Practice Test 10

Document # 6973555
MCAT
Practice Test 10 - CBT
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Document # 6973555
Physical Sciences
Time: 70 minutes
Questions: 1-52
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
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(202-828-0690).
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Document # 6973555
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
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Passage I 1. The oxidation state of copper in going from the

penny to the waste mixture changes from:
The disposal of waste chemicals is a common A) 0 to +2.
laboratory problem. For example, an experiment to B) 0 to +1.
determine the copper content of a penny produces a C) +1 to 0.
waste mixture at pH 9 containing copper and zinc in D) +2 to 0.
the form of soluble complex ions of ammonia and
solid hydroxides.
2. What is the formula for the zinc sulfide mentioned
A procedure for handling the waste involves in the passage?
treating the waste mixture with hydrochloric acid, A) Zn2S
HCl(aq), which frees copper and zinc ions by shifting B) ZnS
the equilibria of all of the reactions shown in C) ZnS2
equations 1–4 to the right. D) Zn2S3
Cu(NH3)42+(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) 3. The waste mixture is initially:

dark blue light blue A) a basic solution.
Equation 1 B) a neutral solution.
C) an acidic solution.
Zn(NH3)42+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) D) a buffer solution.
colorless colorless
Equation 2
Cu2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq)
i b ut e 4. The literature value of the Ksp for the reaction

shown in Equation 4 is obtained by determining
the value of:
r
Cu(OH)2(s)
t
A) [Zn2+(aq)][OH–(aq)]2 in a saturated solution of
s
Equation 3
i
Zn(OH)2(s).
D
Zn(OH)2(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) B) [Zn2+(aq)][OH–(aq)] in an unsaturated solution of
t
Zn(OH)2(s).
o
Equation 4
C) [Zn2+(aq)][OH–(aq)] in a saturated solution of
Do N After the acid treatment, both metals exist as

aqueous ions in an acidic solution from which they
can be precipitated as insoluble sulfides by the
addition of sodium sulfide. The solubility product
constants (Ksp) of copper(II) and zinc(II) sulfides are
6.7  10–42 and 1  10–27, respectively.
Zn(OH)2(s).
D) [Zn2+(aq)][OH–(aq)]2 in an unsaturated solution of
Zn(OH)2(s).
5. What is the function of the organic polymer in the

procedure?
A) It catalyzes the formation of metallic sulfides.
The metallic sulfides form as colloidal B) It absorbs excess hydrochloric acid.
suspensions, which must be treated with an organic C) It neutralizes excess ammonia.
polymer to obtain a precipitate that can be collected D) It breaks up the colloidal suspension.
by filtration. The solid containing the metals is held
for disposal in accordance with local procedures, and 6. If a filtrate contains Cu2+(aq), it responds to the
the resulting filtrate may be flushed down the addition of a small amount of NH3(aq) by
laboratory drain if allowable by local regulations. changing its color from:
A) colorless to light blue.
B) light blue to dark blue.
C) dark blue to light blue.
D) light blue to colorless.
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Document # 6973555
7. Is the procedure more effective for zinc or copper?

A) Zinc, because the Ksp of its sulfide > Ksp of copper
sulfide
B) Zinc, because the Ksp of its sulfide < Ksp of copper
sulfide
C) Copper, because the Ksp of its sulfide > Ksp of zinc
sulfide
D) Copper, because the Ksp of its sulfide < Ksp of zinc
sulfide
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Passage II 8. The structure and bonding of diamond, which is

formed from graphite at extreme pressures, should
Recent work suggests that nitrogen can be used to be similar to that of elemental:
store and supply energy in a manner similar to that of A) aluminum and gallium.
gasoline and ethanol. In the atmosphere, nitrogen is B) silicon and germanium.
diatomic and contains a triple bond. Theory suggests C) phosphorus and arsenic.
that, under sufficient pressure, nitrogen can be D) sulfur and selenium.
converted into a solid form with the structure shown
in Figure 1; it resembles the structure of phosphorus.
9. What bonding accounts for the expected increase
in energy density of solid nitrogen as compared to
methanol?
A) Solid nitrogen contains covalent and ionic bonds;
methanol contains only weak ionic bonds.
B) Solid nitrogen contains covalent and ionic bonds;
methanol has covalent bonds within each molecule
and weak van der Waal’s interactions between
molecules.
Figure 1 Structure of a solid form of nitrogen C) Solid nitrogen contains only covalent bonds;
methanol contains only weak ionic bonds.
Theories and experiments dealing with elements D) Solid nitrogen contains only covalent bonds;
e
subjected to high pressures reveal a trend in which methanol has covalent bonds within each molecule
extreme pressures applied to an elemental solid cause
it to assume the structure and bonding characteristics
ri b ut and weak intermolecular interactions.
t
of a heavier element in the same column of the 10. What prediction can be made about the entropy
is
periodic table. change during the proposed synthesis of solid
D
At normal atmospheric pressure, solid nitrogen nitrogen?
t
A) ∆S is positive, entropy decreases.
o
will be metastable and return to the gaseous form,
releasing energy as it returns. It is expected to have an B) ∆S is positive, entropy increases.
Do N
energy density (joules•cm–3) equal to or greater than
hydrocarbon fuels and greater than methanol
(CH3OH) and other alcohols.
In the absence of an energy barrier, the solid form
of nitrogen is predicted to be stable above 65 GPa
C) ∆S is negative, entropy decreases.
D) ∆S is negative, entropy increases.
11. Would deviations from the ideal gas law be

observed for gaseous nitrogen at 180 GPa and
room temperature?
pressure (1 atm = 1  105 Pa), with the diatomic form A) No, because both temperature and pressure must
stable below that pressure. However, to overcome increase before such deviations are observed
energy barriers, additional pressure must be applied to B) No, because nitrogen molecules are symmetrical
convert the gaseous form into the solid form. and do not interact with each other
C) Yes, because at this pressure, molecular volumes
and intermolecular forces become significant
D) Yes, because at room temperature, molecular
volumes and intermolecular forces become
significant

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 14. Which of the following elements reacts most
passage and are independent of each other. violently with cold water?
A) K
12. B) Mg
C) Fe
D) Zn
15.
Caffeine
Which pair of formulas represents the empirical
and molecular formulas, respectively, of
caffeine?
A) CHNO and C8H10N2O2
B) C4H5N2O and C4H5N2O
The figure above shows an arrow, pointing
C) C8H10N4O2 and C8H10N4O2
upward, located a distance p in front of a
D) C4H5N2O and C8H10N4O2
converging lens of focal length f. If p > f as in the
figure, what kind of image of the arrow is formed
13. A beam of light shines from air into a transparent by the lens?
e
medium having two parallel surfaces. Part of the A) Real and pointing down
beam is reflected from the second surface, as
shown below.
ri b ut B) Real and pointing up

C) Virtual and pointing down
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D) Virtual and pointing up
(Note: The figure is not drawn to scale.)
t D is
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Do The index of refraction of the medium is 1.5.
Which of the following describes the relationship
between the angles of incidence and reflection
and the relationship between the angles of
incidence and refraction?
A) θ < θ and θ < α
B) θ = θ and θ > α
C) θ = θ and θ < α
D) θ > θ and θ > α

Document # 6973555
Passage III 18. The wavelength of the detected sound when the
projectile is at h is:
A student performs an experiment to determine A) 0.50 m.
the distance moved and velocity of a projectile as a B) 1.00 m.
function of time. C) 2.00 m.
A 1.00-kg object is initially at rest. The student D) 170 m.
applies a force of 19.6 N through a distance of 0.50 m
to propel the object straight upward. It has an initial 19. What would be the value of the gravitational
speed v and reaches a peak height h above the launch acceleration at the surface of a planet that has
point. twice the mass and twice the radius of Earth?
A) 9.8/4 m/s2
The projectile contains a small speaker that emits B) 9.8/2 m/s2
a sound at a frequency of 170 Hz. The sound is C) 9.8 m/s2
detected by a microphone and recording device D) 19.6 m/s2
located on the ground directly beneath the vertical
trajectory of the projectile. The recorded data are used
to compute the velocity of the object using the 20. What is the magnitude of the detected sound
Doppler effect. (The acceleration due to gravity at the frequency shift from 170 Hz during the projectile
surface of Earth is 9.80 m/s2. Air resistance may be flight described in the passage?
neglected. The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s.) A) It falls to zero, then increases.
e
B) It is constant throughout the flight.
t
C) It rises continuously.
u
16. How much work is done in launching the object?
b
D) It falls continuously.
A) 9.80 kg m/s2
B) 19.6 J
C) 9.8 J
is t ri 21. The projectile explodes at its peak height. What

is the total momentum carried by all the
D
D) 19.6 N
t
fragments immediately after the explosion?
o
A) 19.6 kg m/s
17. The mathematical expression for h is:
N
B) 9.80 kg m/s
A) mv2/2.
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C) 0.50 kg m/s
B) v2/(2g).
D) 0 kg m/s
C) mg.
D) mv.

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 24. What are the oxidizing and reducing agents,
passage and are independent of each other. respectively, in the reaction below?
22. Consider the reaction rate described by the 2HCl + H2O2 + MnO2  O2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O
following equation. A) H2O2; HCl
B) H2O2; MnO2
Rate = k[A]m[B]n C) MnO2; HCl
D) MnO2; H2O2
The overall reaction is said to be second order
when:
A) k is constant, m=0, and n=0. 25. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the
B) k is constant, m=1, and n=1. lowest freezing point?
C) k is constant, m=2, and n=2. A) 0.10 M CaCl2
D) k=2, and m and n are variable. B) 0.15 M NaCl
C) 0.15 M CaCl2
D) 0.20 M NaCl
23. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the equilibrium constant (K) and the
change in standard free energy (∆G°) for a
spontaneous chemical reaction?
A) ΔG° < 0 and K < 1
B) ΔG° < 0 and K > 1
C) ΔG° > 0 and K < 1
D) ΔG° > 0 and K > 1
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Passage IV
Note: HOAc is acetic acid (CH3CO2H).
A pH meter was used to monitor several acid-base
titrations and to detect the pH at which six different
indicators change color.
Experiment 1
NaOH solutions were slowly titrated into 25-mL
samples of analyte. The concentrations of acid and
base were varied for each titration (Table 1). The pH
was measured with a pH meter and plotted as a
function of the volume of NaOH added to either HCl
(Figure 1) or HOAc (Figure 2).
Table 1 Titration of 25 mL of Acid with NaOH
Analyte
(25 mL)
Concentration
of NaOH Concentration
Titration (M) Compound (M) Figure 1 Titration of 25 mL HCl with NaOH
1
2
0.10
0.010
HCl
HCl
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0.10
0.010
3
4
0.0010
0.10
HCl
HOAc
D is t r 0.0010
0.10
t
5 0.010 HOAc 0.010
N
6 0.0010 HOAc
o 0.0010
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Figure 2 Titration of 25 mL HOAc with NaOH
Experiment 2
Each acid-base indicator was placed in 1.0 M
HCl. While monitoring the pH, 0.1 M NaOH was
slowly added. The pH of the transition range and the
colors before and after the transition range were
recorded (Table 2).

Document # 6973555
Table 2 Colors of Several Acid-Base Indicators 28. The concentrations of H3O+ and OH– ions are
equal after approximately how much of NaOH is
Color in Color in added during Titration 3?
more acidic Transition more basic A) 4 mL
Indicator range range (pH) range B) 7 mL
A pink 1–2 yellow C) 25 mL
D) 50 mL
B pink 3–4 yellow
C yellow 4–6 blue 29. Assume that Titration 2 is modified so that HCl is
D red 5–8 blue titrated into NaOH. Which of the following
graphs best shows how the pH changes as HCl is
E colorless 8–10 pink added?
F colorless 10–12 yellow
26. Which of the following indicators can be used to

best detect the equivalence point for both
Titrations 1 and 4?
A) Indicator B
B) Indicator C
e
C) Indicator E
D) Indicator F
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t
27. Which of the following expressions gives an
is
approximate value of the equilibrium constant
D
(Ka) of the acid in Titration 5?
t
A) log([H3O+]2  [HOAc])
N
B) [H3O+]2  [HOAc]
o
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C) log([H3O+]2/[HOAc])
D) [H O + ]2
3
[HOAc]

Document # 6973555
Passage V 31. The explanation for the fact that radioactive

isotopes of an element exhibit the same chemical
Smoke detectors fall into two major classes. behavior as the stable isotopes of the element is
Ionization detectors, the most common units, contain that each has the same:
two parallel electrodes that are typically separated by A) atomic number.
3 cm with a 5-V potential difference across them. The B) number of neutrons.
air molecules between the electrodes are ionized by C) mass number.
collisions with helium nuclei that are produced by a D) atomic weight.
radioactive source. Most units are initially fueled with
60 million nuclei of radioactive americium 241 (half-
life 430 years). The now-ionized air molecules drift 32. When the ionized air molecules produce an
toward one of the electrodes with an average speed of average current of 2.5  10–4 A at the electrodes,
0.1 m/s and thus support a small current between the how much power is being generated?
two electrodes. Smoke particles that enter and A) 1.25 mW
combine with the ions reduce the current and initiate B) 5.0 mW
an alarm. C) 1.25 kW
D) 5.0 kW
Photoelectric detectors, by contrast, contain a
light-emitting diode that sends a beam of unpolarized
33. What is the magnitude of the electric field
light across a small chamber. The light beam usually between the two electrodes in ionization type
has a wavelength of 6.0  10–7 m and has an intensity
e
detectors?
of 1.0  10–3 W. When smoke particles enter the
chamber, the light scatters in all directions. A
photocell then senses either the increase in the
ri b ut A) 1.5 N/C
B) 1.66 N/C
C) 15 N/C
t
scattered light or the reduced intensity of the light
s
D) 166 N/C
i
beam and sets off the alarm. The speed of light in air
D
is 3.0  108 m/s.
t
34. The frequency of the light used in photodiode
o
Ionization detectors respond faster to the large detectors is:
N
smoke particles of flaming fires; photoelectric A) 1.8  1012 Hz.
Do
detectors sense the small particles of smoldering fires B) 5  1012 Hz.
more quickly. Modern units have both types of C) 1.8  1014 Hz.
detectors. D) 5  1014 Hz.
30. When fewer than 3.75  106 americium nuclei

35. Destructive interference occurs in photodiode
remain, the ionization smoke detector will not detectors when direct and scattered light rays take
operate due to insufficient ionization. How much paths to the photocell that differ in phase by:
time will pass before there are this many nuclei A) 0 degrees.
remaining? B) 90 degrees.
A) 1720 years C) 180 degrees.
B) 2150 years D) 360 degrees.
C) 4300 years
D) 6880 years

Document # 6973555
36. Advanced photodiode detectors have a second

light-emitting diode, operating at a wavelength of
2.0  10–7 m, to detect even smaller smoke
particles from smoldering flames. What is the
frequency difference between the two light
beams?
A) 12.0  1015 Hz
B) 3.0  1015 Hz
C) 2.0  1015 Hz
D) 1.0  1015 Hz
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Passage VI 37. Which of the following expressions can be used

to determine the mass of oleic acid in one drop?
A chemist performed two experiments to A) Volume of drop multiplied by molecular weight
determine Avogadro’s number. Assuming a B) Volume of drop multiplied by density
cylindrical shape for oleic acid molecules, after C) Density multiplied by molecular weight
determining the height and radius of the molecule, the D) Density subtracted from volume of drop
molecular volume can be calculated. Avogadro’s
number is then determined by discerning the number
of molecules in one mole of oleic acid. 38. Which of the following best describes the
bonding that exists within the oleic acid
The oleic acid molecule consists of a carboxylic molecule?
acid with a long hydrocarbon chain. The acid end A) Both polar and nonpolar covalent
dissolves in water, but the hydrocarbon portion does B) Polar covalent only
not. In pure water, therefore, oleic acid molecules C) Nonpolar covalent only
stand up vertically. Adding HCl to the water causes D) Ionic
the oleic acid molecules to lie down side by side on
top of the water. 39. Which of the following best supports the
Experiment 1 assumption that oleic acid molecules lie side by
side over an acid solution but stand up over pure
The chemist placed one drop of oleic acid on a water?
e
layer of water. A monolayer (a film one molecule A) The diameter of the monolayer increases in HCl.
t
thick) of oleic acid was formed. The monolayer B) The diameter of the monolayer decreases in HCl.
spread into a circle with a diameter of 14.00 cm. The
thickness of the monolayer, which is equal to the
length of the molecule, was found using the following
s t ri b u C) The volume of the drop of oleic acid increases.

D) The volume of the drop of oleic acid decreases.
equation.
thickness of monolayer = volume of drop/πr2
ot D i 40. Which of the following solvents could NOT be

used to dissolve the hydrocarbon portion of oleic
acid?
N
In this equation, r is the radius of the circle formed by A) Acetic acid
Do
the drop of oleic acid. B) Benzene
C) Diethyl ether
Experiment 2 D) Chloroform
The chemist placed one drop of oleic acid with the
same volume as in Experiment 1 on a layer of dilute 41. If a monolayer of water molecules is formed over
HCl. The diameter of the circle was 32.00 cm. The an organic oil, can Avogadro’s number be
equation in Experiment 1 was used to calculate the calculated using the method described in
height of the monolayer. experiments 1 and 2?
A) Yes, because the height of the water molecule can
The volume of one oleic acid molecule was be determined
determined to be 5.07 10–22 cm3. Using the density B) Yes, because the volume of the monolayer can be
of 0.90 g/cm3 for oleic acid, Avogadro’s number was determined
calculated to be 6.18 1023. C) No, because water will disperse across the top of
the organic oil
D) No, because water molecules are not cylindrical in
shape

Document # 6973555
Passage VII trajectories. Up to 106 tracks can be processed

each second with these devices.
Physicists use particle accelerators to learn
about the properties of elementary particles. By
studying the trajectories of particles emerging
from collisions in an accelerator, they learn the
ways particles interact with each other and decay
into other particles. Several kinds of detectors
have been developed for measuring particle
tracks.
The single-wire proportional chamber
consists of a cylindrical metal cathode containing
a low-pressure ionizing gas and an anode wire
running along its axis (see Figure 1). A charged
particle traversing the chamber leaves a trail of
ionized gas. The voltage is set so that the liberated
electrons are sufficiently accelerated to ionize 42. A proportional counter cannot be used to detect
other molecules in a process called cascading, neutrons because:
which produces an avalanche of secondary A) the mass of the neutron is too large.
electrons that are collected at the anode. The B) a neutron would produce negligible ionization in
t e
voltage pulse at the anode is proportional to the the chamber.
u
energy deposited in the chamber by the incident C) the strong electric field in the chamber would
b
distort the neutron’s path.
i
particle.
D is t r D) neutrons do not carry enough energy to ionize the

gas.
N ot 43. Is it possible for a single particle passing through

a multiwire proportional chamber to initiate more
than one anode signal?
Do
A) No, because there would be only one ionization
trail through the chamber
B) No, because only one electron cascade at a time is
physically possible
C) Yes, if the applied voltage is sufficiently low
The multiwire proportional chamber has a D) Yes, if the ionization trail is equidistant from more
sandwiched anode/cathode configuration (see than one anode wire
Figure 2). The ultra-thin anode wires are
approximately 2 mm apart and 6 mm from the 44. The voltage in a proportional chamber is set to
cathode plates. Each anode wire has its own cause the electrons to cascade so that the:
amplifier that sends a signal to a computer. A A) distance between cathode and anode can be
potential of a few thousand volts is applied maximized.
between the cathodes and the anodes. Many B) signals produced at the anode will not be too weak
chambers are stacked atop one another, each with to detect.
its anode wires perpendicular to those of the C) particle trajectories have enough time to exhibit
chamber below, to give three-dimensional curvature.
information. The stacks are placed in a uniform D) circuitry characteristics of the chamber are not
magnetic field to give the particles curved affected by its shape.

Document # 6973555
45. Why are curved particle trajectories through 46. The spatial resolution of stacked multiwire
stacks of ionization chambers preferable to proportional chambers is determined by the:
straight ones? A) applied voltage.
A) Curved trajectories require longer travel times, B) density of the ionizing gas.
providing more time for data analysis. C) density of particle tracks.
B) Straight-line trajectories would produce too few D) spacing of the anode wires.
anode signals to define tracks precisely.
C) The radius of curvature can be used to help 47. Which particle would produce the largest anode
identify the particle that produced the track. signal when traversing a proportional chamber
D) Neutron trajectories can be immediately with an initial speed 99% that of light?
distinguished from those of other particles. A) An electron
B) A proton
C) A neutron
D) An α particle
i b ut e
D is t r
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Do

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 50. The intensity level in decibels is defined as
passage and are independent of each other. 10 log10(I/I0), where I0 is a reference intensity
equal to the human threshold of hearing, 10–12
48. In a healthy person standing at rest, a comparison W/m2. What is the intensity of the threshold of
of arterial blood pressure measured in the arm pain, 120 decibels?
with that measured in the leg shows that the A) 1012 W/m2
pressure in the leg is: B) 100 W/m2
A) lower, because the blood flow rate is less. C) 10–2 W/m2
B) greater, because the column of blood between the D) 10–12 W/m2
arm and the leg has a hydrostatic pressure.
C) the same, because viscous pressure loss precisely 51. The term “ideal gas” refers to a gas for which
compensates the hydrostatic pressure increase. certain assumptions have been made. Which one
D) lower, because viscous flow resistance causes of the following assumptions applies to an ideal
pressure loss. gas?
A) The law PV = nRT2 is strictly obeyed.
49. B) Intermolecular forces are infinitely large.
C) Individual molecular volume and intermolecular
forces are negligible.
D) One mole occupies a volume of 22.4 L at 25°C
and 1 atm pressure.
i b ut e 52. A ball is thrown vertically upward. When the ball
r
reaches its maximum height, which of the
D is t following describes its velocity v and its

acceleration a?
A) v = 0, a = 0
N ot
A ray of light strikes a material whose index of
B) v 0, a = 0
C) v = 0, a 0
D) v 0, a 0
Do
refraction is n, resulting in a reflected ray and
refracted ray. The index of refraction of air is 1.0.
If the incident angle θ is decreased slightly, what
happens to the reflected angle, θ1, and the
refracted angle, θ2?
A) Both θ1 and θ2 increase.
B) θ1 increases and θ2 decreases.
C) θ1 decreases and θ2 increases.
D) Both θ1 and θ2 decrease.

Document # 6973555
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 60 minutes
Questions: 53-92
There are seven passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an
answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
(202-828-0690).
Page 21 of 57

Document # 6973555
Passage I was formed after humans had already occupied the

area.
To Native Americans living in the central Great
Plains, the spectacle must have been awesome. A In contrast, Arizona's famous Meteor Crater was
fireball brighter than 50 suns plunges blazing through created before human settlement, roughly 50,000
the atmosphere, explodes, and ignites the prairie for years ago. With a diameter of about a mile, the
miles around. The blinding flash gives way to a dark, Nebraska crater is slightly larger than Meteor Crater,
silent mushroom cloud. A minute later comes the but it is not nearly as distinctive. Whereas Meteor
stupendous roar and a blast wave that knocks trees Crater was dug out of slow-eroding hard rock in a
and people to the shaking ground. Most living things desert, the Nebraska depression lies in loose soil that
within ten miles die. "erodes with every rainstorm," says Dort. It is now
only 65 feet deep; one can drive through it and easily
If University of Kansas geologist Wakefield Dort miss it.
is correct, that's what happened 3,000 years ago right
in the middle of present-day Nebraska. In 1990, Dort And in fact, Dort hasn't convinced all the experts
was examining a topographical map of central that his depression really is an impact crater. Dort
Nebraska when he noticed a round, shallow hopes to drill into the bedrock under the crater this
depression, about a mile wide. "I took one look at it summer and thereby gather enough evidence to
and said, ‘Ye gods! This doesn't fit anything,'" Dort silence the skeptics. Meteorite expert Hal Povenmire
recalls. "My colleague came over and looked at the of the Kennedy Space Center, who has examined the
map, and he said ‘you've got a meteorite crater!'" crater with Dort, is already convinced: He thinks it
Dort was initially, but only initially, skeptical.
"We've tried everything we could think of to deny a
i b ut e was dug by a stony meteorite slightly denser than the

one now thought to have caused the 1908 explosion in
Siberia. That meteorite released about as much energy
t r
meteorite impact, since it just seemed too exotic," he as a hydrogen bomb, and the nighttime glow was
is
says. "But every bit of evidence kept coming back to bright enough to read by in England. The Nebraska
D
that—we could not explain the depression in any impactor, if there was one, would have been
t
other way. There are no volcanoes in the vicinity," considerably larger—about 500 feet across—and
o
Dort says, "the rock formations aren't the sort to would have released hundreds of times more energy.
N
collapse and form sinkholes, and the depression is too
Do
round and steep-sided to have been scoured by the
wind." Adapted from R. Naeye, The hole in Nebraska. ©1993 by Discover.
What's more, in the surrounding farmlands Dort's 53. If it is assumed that the Nebraska site is the
group has found glassy plates and small, spherical impact crater from a meteorite, investigators of
blobs rich in iron and titanium. These rock fragments the 1908 Siberian impact site might reasonably
are unlike anything found ordinarily in central expect to find:
Nebraska. Dort thinks they may be pieces of the A) a high level of background radiation, as from a
exploded meteorite that rained down as molten hydrogen bomb.
droplets. B) small round pieces of rock and glassy plates.
C) a crater larger than the one in Nebraska.
Dort estimated the age of the crater by comparing D) a shallow, indistinct depression.
the soil layer where the glassy fragments were found
with a virtually identical layer nearby that has been
radiocarbon-dated as being 3,000 years old. Because
he has yet to date the layer where the glass was found,
Dort admits that the crater's age is uncertain. But
since it lies above a layer of silt that is 12,000 years
old, it must be younger than that—which means it

Document # 6973555
54. Dort mentions sinkholes in order: 57. A member of the U.S. Geological Survey has
A) to eliminate an alternative hypothesis regarding pointed out that Dort has not found a deformation
the formation of the crater. of the rim of the depression or a compressed
B) to impress the reader with the uniqueness of the layer of bedrock beneath it, features which
discovery. clearly indicate a meteor crater. Their absence:
C) to explain the absence of volcanoes in the vicinity. A) proves that the Nebraska depression is not a
D) to explain the shallowness of the depression. meteorite impact crater.
B) is irrelevant to the question of the cause of the
55. Dort's reasoning about the date of the supposed crater.
impact rests on the assumption that: C) is equally relevant to claims about the Siberian
A) humans were living in the area at the time. depression.
B) the more recent layers of earth are closer to the D) casts doubt on Dort's conclusions.
surface.
C) depressions created by wind erosion are irregular. 58. If spherical blobs and glassy plates were found in
D) meteors are not likely to strike the Great Plains. areas in which there was no evidence of meteorite
impact, it would be reasonable to conclude that:
56. The opening paragraph describes the descent of a A) the observations in Nebraska were carelessly done.
fireball that was seen before the development of B) the Nebraska crater is newer than supposed,
written records. The paragraph is probably based because such delicate structures survived.
C) the rocks of this sort found in Nebraska probably
e
on:
t
A) legends and pictographs of local Native did not come from a meteorite.
u
D) the depression in Nebraska could not have come
b
Americans.
i
from a meteorite.
r
B) information about more recent meteor activity.
C) popular beliefs and science fiction.
D) reports of the well documented Arizona meteor.
D is t
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Document # 6973555
Passage II ahead has opened overnight, that the character who

has been so elusive has suddenly walked into the
The gifted young fiction writer has to learn room and started talking, that the figure has been
through adversity to separate rejection of one's work weaving itself into the carpet. But if the gifted young
from self-rejection, and with respect to the latter, self- writer persists in believing that the latter conditions
criticism (otherwise known as revision and what one should be the normal ones, otherwise known as
might call re-envision) from self-distrust. For the "inspiration" or "natural talent," the writer will likely
inexperienced writer, a year or two of rejection or a decide after a few years that he or she fatally lacks
major rejection—say, of a novel—can lead all too one or both, or has developed a writer's block, and he
easily to self-distrust, and from there to a disabling or she may well turn to a more sensible and less
distrust of the writing process itself. Anxious, threatened mode of expression, such as teaching or
depressed, defensive, the writer who is suffering this writing for one or the other of the media.
distrust, whether temporarily or chronically or
terminally, gives up a most fundamental and enabling Virtually all the fiction writers I've been speaking
right: the right to write uncertainly, roughly, even to about these matters fix the turning point in their
badly. A garden in the early stage is not a pleasant or writing lives in the period during which the intrinsic
compelling place: It's a lot of arduous, messy, interest of what they were doing began to take over
noisome work—digging up the hard ground, putting and to generate a sense of necessity. The development
in the fertilizer, along with the seeds and seedlings. of this sense of necessity seems to be the rock-bottom
So with beginning a story or novel. But the self- basis for a career as a novelist. Whatever may feed it,
rejecting writer goes from creating to judging: from whatever may impede it, finally comes to be
the mind to the typewriter to the wastebasket. In time,
the mind forgoes the latter two stages and becomes a
i b ut e subsidiary to the simple imperative of being at work.

At this point, writing fiction has become one's way, in
r
ruthless system of self-cancellation. the religious sense of the term.
The writer's defense is the power of self-
D i
objectivity, an interest in otherness, and faith in the
s t Adapted from T. Solotaroff, A Few Good Voices in My Head: Occasional Pieces
t
on Writing, Editing, and Reading My Contemporaries. ©1987 by T. Solotaroff.
process itself, which enables one to write on into the
N o
teeth of doubts and then to improve the result. In the
scars of the struggle between the odd, sensitive side 59. In the third paragraph, the author speaks of times
Do
of the self that wants to write, and the practical, when "the figure has been weaving itself into the
socialized side that wants results, the gifted young carpet." As used in the passage, the phrase
writer is likely to find his or her true sense of suggests that at least a part of fiction writing is
vocation. Moreover, writing itself, if not the result of:
misunderstood and abused, becomes a way of A) supernatural intervention.
empowering the writing self. It converts diffuse anger B) both loving and hating the writing process.
and disappointment into deliberate and durable C) effortless inspiration.
aggression, the writer's main source of energy. It D) stoop labor and second thoughts.
converts sorrow and self-pity into empathy, the
writer's main means of relating to otherness. 60. The passage suggests that fiction writers who
persist in their careers do so out of a conviction
In sum, the gifted young writer needs to learn to that:
trust the writing process itself and, beyond that, to A) writing affords an escape from anxiety and
love as well as hate it. For writing is not, of course, depression.
always stoop labor and second thoughts and B) writing is something that they must do.
struggling with one's tendency toward negation and C) they must prove their worth to the outside world.
despair and accepting one's limits and limitations. D) they must produce publishable work.
There are the exhilarations of finding that the way

Document # 6973555
61. Which of the following assertions is NOT made 63. It has been said that "no one likes to write;
in the passage? everyone likes to have written." The passage
A) Writing enables one to overcome problems in suggests that a gifted young fiction writer who
one's personal life. comes to prefer "having written" over writing
B) Writers must sometimes be willing to do less than might reasonably be expected:
their best work. A) to become more prolific.
C) The turning point in a writer's career often comes B) to give up writing fiction.
when writing begins to take precedence over other C) to become a more objective self-critic.
considerations. D) to develop a simpler writing style.
D) Rejection can often lead inexperienced writers to
lose faith in their abilities. 64. Which of the following popular notions about
writers is most strongly supported by the
62. Elsewhere, the author of the passage states that passage?
about half of the promising young writers whose A) Gifted writers frequently suffer in the creation of
work appears in literary magazines each year their work.
disappear from the writing scene without a trace. B) Some of the world's greatest writers have been
Given the information in the passage, this emotionally ill.
phenomenon is most probably due to: C) The greatest writers in history were divinely
A) the beginning writer's loss of trust in the writing inspired.
process. D) Novelists often base their books on their own
B) scars the beginning writer bears as a result of the
struggle between the "odd" self and the
"socialized" self.
i b ut e experiences.
r
65. Which of the following statements of advice to
t
C) the disillusionment the beginning writer feels after
s
gifted young writers most strongly challenges the
i
finally getting published. argument made in the passage?
D
D) the beginning writer's having written uncertainly, A) When you sit down to write, stop thinking and
t
roughly, even badly.
o
listen to the story you're telling.
B) The best solution to writer's block is to find
Do N another line of work.

C) The right attitude for a writer is this: A writer
writes.
D) A young writer should not worry about being
published for twenty years or so.

Document # 6973555
Passage III Act. That fact gives the military a practical reason to
cooperate with desert tortoise research: If the desert
When not focused on other nations' military bases, tortoise were taken off the list of threatened species,
spy satellites have been studying a dusty habitat of the Ahmann said, the Army could use at least part of that
humble desert tortoise. A report on the satellites' land for the mock tank battles and other war games
findings was designated as secret because the conducted on the base.
information could reveal too much about the abilities
of U.S. reconnaissance technology. Only scientists The unclassified report gives a flavor of the data
with security clearances can see these data. An obtainable from spy technology. By scanning the
unclassified version of the study that is based on data ground and comparing data from the desert tortoise
from civilian satellites and airplanes and a ground census, researchers found that the reptiles preferred to
census contains few surprises. The study's importance live where the soils were primarily made up of grains
lies in the use of advanced intelligence-gathering of granite, something scientists had suspected for
tools to examine the environment. According to a some time but had been unable to verify because
member of the research team, "remote sensing allows classifying soil types over a large area is laborious
biologists to review extensive areas without putting and time consuming. Ahmann hypothesized that
scientists on the ground." granitic soil is ideal for a tortoise because it is not so
compact as to make burrowing difficult or so loose as
Desert tortoise research is one of six to cause tunnels to collapse.
environmental projects overseen by the Central
Intelligence Agency (C.I.A.) as part of a pilot The report also said that desert tortoises tend to
program to use intelligence technology for ecological
pursuits. To some, the marriage of former cold
warriors and delicate fauna may seem a strange one.
i b ut e congregate in areas that are dense with creosote bush,

a sign of a healthy desert, something the tortoise
would naturally seek out. The study makes clear that
Spy satellites have gauged the temperature of salmon
streams and have helped to map wetlands. Spy craft
can examine Earth in great detail, using telescopic
D is t r drawing broad conclusions about the species is

impossible from a local study. For example, while the
report said that desert tortoises at Fort Irwin avoided
t
cameras and dozens of electromagnetic wavelengths. steep, rocky terrain, a professor at the University of
N o
For example, some of the technology used to monitor
soldiers hidden in foliage could probably differentiate
Arizona said that tortoises in Arizona liked steep
hillsides.
Do
among forms of vegetation. It is not known whether
such a satellite could detect a tortoise.
Adapted from V. Kopytoff, Tortoises get some unusual help from the military's
spy satellites. ©1996 by The New York Times.
At Fort Irwin, an extensive Army training center
in the Mojave Desert, space-based sensors focused on
66. The author refers to the desert tortoise as
a sunbaked stretch of scrubland to try to determine the
"humble" and as "delicate fauna" in order to
areas in which tortoises prefer to live. Hidden in their
emphasize:
burrows, desert tortoises are perhaps as difficult to
A) the discouragement of those who hope to preserve
find as missiles stashed in underground silos. "If you
threatened species.
are going to try to get the desert tortoise to recover,"
B) the unimportance of certain species relative to
said Steve Ahmann, the manager of natural and
humans.
cultural resources for the Army at Fort Irwin, "it is
C) the particular importance of tracking species that
really incumbent on you to know the population."
are obscure.
Desert tortoises roam much of the desert D) the contrast between military and environmental
Southwest and are considered threatened in their uses of satellites.
California range. About 5,000 tortoises live at Fort
Irwin, most in a 20,000-acre sanctuary set aside by
the Army to comply with the Endangered Species

Document # 6973555
67. Consider the following argument: "If the desert 70. An assumption underlying the discussion of
tortoise were removed from the list of satellite reconnaissance is that:
endangered species, then war games would begin A) spy satellites are technologically superior to
at Fort Irwin, resulting in the extinction of the civilian satellites.
animal in the area." The passage author's B) space-based sensors are not designed to scan
probable reason for NOT making this argument is desert terrain.
that: C) data collected by spy craft can preserve
A) the effect of such activities on the local tortoise endangered species.
population is uncertain. D) the C.I.A. is reluctant to be involved in
B) military decisions are not affected by ecological environmental projects.
considerations.
C) the military is dedicated to the preservation of 71. Which of the following beliefs is most defensible
endangered species. on the basis of passage assertions?
D) this extinction is inevitable, even if such activities A) Data from remote sensing devices could help to
are prohibited. answer many questions of interest to ecologists.
B) The tunnels of desert tortoise are not found in soils
68. The passage author implies that environmental that are either very hard or very soft.
scientists are particularly interested in: C) Telescopic cameras and electromagnetic
A) the willingness of the military to allow research on wavelength technology enable the identification of
its bases. plant species.
B) new discoveries about the habits of the desert
tortoise.
C) a lack of access to data collected by spy satellites.
i b ut e D) The findings obtained by spy technology can be

inferred from the unclassified research report.
D) the role of space-based sensors in future research.
D
69. A plausible inference from the passage is that the
is t r
N
Irwin tortoises is:
A) essential; they are the primary food source.
ot
role of creosote bushes in the life of the Fort
Do
B) indirect; they indicate a viable environment.
C) incidental; they are prevalent in the Mojave
Desert.
D) uncertain; they might provide necessary shelter.

Document # 6973555
Passage IV deficits in visual acuity. Nature and nurture stand in a

relationship of reciprocity, not opposition.
Many who acknowledge that beliefs about the
brain reflect the state of the science of the day will The early steps in the development of language
deny that political values have anything to do with the are akin to the experience-dependent development of
matter. Yet consider the highly charged public the visual system. All healthy human infants are born
discourse on whether mental illnesses are biological with an aptitude for language acquisition, an aptitude
or psychological—that is, whether they are "no one's that is uniquely human. Therefore, linguistic
fault" or "caused" by parents, spouses, the patients potential, by definition, is specified in the human
themselves, or social conditions. genome. Auditory learning begins before birth. The
human infant in utero hears its mother's voice
The underlying quest by the families of the repeatedly. On tests shortly after birth, and before
mentally ill is for moral exculpation. The fight hearing its mother speak under the new environmental
between psychiatrists and psychologists about conditions, it is able to discriminate her recorded
psychopharmacology is in part about their hegemony voice from the voices of other women. Four-day-old
over patients. Social biologists attribute the French infants will suck harder (the means by which
preponderance of mental disorders among the lowest they control the auditory stimulus presented) in order
socioeconomic-status quintile to downward drift; to hear French instead of Russian because of the in-
social activists assign it to the malign effects of utero development of this "preference."
economic deprivation.
Young infants can detect differences between
e
The idea that the biological self is socially
t
phonemes in all languages, including those that are
u
constructed may seem outrageous. Admittedly, it is an not used in their native language. Older preschoolers,
i b
extrapolation from data indicating that while the however, like adults, are able to discriminate the
t r
genes controlling embryonic development shape the phonemic nuances of only the languages they
is
infant brain, experience establishes the intricate acquired in early life. Children are able to infer
D
neural connections underlying that brain's grammatical rules from exemplars without ever being
t
functioning. This fine-tuning of brain anatomy surely taught grammar per se. That fact, too, must reflect
o
continues throughout adulthood. unique features of the human brain. However, the
N
capacity to use grammar does not spring, like
Few psychiatrists today would dispute that the
Do
Minerva, fully formed from the head of Jove. Its
brain structures and functions revealed by
acquisition and elaboration depend on social
contemporary neuroscience accord with current
interaction. Whether a child acquires any language at
knowledge on the development of behavior. We have
all, let alone a specific language, is determined by the
learned that neurons and their processes overgrow
child's linguistic community. One's ultimate degree of
luxuriantly in the course of development and that it is
linguistic competence is a function of nature, nurture,
experience that selects the survivors. True, the basic
and niche.
ground plan is laid out in the genome, but the precise
neuroanatomic details are specified by activity-
dependent competition between presynaptic axons for Adapted from L. Eisenberg, The social construction of the human brain. ©1995
by American Psychiatric Association.
common postsynaptic target neurons.
The visual system is a prime example of brain 72. The term socially constructed in the discussion of
development. Genetically controlled mechanisms mental development refers to the influence of:
generate a coarse-grained topographic map; it is A) interactions with peer members on personality
neural activity that etches the details of this map. A traits.
deprivation of stimulation need not be total to disrupt B) assigned role in group structure on self-concept.
normal development; human astigmatism, if C) experiences with others on neuronal organization.
unrecognized and untreated, leads to permanent D) verbal exchanges on linguistic understanding.

Document # 6973555
73. The author implies that families seek knowledge 75. In terming certain neurons survivors, the author
about the mental problem with which a relative means those that:
has been diagnosed only because of: A) frequently participate in mental operations.
A) regret at having ignored its severity. B) are genetically programmed for longer life.
B) a wish to avoid being considered guilty. C) are structurally well adapted to their function.
C) concern that the cause may be genetic. D) achieve an overdevelopment of dendritic
D) uncertainty about their moral obligations. processes.
74. The author asserts that children can infer the rules 76. According to passage information, which of the
of their language without explicit instruction. Yet following activities by a pregnant woman would
the speech of older children is often most clearly promote the cognitive development
ungrammatical by adult standards. Can these two of the infant?
assertions be reconciled by the author's A) Listening to symphonies
argument? B) Reading classic literature
A) Yes; innate aptitude, early exposure, and linguistic C) Solving problems in logic
community all contribute to competence. D) Conversing with friends
B) Yes; the natural language-acquisition process may
be disrupted by adult attempts to teach grammar.
C) No; the language exemplars children hear are
frequently grammatically substandard.
D) No; congenital learning disabilities or emotional
disorders can adversely affect children's speech.
i b ut e
D is t r
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Do

Document # 6973555
Passage V historical figure who in his own lifetime was

worshiped as a god. Euhemerism was well received in
Unlike a lie, which is a conscious and deliberate the Greco-Roman world, and at the beginning of the
attempt to mask the truth, a myth is not malicious but Christian era it provided religious polemicists with a
simply naïve. It concerns something we formerly method of denouncing pagans.
believed but have since outgrown. It speaks of
marvelous encounters between gods and mortals, tells Religion is rooted in myth, and myth is rooted in
of wondrous supernatural creatures, and explains how illusion. This proposition seemed self-evident to two
things and people came to be the way they are. of the thinkers who have most influenced the
Today, however, we have put away such childish twentieth century. Karl Marx asserted that the
things. We know that "once upon a time" is a time mythical, other-worldly dimensions of religion
that never was, a time unmeasurable by historical blinded people to their true task: converting this
methods, a time existing only in the fancy of planet into paradise. Religion, he said, is "the opiate
storytellers. To answer the question of human of the masses." And to Sigmund Freud, religion was
limitations by referring to the story of a forbidden the obsessional neurosis of children, destined to be
fruit is like telling the tale of how the leopard got its outgrown as humanity evolved. Freud believed that in
spots. Simple aetiology, or explanation in the manner the process of growth, humanity was bound to turn
of Kipling's Just So Stories, will not do for away from religion, and that the beginning of the
sophisticated moderns. twentieth century marked the transition from
childhood to maturity.
The story of the Western world is, in effect, a
story of demythologization. If it is true, as Freud
believed, that the life of a culture, like the life of an
individual, passes through definite stages of growth—
i b ut e We have, at long last, grown up, emancipated

ourselves from myth and magic, overthrown religion
as a debilitating illusion. Naturally there is a
then it becomes possible to "read" the history of
Western culture as the poignant and painful story of
D
children who, in their progress toward maturity, cast
is t r wistfulness, a nostalgia for the past, a longing to

return to a world in which the gods were meaningful
realities. Such feelings, however, will pass as we
t
off all their illusions. become accustomed to our new-found freedom and
N o
A brief history of demythologization might begin
the joy of a consciousness liberated from bondage to
superstition and myth.
Do
with Xenophanes, a Greek thinker who lived six
centuries before the Common Era. Surrounded by
people who believed in the literal reality of Zeus, Adapted from M. W. Sexton, Myth: The Way We Were or the Way We Are?
©1978 by M. W. Sexton.
Hera, Apollo, and the rest of the Homeric gods,
Xenophanes struck a surprisingly modern note when
77. The author's major contention about mythology is
he insisted that the gods were projections of the
that:
human mind, mere anthropomorphic inventions. If
A) nostalgia for the loss of the myths of a culture is
horses and cattle could draw, he said, they would
natural and healthy.
draw gods that looked like horses and cattle.
B) myths will be replaced by coherent religions as
If, in the service of demythologization, humanity evolves.
Xenophanes was the first to propound a theory of C) myths are childish beliefs that will be outgrown as
projection, Euhemerus posed the view that mythology societies mature.
has its origins in history. Euhemerus proposed that the D) myths reflect primitive thought processes and will
gods were actual, historical individuals, most often always be created.
monarchs, whose lives and deeds became wildly
exaggerated by the popular mythological imagination.
As proof of his theory, Euhemerus cited the
extraordinary career of Alexander the Great, a

Document # 6973555
78. A reasonable expectation for someone who 80. The author's attitude toward mythology can best
accepts Freud's views on religion would be that: be described as:
A) the religious will increasingly be considered A) patronizing.
mentally disturbed. B) nostalgic.
B) conversions from cults to the major religions will C) uncomfortable.
increase. D) antagonistic.
C) membership in nonreligious organizations will
increase. 81. The passage suggests that both Marx and Freud:
D) attendance at religious services will decline. A) proposed controversial ideas that have since been
discredited.
79. Early Christians used Euhemerism to argue that: B) contributed significantly to the history of Western
A) Greco-Roman mythology had no basis in fact. thought.
B) pagan gods were anthropomorphic projections. C) started movements that restricted religious
C) Jesus of Nazareth had historical reality. freedom.
D) non-Christian gods were glorified humans. D) hindered the moral progress of Western
civilization.
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Passage VI attitudes are still summarized in the word

nonconformist.
During the Puritan Revolution, at least two private
groups began to meet regularly in London. One group Charles II was a man of some intellectual
was centered around John Wallis, a powerful curiosity, and he took an amateur's interest in science.
mathematician to whose work, Arithmetica But he cannot have liked the Puritan scientists who
Infinitorum, Sir Isaac Newton was indebted for some had begun to meet during the Revolution and who
of his major mathematical conceptions. Those who numbered among their group many who had risen
met with Wallis were interested in astronomy and under Cromwell. It has been estimated that, of the
geometry, and they included Christopher Wren, who sixty-eight early Fellows of the Royal Society about
was a professor in both subjects. Indeed, Wren's bold whom we have information, forty-two were clearly
architecture was based in part on his geometrical Puritans. Charles II can hardly have been enthusiastic
genius. The Royal Society was formally founded in about endorsing a society that was dominated by men
November of 1660 at a meeting in Gresham College whose political and religious views were distasteful to
which began with a lecture on astronomy by Wren; him.
and the Society went on meeting at Gresham College
until 1703. Yet Charles II did give his endorsement to the
new society: It was named The Royal Society of
Wallis's group probably began their weekly London for the Promotion of Natural Knowledge, and
meetings in 1645, and about the same time a second it received its first charter—and nothing else—from
group, which centered on Robert Boyle, began to him in 1662. The man who persuaded Charles II to
meet. Boyle was a philosopher, a physicist, and a
chemist; he revived, although in a form still far short
of its modern form, the Epicurean theory that all
i b ut e this step was probably the diarist John Evelyn. Evelyn

belonged to a smaller group of scientists who had
remained Royalists, and the first presidents of the
matter is made of atoms, and he established the law
that governs what he called "the spring of the air"—
the pressure of a gas—which still goes by his name.
D is t r society were drawn from this group. Evelyn himself

gave the Royal Society its motto, and he displayed the
practical bent of the early fellows in his protests, now
t
Boyle called the group that met with him "The over 300 years old, against the smoke that even then
Invisible College."
N o fouled the air and withered the plants of London.
Do
Both of these groups consisted largely of men of
Puritan sympathies. Boyle's family had been on Adapted from J. Bronowski and B. Mazlish, The Western Intellectual Tradition.
©1960 by Harper & Brothers.
Cromwell's side in the revolution against Charles I;
for although they were lords, they were "upstart
82. What relationship does the author imply between
lords," created by Queen Elizabeth and holding lands
Puritanism and seventeenth-century science?
that had belonged to the monasteries.
A) The Puritan political sympathies that prevented
Plainly the temper of the times in England was royal funding were a barrier to science.
stronger than the political bias of those in power. B) The Puritan emphasis on the classical theories
Science had a new charm, and scientists had a new encouraged scientific conservatism.
prestige. Part of this prestige may have come from C) The Puritan renunciation of worldly interests
their sense of mission and the aura which they were discouraged progress in applied science.
beginning to carry of being dedicated to truth. Most D) The Puritan quest for truth for its own sake
of them were Puritans by birth and came from the promoted scientific inquiry.
families of merchants and smallholders who were
thrusting their way into the world. But, intellectually,
their Puritanism did give them a special devotion to
the honest observation of the world and a grave
indifference to the authority of the past, both of which

Document # 6973555
83. Which of the following statements, if true, would 85. According to the information provided, the
undermine the author's characterization of the attitude of the king toward the founders of the
Puritans? Royal Society was most like that of:
A) They opposed ideas that were not supported by A) a dog to fleas.
religious doctrine. B) a pterodactyl to birds.
B) They challenged the scientific conclusions of C) a lion to gazelles.
acknowledged authorities. D) a mouse to cats.
C) Their leaders made no attempt to encourage an
interest in science. 86. A reasonable supposition from passage
D) They devoted their major efforts to amassing information about the two scholarly groups is that
wealth through commerce. papers on the foretelling of events through
astrology were presented at meetings of:
84. Which of the following items of information A) neither group.
from the passage provides the best evidence that B) Wallis's group only.
the author has correctly assessed the attitude of C) Boyle's group only.
Charles II toward the Royal Society? D) both groups.
A) Many of its early members rose to prominence
during Cromwell's rule.
B) Charles II took an amateur's interest in science.
C) Over a third of its charter members had remained
Royalists.
D) It received nothing from Charles II but its charter.
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Passage VII examples of the concept. Whether, or how readily, a

particular object is classified as a concept member
The classical view of concepts is that their thus depends on its similarity to a hypothetical
members share conditions that are singly necessary prototype incorporating all of these properties. (For
and jointly sufficient to define the concept. For research purposes, similarity is quantified as the
example, someone who is a grandmother has the two number of properties shared by an object and the
criterial conditions of being female and being a parent prototype.)
of a parent. Singly, each condition is necessary—
someone who is a man cannot literally be a Clearly, a prototype model of concepts
grandmother, nor can someone who did not produce a accommodates the phenomena that challenged prior
child who also produced a child. Jointly, the two assumptions. For example, in a yes-no classification
conditions are also sufficient—someone who is both task with items that exceed some critical level of
female and the parent of a parent is necessarily a similarity to a prototype, the more similar the item
grandmother. and the prototype, the more quickly it should be
accepted as an instance of the concept. Conversely,
The most severe problem for the classical theory similarity to a prototype would delay the rejection of
is that decades of research have failed to determine a noninstance.
such clear-cut definitions for many concepts.
Categorization studies suggest an alternative way of Yet recent findings indicate that in ordinary life,
understanding concepts. People can reliably order categorization is more a process of inductive
concept members by the extent to which they inference than of comparison with a prototype. In one
represent or typify the concept. Apple and peach are
judged to be typical fruits, raisin and fig less typical,
and pumpkin and olive atypical. The ratings obtained
i b ut e study with U.S. college students, items were

described only by a value on a single dimension and
the task was to decide to which of two concepts each
in such studies are relatively uncorrelated with the
frequency of occurrence or familiarity of the
instances.
D is t r item belonged. One item was "an object three inches

in diameter," and the concept possibilities were pizzas
and quarters. Although a three-inch diameter is
t
objectively closer to that of a quarter than to that of a
o
The most important aspect of typicality ratings is typical pizza, the object was almost always classified
N
that they predict performance on a variety of tasks. as a pizza. The apparent reason is the greater
Do
Research subjects asked to answer yes or no as constraint on the size of coins than on the size of
quickly as possible to the question of whether pizzas. This evidence indicates that people consider
something belongs in a given category ("Is a fig a permissible variability from a prototype as well as
fruit?") respond more quickly, the more typical the similarity to it in classifying objects.
instance. Furthermore, if asked to generate from
memory all instances of a concept, people recall
typical before atypical instances. And children Adapted from E. E. Smith, Concepts and induction. ©1989 by MIT Press.
learning the names of concept members master

typical before atypical ones. 87. Consider the concept bestselling novel. As the
author explains the classical way of defining
These typicality effects show that the instances of concepts, the conditions contains words, has an
concepts are not always equal. Yet equality would be author or authors, and is popular are:
expected if, as previously assumed, concepts could be A) singly necessary and jointly sufficient.
defined in a way that was true of every instance. It B) not singly necessary but jointly sufficient.
seems that most natural concepts are defined not by C) singly necessary but not jointly sufficient.
criterial conditions but by properties that are D) not singly necessary and not jointly sufficient.
perceptually salient. These properties occur in various
numbers and combinations and predominate in only
some instances—those considered the "best"

Document # 6973555
88. According to the passage, the demonstration that 92. Assume that adult subjects are asked to respond
an unknown object closer in size to a prototypical as quickly as possible to the question "Is X a
quarter than to a prototypical pizza was called a bird?" What does passage information suggest
pizza challenges the prototype model by about relative response speeds when X is NOT a
suggesting that the judgment was an inductive bird?
inference. The most reasonable objection to this A) A bat will be rejected more quickly than a mule.
conclusion would be that: B) A mule will be rejected more quickly than a bat.
A) the author offers no other evidence to support it. C) A bat and a mule will be rejected with equal speed.
B) the judgment indicates a lack of knowledge about D) A bat will be rejected more quickly than a turkey
the concepts. is accepted.
C) the construction of a prototype is also an inductive
process.
D) the diameter of flattened quarters can be unusually
large.
89. What does the author mean to imply by pointing

out that the typicality ratings of concept instances
are relatively uncorrelated with their familiarity?
A) Experience with the instances does correlate
positively with their familiarity.
B) Typical instances are usually encountered more
often than atypical instances.
C) The ratings may reflect differential knowledge
i b ut e
rather than agreement among the raters.
D) The ratings cannot be explained by the raters'
personal experiences with the instances.
D is t r
90. Suppose that preschoolers in England are more
N ot
apt to say raisin than peach when asked to name
Do
a fruit. According to the author's reasoning, this
phenomenon suggests that:
A) the classical explanation is sometimes best.
B) the properties of prototypes are not universal.
C) categorization is sometimes a deductive process.
D) no current model can fully explain categorization.
91. Which of the following theoretical constructs is

most analogous to the concept of a prototype?
A) The linguistic theory that language is a
grammatical structure plus sets of interchangeable
words
B) The physiological theory that the brain is
compartmentalized by psychological function
C) The geological theory that planets are formed by
the accretion of smaller bodies
D) The evolutionary theory that species diverge from
an original common form

Document # 6973555
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.
i b ut e
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(202-828-0690).
Page 36 of 57

Document # 6973555
93. Consider this statement:
Progress often complicates as much as it simplifies.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which progress might simplify more than it complicates.
Discuss what you think determines whether progress complicates or simplifies.
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Document # 6973555
94. Consider this statement:
Laws cannot change social values.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a law might change a social value. Discuss what
you think determines when laws can change social values and when they cannot.
i b ut e
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Document # 6973555
Biological Sciences
Time: 70 minutes
Questions: 95 – 146
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
i b ut e
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(202-828-0690).
Page 39 of 57

Document # 6973555
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
t e
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
s t ri b u
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Document # 6973555
Passage I 96. Symptoms of burning, itching, and pain occur

when DDT is absorbed through the skin because:
DDT is an insecticide that crosses biological A) motor neurons are depolarized.
membranes readily. Once inside the cell, DDT B) motor neurons are hyperpolarized.
disrupts the function of many enzymes. For example, C) sensory neurons are depolarized.
DDT uncouples oxidative metabolism from the D) sensory neurons are hyperpolarized.
generation of ATP; cellular respiration continues, but
no ATP is produced. The mechanism of this action is
unknown. 97. If DDT accumulates in the liver, all of the
following bodily functions may be significantly
When vertebrates ingest DDT, it accumulates in impaired EXCEPT:
the adipose tissue and fatty deposits of organs such as A) absorption of fats in the small intestine.
the kidney, thyroid, testis, and ovary. DDT disrupts B) production of bile.
normal cell function, division, and growth. For C) detoxification of poisons.
example, female birds with high levels of DDT in D) regulation of blood pressure.
their tissues have reduced levels of estrogen in their
bloodstream and therefore produce eggs with thinner 98. It can be inferred from the passage that DDT
and more brittle shells. hinders which of the following reproductive
When DDT is dissolved in oil and applied to functions in female birds?
human skin, it initiates local sensations of prickling, A) Deposition of calcium in the eggshell
e
burning, and itching. At sufficient levels of exposure, B) Initiation of mitosis in the zygote
t
C) Formation of the amniotic membrane
u
generalized symptoms of pain, tiredness, irritability,
b
D) Implantation of the embryo
i
anxiety, and weakness ensue. According to one
t r
hypothesis, these symptoms occur because DDT
s
becomes incorporated into nerve cells, allowing Na+
i
99. DDT would most likely initiate cancer or cause a
mutation if which of the following structures is
D
to diffuse freely through axonal membranes.
t
damaged?
o
95. Accumulation of DDT in the testes may cause A) Nuclear envelope
N
reduced fertility in males because the uncoupling B) Chromosome
Do
of oxidative metabolism from ATP production C) Ribosome
may reduce: D) Histone
A) glucose concentration of semen.
B) testosterone concentration of semen. 100. The most likely mechanism by which DDT
C) blood circulation in the testes. affects ATP production is by increasing the:
D) sperm motility. A) surface area of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) surface area of the outer mitochondrial membrane.
C) diffusion of H+ through the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
D) diffusion of pyruvic acid through the outer
mitochondrial membrane.

Document # 6973555
Passage II
A chemist was asked to identify two organic compounds. Compound A completely dissolves in the water of
a car radiator and acts as an internal combustion engine coolant. Compound B is a flammable odorant that is
added to odorless natural gas to facilitate gas detection in very small concentrations.
The chemist studied the physical properties of a variety of organic compounds, including hydrocarbons,
alcohols, diols (compounds containing two hydroxy groups), thiols (compounds containing the –SH group), and
dithiols (compounds containing two –SH groups). The results of the study are summarized in Table 1.
The chemist subsequently compared the physical properties of the two unknown substances, compounds A
and B, to those of the compounds in Table 1.
Table 1 Physical Properties of Some Organic Compounds
Melting Boiling
point point Solubility
Compound (°C) (°C) Flammability Odor in H2O
Butane –138 0 high slight low
1-Propanol –127 97 moderate slight high
t e
1,2-Ethanediol –13 197 none sweet high
1-Propane-thiol
1,2-Ethane-dithiol
s t
–113
ri b
–41
u 67
145
moderate
none
stench
stench
low
low
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101. 1-Propanol and 1,2-ethanediol can be most 105. The difference between the boiling points of
efficiently separated by which of the following butane and 1-propanol can be primarily
techniques? attributed to which of the following factors?
A) Extraction with ethanol A) Hydrogen bonding
B) Extraction with water B) Molecular weight
C) Recrystallization C) Intramolecular forces
D) Fractional distillation D) Solubility
102. Replacing the methyl group in 1-propanol with 106. The physical properties of 1,3-propanediol
a hydroxy group would result in a compound should be most similar to those of:
with a: A) 1-propanol.
A) lower melting point than that of 1-propanol. B) 1,2-ethanediol.
B) lower solubility in water than that of 1-propanol. C) 1-propanethiol.
C) higher flammability than that of 1-propanol. D) 1,2-ethanedithiol.
D) higher boiling point than that of 1-propanol.
107. How many discrete signals can possibly be
103. Based on the information in Table 1, which of observed in the proton NMR spectrum of 1,2-
the following is the most likely boiling point of ethanediol?
HSCH2CH2OH? A) 1
B) 2
e
A) 43°C
t
B) 106°C C) 3
C) 157°C
D) 199°C
s t ri b u D) 4
104. Which of the compounds in Table 1 has the

highest freezing point?
A) Butane
ot D i
N
B) 1-Propanol
Do
C) 1,2-Ethanediol
D) 1,2-Ethanedithiol

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 110. Muscles with striated fibers are the primary
passage and are independent of each other. muscle type in:
A) the heart.
108. If some but not all of the offspring from B) the uterus.
repeated matings of the same pair of fruit flies C) arteries and veins.
show the recessive traits of vestigial wings (vv) D) the small intestine.
and ebony color (ee), which of the following
could have been the genotypes of the 111. Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption by the
individuals mated? kidneys. What changes in blood volume and
A) One VVEE, one vvee pressure would be expected as a result of
B) Both VvEe aldosterone deficiency?
C) One vvEE, one VVee A) Increased volume and increased pressure
D) Both vvee B) Increased volume and decreased pressure
C) Decreased volume and increased pressure
109. D) Decreased volume and decreased pressure
Compound 1 is a stronger acid than Compound

2 because the anion of Compound 1 is better
i b ut e
t r
stabilized by:
is
A) resonance effect.
B) dehydration.
C) an inductive effect.
D) hydrogen bonding between OH and CO2–.
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Passage III
These experiments were run to identify the
In spring 1993, in the U.S. Southwest, physicians pathogen:
in rural areas began seeing patients with severe
breathing problems. These previously healthy people Experiment 1
had flu-like symptoms—aches and pains—lasting
several days. They rapidly developed difficulty Patients’ sera were mixed with known pathogenic
breathing, were hospitalized, and were put on viruses and bacteria. A positive immunologic reaction
respirators. If treated soon enough, the patients was seen with a hantavirus that causes kidney disease.
survived. Pulmonary function followed patterns
Experiment 2
similar to those shown in Figure 1. Patients’ lung
tissue showed blood accumulation in lung spaces. Synthesized gene sequences from two known
Those who treated the patients did not get sick. The hantaviruses were mixed with nucleic acid from
outbreak subsided by winter 1993. patients’ lung tissues but not with lung tissue from
control subjects. Hybridization between nucleic acid
strands occurs when they base-pair with each other.
Hybridization occurred between the synthesized
genes and nucleic acid from the patients’ lung tissues.
Experiment 3
t e
Genes from the new pathogen were inserted into
u
bacteria to produce viral proteins, which were used to
i b
make pathogen-specific antibodies. These antibodies
D is t r bound to capillary walls in patients’ lung tissues.
112. Which of the following statements about
t
pulmonary function best describes all of the
N o results graphed in Figure 1?

A) It was less than one-half normal for at least a
Do
week.
B) It declined four days after the onset of the illness.
Figure 1 Pulmonary function. Each solid line C) It showed a rapid decline, followed by slower
represents a global score calculated from recovery.
several parameters of function in a D) It showed a slow decline, followed by rapid
different patient. A normal global score recovery.
is 400–450.
113. What was contained in the sera from the
respiratory patients of Experiment 1 that caused
the sera to react with a hantavirus that causes
kidney disease?
A) Antibodies specific for the kidney disease
hantavirus only
B) Antibodies to the unknown pathogen, which is
antigenically related to the known hantavirus
C) Antibodies to kidney proteins
D) The unknown pathogen

Document # 6973555
114. In Experiment 2, why did the synthetic 116. A principal reservoir of recognized hantaviruses
hantavirus gene sequences hybridize with in the United States and Europe is voles.
nucleic acid from an infected lung? Identifying viral sources is important for control
A) They were identical in sequence to genes from the of transmission and elimination. What is the
lung. most likely source of the new pathogen?
B) They were complementary in sequence to a gene A) A snake
from the lung. B) A fish
C) They were complementary in structure to the C) A mouse
RNA-encoded protein from the lung. D) A human
D) They encoded an enzyme that bound to the nucleic
acid from the lung. 117. The investigators concluded that the new
hantavirus infects lung endothelial cells. Do the
115. Why did investigators conclude that the new data support this conclusion?
pathogen is a hantavirus? A) Yes; viral replication was demonstrated in
A) The experiments showed that it is related to endothelial cells.
known hantaviruses. B) Yes; viral DNA was found associated with lung
B) The experiments showed that it infects lung capillaries.
endothelium. C) Yes; viral antigens were found associated with
C) The patient data showed that the type of disease it capillary endothelium.
caused resembles that caused by known D) No; viral antigens were found associated with lung
hantaviruses.
D) No pathogenic bacteria were found in the lung
samples from patients.
i b ut e alveoli.
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These questions are not based on a descriptive 120. In human females, mitotic divisions of oogonia
passage and are independent of each other. that lead to formation of presumptive egg cells
(primary oocytes) occur between:
118. In eukaryotic cells, the process of incorporating A) fertilization and birth only.
uridine nucleotides into nucleic acid polymers B) fertilization and puberty only.
occurs in which of the following structures of C) birth and puberty only.
the cell? D) puberty and menopause only.
A) Nucleus
B) Lysosome 121. A stable, differentiated cell that will NOT divide
C) Ribosome again during its lifetime would most likely be
D) Golgi body found in which of the following stages of the
cell cycle?
119. Which participant in the electron transport chain A) G1
has the greatest attraction for electrons? B) G2
A) FAD C) M
B) NAD+ D) S
C) Oxygen
D) Cytochrome c
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Document # 6973555
Passage IV
Stomach ulcers have long been thought to result
from the overproduction of HCl by the gastric
mucosal cells. When drugs that neutralize or reduce
the production of stomach acid are used to treat
patients with ulcers, 95% of the patients have a
recurrence of the ulcer within two years. Scientists
suspected that another factor was the true cause of
ulcers. A spiral-shaped bacterium, Helicobacter
pylori (H. pylori), was isolated from biopsies of
ulcers; the organisms were found in greater than 95%
of people with ulcers. When ulcer patients are treated
with a combination of antibiotics and drugs that
reduce acid production, there seems to be no Figure 1 Growth of strains A and B in the absence
recurrence of the ulcers. and presence of streptomycin. The arrow
The bacterium produces a highly efficient urease, indicates additional streptomycin.
localized to the outer portion of the cell wall, that
converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. One 122. Based on the passage, which of the following
test for H. pylori involves giving individuals methods would best prevent the recurrence of
radioactive urea to drink and then testing for the
exhalation of radioactive carbon dioxide. Other
characteristics of H. pylori include the production of
i b ut e stomach ulcers?
A) Use of drugs that prevent the production of acid
B) Use of drugs that neutralize stomach acid
(1) an inhibitor of acid secretion, (2) an enzyme that
seems to destroy the mucin that lines the stomach,
D i
and (3) a protein that is cytotoxic to gastric cells in
s t r C) Use of drugs that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

D) Use of drugs that inhibit acid production and
bacterial protein synthesis
t
tissue culture.
N o
A scientist grew two strains of H. pylori, A and B, 123. It is now generally accepted that H. pylori can
cause ulcers. Proof of this most likely depended
Do
in the laboratory. Two hours after the initiation of the
cultures, each culture was split into two subcultures, on the demonstration that:
and one subculture of each strain was exposed to the A) people with stomach ulcers have antibodies to H.
antibiotic streptomycin. The results of this experiment pylori.
B) healthy individuals have antibodies to H. pylori.
appear in Figure 1.
C) ulcers could be produced in healthy organisms by
infecting them with H. pylori.
D) the organism can be passed from mother to fetus
during pregnancy.

Document # 6973555
124. The ELISA is a test that is often used to detect 126. Most bacterial cells and human cells are alike
antibodies to a particular organism. Would a in:
positive result from such a test for H. pylori A) the ability to produce ATP via ATP synthase.
indicate that the patient had an ulcer? B) the chemical composition of their ribosomes.
A) No, because the patient could have been exposed C) their enclosure within cell walls.
to H. pylori and eliminated it D) the shape of the self-replicating structures that
B) No, because the test could not detect different carry their DNA.
strains of H. pylori
C) Yes, because the patient must have cells of H. 127. Which of the following experiments would best
pylori present to produce antibodies test the hypothesis that urease is necessary for
D) Yes, because virtually all patients who have ulcers the colonization of the stomach by H. pylori?
have H. pylori infections A) Exposing ulcer patients to antibodies to urease
B) Exposing uninfected animals to a strain of H.
125. Which of the following explanations best pylori that lacks urease
accounts for the results in Figure 1? C) Exposing ulcer patients to radioactive urea
A) Strain A grows faster than strain B. D) Measuring urease activity in biopsies of ulcers
B) Strain A grows faster than strain B and is also
resistant to streptomycin.
C) Strain B grows faster than strain A and is also
D) Strain B grows slower than strain A and is also
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Passage V 128. A suitable solvent for the reaction shown in Step

1 is:
The three-step reaction sequence shown in Figure A) ethanol.
1 is a proven method for the synthesis of Compound B) acetone.
3, a very useful reagent for the asymmetric synthesis C) diethyl ether.
of medicinally important organic compounds. D) ethyl acetate.
129. The function of H3O+ in Step 2b is to

decompose which of the following salts?
i b ut e
Figure 1 Synthesis of Compound 3 (Ph = phenyl,
C6H5-)
D is t r
N
shown in Figure 1.
ot
The following facts relate to the first two steps
130. What is the configuration of the stereogenic
Do
Fact 1: The reaction shown in Step 1 does not occur center in Compound 1 and Compound 2,
if methanol is the solvent. respectively?
A) R and R
Fact 2: The transformation shown in Step 2 requires B) R and S
a minimum of three moles of phenyl C) S and R
magnesium bromide per mole of Compound D) S and S
1 to effectively produce Compound 2.
Fact 3: If the reaction shown in Step 2a is conducted

with one equivalent of PhMgBr and
followed by a workup (Step 2b) in aqueous
acid, there is no net consumption of
Compound 1.

Document # 6973555
131. Which of the following structures represents a

compound that might replace CH3COCl in Step
3?
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Passage VI adrenergic responses include widening of the pupils

and constriction of blood vessels supplying the skin
Sympathetic nerve terminal-receptor junctions are and mucous membranes.
located within visceral organs, glands, cardiac
muscle, and smooth muscle. Norepinephrine (NE)
132. A compound that inhibits monoamine oxidase
released from the nerve terminal interacts with either (MAO) should have which of the following
alpha- or beta-adrenergic receptors (Figure 1). effects on NE concentration?
A) Increase the extraneuronal NE concentration
B) Increase the intraneuronal NE concentration
C) Decrease the intraneuronal NE concentration
D) Decrease the extraneuronal NE concentration
133. Which of the following processes is LEAST

directly influenced by adrenergic drugs?
A) Peristalsis
B) Secretion of digestive enzymes
C) Enzymatic breakdown of food molecules
D) Nutrient delivery to muscles and organs
e
134. Applying a drug which blocks the absorption of
t
NE into the adrenergic nerve terminal will result
s t ri b u in:
A) increased sympathetic responses.
B) decreased sympathetic responses.
Adrenergic drugs mimic activation of the
t
sympathetic nervous system by stimulating adrenergic
o
receptors. An adrenergic drug may interact directly
D i C) increased destruction of NE by MAO.
D) decreased destruction of NE by COMT.
N
with adrenergic receptors by binding to them, or 135. The amount of NE released by sympathetic
indirectly by making more of the neurotransmitter
Do
nerve terminals will be most strongly influenced
available to them. by a change in which of the following?
A) Alpha receptor sensitivity
After its release, NE in the synaptic cleft is B) Alpha receptor density
inactivated primarily by active transport back into the C) Extracellular [Ca2+]
nerve terminal (Figure 1), where it is either broken D) COMT activity
down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) or sequestered
into vesicles. Any NE not taken up is broken down by
catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT). 136. Based on the passage, which of the following
conditions would most likely be aggravated by
The relative numbers of alpha and beta receptors drugs that increase beta-adrenergic receptor
vary between tissues and determine how the tissues activity?
will respond to NE and/or adrenergic drugs. Beta- A) The common cold
adrenergic responses occur in tissues in which beta B) Diabetes mellitus
receptors predominate. Typical beta responses include C) Poor night vision
increased blood glucose concentration and dilation of D) Lactic acid accumulation
blood vessels supplying deep muscles and internal
organs. Alpha-adrenergic responses occur in tissues in
which alpha receptors predominate. Typical alpha-

Document # 6973555
137. If a cell’s membrane potential changes from –

60mV to –70mV after treatment with an
adrenergic drug, the NE receptor is most likely
linked to:
A) a G-protein.
B) adenylate cyclase.
C) a sodium channel.
D) a potassium channel.
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Passage VII Experiment 2

A research group conducted two experiments, A single substrate, 2-iodobutane, was subjected to
summarized below, in which a substrate underwent elimination by a variety of bases in the solvent
elimination by an E2 mechanism. The factors that dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO). The general reaction is
influence the orientation of the carbon-carbon double shown in Equation 2, and the results are recorded in
bond in the product were evaluated. The orientation Table 2.
was either Hofmann or Zaitsev, depending on the
location of the double bond.
Experiment 1
Several 2-halohexanes were subjected to
elimination. Either methoxide or tert-butoxide was
the base, and the corresponding alcohol was the Equation 2
solvent. The general reaction is shown in Equation 1, Table 2 Results of Experiment 2
and the results are recorded in Table 1.
Base pKa (Base-H) 1-Butene (%)
p-Nitrobenzoate 8.9 5.8
Benzoate 11.0 7.2
Equation 1
i b ut e Phenoxide
Methoxide
16.4
29.0
11.4
17.0
Table 1 Results of Experiment 1
D is t r 2-Hexenes
tert-Butoxide 32.2 20.7
t
138. How does the nature of the leaving group
o
Halogen Base/ E(%) Z(%)
correlate with the orientation of the product
N
X Solvent 1-Hexene (%)
produced in Experiment 1?
Do
CH3O– A) The poorer the leaving group, the higher the
I 19 63 18
/CH3OH proportion of Hofmann orientation.
B) The poorer the leaving group, the higher the
CH3O–
Cl 33 50 17 proportion of Zaitsev orientation.
/CH3OH
C) The nature of the leaving group has little effect on
CH3O– orientation.
F 70 21 9
/CH3OH D) The poorer the leaving group, the higher the
proportion of (E)-2-hexene formed.
I tert-BuO–/
tert-BuOH 78 15 7
139. A byproduct was observed in the reaction
Cl tert-BuO–/ shown by Equation 1 when the base/solvent pair
tert-BuOH 91 5 4 was CH3O–/CH3OH. What is the most likely
F tert-BuO–/ byproduct?
tert-BuOH 97 2 1 A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OCH3
B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH(OCH3)CH3
C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH(OH)CH3
D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

Document # 6973555
140. If the leaving group in Experiment 1 were Br–, 141. A student wished to prepare Compound 2.
approximately what percentage of 1-hexene
would be expected from the reaction when the
base/solvent pair is CH3O–/CH3OH?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 50% Which of the following alkyl halides and
D) 70% base/solvent pairs would produce the highest
yield of the desired product?
A) 2-Fluoro-1-methylcyclohexane and CH3O–
/CH3OH
B) 2-Fluoro-1-methylcyclohexane and tert-BuO–/tert-
BuOH
C) 1-Chloro-1-methylcyclohexane and CH3O–
/CH3OH
D) 1-Fluoro-1-methylcyclohexane and tert-BuO–/tert-
BuOH
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These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other. 145. Which of the following characteristics most
greatly influences the upper limit to cell size?
142. All of the following are functions of mammalian A) Size of chromosomes
skin EXCEPT: B) Number of mitochondria
A) sensation. C) Flexibility of the plasma membrane
B) respiration. D) Ratio of surface area to volume
C) protection from disease.
D) protection against internal injury. 146. If two stimuli, an electric shock and a light
flash, are simultaneously given to a planarian
143. Alanine has two pKa values: one at 2.35 and one flatworm, a response develops that eventually
at 9.87. At what pH would alanine exist can be evoked when only the light flash is used.
primarily in the form shown below? This result can be called conditioning if the
response:
A) can no longer be elicited by electric shock.
B) is also elicited by other dissimilar stimuli.
A) Less than 2.35 C) is no longer elicited by both stimuli together.
B) Between 2.35 and 6.11 D) is not a response originally evoked by light flash
C) Between 6.11 and 9.87 alone.
D) Above 9.87
144. The normal path of sperm movement from the

male testis to the point of fertilization in the
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female is:
A) epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, vagina, cervix,
uterus, fallopian tube.
D is t r
t
B) epididymis, vas deferens, ureter, cervix, uterus,
N
fallopian tube.
o
C) epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, vagina, uterus,
Do
ovary.
D) interstitial cells, epididymis, vas deferens, vagina,
uterus, ovary.

Document # 6973555
Physical Sciences 51 (A) (B) (C) (D) 96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 52 (A) (B) (C) (D) 97 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) 98 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) Verbal Reasoning 99 (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) 53 (A) (B) (C) (D) 100 (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) 54 (A) (B) (C) (D) 101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) 55 (A) (B) (C) (D) 102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) 56 (A) (B) (C) (D) 103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) 57 (A) (B) (C) (D) 104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) 58 (A) (B) (C) (D) 105 (A) (B) (C) (D)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) 59 (A) (B) (C) (D) 106 (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D) 60 (A) (B) (C) (D) 107 (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D) 61 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 62 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 63 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D) 64 (A) (B) (C) (D) 111 (A) (B) (C) (D)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D) 65 (A) (B) (C) (D) 112 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D) 66 (A) (B) (C) (D) 113 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 67 (A) (B) (C) (D) 114 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D) 68 (A) (B) (C) (D) 115 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D) 69 (A) (B) (C) (D) 116 (A) (B) (C) (D)
21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 70 (A) (B) (C) (D) 117 (A) (B) (C) (D)
22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 71 (A) (B) (C) (D) 118 (A) (B) (C) (D)
23 (A) (B) (C) (D) 72 (A) (B) (C) (D) 119 (A) (B) (C) (D)
e
24 (A) (B) (C) (D) 73 (A) (B) (C) (D) 120 (A) (B) (C) (D)
t
25 (A) (B) (C) (D) 74 (A) (B) (C) (D) 121 (A) (B) (C) (D)
u
26 (A) (B) (C) (D) 75 (A) (B) (C) (D) 122 (A) (B) (C) (D)
i b
27 (A) (B) (C) (D) 76 (A) (B) (C) (D) 123 (A) (B) (C) (D)
t r
28 (A) (B) (C) (D) 77 (A) (B) (C) (D) 124 (A) (B) (C) (D)
is
29 (A) (B) (C) (D) 78 (A) (B) (C) (D) 125 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D) 79 (A) (B) (C) (D) 126 (A) (B) (C) (D)
D
31 (A) (B) (C) (D) 80 (A) (B) (C) (D) 127 (A) (B) (C) (D)
t
32 (A) (B) (C) (D) 81 (A) (B) (C) (D) 128 (A) (B) (C) (D)
o
33 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 129 (A) (B) (C) (D)
N
34 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) 130 (A) (B) (C) (D)
Do
35 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 131 (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 132 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 133 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) 134 (A) (B) (C) (D)
39 (A) (B) (C) (D) 88 (A) (B) (C) (D) 135 (A) (B) (C) (D)
40 (A) (B) (C) (D) 89 (A) (B) (C) (D) 136 (A) (B) (C) (D)
41 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 137 (A) (B) (C) (D)
42 (A) (B) (C) (D) 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 138 (A) (B) (C) (D)
43 (A) (B) (C) (D) 92 (A) (B) (C) (D) 139 (A) (B) (C) (D)
44 (A) (B) (C) (D) 140 (A) (B) (C) (D)
45 (A) (B) (C) (D) Writing Sample 141 (A) (B) (C) (D)
46 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 142 (A) (B) (C) (D)
47 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 143 (A) (B) (C) (D)
48 (A) (B) (C) (D) 144 (A) (B) (C) (D)
49 (A) (B) (C) (D) Biological Sciences 145 (A) (B) (C) (D)
50 (A) (B) (C) (D) 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) 146 (A) (B) (C) (D)

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Document # 6973555

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Passage I 1. The oxidation state of copper in going from the

Cu(NH3)42+(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) 3. The waste mixture is initially:

i b ut e 4. The literature value of the Ksp for the reaction

Do N After the acid treatment, both metals exist as

5. What is the function of the organic polymer in the

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7. Is the procedure more effective for zinc or copper?

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Passage II 8. The structure and bonding of diamond, which is

ri b ut and weak intermolecular interactions.

11. Would deviations from the ideal gas law be

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ri b ut B) Real and pointing up

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is t ri 21. The projectile explodes at its peak height. What

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26. Which of the following indicators can be used to

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Passage V 31. The explanation for the fact that radioactive

30. When fewer than 3.75  106 americium nuclei

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36. Advanced photodiode detectors have a second

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Passage VI 37. Which of the following expressions can be used

s t ri b u C) The volume of the drop of oleic acid increases.

ot D i 40. Which of the following solvents could NOT be

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Passage VII trajectories. Up to 106 tracks can be processed

D is t r D) neutrons do not carry enough energy to ionize the

N ot 43. Is it possible for a single particle passing through

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i b ut e 52. A ball is thrown vertically upward. When the ball

D is t following describes its velocity v and its

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Passage I was formed after humans had already occupied the

i b ut e was dug by a stony meteorite slightly denser than the

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Passage II ahead has opened overnight, that the character who

i b ut e subsidiary to the simple imperative of being at work.

s t Adapted from T. Solotaroff, A Few Good Voices in My Head: Occasional Pieces