M13 CAD Study Guide: Instrument

(updated by AETT 12)

(version 1.2)

Instrument displays, panels and layouts

1) Dimming of CRT
a) individual crew control*
b) Auto photo diode (photo something)
c) Lighting system control
2) Six colour displays
a) Red is exclusively for warning (may be)
b) Magenta shows the heading information
c) Green and white shows the same information
3) Switch EICAS primary and secondary
a) via display switching unit
b) manual only*
c) 'irrelevant'
4) In an EICAS like indicating system
a) Fault messages will be removed from memory once error resolved* [ie CMC “existing faults”]
b) 11 messages will be stored for each level [shouldn’t]
c) Event record button is available for flight crew to capture any suspected malfunction. [snapshot but not event record]
5) As compared to EICAS, ECAM
a) has provision for printing through ARINC 429*
b) has no power up system self test
c) electronic library ….
6) EICAS display controlled by:
a) manually only* [B747]
b) Display switching Unit (DSU)
c) when auto land mode is engaged
7) ‘HDG’ mode input display on
a) Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) [selected HDG to AFDC]
b) RNAV and INS
c) Display
8) FWC monitoring module
a) Input tests checks all inputs
b) Checks symbol generators
c) Says “FWC system fault” if tested error

Pitot-static instruments and systems

9) The use of baffle in the pitot static tube:

a) to induce turbulence inside the tube
b) to prevent the ingress of moisture into the tube*
To prevent the entry of water and other foreign matter, the pitot pressure tube is provided with baffles. Drain holes forward and to the rear of the baffles prevent the
accumulation of moisture within the tube assembly --HX p.1252 - JTL

10) Pitot static system

a) longer lines > smaller diameter
b) longer lines > larger diameter*
c) same diameter
[Pipelines: The chosen diameter of pipelines is related to the distance from the pressure sources to the instruments (the longer the lines, the larger the diameter)
in order to eliminate pressure drop and time-lag factors.] --HX p.1533 - JTL
[Pitot static probe: Decrease the casing diameter and increase the distance of the static orifices from the nose to overcome very high speeds initiating the
build-up of a shock wave at the nose of the probe.]
[Pitot static probe: A long and small-diameter probe is an ideal one from an aerodynamic point of view, but it may present certain practical difficulties.]

11) Position error of pitot

a) wrong installation
b) error on the actual aircraft*
[Pressure or Position error (PE) is raised due to disturbance to the airflow over the probe which is caused by probe design and probe location on an aircraft.]
12) Position error
a) altitude
b) airspeed
c) mach number*
[The PE Correction Transducer is intended for aircraft in which PE is essentially proportional to a function of Mach number.]
[Pressure Error Correction is applied as a function of Mach number thereby correcting the indications of the Mach speed indicator, and the Mach unit
servomotor drives a second cam which, in conjunction with potentiometers, also corrects the output to the altitude indicator for PE.]
13) Pipe connect between static vent and instrument, it is
a) rise 6 degrees
b) in level*
14) Label on static vent
a) Do not paint* (true)
b) Do not scratch
c) Do not cover the HOLE (true)
15) "density altitude" definition
[Density altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations.]
16) Altitude = zero at takeoff and landing
a) QFE* [field]
b) QNE [ISA]
c) QNH
[Selectable on mode control panel beneath windshield]
17) Set “QNH”
18) Fortin barometer
a) fixed cistern only
b) fixed cistern with vacuum
c) variable cistern*
[Mercury barometers fall broadly into two categories: the Fortin and the Kew.]
[Fortin: Settings are made on both the base and the level of the mercury column, Before taking a reading, the level of the surface of the mercury in the cistern is
brought up to the tip of what is termed a fiducial point, securely fixed in the top of the cistern, and corresponding with zero of the barometer scale.]
19) Kew scale adjustment in the barometric scale ….. ? [kew = Q?]
a) Different between scale due to temperature different …..
b) Calibrate the barometer scale at the initial lead*
[Kew barometer is of the ‘fixed cistern’ type, and provides direct indications by means of a vernier-scaled cursor which is set to the level of the mercury column
and is referenced against a scale which extends virtually the height of the column.]
20) Function of Kew barometer
[Atmospheric pressure acts directly on the surface of the mercury in the cistern, causing the mercury level in the column to rise or fall. Careful construction of the
column and cistern ensures that the ratio of level changes resulting from a given change of pressure remains constant, so that the pressure can be read directly off
the scale, using a vernier.]
21) Which of the following is used as a sensor of differential pressure
a) bourdon tube* --wrong answer JTL
b) .. barometer (may be)
c) bellow [temperature]
22) Capsule – increase altitude
a) evacuated capsule contract
b) pressurized capsule expand
c) evacuated capsule expand*
[The pressure-sensing element of the instrument is an evacuated metal
capsule. At sea level, the capsule will tend to collapse; If the
atmospheric pressure decreases, the force tending to collapse the capsule
is decreased.]
23) Capsule
a) Linear
b) Nonlinear
c) Use something like a spring and mech to
make it linear*
[Linearity is obtained by a suitable choice of material for the capsules and also of the deflection characteristics of the variable magnification lever and gear system
adopted for transmitting deflections to the pointer system.]
24) Sensitivity of capsule depends on
a) density of material
b) number of capsule (grooves?)*
c) outer diameter of disc capsule
[If pressure-sensing element is made up of three aneroid capsules stacked together, sensitivity of the instrument can be increased.]
25) Temperature affect the capsule
a) differential …… capsule [not sure]
b) size of capsule
c) height of lever level
[The temperature coefficient of the instrument is chiefly due to the change of elasticity of the capsule material with change of temperature; this, in turn,
varying the degree of deflection of the capsule in relation to the pressure acting external to it.]
[Variations in temperature cause differences of air density and therefore differences in weight and pressure of the air.]
26) Wheat stone bridge circuit connect to temperature sensor
a) in parallel
b) in series
27) Motor used in servo altimeter for:
a) open the capsule to null position
 b) move the pointer*
[Servo altimeter: the pressure-setting capsule element is coupled to an electrical pick-off assembly instead of a mechanical linkage system as in conventional
altimeters.]
[Two-phase drag-cup type of motor is coupled by a gear train to the pointer and counter assembly, and also to a differential gear which drives a cam.]
28) Altitude Monitor Annunciation set to 10000ft
a) 10000 ft to 10900ft Light Off [over 10900ft, light on, audio warning]
b) 10000ft to 10300 ft Light On [below 10300ft, light off, no audio warning]
[Warning between +/-300 to +/- 900 ft]
[Altitude Alerting Systems: As the aircraft descends or climbs to the pre-selected altitude, the difference signal referred to earlier is reduced, and the logic circuit
so processes the two signals supplied to it, that at a pre-set out limit (typically 900 ft) above or below the pre-selected altitude, one signal actuates the audio
warning device which remains on for two seconds, and also illuminates the warning lights. The lights remain on until at a further pre-set inner limit
(typically 300 ft) above or below the pre-selected altitude, the second signal causes the circuit to the warning lights to be interrupted thereby extinguishing
them.]
29) What error to Airspeed Indicator when increase speed
a) Compressibility error/effect*
b) Position error
[Airspeed indicators are in effect very sensitive pressure gauges measuring the difference between the pitot and static pressures detected by the pressure probe.]
[As airspeeds began to increase a noticeable error began to creep into the indications. It is because the high-velocity air was brought to ‘stagnation’ at the pitot
tube, it was compressed and its density was increased. It is called ‘compressibility error’.]
30) Airspeed Indicator under read because of
a) Pitot tube leak
b) Static tube leak*
[P true static < P cabin]
[On ground: Static pressure = Cabin pressure, Airspeed indicator is
normal. In air: Static pressure < Cabin pressure, capsule collapse
because cabin pressure fit in the static tube, the link will lower,
indicator will under read.]
31) When airspeed pointer reaches the limiter
on machmeter
a) auto throttle auto engages
b) speed warning aural*
c) autothrottle system gives warning
[In addition to their basic indicating function, Mach/airspeed indicators
can also be designed to actuate switch units coupled to visual or
audio devices which give warning when such speeds as Mach
limiting, or landing gear extension are reached.]
[In aircraft having an autothrottle system, certain types of
Mach/airspeed indicator are designed to provide a speed error
output which is proportional to the difference between the reading indicated by the airspeed pointer and the setting of the command ‘bug’.]
32) Mach number indicator control knob "bug" used for what purpose?
a) max mach # or limiter
b) ... range
[Bugs = for pilots to mark down indices around the meter dial]
[The purpose of the setting knob in the bottom left-hand corner of the bezel is to enable the pilot to position a command ‘bug’ with respect to the airspeed
scale, thereby setting an airspeed value which may be used as a datum for an auto-throttle control system, or as a fast/slow speed indicator.]
33) Machmeter… is limited by
a) Max operating velocity (may be)
b) Max operating mach number
[Velocity maximum operating (Vmo) pointer, is also provided for the purpose of indicating the maximum safe speed of an aircraft over its operating altitude range;
in other words, it is an indicator of critical Mach number.]
34) Mach warning system
a) Alternate speed bugs …. over speed warning
b) Give audio warning ‘clacker’ 7Hz when over speed*
[B747-123 AMM 34-14-00: The mach airspeed warning system provides an aural warning on the flight deck when the airplane exceeds its maximum
operating limit. The clacker emits a clacking sound interrupted at a 7 ± 1 Hz rate.]
35) Rate of climb indicator/Vertical speed indicator (VSI), when descend, the pressure compare with capsule,
a) increase [capsule pressure increasing]
b) decrease
c) no change [wrong]
[Aircraft descending: Metering unit MAINTAINS case pressure
lower than capsule pressure, changing it at the same rate and thereby
creating a constant differential pressure across the capsule]
36) The calibration leak in Vertical Speed Indicator
(VSI) is larger, and then it should be reading?
a) over reading when climb and descent
b) under reading when climb and descent*
c) over reading when climb and under reading
when descent (may be)
37) Leak malfunction is high pressure
a) Over read when climbing &
descending
 b) Under read when climbing & descending
c) Over read when climbing & under read when descending (may be)
38) In level flight, a partial block in orifice of Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI), it will indicate:
a) Zero* [VSI ∝ Δp]
b) Descent
c) Climb
39) Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) capsule press lead/lag case pressure
a) 2s
b) 4s*
c) 8s
40) In the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI), the system of the design of couple frame is lead/lag by core frame is
a) 2s
b) 4s*
c) 8s
[The metering unit introduces the required rate and time-lag factors, and differential pressure across the capsule which positions the pointer to indicate the
altitude change in feet per minute. The design of a system is such that it takes approximately four seconds for the case pressure to build up to that in the
capsule; but as the capsule always has an unrestricted air flow to it, it will lead the case by four seconds and so there will be a constant difference in pressure
between them corresponding to four seconds in time.]
41) Instantaneous VSI (IVSI) comes from
a) Direct reading from capsule (may be)
b) Indication given from accelerometer
c) Through Time lag
[IVSIs consist of the same basic elements as conventional VSIs, but in addition they employ an accelerometer unit which is designed to create a more rapid
differential pressure effect, specifically at the initiation of a climb or descent.]
42) Instantaneous ADC (VSI?) compare to conventional CADC (VSI?)because it has additional
a) Sensor
b) capsule
c) accelerometer*
43) Air data computer (ADC) including input of
a) AOA, airspeed
b) Pitot, static and true airspeed
c) Pitot, static and total air temperature*
44) The design and installation of ADC:
a) the effect of temperature, pressure, density difference is ignored*
b) read the same sea level altitude all over the world
45) In digital servomotor, supplied by 2 ADC
a) servomotor drive 2 control synchros for coarse and fine
adjustment
b) error detection in digital signal signal format within
microprocessor
c) A/D converter provide signal to drive servomotor
46) In some CADC, tachogenerator
a) VSI -(signal proportional to altitude rate)
b) Temperature
[In a number of CADC systems, vertical speed is also transmitted by way of a
synchronous transmission link. This is accomplished by means of a
tachogenerator which is driven via the output shaft of the height transducer; the
tachogenerator thereby produces signals equal to rate of altitude change.]

Primary flight instruments (attitude indication)

47) Gimbals Lock

[Spin axis becomes coincident with one or other of the axes of freedom → lose spin axis →
causing topple or precess]
48) Gimbal error
a) turning with roll/pitch*
b) not up to speed and transponder
c) inner gimbal erratic
[When an aircraft carries out a manouevre which combines changes in roll and pitch
attitude, e.g. the banked descent shown at (d), the outer gimbal ring is made to rotate about
its own axis, thus introducing a gimbal error causing the directional gyro to indicate a change of heading.]
49) Erection cutout
a) … of gyro
b) Prevent acceleration affecting erection sensor
c) Prevent acceleration affecting the bearings
[Erection errors may be compensated by inclination of the gyro spin axis, erection cut-out, and pitch-bank compensation.]
50) Rate gyro to sense pitch angle, gimbal ring should place:
a) Position laterally
 b) Position either vertical or longitudinally
c) Tilt 15 deg at aircraft axis
51) Rate Gyro is used to detect the rate of turn. When it is used to sense the banking, the gimble ring is:
a) inclined to vertical position and along the aircraft longitudinal axis*
b) reposition to vertical position and right angle to the A/C lateral axis
c) in horizontal position and along the lateral axis
52) A displacement gyro in topple
a) The gimbal limit have been exceeding
b) Rotor stop have been rotating
c) Gyro is inverted
53) Apparent wonder affect directional gyro
a) Compensate by constant torque
b) Max at pole
c) Depend on longitude
54) Gyro not reach operating speed, indications will be
a) low
b) high*
c) no effect
55) If aircraft fly by INS
a) Use magnetic north for reference
b) Fly @ great circle through sea & land around the world*
c) Fly by radio station
56) Azimuth gyro mounted inner gimbal
a) Right angle with outer gimbal
b) Vertical with outer gimbal (80%)
c) Horizontal in line with outer gimbal [rate gyro]
57) INS platform is mounted on
a) roll ring
b) pitch ring
c) azimuth ring*
58) INS platform consist of
a) 3 accelerators only
b) 3 accelerators + 1 gyro
c) 1 accelerator + 3 gyros*
59) Inertial Navigation System (INS)
a) No need extra signal
b) Use accelerator….. *
c) Use for long range navigation
60) Inertial Navigation System (INS)
a) No external data require
b) Has an accelerator sensor with no ratio signal (may be)
61) Auto flight will disconnect (disengage)
a) ADF is faulty
b) Gyro fault detected* [eg B747 classic]
c) Demand value too large
62) Normal and alternate pitch sensor obtain signal respectively from:
a) vertical reference gyro and rate gyro* [integrated]
b) INS platform and attitude reference gyro
c) …and rate gyro (differentiated)
63) Versin is what
a) vertical reference unit*
b) rate gyro
64) A versine signal is generated from
a) yaw rate
b) roll rate*
c) pitch and roll attitude
65) Final stage of self alignment is
a) coarse leveling termination
b) Fine leveling in azimuth
c) Fine compassing
[Steps of alignment: standby course leveling → gyro compassing [course azimuth→ fine alignment] → nav]
66) INS self alignment, which one is a process?
a) Fine alignment
b) Gyro leveling*
 c) Gyro compassing
67) Wild hunting of gyro
a) fast erect over 1 min*
b) power off during fast erect
c) not up to speed in fast erect
68) Dashpot of turn and slip indicator function
a) precession
b) damp gyro
69) Each gimbal platform in INS
a) One gyro stabilize a platform
b) Fast erect…. (same as past paper)*
70) Accelerometer moving at constant speed
a) Mass move ahead neutral position
b) Mass stay neutral position*
c) Output behind neutral position
71) Torque motor is at
a) between outer and inner gimbal [for rolling]
b) between outer gimbal and instrument case [for pitching]
c) between inner gimbal...
72) Artificial Horizon should install in,
a) Vertical gimbal
b) Horizontal gimbal
c) Aircraft horizontal structure*
73) Piezoelectric with pressure increase
a) linear and directly proportional*
b) nonlinear and directly proportional
c) nonlinear and inversely proportional

Heading indication instruments

74) Pointing north, RMI bearing shows

a) 000*
b) 180
c) 90 when heading to 90
75) Heading… error
a) oppose by gyro
b) aided by gyro
c) oppose by compass*
76) Compass flux value
a) coercive force*
b) sends signal
c) cuts out earth component
77) Compass with 20 degree error to earth
a) 5 to 7 degrees per min
b) 0 to 2 degrees per min
c) 2 to 5 degrees per min*
78) Compass
a) same as excitation frequency
b) double the excitation frequency*
c) half of the excitation frequency
79) Temperature compensation of liquid compass by
a) capsule mounted on base of compass bowl
b) bellow mounted on base of compass bowl*
80) Calculate compass deviation coefficient C + D
81) ‘Compass - safe’ distance means
a) Distance from center of compass to the equipment center
b) Distance max deviation of ……
c) The change of deviation due to the proximity of any component containing magnetic material is less than 1°*
[Deviation compensation is used after compass swing]
82) Pendulous (compass), aircraft turn
a) CG not …. Location of axis
b) …. Turn to an error when there is a dip angle*
c) no effect
83) In the flux valve compass mode, switch from slaved to DG mode
 a) enable input form flux valve to DG
b) disable input form flux valve to DG*
c) enable input from DG to compass display
84) Positive Component P, maximum deviation:
a) East*
b) West
c) North
85) Component P
a) North + south Deviation
b) East + west deviation*
86) Flux Valve input frequency to receiver
a) 400 Hz*
b) 800 Hz
87) Flux valve aircraft turning with an inclined angle A to earth horizontal component (H), the static flow in the
a) datum of the alternative magnetic force*
b) stop at half of cycle.... [alternate excitation]
c) proportional to H sin A
88) The purpose of the exciter coil in a magnetically flux valve is:
a) induce 400 cycles per second in the “picking up” coil
b) induce 800 cycles per second in the spoke*
c) magnetically saturate the core at the peak of supply
89) Aircraft flight pointing(heading) north in southern hemisphere, compass....
a) apparent shifts to east
b) apparent shifts to west
c) no effect on compass deviation*
[Capsule = seal from surrounding pressure to measure differential pressure]
90) Aircraft flight to east in northern hemisphere, the compass card will
a) turn clockwise + apparent turn towards north
b) turn clockwise + apparent turn towards south
c) turn anticlockwise + apparent turn towards south*
91) 2 shorter pins
a) which cannot extend AC power to the coefficient C and D.
[Coefficient C is maximum deviation on NS corrector magnets, electromagnet or mechanical/ magnet . Coefficient D is soft iron horizontal component X
longitudinal axis. The deviation caused by hard iron and soft iron components of aircraft magnetism, their values on each heading must be obtained and
quantitatively analyzed into coefficients of deviation]

Engine indicating

92) Vibration pick up unit mount on the engine

a) a right angle to the axis*
b) parallel to the axis
c) at direction depend on its design
93) Vibration Indicator sense vibration via:
a) LVDT
b) Piezoelectric to produce electric charge*
[B747-123 AMM 77-31-00: Engine vibration pickup is a high
temperature piezoelectric accelerometer.]
94) Engine vibration monitoring
a) milli-inch display warning
b) millimeter
c) inches per second > no display (may be)
[B747-123 AMM 77-31-00: The indicators are graduated to read engine
vibration velocity in inches per second.]
95) Two types of thermocouple
a) bimetallic & resistive
b) electrical ,,, & bimetallic*
c) resistive thermometry and pyrometry..
[B747-123 AMM77-21-00: EGT thermocouple probes are thermoelectric devices.]
[Classes of temperature-measuring instruments: expansion type (liquid or solid), vapour-pressure type, electrical type (resistance or thermo-electric) and
radiation type. Most common are the resistance and thermoelectric type and are applied to the measurement of the temperature of such liquids and gases as
fuel, engine lubrication oil, outside air, carburetor air, and turbine exhaust gas. The radiation pyrometry technique is applied to turbine blade temperature
measurement.]
96) Which is a TRUE statement for thermocouple?
a) Practical lead of chromel-alumel thermocouple is same as thermocouple*
b) The separation [or insulation?] of thermocouple is magnesium oxide
c) The joint is silver soldering
Extension Leads, made from the same material as the thermocouples, are used to connect the thermocouples in parallel and thence
to the main engine junction box.
Insulation of the thermocouple elements from each other is provided by compacted magnesium oxide (MgO), which also serves to
maintain the elements in position. –M13 city of Bristol p.129 - JTL
[BANG: B = Big connector, A = Alumel, N = Negative Pole, G = Green color.]
97) Which of below is correct description of aircraft flight instrument?
a) Turbine Engine Speed Indicator is clock type, large range, long scale*
b) Cabin Differential Pressure Indicator is dual pointer, with warning digital reading (red zone) at the centre
c) N1 engine monitor, half cycle
98) What is considered to be an aircraft instrument
a) turbine speed with long scale
b) cabin pressure with 2 needles and red zone and digital display
c) flight director heads up display with exclusive digital readout*
99) In Gas Turbine Engine, tacho probe and indicating system mounted on the high pressure compressor section and use
a) Air pressure on the vane assembly
b) a magnet and phonic wheel*
c) diaphragm (or capsule) type sensor unit.
[The stainless steel, hermetically-sealed probe comprises a permanent magnet, a pole
piece, and a number of cupro-nickel or nickel/chromium coils around a ferromagnetic
core. The pole pieces are in close proximity to the teeth of a gear wheel (sometimes
referred to as a phonic wheel).]
100) Engine output can be measured via N1 or EPR
101) Ambient temp variation correction of thermal couple
a) couple with reference temp*
102) Temp compensating
a) Temp computer cam ……
b) Temp transducer and calculating computer
c) Temp transducer or calculation computer cam

Measurement of fuel quantity and fuel flow

103) Capacitor type measurement for fuel quantity use to measure

a) mass
b) volume*
c) density
[Gauge system measures fuel quantity by volume]
104) If fuel dielectric constant increase, capacitance of fuel tank
a) increase*
b) decrease
c) constant (unchanged)
[C = K/(4π  9  109)(a/d), where K is dielectric constant.]
105) For fuel tank, which are dielectrics?
a) Fuel & air*
b) Fuel & capacitance metal tube
[Whenever a potential difference is applied across two conducting surfaces separated by a non-
conducting medium, called a dielectric, they have the property of storing an electric charge; this property
is known as capacitance.]
[Dielectric constat is variable in tank since the medium between the tubes is made up of fuel and air.]
106) If fuel density increase in capacitive type fuel sensor,
a) fuel dielectric constant will change*
b) fuel reading will change
c) fuel dielectric constant remain constant
107) Fuel tank unit adjustment
a) Indicate ‘Full’ in [lower position] [potentiometer in full end of scale and at empty end?]
b) Two potentiometer connected to it*
[This is achieved by connecting two manually controlled potentiometers into the circuit.]
108) Which fuel quantity measure circuit is used for measuring the mass of fuel
a) capacitive circuit* [indirectly via measure of volume and density]
b) wheat stone bridge circuit
109) How to compensate the different shape of fuel tank:
a) calibrate of fuel tank unit*
110) Fuel tank nonlinear distortion
a) calibrated*
b) compensated on indicator
c) no effect
[Non-linear: non-linear characteristic of the tank contour.]
[It can be overcome by designing tank units which measure capacitance changes proportional to tank contour. The non-linear tank units so designed are called
characterized tank units, the required effect being achieved either by altering the diameter of the centre electrode or by varying the area of its conducting surface at
various points over its length, to suit the tank contour.]
111) Using fuel tank model (Height H), fuel quantity capacitance with level L
a) is empty tank capacitance when level L is zero [air still exhibit cap characteristic]
b) is proportional to the increase of value K of fuel tank* [model should compensate for fuel property change]
[CF = (L/H) (K -1)CA]
112) Integration of fuel flow rate
a) Average fuel flow rate
b) Peak fuel flow rate
c) Total fuel flow
[Integrated flowmeter system element indicating fuel consumed is combined with that required for fuel flow, thus permitting the display of both quantities in a
single instrument, i.e., actual fuel flow rate and fuel consumed quantities.]

Engine power and control instruments

113) For auto throttle, control each engine

a) Lowest specific fuel consumption
b) N1 and EPR in takeoff and landing*
c) Airspeed control…
114) For approach landing, auto throttle
a) Flare, touchdown mode
b) Airspeed mode* [autopilot can determine airspeed and send to auto throttle]
c) Stall marginal
115) With Autothrottle system engaged in SPEED mode, and aircraft climbing to a cruise altitude following autopilot
mode may also be engaged
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD* [they do not affect engine output setting]
b) Pitch IAS HOLD and Altitude ARM
c) Altitude ARM and Vertical Speed.
116) Vertical gyro data to Auto throttle to control
a) pitch data to control speed for auto throttle*
b) AOA
c) something about roll
117) Autothrottle normally disengaged the throttle Servo when
a) APFDS is in IAS HLD, MACH HLD AT [no]
b) Autotrottle is in AOA A/T Mode [no]
[Warning disengaged caused by any one or more of the following conditions:
For Single Channel: Loss of signal , Loss of computer voltage, use of electric trim, Actuation of control wheel disenegae switch
For dual channel: selecting ILS mode, moving turn controller, changing position of VOR/ILS or compass or attitude switches, cam-out during flare, and conditions
for single channel]
118) During auto land when “instinctive release” button on, autothrottle is disengaged and:
a) full engine power engaged
b) auto disconnect (???) warning engaged*
c) auto disconnect (???) warning disengaged
[1st press = warning, 2nd press = autothrottle officially disengage re B777]
119) Approaching landing, "instinctive release" button disengaged autothrottle
a) full [applicable] engine power
b) and a continuous disconnected warning
c) without a continuous disconnected warning (may be)
120) Auto throttle in auto land disengaged when:
a) flare mode maneuver* [Throttle should be idle at this point, i.e. AT disengage]
b) A/C speed below 80knots during roll out
c) when throttle level exceed maximum thrust limit switch
121) Auto throttle disengaged when
a) on the application of thrust reverser*
b) the A/C is during descent
122) Autothottle servo actuator is operated by?
a) Mode control panel [not directly]
b) A/T computer* [LRU has 2 self tests: computer and servo re B747-3SF AMM22-31-01]
c) FMC [AT part of Thrust Management computer, and is respectively part of FMC re B747-4]
123) EPR mode in Autothrottle only use in?
a) Cruise
b) Approach
c) Go around* [B747-4]
124) A/T actuator
a) 115v, 2 phase* [resolver re B747]
b) 115v, 3 phase
c) 28v, dc
[The servomotor generator is a 2-phase motor and single-phase generator mounted on a common shaft coupled through a gear reduction of 10 to 1 to a splined
output shaft.]
125) During TOGA what happens to the engaged A/T
a) disengaged to allow pilot to move the throttle lever to appropriate position
b) remain engaged and set required power rating for TO or GA*
126) Prior to takeoff
a) TOGA button on control column
[TOGA should be on throttle]
127) Autothrottle engage, take off mode
a) Normal control force
b) Extra control force
c) TOGA switch on control wheel (wrong)
128) Auto throttle engaged during landing, to Go around mode
a) Master auto throttle or A/P need to disengaged first
b) Push the throttle lever with additional force [palm switch controls TOGA re B747]
c) Push the throttle lever with normal force
[With Autopilot, 1st push of TOGA switch sets throttle to a reference EPR, 2nd push of TOGA sets EPR to its max permissible. If autopilot was not engaged,
throttle will be set to max EPR on the first switch of TOGA re B747 AMM on FMC]
129) Go around mode, autothrotte will
a) disengaged first*
b) disengaged spragcluches first
130) When auto throttle engaged, then select ‘Go around mode’
a) A/T disengage
b) Clutch disengage [Automatic Flight Control p290]
c) Disable landing gear switch
[1st push TOGA → AT to 200ft/min; 2nd → full thrust]
131) In profile or VNAV mode coupled to A/T system
a) only if A/P or FD is on*
b) alone
c) only if A/C is on ‘clean’ configuration
132) Idle disconnect switches:
a) The auto throttle is disconnected when one switch is activated (may be)
b) The auto throttle is disconnected when all switches are activated
c) The throttle command signal is disconnected when all switches are activated.

Autopilot systems

Fail-saft is used to describe the ability of a system to withstand a failure without endangering passenger safety, and without producing excessive deviations from
the flight path. An equivalent term adopted in the USA is fail-passive.

133) Rollout mode engaged

a) Given from landing gear squit switch*
b) Localizer and glidescope
c) Heading error
134) Roll out mode determined by:
a) Radio altitude* [roll out at 2ft RA re B747-4 AMM]
b) Localizer
c) Pitch
135) Autopilot increase to set altitude light and tone are on light goes off when
a) tone ends
b) crew manual turn off*
c) internal set #
136) In G/S mode, another available pitch mode signal
a) May be used only when…
b) Continue to give additional pitch control
c) Cannot apply pitch control
137) For approach landing, mode of operation
a) Shown when malfunction
b) Always shown*
c) Shown when demanded
138) Autopilot mode of operation
a) change manually only
b) change automatically only
c) change can be both manually and automatically*
139) Positive autopilot
a) Aerodynamic to maintain its neutral position
 b) Flight control surface in small incremental movement
140) When aircraft fly through turbulence
a) Engage autopilot
b) Disengage autopilot
c) Switch to turbulence penetrating mode
141) Autoflight mode not compatible
a) HDG Sel + ALT HLD
b) HDG HLD + A/S HLD
c) ALT HLD + A/S HLD* [optimal speed for given altitude]
142) In ‘rate rate’ system, Autoflight Guidance System received rate in proportional to
a) Rate & Displacement* [feedback, prevents hardover]
b) Rate & Aerodynamic load
c) Displacement & Position
143) Automatic pilot hardover monitoring:
a) datum height error in altitude lock
b) feedback failure*
c) gyro failure
144) In Autoland failure … course error “washout” circuit….
a) by commanding continually heading change, track away from localizer centerline
b) reverting to normal mode, keep track in selected heading.
[Washout = to attenuate parameter, e.g. radio deviation to zero at wind to maintain on course]
145) Autoland
a) RA
146) Dual dual autoland
a) get localizer first
b) 1500ft*
c) get glidescope first
[Dual-dual: twin fail-operational control system having twin passive monitoring systems. It should not be considered synonymous to a duplex system, since the
control systems may or may not be active simultaneously. In the event of a monitor detecting a failure in its associated system, the second system with its
monitor is switched in.]
147) What is the autoland command at five feet Radio Altitude?
a) Flare*
b) Wing Level
c) Align [before departure and movement of A/C → align mode]
148) Alpha angle of AFCS…
149) A fault in duplex in AFCS operational result
a) Both channel disconnecting and leaving the aircraft in trim
b) One channel disconnecting and leaving the aircraft in trim (may be)
c) Both channel disconnecting and leaving the aircraft out of trim
[Duplex system is a system of two complete systems of channels which are interconnected, and which together provide continuous control. If comparison
monitoring is provided, a duplex system can provide fail-operational capability. ]
150) Synchronization signal for auto flight
a) High gain, same phase for input
b) Low gain, same phase for input
c) High gain, inverted phase*
151) Triplex system with one subchannel fail
a) Auto pilot disconnect
b) Bring to safe position then disconnect
c) Change to duplex*
[Triplex system is a fail-operational system of three complete systems or channels which are interconnected and which together provide continuous control. In the
event of failure of one of the systems or channels, that system of channel is outvoted by the other two and is automatically disengaged; control is therefore
continued in duplex. In the event of a further fault in either of the two remaining systems or channels, they will both disconnect, and the aircraft is returned to the
pilot in a trimmed and safe attitude. An equivalent term used in the USA is triple-redundant.]
152) Land 3
a) Cat III
b) Auto sequences start
c) Triple redundancy of power ‘source’ ……*
[‘LAND 3’ signifies triple redundancy of power sources, engaged flight control computers, sensors and servos (fail operational).]

Integrated instrument and flight director systems

153) Flight director display unit control bar

a) actual path compared to required path
b) required path compared to actual path*
c) actual path compared to horizon

Flight data recording

154) Correction to flight data recorder before analysis
a) Data send for multiplexing*
b) Correction made for calibration [air data].
c) Update flight information
[To provide correct interpretation of the stored information when ‘reading’ the tape or wire, the signal inputs to the magnetizing coils of the ‘writing’ head must
first be assembled into an identifiable format. This is done by multiplexing the pulses in a signal conditioning unit, so that the format comprises a frame of 64
‘words’, each word containing 16 ‘bits’; a frame is of 1s duration.]
[B747-123 AMM 31-31-00: The FDAU accepts all input parameter signals and performs the functions of preconditioning, multiplexing and conversion to place
them in standard digital format for recording.]
155) Subframe of [DFDR]
a) 1sec*
b) 16sec
c) 1min
[A frame is of 1s duration.]
156) Flight Data Recorder
a) Two 4×writing head and 4×erase head*
b) Store flight parameter for last 72 flight hours
c) Store airspeed, altitude and GMT only [Time, acceleration, pitch, altitude, airspeed , heading, and flight number and date]
[B747-123 AMM 31-31-00: The flight recording system records selected items of flight data obtained during the latest 25 hours of airplane operation,]

Flight control systems

157) Flap automatic (deploy?) according to

a) Speed*
b) Height
c) Throttle position
[B747-123 AMM 27-51-00: An automatic trailing edge flap retract system is provided to lessen aerodynamic loads on the flaps if they are fully extended and
airplane speed is beyond the placard limit. The system is actuated by the flap load relief mechanism.]
158) Flap asymmetry protection fault
a) Flap disengaged* [flaps lock up, cannot be undone during flight]
b) Pilot need to know yaw and roll effect
c) Pilot control with electric actuator
[B747-123 AMM 27-51-00: At an excessive amount of asymmetry of either the inboard or outboard flaps, the comparator signal will operate the flap bypass valve
in the respective flap power package. Further hydraulic operation of the affected package will then be impossible until the asymmetry problem is corrected.]
159) Flap asymmetry is detected, flap
a) drives to full up position
b) drives to full down position
c) locks to present position*
160) Erratic control movement
a) flaps cannot deflect
b) flaps can deflect but no effect*
c) hinge movement sometimes large and sometimes small
161) Flap circuit, with respect to pitch change due to flap deployment
a) sense pitch error*
b) sends correction signal out
162) Differential control surface movement is most likely to be found on which the control surface movement
a) elevator
b) Flap
c) Aileron*
163) When aircraft turn at a bank angle
a) aircraft aileron remain one up & one down when the bank angle achieved
b) aircraft aileron return to neutral position when the bank angle achieved*
c) Both A/C ailerons down when the bank angle achieved.
164) Aileron
a) provide control about lateral axis
b) when wheel turn to left, left aileron raised up and right aileron lowered*
c) control column forward, aileron lowered
165) Control column turn left and pull back
a) left aileron raised and elevator lowered
b) left aileron lowered and elevator raised
c) left aileron raised and elevator raised*
166) Spoiler
a) ...roll... rudder
b) work in connection with aileron*
[B747-123 AMM 27-61-00: The spoiler control system supplements the ailerons in providing lateral control of the airplane about the roll axis.]
[B747-123 AMM 27-61-00: The flight spoilers are positioned hydraulically and controlled directly by the aileron control system.]
167) When steering wheel turn right:
a) left wing spoiler move upwards
b) right wing spoiler move upwards*
c) right wing spoiler no effect
168) When control wheel turn right, spoiler on left wing
a) Move down
b) Move up
c) Remain the same (may be)
169) Spoiler position normally biases
a) STOW position*
b) DEPLOY position
c) 7 degree position
170) Speed brake movement, spoiler panels response to
a) control column movement
b) speed brake lever through mixer unit* [spoiler also through mixer]
c) speed brake lever through spoiler selector
171) Air brake to slow down aircraft
a) no altitude change*
b) control yawing
c) control rolling
172) VNAV (Vertical Navigation)
a) elevator*
b) rudder
c) aileron
173) In series circuit, pilot controls rudder via
a) control wheel
b) control column
c) pedal*
174) Heading drift to right, rudder control of yaw damper
a) right proportional to heading error
b) left proportional to heading error
c) proportional to the rate of drift, moving left*
175) Control surface rudder is
a) controlled by cockpit
b) controlled by auto pilots [not sure]
c) self contained
176) Rudder limitation factor
a) landing gear
b) stabilizer pos
c) speed*
177) Pitch trim in elevator tab, Automatic servo tab trimming:
a) parallel operation to control the elevator actuator*
b) not applicable
c) 3 phases motor to the stabilizer
178) Pitch trim device is elevator trim servo in automatic trimming
a) parallel with elevator trim servo*
b) not operational
179) Spring tab on aileron
a) Use during high speed flight*
b) Normally not in use
180) Trim tab
a) only monitor on ground
b) position appear on ground
c) use for flight control*
[Trim tab may be considered as the basic form of trimming, an auxiliary surface known as a tab is hinged at the trailing edge of a primary control surface and
is connected via a cable, linkage and gearing system to a trim wheel in the cockpit.]
181) Yaw damping according to
a) max at max rudder position
b) max at min yaw rate
c) yaw rate*
182) To engage yaw damping
a) all systems synchronise
b) yaw damp light fault off indicating no fault
183) Coupler of yaw damper system
a) filter, process, et+ integration & signal amplification*
 b) service manual + auto control
184) Autopilot stabilizer trim motor drives
a) elevator
b) stabilizer
c) Autopilot elevator actuator*
185) Stabilizer trim hydraulic actuated
a) Link in any stab servo
b) Electrical signal control hydraulic flow*
c) Independent trim servo actuator
186) Trim of stabilizer by hydraulic motor, auto trim system is achieved by
a) control the hydraulic to stabilizer
b) via the trim electrical circuit*
c) via stab trim electrical actuator
187) Stabilizer trim of autopilot [compensate] error signal from
a) skid and skid
b) autopilot control panel
c) computer amplifier*
188) Trim servo, to sustain in certain position for long time
a) Autopilot Control Panel
b) Computer Amplifier*
189) Nose up/Nose down is a result of
a) stabilizer limit and stab trim cut off switch*
b) clouth engagement
c) Flap up/down switch
190) For the stabilizer trim, use two high speed servo motor when,
a) When flaps without retracted* [?]
b) Mach Trim
c) When A/C reduce to certain value of speed
[Two stabilizer and rudder modules engages to high speed at low airspeed B747-4 AMM 22-22-00/001]
191) Aerodynamic balance
a) Reduce stick force
b) Balance all stick force
c) Improve stability
192) Balance…
a) Aerodynamic resistance and control force balance
b) Trim..
193) Aerodynamic balance
a) reduce stick pressure*
b) balancing out stick pressure
c) increase stability*
194) Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) controls what:
aileron, rudder, elevator, spoiler, stabilizer, yaw damper???
195) Lift augmentation
a) Flap + spoiler
b) Slat + flap*
c) Spoiler + speed brake
[Lift augmentation: During take-off, approach and landing, the spedd of an aircraft corresponds to values in the low end of its overall speed range, and since there
is a fixed relationship between these speeds and stalling speed, then as high a maximum lift coefficient as possible is required at the lower speeds. In order to
achieve this, secondary control devices are provided and when operated they augment the lift generated by the wings. The devices most commonly used are flaps,
slats and slots.]
196) In flight stability augmentation
a) For roll
b) For yaw*
197) In yaw stability augmentation system mode, turn coordination get signal from
a) Rudder position transducer
b) Locailiser receiver during autoland
c) Aileron position transducer*
198) Washout circuit is
a) resistant circuit
b) integrating circuit (may be)
c) differential circuit
[Washout circuit used to diminish heading error due to wind]
[Such systems normally utilize limited authority series actuators that operate in response to sensors such as rate gyroscopes or vertical gyroscopes providing
derived rate signals.]
199) Dutch Roll occurs in which of the 2 planes
a) Yaw plane, pitch plane, pitch plane
 b) Yaw & roll*
200) Dutch roll occurs
a) lateral unstable, longitudinal...
b) lateral & directional unstable*
201) Control Surface Snubber are
a) controlled from the cockpit
b) controlled by the autopilot
c) self contained unit*
202) Active load control
a) varying lift force to control vertical movement
b) no application to roll & yaw channel*
c) applied to elevators, ailerons & rudders
203) Active load control
a) control lift to climb or descent*
b) not allow to roll or pitch
c) control of rudder, aileron, elevator
204) ‘P’ static control
205) ‘P control’ means
a) control p static level to minimum
b) keep p at certain level
206) P static control means
a) Reduction of threshold of Pstatic charge release
b) Reduction of concentration of Pstatic
c) Reduce Pstatic at some local are
207) Columbe friction
a) by ramp input or step input > dead space*
b) step input > overshoot and go to desired track
208) “Columb friction”
a) dead band
b) dead (space?) at initial*
c) oscillating time signal
209) In a tab operated aircraft, what is the normal trim operation
a) reposition the control surface
b) balance tab & servo tab
c) trim actuator digital to control
210) Dual motor servo tab
a) use in high speed
b) fast response
211) Bank and turn indicator pointer and ball to left
a) skid*
b) coordinated turn
c) slip <overbanked = slipped into turn
212) ... "airspeed attenuation" ... elevator signal ... control surface deflection:
a) increase with increasing airspeed
b) decrease with increasing airspeed*
c) unchanged with increasing airspeed
213) When control column shakes
a) There exists stall at wingtip
b) Wing is about to stall*
c) Wing is buffeting
214) Stalling margin
a) The control column …. Rattle
215) To detect stall….small tab mount on wing will
a) Tab goes up when wing stall* [suction on upper surface of wing]
b) Tab goes down when wing stall
216) Stall protection system
a) Aid in breakaway …. of airflow*
b) Smooth the turbulence flow on surface
217) Stall warning protection input signal from:
a) AOA only
b) AOA, TAT
c) AOA, pitot static probe
[Input from AOA sensor and Flap position transmitter.]
218) A self command test to a differential pressure type AOA probe/sensor will:
 a) rotate the AOA probe 90 degrees
b) rotate the AOA probe around, and cause the control column rattle (may be)
c) Cause the control column raffle
219) Dual system in aircraft, the operation is
a) Left computer operate first*
b) Left and right computer operate simultaneous
c) To prevent over shooting for flight controls
d) To move control surface within autopilot limitation
220) Use of filter circuit in yaw damper computer
a) block freq between A/C rolling signal and A/C turning*
b) modulate the output signal

Fly-By-Wire (FBW)

In operation, movements of the control column and rudder pedals, and the forces exerted by the pilot, are measured by electrical transducers, and the signals
produced are then amplified and relayed to operate the hydraulic actuator units which are directly connected to the flight control surfaces.

221) Fly-By-Wire
a) Control law
b) …law
222) Autopilot hydraulically operate the control surface, operation is
a) Electrical signal*
b) Hydraulic fluid to motor
223) Fly-By-Wire is
a) flight guidance system
b) flight control system*
c) flight management system
[Another system which may be considered under the heading of powered flight controls, is the one referred to as a ‘fly-by-wire’ (FBW) control system.]
224) Critical system on FBW aircraft
a) Flight management system
b) Flight control system*
c) Flight guidance system
225) Without FBW, spoiler panel
a) remain where they are
b) go to up
c) go to down*
226) FBW, where spoiler has lost electrical power
a) go to up
b) go to down*
c) remain
227) Fly-By-Wire on transport type aircraft perform....
a) Autobrake, autopilot, auto throttle, spoiler*
b) autopilot, auto throttle, flight management , flight control
c) auto throttle....
228) FBW
a) input mode, managed mode , command mode
b) command mode, managed mode , automatic mode
c) manual mode, managed mode , automatic mode*
229) Fly-By-Wire (FBW) usually operate
a) side stick or autopilot (A/P)
b) autopilot (A/P) , auto throttle (A/T) *
230) FBW
a) duplicate inspection by 2 avionic licensed engineers.
b) duplicate inspection by at least one airframe licensed engineer
231) FBW movement of flight controls
a) linear
b) programmed*
232) FBW
a) servo control
b) mechanical backup*
c) mechanically assisted
233) FBW give command signal to flight control via
a) FMC*
b) by pilot directly
c) to pre-set value position when command input
234) Modern Fly-By-Wire aircraft data transmitted between computers
a) Optical fiber
b) ARINC 429* [most common]
235) FBW for control surface,
a) Proportional to the pilot side stick control* [but q feel requires nonlinear control]
b) Controlled by FMCS
236) ‘Q’ feel system provides
a) feels for pilot*
b) artificial balance
c) aerodynamic damping
[Dynamic pressure q = V2]
237) Optic fiber wire in flight control
a) immune interference*
b) high transmission speed
c) light weight
[The principal advantage of fibre-optic cables is its immunity to electromagnetic interference, and the consequent elimination of heavy shielding required to
protect the more conventional ‘signal wires’.]
 Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GPWS)
B777
Modes Condition Aural message PFD-Red ND message GND PROX-G/S inhibit
message light
1 Initial annunciation “SINK RATE…” X
Warning “PULL UP…” PULL UP
2A Flaps <= 20 and Initial annunciation “TERRAIN TERRAIN” X
G/S dev > 2 dots Warning “PULL UP…” PULL UP
Altitude gain function: “TERRAIN..” X
-Starts when mode 2
condition stops
-Stops when 300ft of
inertial ALT is gained
or gear goes down
2B Flaps >= 25 or Flaps and gear down “TERRAIN..” X
G/S dev < 2 dots
Flaps Initial “TERRAIN TERRAIN..” X
and/or annunciation
gear up Warning “PULL UP..” PULL UP
3A Flaps <= 20 and/or gear up (For altitude loss of “DON’T SINK…” X
approximately 10% to 20%)
3B Flaps <= 20 and/or gear up. RA less than “TOO LOW TERRAIN” X
threshold value.
4A Gear up Airspeed < 190knots “TOO LOW GEAR..” X
and RA < 500ft
Airspeed >190 knots “TOO LOW FLAPS..” X
and RA changes but
equal to or less than
1000ft
4B Gear down flaps Airspeed <159knots and “TOO LOW FLAPS..” X
<=20 RA <245ft
Airspeed > 159knots “TOO LOW TERRAIN..” X
and RA changes but
equal to or less than
1000ft
5 ILS front course RA < 1000ft and G/S “GLIDE SLOPE..” at 1/2
approach and gear deviation > 1.3dots volume freq proportional to
down deviation and ground
proximity
RA < 300ft and G/S “GLIDE SLOPE…” at full X
deviation > 2.0 dots volume, FREQ proportional to
G/S deviation and ground
proximity.
6 Gear down Radio altitude callouts as
selected by program pins
7 Windshear condition Siren, then “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEA
WINDSHEAR, R
WINDSHEAR..”
TERR 60 sec to threat terrain “CAUTION, TERRAIN..” TERRAIN X
30 sec to threat terrain “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP TERRAIN
PULL UP..”
TCF Airplane below terrain clearance floor “TOO LOW TERRAIN..” X
238) GPWS mode 1
a) Terrain, Terrain
b) Sink rate, sink rate*
239) GPWS Mode 1
a) Below 2450 feet radio altitude, below 154 knots
b) Below 2450 feet radio altitude*
c) Below 2450 feet radio altitude, flap down and gear up
240) GPWS Mode 1
a) Gear down
b) Below 2450 & speed less than 154 knot & excess sink rate
c) Below 2450 feet radio altitude & excessive sink rate*
241) Different between mode 2A & 2B
a) undercarriage up and undercarriage down* [mode 2A: gear up; mode 2B: gear up or gear down]
b) flap > 25degree and gear down [mode 2B]
c) flap < 25 degrees and flap > 25 degrees or more
242) GPWS mode 2A penetrates to inner warning area as a result of pull up maneuver
a) ALT gain stops
b) Aural warning changes to “too low terrain”
c) Aural/visual warnings disappear as a result of lowered landing gear*
243) GPWS mode 3
a) don’t sink* [3A]
244) GPWS mode 3
 a) cancelled when mode 5 engaged*
b) Terrain, Terrain
c) Below 700 feet and gear no down [no exactly sure]
245) GPWS mode 5
a) When glide-slope and back course present [wrong]
[Mode 5 requires front course and significant change of glide slope > 1.3dots re B777-2 AMM]
246) GPWS mode 5
a) inoperates when above 1000ft (may be)
b) on when slip lower than glide-slope
247) GPWS mode 5 engage
a) ILS, G/S, gear down (may be)
[ILS front course and gear down: RA < 1000ft and G/S dev > 1.3dots; RA < 300ft and G/S dev >2.0dots]
248) GPWS mode 5 initiate
a) Radio altitude < 1000ft (may be)
b) Take off or missed approach with gear down [not for take off]
249) GPWS inputs
a) [Baro, air data, landing gear, flap, radio altimeter, altitude rate, ILS etc. Choose the correct with the least parameters]
[B747-123 AMM 34-46-00: Signals from the following systems are used to develop the warning and alerting modes: Air Data System, Instrument Landing System,
Radio Altimeter System, Stall Warning System, Inertial Reference System, Weather Radar System, and Trailing Edge Flaps]
[B747-123 AMM 34-46-00: The following discrete signals are used in the computer logic for the warning and alerting modes: No.1 and 2 Radio Altimeter Valid,
Baro Altitude Rate Valid, Computed Airspeed Valid, No. 1 and 2 Localizer and Glideslope Valid, No. 1 and 2 ILS Tuned, Landing Flaps Selected, Landing Gear
Down, Glideslope Inhibit, EGPWS Self Test, Terrain Override, Terrain Display Select and Decision Height.]
250) GPWS
a) provide warning on excess sink rate and terrain clearance [not fully correct]
b) guideline………………to provide advice
c) 8 modes…………..
[7 + 2 modes re B777-2]
[The purpose of the Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is to alert the flight crew to the existence of an unsafe condition due to terrain proximity.]

Centre Maintenance System

251) In CMC special function would like entry for checking

a) Keying the function showing the word next to it* [line select key, LSK]
b) Enter the special code
[The eleven mode select keys (LSK) are used to control the type of data available or accessible on the CDU; e.g., climb, routes, and fix.]
252) CMC display
a) On upper EICAS
b) Graphical representation of snapshot of performance
c) Real-time snapshot of system performance*
253) CMC feature
a) Existing fault, present leg fault, fault history [Boeing]
b) Bite, present leg, class 1 fault (true)
c) Snapshot and fault history (true)
254) CMC fail, CDU show what
a) malfunction code, action emergency code
255) Pressing test button on CMC
a) only test the CMC computer*
b) test LRU's and devices connected to CMCs
256) To change software of CMC / LRU
a) Onboard loader only
b) In shop only
c) Onboard loader and shop*
257) CMC data loader
a) update flight data information
b) load software
c) download fault to computer disk
258) CMC main page [front page] is:
a) Fault History
b) Central maintenance manual
c) Flight manual
d) Monitor and system page
[CDU 1st page: ACMS, ACARS, CMC]
[Maintenance Menu: Flight report, Avionics status, System report/Test.]
259) Class 3 fault
a) show to flight crew inflight
b) show when get into CMC on ground*
260) Class 3 fault detect
 a) flight crew in flight
b) aircraft shut down [if engine shut down]
c) CADC detect
[Level 3 Failures = Class A failures for Boeing Red Warnings, situations that require immediate crew action and that place the flight in danger. For example, an
engine fire or loss of cabin pressure. They are enunciated with a red master warning light, a warning (red) ECAM message and a continuous repetitive
chime or a specific sound or a synthetic voice. The chime can be silenced by pressing the master warning push button.]
261) Dataloader switches to FMS 1 of the ...CMU?
a) FMS records on to floppy if fault
b) FMS 1 malfunction* [e.g. B747-4 EICAS shows “FMS 1 & 2 Fault”]
c) no effect on FMS
262) Modern aircraft development of nonvolatile memory, improve
a) Flight manual implement to LRU [electronic flight bag for some]
b) Maintenances manual implement to LRU* [B777 maintenance access terminal, MAT]
263) Software program update by "On Board Maintenance System". can be achieved by
a) data loader a/c OBMS without changing computers*
b) in workshop only
c) changing computer for software program update
264) Software for specific airline
a) by manufacturer at delivery
b) loader at maintenance equip bay*
265) What are the codes for INS malfunction shown on the right hand side of CDI
a) action & malfunction codes
b) level 1& 2 codes
c) advisory & emergency code
266) Servo control with ADL
a) microprocessor does calculation
b) A/D convert to servo
[ADL = airborne data loader, microprocessor determines AIRNC bus data to QAR disc re B747-4 AMM31-35-00]
267) Warning system can be
a) Inhibited
b) Inhibited, but can’t reproduce…
c) Never be inhibited
268) Two CMC…
a) Both work simultaneously …send data to individual display
b) Left CMC is primary
c) Right CMC is primary

Flight Management Systems (FMS)

269) Velocity is determined in FMS by

a) INS/IRU
b) ADC + INS/IRU*
270) Which of followings are controlled by FMS
[Throttle, elevator, aileron]
[Each FMC receives twenty-four digital inputs and three discrete inputs, and outputs to nine different digital customers.]
[Output Roll, Pitch, THR command to Flight control, Thrust management Computer.]
271) If a flight plan is entered to one of two computer, the other computer
a) can access to the computer which entered a flight plan (may be)
[Normally, either CDU can input to both FMCs simultaneously, and each FMC will then compute and execute the command; and, if an output is appropriate, both
FMCs will output to their associated “onside” CDU, giving the impression that the FMCS functions as a single system.]

Others

272) Two Line Replaceable Unit (LRU)s are interchanged,

a) it is essential that they are compatible and power off before interchange*
b) it is essential that they are calibrated
c) BITE test is carried out
273) The last parity of ARINC word
a) To force the word in even parity
b) To check for error*
[Parity Bit: The last bit of each word, Bit No. 32, is encoded such that it would allow error detection by the receivers, to verify transmission efficiency.]
274) Course Deviation Indicator (CDI)
a) A/Z dial is a …. 360 degrees anticlockwise
b) Rotating …. Inside central deviation
c) To/From above aircraft symbol and from parts of deviation needle*
275) Manometric value is used
 a) in only “Hold” mode
b) in only “Acquire” mode
c) Either “Hold” or “Acquire” mode*
276) Manometric inputs what modes
a) anode mode
277) Phase advance damping
a) velocity lag
b) made up of Resistor and Capacitor*
[Damping control]
278) Autopilot “attitude mode”
a) data for ADC
b) mostly inner loop data but belongs to outer loop control
c) responds faster than pilot to small changes*
279) Central panel hydraulic position is sense via
a) LVDT
b) RVDT
c) Control syncho*
280) Flapped piper can use par plastic
a) 75 ohm
b) 75 ohm
281) Convenient corrective action for anyone correction for same rate of disturbance
a) reset value of resistor in feedback unit*
b) switch in cross feed
c) switch out cross feed
282) An convenient way to alter the rate of correction for any type of correction for the same rate of disturbance
a) Alter the preset value the resistor in feedback circuit*
b) Switch in cross feed
c) Switch out cross feed
283) How to increase the system time response to one of the system
a) reduce resistor in the feedback* [but more steady state error or overshoot]
b) cross feed in
c) cross feed out
284) Eractor cut out
a) Control acceleration
b) Control precession*
285) Layer sequence
Remarks:

1 knot = 1 nautical mile per hour = 1.15 m.p.h. = 6,080 ft/h

Altitude alert system: aural and visual alert signals, aircraft approaches or deviates from a selected altitude.
Mach meter: combining an airspeed capsule (P – S) and an altitude capsule (S).
Vertical speed indicator: 1) capsule, 2) metering jet (choke): provide a rate of change of pressure directly e.g. rate of climb or
descent.
Capillary and orifice type metering units: capillary only → positive error in instrument, orifice only → the effect is exactly the
opposite.
IVSI (Instantaneous VSI): incorporates an accelerometer unit to overcome the problem of lag in the normal VSI.
The reference altitude for call outs is the radio altitude for precision approaches (DH) and baro altitude (MDA/MDH) for non
precision approaches.
ILS (instrument landing system):
Three elements require ground transmitters and airborne receivers:
a) VHF localizer, which gives left/right (lateral) guidance on to the extended runway centre line.
b) UHF glide path, which gives up/down (vertical) guidance with respect to a suitable descent path at an angle of about
3 degrees above the horizontal.
c) VHF marker beacons, to indicate pre-determined distances to the runway threshold.
Localizer: band 108.10 to 111.95MHz: carrier: AM: to the left of the centre line by a 90Hz tone, to the right of the centre line by a
150Hz tone. DDM is 15.5%
Glide-slope: band 329.3 to 335.0MHz horizontally polarized. Carrier is AM above the G/S by a 90Hz tone and below by a 150Hz
tone. DDM (40% modulation by each tone)
Tachometer to measure the rotational speed of a crankshaft or a compressor as appropriate to the type of power plant.