c. Typhoid
d. HBV
4. Drug used against ‘chronic active hepatitis’ is

a. Abacavir
b. Efavirenz
c. Tenofovir
d. Adefovir
5. A patient presents with a rapid heart rate, fever, and diaphoresis. Infection is highly
suspected and a blood sample is sent to the lab. In the disk diffusion method for lab
testing cultured bacteria, what would a large zone of inhibition indicate?
a. Drug sensitivity
b. Drug resistance
c. Presence of anaerobic bacteria
d. Presence of gram - positive bacteria
UNIT 4
1. Receptor proteins that indirectly activate enzymes that generate intracellular second
messengers are:
a. Steroid receptors
b. Serpentine receptors
c. Adhesion receptors
d. Receptor enzymes
2. Which out of the following is not involved in signal transduction by β-adrenergic

receptor pathway?
a. GTP
b. ATP
c. cAMP
d. cGMP
3. Which of the following is not a G-protein coupled receptor?

a. Glycine receptor
b. Adrenergic receptor
c. Glutamate receptor
d. Muscarinic receptor
4. Protein kinase A is
a. Completely inhibited by cyclic AMP
b. Allosterically activated by cyclic AMP
c. Affected by cyclic AMP only under unusual circumstances
d. Activated by covalent binding of cyclic AMP
5. In raising blood pressure, two hormones whose effect is synergistic are:

a. Cortisol and corticosterone
b. Cortico- steroids and corticosterone
c. Aldosterone and androgenic hormones
d. Adrenaline and non- adrenaline
UNIT 5
1. Which of the following virus is not used in gene therapy?

a. Papillomavirus
b. Retrovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Herpes simplex virus
2. In case of Protein-ligand docking, ______ ligands are often _____ in adapting their
shape to fit the receptor binding pocket.
a. small molecule, highly flexible
b. large molecule, highly flexible
c. large molecule, more flexible
d. small molecule, less flexible
3. If the remedial gene does the function of defective gene. The approach is called as
a. Gene replacement therapy
b. Gene augmentation therapy
c. Corrective gene therapy
d. Both a and b
4. A comprehensive database for the study of human genetics and molecular biology is
a. PIR
b. STAG
c. OMIM
d. PSD
5. MAtDB is a model organism database for

a. Mouse
b. E. coli
c. Arabidopsis
d. Human
SBTX1017 Animal biotechnology:

UNIT1:
1. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and production
of animals with a desirable genotype is
a. Protoplast fusion and embryo transfer
b. Hybrid selection and embryo transfer
c. In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
d. All of these
2. During the growth of animal cells in culture, it is noticed that the cells do not look very
healthy. After an investigation, this is found that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture
fluid. What is probably wrong with this culture?
a. Ethyl alcohol is being produced in excess
b. The cells have too much oxygen
c. Glycolysis is being inhibited
d. The cells do not have enough oxygen
3. In the developing embryo, stem cell has the ability to differentiate into
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. All of these
4. Process in which one stem cell develops into two differentiated daughter cells, another
stem cell undergoes mitosis and produces two identical stem cells is called
a. stochastic differentiation
b. asymmetric replication
c. potency
d. self-renewal
5. In animal cell culture, particularly mammalian cell culture, transformation means

a. uptake of new genetic material
b. phenotypic modifications of cells in culture
c. both (a) and (b)
d. release of genetic information
UNIT 2
1. Which of the following is not an advantage of continuous culture?
a. Can be used for different reactions every day
b. Little risk of infection or strain mutation
c. Long growth periods of subtrates/microbes
d. Eliminating the inherent down time for cleaning and sterilization
2. If one starts with 10,000 (104 ) cells in a culture that has a generation time of 2 h, how
many cells will be in the culture after 4 and 48 h
a. .0×104 cells, 1.7×1011 cells
b. 4.2×104 cells, 1.1×1011 cells
c. 4.6×104 cells, 1.5×1011 cells
d. 4.8×104 cells, 1.3×1011 cells
3. An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by adding a nutrient (present in
limiting quantities) at the same rate as that medium containing micro-organisms is
removed is called
a. Manostat
b. Chemostat
c. Turbidostat
d. Culturostat
4. What is the concentration of CO2 required for culturing animal cells?

a. 2-5%
b. 1-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 15-20%
5. Non anchorage dependent cultures are

a. Continuous cultures
b. Suspension cultures
c. Batch cultures
d. All of these
UNIT 3:
1. Which of the following types of genetic manipulations allow a researcher to
experimentally increase gene expression in a mouse model?
a. Knockin
b. Conditional knockout
c. Transgenic
d. Knockout
2. One of the following can influence the level and pattern of transgene expression
a. If the location(s) of transgene insertion is random
b. If the number of transgene copies that integrate into the genome is random
c. If the transgene may be inserted into a region of transcriptionally silent DNA
d. All of the above
3. What is the size of foreign DNA that can be inserted in an insertion vector?
a. 10 kb
b. 100kb
c. 20 kb
d. 15 kb
4. The human fibroplast is a classical example of

a. stable primary cell line
b. established cell lines
c. cell transformations
d. none of these
5. A mouse in which both alleles of a gene are deleted in a targeted fashion by homologous
recombination is named as
a. Transgenic mouse
b. Knockout mouse
c. Knockin mouse
d. Recombinated mouse
UNIT 4
1. Tool most often used in In Vitro procedures
a. ultrasound imaging
b. fluoroscopy
c. Molecular imaging
d. MRI
2. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was
popularly called
a. In vitro babies
b. Test tube babies
c. Invitro-invivo babies
d. All of these
3. What is the procedure called when a hollow-point-needle inserts into the female pelvic
cavity to retrieve the eggs.
a. Egg transplant procedure
b. Follicular aspiration
c. Pelvic cavity interchanger
d. Egg retrieval command
4. The highest possible number of days for the embryos to spend outside the surrogate
mother's uterus will be
a. 4-5 days
b. 5-6 days
c. 2-3 days
d. 6-7 days
5. This fertilization takes place in the laboratory rather than the fallopian tube, and the
fertilized egg is transferred to the tube rather than the uterus
a. Gamete intrafallopian transfer
b. Zygote intrafallopian transfer
c. Gamete interfallopian transfer
d. Zygote interfallopian transfer

UNIT 5
1. The injection of DNA into developing inflorescence using a hypodermic syringe is called
a. Macroinjection
b. micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery
c. microfection
d. microinjection
2. The transformation method that uses tungsten or gold particle coated with DNA
accelerated at high velocity is called
a. acceleration method
b. high velocity method
c. particle gun delivery method
d. DNA particle delivery method
3. This method of gene transfer is used to introduce DNA into large cells, normally
performed under a specialized under a micromanioulator
a. Gene gun method
b. Microinjection
c. Macroinjection
d. Electrophoresis
4. The process used for transforming invitro animal cell cultures that uses lipid vesicles or
liposomes
a. Lipotransformation
b. Liposome mediated tansformaztion
c. Lipofection
d. Lipid mediated DNA transfer
5. Virus genome that has two single copy RNA molecules surrounded by lipid envelope is
a. Retro virus vectors
b. Adenovirus vectors
c. Adeno-associated virus
d. All of these
SEMESTER 7
NANOBIOTECHNOLOGY
SBTX1015
UNIT 1 INTRODUCTION TO NANO SCIENCE
1. Chou fasman rule give empirical set of condition to predict
a) Quaternary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Primary & secondary structure
d) Tertiary structure
2. Denaturation does not take place ,at which state of a protein
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
3. The metal nanoparticles synthesized using fungal species
a) Mylogenic NP
b) virogenicNP
c) bacterioform NP
4. Who first used the term nanotechnology?
a) Richard feymann
b) Norio faniguchi
c) Fric Drexler
d) Sumio lijima
5. characteristics of self assembly
a) occur spontaneously
b) superior bio compatibility
c) increased functionality
d) all the above
UNIT 2 PRODUCTION OF NANOPARTICLES

1. For high sensitivity or selectivity environmental sensors to sense the gaseous
chemical like _________
a) CO2
b) NO3
c) O2
d) NO
2. The nano materials are used in the light emitted electro luminescence devices.
a) True
b) False
3. The synthesized magnetic nano particles from _________ have been found to
self-arrange automatically.
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Iron
d) Zirconium
4. Nano particles target the rare _______ causing cells and remove them from blood.
a) Tumour
b) Fever
c) Infection
d) Cold
5. Coating the nano crystals with the ceramics is carried that leads to ________
a) Corrosion
b) Corrosion resistant
c) Wear and tear
d) Soft
UNIT 3 NANO BIOTECHNOLOGY
1. The extensively used nano particles as catalyst is_________

a) Silver
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Cerium
2. Due to _________ tensile strength some of the nano materials are used in air
crafts.
a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) No
3. Fabrics are extensively made out of nano materials like ___________

a) Carbon nano tubes
b) Fullerenes
c) Mega tubes
d) Polymers
4. ___________is the field in which the nano particles are used with silica coated
iron oxide iron oxide.
a) Magnetic applications
b) Electronics
c) Medical diagnosis
d) Structural and mechanical materials
5. DNA detection through the ___________ by using the oligonucleotide
functionalised gold nano crystals is developed.
a) Colorimetric
b) Diathermy
c) Electro therapy
d) Treatment tables
UNIT 4 INTRODUCTION TO NANO ELECTRONICS

1. Which of the following is an example of top-down approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
a) Gas phase agglomeration
b) Molecular self-assembly
c) Mechanical grinding
d) Molecular beam epitaxy
2. 2. Which of the following is an example of bottom-up approach for the
preparation of nanomaterials?
a) Etching
b) Dip pen nano-lithography
c) Lithography
d) Erosion
3. The properties like melting point, solubility, color, etc changes on varying the
a) Size
b) Composition
c) Surface properties
d) None of the mentioned
4. The properties like dispersibility, conductivity, etc changes on varying the
a) Size
b) Composition
c) Surface properties
d) None of the mentioned
5. What are the advantages of nano-composite packages?
a) Lighter and biodegradable
b) Enhanced thermal stability, conductivity and mechanical strength
c) Gas barrier properties
d) All of the mentioned
UNIT 5 NANO BIOCHIP
1. An ordered array is any collection of analytical elements configured in
a) rows and columns
b) randomly
c) circle
d) none of these
2. Microarray analysis involves biological assays based on
a. purification columns
b. small glass chip
c. Gels
d. filters
3. Which of the following is correct about micro biosensors?
a) Implantation in human body and are suitable for in-vivo measurements
b) Can be integrated on one chip and are useful for measuring various
substrates in a small amount of sample solution simultaneously
c) It is possible to develop disposable transducers for biosensors through
mass production
d) All of these
4. Microbiosensors are based on
a) ions effect
b) ionsensitive field effect transistor
c) piezoelectric effect
d) magnetic effect
5. Microarrays are also known as
a) biochips
b) DNA chips
c) gene chips
d) all of these
6.Biochips are made up of
a) semi-conducting molecules inserted into the protein frame work
b) conducting molecules inserted into the protein frame work
c) non-conducting molecules inserted into the protein frame work
d) any of the above
SBTX1018 PLANT CELL AND TISSUE CULTURE
UNIT 1
1. Who is the father of tissue culture?

a. Bonner
b. Haberlandt
c. Laibach
d. Gautheret
2. The production of secondary metabolites require the use of

a. Protoplast
b. Cell suspension
c. Meristem
d. Auxillary buds
3. Synthetic seeds is produced by encapsulating somatic embryo with

a. Sodium chloride
b. Sodium acetate
c. Sodium alginate
d. Sodium nitrate
4. Hormone pair required for a callus to differentiate are

a. Auxin and cytokinin
b. Auxin and ethylene
c. Auxin and absiccic acid
d. Cytokinins and gibberllin
5. DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide) is used as

a. Gelling agent
b. Alkaylating agent
c. Chelating agent
d. Cryoprotectant
UNIT 2
1. The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is

a. Manitol
b. Sorbitol
c. Mannol
d. PEG
2. Cybrids are produced by

a. Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species
b. Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
c. Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
3. Callus is
a. Tissue that forms embryo
b. An insoluble carbohydrate
c. Tissue that grows to form embryoid
d. Unorganized actively dividing mass of cells
4. Part of plant used for culturing is called as

a. Scion
b. Explant
c. Stock
d. Callus
5. Growth hormone producing apical dominance is

a. Auxin
b. Gibberellin
c. Ethylene
d. Cytokinin
UNIT 3
1. A medium which is composed of chemically defined compound is called

a. Natural media
b. Synthetic media
c. Artificial media
d. None of these
2. To obtain haploid plant we culture

a. Entire anther
b. Nucleus
c. Embryo
d. Apical bud
3. Somaclonal variations are the ones

a. Caused by mutagens
b. Produce during tissue culture
c. Caused by gamma rays
d. Induced during sexual embyogeny
4. Which of the following plant cell will show totipotency?

a. Xylem vessels
b. Sieve tube
c. Meristem
d. Cork cells
5. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?

a. Plasmid
b. Cosmid
c. Phasmid
d. Agrobacterium
UNIT 4
1. When plated only in nutrient medium, how much time is required for the protoplast to
synthesize new cell wall
a. 2-5 days
b. 5-10 days
c. 0-15 days
d. 15-17 days
2. What is the benefit of micro propagation or clonal propagation?

a. Rapid multiplication of superior clones
b. Multiplication of disease free plants
c. Multiplication of sexually derived sterile hybrids
d. All the above
3. The ability of the component cells of callus to form a whole plant is known as
a. Redifferentiation
b. Dedifferentiation
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these
4. Subculturing is similar to propagation by cuttings because

a. It separates multiple microshoots and places them in a medium
b. It uses scions to produce new microshoots
c. They both use in vitro growing conditions
d. All the above
5. Cell fusion method includes the preparation of large number of

a. Plant cells stripped of their cell wall
b. Single plant cell stripped of their cell wall
c. Plant cells with cell wall
d. Cells from different species
UNIT 5
1. Protoplast are the cells devoid of

a. Cell membrane
b. Cell wall
c. Both cell wall and cell membrane
d. None of these
2. Which method of plant propagation involves the use of grindling?

a. Grafting
b. Cutting
c. Layering
d. Micropropagation
3. Which of the following is considered as the disadvantage of conventional plant tissue

culture for clonal propagation?
a. Multiplication of sexually derived sterile hybrids
b. Less multiplication of disease free plants
c. Storage and transportation of propagates
d. Both (c) and (b)
4. The first transgenic crop was

a. Pea
b. Tobacco
c. Flax
d. Cotton
5. Plant tissue culture technique is a redefined methods of _______

a. Hybridization
b. Vegetative propagation
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Selection
SBTX1012 ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY
UNIT 1
1. Environmental biotechnology involves
a. The use of microbes to clean up the environment
b. Bioremediation
c. The study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs
d. All of these
2. The use of living microorganisms to degrade environmental pollution is called

a. Micro remediation
b. Nano remediation
c. Bio remediation
d. All of these
3. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Pseudomonas putida
c. Pseudomonas denitrificans
d. Bacillus denitrificans
4. The process of extracting metals from one bearing rocks is called

a. Bioextraction
b. Microbial extraction
c. Biofiltration
d. Bioleaching
5. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally

occurring microbes is called
a. Exsitu bioremediation
b. Intrinsic bioremediation
c. Extrinsic bioremediation
d. None of these
UNIT 2
1. Exsitu bioremediation involves the

a. degradation of pollutants by microbes directly
b. removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation
c. degradation of pollutants by genetically
d. none of these
2. which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes
a. Trichoderma sp
b. Aspergillus niger
c. Pseudomonas putida
d. all of these
3. microorganisms remove metals by

a. absorption and complexation
b. adsorption and precipitation
c. adsorption and volatilization
d. all of these
4. chlorella sp are widely used in removal of

a. organic waste
b. hydrocarbons
c. heavy metals
d. all of these
5. a non-directed physio chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and microbial
surface is called
a. biotransformation
b. bioconversion
c. biosorption
d. biomining
UNIT 3
1. The biocontrol agent Trichondria is a:

a. Cyanobacteria
b. Fungi
c. Bacteria
d. Actinomycetes
2. The group of organisms that are now separated from the other groups of fungi based on
their motile spores and cellulose-rich cell wall is
a. Myxomycetes
b. Zygomycetes
c. Oomycetes
d. Deuteromycetes
3. The common nitrogen fixing microorganism in paddy fields is

a. Azospirillum
b. Oscillatoria
c. Frankia
d. Rhizobium
4. The genetic material for the production of leghemoglobin protein in symbiotic nitrogen
fixation in leguminous plants is located in:
a. Partly host and partly bacterial genome
b. Part of host genome
c. Part of plasmid genome
d. Part of bacterial genome
5. What are Diazotrophs

a. Microbes that live in extreme hot conditions
b. Microbes that is capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen
c. Microbes that is capable of anaerobic respiration
d. Microbes that live in extreme cold condition
UNIT 4
1. Where would you expect to find chemosynthetic organisms?

a. Streams polluted with domestic sewage

b. Hypersaline lakes, like the dead sea
c. Deep sea thermal vents
d. Polar ice caps
2. If you want to obtain glycosylated proteins from microbes, the best choice will be:
a. Yeast
b. Virus
c. Mycoplasma
d. Bacteria
3. Which of the following protein cause the inhibition of transcription of ‘nif’ gene in
nitrogen fixing bacteria?
a. NifL
b. NifA
c. NifB
d. NifC
4. The cofactor required by the nitrogenase enzyme is

a. Molybdenum
b. Boron
c. Cobalt
d. Nickel
5. The primary energy source of Thiobacillus thioidans is:

a. Aluminium
b. Iron
c. Sulphur
d. Pyrites
UNIT 5
1. Which microbes leach metals out of rock ores and can accumulate silver?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Thiobacillus
c. Pseudomonas putida
d. Zoologea ramigera
2. Inundation involves use of a/an

a. large number of organisms over a short time to suppress/destroy a population
b. organism over a short time to suppress/destroy a population
c. large number of organisms over a long time to suppress/destroy a population
d. organism over a long time to suppress/destroy a population
3. The rate of degradation and microbes resistance to toxic pollutants remain better when
the
a. mixed cell population is used

b. individual cell is used
c. mixed cell population along with metals is used
d. individual cell along with metal is used
4. which of the bacteria is considered for biological leaching

a. T.thiooxidans
b. T.ferroxidans
c. Ferrobacillus terrooxidans
d. All of these
5. The heavily polluted zone of water reservoir is known as

a. Pleosaprophytic zone
b. Mesosaprophytic zone
c. Oligosaprophytic zone
d. None of these
SEMESTER 8
SBTX1019 PHARMACEUTICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY
UNIT 1
1. Identify the term used for the study of drugs and their effect on the body
A Pharmacy
B Pharmaceutical
C Pharmacology
D Physiotherapy
2. Human insulin formed by recombinant DNA technology is known as
a. H insulin
b. R insulin
c. Humulin
d. Huinsulin
3. Identify the route of administration for ear drops :

A Oral administration
B Parenteral administration
C Topical administration
4. Identify the category of drug which acts to prevent blood from clotting :
A. Analgesic
B. Antibiotic
C. Anticoagulant
D. Antidiuretic
5. Identify the term used to describe an injection that is given just under the skin of an
animal :
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Epidural
UNIT 2
1. Drugs for which "first-pass" pulmonary uptake may exceed 65% of injected dose:
A) fentanyl
B) alfentanil
C) sufentanil
D) meperidine
E) all of the above
2. Drug(s) which exhibit(s) a high hepatic" first-pass" effect:

A) lidocaine
B) propranolol
C) both
D) neither
3. Renal excretion factor most likely to be sensitive to drug ionization state:

A) glomerular filtration
B) passive tubular reabsorption
4. Driving force in drug movement in aqueous diffusion model:

A) active transport-- energy requiring
B) facilitated transport
C) drug concentration gradient
5. Drugs least likely to penetrate across membranes:

A) protein-bound drugs
B) charged drugs
C) neutral drugs
UNIT 3
1. An “orphan drug” is:
a) A very cheap drug
b) A drug which has no therapeutic use
c) A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease
d) A drug which acts on Orphanian receptors
2. A prodrug is:
a)An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
b)The prototype member of a class of drugs

c)The oldest member of a class of drugs
d)A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation
3. Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with

Phlebitis?
a)Subcutaneous
b)Intravenous
c)Intraspinal
d)Intradural
4. Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs:

a) Produces faster responses
b) Is more painful
c) Is unsuitable for depot preparations
d) Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
5. High plasma protein binding:

a)Generally makes the drug long acting
b)Increase volume of distribution of the drug
c)Minimize drug interactions
d)Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
UNIT 4
1. On what does Phase 1 clinical testing test?

A. Animal subjects
B. Healthy human volunteers
C. Widespread differentiated population
D. People with the target disease/condition
2. On what does Phase 2 clinical trials test?
A. Animals
3. On what does Phase 3 trials test?
A. Animals
4. Which one is NOT a reason promising compounds might be abandoned:
A. Safety/toxicity issues
B. Poor absorption or ineffectiveness
C. Manufacturing difficulties
D. Generic erosion
5. Which is the primary goal/major milestone of preclinical development?
A. Filing an IND application with the FDA
B. Identifying the target population for the lead compound that is being developed
C. Aligning the development process with the strategic aims of the company
D. To determine anticipated revenue
UNIT 5
1. How many types of vitamins are there?

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
2. Which of following is included in fat soluble vitamins?

a. Vitamin A and C
b. Vitamin A, D,E and K
c. Vitamin B and C
d. Vitamin A and B
3. Malarial parasites are treated with drug containing

A. penicillin
B. paludrine
C. aspirin
D. morphine
4. Enzymes, antibodies, hormones and hemoglobin are examples of

A. Fibrous proteins
B. glandular proteins
C. globular proteins
D. Enzymatic proteins
5. Hormone production is a function related to

A. hypothalamus
B. pons
C. hippocampus
D. medulla

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2010 REGULATIONS SYLLABUS – B.

1. the term ecology was coined by

1. Soil pollution is caused by

1. BOD of a river water is found very high. This means water

1. ________ is the phenomenon where the earth retains heat.

SBTX1001 CELL BIOLOGY

2. Nucleus are absent in

3. The major aminoacids in histones are

4. Major difference between plant cell and animal cell by

5. It is the smallest cell

2. The enzymes phospholipase and acetyltransferase essentially helpful in integrity of

3. Series of cell division is

4. The average cell cycle span of a human cell?

5. Spindle fibres are composed of

6. structure that can be observed at the surface of centromere during metaphase

2. the resting membrane potential is mainly determined by

3. The process requires membrane proteins

d) Receptor mediated endocytosis

4. The endocytosis is used by the cells to

5. Transport a single type of molecule known its concentration gradient

2. Full form of growth factor EFG stands for

3. The harmonbes which is produced by goandotrophs cells of PG ,

4. The function of c AMP dependent protein kinase is

5. The c AMP is synthesized from ATP by the action of enzyme

2. In a normal human being number of chromosomes is

3. Pigments containing bodies which are bounded by membrane are called

1. In word Lysosoma, 'lyso' means splitting and 'soma' means

2. Kingdom Animalia includes

3. Which among the following come under Gram-positive eubacteria?

4. As compared to light microscope, the resolving power of electron microscope is

5. The differential staining property of Gram staining is primarily due to

2. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?

3. Actinomycetes' are known as

5. Identify the order of lytic cycle

2. Moist heat destroys microbes by

3. Tyndallisation is the method of sterilization using________

4. Choose the correct ones for decreasing order of resistance to sterilization

5. All of the following disinfectant contains heavy metal EXCEPT

3. The average size of cells during the exponential phase of growth is

5. Colony-forming units per ml is the unit of _____________

1. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally

2. A mixture of gases composed of methane (50-80%), carbon dioxide (15-40%), nitrogen

2. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through uses of?

Which one of the following statement is correct?

c. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers

4. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be

4. The pedigree chart shows

5. The innate tendency of offspring to resemble their parents is called

2. The number of autosomes in humans

3. Chromosome is thickest during

2. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

3. RNA molecules that act as enzymes are

4. Organelles in the cell – protein systhesis

5. OKAZAKI fragments are known for

3. Bacteria composed of single chromosomes , having single copy of gene known as

4. genetic material of bacteria is composed of a single stranded

5. Extra chromosomal genetic elements plasmids are autonomously replicating

2. DNA requires which of the following?

4. The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia is an example of

SBTX1004 - MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

1. Considering Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) structure, backbone outside double helix is

a. sugar and nitrogen

3. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?