Alaminos City National High School

Alaminos City, Pangasinan

Earth Science
Diagnostic Test

Multiple Choice: Write the letter of the correct answer in a separate answer sheet.
1. Which of the given theories below explains that the universe was formed from a cataclysmic expansion which
hurled all matter and space were created simultaneously?
a. Steady state Theory b. Inflationary Theory c. Big bang Theory d. Multiverse Theory
2. According to nebular hypothesis, the planets formed from material which was _____.
a. ejected from the sun by an explosion c. part of the collapsing cloud which formed the sun
b. captured by the sun from interstellar space d. pulled from the sun during a collision with another star
3. Compared to its neighboring planets, Mercury, Venus, and Mars, the surface of the Earth is relatively young.
This youthful appearance results from _____.
a. the Earth is furthest from the Sun
b. tectonic activity still shaping the surface of the Earth
c. the fact that few major impacts ever occur on the Earth
d. the Earth having the largest Moon of all of these planets
4. Why life is possible on Earth?
a. Earth is the only planet with a magnetic field.
b. Earth is just the right size to support both plant and animal life.
c. Earth has an atmosphere, liquid water, and a moderate temperature.
d. Earth is larger than Mercury and Mars but smaller than Jupiter and Saturn.
5. All living organisms of Earth, including those on the land and in the water and air, are considered part of which
subsystem?
a. hydrosphere b. geosphere c. atmosphere d. biosphere
Refer to the diagram below to answer items 6 & 7.
Moh’s Scale of Hardness
Mineral Hardness Mineral Hardness
Talc 1 Feldspar 6
Gypsum 2 Quartz 7
Calcite 3 Topaz 8
Fluorite 4 Corundum 9
Apatite 5 Diamond 10
6. Based on the given diagram, which of the following statements is correct?
a. Talc is the hardest mineral. c. Topaz can scratch both quartz and corundum.
d. Diamond can scratch all the minerals. b. Apatite can scratch feldspar but not fluorite.
7. An unknown mineral scratches apatite and is scratched by corundum. What can you conclude about this
mineral’s hardness?
a. The mineral is a diamond. c. Its hardness is greater than 5 but less than 9.
b. Its hardness is between 1 to 10. d. Its hardness is greater than 4 but less than 10.
8. Imagine that you work at a jeweler’s shop and someone brings in some gold nuggets for sale. You are not sure if
the nuggets are real gold. Which identification tests would help you decide whether the nuggets are gold?
a. hardness & density c. tenacity & diaphaneity
b. piezoelectric & color d. specific gravity & cleavage
9. Which of the following sets is an example of native element class?
a. halite, fluorite, sylvite c. chrysoberyl, magnetite, spinel
b. calcite, aragonite, malachite d. copper, antimony, graphite
10. The granite in the diagram contains well-formed crystals of biotite, plagioclase and potassium feldspar. Why
are all the quartz crystals small?
a. Quartz is harder than the other minerals. c. Quartz crystallized at the highest temperature.
b. Quartz crystallized last from the magma. d. Quartz is more stable than all the other minerals.
11. Which sample best shows the physical properties normally associated with regional metamorphism?
a. D c. B

b. C d. A
12. John wrote down some observations of four rock samples she was studying. Based on her observations,
which of the following rock samples is most likely a sedimentary rock?
a. b. c. d.

13. Refer to the diagram at the right side.

Which numbers in the diagram show the processes of
weathering and erosion?
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 5, 6, 7
c. 2, 4, 8
d. 3, 5, 7

14. Which of the following minerals is used as a dry lubricant and steel hardener and for brake linings and the
production of "lead" in pencils?
a. graphite b. granite c. halite d. diamond
15. Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is ____.
a. sustainable development c. resource development
b. resource conservation d. human resource development
16. Prior to mine reclamation laws, mine drainage and acidic runoff from coal tailings were toxic byproducts of __.
a. tillage b. urban development c. underground mining d. strip mining
17. Which of the following fossil fuels is considered to be the most abundant?
a. oil b. coal c. biodiesel d. natural gas
18. In petrothermal systems of geothermal energy there is hot dry rock but no underground water. In such
systems energy is obtained by ____.
a. circulating compressed air b. pumping water c. creating water wells d. burning fossil fuels
19. What is a disadvantage of using hydroelectric power?
a. It is a renewable energy. c. There is little or no pollution produced.
b. There are few or no waste products. d. There can be a change to the land where power station is built.
20. Which form of energy does NOT contribute to greenhouse gases?
a. coal b. fossil fuel c. nuclear power d. natural gas form waste
21. Which of the following statements helps to explain why fresh water is a limited resource?
a. Most of the Earth’s water is salt water
b. About 71% of the Earth’s surface is covered by water
c. Most of the Earth’s fresh water is not liquid water usable by humans
d. Both a and c
22. Fecal coliform levels are monitored because
a. they cause diseases in humans
b. pathogens are relatively scarce in water, making them difficult to monitor directly
c. there is a correlation between fecal coliform counts and the level of nitrites in the water.
d. there is a correlation between fecal coliform counts and the probability of contracting a disease from
water
23. Which of the following is NOT a method of water conservation?
a. rain water harvesting c. improving irrigation efficiency
b. ground water extraction d. avoiding water wastage
24. Which of the following is NOT an example of a soil conservation practice?
a. terracing b. contour plowing c. strip cropping d. use of herbicides
25. Which part of the soil profile generally contains relatively few organisms and organic material, but also has
an accumulation of leached nutrients?
a. Horizon B c. Horizon C d. Horizon D d. Parent material
26. Which is not true about incineration of solid waste?
a. the incinerators are relatively cheap to build
b. the incinerators can be built to generate electricity
c. the ash can contain heavy metals and other toxic substances
d. there are drastic reductions in the volume and weight of wastes
27. What is the toxic substance contained by typical electronic waste?
a. PCBs b. dioxin c. heavy metals d. pesticide-like compounds
28. Which of the following is NOT a method of source reduction of solid waste?
a. incineration b. recycling c. municipal composting d. making packages that weigh less
29. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between mechanical and chemical
weathering?
a. the length of time each takes to break up a rock c. the way they affect the composition of a rock
b. that each occurs only in certain parts of the world d. that only chemical weathering involves water
30. Which of the following agents is the major cause of weathering and erosion?
c. ice b. wind c. glaciers d. mowing water
31. Which of the following situations is most likely to undergo mass wasting?
a. a dry, steep slope of unconsolidated material
b. a wet, steep slope of unconsolidated material
c. a dry moderate slope of unconsolidated material
d. a wet, moderate slope of unconsolidated material
32. Which of the following statements is the best two standard ways to describe Earth’s interior?
a. Temperature is one way to describe Earth's layers while another way is the chemical make-up.
b. Density is one way to describe Earth's layers and describing physical properties is another way.
c. One way describes Earth's layers by how old they are and the other way describes the density.
d. One way describes the layers by their physical properties while the other way describes the chemical.
33. Which of the following geological processes lead to the formation of magma beneath the earth’s surface?
a. crystallization b. subduction c. metamorphism c. volcanism
34. Which of the following does not affect the viscosity of magma?
a. temperature b. silica content c. amount of gases d. water content
35. When rocks are metamorphosed, the mineral components of the rock are _____.
a. ugly first, then beautiful c. transformed into solid state
b. shattered by mechanical processes d. melted first, then crystallized to form new rock
36. What happens when friction between the opposite sides of a fault is high?
a. Folding of the crust may occur.

b. A plateau may form on one side of the fault.

c. The fault locks, and stress builds up until an earthquake occurs.
d. The rocks on both sides of the fault easily slide past each other.
37. What evidence do scientists have that the Earth has layers?
a. Seismic waves change speed and direction as they travel through the Earth.
b. Seismic waves always go straight through the Earth.
c. They sent scientists down to make observations.
d. They don’t really know
38. Using rock samples and evidence from seismic waves, what can scientists infer about the Earth’s layers?
a. The layers have different chemical compositions.
b. The layers have different temperatures and densities.
c. The layers have different depths and thicknesses.
d. All of the Above.
39. Which of the following best characterizes how the diameter of Earth's core and the nature of the outer core
 were discovered?
a. By analysis of the P-wave and S-wave shadow zones.
b. Crystalline iron was found in lavas erupted from the deepest known hot spots.
c. Because P-wave speeds are higher in the outer core than in the lower mantle.
d. By using the ratio of iron meteorites to stony meteorites to deduce the relative diameters of the core
and mantle.
40. Which one of the following best characterizes the asthenosphere?
a. a zone of softened peridotite in the upper mantle
b. a zone of hardened, silicate rock at the base of the oceanic crust
c. the zone in the mantle from which hot-spot magmas are melted
d. a layer of soft, solid, magnesium silicates and molten iron droplets at the base of the mantle
41. Which of the causes seismic discontinuity that forms the boundary between the mantle and outer core?
a. Mohorovicic discontinuity b. Beno discontinuity c. Gutenberg discontinuity d. Shadow zone
42. Which of the following was not used by Wegener as evidence of continental drift?
a. The geometric fit of the continents. c. Fossils that were common to many continents.
b. Magnetic anomalies on the seafloor. d. Evidence of glaciation on widely separated continents.

43. Sea-floor spreading and continental drift are believed to be caused by _____.
a. tides c. changes in the Earth's magnetic field
b. convection currents in the mantle d. shrinkage of the crust as the Earth cools

44. In the plate tectonic model of the Earth's crustal activity, where is most of the new crustal
material formed?
a. where plates collide c. in mountain chains
b. in the centers of continents d. along mid ocean ridges

45. The Philippine archipelago is formed due to the convergence of ______.

a. Asian plate and Australian plate c. Philippine plate and Pacific plate
c. Eurasian plate and Philippine plate d. Asian plate and Pacific plate
Use the information below to answer items 46 & 47.
In the following geological cross section, units A, B, C, D, E and F are sedimentary rocks. Unit G is granite.

B
X X’
C
D

E
F G

46. Which of the following units is the youngest?

a. A b. B c. C d. D
47. The horizontal line labeled X-X' is a(n) _____.
a. fault b. disconformity c. non-conformity d. angular unconformity
Refer to the diagram below to answer items 48 & 49.
48. The age estimate for point A in the diagram above is ______ million years
a. 0.16 b. 1.6 c. 16 d. 160
49. The age estimate for point E in the diagram above is ______ million years
a. 570 b. 2500 c. 3000 d. 4500
50. Which of the following statements regarding radiometric dating is false?
a. Argon-40 is the daughter isotope of potassium-40
b. Carbon-14 is useful for dating materials up to 70,000 years old
c. Sedimentary rocks can be dated more easily than igneous rock
d. Rubidium is incorporated into minerals as they crystallize from a melt