PPSC Competitive Exam For The Post of Network Engineer: Question Paper Along With Answer Key

PPSC Competitive Exam for the Post of
Network Engineer
Question Paper Along with Answer Key
Date: 21st June, 2014

Time: 03: 00 PM to 05:00 PM
Total Number of Questions: 100
Q 1.
Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?
Options:
A) Modem
B) Protocols
C) Gateway
D) Multiplexer
Correct Option: Option “A”

Q 2.
The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps
modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate
for a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to
Options:
A) 0.099
B) 0.009
C) 0.991
D) 0.999
Correct Option: Option “B”

Q 3.
Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
Options:
A) Router
B) Bridge
C) Repeater
D) Switch

Q 4.
What terminates VPNs at a primary location?
Options:
A) Router
B) ASA
C) Head-end device
D) Software client
Correct Option: Option “C”

Q 5.
What wizard in SDM can be used to assist in choosing a VPN?
Options:
A) VPN Design Guide
B) IPSec Wizard
C) VPN Recommendation Guide
D) IPSec Guide

Q 6.
The network layer concerns with
Options:
A) bits
B) frames
C) packets
D) none of the options

Q 7.
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN?
Options:
A) Slower data transmission
B) higher error rate
C) interference of transmissions from different computers
D) All of the options
Correct Option: Option “D”

Q 8.
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Options:
A) allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts
B) provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and the
Internet Protocol Software on another
C) reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to individual
application programs and take action to correct the problem

Q 9.
Our company has a LAN in its downtown office and has now set up a LAN in the manufacturing
plant in the suburbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources between the two LANs,
what type of device(s) are needed to connect them? Choose the most correct answer.
Options:
A) Modem
B) Cable
C) Hub
D) Router

Q 10.
Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
Options:
A) routing
B) inter-networking
C) congestion control

Q 11.
The term 'duplex' refers to the ability of the data receiving stations to echo back a confirming
message to the sender. In full duplex data transmission, both the sender and the receiver
Options:
A) cannot talk at once
B) can receive and send data simultaneously
C) can send or receive data one at a time
D) can do one way data transmission only

Q 12.
RIP stands for :
Options:
A) Routing Information Protocol
B) Route Internet Protocol
C) Router Information Protocol
D) Route Intranet Protocol

Q 13.
BGP Stands for
Options:
A) Bridged Gateway Protocol
B) Border Gateway Protocol
C) Bridge Gateway Protocol
D) Border Gone Protocol

Q 14.
IEEE 802.11 stands for :-
Options:
A) Wireless LAN
B) Wired LAN
C) Bluetooth technology
D) Wi-MAX

Q 15.
In University of Hawaii, Norman Abramson discovered :-
Options:
A) Aloha
B) Repeaters
C) Bridge
D) Switch

Q 16.
CSMA stands for :-
Options:
A) Carrier Sense Multiple Access
B) Carrier Switch Multiple Access
C) Carrier Switch Medium Access
D) Control Sense Multiple Access.

Q 17.
Contention is
Options:
A) One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of devices
B) a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal
C) the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same time
D) a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service
among stations attached to the network

Q 18.
Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect hits of transmitted data by receiving
Options:
A) 100 photons
B) 200 photons
C) 300 photons
D) 400 photons

Q 19.
Satellite-Switched Time-Division Multiple Access (SS/TDMA) is
Options:
A) the method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any time.
B) a medium access control technique for multiple access transmission media
C) a form of TDMA in which circuit switching is used to dynamically change the channel
assignments

Q 20.
When you ping the loopback address, a packet is sent where?
Options:
A) On the network
B) Down through the layers of the IP architecture and then up the layers again
C) Across the wire
D) through the loopback dongle

Q 21.
Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from
one machine to another?
Options:
A) FTP
B) SNMP
C) RPC

Q 22.
Which of the following device is used to connect two systems, especially if the systems use
different protocols?
Options:
A) Hub
B) bridge
C) gateway
D) repeater

Q 23.
Which of the following TCP/IP protocol allows an application program on one machine to send a
datagram to an application program on another machine?
Options:
A) UDP
B) VMTP
C) X.25
D) SMTP

Q 24.
A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would
require a:
Options:
A) telegraph line
B) simplex lines
C) mixedband channel

Q 25.
What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID, assuming a default subnet mask?
Options:
A) 192
B) 192.168.10
C) 0.0.0.5
D) 51

Q 26.
Which of the transport layer protocols is connectionless?
Options:
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) FTP
D) SMTP

Q 27.
What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?
Options:
A) 127.0.0.1
B) 255.0.0.0
C) 255.255.0.0
D) 255.255.255.0

Q 28.
Which layers of the OSI determines the interface of the system with the user?
Options:
A) Network
B) Application
C) Data link
D) Session

Q 29.
The default port number for the HTTPS Protocol is :-
Options:
A) 99
B) 80
C) 443
D) 400

Q 30.
The slowest transmission speeds are those of
Options:
A) twisted-pair wire
B) coaxial cable
C) fiber-optic cable
D) Copper cable

Q 31.
Q31. A noiseless 3 KHz Channel transmits bits with binary level signals. What is the maximum
data rate?
Options:
A) 3 Kbps
B) 6 Kbps
C) 12 Kbps
D) 24 Kbps.

Q 32.
Carrier is
Options:
A) One or devices more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of
B) a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal
C) the condition when two or more sections attempt to use the same channel at the same time
D) that provides a data stations attached to the network

Q 33.
.The standard suit of protocols used by the Internet, Intranets, extranets and some other
networks.
Options:
A) TCP/IP
B) Protocol
C) Open system
D) Internet work processor

Q 34.
What can greatly reduce TCP/IP configuration problems?
Options:
A) WINS Server
B) WINS Proxy
C) DHCP Server
D) PDC

Q 35.
In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____.
Options:
A) equal to the remainder at the sender
B) Zero
C) Nonzero
D) the quotient at the sender

Q 36.
Which of the following statements is correct for the use of packet switching?
Options:
A) the subdivision of information into individually addressed packets in conjunction with
alternative routing arrangement enabled the transmission path to be altered in the event of
congestion or individual link failure
B) the employment of additional intelligence within the network enabled more sophisticated error
control and link control procedures to be applied
C) by employing wide bandwidth circuits for the trunk networks substantial economies through
extensive sharing of capacity could be achieved.

Q 37.
DNS can obtain the ................. of host if its domain name is known and vice versa.
Options:
A) Station address
B) IP address
C) Port address
D) Checksum

Q 38.
A front-end processor is
Options:
A) a user computer system
B) a processor in a large-scale computer that executes operating system instructions
C) a minicomputer that relieves main-frame computers at a computer centre of communications
control functions
D) None of the options

Q 39.
Which of the following security solutions uses the same key for both encryption and
authentication?
Options:
A) wpa
B) wpa 2
C) WEP
D) 802.11i

Q 40.
A communication device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a
Options:
A) Concentrator
B) Modifier
C) Multiplexer
D) Adder

Q 41.
Eight stations are competing for the use of a shared channel using the 'Adaptive tree Walk
Protocol'. If the stations 7 and 8 are suddenly become ready at once, how many bit slots are
needed to resolve the contention?
Options:
A) 7 slots
B) 5 slots
C) 10 slots
D) 14 slots

Q 42.
TCP/IP ................. layer corresponds to the OSI models to three layers.
Options:
A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Session
D) Transport

Q 43.
. Which of the following applications allows a user to access and change remote files without
actual transfer?
Options:
A) DNS
B) FTP
C) NFS
D) Telnet

Q 44.
The data unit in the TCP/IP layer called a .....
Options:
A) Message
B) Segment
C) Datagram
D) Frame

Q 45.
What is the full form of PING ?
Options:
A) Packet Internet Groper.
B) Protocol Internet Groper
C) Packet Intranet Gateway
D) Protocol Internet Gateway

Q 46.
Which of the following OSI layers correspond to TCP/IP's application layer?
Options:
A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Session

Q 47.
Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a .......
Options:
A) File Server
B) Router
C) Printer Server
D) Gateway

Q 48.
In FDDI(Fiber Distributed Data Interface), data normally travel on ..................
Options:
A) The primary ring
B) The Secondary ring
C) Both Primary Rings & Secondary Ring
D) Neither Primary Ring NOR Secondary Ring

Q 49.
What is an SSID used for on a WLAN?
Options:
A) To secure the WLAN
B) To manage the WLAN settings
C) To identify the WLAN
D) To configure the WLAN AP

Q 50.
In a ................topology, if there are n devices in a network, each device has n-1 ports for cables.
Options:
A) Mesh
B) Star
C) Bus
D) Ring

Q 51.
what is the correct order of encapsulation?
Options:
A) Data, segment, packet, frame, bits
B) Data, frame, packet, segment, bits
C) Bits, data, packet, frame
D) Bits, frame, data, packet

Q 52.
where is the safety ground connected for computer?
Options:
A) Exposed metal parts
B) The monitor
C) The mouse
D) The network connection

Q 53.
What is called when two bits from two different communicating computers are on a shared-
medium at the same time?
Options:
A) Latency
B) Dispersion
C) collision
D) Obstruction

Q 54.
The network area within which data packets originate and collide is called a ----------------?
Options:
A) Network segment
B) Collision segment
C) Network domain
D) Collision domain

Q 55.
What is another name for a rollover cable?
Options:
A) An inverted cable
B) A console cable
C) A cross connect cable
D) A patch cable

Q 56.
Which best describes collision in Ethernet network?
Options:
A) The result of having non OSI compliant protocols on the network
B) The effect when two nodes have the same MAC address
C) The result of two nodes transmitting at the same time
D) The effects of having too many repeaters in a network

Q 57.
The default port number for the HTTP Protocol is :-
Options:
A) 440
B) 80
C) 90
D) 21

Q 58.
Layer 3 switch recognizes
Options:
A) MAC address
B) IP address
C) Both MAC address & IP address
D) None of the options
Correct Option: Option “ C”

Q 59.
Convert the decimal number 24032 to hex?
Options:
A) ABCD
B) ADE3
C) 6DE0
D) 5DE0

Q 60.
Convert the hex number 3F4B to a decimal number?
Options:
A) 26203
B) 16204
C) 16203
D) 12345
Q 61.
a frame is a _________
Options:
A) layer 2 PDU
B) layer 3 PDU
C) an encapsulated packet
D) both layer 2 PDU and an encapsulated packet

Q 62.
which of the following describe Token-Ring?
Options:
A) Data transfer rates of 4 mbps or 16 mbps
B) can physically use a star topology
C) can only be implemented with fiber
D) both Data transfer rates of 4 mbps or 16 mbps and can physically use a star topology

Q 63.
how does a token ring topology differ from an Ethernet topology?
Options:
A) token ring is deterministic
B) token ring networks do not face problems with collisions
C) neither "token ring is deterministic" nor "token ring networks do not face problems with
collisions"
D) both "token ring is deterministic" and "token ring networks do not face problems with
collisions"

Q 64.
one of the primary reasons FDDI is extremely reliable is because__________?
Options:
A) of its dual ring design
B) it is a CSMA/CD network
C) stations are guaranteed their turn to transmit
D) both of its dual ring design and it is a CSMA/CD network

Q 65.
if you have to connect a FDDI between buildings, which mode of fiber would you use
Options:
A) inter mode
B) intra mode
C) multi mode
D) single mode

Q 66.
which of the following is an accurate description of an Ethernet variety?
Options:
A) 10Base-T uses cat5 cable and transmits at 10 Mbps
B) 100Base-Fx is multi-mode fiber that transmits at 10 Mbps
C) both 10Base-T uses cat5 cable and transmits at 10 Mbps and 100Base-Fx is multi-mode fiber
that transmits at 10 Mbps are correct

Q 67.
where should the main distribution facility (MDF) be located if a LAN with an extended star
typology is used in a multi-story building?
Options:
A) on the first floor
B) next to the POP.
C) on one of the middle floors
D) in the basement

Q 68.
what type of cabling provides interconnections between wiring closets, wiring closets and POP,
and between buildings that are part of the same LAN?
Options:
A) token ring cabling.
B) backbone cabling.
C) coaxial cabling
D) horizontal cabling.

Q 69.
What is the full form of MIME ?
Options:
A) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
B) Multimedia Intranet Mail Extension
C) Multipurpose Intranet Mail Extension
D) Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

Q 70.
802.11i is implemented at which layer of the OSI model?
Options:
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 7

Q 71.
Nat Borenstein discovered which internet mailing extension ?
Options:
A) SMTP
B) MIME
C) DNS
D) PPP

Q 72.
what is the one-hand rule?
Options:
A) only touch devices with one hand so any electrical current will not flow through the heart
B) when setting up the network only use one bare hand-always wear a glove on at least one hand.
C) both "only touch devices with one hand so any electrical current will not flow through the
heart" & "when setting up the network only use one bare hand-always wear a glove on at least
one hand."

Q 73.
what is the maximum distance backbone cabling if a single-mode, fiber optic cable is used to
connect the horizontal cross-connect to the main cross-connect?
Options:
A) 500 meters
B) 1000 meters
C) 2500 meters
D) 3000 meters

Q 74.
which address is an example of a broadcast address for a class B network?
Options:
A) 123.255.255.255
B) 123.14.2555.255
C) 123.13.0.0
D) 123.1.1.1

Q 75.
how many host addresses are available to a class C network?
Options:
A) 254
B) 255
C) 256

Q 76.
how many subnets can a class C network use?
Options:
A) 245
B) 26
C) 256

Q 77.
how many bits can be borrowed to created a subnet for a class C network?
Options:
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

Q 78.
for what purpose does the router "AND" the subnet mask to the destination address?
Options:
A) to derive the host numbers so it knows where to sent the packet
B) to derive subnet mask and compare it with information in routing table
C) to derive which network and subnet to sent the packet to

Q 79.
with a class C of 197.15.22.31 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many bits have been
borrowed to created a subnet?
Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3

Q 80.
what is the minimum number of bits can be borrowed to form a subnet?
Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4

Q 81.
Which of the following is not a factor in choosing a firewall?
Options:
A) A. The applications that your network uses
B) A. Information in your security policy
C) How much traffic will pass through the firewall
D) Security audit measures in place

Q 82.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to fiber optic cables?
Options:
A) They are not suitable for short distance connections.
B) In multimode fibres, the transmitted light beam is 'bounced' off the cladding as it travels down
the core.
C) Data transmitted over fibre is susceptible for electromagnetic interferences.
D) Single mode fibres have not a higher bandwidth than multimode fibres.

Q 83.
Two workstations A and B each have an RJ45 port need to be connected to a 10Base T network
hub having RJ45 ports. The distance from A to hub is 75 meters and from B to hub is 160 meters.
What would be the acceptable way to implement this connectivity requirement?
Options:
A) Co-axial cable to A and wire-less link to B.
B) UTP cables to A and B.
C) UTP cable to A and fibre cable to B with media converters.
D) UTP cable to A and wire-less link to B.

Q 84.
Which of the following is correct regarding Token Ring networks?
Options:
A) Whenever a network node wishes to send a frame, it has to wait for the free token to arrive.
B) The IEEE 802.6 specifies the token ring MAC protocol.
C) After initialisation of a token ring network, a token can be transmitted in both directions of the
network.
D) A token ring with a shielded twisted pair transmission medium can have a minimum data rate
of 16Mbps.

Q 85.
Which of the following is correct with regard to Frame Relay?
Options:
A) Allows the use of variable length packets.
B) Performs extensive error checking.
C) Acknowledges each frame transmitted.
D) Can be considered as a broadband packet switching technology.

Q 86.
In asynchronous data transmission.
Options:
A) Each character/byte is encapsulated within a start bit and a parity bit.
B) Each character/byte is encapsulated within a start bit and one or more stop bits.
C) No communication control characters are used.
D) Start bit is essential but the stop bit(s) is/are optional for each transmitted character/byte.

Q 87.
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Time Division Multiplexing?
Options:
A) Statistical TDM can not makes efficient use of the bandwidth if the data stream is probabilistic.
B) TDM requires the transmitter and receiver to be synchronized periodically
C) TDM performs efficiently if the data stream is probabilistic.
D) Statistical TDM is efficient if the data stream is deterministic.

Q 88.
Which of the following error correction methods can be successfully employed on a simplex
communication line?
Options:
A) Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) code.
B) A Hamming code.
C) A RSA code.
D) A Huffman code.

Q 89.
On a full duplex data link, the most widely used error recovery technique is
Options:
A) Backward Error Correction (BEC).
B) Forward Error Correction (FEC).
C) Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ).
D) Huffman error correction technique.

Q 90.
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(ADSL) technology?
Options:
A) ADSL has two different data rates, one for incoming and another for outgoing connections.
B) ADSL is a 64 Kbps leased line.
C) ADSL needs special cabling infrastructure.
D) The same domestic telephone connection can not be shared for normal telephony as well as
for ADSL.

Q 91.
Any electronic device on a network is called a:
Options:
A) Node.
B) Hub.
C) Router.
D) Cable.

Q 92.
Which piece of equipment installs in a PC and allows the PC to connect to a network?
Options:
A) Hub.
B) Access Router.
C) Graphic Accelerator Card.
D) Network Interface Card.

Q 93.
Centralized database:
Options:
A) Is best for security and management.
B) Has all or part of the database copied at 2 or more computers.
C) Is dispersed among multiple computer systems.
D) Has problem of keeping all up to date data.

Q 94.
The disadvantage of a replicated database is:
Options:
A) Contention among multiple processors attempting to access data simultaneously.
B) Slow response time.
C) High storage cost.
D) All processors loose access to data during disk failure.

Q 95.
What requirement of distributed data processing is critical for the design and enhancement of
the system?
Options:
A) Availability.
B) Performance.
C) Connectivity.

Q 96.
What is the destination address of a frame containing an ARP request?
Options:
A) A broadcast IP address.
B) A broadcast MAC address.
C) The default getaway IP address.
D) The default getaway MAC address.

Q 97.
What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the
X.25 standard?
Options:
A) 4
B) 2
C) 6
D) 3

Q 98.
In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
Options:
A) network layer
B) data link layer
C) transport layer
D) session layer

Q 99.
TCP-IP Model does not consist of following layers :-
Options:
A) Application layer
B) Physical layer
C) Session layer
D) Data link layer.

Q 100.
BGP Routing Protocol is uses following algorithm during it’s execution :
Options:
A) Bellman Ford Algorithm
B) Insertion Sort Algorithm
C) Dijkstra Algorithm
D) Kruskal Algorithm

PPSC Competitive Exam For The Post of Network Engineer: Question Paper Along With Answer Key

Caricato da

Informazioni sul documento

Titolo originale

Copyright

Formati disponibili

Condividi questo documento

Condividi o incorpora il documento

Opzioni di condivisione

Hai trovato utile questo documento?

Questo contenuto è inappropriato?

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

PPSC Competitive Exam For The Post of Network Engineer: Question Paper Along With Answer Key

Caricato da

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

PPSC Competitive Exam for the Post of

Question Paper Along with Answer Key

Date: 21st June, 2014

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “A”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “D”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “B”

Correct Option: Option “ C”

Correct Option: Option “C”

Correct Option: Option “D”