Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 5 (Code E)
Test Date : 03/02/2019

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (2) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (4) 77. (4) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (1) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (3) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (2)
17. (1) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (4)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (4) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (1) 100. (2) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (1) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (1)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Fe
Sol.: Fe  ...(i)
PHYSICS k
W = W – Fup ...(ii)
1. Answer (3)
Hint: Electric field due to a point charge is non
uniform.  
Sol.: There are no any situation such that net force
is zero and if dipole is placed along the field lines T T
then force will pass through axis of dipole hence Fe Fe 
torque will be zero.
2. Answer (2)
KQi Q j W W
Hint: Use U = For free space.
rij
W Fe
KQq KQq Kq 2 
Sol.: Since, Unet  0    0 sin(90  ) sin(18  )
a 2a a
Fe = W tan  ...(3)
 1 
Q 1    –q Similarly Fe = W tan ...(4)
 2
W F vg
– 2q –2 q that is  e k
Q  W  Fe vg  vg
1 2 2 2

–2q k
Q 
2 2
3. Answer (2) 6. Answer (4)
eE vy L
Hint: a  and tan   Hint: FE = qE and T  2
m vx g eff.
eE ˆ Sol.: When lower plate is negatively charged.
Sol.: ay  j and ax  0
m Fnet = mg + qE
Given ux = v0, vy = 0, vx = v0 qE
aeff.  g 
eE  l  m
v y  uy  ay t  0    L
m  v0  Now, T  2
 qE 
vy 
eEl g  m 
 
mv 0
vy eEl /mv 0 eEl + + + + +
tan      qE
vx v0 mv 02
 eEl 
  tan –1  2 
 mv 0 
mg + qE
– – – – – –
4. Answer (3)
Hint: Properties of electric field lines. When lower plate is positively charged.
Sol.: The number of field lines per unit normal cross Fnet = mg – qE
section decides the intensity of electric field and it
qE
is always directed from high potential to low potential. aeff  g – – – – – –
Hence, EA = EC > EB m
Now by equation qE
VA > VB > VC
5. Answer (2)
L mg – qE
T  2
Q2  qE  + + + + + +
Hint: Fe  and Fnet  0 g  m 
4o kr 2  

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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
7. Answer (4) Q 3 Q
Sol.: VSurface = and Vcenter =
Q 40 r 2 40 R
Hint and Sol.: net  enclosed
0 3Q
Since charge enclosed by the surface is same Vcentre 
8o R
hence net out ward flux will be same.
13. Answer (2)
8. Answer (3)
Hint: W = – PE (cos2 – cos 1) 0 A
Hint: C = K C0 and C0 =
Sol.: Since dipole is lying along the electric field d
Hence, 1 = 0 and 2= 37º (given) Sol.: Given that C = 20 F, K = 4
Then, W = – PE (cos 37° – cos 0) C 20
C0   F  5 F
4  PE K 4
 PE   1  14. Answer (4)
5  5
9. Answer (4) Hint: W = q (V)
Sol.: V = VA – VB
 KQ
 ; r R kq kq
Hint: E   r 2 VA  , VB 
0 ; a a
r R
kq kq
9  10 9  1  10 6 Now, V =  0
Sol.: E ( r  R )   10 3 N/C. a a
32 W = qV = 0.
The correct plot of electric field with x is. 15. Answer (1)
E(N/C) 1
3 Hint: U  CV 2
10 2
E  12 Sol.: Voltage across 4 F capacitor is 10 V
x
x(m) 1
U4 F   4  106  102
2
E  12 +3 2 F
x –10
6 F
4 F
10. Answer (2)
Hint: Electric field at centre of charge ring is
 20 V
E
20R . U 4 F  200  J
 q 16. Answer (3)
2k    l  E
Sol.: Since, Ecentre    Hint: E  0 and p.d .  Ed
R R  l  K
   Sol.:
+q –q
q /l q Dielectric Conductor
E  
l 20 l 2
20
 k
11. Answer (4)
x=0 x = 5t
1 2
Hint: Uc  CeqV
2 V
Sol.: Since all the capacitors are short circuited, V0
i.e., V = 0.
V0 – E0t
Hence, U 0 V0 – E0 t –
E0 t
k
12. Answer (4) E0t
V0 – 2E0t –
k
3 E t
V 0 – 3 E 0t – 0
Hint: Vc  . V Surface for solid non conducting k
2 0 t 2t 3t 4t 5t x
sphere. V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + V5.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
17. Answer (1) q 1 1  q 2 q
VP – VR  –  
Hint: Wheat stone bridge. 40  a 3a  4 3a 60a .
Sol.:
C
20. Answer (1)
C
Hint: Charge is conserved.
Q
P C Q Q C
QDE = CE Q2
C C Sol.:  U given. Q C
2C
P C Now let charge finally becomes Q on each
P Q capacitor.
0 A Q
Ceq  C  Then, 2Q = Q Q =
d 2
18. Answer (3) Now final energy stored in both capacitors is
1 Q 2 Q 2 Q 2 Q 2 U
Hint: U  CeqV 2 , Q  CeqV U    
2 2C 2C C 4C 2
Sol.: 2C 2C 2C 2C U U
Hence, energy lossed = U  
A 2 2
21. Answer (1)
C C C C
Hint: Use the colour code.
B Sol.: R = (ab) 10C ± d%
2C = 41 × 102 ± 5%
R = 4.1 k ± 5%
22. Answer (3)
Ceq C Ceq
V
Hint: I 
2C  Ceq Req.
Ceq  C  Sol.: If only S1  closed
2C  Ceq
V
C eq + 2C Ceq = 2C 2
2 + 3C Ceq  I1  ...(i)
5R
C 2eq – C Ceq – 2C2 = 0
3R S1
C  C 2  8C 2 C  3C
Ceq    2C or  C 2R
2 2
6R S2
Ceq = 2C = 2 × 2 F = 4 F
Q = CV = 4 F × 20 V = 80 C A
1 1 V
U  Ceq V 2   4  106  202  800  106 J  0.8 mJ
2 2
19. Answer (2) If only S2 is closed then
Hint: Potential difference between concentric shells. V
Sol.: I2  ...(ii)
8R
When both S1 and S2 are closed, then
S V
R I3  ...(iii)
–q
4R
Q from eqn (i), (ii) and (iii)
q
P I3  I1  I2
4a 23. Answer (2)
a
Hint: p = Nmevd and I = ne Avd.
2a
N.me .v d (e A. L ) neA
Sol.: p   v d me L
e AL e
3a
I 6  9.1 1031  3.2
p me L 
e 1.6  10 19

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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
p = 1.092 × 10–10 kg m s–1 29. Answer (3)
Hint and Sol.: Kirchhoff’s 1st law (KCL) is based on
p  1.1 10 10 kg m s1 conservation of charge.
24. Answer (1) 30. Answer (2)
2 Hint: R  l 2 when volume is constant.
Hint: Pmax  and r  RL
4RL l2
Sol.: R 
Sol.: From the plot. V
Pmax = 50 W when RL = 2 . Rf lf 2
4
Hence r = RL = 2 .    Rf = 40 
Ri l i2 1
and   4RL Pmax  4  2  50  20 V Rf
25. Answer (2) Now for half of stretched wire R 
2
Hint: Balanced wheatstone bridge.
R  20 
R R
Sol.: Since, A  B . 31. Answer (1)
RC RD t2
 Wheatstone bridge is balanced. Hint: Heat   i 2R dt .
30  90 45 t1
Then, RPQ = 30 || 90 =  
120 2 Sol.: Q = 2t – t 2
dQ
10 20 i  2  2t
dt
A B at t = 0, charge Q = 0
P G Q at t = 1, current I = 0
30 D Hence,
C 60 1 2 1
Heat = 0 i R dt  10 (2  2t )2 dt
0
1
1  4 
15 V 2.5   10   (4  4t 2  8t )dt   10  4t  t 3  4t 2 
 0   3 0
 4  40
V 15 15  10  4   4   joule
I    3  3
Req r 45 5 25
 40
2 2 Heat  J
3
I  0.6 A
32. Answer (3)
26. Answer (4)
V
Hint: Use KVL. Hint: I 
Sol.: VP – VQ = 1 × I + 2 + 2 × I + 1 R
8
= 3 + 3I = 3 + 3 × 3 Sol.: A
VP  VQ  12 V 8
27. Answer (1) 4
V2
Hint: R  12 V
P
V 2 180  180 Reading of ammeter will be current in that branch.
Sol.: R    20.25 
P 1600 12 3
28. Answer (3) I  A
8 2
Q ne
Hint: I  
t t I  1.5 A

1012 33. Answer (4)

Sol.: I   1.6  1019
60 V2
Hint: P  .
I  2.67  109 A Ref

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
38. Answer (2)
PS V 2 /RS RP R 1  
Sol.:     . Hint: I  J . S
PP V 2 /RP RS 2  2R 4 
34. Answer (2) Sol.: J  (2 jˆ  2kˆ ) Am2

Hint: (2R + X ) || 4R = X. A  (2iˆ  4 jˆ) mm2
(2R  X )  4R  
Sol.: X I  J .A  (0iˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ )  (2iˆ  4 ˆj  0kˆ )  106
6R  X = 8 × 10–6 A
P R M R I = 8 A
39. Answer (2)
Hint: V = kl.
4R X
 5 
R R Sol.: VAC   2  2 V
3 2
Q N 2
4RX + 8R 2 = 6RX + X 2 k   0.5 V/m
X 2 + 2RX – 8R 2 = 0 4
V = kl
– 2R  4R 2  32R 2 –2R  6R 1.5 = 0.5 × l
X   l = 3 m = 300 cm
2 2
40. Answer (3)
X  2R
Hint: Use equivalent emf and resistance for each
35. Answer (1) branch.
V2 Sol.: ES = nE, rS = nr
Hint: P 
R 36
r  r1 || r2 
Sol.: R = 0.25  × 80 = 20  36
V = 8 × 80 = 640 V
r 2
V 2 640  640
P   20480 W E 1 2
R 20  
r r1 r2
P  20.48 kW
 6 12 
36. Answer (2)   2  
3 6 
Hint: R = R0 (1 + )
Sol.: Req = R0,C (1 + C) + R0, Al (1 + Al) 8V
Req = (R0,C + R0, Al) + (R0,C C + R0, Al Al) 41. Answer (4)
Now R0,c + R0, Al = 90  ...(1) Hint: Short-circuit.
As there is no change in resistance, Sol.: All the current will flow through the shorter path
Req = R0, C + R0, Al between A and B. Hence
R0, C 4  10 3 RAB  0
 R  8 ...(2)
0, Al 0.5  10 3
42. Answer (3)
from eqn (1) and (2) Hint: Ideal cell
R0, Al = 10  Sol.: Let resistance of each bulb is R. Now when all
R0,C = 80  bulbs are on then
37. Answer (3)
1 1 1 R 3E
Hint:   Req  and I  ...(i)
RP R1 R2 3 R
A A A V=E
Sol.:   for parallel combination

 L 1L 2L R
 
When bulb B3 gets fused then Req .
 A  2 A  2
L   L 
 
2 1 1 2E
I  . and V  E.
   R
1 2
Hence when bulb B3 gets fused then reading of
21  2
  ammeter will decrease but that of volt meter remains
1   2 same.

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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
43. Answer (2) After very long time capacitor will be fully charged
 1 1 1  and no current allowed through it. Then current will
Hint: RS  R1  R2  ..... and    ... follow the path of resistance of 2 k.
 RP R1 R2 
20
Sol.: Resistance of each side (of length 2 m) is I   10 mA .
R=3×2=6 2 k
R1 = 2R = 12 
R2 = 4R = 24  CHEMISTRY
A R1=12  46. Answer (2)
A B Hint: Chalcopyrite is CuFeS2.
B  47. Answer (4)
Hint: van Arkel process is used for refining of Ti.
R2 = 24  48. Answer (1)
12  24 Hint: Haematite – Fe2O3
RAB  R1 || R2   8 . Cuprite – Cu2O
36
44. Answer (4) Bauxite – Al2O32H2O
E Cryolite – Na3 AlF6
Hint: I  , V  E  ir 49. Answer (3)
Rr
Hint: Sulphides of Pb  Hg and Cu can be self
6E E
Sol.: i   reduced in presence of their oxides.
6r r 50. Answer (1)
E Hint: Molten NaCl on electrolysis give Na metal at
r cathode.
E 51. Answer (1)
r Hint: Ti2+ [Ar] 3d 2 4s 0
V3+ [Ar] 3d 2 4s 0
E Cr3+ [Ar] 3d 3 4s 0
Mn4+ [Ar] 3d 3 4s 0
r 52. Answer (1)
Hint:
r E Element Fe Co Ni
E r IE1 (kJ/mole) 762 758 736
r E 53. Answer (3)
Hint: Os & Ru can show + 8 oxidation state.
Now terminal voltage across any cell is 54. Answer (3)
E Hint: MnO42– is green coloured ion.
V = E – ir  E  .r
r
55. Answer (3)
V 0 Hint: Ambidentate ligands are monodentate ligands
45. Answer (3) with two different donor sites.
V 56. Answer (1)
Hint: I 
R Hint: [Ag(NH3)2 ] + is linear in shape.
Sol.: S 57. Answer (3)
P 1 k Q
Hint: Number of donar sites to central metal is
1 k called coordination number.
20 V C
Sol.: +x + (–2) + (–2) = 0, so x = +4
When switch ‘S’ is closed, then at t = 0, C behaves 58. Answer (3)
as short circuit. Hence, Hint: CO, CN– and C5H5– have  bonds.
20 59. Answer (4)
I  20 mA
1 k Hint: Ag is extracted by using NaCN solvent.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: 4Ag + 8NaCN + O2 + 2H2O 71. Answer (1)
 4Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + 4NaOH Hint: They are usually non-stoichiometric
compounds and chemically inert.
2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn  Na2 [Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag 72. Answer (3)
60. Answer (4) Hint: Wrought iron is the purest form of iron.
Hint: Cu2S + 2Cu2O  6Cu + SO2. 73. Answer (2)
61. Answer (4) Hint:   n(n  2) BM .
Hint: Al2O3 is reduced by carbon (used as anode) in Sol.: Mn2+ contains 5 unpaired electrons.
Hall-Heroult process.
   5(5  2)  35  5.92 BM
Sol.: Carbon and Hydrogen are not used to reduce
metal sulphides. 74. Answer (1)
62. Answer (2) Hint: Alkaline solution of K 2[HgI 4 ] is known as
Hint: [Cu(NH3) 4 ]Cl2 + 2AgNO3 Nessler’s reagent.
75. Answer (3)
 2AgCl + [Cu(NH3)4](NO3)2
Hint: The alloy of Hg is known as amalgam.
Sol.: Mole of AgCl = 2 × (0.05 × 200 × 10–3) = 0.02
Sol.: Fe does not form amalgam.
 Weight of AgCl = 0.02 × 143.5 = 2.87 g. 76. Answer (2)
63. Answer (3) Hint: Melting point : Cr > V > Ti >> Mn
Hint: d-d transition of d-electron is the cause of 77. Answer (4)
colour of the species.
Hint: 2AgNO3 + K 2CrO4  Ag2CrO4  + 2KNO3
Sol.: TiF62–  Ti4  : 3d0 , Colourless brickred
CoF63–  Co3  : 3d6 , Coloured 78. Answer (1)
Cu2Cl2  Cu+ : 3d10, Colourless Hint: 2FeSO4  
 Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3.
NiBr 2– 2
: 3d 8 , Coloured 79. Answer (4)
4  Ni
Hint: Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8 4s0
64. Answer (1)
Cu2+ : [Ar]3d9 4s0
Hint: en is a chelating ligand.
Sol.:
Sol.: Two rings are present in [Co(en)2ClBr]I.
65. Answer (4) . [NiCl ]2– 
4
Hint: [Co(H2O)5 NO2]2+ can’t show optical isomerism. 3
sp
66. Answer (2)
Hint: Smelting involves extraction of metal through . [CuCl ]2–
4
melting.
Sol.: Fe2O3 + 3C  2Fe + 3CO
3
sp
2– 2
67. Answer (2) .[Ni(CN)4]  dsp , square planar, diamagnetic.
Hint: Distillation is used to refine easily volatile .[Ni(CO)4]  sp3, tetrahedral, diamagnetic.
metals like Hg, Cd. 80. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: High spin complex cation of d5 configuration
 Liquation is used when the impurity are less
fusible than the melt itself like Sn, Pb. has t 32g eg2 configuration.
 Zone refining is used to refine semiconductors Sol.: CFSE = (–0.4 × 3)0 + (0.6 × 2)0 = 0
like Si, Ge where high purity is required. 81. Answer (3)
 Electrorefining is used to refine Ag, Cu. Hint: o increases with the increase in ligand field
68. Answer (3) strength.
Hint: Ellingham diagram is graphical representation Sol.: Ligand field strength: H2O < NH3 < NO2–
of G° vs T. 82. Answer (4)
Sol.: It does not tell about the kinetic feasibility of Hint: Fe2+ : [Ar]3d 64s0.
the process. [Fe (H2O)6 ] 2+ 
69. Answer (2) 3d
Hint: Bessemer’s process is used for making steel. 83. Answer (2)
70. Answer (3) Hint: Conductivity  number of ions.
Hint: In froth floatation sulphide ores are seprated Sol.: K3[Co(C2O4)3 ]  4 ions
from impurities. [Pt(H2O)6] Br4  5 ions
Sol.: Argentite (Ag 2 S) ore is concentrated by [Co(NH3)5 (CO3)]Cl  2 ions
leaching. [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl(NO 2 ) ]  0 ion

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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
84. Answer (3) via air. All the four groups have internal fertilization
Hint: EAN = Atomic number of central metal + and embryo.
number of electrons accepted from ligands – number 94. Answer (4)
of electron lost. Hint: Cucurbits are monoecious plants.
Sol.: K3[Fe(CN)6 ] Sol.: Cucurbits produce staminate and pistillate
EAN = 26 – 3 + 12 = 35. flowers on seperate branches of the same plant.
For 3d series metals EAN should be 36. Wheat and carrot – monocarpic
85. Answer (4) Some Bomboo species – perennial monocarpic
Hint: Transition metal oxide having higher oxidation In all unicellular organisms cell division is itself a
state is more acidic. mode of reproduction.
86. Answer (2) 95. Answer (2)
Hint: Wacker process. Hint: Asexual reproduction produces genetically
O similar progenies.
PdCl2 Sol.: Conidia formation, budding and eyes (axillary
R — CH CH2 H2O
R — C — CH3 bud) of potato, all are mode of asexual reproduction.
87. Answer (2) Isogametes of Cladophora show syngamy and
Hint: Chromyl chloride test is given by salts having produces genetically dissimilar individuals.
Cl– ion. 96. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: Chara is generally monoecious and Marchantia
K2Cr2O7 + 6H2SO4 + 4NaCl  2KHSO4 + 3H2O is dioecious.
4NaHSO4 + 2CrO 2 Cl2 Sol.: Chara is a green alga which produces jacketed
(Red vapours) sex organs. Its female sex organ is nucule/oogonium
88. Answer (3) which matures later than male.
Marchantia is a liverwort which has jacketed sex
Hint: MnO 4–  Mn2  (in acidic medium). organs.
Sol.: 2 MnO 4–  10I–  16H  2Mn2   8H2 O  5I2 . Both produce flagellated gametes.
89. Answer (4) 97. Answer (3)
Hint: Blue colour solution. Hint: Gamete formation is called gametogenesis.
Sol.: Sol.: Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilisation event.
K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 4H2O2  98. Answer (2)
2CrO 5 + K2SO4 + 5H2O Hint: A typical angiospermic anther has four
(Blue) sporangia, one at each corner.
90. Answer (3) Sol.: A typical anther is tetragonal, bilobed,
Hint: Lanthanoids are soft metals and their hardness tetrasporangiate and dithecous.
increases with increase in atomic number. 99. Answer (4)
Hint: Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
BIOLOGY grains.
91. Answer (1) Sol.: Tapetum is usually with dense cytoplasm
Hint: Period from birth to natural death is life span. polyploid, multinucleate and has high DNA content.
Sol.: It is not correlated with the body size and 100. Answer (2)
complexity and specific feature of every organism. Hint: A typical anther has 4 sporangia.
92. Answer (1) Sol.: 25 PMC in each sporangium.
Hint: Axillary buds present on under ground part of Thus total PMCs are = 25 × 4 = 100
subaerial stem can propagate. Since 1 PMC  1 tetrad  4 microspores
Sol.: Such stems are called sucker and found in or pollen grains
plants like Chrysanthemum, Pineapple etc. 100 PMC = 100 tetrads and 4 × 100
Bulb – Onion = 400 pollen grains
Offset – Water hyacinth 1 pollen grain produces 2 male gametes
Leaf bud – Bryophyllum Therefore, 400 pollen grains will produce
93. Answer (4) = 400 × 2 = 800 male gametes.
Hint: Bryophytes and pteridophytes produce motile 101. Answer (1)
male gametes. Hint: In majority of angiosperms pollens are shed at
Sol.: Bryophytes and pteridophytes transfer their two celled stage.
gametes via water while gymnosperms and Sol.: In 60% angiospermic families pollen at the time
angiosperms transfer pollen grains & thus gametes of dispersal have both vegetative and generative cell.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
Generative cell has spindle shaped nucleus with 109. Answer (4)
dense cytoplasm. Hint: Fertilization in angiosperms is a two step
102. Answer (4) process.
Hint: Nucellus is found inner to the integuments in Sol.: Fertilization occurs by syngamy as well as
an ovule. triple fusion therefore, called double fertilization.
Sol.: Nucellus Both triple fusion and double fertilisation are unique
(1) Gives rise to megaspore mother cell to angiosperms.
(2) Stores reserve food material 110. Answer (2)
(3) Forms apomictic embryos in some plants Hint: Maize produces unisexual flowers.
But nucellus never protects ovule. Protection is Sol.: Since flowers are unisexual therefore,
provided by integuments. emasculation is not required.
103. Answer (2) 111. Answer (3)
Hint: Anatropous ovule is the most common ovule Hint: Monocots have only one well developed
found in 82% angiosperms. cotyledon but remains of second cotyledon are also
Sol.: Body of ovule is at right angle to the funicle in present.
hemianatropous ovule. Sol.: Coleoptile – hollow foliar structure that covers
104. Answer (2) plumule.
Hint: Monosporic female gametophyte/embryo sac Coleorhiza – undifferentiated sheath like
is 7 celled and 8 nucleate. structure that protects radicle.
Sol.: Scutellum – single cotyledon.
• Egg apparatus = 3 celled. Epiblast – remains of second cotyledon.
• Out of eight nuclei only 6 are surrounded by cell 112. Answer (3)
wall. Hint: Remains of nucellus are found in perispermic
• Central cell is binucleate. seeds.
• Cellular thickenings of synergids are called filliform Sol.: Beet and black pepper are perispermic seeds
apparatus. having remains of nucellus.
105. Answer (3) 113. Answer (4)
Hint: Outbreeding devices promote cross polination Hint: Apomictic embryos are formed directly from
in plants. diploid/haploid tissues without syngamy.
Sol.: Bud pollination, homogamy and cleistogamy Sol.: Since no gamete formation or fusion occurs
promote self pollination. during apomixis, thus all embryos are genetically
Chasmogamy, protandry, dioecy, dichogamy and self similar. They do not show seggregation of characters
incompatibility promote cross pollination. in hybrids thus are useful for farmers.
106. Answer (3) 114. Answer (3)
Hint: Papaya and date palm both are dioecious. Hint: Common pansy produces both chasmogamous
Sol.: In dioecious plant only xenogamy is possible and cleistogamous flowers.
i.e., female plants get pollinated by pollens of Sol.: Cleistogamous flowers do not require
different male plants. pollinators as the flowers do not open.
107. Answer (1) Since, flowers do not open thus only self pollination
Hint: Wheat and maize show anemophily. occurs. Self pollination does not show genetic
Sol.: Wind pollinated plants show features like variations.
(1) Light weight pollens 115. Answer (2)
(2) Non sticky pollens Hint: Both Eichhornia and Vallisneria are hydrophytes.
(3) Feathery stigma Sol.: Eichhornia – Insect pollination and produces
(4) Well exposed stamen bright, fragrant attractive
108. Answer (4) flowers.
Hint: Insects pollinate flowers for some specific Vallisneria – Water pollinated and has flowers
rewards. with unwettable stigma.
Sol.: These rewards are 116. Answer (3)
(1) Pollen Hint: Linked genes do not seggregate from each
(2) Nectar other.
(3) Safe place for laying eggs. Sol.: If genes would have been linked then Mendel
Insects are attracted by fragrance but it’s not a would be unable to find out the independent
reward for them. assortment of genes due to their linkage.

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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

117. Answer (2) 124. Answer (3)

Hint: Mendel started his work on 3 plants but Hint: In sweet pea, genes controlling flower colour
continued with only garden pea. are complementary to each other.
Sol.:Mendel conducted his work from 1856 – 1863. Sol.: Both dominant genes C and P are required for
• Worked on hawkweed, lablab and garden pea. expression of purple flower.
• He has taken only 14 pure lines/varieties of pea CC PP Cc Pp
plant. Purple x Purple
• Pure line term was given by Johannsen.
118. Answer (2) CP Cp cP cp
Hint: When males produce heterogametes, then
CP CCPP CCPp CcPP CcPp
they decide sex of the progenies.
All plants have purple coloured flowers.
Sol.:Grasshopper, Drosophila, Human -
125. Answer (1)
Males are heterogametic.
Hint: Flower colour in 4 O’clock plant shows
Birds, butterflies and moths -
incomplete dominance during its inheritance.
female are heterogametic.
Sol.: Gene for phenylalanine – Pleiotropic
119. Answer (4) hydroxylase.
Hint: Punnett square is a graphical representation to Gene which masks the – Epistatic
calculate possible zygotic combinations. action of another gene
Sol.: It is used for all mono, di or trihybrid crosses. AB blood group. – Codominance
It was proposed by British geneticist, R.C. Punnett. 126. Answer (1)
120. Answer (3) Hint: These symptoms are related to Down’s
Hint: Probability of obtaining desired zygotic syndrome.
combination depends on types of gametes formed by Sol.: Down’s syndrome occurs due to trisomy of
parents. 21st chromosome.
Sol.: Parent 1 = aa BB cc DD Thus chromosomes complement = 45 + XY / 45 + XX.
Parent 2 = AA bb CC DD 127. Answer (3)
Zygote = Aa BB cc DD Hint: Alleles are contrasting forms of a gene.
Parent 2 does not have B and c, so there is no Sol.: Alleles of a gene will always be situated on
chance of BB and cc in zygote. homologous sites of homologous chromosomes.
Therefore probability of getting such zygote is = 0. 128. Answer (2)
121. Answer (3) Hint: Distance between two genes
Hint: Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant = their recombination frequency.
disorder. Sol.: In Drosophila recombination frequency between
Sol.: To find out autosomal dominant disorder there genes w and y is = 1.3%.
is a rule. Distance between w and y = 1.3 cM.
129. Answer (4)
To have an affected child, parent must be affected,
Hint: Gene for hypertrichosis is present on
thus option 3 is correct.
Y-chromosome.
122. Answer (3)
Sol.: This trait is known as holandric trait.
Hint: In garden pea only a single gene controls both
130. Answer (3)
starch grain size and shape of seed. Hint: Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to point
Sol.: It shows mutation.
(1) Pleiotropy. Sol.: Point mutation i.e., transversion of A by T in
(2) Incomplete dominance (Bb form DNA causes altered amino acid at 6th position of
intermediate size starch grains).  chain of globin protein.
(3) Complete dominance (Bb, seed shape is 131. Answer (2)
round). Hint: Radiations are powerful physical mutagens.
123. Answer (4) Sol.: Strength of radiations depends on their
Hint: Colourblindness is a X-linked recessive wavelength.
disorder. 1
Sol.: Both affected parents can never have an According to E  , the radiations with smallest

unaffected child. The disorder may not appear in wavelength will have highest energy and they will be
generation but can pass from grandparent to more powerful mutagen.
grandson or grand daughter. Here X-ray are the smallest wavelength radiations.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

X-ray > UV rays > Visible > Infrared Sol.: Inhibin is a proteinaceous hormone
spectrum synthesized in male from sertoli cells and in female
energy from granulosa cells to inhibit secretion of FSH.
132. Answer (3) 139. Answer (3)
Hint: Number of phenotypes depends on number of Hint: Embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called
gametes produced. morula.
Sol.: Since 1 parent in all options is aabb Sol.: Embryonic development starts with cleavage
(test cross). Thus types of gamete will depend only and undergoes following stages.
on 2nd parent. cleavage
Zygote  cleavage
Morula  Blastocyst
AABb × aabb, AABB × aabb, AaBb × aabb ,
morphogenetic movement

mitosis
 Gastrulation 
Formation
of notochord

2 types of 1 type of 4 types of Formation
gametes gametes gametes Notogenesis 
of neural tube
 Neurulation
AaBB × aabb 140. Answer (2)
Hint: This structure derived from epiblast.
2 types of Sol.: Appearance of primitive streak represents start
gametes of gastrulation and end of gastrulation results in
133. Answer (2) formation of three germ layers.
Hint: Genotype of man is 141. Answer (3)
= IB i because his mother had genotype ii. Hint: This reaction is triggered by movement of Ca2+
Sol.: Woman Man ions.
A B
I I x B
I i Sol.: To prevent polyspermy, fertilized egg show fast
1 block and slow block.
Probability of getting son = In slow block, Golgi body of egg synthesizes cortical
2 granules which get fused with zona pellucida to form
1
Probability of getting AB blood group = a hardned membrane known as fertilization
4 membrane. Now, sperms cannot pass through this
Probability of first son with AB blood group
membrane.
1 1 1
=   142. Answer (2)
4 2 8 Hint: Haploid structure formed at end of
134. Answer (4) spermatogenesis..
Hint: Wheat kernel colour shows polygenic Sol.: Primary spermatocyte and primary oocyte are
inheritance and is controlled by two pairs of genes. diploid structures. Spermatozoa can be represented
Sol.: In polygenic inheritance, the intermediate by (22 + X) or (22 + Y) but ootid is always (22 + X).
phenotype is always maximum in number in a 143. Answer (3)
population. Hint: Hormone released from adrenal cortex.
135. Answer (1) Sol.: hCG decline towards ends of pregnancy, hPL
Hint: Recessive features are expressed only in pure affects growth and function of mammary glands.
line condition. Progesterone level decrease at the end of pregnancy
Sol.: Terminal flower position in pea is a recessive there increasing estrogen progesteron ratio.
feature. 144. Answer (4)
136. Answer (2) Hint: Glucocorticoids are corticosteroids.
Hint: Main sex hormone of male responsible for Sol.: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid synthesized from
descent of testes. zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex and not from
Sol.: Failure in descent of testes is known as placenta. During pregnancy, placenta forms CRH
cryptorchidism which causes male sterility due to (corticotrophin releasing hormone) to increase
failure in maturation of sperms. Descent of testes secretion of cortisol.
starts during 7th month of pregnancy under effect of 145. Answer (4)
testosterone. Hint: Structure responsible for erythropoeisis in early
137. Answer (4) embryonic stage of humans.
Hint: Interstitial cells secrete androgens. Sol.: There are 3 extra embryonic germ layers
Sol.: Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular which form extra embryonic foetal membranes
hormones. Sertoli cells secrete inhibin. namely chorion, amnion, yolk sac and allantois.
138. Answer (3) Chorion — Ectoderm and mesoderm.
Hint: Identify a hormone acts on sertoli cells. Amnion — Mesoderm and ectoderm.

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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Yolk sac — Mesoderm and endoderm. Sol.: Development of unfertilized egg into complete
Allantois — Mesoderm and endoderm. organism is known as parthenogenesis. In honey
146. Answer (2) bee, drones are product of parthenogenesis
Hint: Identify a function of multiload 375. (Arrhenotoky) and they produce gametes by mitosis.
Sol.: LNG 20 is hormonally medicated IUDs which 156. Answer (3)
prevents implantation and pregnancy. It is Hint: Chromosome number in gamete of Musca is
levonorgestrel i.e., synthetic derivative of 6.
progesterone that causes cervical mucus thickening, Sol.: Meiocytes are diploid (2n) while gamtes are
and thus prevents implantation. haploid(n).
147. Answer (4) 157. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a gonadotrophin. Hint: Identify a sterilisation procedure.
Sol.: LH maintains corpus luteum which secretes Sol.: Surgical methods are permanent method of
progesterone and estrogen. hCG mimics role of LH family planning which involve vasectomy and
in a pregnant female. tubectomy.
148. Answer (4) Emergency contraceptives are drugs used in case of
Hint: Barrier methods prevent contact of sperms with unprotected sex, missed pills etc.
ovum. Implants provide long term contraception.
Sol.: Diaphragm, vault and condom are barrier Chemical methods are contraceptives which contain
methods of contraception but combined pills are oral spermicidal chemicals.
contraceptive pills (OCP) which prevents pregnancy 158. Answer (2)
by inhibiting ovulation. Hint: Contraceptive pill commonly known as ‘‘once
149. Answer (4) a week pill’’.
Hint: ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology). Sol.: Saheli is a nonsteroidal oral contraceptive pill
Sol.: In vitro fertilization (IVF) and embryo transfer developed at CDRI, Lucknow.
(ET). 159. Answer (2)
Hint: Population growth rate was 17/1000/year in
150. Answer (1)
2001.
Hint: Identify an in-vivo technique of assisted
Sol.: According to 2011 census report, population
reproduction.
growth rate was around 2.0%.
Sol.: Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube in GIFT.
160. Answer (2)
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Technique which is misused to determine the
Hint: Longitudinal binary fission occurs in flagellates.
sex of the unborn.
Sol.: Euglena is a flagellate organism. It performs
Sol.: Amniocentesis can identify chromosomal
asexual reproduction by longitudinal binary fission
abnormalities and metaobolic disorders.
along its longitudinal axis of the body.
161. Answer (4)
152. Answer (4)
Hint: Animals in which diploid eggs (gamete) are
Hint: Identify a pore bearing animal. produced.
Sol.: Gemmules are internal buds formed by Sol.: In Typhlina brahmina, only females are found
endogenous budding during unfavourable conditions in their population that produce diploid eggs by
in sponges. mitosis which later develop into diploid adult
153. Answer (3) females.
Hint: Identify a viral STI. 162. Answer (4)
Sol.: Genital warts are STI (Sexually Transmitted Hint: IUDs made up of stainless steel or
Infection) caused by viruses. Haemophilus ducrei polyethylene impregnated with barium sulphate.
causes a bacterial disease known as chancroid. Sol.: IUDs are classified into two categorise-non
154. Answer (3) medicated eg-Lippes loop and
Hint: This phase occur due to decline in
progesterone level. Medicated
Sol.: Follicular phase involves maturation of follicles
in ovary. Luteal phase occurs after ovulation in ovary.
Progesterone is responsible for thickening of cervical Cu-loaded Hormonal
mucus in secretory phase.
155. Answer (3) Multiload-375, LNG-20,
Hint: Mode of reproduction that does not involve Cu-7, Progestasert
gametic fusion. Cu-T380A

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
163. Answer (4)
Hint: In humans, eggs are alecithal and development
is regulative.
Sol.: In humans, cleavage is holoblastic, equal,
radial and indeterminate. So, that development is
regulative. In 1951, family planning programmes were
initiated in India.
164. Answer (1)
Hint: This method of medical termination of
pregnancy was legalized before 2000.
Sol.: MTP was legalized in 1971 with some strict
conditions to avoid its misuse. In 1951 family
planning programmes were initiated in India.
165. Answer (1)
Hint: Ovulatory hormone from anterior pituitary
suddenly peaks in mid cycle.
Sol.: 'A' represents progesterone which is first
hormone to peak in luteal phase followed by 'B'
which is estrogen 'C' represents LH and D
represents FSH.
166. Answer (2)
Hint: Single celled organisms are immortal.
Sol.: In unicellular organisms, cell division result in
reproduction. So, there is no natural death in them
and are considered as immortal.
167. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify the smallest taxon of classification.
Sol.: Life expectancy, the number of years an
individual can expect to live for, is based on average
life span.
168. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify an unisexual organism.
Sol.: Earthworm, tapeworm and leech are bisexual
animals while cockroach is unisexual.
169. Answer (3)
Hint: These pills contain steroidal preparation.
Sol.: GnRH, FSH and hCG are proteinaceous
hormones.
170. Answer (3)
Hint: Select the product of syngamy.
Sol.: Zygote is a unicellular diploid structure that
serves as vital link between organisms of one
generation to next and ensures continuity of species.
171. Answer (4)
Hint: Intratesticular genital system includes
structures present within testes.
Sol.: Epididymis is a extra-testicular genital duct.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Entry of Ca 2+ into sperms causes rapid
whiplash movements of the tail part.
Sol.: Insemination is transferer or deposition of
sperms into the female genital tract. Acrosomal
reaction involves release of hydrolytic enzymes from
‰ ‰ ‰
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Test - 5 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
sperm's head. Spermiation is a process when sperms
are released from seminiferous tubules.
173. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a chestnut shaped gland.
Sol.: Paired accessory gland of male includes
seminal vesicles, cowper's gland/Bulbourethral gland
while prostate gland is unpaired. In female Bartholin's
glands are paired structure.
174. Answer (1)
Hint: During organogenesis, heart is formed and
starts functioning during 4th week of gestation.
Sol.: Heart sound is heared with the help of
stethoscope after 1st month. During 2nd month of
pregnancy limbs and digits develop. At the end of
first trimester, external genitalia develop while
eyelashes become distinct after 24 weeks.
175. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is also called birth hormone.
Sol.: Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary is
responsible for release of stored milk in mammary
glands.
176. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a hormone that maintain pregnancy.
Sol.: Progesterone is called pregnancy hormone
oxytocin is released after foetal ejection reflex. hCG
is responsible for maintaining corpus luteum in ovary
during pregnancy.
177. Answer (1)
Hint: This is located closer to sperm nucleus.
Sol.: Proximal centriole of sperm enters ovum for
astral ray formation whereas distal centriole
participates in formation of axial filament. For
cleavage in zygote centriole of sperm is necessory
as ova lacks it.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a primary sex organ of humans.
Sol.: Mammary ampulla is a wider part which is
connected to lactiferous duct. Infundibulum leads to
a wider part of oviduct called ampulla. Vas deferens
dilates to form ampulla which receives duct from
seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: Follicle which contains well developed antrum
or follicular cavity.
Sol.: Meiosis-I is completed within tertiary follicle to
form 1st polar body and comparatively a larger cell
known as secondary oocyte.
180. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify the primary egg membrane around
ovum in Graafian follicle.
Sol.: Corona radiata and granulosa are cellular
layers. Theca externa is made up of fibrous
connective tissue. Zona pellucida is made up of
glycoproteins.
Test - 5 (Code F) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 5 (Code F)
Test Date : 03/02/2019

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (1)
5. (4) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (4) 149. (1)
6. (3) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (2) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (4) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (4) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (4) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (4) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (1) 101. (1) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (3) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

R1 = 2R = 12 
PHYSICS R2 = 4R = 24 
1. Answer (3) A R1=12 
V A B
Hint: I  B 
R
Sol.: S
P 1 k Q R2 = 24 
12  24
20 V C 1 k RAB  R1 || R2   8 .
36
4. Answer (3)
When switch ‘S’ is closed, then at t = 0, C behaves
Hint: Ideal cell
as short circuit. Hence,
Sol.: Let resistance of each bulb is R. Now when all
20 bulbs are on then
I  20 mA
1 k R 3E
After very long time capacitor will be fully charged Req  and I  ...(i)
3 R
and no current allowed through it. Then current will V=E
follow the path of resistance of 2 k.
R
20 When bulb B3 gets fused then Req   .
I   10 mA . 2
2 k 2E
2. Answer (4) I  . and V  E.
R
E Hence when bulb B3 gets fused then reading of
Hint: I  , V  E  ir
Rr ammeter will decrease but that of volt meter remains
6E E same.
Sol.: i   5. Answer (4)
6r r
E Hint: Short-circuit.
r Sol.: All the current will flow through the shorter path
E between A and B. Hence

r RAB  0
6. Answer (3)
E Hint: Use equivalent emf and resistance for each
branch.
r Sol.: ES = nE, rS = nr
36
r  r1 || r2 
r E 36
E r r 2
r E E 1  2
 
r r1 r2
Now terminal voltage across any cell is  6 12 
  2  
E 3 6 
V = E – ir  E  .r
r
8V
V 0
7. Answer (2)
3. Answer (2) Hint: V = kl.
 1 1 1   5 
Hint: RS  R1  R2  ..... and    ... Sol.: VAC   2  2 V
 RP R1 R2  3 2
Sol.: Resistance of each side (of length 2 m) is 2
k   0.5 V/m
R=3×2=6 4

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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

V = kl P R M R
1.5 = 0.5 × l
 l = 3 m = 300 cm
8. Answer (2) 4R X
  R R
Hint: I  J . S
Q N
 4RX + 8R 2 = 6RX + X 2
Sol.: J  (2 ˆj  2kˆ ) Am2
 X 2 + 2RX – 8R 2 = 0
A  (2iˆ  4 ˆj ) mm2 – 2R  4R 2  32R 2 –2R  6R
  X 
I  J .A  (0iˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ )  (2iˆ  4 ˆj  0kˆ )  106 2 2
= 8 × 10–6 A X  2R
I = 8 A 13. Answer (4)
9. Answer (3)
V2
1 1 1 Hint: P  .
Hint:   Ref
RP R1 R2
PS V 2 /RS RP R 1
A A A Sol.:  2    .
Sol.:   for parallel combination PP V /RP RS 2  2R 4
 L 1L 2L
14. Answer (3)
 A  2 A  V
L   L 
  Hint: I 
R
2 1 1 8
   Sol.: A
 1 2
8
21  2
 
1   2 4
10. Answer (2)
12 V
Hint: R = R0 (1 + )
Sol.: Req = R0,C (1 + C) + R0, Al (1 + Al) Reading of ammeter will be current in that
Req = (R0,C + R0, Al) + (R0,C C + R0, Al Al) branch.
Now R0,c + R0, Al = 90  ...(1) 12 3
As there is no change in resistance, I  A
8 2
Req = R0, C + R0, Al
I  1.5 A
R0, C 4  10 3 15. Answer (1)
  8 ...(2)
R0, Al 0.5  10 3 t2

from eqn (1) and (2) Hint: Heat   i 2R dt .

t1
R0, Al = 10 
Sol.: Q = 2t – t 2
R0, C = 80 
dQ
11. Answer (1) i  2  2t
dt
V2
Hint: P  at t = 0, charge Q = 0
R at t = 1, current I = 0
Sol.: R = 0.25  × 80 = 20  Hence,
V = 8 × 80 = 640 V 1 2 1
2
Heat = 0 i R dt  10 (2  2t )2 dt
V 640  640 0
P   20480 W 1
1  4 
R 20  10   (4  4t 2  8t )dt   10  4t  t 3  4t 2 
 0   3 0
P  20.48 kW
 4  40
12. Answer (2)  10  4   4   joule
Hint: (2R + X ) || 4R = X.  3  3
(2R  X )  4R 40
X Heat  J
Sol.: 3
6R  X

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

16. Answer (2) V 15 15

Hint: R  l 2 when volume is constant. I  
Req  r 45 5 25

l2 2 2
Sol.: R 
V I  0.6 A
Rf lf2 4 22. Answer (1)
   Rf = 40 
Ri l i2 1 2
Hint: Pmax  and r  RL
4RL
Rf
Now for half of stretched wire R  Sol.: From the plot.
2
Pmax = 50 W when RL = 2 .
R  20  Hence, r = RL = 2 .
17. Answer (3) and   4RL Pmax  4  2  50  20 V
Hint and Sol.: Kirchhoff’s 1st law (KCL) is based on 23. Answer (2)
conservation of charge. Hint: p = Nmevd and I = ne Avd.
18. Answer (3) N.me .v d (e A. L ) neA
Q ne Sol.: p   v d me L
Hint: I   e AL e
t t
I 6  9.1 1031  3.2
1012 p me L 
Sol.: I   1.6  1019 e 1.6  10 19
60 p = 1.092 × 10 –10 kg m s–1
I  2.67  109 A p  1.1 10 10 kg m s1
19. Answer (1) 24. Answer (3)
2
V V
Hint: R  Hint: I 
P Req.
V 2 180  180 Sol.: If only S1  closed
Sol.: R    20.25 
P 1600 V
20. Answer (4)  I1  ...(i)
5R
Hint: Use KVL. S1
3R
Sol.: VP – VQ = 1 × I + 2 + 2 × I + 1
= 3 + 3I = 3 + 3 × 3 2R
6R S2
VP  VQ  12 V
21. Answer (2) A
Hint: Balanced wheatstone bridge. V
R A RB
Sol.: Since,  . If only S2 is closed then
RC RD
V
 Wheatstone bridge is balanced. I2  ...(ii)
8R
30  90 45 When both S1 and S2 are closed, then
Then, RPQ = 30 || 90 =  
120 2 V
I3  ...(iii)
4R
10 20 from eqn (i), (ii) and (iii)
A B
G I3  I1  I2
P Q
30 D 25. Answer (1)
C 60 Hint: Use the colour code.
Sol.: R = (ab) 10C ± d%
= 41 × 102 ± 5%
15 V 2.5  R = 4.1 k ± 5%
26. Answer (1)
Hint: Charge is conserved.

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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Q C
C  C 2  8C 2 C  3C
Q2 Ceq    2C or  C
Sol.:  U given. Q C 2 2
2C
Ceq = 2C = 2 × 2 F = 4 F
Now let charge finally becomes Q on each Q = CV = 4 F × 20 V = 80 C
capacitor.
1 1
U Ceq V 2   4  106  202
Q 2 2
Then, 2Q = Q Q =
2 6
 800  10 J  0.8 mJ
Now final energy stored in both capacitors is 29. Answer (1)
Hint: Wheat stone bridge.
Q 2 Q 2 Q 2 Q 2 U
U     Sol.:
2C 2C C 4C 2 C C
Q
U U P C Q
Hence, energy lossed = U   QDE = CE
2 2 C C
27. Answer (2)
Hint: Potential difference between concentric shells. P C
P Q
Sol.:
S  A
Ceq  C  0
R d
Q –q 30. Answer (3)
q E
Hint: E  0 and p.d .  Ed
P K
4a Sol.: +q Dielectric Conductor –q
a
2a k

x=0 x = 5t
3a
V
V0

V0 – E0t
q 1 1  q 2 q V0 – E0 t –
E0 t
VP – VR   –    k
40  a 3a  4 3a 60a . E0t
V0 – 2E0t –
k
28. Answer (3) E0t
V0 – 3E0t –
k
1 0
Hint: U  CeqV 2 , Q  CeqV t 2t 3t 4t 5t x
2 V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + V5.
Sol.: 2C 2C 2C 2C 31. Answer (1)
A 1
Hint: U  CV 2
C C C C 2
Sol.:Voltage across 4 F capacitor is 10 V
B 1
2C U4 F   4  106  102
2
2 F
Ceq C Ceq 6 F
4 F
2C  Ceq
Ceq  C 
2C  Ceq
C eq + 2C Ceq = 2C 2
2 + 3C Ceq 20 V
C 2eq – C Ceq – 2C2 = 0 U 4 F  200  J

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

32. Answer (4) The correct plot of electric field with x is.
Hint: W = q (V) E(N/C)
Sol.: V = VA – VB 3
10
kq kq E  12
VA  , VB  x
a a x(m)
kq kq
Now, V =  0 E  12 +3
a a x –10
W = qV = 0.
33. Answer (2) 38. Answer (3)
 A Hint: W = – PE (cos 2 – cos 1)
Hint: C = K C0 and C0 = 0
d Sol.: Since dipole is lying along the electric field
Sol.: Given that C = 20 F, K = 4 Hence, 1 = 0 and 2= 37º (given)
C 20 Then, W = – PE (cos 37° – cos 0)
C0   F  5 F
K 4 4  PE
34. Answer (4)  PE   1 
5  5
3 39. Answer (4)
Hint: Vc  . V Surface for solid non conducting
2 Q
sphere. Hint and Sol.: net  enclosed
0
Q 3 Q
Sol.:VSurface = and Vcenter = Since charge enclosed by the surface is same
40 r 2 40 R hence net out ward flux will be same.
3Q 40. Answer (4)
Vcentre 
8o R L
Hint: FE = qE and T  2 .
35. Answer (4) g eff.
1 2 Sol.: When lower plate is negatively charged.
Hint: Uc  CeqV Fnet = mg + qE
2
Sol.: Since all the capacitors are short circuited, qE
i.e., V = 0. aeff.  g 
m
Hence, U 0 L
Now, T  2
36. Answer (2)  qE 
g  m 
Hint: Electric field at centre of charge ring is  
 + + + + +
E qE
20R . 

 q
2k    l  mg + qE
Sol.: Since, Ecentre    – – – – – –
R R  l  When lower plate is positively charged.
   Fnet = mg – qE

q /l q qE
E   aeff  g –
l 2 m
20 20 l
– – – – –

37. Answer (4) qE

 KQ mg – qE
 ; r R
Hint: E   r 2 + + + + + +
0 ; r R Now by equation
L
9  10 9  1  10 6 T  2
Sol.: E ( r  R )   10 3 N/C.  qE 
32 g  m 
 

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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

41. Answer (2) KQq KQq Kq 2

2 Sol.: Since, Unet  0    0
Q a 2a a
Hint: Fe  and Fnet  0
4o kr 2  1 
Q 1    –q
Fe  2
Sol.: Fe  ...(i)
k – 2q –2 q
W = W – Fup ...(ii) Q 
1 2 2 2
–2q
  Q
2 2
T T 45. Answer (3)
Fe Fe  Hint: Electric field due to a point charge is non
uniform.
Sol.: There are no any situation such that net force
W W is zero and if dipole is placed along the field lines
For free space. then force will pass through axis of dipole hence
W Fe torque will be zero.

sin(90  ) sin(18  ) CHEMISTRY
Fe = W tan  ...(3) 46. Answer (3)
Similarly Fe = W tan ...(4) Hint: Lanthanoids are soft metals and their hardness
W Fe vg increases with increase in atomic number.
that is  k
W  Fe vg  vg 47. Answer (4)
Hint: Blue colour solution.
 Sol.:
k
 K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 4H2O2 
42. Answer (3) 2CrO5 + K2SO4 + 5H2O
(Blue)
Hint: Properties of electric field lines. 48. Answer (3)
Sol.: The number of field lines per unit normal cross Hint: MnO 4–  Mn2  (in acidic medium).
section decides the intensity of electric field and it
Sol.: 2 MnO 4–  10I–  16H  2Mn2   8H2 O  5I2 .
is always directed from high potential to low potential.
49. Answer (2)
Hence, EA = EC > EB
Hint: Chromyl chloride test is given by salts having
VA > VB > VC
Cl– ion.
43. Answer (2)
Sol.:
eE vy K2Cr2O7 + 6H2SO4 + 4NaCl  2KHSO4 + 3H2O
Hint: a  and tan  
m vx 4NaHSO4 + 2CrO 2 Cl2
eE ˆ (Red vapours)
Sol.: ay  j and ax  0 50. Answer (2)
m
Given ux = v0, vy = 0, vx = v0 Hint: Wacker process.
O
eE  l 
v y  uy  ay t  0    PdCl2
m  v0  R — CH CH2 R — C — CH3
H2O
eEl 51. Answer (4)
vy 
mv 0 Hint: Transition metal oxide having higher oxidation
state is more acidic.
vy eEl /mv 0 eEl
tan     52. Answer (3)
vx v0 mv 02 Hint: EAN = Atomic number of central metal +
 eEl  number of electrons accepted from ligands – number
  tan –1  2  of electron lost.
 mv 0 
Sol.: K3[Fe(CN)6 ]
44. Answer (2) EAN = 26 – 3 + 12 = 35.
KQi Q j For 3d series metals EAN should be 36.
Hint: Use U =
rij 53. Answer (2)
Hint: Conductivity  number of ions.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: K3[Co(C2O4)3 ]  4 ions Sol.: Argentite (Ag 2 S) ore is concentrated by
[Pt(H2O)6] Br4  5 ions leaching.
[Co(NH3)5 (CO3)]Cl  2 ions 67. Answer (2)
[Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl(NO 2 ) ]  0 ion Hint: Bessemer’s process is used for making steel.
54. Answer (4) 68. Answer (3)
Hint: Fe2+ : [Ar]3d 64s0. Hint: Ellingham diagram is graphical representation
of G° vs T.
[Fe (H2O)6 ] 2+  Sol.: It does not tell about the kinetic feasibility of
3d the process.
55. Answer (3)
69. Answer (2)
Hint: o increases with the increase in ligand field
Hint: Distillation is used to refine easily volatile
strength.
metals like Hg, Cd.
Sol.: Ligand field strength: H2O < NH3 < NO2–
Sol.:
56. Answer (2)
 Liquation is used when the impurity are less
Hint: High spin complex cation of d5 configuration
fusible than the melt itself like Sn, Pb.
has t 32g eg2 configuration.  Zone refining is used to refine semiconductors
Sol.: CFSE = (–0.4 × 3)0 + (0.6 × 2)0 = 0 like Si, Ge where high purity is required.
57. Answer (4)  Electrorefining is used to refine Ag, Cu.
Hint: Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8 4s0 70. Answer (2)
Cu2+ : [Ar]3d9 4s0 Hint: Smelting involves extraction of metal through
Sol.: melting.
. [NiCl ]2–  Sol.: Fe2O3 + 3C  2Fe + 3CO
4
71. Answer (4)
3
sp Hint: [Co(H2O)5 NO2]2+ can’t show optical isomerism.
. [CuCl ]2– 72. Answer (1)
4
Hint: en is a chelating ligand.
3
sp Sol.: Two rings are present in [Co(en)2ClBr]I.
.[Ni(CN)4]2–  dsp , square planar, diamagnetic.
2
73. Answer (3)
Hint: d-d transition of d-electron is the cause of
.[Ni(CO)4]  sp3, tetrahedral, diamagnetic.
colour of the species.
58. Answer (1)

Sol.: TiF62–  Ti4 : 3d0 , Colourless
Hint: 2FeSO4   Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3.
59. Answer (4) CoF63–  Co3 : 3d6 , Coloured
Cu2Cl2  Cu+ : 3d10, Colourless
Hint: 2AgNO3 + K 2CrO4  Ag2CrO4  + 2KNO3
2
brickred NiBr 2–
4  Ni : 3d 8 , Coloured
60. Answer (2) 74. Answer (2)
Hint: Melting point : Cr > V > Ti >> Mn Hint: [Cu(NH3) 4 ]Cl2 + 2AgNO3
61. Answer (3)  2AgCl + [Cu(NH3)4](NO3)2
Hint: The alloy of Hg is known as amalgam. Sol.: Mole of AgCl = 2 × (0.05 × 200 × 10–3) = 0.02
Sol.: Fe does not form amalgam.  Weight of AgCl = 0.02 × 143.5 = 2.87 g.
62. Answer (1) 75. Answer (4)
Hint: Alkaline solution of K 2[HgI 4 ] is known as Hint: Al2O3 is reduced by carbon (used as anode) in
Nessler’s reagent. Hall-Heroult process.
63. Answer (2) Sol.: Carbon and Hydrogen are not used to reduce
metal sulphides.
Hint:   n(n  2) BM .
76. Answer (4)
Sol.: Mn2+ contains 5 unpaired electrons.
Hint: Cu2S + 2Cu2O  6Cu + SO2.
   5(5  2)  35  5.92 BM 77. Answer (4)
64. Answer (3) Hint: Ag is extracted by using NaCN solvent.
Hint: Wrought iron is the purest form of iron. Sol.: 4Ag + 8NaCN + O2 + 2H2O
65. Answer (1)  4Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + 4NaOH
Hint: They are usually non-stoichiometric 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn  Na2 [Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag
compounds and chemically inert. 78. Answer (3)
66. Answer (3) Hint: CO, CN– and C5H5– have  bonds.
Hint: In froth floatation sulphide ores are seprated 79. Answer (3)
from impurities.

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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Hint: Number of donar sites to central metal is 1
called coordination number. Probability of getting son =
2
Sol.: +x + (–2) + (–2) = 0, so x = +4 1
80. Answer (1) Probability of getting AB blood group =
4
Hint: [Ag(NH3)2 ] + is linear in shape. Probability of first son with AB blood group
81. Answer (3)
1 1 1
Hint: Ambidentate ligands are monodentate ligands =  
with two different donor sites. 4 2 8
82. Answer (3) 94. Answer (3)
Hint: MnO42– is green coloured ion. Hint: Number of phenotypes depends on number of
gametes produced.
83. Answer (3)
Hint: Os & Ru can show + 8 oxidation state. Sol.: Since 1 parent in all options is aabb
84. Answer (1) (test cross). Thus types of gamete will depend only
Hint: on 2nd parent.
Element Fe Co Ni AABb × aabb, AABB × aabb, AaBb × aabb ,
IE1 (kJ/mole) 762 758 736
85. Answer (1) 2 types of 1 type of 4 types of
Hint: Ti2+ [Ar] 3d 2 4s 0 gametes gametes gametes
V3+ [Ar] 3d 2 4s 0 AaBB × aabb
Cr3+ [Ar] 3d 3 4s 0
Mn4+ [Ar] 3d 3 4s 0 2 types of
gametes
86. Answer (1)
95. Answer (2)
Hint: Molten NaCl on electrolysis give Na metal at
Hint: Radiations are powerful physical mutagens.
cathode.
87. Answer (3) Sol.: Strength of radiations depends on their
Hint: Sulphides of Pb  Hg and Cu can be self wavelength.
reduced in presence of their oxides. 1
According to E  , the radiations with smallest
88. Answer (1) 
Hint: Haematite – Fe2O3 wavelength will have highest energy and they will be
Cuprite – Cu2O more powerful mutagen.
Bauxite – Al2O32H2O Here X-ray are the smallest wavelength radiations.
Cryolite – Na3 AlF6 X-ray > UV rays > Visible > Infrared
89. Answer (4) spectrum
Hint: van Arkel process is used for refining of Ti. energy
90. Answer (2) 96. Answer (3)
Hint: Chalcopyrite is CuFeS2. Hint: Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to point
mutation.
BIOLOGY Sol.: Point mutation i.e., transversion of A by T in
91. Answer (1) DNA causes altered amino acid at 6th position of
Hint: Recessive features are expressed only in pure  chain of globin protein.
line condition. 97. Answer (4)
Sol.: Terminal flower position in pea is a recessive Hint: Gene for hypertrichosis is present on
feature. Y-chromosome.
92. Answer (4) Sol.: This trait is known as holandric trait.
Hint: Wheat kernel colour shows polygenic 98. Answer (2)
inheritance and is controlled by two pairs of genes. Hint: Distance between two genes
Sol.: In polygenic inheritance, the intermediate = their recombination frequency.
phenotype is always maximum in number in a Sol.: In Drosophila recombination frequency between
population. genes w and y is = 1.3%.
93. Answer (2) Distance between w and y = 1.3 cM.
Hint: Genotype of man is 99. Answer (3)
= IB i because his mother had genotype ii. Hint: Alleles are contrasting forms of a gene.
Sol.: Woman Man Sol.: Alleles of a gene will always be situated on
A B
I I x B
I i homologous sites of homologous chromosomes.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
100. Answer (1) Sol.: Parent 1 = aa BB cc DD
Hint: These symptoms are related to Down’s Parent 2 = AA bb CC DD
syndrome. Zygote = Aa BB cc DD
Sol.: Down’s syndrome occurs due to trisomy of Parent 2 does not have B and c, so there is no
21st chromosome. chance of BB and cc in zygote.
Thus chromosomes complement = 45 + XY / 45 + XX . Therefore probability of getting such zygote is = 0.
101. Answer (1) 107. Answer (4)
Hint: Flower colour in 4 O’clock plant shows Hint: Punnett square is a graphical representation to
incomplete dominance during its inheritance. calculate possible zygotic combinations.
Sol.: Gene for phenylalanine – Pleiotropic Sol.: It is used for all mono, di or trihybrid crosses.
hydroxylase. It was proposed by British geneticist, R.C. Punnett.
Gene which masks the – Epistatic 108. Answer (2)
action of another gene. Hint: When males produce heterogametes, then
AB blood group – Codominance they decide sex of the progenies.
102. Answer (3) Sol.:Grasshopper, Drosophila, Human -
Hint: In sweet pea, genes controlling flower colour Males are heterogametic.
are complementary to each other. Birds, butterflies and moths -
Sol.: Both dominant genes C and P are required for female are heterogametic.
expression of purple flower. 109. Answer (2)
CC PP Cc Pp Hint: Mendel started his work on 3 plants but
Purple x Purple
continued with only garden pea.
Sol.:Mendel conducted his work from 1856 – 1863.
CP Cp cP cp • Worked on hawkweed, lablab and garden pea.
• He has taken only 14 pure lines/varieties of pea
CP CCPP CCPp CcPP CcPp
plant.
All plants have purple coloured flowers. • Pure line term was given by Johannsen.
103. Answer (4) 110. Answer (3)
Hint: Colourblindness is a X-linked recessive Hint: Linked genes do not seggregate from each
disorder. other.
Sol.: Both affected parents can never have an Sol.: If genes would have been linked then Mendel
unaffected child. The disorder may not appear in would be unable to find out the independent
generation but can pass from grandparent to assortment of genes due to their linkage.
grandson or grand daughter. 111. Answer (2)
104. Answer (3) Hint: Both Eichhornia and Vallisneria are hydrophytes.
Hint: In garden pea only a single gene controls both Sol.: Eichhornia – Insect pollination and produces
starch grain size and shape of seed. bright, fragrant attractive
Sol.: It shows flowers.
Vallisneria – Water pollinated and has flowers
(1) Pleiotropy.
with unwettable stigma.
(2) Incomplete dominance (Bb form
112. Answer (3)
intermediate size starch grains).
Hint: Common pansy produces both chasmogamous
(3) Complete dominance (Bb, seed shape is and cleistogamous flowers.
round). Sol.: Cleistogamous flowers do not require
105. Answer (3) pollinators as the flowers do not open.
Hint: Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant Since, flowers do not open thus only self pollination
disorder. occurs. Self pollination does not show genetic
Sol.: To find out autosomal dominant disorder there variations.
is a rule. 113. Answer (4)
To have an affected child, parent must be affected, Hint: Apomictic embryos are formed directly from
thus option 3 is correct. diploid/haploid tissues without syngamy.
106. Answer (3) Sol.: Since no gamete formation or fusion occurs
Hint: Probability of obtaining desired zygotic during apomixis, thus all embryos are genetically
combination depends on types of gametes formed by similar. They do not show seggregation of characters
parents. in hybrids thus are useful for farmers.

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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

114. Answer (3) Chasmogamy, protandry, dioecy, dichogamy and self

Hint: Remains of nucellus are found in perispermic incompatibility promote cross pollination.
seeds. 122. Answer (2)
Sol.: Beet and black pepper are perispermic seeds Hint: Monosporic female gametophyte/embryo sac
having remains of nucellus. is 7 celled and 8 nucleate.
115. Answer (3) Sol.:
Hint: Monocots have only one well developed • Egg apparatus = 3 celled.
cotyledon but remains of second cotyledon are also • Out of eight nuclei only 6 are surrounded by cell
present. wall.
Sol.: Coleoptile – hollow foliar structure that covers • Central cell is binucleate.
plumule. • Cellular thickenings of synergids are called filliform
Coleorhiza – undifferentiated sheath like apparatus.
structure that protects radicle. 123. Answer (2)
Scutellum – single cotyledon. Hint: Anatropous ovule is the most common ovule
Epiblast – remains of second cotyledon. found in 82% angiosperms.
116. Answer (2) Sol.: Body of ovule is at right angle to the funicle in
Hint: Maize produces unisexual flowers. hemianatropous ovule.
Sol.: Since flowers are unisexual therefore, 124. Answer (4)
emasculation is not required. Hint: Nucellus is found inner to the integuments in
117. Answer (4) an ovule.
Hint: Fertilization in angiosperms is a two step Sol.: Nucellus
process. (1) Gives rise to megaspore mother cell
Sol.: Fertilization occurs by syngamy as well as (2) Stores reserve food material
triple fusion therefore, called double fertilization. (3) Forms apomictic embryos in some plants
Both triple fusion and double fertilisation are unique But nucellus never protects ovule. Protection is
to angiosperms. provided by integuments.
118. Answer (4) 125. Answer (1)
Hint: Insects pollinate flowers for some specific Hint: In majority of angiosperms pollens are shed at
rewards. two celled stage.
Sol.: These rewards are Sol.: In 60% angiospermic families pollen at the time
(1) Pollen of dispersal have both vegetative and generative cell.
(2) Nectar Generative cell has spindle shaped nucleus with
(3) Safe place for laying eggs. dense cytoplasm.
Insects are attracted by fragrance but it’s not a 126. Answer (2)
reward for them. Hint: A typical anther has 4 sporangia.
119. Answer (1) Sol.: 25 PMC in each sporangium.
Hint: Wheat and maize show anemophily. Thus total PMCs are = 25 × 4 = 100
Sol.: Wind pollinated plants show features like Since 1 PMC  1 tetrad  4 microspores
(1) Light weight pollens or pollen grains
(2) Non sticky pollens 100 PMC = 100 tetrads and 4 × 100
(3) Feathery stigma = 400 pollen grains
(4) Well exposed stamen 1 pollen grain produces 2 male gametes
120. Answer (3) Therefore, 400 pollen grains will produce
Hint: Papaya and date palm both are dioecious. = 400 × 2 = 800 male gametes.
Sol.: In dioecious plant only xenogamy is possible 127. Answer (4)
i.e., female plants get pollinated by pollens of Hint: Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
different male plants. grains.
121. Answer (3) Sol.: Tapetum is usually with dense cytoplasm
Hint: Outbreeding devices promote cross polination polyploid, multinucleate and has high DNA content.
in plants. 128. Answer (2)
Sol.: Bud pollination, homogamy and cleistogamy Hint: A typical angiospermic anther has four
promote self pollination. sporangia, one at each corner.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: A typical anther is tetragonal, bilobed,
tetrasporangiate and dithecous.
129. Answer (3)
Hint: Gamete formation is called gametogenesis.
Sol.: Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilisation event.
130. Answer (2)
Hint: Chara is generally monoecious and Marchantia
is dioecious.
Sol.: Chara is a green alga which produces jacketed
sex organs. Its female sex organ is nucule/oogonium
which matures later than male.
Marchantia is a liverwort which has jacketed sex
organs.
Both produce flagellated gametes.
131. Answer (2)
Hint: Asexual reproduction produces genetically
similar progenies.
Sol.: Conidia formation, budding and eyes (axillary
bud) of potato, all are mode of asexual reproduction.
Isogametes of Cladophora show syngamy and
produces genetically dissimilar individuals.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: Cucurbits are monoecious plants.
Sol.: Cucurbits produce staminate and pistillate
flowers on seperate branches of the same plant.
Wheat and carrot – monocarpic
Some Bomboo species – perennial monocarpic
In all unicellular organisms cell division is itself a
mode of reproduction.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Bryophytes and pteridophytes produce motile
male gametes.
Sol.: Bryophytes and pteridophytes transfer their
gametes via water while gymnosperms and
angiosperms transfer pollen grains & thus gametes
via air. All the four groups have internal fertilization
and embryo.
134. Answer (1)
Hint: Axillary buds present on under ground part of
subaerial stem can propagate.
Sol.: Such stems are called sucker and found in
plants like Chrysanthemum, Pineapple etc.
Bulb – Onion
Offset – Water hyacinth
Leaf bud – Bryophyllum
135. Answer (1)
Hint: Period from birth to natural death is life span.
Sol.: It is not correlated with the body size and
complexity and specific feature of every organism.
136. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify the primary egg membrane around
ovum in Graafian follicle.
Sol.: Corona radiata and granulosa are cellular
layers. Theca externa is made up of fibrous
connective tissue. Zona pellucida is made up of
glycoproteins.
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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
137. Answer (3)
Hint: Follicle which contains well developed antrum
or follicular cavity.
Sol.: Meiosis-I is completed within tertiary follicle to
form 1st polar body and comparatively a larger cell
known as secondary oocyte.
138. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a primary sex organ of humans.
Sol.: Mammary ampulla is a wider part which is
connected to lactiferous duct. Infundibulum leads to
a wider part of oviduct called ampulla. Vas deferens
dilates to form ampulla which receives duct from
seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct.
139. Answer (1)
Hint: This is located closer to sperm nucleus.
Sol.: Proximal centriole of sperm enters ovum for
astral ray formation whereas distal centriole
participates in formation of axial filament. For
cleavage in zygote centriole of sperm is necessory
as ova lacks it.
140. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a hormone that maintain pregnancy.
Sol.: Progesterone is called pregnancy hormone
oxytocin is released after foetal ejection reflex. hCG
is responsible for maintaining corpus luteum in ovary
during pregnancy.
141. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is also called birth hormone.
Sol.: Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary is
responsible for release of stored milk in mammary
glands.
142. Answer (1)
Hint: During organogenesis, heart is formed and
starts functioning during 4th week of gestation.
Sol.: Heart sound is heared with the help of
stethoscope after 1st month. During 2nd month of
pregnancy limbs and digits develop. At the end of
first trimester, external genitalia develop while
eyelashes become distinct after 24 weeks.
143. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a chestnut shaped gland.
Sol.: Paired accessory gland of male includes
seminal vesicles, cowper's gland/Bulbourethral gland
while prostate gland is unpaired. In female Bartholin's
glands are paired structure.
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Entry of Ca 2+ into sperms causes rapid
whiplash movements of the tail part.
Sol.: Insemination is transferer or deposition of
sperms into the female genital tract. Acrosomal
reaction involves release of hydrolytic enzymes from
sperm's head. Spermiation is a process when sperms
are released from seminiferous tubules.
145. Answer (4)
Hint: Intratesticular genital system includes
structures present within testes.
Sol.: Epididymis is a extra-testicular genital duct.
Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
146. Answer (3)
Hint: Select the product of syngamy.
Sol.: Zygote is a unicellular diploid structure that
serves as vital link between organisms of one
generation to next and ensures continuity of species.
147. Answer (3)
Hint: These pills contain steroidal preparation.
Sol.: GnRH, FSH and hCG are proteinaceous
hormones.
148. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify an unisexual organism.
Sol.: Earthworm, tapeworm and leech are bisexual
animals while cockroach is unisexual.
149. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify the smallest taxon of classification.
Sol.: Life expectancy, the number of years an
individual can expect to live for, is based on average
life span.
150. Answer (2)
Hint: Single celled organisms are immortal.
Sol.: In unicellular organisms, cell division result in
reproduction. So, there is no natural death in them
and are considered as immortal.
151. Answer (1)
Hint: Ovulatory hormone from anterior pituitary
suddenly peaks in mid cycle.
Sol.: 'A' represents progesterone which is first
hormone to peak in luteal phase followed by 'B'
which is estrogen 'C' represents LH and D
represents FSH.
152. Answer (1)
Hint: This method of medical termination of
pregnancy was legalized before 2000.
Sol.: MTP was legalized in 1971 with some strict
conditions to avoid its misuse. In 1951 family
planning programmes were initiated in India.
153. Answer (4)
Hint: In humans, eggs are alecithal and development
is regulative.
Sol.: In humans, cleavage is holoblastic, equal,
radial and indeterminate. So, that development is
regulative. In 1951, family planning programmes were
initiated in India.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: IUDs made up of stainless steel or
polyethylene impregnated with barium sulphate.
Sol.: IUDs are classified into two categorise-non
medicated eg-Lippes loop and
Medicated
Cu-loaded Hormonal
Multiload-375, LNG-20,
Cu-7, Progestasert
Cu-T380A
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
155. Answer (4)
Hint: Animals in which diploid eggs (gamete) are
produced.
Sol.: In Typhlina brahmina, only females are found
in their population that produce diploid eggs by
mitosis which later develop into diploid adult
females.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: Technique which is misused to determine the
sex of the unborn.
Sol.: Amniocentesis can identify chromosomal
abnormalities and metaobolic disorders.
157. Answer (2)
Hint: Population growth rate was 17/1000/year in
2001.
Sol.: According to 2011 census report, population
growth rate was around 2.0%.
158. Answer (2)
Hint: Contraceptive pill commonly known as ‘‘once
a week pill’’.
Sol.: Saheli is a nonsteroidal oral contraceptive pill
developed at CDRI, Lucknow.
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a sterilisation procedure.
Sol.: Surgical methods are permanent method of
family planning which involve vasectomy and
tubectomy.
Emergency contraceptives are drugs used in case of
unprotected sex, missed pills, etc.
Implants provide long term contraception.
Chemical methods are contraceptives which contain
spermicidal chemicals.
160. Answer (3)
Hint: Chromosome number in gamete of Musca is 6.
Sol.: Meiocytes are diploid (2n) while gametes are
haploid(n).
161. Answer (3)
Hint: Mode of reproduction that does not involve
gametic fusion.
Sol.: Development of unfertilized egg into complete
organism is known as parthenogenesis. In honey
bee, drones are product of parthenogenesis
(Arrhenotoky) and they produce gametes by mitosis.
162. Answer (3)
Hint: This phase occur due to decline in
progesterone level.
Sol.: Follicular phase involves maturation of follicles
in ovary. Luteal phase occurs after ovulation in ovary.
Progesterone is responsible for thickening of cervical
mucus in secretory phase.
163. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a viral STI.
Sol.: Genital warts are STI (Sexually Transmitted
Infection) caused by viruses. Haemophilus ducrei
causes a bacterial disease known as chancroid.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
164. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a pore bearing animal.
Sol.: Gemmules are internal buds formed by
endogenous budding during unfavourable conditions
in sponges.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Longitudinal binary fission occurs in flagellates.
Sol.: Euglena is a flagellate organism. It performs
asexual reproduction by longitudinal binary fission
along its longitudinal axis of the body.
166. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify an in-vivo technique of assisted
reproduction.
Sol.: Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube in GIFT.
167. Answer (4)
Hint: ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology).
Sol.: In vitro fertilization (IVF) and embryo transfer
(ET).
168. Answer (4)
Hint: Barrier methods prevent contact of sperms with
ovum.
Sol.: Diaphragm, vault and condom are barrier
methods of contraception but combined pills are oral
contraceptive pills (OCP) which prevents pregnancy
by inhibiting ovulation.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a gonadotrophin.
Sol.: LH maintains corpus luteum which secretes
progesterone and estrogen. hCG mimics role of LH
in a pregnant female.
170. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a function of multiload 375.
Sol.: LNG 20 is hormonally medicated IUDs which
prevents implantation and pregnancy. It is
levonorgestrel i.e., synthetic derivative of
progesterone that causes cervical mucus thickening,
and thus prevents implantation.
171. Answer (4)
Hint: Structure responsible for erythropoeisis in early
embryonic stage of humans.
Sol.: There are 3 extra embryonic germ layers
which form extra embryonic foetal membranes
namely chorion, amnion, yolk sac and allantois.
Chorion — Ectoderm and mesoderm.
Amnion — Mesoderm and ectoderm.
Yolk sac — Mesoderm and endoderm.
Allantois — Mesoderm and endoderm.
172. Answer (4)
Hint: Glucocorticoids are corticosteroids.
Sol.: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid synthesized from
zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex and not from
placenta. During pregnancy, placenta forms CRH
(corticotrophin releasing hormone) to increase
secretion of cortisol.
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Test - 5 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Hormone released from adrenal cortex.
Sol.: hCG decline towards ends of pregnancy, hPL
affects growth and function of mammary glands.
Progesterone level decrease at the end of pregnancy
there increasing estrogen progesteron ratio.
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Haploid structure formed at end of
spermatogenesis..
Sol.: Primary spermatocyte and primary oocyte are
diploid structures. Spermatozoa can be represented
by (22 + X) or (22 + Y) but ootid is always (22 + X).
175. Answer (3)
Hint: This reaction is triggered by movement of Ca2+
ions.
Sol.: To prevent polyspermy, fertilized egg show fast
block and slow block.
In slow block, Golgi body of egg synthesizes cortical
granules which get fused with zona pellucida to form
a hardned membrane known as fertilization
membrane. Now, sperms cannot pass through this
membrane.
176. Answer (2)
Hint: This structure derived from epiblast.
Sol.: Appearance of primitive streak represents start
of gastrulation and end of gastrulation results in
formation of three germ layers.
177. Answer (3)
Hint: Embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called
morula.
Sol.: Embryonic development starts with cleavage
and undergoes following stages.
cleavage cleavage
Zygote  Morula  Blastocyst
morphogenetic movement Formation

mitosis
 Gastrulation 
of notochord

Formation
Notogenesis of neural tube
 Neurulation
178. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a hormone acts on sertoli cells.
Sol.: Inhibin is a proteinaceous hormone
synthesized in male from sertoli cells and in female
from granulosa cells to inhibit secretion of FSH.
179. Answer (4)
Hint: Interstitial cells secrete androgens.
Sol.: Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular
hormones. Sertoli cells secrete inhibin.
180. Answer (2)
Hint: Main sex hormone of male responsible for
descent of testes.
Sol.: Failure in descent of testes is known as
cryptorchidism which causes male sterility due to
failure in maturation of sperms. Descent of testes
starts during 7th month of pregnancy under effect of
testosterone.