30 Sets IBPS SO Agriculture Question Papers

qwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmq
wertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmqw
ertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmqwer
tyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmqwerty
IBPS SO Agriculture Officer Digest
40 Sets of Quiz
uiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmqwertyui
Mentor for Bank Exams
opasdfghjklzxcvbnmqwertyuiop
asdfghjklzxcvbnmqwertyuiopas
dfghjklzxcvbnmqwertyuiopasdf
ghjklzxcvbnmqwertyuiopasdfgh
jklzxcvbnmqwertyuiopasdfghjkl
zxcvbnmqwertyuiopasdfghjklzx
cvbnmqwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcv
bnmqwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbn
mqwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnm
qwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmq
wertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmqw
Set – 1
1. The microbes play an important role in the catalytic complicated chemical reactions of
(a)Wine productions (b) Fermentation (c) Dairy product (d) All of the above
2. Which among the following contain only one type of nucleic acid?
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Dead virus (d) All
3. The plant virus was first isolated in crystalline form
(a) TMV (b) Baceriophages (c) Cyanophages (d) HIV
4. The molecular scissors use3d to cut DNA into specific genes of interest are called
(a) Exonucleases (b) Restriction endonucleases (c) Ligases (d) Polymerases
5. The quickest way to produce homozygous breeding lines from heterozygous parents is through:
(a) Half-seed technique (b) doubled haploids (c) Introgression (d) Aneuploidy
6. Which of the following organelle lack membrane?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosomes (c) Microtubules (d) Peroxisomes
7. Virions are _____
(a) DNA viruses (b) RNA viruses (c) Naked DNA viruses (d) Naked RNA viruses
8. DNA is present in
(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) All of the above
9. DNA replication occur in which stage of cell division?
(a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase (c) S phase (d) M phase
10. Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm, it is due to
(a) Bt is repellent to bollworm (b) Bt is contact poison for bollworm (c) Bt is stomach poison; it changes the
permeability of stomach due to generation of pores in alkaline environment of stomach (d) Bt is causing death
due to asphagsiation of insect
11. Bacterial genes lack
(a) Exons (b) Introns (c) Prometers (d) Operator
12. The terminal codons are
(a) AUG, GUG, GUC (b) UAG, UAA, AGA (c) UAA, UAC, AUG (d) UAA, UAG, UUA
13. Which sequence in case of eukaryotes is important for mRNA tailing?
Mentor for Bank Exams Page 1

(a) GAGAGA (b) GAATTC (c) UACGAC (d) UACUAAC
14. Transfer of genes (gene flow) in between different species is known as
(a) Vertical gene flow (b) Horizontal gene flow(c) Lateral gene flow (d) Side gene flow
15. Most commonly used organism in SCP is
(a) Bacillus (b) E. coli (c) Spirulina (d) Pseudomonas
16. The bond between sugar and nitrogenous base in case of DNA is known as
(a) Gycosidic bond (b) Phosphodiester bond (c) H-bond (d) Peptide bond
17. Which of the following amino acid participate in urea cycle?
(a) Argininie (b) Lysine (c) Tryptophan (d) Histidine
18. The techniques to clone the first gene were developed in
(a) 1972 (b) 1987 (c) 1976 (d) 1977
19. Biosensers are used as
(a) Purified enzymes (b) Antibodies (c) Whole microbial cells (d) Any of the above
20. Which enzyme plays important role in reverse transcription?
(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase (c) Reverse transcriptase (d) Ribonuclease
Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18.
(a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
Set – 2
1. Fresh water prawns yield eggs at
(a) 100 nos./g (b) 500 nos./g (c) 1000 nos./g (d) 5000 nos./g
2. The inland fish production is almost how much % of total fish production in India
(a) Over 50% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 40%
3. Minamata Bay diseases in Japan happened due to
(a) Methyl Mercury (b) Cadmium poisoning (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Methyl isocyanides
4. Indian hill trout is
(a) Schizothorax(b) Rohu (c) Marieus bola (d) Catla
5. For spawing of 1 Kg of carp, how much water is required in hatchery

(a) 1 m3 (b) 10 m3 (c) 50 m3 (d) 80 m3
6. Larvae of fresh water mussle (L. marginalis) is
(a) Tocophor (b) Pedivelligen (c) Glochidium (d) Spat
7. Widely distributed and cultured fish species in world is
(a) Silver carp (b) Grass carp (c) Common carp (d) L. rohita
8. Central Institute of Fresh water Aquaculture is located at
(a) W.B (b) Bihar (c) M.P. (d) Bihar
9. The main causative agent of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndorme (EVS) is
(a) Aphanomyces invadens (b) A. hydrophilla (c) Pseudomonas maxima (d) Myxobolus cyprinid
10. Species contributimg largest to fish catch in India
(a) Indian mackerel (b) Sardin (c) Bombay duck (d) Tuna
11. Indian river prawn is associated with
(a) M. rosenbergii (b) M. lameraii (c) M. malcomsonii (d) M.idea
12. The national fish of India is
(a) Rastrelliger kanagurta (b) Labeo rohita (c) Catla Catla (d) Clarias batrachus
13. The fertilized eggs of Catla take about _ to _ hrs for hatching at 30°C
(a) 10 to 12 (b) 12 to 14 (c) 14 to 18 (d) 18 to 24
14. Match the following:
1. LH – RH – A A. Minnow
2. Lates calcarifer B. Salmon
3. Pangasius pangasius C. Toxicant
4. Azolla D. Insect
5. Calcium carbide E. Fertilizer
6. Smolt F. Predator
7. Esomus dandricus G. Nitrogen fixation
8. Potamogeton H. Reproduction
9. Anisops I. Grass carp
10. Biogas slurry J. Molluscs

Answer of matching
(a) 1 H, 2 F, 3 J, 4 G, 5 C, 6 B, 7 A, 8 I, 9 D, 10 E
(b) 1 A, 2 J, 3 F, 4 E, 5 C, 6 I, 7 H, 8 D, 9 B, 10 G
(c) 1 F, 2 J, 3 H, 4 G, 5 C, 6 B, 7 A, 8 I, 9 D, 10 E
(d) 1 H, 2 F, 3 H, 4 C, 5 B, 6 G, 7 I, 8 A, 9 E, 10 D
(e) 1 J, 2 B, 3 A, 4 C, 5 D, 6 E, 7 F, 8 G, 9 H, 10 I
ProductProtein
(A) Milk (i) keratin
(B) Egg (ii) Myosin
(C) Meat (iii) Casein
(D) Wool (iv) Albumen
(a) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (b) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (d) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
16. Highest milk producing country in the world is
(a) USA (b) CIS (c) Switzerland (d) India
Revolutions Related to
(A) White (i) Fishery
(B) Blue (ii) Agriculture
(C) Yellow (iii) Milk
(D) Green (iv) oil seeds
(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, d-iv (c) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (d) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-ii
18. Mycology is a study of
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Fungi (d) Parasites
19. Antibiotics are products of
(a) Bacteria and fungi (b) Fungi and parasites (c) Parasites and bacteria (d) Fungi and viruses
20. Bird flu is caused by
(a) Avian adenovirus (b) Avian influenza virus (c) Avian poxvirus (d) Avian leucosis virus
Answers:
1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(d) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(c) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(a)
20.(b)
Set – 3
1. Stomata are regulated by
(a) N (b) P (c) K (d) Ca
2. Maximum density of water exists at
(a) 0°C (b) 4°C (c) 40°C (d) 100°C
3. Plant lost water in transpiration upto the extent of
(a) 80% (b) 90% (c) 95% (d) 99%
4. The chemical nature of GA3 is
(a) Phenolic (b) Terpene (c) Purine (d) Indole
5. Guttation is not favoured under
(a) Low humidity (b) High humidity (c) Low root pressure (d) High humidity and low root pressure
6. The xylem and phloem elements in the plant are surrounded by a layer of living cells called
(a) Casparian strips (b) Pericycle (c) Stele (d) Endodermis
7. A plant hormone, which is primary regulator of abscission process is
(a) Ethylene (b) Auxin (c) ABA (d) Gibberellins
8. Growing of plant in soilness nutrient solution is referred as
(a) Aeroponics (b) Hydroponics (c) Xeroponics (d) Thaloponics
9. Most commonly grown crop plants are included in
(a) halophytes (b) Glycophytes (c) Sciophytes (d) Xerophytes
10. Optimum temperature for maximum crop development in wheat is
(a) 10-15°C (b) 20-25°C (c) 25-30°C (d) 30-35°C
. Little leaf a d osette of apple, hite ud of aize a e the defi ie s pto s of
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Cl (d) Mo
12. In citrus plant, die back diseases is the result of deficiency of
(a) N (b) P (c) Boron (d) Copper

13. Acid rains are due to which of the following gases?
(a) CO2 and CO (b) Ozone and CO2 (c) NO2 and SO2 (d) NH3 and CO2
14. Which one of the following is a most harmful pollutant by automobiles?
(a) SO2 (b) CO (c) N2O (d) CO2
15. Callus is induced to form roots in the medium of
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinins only (c) Morecytokinins than auxin (d) Moreauxin than cytokinins
16. Blue light is always less efficient in photosysthesis than
(a) White (b) Red (c) Orange (d) Violet
17. Protein content in pulses ranges from
(a) 10-15% (b) 20-25% (c) 25-30% (d) 40-45%
18. Protein content of cereals ranges from
(a) 8-12% (b) 12-15% (c) 15-20% (d) 20-25%
19. Natural inhibitor of IAA oxidases is
(a) Caffeic Acid (b) Coumaric acid (c) ABA (d) Lactic Acid
20. How many ATP are required to produce 1 mole of hexose in photosynthesis?
(a) 8 (b) 18 (c) 28 (d) 38
Answers:
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(b) 11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(b)
20.(b)
Set – 4
1. P content in DAP is
(a) 20% (b) 36% (c) 46% (d) 50%
2. Chemical formula of single superphosphate is
(a) Ca(H2PO4) (b) CaHPO4 (c) Ca3(PO4) (d) Ca(H2PO4) CaSO42H2O
3. Concentration of nitrogen in soil air is
(a) 70% (b) 74% (c) 78% (d) 82%
4. Which of the following is correct?
(a) P2O5 × 0.44 = P (b) P2O5 × 2.29 = P (c) P2O5 × 0.83 = P (d) P2O5 × 1.20 = P

5. Sulphur content (%) in potassium sulphate is
(a) 50 (b) 22 (c) 17 (d) 12
6. Sodium adsorption ratio (SAR) can be calculated by using of formula
(a) SAR = Na+ / (b) SAR = Na+ / (c) SAR = Ca2+ + Mg2+ / (d) SAR = Na+ /
7. The exchangeable sodium ratio (ESR) can be calculated as
(a) ESR = Exchangeable (C2+ + Mg2+)/Exchangeable Na+
(b) ESR = Exchangeable Na+ /
(c) ESR = Exchangeable Na+ / Exchangeable (Ca2+ + K+)
(d) ESR = Exchangeable Na+ / Exchangeable (Ca2+ + Mg2+)
8. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Soil order Pronunciation
(a) Entisols Recent
(b) Aridisols Arid
(c) Histosols Organic
(d) Vertisols Pedalfor
9. A clay solid must contain at least _____ clay separate, to be designated a clay
(a) 70% (b) 80% (c) 40% (d) 35%
10. Select the wrong pair from the following given below:
(a) Stregite : FePO4.2H2O
(b) Variscite : AlPO4.2H2O
(c) Gibbsite : Al2O3.3H2O
(d) Hematite : FeOOH
11. Boron content in borax (suhaga) is
(a) 11% (b) 25% (c) 19% (d) 39%
12. The rate of weathering is generally high in
(a) Arid tropical climate (b) Arid temperate climate (c) Humid tropical climate (d) Humid temperature
climate
13. Which one of the following pair is mismatched?

(a) L value : Larsen
(b) Integrated soil test approach: Colwell
(c) Biogas : Desai
(d) Law of limiting factor : Lundegardh
14. Tick out the incorrect match:
List I (Ore) List II (Mineral)
(a) Dolomite CaCO3.MgCO3
(b) Gibbsite Al2O3.3H2O
(c) Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O
(d) Geothite Fe2O3
15. The main constituent of biogas is
(a) H2 (b) H2S (c) N2 (d) CH4
16. Nalgonda technique is used for
(a) Chloride (b) Fluoride (c) Bromide (d) Cadmium
17. How many agro-climatic zones are found in India?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18
18. Which of the following anzymes is involved in the primary carboxylation in C4 plants?
(a) RUBP Carboxylase (b) PEP (c) Oxygenase (d) Carboxylase
19. The pH of normal rain is
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.6 (c) 4.6 (d) 3.6
20. Which harmful gas is emitted by masonry building materials, even ground water?
(a) H2S (b) Radon (c) Ammonia (d) CO2
Answers:
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18.
(b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
Set – 5
1. Which state has the largest acreage and highest production of sugarcane in country?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) U.P. (d) Bihar

2. The best suited temperature for growth of sugarcane lies between
(a) 15-20°C (b) 20-25°C (c) 26-32°C (d) 32-35°C
3. Consider the following pairs of crops and varieties and select the pair which is not correctly matched.
(a) Barley : Clipper (b) Cotton : Sujata (c) Cowpea : Pusa Phalguni (d) Green gram : UPAS 120
4. Botanical name of Ragi is
(a) Elesine coracana (b) Echinochloa frumentacea (c) Panicum miliacium (d) eleusine panica
5. Stomata closing can be induced by
(a) Kaoline (b) Linseed oil (c) 2, 4 – D (d) PMA
6. Virachola isocrates is a fruit pest of:
(a) Mango (b) Citurs (c) Apple (d) Pomegranate
7. Callosobruchus chinesis is storage pest of:
(a) Wheat (b) Gram (c) Rice (d) Groundnut
8. Certain secretions attract the opposite sex of the same species which are termed as:
(a) Hormones (b) Kairomones (c) Synomones (d) Pheromones
9. Following insecticide is safely recommended on vegetables
(a) Carbaryl (b) Aldicarb (c) Endrin (d) Malathion
10. Following insecticide belongs to organophophate group
(a) Sulphur (b) Carbofuran (c) Malathion (d) Endosulfan
11. Aphids and white flies are effectively controlled by
(a) Fumigants (b) Stomach poisons (c) Contact insecticides (d) Systemic insecticide
12. The spotted boll warm is
(a) Earias vittela(b) Earias insulana (c) Helicoverpa armigera (d) Pectinophora gossypiella
13. Sugarcane is recently infested by following wooly aphid
(a) Caratovacuno lanigera (b) Eriosoma lanigera (c) Aphis gossypii (d) Lipaphis spp
14. Nicotine cause failure of nervous system and commercially available as
(a) Nicotine sulphate (b) Nicotine phosphate (c) Nicotine
15. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
Insecticide Trade name

(a) Endosulfan Thiodan
(b) Chlorpyriphos Dursban
(c) Dimethoate Rogor
(d) Phorate Nuvacron
16. Central Insecticides Laboratory (CIL) is located at:
(a) Gurgaon (b) Faridabad (c) Ghaziabad (d) Kanpur
17. Transgenic crop which have highest area in world is:
(a) Soybean (b Maize (c) Cotton (d) Mustard
18. Father of insect physiology is
(a) Starling (b) R. H. Painter (c) Wigglesworth (d) Snodgrass
19. Silver fish belonging to the order
(a) Protura (b) Hymenoptera (c) Thysanura (d) Pronura
20. Common mollusicide is
(a) Chlorphyriphos (b) Atropine (c) Endosulfan (d) Meta aldehyde
Answers:
1.(c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a)
18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
Set – 6
1. Fresh water prawns yield eggs at
(a) 100 nos./g (b) 500 nos./g (c) 1000 nos./g (d) 5000 nos./g
2. The inland fish production is almost how much % of total fish production in India
(a) Over 50% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 40%
3. Minamata Bay diseases in Japan happened due to
(a) Methyl Mercury (b) Cadmium poisoning (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Methyl isocyanides
4. Indian hill trout is
(a) Schizothorax(b) Rohu (c) Marieus bola (d) Catla

5. For spawing of 1 Kg of carp, how much water is required in hatchery
(a) 1 m3 (b) 10 m3 (c) 50 m3 (d) 80 m3
6. Larvae of fresh water mussle (L. marginalis) is
(a) Tocophor (b) Pedivelligen (c) Glochidium (d) Spat
7. Widely distributed and cultured fish species in world is
(a) Silver carp (b) Grass carp (c) Common carp (d) L. rohita
8. Central Institute of Fresh water Aquaculture is located at
(a) W.B (b) Bihar (c) M.P. (d) Bihar
9. The main causative agent of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndorme (EVS) is
(a) Aphanomyces invadens (b) A. hydrophilla (c) Pseudomonas maxima (d) Myxobolus cyprinid
10. Species contributimg largest to fish catch in India
(a) Indian mackerel (b) Sardin (c) Bombay duck (d) Tuna
11. Indian river prawn is associated with
(a) M. rosenbergii (b) M. lameraii (c) M. malcomsonii (d) M.idea
12. The national fish of India is
(a) Rastrelliger kanagurta (b) Labeo rohita (c) Catla Catla (d) Clarias batrachus
13. The fertilized eggs of Catla take about _ to _ hrs for hatching at 30°C
(a) 10 to 12 (b) 12 to 14 (c) 14 to 18 (d) 18 to 24
1. LH – RH – A A. Minnow
2. Lates calcarifer B. Salmon
3. Pangasius pangasius C. Toxicant
4. Azolla D. Insect
5. Calcium carbide E. Fertilizer
6. Smolt F. Predator
7. Esomus dandricus G. Nitrogen fixation
8. Potamogeton H. Reproduction
9. Anisops I. Grass carp

10. Biogas slurry J. Molluscs
Answer of matching
(a) 1 H, 2 F, 3 J, 4 G, 5 C, 6 B, 7 A, 8 I, 9 D, 10 E
(b) 1 A, 2 J, 3 F, 4 E, 5 C, 6 I, 7 H, 8 D, 9 B, 10 G
(c) 1 F, 2 J, 3 H, 4 G, 5 C, 6 B, 7 A, 8 I, 9 D, 10 E
(d) 1 H, 2 F, 3 H, 4 C, 5 B, 6 G, 7 I, 8 A, 9 E, 10 D
(e) 1 J, 2 B, 3 A, 4 C, 5 D, 6 E, 7 F, 8 G, 9 H, 10 I
ProductProtein
(A) Milk (i) keratin
(B) Egg (ii) Myosin
(C) Meat (iii) Casein
(D) Wool (iv) Albumen
(a) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (b) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(d) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
16. Highest milk producing country in the world is
(a) USA (b) CIS (c) Switzerland (d) India
Revolutions Related to
(A) White (i) Fishery
(B) Blue (ii) Agriculture
(C) Yellow (iii) Milk
(D) Green (iv) oil seeds
(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, d-iv
(d) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-ii (c) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
18. Mycology is a study of
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Fungi (d) Parasites
19. Antibiotics are products of

(a) Bacteria and fungi (b) Fungi and parasites (c) Parasites and bacteria (d) Fungi and viruses
20. Bird flu is caused by
(a) Avian adenovirus (b) Avian influenza virus (c) Avian poxvirus (d) Avian leucosis virus
Answers:
1.(c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (b)
Set – 7
1. Haryali yojna is related to
(a) Soil management (b) Water management (c) Crop management (d) Air management
2. _____ Sugar found in germinating seed in large amount
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose (c) Cellobiase (d) Lactose
3. Maximum moisture content for safe storage in wheat seed is
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 7 (d) 20
4. Murate of potash is
(a) K2SO4 (b) KCI (c) KNO3 (d) K2HPO4
5. Loose smut is
(a) Internally seed borne (b) Externally seed borne (c) Air borne (d) Water borne
6. Gauch – 1 is a variety of
(a) Castor (b) Groundnut (c) Sesamum (d) Soybean
7. The cutter bar of a tractor operated on owner makes _____ strokes/min
(a) 400 – 500 (b) 500 – 750 (c) 800 – 1200 (d) 1250 – 1500
8. Power operated Paddy transplanter is being manufactured in India by
(a) M/s Escorts Ltd. (b) M/s Mitsubishi Ltd (c) M/s Eicher tractors Ltd (d) M/s Mahindra Ltd
9. Calorific value of high speed diesel is ______ kcal/Kg
(a) 9500 (b) 10550 (c) 11550 (d) 12500
10. The requirement of air for full combustion of 1 kg fuel in S.I. engine is about ____ kg
(a) 12.5 (b) 14.2 (c) 15.1 (d) 17.6
11. The requirement for full in litres/hour by a 35 hp tractor is:

(a) 2.5 (b) 3.0 (c) 3.5 (d) 4.0
12. If S is slip and Va is the actual travel speed and Vt is theoretical wheel speed then
(a) S = (Vt – Va)/Vt (b) S = 1 – Vt/Va (c) S = Va/Vt (d) S = Vt/Va
13. Disc angle in disc plough is:
(a) 30 – 35 (b) 34 – 37 (c) 38 – 40 (d) 42 – 45
14. The upper safe noise level for machine operator is:
(a) 85 db (b) 100 db (c) 110 db (d) 115 db
15. A reaper is used for:
(a) cutting crop (b) cutting and windrowing (c) cutting and threshing (d) Cutting grass
16. Sub soilders are operated at maximum depth of
(a) 30-40 cm (b) 45-75 cm (c) 75-90 cm (d) 10-20 cm
17. For operating rotavator in trashy soils, which lines are better?
(a) L-shaped (b) Hook shaped (c) Backward curved (d) Straight blade
18. Soil strength is determined by
(a) Penetrometer (b) Micrometer (c) Hydrometer (d) Dynamometer
19. Compression pressure in petro engine cylinder is:
(a) 6-10 kg/cm2 (b) 10-20 kg/cm2 (c) 20-35 kg/cm2 (d) 35-45 kg/cm2
20. Length of cutter bar for the tractor operated mower or vertical conveyor reaper is
(a) 1.5 – 3.0 m (b) 3.0 – 4.5 m (c) 4.5 – 5.5 m (d) > 5 – 5 m
Answers:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18.
(a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
Set – 8
1. Supplementary pollination is recommended in:
(a) Sunflower (b) Soya bean (c) Mustard (d) Groundnut
2. The ratio between area of crop irrigated and quantity of water applied to crop is termed as:
(a) Duty(b) Delta (c) Base period (d) Irrigation quotient
3. Which of these species of Rhizobium is classified under slow growing type?

(a) R. mililoti (b) R. trifolli (c) R. lupini (d) R. leguminosarum
4. What is the seed rate of isabgol?
(a) 6-8 kg/ha (b) 10-12 kg/ha (c) 13-15 kg/ha
5. How much percent of its urea requirement is met through indigenous production by India?
(a) 65 (b) 75 (c) 85 (d) 95
6. The growth regulator that stimulates cell elongation is:
(a) Ethylene (b) Abscissic acid (c) Cytokinin (d) Auxin
7. Golden rice was designed to produce ________, a precursor of Vitamin A
(a) Beta carotene (b) Alfa carotene (c) Gamma carotene (d) Zeta carotene
8. In India, highest productivity (kg/ha) of bajara is in the state of:
(a) Rajasthan (b) Haryana (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
9. The other name of IRS-P6, a state-of-art satellite mainly for agricultural application is:
(a) RESOURCESAT-1 (b) RESOURCESAT-2 (c) CARTOSAT-2B (d) RISAT-2
10. In which of the following crops, calcium nutrition is of greater significance?
(a) Mustard (b) Soyabean (c) Groundnut (d) Sunflower
11. Detachment and transport of soil practices by a concentrated flow of water is called:
(a) Raindrop erosion (b) Sheet erosion (c) Interrill erosion (d) Rill erosion
12. Spraying of kaoline reduces transpiration from leaf surface by:
(a) Stomatal closure (b) Forming a film (c) Increased reflectance (d) Increased hydration
13. The worldwide radio-navigation system formed by a constellation of 24 satellites is:
(a) GIS (b) GPS (c) VRT (d) DSS
14. With which of the following crops, Cichorium intybus weed is associated?
(a) Berseem (b) Wheat (c) Oat (d) Napier grass
15. The first step in traversing for mapping is:
(a) Study of geology of area (b) Field mapping of area
(c) Reconnaissance surveying of area (d) Observing relief of area
16. Upon flooding, the phosphorus availability in soil:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases

(c) First increases then decreases (d) First decreases then increases
17. The most practical method of Anonla propagation is:
(a) By seeds (b) Budding (c) Grafting (d) Cutting
18. In India fully ripened and dehydrated development stage of date palm is termed as:
(a) Gandora (b) Doka (c) Dang (d) Pind
1 . Whi h of these a iaties is of “hi a Mi hi ?
(a) Yolo wonder (b) Pusa jwala (c) Jawahar-218 (d) Phule jyoti
20. For small seeded types, the seed rate (kg/ha) of water melon is:
(a) 1-1.5 (b) 2-2.5 (c) 3-3.5 (d) 4-4.5
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18.
(d) 19. (a) 20. (c)
Set – 9
1. Commonly used host in gene cloning is
(a) E. coli (b) Pseudomonas (c) Fungi (d) Bacillus
2. Bioreactors are used for
(a) Production of ethanol (b) Production of enxymes on large scale
(c) Production of cell culture on large scale (d) All of the above
3. Double stranded DNA can be isolated from ssDNA or RNA by using
(a) Ion exchange column (b) Sephadex column (c) Hydroxyapatite column (d) Affinity
chromatography (e) None of these
4. Who is credite with discovery of Bacterea?
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Leewenhoek(c) Needham (d) Tyndall
. Faultati e f ee li i g N fi i g a te iu
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter (c) Klebsiella (d) All of the above
6. Vitamin B2 is produced by
(a) Ashbya gossypii (b) Pseudomonas (c) Brevibacterium sp. (d) Spirulina
7. First Antifugal antibiotic

(a) Cucloheximide (b) Aureofungin (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin
8. Neomycin is produced by
(a) S. Nouesii (b) S. fradiae (c) S. erthyreus (d) S. Venezuelea
9. Liquid N2 has a temperature
(a) -196°C (b) -186°C (c) -176°C (d) -172°C
10. Which of the following is/are Bio-insecticides?
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis(b) Bacillus popiliae (c) Both a and b (d) E. coli
11. Father of Soil Microbiology is
(a) Winogradsky (b) Beirjenick (c) Spermi (d) Hiltner
(i) Amylase (A) Bacillus sp.
(ii) Invertase (B) Saccharromyces cersevisiae
(iii) Proteases (C) Aspergillus niger
(iv) Lipases (D) Rhizopus sp.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) A B C D
(b) B C D A
(c) C A B D
(d) D C B A
(i) Whisky (A) Grape wine
(ii) Rum(B) Potato
(iii) Brandy (C) Grain mash
(iv) Vodka (D) Molasses
Codes:
(b) C D A B
(c) B A C D
(d) C D B A
(i) Tryptophan (A) Brevibacterium sp.
(ii) Valine (B) Entero-bactericeae
(iii) Glutamic acid (C) Claviceps
(iv) Lysine (D) E.coli
(b) C A D B
(c) B C A D
(d) B A C D
(e) D C A B
15. The main function of endoplasmic reticulum (rough ER) is
(a) Fat synthesis (b) Protein synthesis (c) Disease resistance (d) Chlorophyll synthesis
16. Photorespiration is high in
(a) Maize (b) Sugarcane (c) Pineapple (d) Rice
17. Tick out which is not correctly matched
(a) Chloroplast – chlorophyll
(b) Chromoplast – red pigments
(c) Leucoplast – storage proteins
(d) Nucleolus – fat
18. Ribosomes are produced in
(a) ER (rough) (b) Nucleolus (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast
19. Latent heat of vaporization (water to vapour) is
(a) 80 cal (b) 540 cal (c) 586 cal (d) 620 cal
20. Transpiration is measured by
(a) Lysimeter (b) Potometer (c) Tensionmeter (d) Auxanometer
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17.
(d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
Set – 10

1. Which process is also known as glycolate pathway?
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration β-oxidation (d) Photorespiration
2. The transpiration ratio is highest for?
(a) C3 plants (b) C4 plants (c) CAM plants (d) C2 plants
3. Photosynthesis inhibited by 20% O2 in
(a) C3 plants (b) C4 plants (c) CAM plants (d) C2 plants
4. For C3 plants, the optimum temperature for photosynthesis is
(a) 15-25°C (b) 25-30°C (c) 30-47°C (d) 35°C
5. Respiratory quotient (RQ) for fatty acids is
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.33 (d) 2.0
.K e s le p odu es
(a) 18 ATP (b) 30 ATP (c) 32 ATP (d) 36 ATP
7. First time IAA from human urine was isolated by
(a) Kogl (b) Went (c) Adns (d) Miller
8. Polymer of cellulose is
a β-D glucose α-glucose (c) Fructose (d) Glucose
9. Green house gas for global warming is
(a) O2 (b) CH4 (c) SO2 (d) CO2
10. Enzyme used to cut double stranded RNA is
(a) DNAase (b) Reverse transcriptase (c) Restriction endonuclease (d) Lipase
11. What is used to multiplication ratio in potato and groundnut is, respectively?
(a) 1:4 and 1:8 (b) 1:8 and 1:4 (c) 1:10 and 1:8 (d) 1:8 and 1:10
12. The term cybrid refers to the
(a) Somatic hybrids (b) Gametic hybrids (c) Both a and b (d) Cell Division
13. Pusa Arunima and Pusa surya are new varieties of
(a) Mango (b) Guava (c) Citrus (d) Ber
14. Pusa Ratna is a new variety of
(a) Wheat (b) Bajra (c) Rice (d) Mungbean

15. Which element is considered as energy currency for the plant?
(a) N (b) P (c) K (d) Mo
16. The purpling along the leaf edges is the characteristic deficiency symptom of
(a) P (b) K (c) B (d) Fe
17. Fe is an important of enzymes
(a) Nitrogenase (b) Nitrate reductase (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
. Fe tilize s o tai i g CI− io s a e ot suita le fo
(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato (c) Wheat (d) Pigeonpea
19. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter cause nitrification are an obligate
(a) Autotrophic bacteria (b) Heterotrophic becteria (c) Both a and b (d) Saprophytes
20. Biuret in urea applied as a foliar spray in citrus fruits should not be more than
(a) 0.25% (b) 0.50% (c) 0.75% (d) 1.50%
Answers:
1.(d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17.
(c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
Set – 11
1. Mycorrhizae is the association of
(a) Higher plants & fungi (b) algae & fungi (c) Lower plants & fungi (d) Both a and b
2. When was Ganga action plan launched?
(a) June 1985 (b) December 1985 (c) May 1984 (d) July 1984
. Pu ge i hilli is due to p ese e of:
(a) Capsaicin (b) Sulphur (c) Amides (d) Magnesium
4. Browning in Cauliflower is due to deficiency/excess of:
(a) Boron (b) Nitrogen (c) Copper (d) Molyndenum
5. Best method of vegetative propagation in Aonla is:
(a) Veneer grafting (b) Air layering (c) Chip budding (d) Patch budding
6. Vegetative parthenocarpy is foundin:
(a) Grape (b) Banana (c) Fig (d) Seedless guava

7. In India the productivity of banana is highest in:
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra
8. An ideal fruit for making jelly should be rich in
(a) Pectin and sugars (b) Acids and proteins
(c) Sugars and acids (d) Pectin and acids
9. In India, which of the following fruit has the highest production?
(a) Mango (b) Citrus (c) Banana (d) Grapes
10. Leaf scorching in Mango is due to
(a) Chloride toxicity (b) Chloride deficiency (c) N deficiency (d) P deficiency
11. Black tip in mango is a physiological disorder due to
(a) Chloride toxicity (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Deficiency of Mg (d) Excess Boron
12. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Phalsa : Tiliaceae (b) Litchi : Sapindaceae
(c) Apple : Rosaceae (d) Mulberry : Apocynaceae
13. Rice crop needs
(a) Warm and humid climate (b) Hot and humid climate
(c) Dry and hot conditions (d) Cold and dry climate
14. The genus oryza includes
(a) 14 species (b) 22 species (c) 24 species (d) 30 species
15. Productivity of rice is highest in
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab (c) West Bengal (d) Uttar Pradesh
16. Photoperiodically, rice is a type of ______ plant
(a) Long day (b) short day (c) day neutral (d) Intermediate
17. For transplanting one hectare area of rice how much area is sufficient for nursery raising
(a) 100 m2 (b) 500 m2 (c) 100 m2 (d) 1500 m2
18. Dead heart and white head damage to rice is caused by
(a) Gall midge (b) Leaf roller (c) Army worm (d) Stem borer
19. gene responsible for dwarfing characters in rice is

(a) Tift 23 A (b) Dee-gee-woo-gen (c) Norin – 10 (d) Opaque – 2
20. Directorate of wheat Research (DWR) is located at
(a) Hyderabad (b) New Delhi (c) Karnal (d) Bikaner
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18.
(d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
Set – 12
1. Highly evolved insect order is
(a) Hymenoptera (b) Coleoptera (c) Hemiptera (d) Diptera
2. Which pesticide is suitable for controlling the white grub?
(a) Malathion (b) Chlorpyriphos (c) Phorate (d) Aldicarb
3. Tundu disease (yellow ear rot) of wheat caused by Clavibacter tritici is usually associated with
(a) Heterodera evenae (b) Anguina tritici (c) Meloidogyne incognita (d) Pratylenchulus sp.
4. Tick out the sexual spores of fungi
(a) Chlamydospores (b) sporangiospores (c) Zoospores (d) Zygospores
5. The black wart disease of potato specially confined to Darjeeling hills is causes by pathogen
(a) Synchytrium endobioticum (b) Plasmodiophora brassicae (c) Sclerospora sorghi (d) Plasmopoa viticola
6. The disease caused by Leptosphaeria sacchari in sugarcane is
(a) Red rot (b) Black rot (c) Ring spot (d) Brown rot
7. The symptoms of powdery mildew of pea (caused by Erysiphe polygoni) first appears on
(a) Stem (b) Roots (c) Leaves (d) Flowers
8. Wilt of pigeonpea is caused by
(a) Fusarium udum (b) Gibberella indica (c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) Aspergillus flavus
9. The pathoge f i e last o otte e k is
(a) Ustilago tritici (b) Pyricularia oryszae (c) Alternaria alternate (d) Plasmopora vitticola
10. In India the leaf rust of coffee was first time recorded in
(a) 1856 (b) 1870 (c) 1880 (d) 1943
11. Photoreceptors (Rods and cones) of eye are present in

(a) Sclera (b) Cornea (c) Retina (d) Pupil
. Let do of ilk is i itiated the ho o e
(a) Prolactin (b) Lactogen (c) Oxytocin (d) Lactopoietin
13. Cattle and buffalo belongs to family
(a) Bovidae (b) Suidae (c) Equidae (d) Cammelidae
14. Surathi buffalo breed is a native for
(a) Orissa (b) W.B. (c) U.P. (d) Gujarat
15. Maximum fat (%) in milk of
(a) Murrah (b) Mehsana (c) Bhadawari (d) Zafrabadi
16. Highest milk yielder is
(a) Murrah (b) Mehsana (c) Zafrabadi (d) Bhadawari
. Co ilk s p otei is alled
(a) Zein (b) Lactabumin (c) Casein (d) Albumin
18. First clone Dolly was made in
(a) Sheep (b) Goat (c) cow (d) Buffalo
19. Maximum producer of wool
(a) Rajasthan (b) Haryana (c) U.P. (d) Punjab
20. Temperature for LTLT pasteurization
(a) 61-63°C (b) 42-49°C (c) 62-65°C (d) 51-65°C
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (a) 20. (a)
Set – 13
1. Towed force can be given by:
(a) + 0.04 (b) + 0.04
(c) + 0.046 (d) 1.24W + 0.046
2. An adiabatic process takes place at:
(a) Constant heat (b) Constant enthalpy (c) Constant temperature (d) Constant pressure

3. Heavy draft o a disc plough is due to:
(a) Blunt disc (b) Furrows too wide (c) Loose bearings (d) Sharp disc
4. In principle of increasing risk, the nonequity capital used will be
(a) At increasing rate (b) At decreasing rate (c) At constant rate (d) Both a and b
5. Choose the best measure to find worthiness of investment
(a) Payback period (b) B-C ratio (c) NPV (d) IRR
6. In the rational region of production function, choice of indicator is
(a) Factor – factor price ratio (b) Factor – product price ratio
(c) Product – product price ratio (d) Factor – Product quantity
7. When MC is at lowest, MP will be
(a) Decreasing (b) Maximum (c) Increasing (d) Minimum
8. Marketable surplus is given by
(a) MS = P + C (b) MS = P + C/2 (c) MS = P – C (d) MS = C – P
9. Present value of future money is calculated by use of:
(a) (b) (c) P (1 + i)t (d)
10. What is bullet loan?
(a) Single repayment loan, having amortization (b) Single repayment loan, having no amortization
(c) Multi repayment loan, having amortization (d) Multi repayment loan, having no amortization
11. consumer is neither worse off nor better off than before in
(a) Hicks substitution effect (b) Marshall substitution effect
(c) Shitsky substitution effect (d) Ratchet substitution effect
12. Estimates of national income in India are annually prepared by
(a) RBI (b) CSO (c) National Income Committer (d) Planning Commission
13. Deficit financing means
(a) Relying on foreign aid (b) spending by borrowing
(c) Not spending for development (d) Spending excess of revenue
14. Effective rate of protection for domestic country is calculated by
(a) e = (b) e = (c) e = (d) e =

. “D‘ s a e i to effe t f o
(a) 1950 (b) 1960 (c) 1970 (d) 1990
16. Stagflation is referred to
(a) High unemployment and high growth (b) High employment and high growth
(c) High unemployment and low growth (d) High growth and low employment
17. If liberal monetary policy is undertaken, then
(a) LM curve shifts right (b) LM curve shifts left
(c) IS curve shifts right (d) IS curve shifts left
18. GNP deflator is
(a) Nominal GNP/Nominal GDP (b) Nominal GNP/Real GDP
(c) Nominal GNP/Real GDP (d) Real GNP/Nominal GDP
19. Mahalwari system was introduced by
(a) William Bentinck (b) Lord Curzon (c) Thomas Munro (d) Dalhousie
20. Law of substitution is given by
(a) Marshall (b) Smith (c) Gossen (d) Pigon
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (a)
Set – 14
1. Monopoly receives entire consumer surplus
(a) First degree (b) Second degree (c) Third degree (d) Fourth degree
2. When MPP is zero
(a) MC is maximum (b) MC become vertical (c) MC is minimum (d) MC becomes horizontal
3. When the demand curve is relatively flatter, then demand is
(a) Relatively inelastic (b) Relatively elastic (c) Unitary elastic (d) All
4. The resources use efficiency in agriculture is measured by
(a) Sammation of production elasticities (b) Ratio of opportunity cost to marginal value product
(c) Regression coefficient (d) Least cost combination

5. Which one of the following pairs of characteristics and institutional arrangement is not correct?
(a) Individual ownership and individual operatorship of land Better farming
(b) Individual ownership and collective operatorship of land Cooperative joint farming
(c) Collective ownership and individual operatorship of land Cooperative tenant farming
(d) Collective ownership and individual operatorship of land Collective farming
6. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using code given below:
List I (Act/order) List II (Year)
A. Prevention of food adulteration act 1. 1967
B. Fruit produces order act 2. 1975
C. Solvent extracted oil (control) order 3. 1954
D. Vegetable oil products 4. 1956
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
(e) 3 4 2 1
7. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development came into existence on
(a) July 12, 1982 (b) July 22, 1984 (c) October 15, 1986 (d) August 10, 1983
8. Value added Tax is a/an
(a) Direct tax (b) Indirect tax (c) Both a and b (d) Cannot be classified
9. Inflations is measured by
(a) WPI (b) CPI (c) Both a and b (d) PPI
10. The most frequent occurred value of data or whose frequency is maximum is known as
(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Mode (c) Median (d) GM
11. Which measure of central tendency requires data arrangement in ascending or descending order for its
estimation?
(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Median (c) Mode (d) Harmonic mean

12. The mean of the binomial distribution is
(a) np (b) npq (c) (d)
13. Arithmetic mean and variance is always equal in
(a) Normal distribution (b) Poisson distribution (c) Binomial (d) All of these
(e) None of these
. χ is al ulated the help of fo ula
a χ2 = Σ O – E)2/E χ2 = Σ O – E)/E2
χ2 = Σ O – E 2/ΣO d χ2 = Σ E – O 2/Σ O 2
15. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Etawath pilot project – Albert Mayer
(b) Crow more food campaign – J.L. Nehru
(c) Co-operative movement – M.K
(d) Sewagram Project – Vinoba Bhave
16. The first KVK was established in 1974 at:
(a) Nagpur (b) Nilokheri (c) Ludhiana (d) Pondicherry
17. The full form of A.T.M. A. is:
(a) Agriculture Technology Management Association (b) Agriculture Technology Management Agency
(c) Agriculture Technology Mission Agency (d) Agriculture Technology Monitoring Agency
18. Method of mass communication is:
(a) Demonstration (b) Farm visit (c) Group discussion (d) News paper
. Kisa Bha ti pe iodi al is pu lished f o :
(a) Delhi (b) Lucknow (c) Hisar (d) Pant Nagar
20. Sevagarm attempt was started under the supervision of:
(a) F.L. Bryne (b) R.N. Tagore (c) J.L Nehru (d) M.K. Gandhi
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18.
(d) 19. (d)20. (d)
Set – 15

1. Maximum sheep population in
(a) USA (b) Australia (c) UK (d) India
2. Ranikhet is a _____ disease
(a) Viral (b) Nematode (c) Bacterial (d) Fungal
3. Egg shell made up of
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) Ca3(PO4)2 (c) CaCO3 (d) CaO
4. Yellow colour of egg is due to
(a) Carotene (b) Anthocyanin (c) Vitamin B (d) Xanthophyll
5. Gestation period of cow is ______ days
(a) 283-285 (b) 290-292 (c) 142-145 (d) 152-154
. Ma ek s disease fou d i
(a) Cattle (b) Poultry (c) Sheep (d) Goat
7. Tallest breed of sheep
(a) Deccani (b) Bikaneri (c) Nellore (d) Nilgiri
8. Wo ld s ____% uffalo a e fou d i I dia
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50
9. Indian Veterinary Research Institute is located at
(a) Delhi (b) Karnal (c) Izatnagar (d) Jhansi
10. Ovarian cycle in cow and buffalo is
(a) 30 days (b) 27 days (c) 1 days (d) 28 days
11. The compression ratio of diesel engines are in the order of:
(a) 4 to 8 : 1 (b) 9 to 13 : 1 (c) 1 to 20 : 1
12. Large tilt angle is best for:
(a) Hard soil (b) Sticky and non scouring soil (c) Dry and cemented soil (d) Soft soil
13. The movement of soil across a tool surface without sticking is called as
(a) Pulverisation (b) Inversion (c) Scouring (d) Turning
14. Electrical resistance of a thermistor
(a) Increases as the temperature increases

(b) Decreases as the temperature increases
(c) Remains unaffected with change in temperature
(d) Increases at low temperature and decreases at high temperature
15. V – shaped sweeps are best suited for:
(a) Primary tillage (b) Stubble mulch tillage (c) Rotary tillage (d) Minimum tillage
16. A tractor seat suspension should have its natural frequency is the range of:
(a) 0.5 to 2.0 cycles/s (b) 2.0 to 4.o cycles/s
(c) 4.0 to 6.0 cycles/s (d) 3.0 to 5.0 cycles/s
17. Pressure angle in spur gears ranges:
(a) 0 – 5° (b) 5 – 10° (c) 14 – 20° (d) 20 – 25°
18. Weight transfer is denoted is:
(a) W = (b) W = (c) W = (d) W =
19. In a C.I. engine, the compressor pressure inside the cylinder normally in the range of _____ kg/cm2:
(a) 15 – 25 (b) 25 – 35 (c) 35 – 45 (d) 45 – 35
20. Main combustible constituent of biogas is:
(a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Butane (d) Carbon dioxide
Answers:
1.(b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c)14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. ( c) 18.
(a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
Set – 16
1. Panchayati Raj was first time started on 2nd October, 1959 in:
(a) Bombay (Maharashtra) (b) Nagaur (Rajasthan)
(c) Shimla (Himachal Pradesh) (d) Patna (Bihar)
2. Extension is:
(a) education for all village people (b) teaching through learning by doing and seeing is believing
(c) two way channel (d) All of these
3. Which of the following scheme is exclusively meant for self-employment for rural youths?
(a) NREP (b) TRYSEM (c) IRDP (d) DPAP

4. Dry farming in India is extensively practiced in
(a) Punjab plains (b) Deccan region (c) Kanara plains (d) Coromendal plains
5. Which is the main source of irrigation of agriculture land in India?
(a) Tanks (b) River (c) Wells (d) Canals
6. The state with highest production of large cardamom in India is
(a) Meghalaya (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Sikkim (d) Assam
7. Which crop is sown in the largest area in M.P.?
(a) Jowar (b) Soyabeen (c) Rice (d) Wheat
. Whi h of these a i o a ids a e p ese t i Qualit P otei Maize i highe ua tities?
(a) Histidine and isoleucine (b) Leucine and methionine
(c) Threonine and valine(d) Lysineand tryptophane
9. How many three budded sets will be required for planning two hectare sugarcane crop?
(a) 20000 – 25000 (b) 30000 – 40000 (c) 70000 – 80000 (d) 90000 – 100000
10. Excavated ponds are constructed advantageously in ____ areas for run off collection.
(a) Hilly (b) Flat (c) Both of these (d) Desert
11. Which of these planting system of orchards has the provision of quick growing and early maturing filler
trees?
(a) Hexagonal (b) Triangular (c) Rectangular (d) Quincunx
12. Which part of the groundnut plants, the grubs of Holotrichia consanguinea eat?
(a) Roots (b) Stem (c) Flowers (d) Leaves
13. The use of DDT in agriculture was withdrawn by the government in the year?
(a) 1979 (b) 1989 (c) 1999 (d) 2009
14. What is the threshold level of nymphs per leaf of cotton jassid to undertake spraying of insecticides?
(a) 1-2 (b) 3-4 (c) 5-6 (d) 7-8
15. The Plant Qurantine (Regulation of Import into India) order was passed in the year:
(a) 1914 (b) 1947 (c) 1993 (d) 2003
. Ce eal C st Ne atode is:
(a) Heterodera avene (b) Abfunia tritia (c) Globodera pallida (d) Meloidogyne incognita

17. Green ear disease of pearl-millet is characterized by:
(a) Gall information (b) Honey secretion (c) Rotting of ear (d) Bunchy appearance
18. The white blister disease in crucifers is caused by:
(a) Alternaria brassicicola (b) albugo candida (c) Bacillus cereus (d) Fusarium oxysporum
19. When two species of same genus are crossed, it is called hybridization
(a) Interspecific (b) Intraspecific (c) Intervarietal (d) Intercolonial
20. What degree of inbreeding depression is generally shown by self pollinated crops?
(a) High (b) Moderate (c) Low (d) Almost nil
Answers:
1.(b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7.(c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b)14. (a)15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (d)
Set – 17
1. A phenomenon wherein a single gene has more than one phenotypic effect is known as
(a) Pleiotropism (b) Epistasis (c) Hypostasis (d) Duplicate genes
2. Which one of the following is a rich source of protein ?
(a) Scytonema (b) Spirulina (c) Spirogyra (d) Stigonema
3. Glycolysis is also known as
(a) Gluconeogencsis (b) EMP Pathway (c) Hcxose monophosphate shunt (d) Photorespiration
4.Rate of photosynthesis higher in ______ light.
(a) White (b) Red (c) Green (d) Blue
5. The fruit ripening hormone is
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin
6. The largest herbarium in India located at
(a) New Delhi (b) Dehradun (c) Kolkata (d) Pune
7. International Rice Research Institute is in
(a) Hyderabad (b) Cuttack (c) Kenya (d) Manila
8. Obligate anaerobic bacteria can

(a) grow without oxygen and produce high energy (b) grow without oxygen and produce low energy (c)
have a fermentative metabolism and a respiratory chain (d) grow with or without oxygen and produce medium
energy
9. Which one of the following is the correct food chain ?
(a) Algae – insects – frog- peacock – snake (b) Algae – frog – insects – snake-peacock (c) Algae – frog –
insects – peacock – snake (d) Algae-insects-frog – snake-peacock
10. DNA and RNA are similar to each other because both
(a) have similar sugars (b) are nucleotide polymers (c) have similar pyrimidines (d) are double stranded
11. A simple technique has been developed in India by using the following organisms as biofertilizers.
(a) Azotobacter and Rhizobium (b) AzoHa and Azotobacter (c) AzoHa and Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter
and Nostoc
12.A sclerotium refers to a modified mycelium which is
(a) an underground structure (b) a food storing organ (c) a conidial type (d) a hard resting body
13. In paddy, the type of inflorescence is said to be
(a) Raceme (b) Panicle (c) Thyrsus (d) Cymatium
14. Botanical name of Pearl millet (Bajra) is
(a) Avena sativa (b) Zea mays (c) Eleusine coracana (d) Pennisetum typhoides
15. Which is the matching set in classification ?
(a) Neries, planaria, roundworm, earthworm (b) Millipede, crab, centipede, cockroach (c) Starfish,
jellyfish, cuttlefish, octopus (d) Sea-urchin, lobster, leech, locust
Answers:
1.(a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11.(a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
Set – 18
1. The insects excrete in the form of uric acid because
(a) Most of them are terrestrial (b) The circulatory system is open (c) The blood is colourless (d) most
of them are aquatic
2. Measurement of the rate of oxygen consumption in unit volume of water over a period of time is carried out
to determine
(a) Fermentation (b) Biogas generation (c) Biosynthetic pathway (d) Biological oxygen demand
3. Biosphere is made up of

(a) Organism (b) Organism and lithosphere (c) Organism, lithosphere and atmosphere (d) Organism,
lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere
4. Sudden mass death of fishes from oxygen depletion is more likely in the
(a) Eutrophic lakes (b) Oxalotrophic lakes (c) Oligotrophic lakes (d) Mesotrophic lakes
5. The sanctuary having maximum number of rare animals is
(a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Corbett National Park (c) Manas National Park (d) Dudhwa National
Park
. The fa ous Chipko Mo e e t is asso iated ith
(a) S.L. Bahuguna (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) H.N. Bahuguna
7. Red data book is famous for
(a) Extinct animals (b) Endangered animals and plants (c) Endangered animals (d) Important wildlife
8. Bottom layer of deep fresh water habitat is
(a) Hypolimnion (b) Epilimnion (c) Thermocline (d) Metalimnion
9. International Convention on Biological Diversity was ratified in the year
(a) 1971 (b) 1994 (c) 1973 (d) 1990
10. Which is considered as biological paradise in India ?
(a) Gulf of Mannar (b) Nilgiri Bio reserve (c) Sundarbans (d) Nanda Devi
11. National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) is located in
(a) Chennai (b) New Delhi (c) Lucknow (d) Bangalore
. Whi h of these is ofte alled as eH o ga ise ?
(a) Nucleus (b) Centriole (c) Nucleolus (d) Ribosome
13. The power house of the cell is
(a) Nucleus (b) Ribosome (c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosome
14. Hardness of woody tissue is due to
(a) Silica (b) Lignin (c) Cellulose (d) Suberin
15. Pea Seeds will germinate best if soaked in a jar containing
(a) H2 (b) 02 (c) N2 (d) C02
Answers:

1.(a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11.(c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b)
Set – 19
1. The shape of the growth curve is usually
(a) Inverted bell (b) Linear (c) Sigmoid (d) Zig-Zag
2. The forces that can change the frequency of an allele in a population are
(a) Forward mutation, gene conversion, neutral evolution and recombination (b) Selection, mutagenesis,
migration, inbreeding and random genetic drift (c) Dominance, family selection, fitness and diversification (d)
Gene interaction, gene transfer, gene mutation and outbreeding
3. The anticodon region is present in
(a) r-RNA (b) hn-RNA (c) m-RNA (d) t-RNA
4. In reptiles and birds, nitrogen is excreted in the form of
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid (c) Ammonia (d) Lipids
5. Which of the following techniques are used in assaying monoclonal antibodies ?
(a) Flow cytometry (b) FAG (c) HFLC (d) Scintillation Counter
6. Which of the following synthetic polypeptides ill fo a t iple heh .
(a) (Pro-Gly)n (b) (Phe-Gly-Gly)n (c) (Fro-Gly-Gly)n (d) (Gly-Pro-Pro-Gly)n
7. World Health Organisation (WHO) announced the eradication of small pox as a disease in the year
(a) 1988 (b) 1986 (c) 1977 (d) 1979
8. A disease that attacks many in a community simultaneously is
(a) an epidemic (b) a noscomial infection (c) a secondary infection (d) a bacteremia
. The te Mi o iolog as oi ed
(a) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (b) Robert Koch (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Julius Richard Petri
10. Tumour causing viruses are known as
(a) Oncogenic viruses (b) Para viruses (c) Tungro viruses (d) Variolaviruses
11. Red orange colour in saffron is due to
(a) XanthophyH (b) ChlorophyH (c) Crocetin (d) Polyphenols
12. Choose the correct answer. Beaten rice is also known as
(a) Flaked rice (b) Polished rice(c) Puffed rice (d) Popped rice

13. Spice bag is usually used in the processing of
(a) Sauce (b) Jam (c) Pickle (d) Nectar
14. Cereals are
(a) deficient in lysine and rich in methionine (b) rich in lysine and deficient in methionine (c) rich in lysine
and methionine (d) deficient in lysine and methionine
15. Roasting coffee beans improves the content of
(a) Pantothenic acid (b) Niacin (c) Riboflavin (d) Thiamine
Answers:
1.(c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11.(c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)
Set – 20
. This Biofe tilize is a it oge fi i g i o-organism, beneficial for non-leguminous as well as for vegetable
crops—
(a) Rhizobium (RHZ) (b) Azotobacter (AZT) (c) Azospirillum (AZS) (d) Blue Green Algae (BGA) (e)
Phosphate Solubilising (PSB) mobilizing bacteria
2. What is the Percentage of total area under Banana Cultivation in India presently, is cultivated by using
Tissue-culture (GMO) plantlets?
(a) 10 per cent (b) 15 per cent (c) 20 per cent (d) 25 per cent (e) 30 per cent
.As pe the e e t Mi o- edit “u it , hat pe e tage of total Mi o Fi a e I stitutio s MFls i

India serves less than, 10,000 clients (number of clients per MFI) ?
4. Fisheries Sector in India contributes what percentage of Agricultural— G oss Do esti P odu t GDP , as o
March 2007 ?
(a) 2.5 per cent (b) 3.5 per cent (c) 4.5 per cent (d) 5.5 per cent (e) 6.5 per cent
5. This agricultural product/horticultural crop requires 2 degree Celsius temperature and 90 per cent humidity
for storing in the cold storage—
(a) Mango pulp (b) Roses (c) Mushroom (d) Milk Products (e) Fish Products
6. The plan outlay for Irrigation Sector to total plan outlay in India was highest (12.5 percent) in this Five Year
Plan (FYP)—
(a) VIth Five Year Plan (b) VIIth Five Year Plan (c) VIIIth Five Year Plan (d) IXth Five Year Plan (e) Xth Five Year
Plan
7. The recommended ratio of use of NPK, the chemical fertilizer by farmers in India is—

(a) 2:2:2 (b) 3:2:1 (c) 4:2:1 (d) 5:2:1 (e) 6:2:1
8. This state is a leader in production and export of the Gherkins (Hybrid Cucumber) under the Contract
Farming—
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala (e) Maharashtra
. What should e the opti u spa i g i ete s fo pla ti g Pusa Na ha a iet of Papa a u de the High
Density Planting ?
(a) 1.25 m × 1.25 m . (b) 1.50 m × 1.50 m (c) 1.75 m × 1.75 m (d) 2.00 m × 2.00 m (e) 2.50 m × 2.50
m
10.Dramatic increase in food prices world over had severe consequences for third world countries (FAO, 2008).
How many countries in the world are now facing food crisis, because of this phenomenon?
(a) 35 countries (b) 36 countries (c) 37 countries (d) 38 countries (e) 39 countries
. Ho a out eaks of A ia I flue za H N e e e o ded i West Be gal a d T ipu a du i g Ja ua

2008 and May 2008 ?
(a) 37 (b) 39 (c) 40 (d) 41 (e) 42
. A o di g to D . C. ‘a ga aja Co ittee o Fi a ial I lusio , hat pe e tage of ‘u al

Population in India holds Bank Account ?
(a)18 percent (b) 24 per cent (c) 31 per cent (d) 35 per cent (e) 40 per cent
13. Which one of the following Indian States is the largest beneficiary or gainer of the SGSY– credit extended by
Banks during 2006–07 ?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Uttar Pradesh (e) None of these
14.This variety of Tomato is high yielding with good quality fruits and suitable for Jharkhand State for
cultivation-
(a) Swarna Lalima (b) Swarna Shyamali (c) Swarna Pratibha (d) Swarna Shree (e) Swarna
Manohar
15. How many plants/trees of Amrapali variety of mango could be profitably accommodated, when planted at
5.0 m × 5.0 m (square method) per hectare ?
(a) 1,400 plants (b) 1,500 plants (c) 1,600 plants (d) 1,700 plants (e) None of these
Answers:
1.(B) 2. (B) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (E) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (E) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (E)
Set – 21
1. Which one of the following Brinjal hybrid varieties rec ently released suitable for U.P. Punjab, Bihar and
Jharkhand—

(a) Kashi Sandesh (b) Swarna Shakti (c) Kashi Ganesh (d) HA BH-17 (e) HA BH-3
. “ eta “eedless‟ g ape a iet e e tl eleased IIH‘ Ba galo e, is suita le fo g o i g i ________
(a) North India (b) South India (c) Western India (d) Eastern India (e) All over the country
3.Which one of the following rice/paddy hybrid varieties having super fine grain, aromatic, matured within 120-
125 days and recently released for cultivation in Haryana, Delhi and Uttarakhand ?
(a) PA 6201 (b) Pusa RH 10 (c) KRH2 (d) RH 204 (e) Pant Sankar Dhan 3
. ‘a i “o ghu is a i po ta t op suita le fo ‘ai fed E os ste of this “tate—
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka (c) Gujarat (d) Bihar (e) Tamil Nadu
. This Agro-E os ste is ha a te ized lo , e ati ai fall ith high oeffi ie t of a iatio a d f e ue t
droughts in India—
(a) Irrigated agro-ecosystem (b) Arid agro-ecosystem (c) Coastal agro-ecosystem (d) Rainfed agro-
ecosystem (e) Hill and Mountain agroecosystem
. Leaf ‘ust is a se ious disease of this op a d till date, the e is o effe ti e a d e ologi all safe fu gi ide fo
controlling this disease—
(a) Sweet Potato (b) Grape (c) Rice (d) Wheat (e) Sorghum
7. What is botanical (Scientific) name of Safed Musli–a medicinal plant grown almost all over India ?
(a) Chlorophytum borivilianum (b) Curculigo orchioides (c) Piper longum (d) Solanum surattense (e) None
of these
8. Central Institute of Post-Harvest Engineering and Technology is located at—
(a) Abohar (Punjab) (b) Ludhiana (Punjab) (c) Bangalore (Karnataka) (d) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) (e)
Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
9. Which one of the following Castor hybrids, you will suggest for getting good yields for rainfed and irrigated
areas of Rajasthan State ?
(a) RHC 1 (VP-1 × TMV5-1) (b) DCH 6 (JP 65 × JI 96) (c) DCH 519 (M574 × DCS 78) (d) DCH 177 (DCP 9 × DCS
9) (e) None of these
.Whi ho eofthefollo i g i ed oppi g patte ou ouldsuggest to the fa e s fo getti g highe

economic benefits ?
(a) Bhindi + Spongegourd (b) Mango + Turmeric (c) Mango + Colocasia (d) Mango + Groundnut (e)
Colocasia + Turmeric
. Whi h o e of the follo i g “tates has eated O ga i Co odities Boa d to p o ote a d esto e alue
of foodcrops, which are mostly grown on marginal lands ?
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Jharkhand (d) Madhya Pradesh (e) Uttarakhand

12. The Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute is one of the premier Institute of Animal
Husbandry, is located at (HQ)—
(a) Hessarghatta (Karnataka) (b) Sunabada (Orissa) (c) Dhamrod (Gujarat) (d) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(e) Andeshnagar (Uttarakhand)
. What pe e tage of total ulti a le a ea i I dia is u de Ho ti ultu al C ops ?
. Natio al Ag i ultu al I su a e “ he e NAI“ as i ope atio i I dia si e—
(a) Rabi season 1999–2000 (b) Kharif season 1998–1999 (c) Rabi season 2000–2001 (d) Kharif season
2000–2001 (e) None of these
. Pusa A u i a is a i p oved hybrid variety of this crop relased by IARI, New Delhi—
(a) Mango (b) Guava (c) Grape (d) Citrus (e) Pomegranate
Answers:
1.(D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
Set – 22
1. As on 2007, how many Indian States/Union Territories (UTs) have partially modified their respective Acts
u de the Ag i ultu al Ma keti g ‘efo s ?
(A) 12 States/UTs (b) 13 States/UTs (c) 14 States/UTs (d) 15 States/UTs (e) 16 States/UTs
. What is the total E po t Ea i gs ‘s. oe i -05 from livestock, poultry and related products in India
?
(a) Rs. 2200 crore (b) Rs. 2250 crore (c) Rs. 2300 crore (d) Rs. 2350 crore (e) Rs. 5150
crore
3.Which o e of the follo i g “tates is leadi g o e ‘a ked fi st i p odu tio of Cut Flo e s i I dia ?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh (e) West Bengal
. To a o odate pla ts of A id Li e i o e he ta e a ea, hat should e the spa i g et ee t o

plants ?
(a) 5.5 m × 5.5 m (b) 6.0 m × 6.0 m (c) 6.5 m × 6.5 m (d) 7.0 m × 7.0 m (e) None of these
. Whi h o e of the follo i g Maize H ids , ou ill suggest to the farmers of Punjab State for growing in
‘a i seaso fo Highe Yields ?
(a) Vivek Hybrid (b) Vivek Hybrid 15 (c) Hybrid Sheetal (d) Deccan 115 (e) Pratap Hybrid Makka 1
. A o di g to Natio al “a ple “u e O ga izatio N““O , hich one of the following information

source is most availed by the Indian Farmers in getting farm information?

(a) Radio/TV (b) Fram Input Dealers (c) Progressive Farmers (d) Krishi Vigyan Kendras (e) Agricultural
University Specialist
7. More than 40 per cent of the 197 Private Sugar Mills in India are located in this State—
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamilnadu (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Andhra Pradesh (e) Karnataka
8. What is the subsidy component to the total loan amount/total investment available to SC, ST, woman and
othe disad a taged se tio s a didates u de the s he e of Esta lishi g Ag i li i a d Ag i usi ess Ce t es
by the Agri/Vet/Horticultural graduates ?
(a) 25 per cent (b) 33.33 per cent (c) 50 per cent (d) 60 per cent (e) 80 per cent
9. In which one of the following years, the NABARD was established in India as an Apex Financial Institution for
Rural and Agricultural Development ?
(a) 1980 (b) 1981 (c) 1982 (d) 1983 (e) 1984
. As pe the ‘BI s di e ti es, Ba ks should ot i sist upo the a gi / ollateral security for the loans to
borrowers upto the limits of—
(a) Rs. 50,000 (b) Rs. 75,000 (c) Rs. 1,00,000 (d) Rs. 1,25,000 (e) Rs. 1,50,000
11. The bond between sugar and nitrogenous base in case of DNA is known as ?
(a) Gycosidic bond (b) Phosphodiester bond (c) H-bond (d) Peptide bond (e) N-bond
12. Which of the following amino acid participate in urea cycle ?
(a) Arginine (b) Lysine (c) Tryptophan (d) Histidine (e) None of these
13. The techniques to clone the first gene were developed in ?
(a) 1972 (b) 1987 (c) 1976 (d) 1977 (e) 1980
14. Biosensers are used in ?
(a) Purified enzymes (b) Antibodies (c) Whole microbial cells (d) Any of the above (e) None of these
15. Which enzyme plays important role in reverse transcription ?
(a) DNA plymerase (b) RNA plymerase (c) Reverse transcriptase (d) Ribonuclease (e) None
of these
Answers:
1.(C) 2. (E) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
Set – 23
1. Which of the following cannot be grown in deserts of Rajasthan?
(a) Maize (b) Bajra (c) Banana (d) Mustard

2. Which of the following is the plantation crop?
(a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Tea (d) Sugarcane
3. Horticulture crops are:
(a) Fruit, Flower (b) Cereal, Pulses (c) Tea, Coffee (d) Groundnut, Sunflower
4. Which of the following provides all the three nutrients – carbohydrates, proteins, and fats?
(a) Banana (b) Groundnut (c) Mango (d) Apple
5. Ploughing of field is essential before sowing seeds, as it provides:
(a) Deep penetration of pant roots (b) Ventilation (c) promotes growth of soil bacteria (d) All the above
6. Sowing of seeds by the seed- drill is known as:
(a) Seed drilling (b) Telling (c) Lining (d) None of the above
7. Which of the following crop is sown by seedlings?
(a) Wheat (b) Mustard (c) Paddy (d) Bajra
8. Which of the following is the Kharif crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Maize (c) Paddy (rice) (d) All the above
9. Which of the following is the rabi crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Mustard (c) Barley (d) All the above
10. Kharif season lasts from:
(a) October to March (b) Sept. to March (c) June/July – Sept. (d) Nov.- April
11. Rabi season lasts from:
(a) October to March/ April (b) Sept. – Feb (c) March – July (d) June/July – Sept.
12. Disease and pest resistant crop varieties are developed by:
(a) Seed treatment (b) By sowing seeds (c) By spraying pesticides (d) By plant breeding
13. Crop variety obtained by plant breeding is called:
(a) Hybrid (b) Dihybrid (c) Clone (d) None of the above
14. Crop rotation must include one:
(a) Leguminous crop (b) Fibre crop (c) Oil seed crop (d) None of the above
15. Which synthetic fertilizers has all the three i.e. nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium?
(a) Urea (b) Ammonium nitrate (c) NPK (d) All the above
Answers:
1.(C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C)
Set – 24
1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity ?
a) Date-palm b) Cabbage c) Orange d) Grapes e) Peas
2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely
agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?
a) 500 hrs. b) 600 hrs. c) 1000 hrs. d) 1500 hrs. e) 2000 hrs.
3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful fo ……
a) Rice b) Wheat c) Berseem d) Lucerne e) Grape
. The pe e tage of Nit oge N i DAP is……
a) 46 b) 26 c) 18 d) 80 e) 30
. Co t a t fa i g o sists of……
a) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation b) supply of agreed quantity of produce to
agreed price to the company o pa y taki g o lease asis far ers la d for ultivatio d) processing
cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers e) providing inputs by company to
farmers for improving quality of produce
. Wate held i the soil is ot a aila le to the pla t, if it is held at te sio ……
a) 1/3 atmosphere b) below 1/3 atmosphere c) 1-3 atmosphere d) 3-15 atmosphere e) above
15 atmosphere
7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, fi st it should e e su ed……
a) cultivation expenses b) medicinal value of plants c) availability of processing unit d) location of the farm e)
availability of assured profitable market
. West Coast Tall WCT is a a iet of……
a) Paddy b) Cashew c) Coconut d) Arecanut e) Coco
. The phe o e o of Hete osis has ee ost o e iall e ploited fi st i ……
a) Rice b) Wheat c) Maize d) Sugarcane e) Tobacco
10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due
to……
a) processing not as per demand b) breeds are not suitable for export c) no proper transport conditions
d) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases e) domestic market is available easily

. A a i a is a t pe of……
a) flower b) horse c) coffee d) vegetable e) fodder
. Ve i o post is p epa ed ith the help of follo i g……
a) Bacteria b) Earthworms c) Ants d) Virus e) Fungus
. The a e age a o / it oge atio of soils is ge e all ……
a) 25 : 1b) 5 : 1 c) 30 : 1 d) 14 : 1 e) None of these
14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
a) It saves water b) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil c) Plastic tubes are not harmed
by rats d) Life of drip irrigation is very long e) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such
system
15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average
ai fall, the pe iod ha i g PE/ g eate tha o e ual to ‘, is desig ated as……
a) Moist b) Humid c) Moderately Dry d) Severe Drought
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (E) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11.(A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B)
Set – 25
1. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of ope atio e isaged to o e ……
a) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only b) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only
irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers c) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers d) only
horticultural crops e) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system
2. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India ?
a) Nellore b) Nilgiri c) Sonadi d) Dorset e) Jaisalmeri
3. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India ?
a) Apis mellifera b) Apis florea c) Apis dorsata d) Apis cerana e) Apis melipona
4. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp
production per annum, among all the states of India ?
a) West Bengal b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands c) Orissa d) Kerala e) None of these
5. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and
released in February 2005 ?
a) Ricinus communis b) Solgum vulgare c) Pennisetum typhoides d) Arachis hypogaea e) India

has not released any such hybrid so far

6. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on
agricultural o odities a e i luded i ……
a) Green Box b) Amber Box c) Pink Box d) Blue Box e) None of these
7. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage
of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage, and leaf spots ?
a) Aphelenchoides besseyi b) Pratilenchus thornei c) Meloidogyne incognita d) Aphelenchoides

ritzemabosi e) None of these
8. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms
in the scientific management of Vermiculture ?
a) Grass Clippings b) Curd c) Carrot tops d) Lettuce leaves e) All are useful
9. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised
dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk. How much would be the daily
gross income of the farm from the sale of milk ?
a) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200 b) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400 c) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
d) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100 e) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850
10. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer,
who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well functioning incubator on First of January ?
a) February 20 b) February 5 c) January 29 d) January 22 e) January 15
11. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water ?
a) Grape b) Sugar beet c) Carrot d) Cotton e) None of these
12. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several
countries from India ?
a) Gladiolus b) Orchids c) Bougainvillea d) Marigold e) None of these
13. How much area could be covered for giving o e i igatio of ″ depth a pu pset of o e use output i
the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 per cent ?
a) 180 acres b) 320 acres c) 240 acres d) 160 acres e) None of these
14. If in a water tank, the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be :
a) 50 m b) 10 m c) 20 m d) 5 m e) None of these
15. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the
male moth in India ?
a) 200 b) 1200 c) 100 d) 400 e) None of these
Answers:

1.(C) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (E) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11.(C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B)
Set – 26
. The ausal o ga is of ‘a ikhet disease of fo ls is……
a) Pasteurella multocida b) Brucella melitensis c) Clorstridium chauvoei d) Sporoltrix schenkii e)

None of these
2. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
a) Virginia Gold b) Santa Rosa c) Grand Duke d) Rome Beauty e) None of these
3. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of
banana crop ?
a) 36°C b) 18°C c) 30°C d) 12°C e) 27°C
4. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the
Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of haemorrhage ?
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin B6
5. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National
Horticulture Mission in India ?
a) Tomato b) Arecanut c) Cashewnut d) Coconut e) All above horticultural crops
6. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the
land affected by shifting cultivation ?
a) Pennisetum polystachyon b) Cenchurus setigerus c) Eulalioposis binata d) Lasiurus sindicus e)

Penicum antidotale
7. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported
widely to Latin American countries in the past ?
a) Gir b) Kankrej c) Tharparkar d) Nagauri e) None of these
8. Iodi e defi ie i the “o s atio du i g p eg a ould e efle ted th ough the s pto of……
a) Lactation failure b) Poor reproduction c) Birth of dead or weak piglets d) Birth of hairless piglets
e) Birth of blind piglets
9. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in
the list ?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Assam c) Himachal Pradesh d) Mizoram e) Rajasthan
10. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those
crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops ?

a) Soybean b) Corn c) Cowpea d) Canola e) None of these
11. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been
successfully serviced on First of March ? (All dates belong to the same year)
a) June 12 b) July 29 c) August 28 d) September 15 e) May 30
12. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and
live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning ?
a) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg b) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg c) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg
to 21 kgd) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg e) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg
13. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis ?
a) Sphacelotheca reiliana b) Claviceps microcephala c) Leveillula taurica d) Puccinia carthami

e) Fusarium annuum
14. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products;especially
rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
a) Japan b) Italy c) Netherlands d) UAE e) USA
15. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily
requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight ?
a) 3.2 kg b) 1.8 kg c) 2.4 kg d) 4.0 kg e) 0.9 kg
Answers:
1.(E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (E) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11.(C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (E) 15. (B)
Set – 27
1. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
a) Ca b) Fe Vit. D d) N e) None of these
2. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processingtechnology,
o tai s the la gest pe e tage of N pla t ut ie t a o g all the ate ials gi e i the list ?
a) Coconut b) Neem c) Palm nut d) Mahua e) Karanj
3. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million
tonnes) ?
a) 230.67 b) 207.00 c) 217.85 d) 200.00 e) None of these
4. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India ?
a) Hay prepared from forest grasses b) Straw of Sorghum vulgare c) Silage of Sorghum vulgare d) Straw
of Phaseolus aureus e) None of these

5. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh
credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list ?
a) NABARD (Direct credit) b) Commercial Banks c) Cooperative Banks d) Primary Agricultural Credit
Societies e) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks
6. Centre of origin of rubber:
a) Srilanka b) India c) Malaysia d) Brazil
7. Powdery mildew of rubber is caused by :
a) Phytophthora b) Odium c) Corticium d) Corynespora
8. Fertilizer recommended for local varieties of tapioca
a) 75 : 75 : 75 b) 100 : 100 : 100 c) 50 : 100 : 150 d) 50 : 50 : 50
9. Best crop suited for intercropping with tapioca:
a) Ground nut b) Cowpea c) Banana d) Amaranthus
10. Cassava mosaic virus is transmitted by :
a) Aphid b) Mealy bug c) White fly d) thrips
11. Bunchy top disease of banana id transmitted by :
a) Aphid b) Mealy bug c) White fly d) thrips
12. Banana variety resistant to panama wilt
a) Njalipoovan b) Dwarf Cavendish c) Robusta d) Monthan
13. Scientific name of rock bee:
a) Apis mellifera b) Apis florae c) Apis dorsata d) Apis cerana indica
14. Species of honey bee resistant to Thai sac brood virus is :
a) Rock bee b) Italian bee c) Indian bee d) Mosquito bee
15. It is economic to begin tapping when 70 % of the trees in the selected area attained standard girth of 50
cm at a height of :
a) 100 cm b) 125 cm c) 110 cm d) 105 cm
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (E) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11.(A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (B)
Set – 28
1. Most suitable cover crop in rubber plantation is :

a) Calapagonium b) Puereria c) Mucuna d) Daincha
2. Relative humidity of atmosphere can he found out by using
a) Maximum thermometer b) Wet bulb thermometer c) Minimum thermometer d) Dry bulb

thermometer
3. intervenal chlorosis of leaves is due to the deficiency of
a) Ca b) P c) Mg d) All the above
4. Example of pre-emergent herbicide
a) Butachlor b) Paraquat c) 2. 4. D J d) Both (a) and (c)
5. Example for ratoon crop
a) Rice b) Sugarcane c) Potato d) Both (b) and (c)
6. Parentage of kerassree:
a) WCT x COD b) WCT x MYD c) WCT x Gangabondham d) CGD x WCT
7. Mean copra content for mother palm should be a minimum of
a) 120 gm/nut b) 130 gm/nut c) 140 gm/nut d) 150 gm/nut
8. Flacidity and ribbing of leaflets is a typical symptom in vase of:
a) Tanjavore wilt b) Bud rot c) Root wilt d) All the above
9. Which branch is used for making bush pepper?
a) Orthotropic b) Runner c) Plagiotropic d) Geotropic
10. Abnormal leaf fall of rubber is due to:
a) Phylophthora palmivora b) Phylopthora meadii c) Both of these d) None of these
11. Kalpaka is a variety of:
a) Tapioca b) Pepper c) Banana d) Coconut
12. Kokkan disease of banana is caused by
a) Fungus b) Bacteria c) Virus d) Physiological disorder
13. Pick out concentrated organic manure from the following
a) Neem cake b) Blood meal c) Fish meal d) All the above-
14. Azolla is:
a) Fresh water algae b) Marine water algae c) Fresh water fern d) Marine water fern

15. Centre of origin of coconut
a) Malaysia b) South East Ann c) South West Asia d) Philippines
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11.(A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C)
Set – 29
1. Most popular rubber variety grown in Korala
a) PB 86 b) RRII 628 c) TJIR 1 d) RRII 105
2. Anticoagulant used in rubber processing
a) Ammonia b) Ammonium chloride c) Ammonium sulphate d) All of these
3. Centre of origin of Tapioca
a) Thailand b) China c) Brazil d) Indo-Burma
4. Size composition of silt particle
a) 2 mm to 0.05 mm b) 0.05 mm to 0.02 mm c) <0.02 mm d) None of these
5. Food storage tissue of seed is called
a) Embryo b) Cotyledon c) Seed coat d) None of these
6. National Research Centre for Cashew is located at:
a) Puttur b) Madakkathara c) Vittal d) Kasaragod
7. Seed act was passed in the year:
a) 1956 b) 1966 c) 1959 d) 1969
8. Tag colour used for foundation seed
a) Purple b) Blue c) White d) Yellow
9. The te othe seed is k o fo
a) Breeder seed b) Foundation seed c) Registered seed d) Certified seed
10. Which method of irrigation is more economical when the quantity of water is limited?
a) Flooding A b) Sprinkler irrigation c) Drip irrigation d) None of these
11. International Rice Research Centre (IRRC) is located at:
a) India b) Indonesia c) Thailand d) Philippines
12. ‘i e a iet Nila is a

a) Early Duration crop b) Medium duration c) Late duration d) Not a variety, but cultivar
13. Seed rate of rice for dibbling is
a) 80-90 kg/ha b) 70-75 kg/ha c) 50-60 kg/ha d) 100 kg/ha
14. Fertilizer recommendation for high yielding medium duration rice
a) 40:20:20 b) 60:30:30 c) 70:35: 35 d) 90 : 45 : 45
15. Varinellu (wild rice) is a:
a) Sedge b) Fern c) Broad leaved weed d) None of these
Answers:
1.(D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11.(D) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D)
Set – 30
1. Laxmi disease of rice is caused by
a) Fungus b) Bacteria c) Phytoplasma d) Virus
2. Method of propagation commonly used in rose
a) Cutting b) Layering c) Budding d) Both (a) and (c)
3. Type of budding used in rubber:
a) Patch budding T uddi g c) Ring budding d) All the above
4. Study of cause of plant disease is known as
a) Etiology b) Epidemology c) Plant pathology d) None of the above
5. Use of light trap for pest control is a
a) Physical method b) Cultural method c) Modern technique d) All the above
6. MNREGA is a
a) Watershed development programme b) Employment guarantee programme c) Productivity improvement

programme d) Rural electrification guarantee programme
7. Chemical name of Insecticide Formulation Sevin 5 % DP
a) Endosulfan b) Carbofuran c) Carbaryl d) Dimethoate
8. Pho ate is a
a) Acaricide b) Nematicide c) Rodenticide d) All the above
9. Highly toxic insecticide is indicated by the colour code

a) Bright Red b) Bright Yellow c) Bright Blue d) Bright Green
10. Example for a dual purpose Indian breed
a) Sindhi b) Sahival c) Nagore d) Ongole
11. Variety of poultry most suited for homestead of Kerala
a) Aseel b) Ghagus c) Giriraja d) White leghorn
12. Marginal drying leaves is a deficiency symptom of which element?
a) Fe b) Ca c) Mg d) K
13. The original dwarf variety of wheat which trigged green revolution was
a) Sarbati sonora b) Sonalika c) Lerma rojo d) Norin 10
14. The ook “ile t “p i g as itte :
a) Rachael Carson b) M.S. Swaminathan c) Michael Moore d) P. Sainath
15. The driage (drying percentage) of Karimunda variety of pepper is
a) 50% b) 40% c) 30% d) 15%
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11.(C) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C)
Set – 31
1. The founder of white revolution in India is
a) M.S. Swaminathan b) Varghese Kurien c) Punjab Singh d) Mangala Rai
2. Alkaline soils can be ameliorated by adding
a) Gypsum b) Lime c) Zinc Sulphate d) Borax
3. Air layering is commonly practised in z
a) Mango b) Guava c) Cashew d) All of these
4. Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) is located at
a) Calicut b) Ahmedabad c) Thiruvanamthapuram d) Bangalore
5. The fungus used for coir pith composting is
a) Pleurotus b) Ganoderma c) Trichoderma d) All of these
6. Queen cells are usually constructed at which part of the comb?
a) Upper periphery b) Lower periphery c) At the middle d) All of these

7. Te ag i ultu e is de i ed f o Lati o d Age hi h ea s
a) Flora b) Fauna c) Soil d) Crop
8. Vertical section of soil from the surface is termed as
a) Soil profile b) Soil horizon c) Soil layer d) None of these
9. Percentage of mineral constituents in soil
a) 50% b) 45% c) 55% d) 60%
10. Name the constituted element in many of the fungicides which creates acidic condition in soil:
a) Ms b) S c) Fe d) H
11. Most prominent soil found in Kerala
a) Laterite soil b) Coastal alluvium c) Forest soil d) None of these
12. Soil best suited for cotton cultivation:
a) Laterite soil b) Black soil c) Both of these d) None of these
13. Erosion that resulted from human disturbance are termed as
a) Geologic erosion b) Rill erosion c) Accelerated erosion. d) Steady erosion
14. Seed which produced in low quantity
a) Certified seed b) Breeder seed c) Foundation seed d) Registered seed
15. Type of irrigation suitable for widely spaced crop
a) Flooding b) Strip irrigation c) Basin or ring method d) Furrow method
Answers:
1.(B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11.(A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C)
Set – 32
1. Critical stage of water requirement of paddy
a) Tillering b) Panicle initiation c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
2. Suitable pH range for rice cultivation
a) 3.5 – 5 b) 5 – 8.5 c) 8.5 – 10 d) All of these
3. For increasing the fertilizer use efficiency of urea in wet land rice cultivation, neem cake is mixed with
urea in the ratio of
a) 1 : 6 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 4 d) 1: 5

4. Spacing for medium duration 1st crop of rice
a) 15 x 10 cm b) 20 x 15 cm c) 20 x 10 cm d) 20 x 20 cm
5. Salvinia molesta (Africal payal) can be controlled biologically using
a) Grass hopper b) Caterpillar c) Weevil d) Beetle
6. Bengal famine was primarily due to the paddy crop failure caused by
a) Blast disease b) Sheath blight c) Sheath rot d) Brown leaf port
7. Dead heart symptom in rice is caused by
a) Rice stem borer b) Gall midge c) Brown plant hopper d) Rice bug
8. Tube rose is propagated by
a) Cutting b) Bulb c) Corms d) Tubers
9. Pineapple is propagated by
a) Tubers b) Suckers c) Layering d) None of these
10. Chemical name of grammaxone 20% EC
a) Butachlor b) Diuron c) 2, 4, D d) Paraquat
11. Agrimycin is an – antibiotic
a) Antifungal b) Antibacterial c) Antiviral d) None of these
12. Biocontrol agent most. effective against quick wilt of pepper
a) Trichoderma b) Pseudomonas fluorescens c) Arbuscular Mycorrizal Fungi (AMF) d) Aspergillus
13. 1% Bordeaux mixture is prepared by mixing 1 kg of CuSO4 and 1 kg lime in
a) 100 litre water each b) 100 litre water together c) 50 litre water each d) 10 litre water each
14. Method demonstration is ____________ type of extension teaching method
a) Individual contact method b) Group contact c) Mass contact d) Both (a) and (b)
15. Commercial Pheromone lure used for controlling banana rhizome weevil
a) Ferrolure b) Rhinolure c) Odolure d) Cosmolure
Answers:
1.(C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11.(A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B)
Set – 33
1. In a honey bee colony. drones are

a) Fertile females b) Imperfectly developed females c) Fertile males d) Imperfectly developed males
2. Soil horizon where parent material is seen
a) A horizon b) B horizon c) C horizon d) Both (a) and (b)
3. Study of grass cultivation for animal consumption is called
a) Agrostology b) Crop husbandry c) Agro forestry d) Grassology
4. The common weed in wet land rice ecosystem is
a) Echinocloa b) Panicum repens c) Ageraatum conyzoides d) Physalis minima
5. The cultivation of trees for their beauty or recreational value is termed as
a) Horticulture b) Herbericulture c) Floriculture d) Arboriculture
6. The collective state of atmosphere within a specified interval of time and space of a locality is
a) Weather b) Climate c) Temperature d) Monsoon
7. The instrument used for measuring intensity of light
a) Barometer b) Sun shine recorder c) Luxmeter d) Anemometer
8. Number of essential elements required by plants for their growth
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19
9. Hooked terminal bud is caused by the deficiency of which element?
a) Ms b) B c) Fe d) Ca
10. Rock phosphate is a
a) Straight Fertilizer b) Complex c) Mixed Fertilizer d) Biofertilizer
11. Blue green algae under ideal conditions fixes – kg N/ha
a) 10-15 b) 25-30 c) 30-35 d) 15-20
12. The destructive protozoan disease of silk worm is
a) Grasserie b) Pebrine c) Muscardine d) Flacherie
13. Goniozus nephntidis, larvel parasitoid is released for the biological control of which pest of coconut?
a) Rhinoceros beetle b) Red palm weevil c) Leaf eating caterpillar d) Coconut eriophyid mite
14. Stem bleeding of coconut is caused by
a) Phytophthora palmivora b) Thielaviopsis paradoxa (c) Ganoderma lucidum d) Phytoplasma
15. Wo ld s fi st peppe h id
a) Panniyur-l b) Thevam c) Panchami d) Karimunda
Answers:
1.(C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11.(B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
Set – 34
1. A phenomenon wherein a single gene has more than one phenotypic effect is known as
a) Pleiotropism b) Epistasis c) Hypostasis d) Duplicate genes
2. Which one of the following is a rich source of protein?
a) Scytonema b) Spirulina c) Spirogyra d) Stigonema
3. Glycolysis is also known as
a) Gluconeogencsis b) EMP Pathway c) Hcxose monophosphate shunt d) Photorespiration
4. Rate of photosynthesis is higher in light.
a) White b) Red c) Green d) Blue
5. The fruit ripening hormone is
a) Abscisic acid b) Cytokinin c) Ethylene d) Gibberellin
6. The largest herbarium in India located at
a) New Delhi b) Dehradun c) Kolkata d) Pune
7. International Rice Research Institute is in
a) Hyderabad b) Cuttack c) Kenya d) Manila
8. Obligate anaerobic bacteria can
a) grow without oxygen and produce high energy b) grow without oxygen and produce low energy
c) have a fermentative metabolism and a respiratory chain d) grow with or without oxygen and
produce medium energy
9. Which one of the following is the correct food chain?
a) Algae – insects – frog- peacock – snake b) Algae – frog – insects – snake-peacock c) Algae – frog –
insects – peacock – snake d) Algae – insects – frog – snake-peacock
10. DNA and RNA are similar to each other because both
a) have similar sugars b) are nucleotide polymers c) have similar pyrimidines d) are double stranded
11. A simple technique has been developed in India by using the following organisms as biofertilizers

a) Azotobacter and Rhizobium b) Azolla and Azotobacter c) Azolla and Rhizobium d) Azotobacter and
Nostoc
12. A sclerotium refers to a modified mycelium which is
a) an underground structure b) a food storing organ c) a conidial type d) a hard resting body
13. In paddy, the type of inflorescence is said to be
a) Raceme b) Panicle c) Thyrsus d) Cyathium
14. Botanical name of Pearl millet (Bajra) is
a) Avena sativa b) Zea mays c) Eleusine coracana d) Pennisetum typhoides
15. Which is the matching set in classification?
a) Neries, planaria, roundworm, earthworm b) Millipede, crab, centipede, cockroach c) Starfish, jellyfish,
cuttlefish, octopus d) Sea-urchin, lobster, leech, locust
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11.(A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B)
Set – 35
1. The insects excrete in the form of uric acid because
a) most of them are terrestrial b) the circulatory system is open c) the blood is colourless d) most
of them are aquatic
2. Measurement of the rate of oxygen consumption in unit volume of water over a period of time is
carried out to determine
a) Fermentation b) Biogas generation c) Biosynthetic pathway d) Biological oxygen demand
3. Biosphere is made up of
a) organism b) organism and lithosphere c) organism, lithosphere and atmosphere d) organism,

lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere
4. Sudden mass death of fishes from oxygen depletion is more likely in the
a) Eutrophic lakes b) Oxalotrophic lakes c) Oligotrophic lakes d) Mesotrophic lakes
5. The sanctuary having maximum number of rare animals is
a) Kaziranga National Park b) Corbett National Park c) Manas National Park d) Dudhwa National Park
6. The fa ous Chipko Mo e e t is asso iated ith
a) S.L. Bahuguna b) Indira Gandhi c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) H.N. Bahuguna
7. Red data book is famous for

a) Extinct animals b) Endangered animals and plants c) Endangered animals d) Important wildlife
8. Bottom layer of deep fresh water habitat is
a) Hypolimnion b) Epilimnion c) Thermocline d) Metalimnion
9. International Convention on Biological Diversity was ratified in the year
a) 1971 b) 1994 c) 1973 d) 1990
10. Which is considered as biological paradise in India?
a) Gulf of Mannar b) Nilgiri Bioreserve c) Sundarbans d) Nanda Devi
11. National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) is located in
a) Chennai b) New Delhi c) Lucknow d) Bangalore
12. Whi h of these is ofte alled as ell o ga ise ?
a) Nucleus b) Centriole c) Nucleolus d) Ribosome
13. The power house of the cell is
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Mitochondria d) Lysosome
14. Hardness of woody tissue is due to
a) Silica b) Lignin c) Cellulose d) Suberin
15. Pea seeds will germinate best if soaked in a jar containing
a) H2 b) O2 c) N2 d) CO2
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11.(C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (B)
Set – 36
1. The shape of the growth curve is usually
a) Inverted bell b) Linear c) Sigmoid d) Zig-Zag
2. The forces that can change the frequency of an allele in a population are
a) forward mutation, gene conversion, neutral evolution and recombination b) selection, mutagenesis,
migration, inbreeding and random genetic drift c) dominance, family selection, fitness and diversification
d) gene interaction, gene transfer, gene mutation and outbreeding
3. The anticodon region is present in
a) r-RNA b) hn-RNA c) m-RNA d) t-RNA

4. In reptiles and birds, nitrogen is excreted in the form of
a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Ammonia d) Lipids
5. Which of the following techniques are used in assaying monoclonal antibodies ?
a) Flow cytometry b) PAGEc) HPLC d) Scintillation counter
6. Whi h of the follo i g s theti pol peptides ill fo a t iple heli .
a) (Pro-Gly) n b) (Phe-Gly-Gly) n c) (Pro-Gly-Gly) n d) (Gly-Pro-Pro-Gly) n
7. World Health Organisation (WHO) announced the eradication of small pox as a disease in the year
a) 1988 b) 1986 c) 1977 d) 1979
8. A disease that attacks many in a community simultaneously is
a) an epidemic b) a noscomial infection c) a secondary infection d) a bacteremia
9. The te Mi o iolog as oi ed
a) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek b) Robert Koch c) Louis Pasteur d) Julius Richard Petri
10. Tumour causing viruses are known as
a) Oncogenic viruses b) Para viruses c) Tungro viruses d) Variola viruses
11. Red orange colour in saffron is due to
a) Xanthophyll b) Chlorophyll c) Crocetin d) Polyphenols
12. Choose the correct answer. Beaten rice is also known as
a) Flaked rice b) Polished rice c) Puffed rice d) Popped rice
13. Spice bag is usually used in the processing of
a) Sauce b) Jam c) Pickle d) Nectar
14. Cereals are
a) deficient in lysine and rich in methionine b) rich in lysine and deficient in methionine c) rich in lysine
and methionine d) deficient in lysine and methionine
15. Roasting coffee beans improves the content of
a) Pantothenic acid b) Niacin c) Riboflavin d) Thiamine
Answers:
1.(C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11.(C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
Set – 37

1. Which of the following pests is controlled through the application of grease band around the tree trunks?
a) Mangomealy Bug b)Trunk borer of mango c) Coding moth of apple d)Wooly aphis of apple
2. Clipping the tips of seedlings prior to transplantation in rice helps in the management of
a) Grasshoppers b) Stem borers c) Case-worm d) Brown plant hopper
3. Which of the following refers to Zinc Phosphide Poison?
a) Slow Poison b) Anti-Coagulant c) Acute Poison d) Mild Poison
4. Which one of the following male insects produces sex pheromones?
a) Rice Weevil b) Pink boll worm c) Cotton boll worm d) Pink borer
5. Methyl eugenol is used as a lure for killing which one of the following?
a) Rice hispa b) Gypsy moth c) Tobacco Cutworm d) Fruit fly
6. Consider the following pairs:
I. Aphid : Cauda and corniclesII. Jassid : Pear shapedIII. Bug : Cicadellidae
Which of the following pair/pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) I only b) II & III only c) I & III only d) I, II & III
7. The brown plant hopper of rice transmits which disease?
a) Rice dwarf b) Rice hoja blanka c) Rice grassy stunt d) Rice grassy shoot
8. Which one of the following fungi is used against the coconut mite?
a) Beaveria bassiana b) Nomura relgi c) Hirsutella thompsonni d) Trichoderma viridae
9. Consider the following statements:
I. In potassium deficiency, leaf tip curves downward.
II. In high sulphur deficiency, younger leaves show chlorosis first of all.
III. In iron deficiency, old deficiency show chlorosis and younger leaves do not show it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I and II only b) II only c) I and III only d) I, II and III
I. Zinc ion is a co-factor for the enzyme carbonic
II. A common symptom of zinc deficiency in plants is leaf mottling.
a) I only b) II only c) both I and II d) Neither I nor II

11. Whiptail in Brassica is due to deficiency of
a) Calcium b) Molybdenum c) Manganese d) Zinc
12. Consider the following statements: In TCA or Krebs cycle, CO2 is released when
I. Isocitric acid is converted to α-ketoglutaric acid.
II. Succinic acid is converted to fumaric acid.
III. Malic acid is converted to oxoloacetic acid.
IV. α-ketoglutaric acid is converted to succinyl CoA. Which of the following given above are correct?
a) I, II and III b) II and III only c) III and IV d) I and IV
13. Consider the following statements: A characteristic of CAM plants is that
I. The stomata are open by night and closed during day.
II. CO2 is fixed during night in organic acids and during day time it is fixed by the catalytic action of RuBP
carboxylase. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a) I Only b) II only c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
14. Consider the following statements: Scarification technique helps in I. Removing Seed coat II. Retrieving
immature embryo III. Increasing permeability to water. IV. Increasing permeability to gases. Which of the
following statements given above is/are correct?
a) I and II only b) I, II and III only c) I, III and IV only c) II, III and IV only
I. Ethylene induces senescence in leaves and flowers.
II. Synthesis of cytokinin takes place in roots of plants.
Which of the following given above is/are correct?
a) I only b) II only c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (B)
Set – 38
1. The phenotype (P) is the function of genotype (G) and environment, but when individual genotype is
subjected to multi environment testing, the phenotypic expression is the result of
a) G alone b) E alone c) G+E d) G + E + (G×E)
2. A commercially cultivated plant species has tetraploid chromosome number that is 2n = 48. What will the
plant developed from pollen culture of this species be?
a) Haploid b) Dihaploid c) Monoploid d) Diploid
3. Which one of the following given above is correct?
(a) Individual belonging to primary and secondary gases. (b) Individuals belonging to secondary and primary gene
pools can produce offspring by sexual crossing followed by embryo rescue. (c) Indivindual belonging to
primary and tertiary gene pools does not generally produce offspring even by embryo rescue. (d) Somatic
hybridization is the best way to hybridize individuals belonging to primary gene pool.
4. Match the following
List I (Type of gene interaction) List II (Phenotypic Ratio)
I. Inhibitory (A) 9:7
II. Epistasis (B) 15:1
III. Complementary (C) 13:1
IV. Duplicate (D) 12:3:1
a) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B b) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B c) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C d) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
5. Around 395 mg of Ca per 100g of edible portion found in
a) Fenugreek Leaves b) Yam c) Peas d) Potato
6. Which one of the following is ethylene absorbant?
a) KMnO4 b) KCl c) K2SO4 d) Ca(NO3)2
7. With reference to deterioration of flowers after harvest, consider the following conditions:
I. Temperature of the surrounding atmosphere
II. Gaseous composition of the atmosphere surrounding the flowers.
III. Respiration rate of the flowers. Which of the above responsible for the deterioration of the flowers after the
harvest?
a) I only b) I and III only c) II and III only d) I, II and III
8. Which of the following does not occur in fruits and vegetables by bunching Process?
a) Driving out the air from the tissue. b) Getting rid of the material of micro-organisms c) Hardening the
tissue d) Inactivating the enzyme system
9. Consider the following statements: Essential oil from the chamomile is used
I. In pain reliving bombs
II. As mild sedative
III. As flavouring agent Which of the following given above is/are correct?
a) I only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II and III
10. Oil from which of the following plants is used as mosquito repellent?
a) Pandanus fascicularis b) Mentha arvensis c) Cymbopogen winterianus d) Apium graveolens
11. Match the following
List I (plant) List II (Used to treat)
I. Isabgol (A) Stomach ulcer
II. Liquorice (B) Asthma
III. Periwinkle (C) Chronic constipation
IV. Henbane (D) Leukemia
a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C b) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C c) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
12. Karnal bunt is disease of
a) Maize b) Sorghum c) Rice d) wheat
13. Match List I (Insect pest) with List II (Symptoms) and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I (Insect pest) List II (Symptoms)
I. Brinjal Hudda beetle a) Necrotic brownish patches on leaves
II. Tea mosquito bug b) Silver shoots
III. Rice gall midge c) Curling and distortion of leaf
IV. Citrus leaf miner d) Skeletonization of leaf
a) I-C,II-A, HI-B, IV-D b) I-C,II-B, III-A, N-D c) I-D,II-A, HI-B, IV-C d) I-D,H-B, III-A, N-C
14. The destructive Molya disease of wheat and barley in Rajasthan is caused by.
a) Cyst nematode b) Foliar nematode c) Lesion nematode d) Stem nematode
15. Match List I (Organism) with List II (Main character) and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists :
List I (Organism) List II (Main character)
I. Adult insect a) Eight legs
II. Larvae of lapidoptera b) Six legs
III. Spider mite c) Eight pairs of limbs

a) I-B,II-C, III-A b) I-B,II-A, III-C c) I-A,II-C, HI-B d) I-C,II-B, III-A.
Answers:
1.(B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A)
Set – 39
1. Which one of the following diseases shows gall type symptoms?
a) Maize smut b) Wheat smut c) Maize rust d) Wheat rust
2. Which one of the following is the causal agent of black tip of mango?
a) Boron deficiency b) Potassium deficiency c) Iron toxicity d) Damage by birds
3. Which one of the following pathogens surviving in hilly regions during the off-season and infect the main
crop in plains of India ?
a) Burn rust of wheat caused by Puccinia recondita b) Blast caused by Pyricularia grisea c) Rust of bajra
caused by Puccinia penniseti d) Rust of pea caused by Uromyces fabae
4. Potato leaf virus belongs to
a) Poty virus b) Potex virus c) Luteovirus d) Caulimovirus
5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a) Powdery mildew of wheat: Erysiphe graminis b) Powdery mildew of pea: Scelerospora graminicola c) Downy
mildew of pea: Erysiphe polygoni d) Downy mildew of maize: Perenospora pisi
. Whi h o e of the follo i g does ot efle t I dia s positio i the o ld s ag i ultu e i e e t ea s?
a) First in milk production b) Second in sugar-cane production c) Third in the use of tractors d) Fourth
in area under irrigation.
7. What is the correct sequence of the given five major fruits in descending order of their production in India?
a) Mango — Banana — Citrus — Apple — Grapes b) Mango — Grapes — Banana — Apple — Citrus
c) Banana — Citrus — Mango — Apple — Grapes d) Banana — Mango — Citrus — Grapes — Apple
8. Which one of the following statements is correct? As income of the farm increases the Iso-revenue line
a) Moves towards the origin b) Moves away from the origin c) Remains unchanged d) Becomes parallel to x-
axis.
9. Consider the following statements: The law of diminishing marginal returns begins to operate when the
I. total product begins to decrease.
II. First stage of production function ends.
III. Marginal product starts declining.

IV. Total product curve starts increasing at decreasing rate. Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and H b) II and HI c) III and IV d) II and IV.
10. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
In a classical production function where marginal product is less than average product, the average product is
a) Decreasing b) increasing c) Maximum d) zero
11. Consider the following statements: The characteristics of isoquants are that they
I. Slope down towards right.
II. Are convex to the origin.
III. Intersect at a common point.
IV. Represent different levels of output. Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II only b) II, HI and IV c) I, II and IV d) I, HI and IV.
12. Which one of the following investment evaluation criteria does not take into account the time value of
money ?
a) Pay-back period b) Net present value c) Discounted benefit-cost ratio d) Internal rate of return
13. In Cobb Douglas production function of Y = 3X°2, the elasticity of production is
a) 0.02 b) 0.2 c) 2.0 d) 20
14. The rent on own land is an example of
a) Paid fixed cost b) Non-paid variable cost c) Paid variable cost d) Non-paid fixed cost
.A i est e t is said to e e o o i all ia le if the `I te al ‘ate of ‘etu I‘‘ is
a) Equal to bank interest rate b) Less than the opportunity cost of capital c) Equal to opportunity cost of
capital d) Greater than the opportunity cost of capital
Answers:
1.(B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B)
Set – 40
1. Least cost factors principle involves
a) Substitution between factors b) Substitution between products c) Maximising the use of inputs d)
Minimising revenues
2. The phosphorus bearing organic compounds in soils mean I. Porphyrins II. Phytins III. ATP IV. Proteins.
Select the correct answer from the code given below

a) I and II only b) II, and III onlyc) I, II and III d) I, III and IV
3. In terms of the order from the most easily weathered to the most resistant to weathering, which one of the
following is the correct sequence of weathering of the soil in semi-arid grasslands?
a) Olivine — calcite — montmorillonite — gibbsite b) Olivine — gibbsite — montmorillonite — calcite

c) Gibbsite — olivine — calcite — montmorillonite d) Olivine — montmorillonite — calcite —
gibbsite
4. Match List I (Ore) with List II (Mineral) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
List I List II
(Ore) (Mineral)
I. Dolomite a) Al203. 3H20
II. Gibbsite b) CaSO4. 2H20
III. Gypsum c) CaCO3.MgCO3
IV. Geothite d) FeOOH
a) I-D,II-A, III- B, IV-C b) I-D,II-B, III-A, IV-C c) I-C,II-A, III-B, IV-D d) I-C,II-B, III-A, IV-D.
5. Due to a wide C:N ratio, application of bulky organic manures like paddy straw will lead to
a) Greater supply of available N due to quick decomposition. b) Gaseous loss of N by increased microbial
activity in the soil. c) Immobilization of soil N. d) More loss of N by leaching as it is not organically
bound.
6. Which one of the following crops responds well to application of sulphur?
(a) Cereals (b) Pulses (c) Oilseeds (d) Fiber crops
7. Consider the following liming materials having different neutralizing values (ability to neutralize the soil
acidity) –
I. Calcium carbonates
II. Calcium hydroxide
III. Calcium oxide
IV. Magnesium carbon
The correct sequence in the increasing order of neutralizing values of these liming materials would
(a) I-II- III-IV (b) II-IV-III-I (c) I-IV-III-I (d) IV-I-II-III
8. Consider the following statements: Integrated nutrient management system
I. Minimizes the use of chemical fertilizers.

II. Minimizes the use of organic manures.
III. Maximizes efficient use of resources for enhancing soil fertility and productivity.
IV. Maximizes the use of chemical fertilizers. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and III
9. Which of the follo i g a e the ite ia used to desig e ` a ele e t a esse tial ele e t i pla ts?
I. It should have a clear physiological role.
II. Its absence prevents the plants from completing its life-cycle.
III. It is required for all metabolic processes in plants. N Its absence cannot be satisfied by supplementing with
another essential element.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III (b) I and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) III and IV
10. Which one of the following indicates the main features of horizontal resistance ?
(a) It is controlled by polygenes and it has pathotype specificity. (b) It is controlled by polygenes and it possesses
pathotype non-specificity. (c) It is controlled by oligogenes and it has pathotype specificity. (d) It is
controlled by oligogenes and it possesses pathotype non-specificity.
11. Consider the following statements : Heterosis can be best explained by using
I. dominance hypothesis
II. over-dominance hypothesis
III. epistatic gene interaction
IV. duplicate gene action Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) I and IV (b) I and III (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
12. Consider the following statements: The inbred lines are preferred to be parents of hybrid varieties because
this leads to maximum
I. Uniformity in hybrid.
II. Heterosis in the hybrid.
III. Heterogenity and stability of hybrid.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
13. In pearl millet, cross-pollination occurs because there is

(a) Protandry. (b) Protogyny. (c) Heterostyly. (d) Self-incompatibility.
14. The basic difference between seed and grain is in
(a) seed processing operations. (b) uniformity of population. (c) genetic purity. (d) seed treatment.
15. Arrange the following fruits in the descending order of their production :
I. Mango II. Citrus III. Banana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) II, I, III (b) I, II, III (c) III, I, II (d) II, III, I
Answers:
1.(A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C)
Set – 41
1. List I (Fruits) List II (Type/Edible parts)
I. Anjeer (Ficus) (a) Aril
II. Banana (b) Hesperidium
III. Litchi (c) Berry
IV. Sweet orange (d) Syconus
(a) I-B, II-A, III-C IV-D (b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D (c) I-D, II-A, III-C IV-B (d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
2. Which of the following fruit pigments are fat soluble?
I. Carotene II. Anthocyanin III. Lycopene
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I, II and III (d) II and III.
3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Cauliflower : Great lakes (b) Cucumber : Improved Japanese (c) Drumstick : PKM-I (d) Lettuce :
Poinsett
4. Which one of the following fruit crops is commonly propagated through sexual method ?
(a) Litchi (b) Mango (c) Papaya (d) Guava.
5. Which one of the following fruit crops is polyembryonic in nature ?
(a) Guava (b) Karonda (c) Pome (d) Grape.
6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(a) Litchi :Sapindaceae (b) Mango :Myrtaceae (c) Guava :Anacardiace (d) Papaya :Bromeliaceae
7. List I (Fruit Crops) List II (Method of propagation)
I. Mango (a) Air layering
II. Sapota (b) Cutting
III. Pomegranate (c) T-budding
IV. Aonla (d) Softwood grafting
(e) Veneer grafting
(a) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C (b) I-D, II-C, III-B IV-E (c) I-B, II-C, III-A IV-E (d) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
8. Consider the following statements :
I. In India, cotton is never sown in rotation with other crops.
II. The sugarcane yield per unit area in sub-tropical northern India is higher than that in tropical southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I and II.
9. Which one of the following is the most important reason for price support programme in India ?
(a) To increase the export of food grains. (b) To build up the buffer stock. To sta ilize the far er s
income.(d) To control the population.
10. Which of the following are the most important factors in determining the geographical distribution of rice
in a region ?
I. Light and temperature II. Light and water III. Altitude and latitude IV. Growth duration and temperature
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and III (d) II and IV
11. List I(Grasses) List II (Soil type)
I. Karnal Grass (Leptochloafusca) (a) Saline soil
II. Wheat Grass (Agropyronelongatum) (b) Waterlogged soil
III. Para Grass (Brachiariamutica) (c) Marshy land
IV. Reed Phragnitescommunis) (d) Alkaline soil
(a) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C (b) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B (c) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C (d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
12. Law of returns to scale comes into picture

(a) when all the productive factors are increased/ decreased simultaneously and in the same ratio. (b) when
all the productive factors are increased/ decreased simultaneously and in different ratios. (c) when all the
productive factors are increased/ decreased at different times in same ratios. (d) when all the productive
factors are increased/ decreased at different times in different ratios.
13. List I List II
(Economist) (Contribution)
I. Luther G. Tweeten (a) Economic instability in agriculture
II. Jack Hirschleifer (b) Soviet agriculture at crossroads
III. A.M. Derevany (c) Economic dimensions of rural poverty
IV. E.J.R.Booth (d) Application Theory and application
(a) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D (b) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C (c) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C (d) I-A, II-C, HI-B, IV-D
14. The demand for agriculture commodity will tend to be elastic with respect to a change in its price, if
(a) Its price is low in relation to income. (b) It has several substitutes. (c) Its consumption develops into a habit.
(d) It is properly priced.
15. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Complementary : Wheat and dairy products (b) Competitive : Wheat and barley products (c)
Supplementary : Wheat and gram product (d) Joint products : Wheat, grain and straw
Answers:
1.(D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
Set – 42
1. Which one of the following principles is not applicable in farm management economics ?
(a) Law of equi-marginal principle. (b) Cost principles. (c) Principle of substitution. (d) Law of
population.
2. Consider the following factors I. The quality of soil II. Agrarian laws III. Availability of water Which of the
above factors determine(s) the supply price of land?
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) II only
3. Development planners examine the following aspects to formulate action plans for farm sector growth:
I. Evaluation of agricultural policies having a bearing on development and growth of farm firms.
II. Delineation of homogeneous type of farming areas in various regions of the country.
III. Generation of input-output coefficients and working out comparative economics of various Arm enterprises.

IV. Formulation of standard farm plans and optimum cropping patterns for different areas and types of farming
What is the correct sequence in which the above should be examined?
(a) III- II – IV – I (b) II-III-IV-I (c) I-II-III-IV (d) II-III-I-IV
4. Consider the following statements: In co-operative tenant farming
I. Members are given piece of land on rent.
II. Land of small owners is pooled in one unit.
III. Ownership of land is collective.
IV. Schemes of farming laid by society are to be followed by members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and HI (c) II and IV (d) I, III and IV
5. Which one of the following is not a cause for small size of holdings in India ?
(a) The decline in joint family system. (b) The law of inheritance. (c) Growing population. (d) Diminishing
marginal returns.
6. Which one of the follo i g efe s to “ ste of fa i g ?
(a) Economic (b) Operational (c) Organizational (d) Cultural
7. In which one of the following continents did red gram originate ?
(a) Asia (b) Africa (c) Australia & New Zealand (d) South America
8. List I List II
(Crops) (Botanical Names)
I. Linseed (a) Corchoruscapsularis
II. Niger(b) Lens esculenta
III. Lentil (c) Linumusitatissium
IV. Jute (d) Guizotiaabyssinica
(a) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A (b) I-A, II-B,III- D, IV-C (c) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A (d) I-A, II-D, III- B, IV-C
9. In India, which crop has maximum acreage and production?
(a) Wheat (b) Maize (c) Rice (d) Sorghum
10. Consider the following statements: In India, the productivity of oilseeds is far below the world average
because
I. Oilseeds, though energy rich crops, are cultivated largely under energy starved conditions.

II. Oilseeds are mostly grown without irrigation. III. Oilseeds are grown under mixed cropping. Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) II and III
11. Niger plant belongs to which one of the families?
(a) Cruciferae (b) Compositae (c) Umbellifereae (d) Sapindaceae
12. Consider the following soyabean growing states:
I. Rajasthan II. Maharashtra III. Madhya Pradesh IV. Uttar Pradesh
The correct sequence of the above States in the decreasing order of their area and production is
(a) III-II – I-IV (b) IV- II- I – III (c) III-I-II-IV (d) IV-I-II-III
13. Which one of the following stages is largely influenced by daylight duration as a function of radiation at
different latitudes?
(a) Tillering (b) Flowering (c) Fertilization (d) Fruiting.
. Whi h o e of the follo i g is the featu e of the o ept of “ustai a le Ag i ultu e :
(a) It precludes increased production. (b) It does not consider the maintenance of the resource base. (c) It
does not preclude increased production. (d) It does not preclude increased production but in addition calls
for a maintenance of the resource base.
15. Which one of the following herbicides becomes active after 0-oxidation ?
(a) Propanil (b) Paraquat (c) MCPB (d) MCPA
Answers:
1.(D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (C)
Set – 43
1. List I (Crops) List II (Critical stages of irrigation)
I. Barley (a) Tasseling and Bilking stages
II. Groundnut (b) Tillering and flowering
III. Cotton (c) Flowering and pod formation
IV. Maize (d) Flowering and fruiting
(a) I-A, II-D, III- C, IV-B (b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A (c) I-A, II-C,III-D, IV-B (d) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
2. The tension of soil water at permanent wilting point is
(a) 0.1 atm (b) 0.3 atm (c) 15 atm (d) 33 atm

3. Which one of the following is the seed rate recommended for hybrid rice under transplanting condition ?
(a) 20 kg/ha (b) 30 kg/ha (c) 40 kg/ha (d) 50 kg/ha
4. Better response of phosphatic fertilizer in acid soil under lowland ecosystem takes place when applied in the
form of I. water soluble phosphate II. Rock phosphate III. Any P-containing fertilizer IV. Cirate soluble
phosphate
(a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) II and HI (d) II and IV
5. A farmer has an access of providing only one irrigation to his wheat crop. At what stage of crop growth
should he apply the irrigation ?
(a) Crown root inhibition (b) Tillering (c) Flowering (d) Grainfilling
6. Consider the following statements: In crops, magnesium is essential for
I. Meristematic activity and formation of new tissues in the root tips.
II. Synthesis of Chlorophyll.
III. Promoting transport of Phosphorus particularly into the seeds.
IV. Synthesis of cell wall. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I and H (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and III
7. List I (Scientists) List II (Law/Test/ Hypothesis)
I. Spillman (a) Pressureflow model
II. Munch (b) Gibberellin isolation
III. Yabuta and Hayashi (c) Concept of Limiting Factor
IV. Liebig diminishing (d) Law of returns
(a) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A (b) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C (c) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C (d) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
8. Which one of the following is not a critical method of soil fertility evaluation?
(a) Nutrient deficiency symptoms. (b) Soil testing. (c) Field experiments. (d) Plant tissue tests.
9. Bio-fertilizers are
(a) Dead organisms mixed with essential nutrients in fairly large amounts. (b) Living organisms mixed with
large amount of essential nutrients. (c) Living organisms containing no essential nutrients but they either fix
or mobilize nutrients. (d) Inorganic fertilizers mixed with organic manures.
10. Which one of the following anaerobic micro-organisms fixed atmospheric nitrogen non-symbiotically?
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azatobacter (c) Clostridium (d) Rhodospirillum

Answers:
1.(B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (C)

30 Sets IBPS SO Agriculture Question Papers

Caricato da

Informazioni sul documento

Copyright

Formati disponibili

Condividi questo documento

Condividi o incorpora il documento

Opzioni di condivisione

Hai trovato utile questo documento?

Questo contenuto è inappropriato?

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

30 Sets IBPS SO Agriculture Question Papers

Caricato da

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

qwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnmq

(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Dead virus (d) All

3. The plant virus was first isolated in crystalline form

(a) TMV (b) Baceriophages (c) Cyanophages (d) HIV

(a) Exonucleases (b) Restriction endonucleases (c) Ligases (d) Polymerases

6. Which of the following organelle lack membrane?

(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosomes (c) Microtubules (d) Peroxisomes

7. Virions are _____

9. DNA replication occur in which stage of cell division?

(a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase (c) S phase (d) M phase

10. Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm, it is due to

11. Bacterial genes lack

(a) Exons (b) Introns (c) Prometers (d) Operator

12. The terminal codons are

13. Which sequence in case of eukaryotes is important for mRNA tailing?

Mentor for Bank Exams Page 1

(a) GAGAGA (b) GAATTC (c) UACGAC (d) UACUAAC

14. Transfer of genes (gene flow) in between different species is known as

15. Most commonly used organism in SCP is

(a) Bacillus (b) E. coli (c) Spirulina (d) Pseudomonas

17. Which of the following amino acid participate in urea cycle?

(a) Argininie (b) Lysine (c) Tryptophan (d) Histidine

18. The techniques to clone the first gene were developed in

(a) 1972 (b) 1987 (c) 1976 (d) 1977

19. Biosensers are used as

20. Which enzyme plays important role in reverse transcription?

1. Fresh water prawns yield eggs at

(a) Over 50% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 40%

3. Minamata Bay diseases in Japan happened due to

4. Indian hill trout is

(a) Schizothorax(b) Rohu (c) Marieus bola (d) Catla

5. For spawing of 1 Kg of carp, how much water is required in hatchery

Mentor for Bank Exams Page 2

(a) 1 m3 (b) 10 m3 (c) 50 m3 (d) 80 m3

6. Larvae of fresh water mussle (L. marginalis) is

(a) Tocophor (b) Pedivelligen (c) Glochidium (d) Spat

7. Widely distributed and cultured fish species in world is

8. Central Institute of Fresh water Aquaculture is located at

(a) W.B (b) Bihar (c) M.P. (d) Bihar

9. The main causative agent of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndorme (EVS) is

10. Species contributimg largest to fish catch in India

11. Indian river prawn is associated with

(a) M. rosenbergii (b) M. lameraii (c) M. malcomsonii (d) M.idea

12. The national fish of India is

(a) 10 to 12 (b) 12 to 14 (c) 14 to 18 (d) 18 to 24

14. Match the following:

2. Lates calcarifer B. Salmon

3. Pangasius pangasius C. Toxicant

5. Calcium carbide E. Fertilizer

7. Esomus dandricus G. Nitrogen fixation

9. Anisops I. Grass carp

10. Biogas slurry J. Molluscs

15. Match the following:

(A) Milk (i) keratin

(B) Egg (ii) Myosin

(C) Meat (iii) Casein

(D) Wool (iv) Albumen

16. Highest milk producing country in the world is

(a) USA (b) CIS (c) Switzerland (d) India

17. Match the following:

(A) White (i) Fishery

(B) Blue (ii) Agriculture

(C) Yellow (iii) Milk

(D) Green (iv) oil seeds