2012 - VNIT I

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1. Which of the following BEST describes 3. Phospholipids will affect the function of
the properties of water? which of the following cell structures?

Latent Heat ···Specific ·surface I: Endoplasmic reticulum

of Heat Tension II. Centrioles
Vaporization Capacity Ill. Mitochondrion
(A) x x -./ IV. Nucleolus
(B) -./ -./ x
(C) x -./ x (A) I and II
(D) -./ -./ -./ (B) I and III
(C) II and IV
-./=High X=Low (D) III and IV

Item 2 refers to the structures below which

show two isomers of glucose. Item 4 refers to the following information.

6Cff,OH Samples of a solution containing

I carbohydrates are treated as follows.
sC 0
H /I
\. H """/H
4C IC 3ample Treatment Observation
I
/\oH H/"-
OH I I OH 1. Benedict's No colour change
JC 2C Reagent
I I
H OH 2. HCl acid (warm); Brick-red
Na,COJ, precipitate
6Cff,OH Benedict's Reagent
I
sC 0 3. Amylase added, then Brick-red
'
H /I Benedict's solution precipitate
\ H """ /OH
II 4C IC
/\oH H / "-. 4. Which of the following carbohydrates are
OH I I H MOST likely present in the solution?
JC 2C
I I (A) Sucrose and starch
H OH
(B) Maltose and starch
2. Which of the following ~tatements is true (C) Glucose, sucrose, glycogen
about BOTH isomers? (D) Glucose, maltose, glycogen

(~) Both contribute to the structure of

starch.
(B) Both contribute to the structure of
cellulose.
(C) I contributes to the structure of
cellulose, II contributes to the
structure of starch.
(D) I OOBkibutei to tho atruoturo of
starch, II contribute& to the
.• . structure of ~uloae.
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Item 5 refers to the following chemical Item 8 refers to the following diagram
structure of a molecule. ' representing the structure of an animal cell
as seen under an electron microscope. '
H
I .·/OH ..... -. ........-. .
HO-CH,-C-C

H
I
N
~
0
--·-.. O·

I / "H•
cn,-cn,-c-c
I ~ . •
H
I /'-H
ca,-c-c
N 0
:..
•
-. •
0
I ~ •••
•
N 0
/'-
H H

5. Wliich of the following is the molecule

represented by the structure? ·

(A) Triglyceride 8. Which of the following structures, present

(B) Tripeptide in this cell, would NOT be seen in a
(C) Triphosphate bacterial cell?
(D) Trisaccharide
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Cytoplasm
6. Which of the following' terms BEST (C) Cell membrane
describes the structure of collagen?
I (D) Nuclear membrane
(A) A triple helix
(B) An 'a.-helix
(C) A double helix Item 9 refers to the following diagram
(D) A ~-helix which shows a transverse section of a plant
structure.
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7. Carbohydrates are transported in plaqts
MAINLY in the form of

(A) fructose
(B) glucose
(C) sucrose
(D) starch

9. The area labelled X represents

(A) acell
(B) a tissue
(C) anorgan
(D) aayatam
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Item 10 refers to the following diagram.

High concentration
••••••
••• •• •
Concentration gradient

Low concentration
• •
10. · The figure above BEST demonstrates

(A) diffusion
(B) exocytosis
(C) active transport
.(D) facilitated diffusion

11. When a plant cell is placed in a solution Item 13 refers to the following graph which
with a less negative water potential than shows the effect of pH on the activity of
its cell sap, the cell becomes more enzymes.

(A) tl,lrgid because water diffuses into I n Ill IV

the cell
(B) flaccid because water diffuses out
Rate of
of the cell
·reaction
(C) turgid because the solution diffuses
into the cell
(D) flaccid because the solution diffuses 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
pH
out of the cell
13. Pepsin is an enzyme found in the human
alimentary system. Which of the above
12. Which of the following events does NOT activity curves represents the action of
involve the movement of ions/chemicals pepsin?
across cell membranes?
(A) I
(A) Cell - cell recognition (B) II
(B) Antigen-antibody interaction (C) III
(C) Chemic.al stimulation at a synapse (D) 1V
(I?) Active transport by enzymic pumps

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Item 14 refers to the following graph which Item 15 refers to the following graph which
shows the relationship between enzyme shows the effect of increasing substrate
concentration and the rate of an enzyme- concentration on the rate of an enzyme-
catalysed reaction. catalysed reaction.

Enzyme concentration

14. Based on the diagram above, which of the Substrate concentration

follo'wing statements BEST describes the
rate of the· enzyme-catalysed reaction? 15. Which of the labelled curves BEST
repres en ts the presence of a competitive
(A) The rate has reached equilibrium. inhibitor?
(B) The rate is affected by the enzyme
cqncentration. (A) I
(C) The rate is inversely proportional (B) II
to the enzyme concentration. (C) III
(D) The rate is directly proportional to (D) IV
the enzyme concentration.
Item 16 refers to the following diagram
showing a segment of a strand of DNA.

·16. The base X is

(A) uracil
(B) adenine
(C) guanine
(D) cytosine
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17. Which of the following gives the correct 19. Which of the following statements correctly
sequence of events' in the replication of describes the difference between RNA and
DNA? DNA?

I. Bonds between complementary (A) RNA is double strand, while DNA

bases break. is single strand.
II. Bonds between complementary (B) RNAhas uracil as one ofits organic
bases form. bases, while DNA does not.
III. Opposite strands separate. (C) RNAhas four different nitrogenous
IV. Free nucleotides pair with bases, while DNA has five.
complementary nucleotides on (D) RNAis found only in the cytoplasm,
each strand. while DNA is found only in the
nucleus.
(A) I, III, IV, II
(B) I, TY, III, II
(C) III, I, TY, II 20. Which two of the following features are
(D) IV, I, III, II evident during mitosis?

I. Two daughter nuclei containing

Item 18 refers to the following diagram identical sets of chromosomes.
showing part of a DNA molecule. II. Homologous chromosomes come
together and crossing over
S' 3' occurs.
III. Four daughter nuclei containing
c G
halfthe number of chromosomes.
A T
IV. Homologous chromosomes do not
A T associate.
T A
T A (A) I and II
(B) I and IV
.G c (C) II and III
A T (D) III and IV
A T
c G
21. In a rat cell, there are 32 chromatids present
c G
at the beginning ofProphase of mitosis.
c G
c s• How many chromatids would there be in
3' the cell at the beginning of Prophase 1 of
meiosis?
18. Which of the following correctly identifies
(A) 16
tfi.e sequence of bases of the mRNA strand
(B) 23
produced during transcription?
(C) 32
(D) 64
(A) CAA TTG AAC CCC
(B) CAA UUG AAC CCC
(C) GUU AAC UUG GGG
(D) OTT AAC TI'G 000

.' .
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22. Which of the following statements BEST 24. . Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules
explains a null hypothesis? only at specific target sites with particular
base sequences. The target sites for some
(A) · A hypothesis which states that restriction enzymes are shown in the table ·
there is no significant difference . below.
between the observed and
expected data.
(B) A hypothesis which states that there Restriction Enzylne Target Site
is significant difference between
the items under investigation. BamHI G GATCC
(C) A hypothesis which is not testable. CCTAG G
(D) A hypothesis which can only be EcoRI G AATTC
. tested by observations. CTTAA G
Hpal CC GG
GG CC
23. Wjten a cross was made between a Hp all GTT AAC
purebreeding pea plant with green, round CAA TTG
seeds and a purebreeding plant with yellow,
wrinkled seeds, all of the F 1 progeny had The code for a small piece of DNA is
yellow round seeds. shown below.

Which of the following ratios shows the GTTAACCCGG

result of a test cross of the F 1 generation?
CAATTGGGCC
Yellow Yellow Green Green
Round Wrinkled Round Wrinkled Which restriction enzyme(s) can be used to
cut the DNA?
(A) l l l 1
(B) 3 l 3 1 (A) BamHI, Hpall
(C) 3 3 1 1 (B) EcoRI only
(D) 9 3 ·3 l (C) HpaI only
(D) Hpal and Hpall

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Item 25 refers to the following stages used . 27. After which of the following forms of gene
in the process of genetic engineering. mutation will a change in codons occur?

1 Potential difference-applied. I. Substitution

2 Cut by restriction enzymes. II. Inversion
3 DNA extracted from cell. III. Addition
4 Fragments travel to anode. IV. Deletion
5 32P probe added.

6 Fragments placed in well at end of (A) II and III only

gel. (B) IIandN only
7 Autoradiograph. (C) I, II and III only
(D) I, III and N only

25. Whfoh of the following identifies th!)

correct sequence of the process? 28. Giraffes are thought to have evolved
long necks due to a short supply of food .
. (A) 2 3 5 4 6 7 1 Selection pressure favoured those with long
(B) 3 2 6 1 4 5 7 necks who were able to reach enough food
(c:::) 4 3 6 7 2 1 5 to survive. This type of selection is known
(D) 5 6 1 3 4 7 2 as

(A) stabilising
Item 26 refers to the· following diagram (B) disruptive
which illustrates a form of gene mutation (C) directional
resulting in a change in chromosome (D) artificial
structure.
A B C D E F G
C D 29. A. possible benefit ofproducing transgenic

--.!.--..~.--n~
~-!--!--G••-
plants is
. (A) determination of human genome
A B E F G (B) improved human nutrition
(C) increased use of pesticides
(D) production of clones

26. Which form of mutation does the diagram

illustrate? 30. Which of the following plays the MOST
significant role in allopatric speciation?
(A) Deletion
(B) Inversion (A) Behavioural isolation
•
(C) Insertion (B) Temporal speciation
(D) Duplication (C) Ecological isolation
(D) Geographical isolation

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31. Which of the following methods of asexual reproduction is INCORRECT, either by its
definition or its examples? ·

Type of Reproduction Definition · .... Examples

(A) Binazy fission Splitting into two daughter cells of Amoeba

similar size Bacteria

(B) Fragmentation Splitting into several pieces, each of Flatworms

which regrows Spirogyra

I (C) Budding Producing an outgrowth from the parent, Hydra

I which breaks off and becomes a separate
individual
Yeast fungus

(D) Spore formation Producing smal~ lightweight spores, Hibiscus

. to assist air dispersal Flamboyant

Item 32 refers to the following diagram which shows some stages of spermatogenesis in a mammal.
Spermatogonium

, __l ~G·

32. Which of the following accurately lists the type of cell division occuring at E, F and G?

E F G

(A) Meiosis I Meiosis :iI Mitosis

I (B)
(C),
Mitosis · Mitosis Meiosis I
) Meiosis I Mitosis Meiosis II
(D) Mitosis Meiosis I Meiosis II
' "

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33. The following are advantages of two types of pqllination.

I. No need for another plant

II. Increases vigour
III. Widens gene pool
IV. No loss of advantageous phenotypes

Which of the above are specific to cross pollination?

(A) I and II only

(B) I and IV only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II, Ill and IV

Item 34 refers to the following diagram which shows the development of the embryo sac and
· female gamete.

l
0
embryo
sac
} degenerate 2
)8 0
embryo '-.3
mother cell
( 4 ~sac@
mature embryo sac

34. The processes occuring at Stages l, 2, 3, and 4 respectively are

(A) meiosis, growth, mitosis, nuqlear fusion

(B) mitosis, growth, meiosis, nuclear fusion ·
(C) meiosis, mitosis, nuclear fusion, growth
(D) nuclear fusion, growth, mitosis, meiosis

35. In some plants the androecium matures before the gynoecium. Such plants are described as

(A) dioecious
(B) monoecious
(C) protandrous
(D) protogynous

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I Item 36 refers to the following diagram which illustrates a section of the human female reproductive
system. · ·

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I 36. Which of the following correctly identifies the structures labelled P, Q, Rand S?

p Q R s
{A) Oviduct Cervix Myometrium Endometrium

(B) Ovary Cervix Endometrium Myometrium

(C) Ovary Uterus Endometrium Myometrium

{D) Oviduct Uterus Myometrium Endometrium

37. In plants the ovary is BEST dei,cribed as the

(A) tip of a carpel

(B) basic unit of the gynoecium
( C) swollen base of a single carpel
(D) female reproductive parts of the flower .
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' Item 38 refers to the following diagram which sh9ws ovarian follicles in various stages of
development.

38. . Which option describes the correct order of'development?

(A) I - II - III - IV
(B) II - III - I - IV
(C) III-I-II-IV
(D) III - I - IV - II

.
39. Which of the following statements 40. What is the function of testosterone in
describes the events occurring in asexual . spermatogenesis?
reproduction ONLY?
(A) Inhibits the activity of the Leydig
(A) Gametes are never involved cells.
and offspring are genetically (B) Inhibits the activity of the Sertoli
different. cells.
(B) Gametes are never involved and (C) Results in the increased production
there is fusion ofhaploid nuclei. of follicle stimulating hormone.
(C) Offspring are genetically the same (D) Results in the growth and
and gametes are never involved. development of spermatogonia
(D) Offspring are genetically different to form spermatozoa.
and a large number ofindividuals
is produced.

..

. .
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Item 41 refers to the following graphs Item 43 refers to the following diagram
which summarise hormonal changes during which shows the stages of spermatogenesis
the menstrual cycle of a woman. that are visible in the traBSverse section of
·· a seminiferous tubule.
I
Blood levels I LU
of pituitary I
hormones L------ '1'.j.
.,,.-FSil . . . --- 1 1'-----------
1
I
I
. Blood levels I Progesterone
-
........ ........
,, ,,
of hormones ''
from ovary Oestrogen
' ...
• 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28
End of Menstruation Days
IV
41. When will ovulation occur ifthere is a surge 43. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) acts
ofLH and FSH on day 12 of the cycle?· directly on the cells labelled

(A) Within 24 hours of the surge. (A) I

(B) 36 hours after the surge. (B) II
(C) 48 hours after the surge. (C) III
(D) It will not occur. (D) IV

44. A birth control method that is used after

42. During the development of a foetus in the
sexual intercourse is typically referred to
womb, the wall of the uterus consists of a
as a
layer of muscle and the
(A) spermicide
(A) chorion (B) diaphragm
(B) placenta (C} combination pill
(C) endometrium (D} morning-after pill
(D) chorionic villi
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' Item 45 refers to the following diagram which represe~ts a human embryo developing in the uterus.

---x

45. The structure labelled X is the

(A) fluid filled sac which protects the embryo from mechanical shock
(B) site where the female gametes undergo meiosis during maturation
(C) site of exchange of materials between the mother and the foetus
(D) structure that stores yolk for the developing foetus

END OF TEST

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON TIDS TEST.

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02107010/CAPB 2012