GATE 2016 2018 Architecture and Planning Question Paper and Answer Key PDF

GATE
ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING

2016-2018
QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs

(C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares
Q.2 “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good
Q.3 For ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝜋, sin 𝑥 and cos 𝑥 are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
(A) , (B) ,𝜋 (C) 𝜋, (D) , 𝜋
Q.4 The area of an equilateral triangle is √ . What is the perimeter of the triangle?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.5 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:
(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The
speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and
90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?
(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75
GA 1/2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many
parallelograms are formed?
(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72
Q.8 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was
answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered
correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by
90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates.
If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number
answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?
(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000
Q.9 If 𝑥 + 𝑥 − = what is the value of 𝑥 + ?

𝑥4
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no
growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another
unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained
fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006.
The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers
to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above
data.
(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.
(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.
(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.
(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 2/2
GATE 2018 Architecture and Planning
Q.1 In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are

(A) Tertiary (B) Complementary (C) Secondary (D) Primary
Q.2 In a bird’s eye perspective view of a cuboid, the maximum number of vanishing points is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6
Q.3 The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is

(A) 25 kg/sqm (B) 25 N/sqmm (C) 250 N/sqmm (D) 2.5 N/sqmm
Q.4 In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried
out for determining
(A) Late start and early finish time (B) Early start and early finish time
(C) Late start and late finish time (D) Early start and late finish time
Q.5 Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to
(A) Wind load failure
(B) Foundation failure
(C) Thermal performance failure of reinforcement steel in RCC
(D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel
Q.6 During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building
materials to the upper floors is a
(A) Goods lift (B) Capsule lift
(C) Gantry crane (D) Tower crane
Q.7 A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by

(A) Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur
(B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora
(C) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
(D) Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi
Q.8 ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of
(A) Smart City Mission (B) Digital India Mission
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission (D) Atal Innovation Mission
AR 1/11
Q.9 In mass transportation, LRTS stands for

(A) Light Rail Transit System
(B) Linear Rail Transit System
(C) Light Rail Transportation System
(D) Linear Rail Transportation System
Q.10 The structural grid type shown in the figure below is a
(A) Tartan Grid (B) Square Grid (C) Rectangular Grid (D) Irregular Grid
Q.11 Assuming other variables remaining constant, the Tropical Summer Index
(A) Increases with increase in air velocity
(B) Decreases with increase in wet-bulb temperature
(C) Decreases with increase in globe temperature
(D) Increases with increase in vapour pressure
Q.12 Government of India’s urban development program ‘HRIDAY’ stands for

(A) Heritage Rejuvenation Implementation Development Aayog Yojana
(B) Heritage Review Implementation Development Augmentation Yojana
(C) Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
(D) Heritage City Improvement and Development Aawas Yojana
Q.13 As per the Urban and Regional Development Plan Formulation and Implementation
(URDPFI) guidelines, the plan period considered in a ‘Perspective plan’ is
(A) 1-10 years (B) 11-15 years (C) 20-30 years (D) 35-45 years
Q.14 The Hall of Nations, New Delhi, was designed by

(A) Charles Correa (B) Raj Rewal
(C) Joseph Allen Stein (D) A. P. Kanvinde
Q.15 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, the minimum turning radius (in metres)
required for fire tender movement is
(A) 8.0 (B) 8.5 (C) 9.0 (D) 9.5
AR 2/11
Q.16 Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minarets’ is located in

(A) Ajmer (B) Allahabad
(C) Ahmedabad (D) Amritsar
Q.17 ‘Sight Distance’ is considered in the design of

(A) Road intersection (B) Fenestration
(C) Open kitchen (D) Auditorium
Q.18 In India, the term ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to

(A) Land renewal (B) Land rejuvenation
(C) Land reclamation (D) Land readjustment
Q.19 Bamboo is a type of

(A) Shrub (B) Timber
(C) Evergreen tree (D) Perennial grass
Q.20 According to the UN, one of the components for measuring ‘inclusive growth’ is
(A) Economic well-being (B) Physical infrastructure
(C) Education (D) Life expectancy
Q.21 The unit of measurement of Damp Proof Course (DPC) in building construction is
(A) kg (B) cum (C) sqm (D) rm
Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a Building Information Modeling software tool
(A) Adobe Illustrator (B) Bentley Microstation
(C) Autodesk Revit (D) Graphisoft ARCHICAD
Q.23 The concentric circles in a solar chart represent

(A) Azimuth angle (B) Altitude angle
(C) Horizontal shadow angle (D) Vertical shadow angle
Q.24 A room of 3m × 3m × 3m has a reverberation time of 0.8 sec. Using Sabine’s method, the
total absorption in the room is _____________ sabin (up to one decimal place).
Q.25 A 25 storeyed building has 5 lifts. The resulting waiting time is 35 sec and ‘Return Travel
Time’ is 175 sec. The number of lifts required for reducing waiting time to 25 sec, without
increasing the lift speed, is _______________
AR 3/11
Q.26 Match the planning documents in Group-I with their respective government schemes in
Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Integrated Cluster Action Plan 1 NULM
Q Service Level Improvement Plan 2 Make in India
R Housing for All Plan of Action 3 RuRBAN mission
S City Livelihood Centre Development Plan 4 PMAY
5 AMRUT
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2
(C) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
Q.27 Associate the fire safety requirements for high rise buildings in Group-I with
corresponding standards of the National Building Code of India 2016 in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Minimum Refuge area 1 12.5 sqm/person
Q Maximum Travel distance 2 2.0 m
R Maximum Occupant load 3 0.3 sqm/person
S Minimum Stair case width 4 12.0 ton
5 30.0 m
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
Q.28 Match the photometric quantities in Group-I with their respective units in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Illuminance 1 Candela
Q Luminous Intensity 2 Candela/sqm
R Luminance 3 Lumens/sqm
S Luminous Efficacy 4 Lumens/watt
5 Lumens
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
AR 4/11
Q.29 Associate the symbols in Group I with their meanings in Group II
Group-I Group-II
P 1 Hearing impaired
Q 2 Emergency lamp
R 3 Electrical and Electronic waste disposal
S 4 Biohazard
5 Speech impaired
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
AR 5/11
Q.30 Match the elements in Group-I with the building components in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P King post 1 Curtain glazing
Q Grade beam 2 Door
R Metal decking 3 Plinth
S Jamb 4 Intermediate floor
5 Truss
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Q.31 Match the iconic architectural examples in Group-I with their predominant structural
systems in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P S. Maria del Fiore Cathedral, Florence 1 Shell
Q Notre Dame Cathedral, Paris 2 Suspended roof
R Olympic Arena, Tokyo 3 Space frame
S Bahá’i Temple, Delhi 4 Double-walled dome
5 Flying buttress
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2
Q.32 Match the building materials in Group-I with their distinctive properties in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Cement 1 Charring
Q Steel 2 Brittle
R Wood 3 Evaporation
S Glass 4 Tensile strength
5 Setting Time
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5
AR 6/11
Q.33 Match the built forms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Agora 1 Custodial precincts
Q Ziggurat 2 Place of Jewish worship
R Mastaba 3 Built in diminishing stages of masonry with

buttressed wall
S Synagogue 4 Market place or public square
5 Tomb made of mud bricks
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2
Q.34 Match the building configuration characteristics in Group-I with their seismic
consequences in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Re-entrant corner 1 Soft storey
Q Floating column 2 Stress concentration at corner
R Irregular storey stiffness 3 Load path discontinuity
S Gap between adjacent buildings 4 Vertical asymmetry
5 Pounding
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1
Q.35 Match the landscaping terms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Xeriscaping 1 Wide vegetated drain
Q Drip line 2 Tree rings
R Swale 3 Outermost circumference of a tree canopy
S Turf block paver 4 Solution to topsoil erosion and water permeability
5 A little or no irrigation
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1
AR 7/11
Q.36 Match the planning principles in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Transit oriented 1 Four stage model of regional development
development
Q Core periphery theory 2 Compact and walkable mixed use development
R Bid rent theory 3 Geographic concentration of inter-connected

institutions
S Cluster theory 4 Change of land price with relative distance from
the CBD
5 Interactive and participatory planning process
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4
Q.37 Match the cities in Group-I with their planners in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Islamabad 1 Patrick Geddess
Q Tel Aviv 2 C.A. Doxiadis
R Bhubaneswar 3 Lucio Costa
S Brasilia 4 B. V. Doshi
5 O. Koenigsberger
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5
Q.38 Match the Temples in Group-I with their Dynastic period in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Brihadeshvara Temple 1 Gupta
Q Kailasanatha Temple 2 Chalukya
R Bhitragaon Temple 3 Lodhi
S Lad Khan Temple 4 Chola
5 Pallava
(A) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5
AR 8/11
Q.39 Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao 1 Richard Rogers
Q The Shard, London 2 Norman Foster
R Commerz Bank, Frankfurt 3 Frank Gehry
S Heydar Aliyev Centre, Baku 4 Renzo Piano
5 Zaha Hadid
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3
Q.40 Match the following urban conservation themes in Group-I with their respective
descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Restoration 1 Piece by piece re-assembly
Q Reconstitution 2 Returning to previous stage
R Reconstruction 3 Physical addition
S Replication 4 Re-creation of vanished elements
5 Reproduction of an exact copy
(A) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-3, S-5
Q.41 A Single Phase Neutral (SPN) electrical circuit has a power consumption of 330W.
Considering a voltage of 110V and power factor of 0.8, the electrical current drawn is
___________ Amp (up to one decimal place).
Q.42 A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rainwater collection tank. If
the rainfall is 60 mm per hour and the loss during water storage is 20%, then the time taken
to fill the tank completely is_______ hours.
Q.43 The planning norms for provision of schools in a given town is shown in the table below
Schools Population norm Land requirement per school

Elementary School One per 2500 persons 0.4 hectare
Primary School One per 5000 persons 1.0 hectare
Secondary School One per 12500 persons 2.0 hectare
Total land area required for providing all types of schools for a population of 200,000
is ___________ hectares.
AR 9/11
Q.44 In a mixed use development on a 2.0 hectare site with 2.0 FAR, the ratio of residential to
commercial floor area is 3:2. The minimum parking (in ECS) needed per 100 sqm of
residential and commercial floor area is 1.0 and 1.25 respectively. Considering full FAR
utilization, the total parking requirement is ____________ ECS.
Q.45 A plotted housing scheme on a site of 12 hectare has 60% saleable area. The average unit
cost of land development is INR 300 million per hectare. If the profit margin is 20%, then
the selling price of land per hectare is __________ million INR.
Q.46 An isolated enclosure shown in the Figure has inlet P and outlet Q of 2 sqm each, on the
opposite walls. The outdoor wind speed is 5 m/sec. If the coefficient of effectiveness is 0.6,
the rate of natural ventilation in the enclosure due to wind action is _________ cum/hr.
Q.47 A 5m × 5m × 3m room has four 230 mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestration
is 10 sqm. The temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 degC. The air to air
transmittance values for 230 mm thick brick wall and 200 mm thick aerated concrete block
wall are 2.4 and 1.7 W/sqm degC respectively. If the brick walls are replaced with the
aerated concrete block walls, then the change in conductive heat flow through the walls is
_________W.
Q.48 For an activity, ‘optimistic time duration’ is 4 days, ‘pessimistic time duration’ is 11 days
and ‘most-likely time duration’ is 8 days. The PERT value of time duration is______ days
(up to one decimal place).
Q.49 In the Figure, the negative bending moment at point A of the cantilever is ________ kNm.
AR 10/11
Q.50 The water consumption of a high rise apartment building with 60 dwelling units having an
average household size of 5 persons is 135 lpcd. Assuming 80% of the total use is met with
recycled water supply, the daily domestic demand for the building is _________ litres.
Q.51 In India, for 1.0 cum of M-20 grade concrete, the number of cement bags required is
________ (up to two decimal places).
Q.52 The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90 dB. Considering an
atmospheric impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10 m distance from the
source is _______ dB.
Q.53 The live load and dead load in a three storeyed residential building, transferred through a
single column, is 12 tons and 18 tons respectively. If the soil bearing capacity is
10 ton/sqm and the factor of safety is 1.5, the area of column footing
is _____________ sqm (up to one decimal place).
Q.54 The indoor illumination requirement for a building is 350 Lux. If the daylight factor is 2.7
and the design sky illuminance is 9000 Lux, then the required supplementary artificial
lighting is ____________ Lux.
Q.55 Two design options of a business building on a 10.0 hectare site are being compared for
built up area. Floor to floor height of Option A is 3.6 m and that of Option B is 4.5 m. If
the maximum allowable building height is 45 m with same ground coverage for both
options, the additional built up area achievable in Option A over Option B
is______percent.
AR 11/11
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA D 1
6 MCQ GA A 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA A 2
1 MCQ AR D 1
2 MCQ AR C 1
3 MCQ AR B 1
4 MCQ AR B 1
5 MCQ AR D 1
6 MCQ AR D 1
7 MCQ AR B 1
8 MCQ AR A 1
9 MCQ AR A 1
10 MCQ AR A 1
11 MCQ AR D 1
12 MCQ AR C 1
13 MCQ AR C 1
14 MCQ AR B 1
15 MCQ AR C 1
16 MCQ AR C 1
17 MCQ AR A 1
18 MCQ AR D 1
19 MCQ AR D 1
20 MCQ AR A 1
21 MCQ AR C 1
22 MCQ AR A 1
23 MCQ AR B 1
24 NAT AR 5.3 to 5.7 1
25 NAT AR 7.0 to 7.0 1
26 MCQ AR D 2
27 MCQ AR C 2
28 MCQ AR D 2
29 MCQ AR D 2
30 MCQ AR D 2
31 MCQ AR C 2
32 MCQ AR B 2
33 MCQ AR C 2
34 MCQ AR B 2
35 MCQ AR A 2
36 MCQ AR A 2
37 MCQ AR C 2
38 MCQ AR A 2
39 MCQ AR A 2
40 MCQ AR B 2
41 NAT AR 3.7 to 3.8 2
42 NAT AR 15.0 to 15.0 2
43 NAT AR 104 to 104 2
44 NAT AR 440 to 440 2
45 NAT AR 600 to 600 2
46 NAT AR 21600 to 21600 2
47 NAT AR 69.5 to 70.5 2
48 NAT AR 7.8 to7.9 2
49 NAT AR 224 to 226 2
50 NAT AR 8100 to 8100 2
51 NAT AR 5 to 9 2
52 NAT AR 58 to 60 2
53 NAT AR 4.0 to 5.0 2
54 NAT AR 107 to 107 2
55 NAT AR 20 to 20 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Architecture and Planning 4th Feb 2017

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Numb er : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33
Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33
















Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ AR A 1
2 NAT AR 7.2 to 7.2 1
3 MCQ AR D 1
4 MCQ AR A 1
5 MCQ AR C 1
6 NAT AR 40 to 40 1
7 MCQ AR B 1
8 MCQ AR B 1
9 MCQ AR B 1
10 MCQ AR C 1
11 MCQ AR B 1
12 MCQ AR D 1
13 MCQ AR B 1
14 MCQ AR A 1
15 MCQ AR B 1
16 MCQ AR C 1
17 MCQ AR D 1
18 MCQ AR B 1
19 MCQ AR D 1
20 MCQ AR A 1
21 MCQ AR D 1
22 MCQ AR A or B or C 1
23 MCQ AR C 1
24 MCQ AR D 1
25 MCQ AR C 1
26 MCQ AR A 2
27 MCQ AR D 2
28 MCQ AR A 2
29 NAT AR 41000 to 41010 2
30 NAT AR 17495 to 17505 2
31 MCQ AR D 2
32 MCQ AR A 2
33 MCQ AR B 2
34 MCQ AR C 2
35 MCQ AR B 2
36 NAT AR 0 to 0 2
37 NAT AR 28 to 28 2
38 NAT AR 8500 to 8500 2
39 NAT AR 3463 to 3465 2
40 NAT AR 14.00 to 15.00 2
41 NAT AR 60 to 60 2
42 NAT AR 2.7 to 2.9 2
43 NAT AR 200000 to 200000 2
44 NAT AR 1100 to 1100 2
45 MCQ AR B 2
46 MCQ AR A 2
47 MCQ AR D 2
48 MCQ AR A 2
49 NAT AR 960 to 960 2
50 MCQ AR A 2
51 NAT AR 8 to 8 2
52 NAT AR 0.2 to 0.25 2
53 NAT AR 175 to 180 2
54 NAT AR 390 to 390 2
55 MCQ AR C 2
56 MCQ GA D 1
57 MCQ GA D 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA B 1
60 MCQ GA A 1
61 MCQ GA C 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA B 2
65 MCQ GA A 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.
Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.
(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.
(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.
(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.
Q.2 The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at
someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”
Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.
(A) burning (B) igniting (C) clutching (D) flinging
Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-
law of M. How is P related to M?
(A) P is the son-in-law of M. (B) P is the grandchild of M.
(C) P is the daughter-in law of M. (D) P is the grandfather of M.
Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.
(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
Q.5 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is
150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
GATE 2016 General Ap
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
Q.6 Thee velocity V of a vehiclle along a sttraight line is
i measured in m/s and plotted as shown
s with
resppect to timee in seconds. At the endd of the 7 seconds,
s howw much willl the odomeeter reading
incrrease by (in m)?
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.7 Thee overwhelm ming numberr of people innfected with h rabies in Inndia has beenn flagged by
y the World
Heaalth Organizzation as a soource of conncern. It is esstimated thatt inoculatingg 70% of petts and stray
doggs against rabbies can leadd to a significcant reductio
on in the num
mber of peoplle infected with
w rabies.
Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from

m the above sentences?
(A)) The numbber of people in India infeected with raabies is high.
(B)) The number of people in other partts of the world who are innfected with rabies is low
w.
(C)) Rabies cann be eradicated in India by

b vaccinatin
ng 70% of strray dogs.
(D)) Stray dogss are the main source of rabies

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 f is shared by four firstt year underggraduate stud

A flat dents. They agreed
a to alloow the oldestt of them to
enjoy some exttra space in the flat. Maanu is two months
m olderr than Sravann, who is thhree months
youunger than Trrideep. Pavaan is one monnth older than
n Sravan. Who
W should occcupy the ex xtra space in
the flat?
(A)) Manu (B) Sravan (C) Trideep (D) Pavan
Q.9 Finnd the area boounded by thhe lines 3x+22y=14, 2x-3y

y=5 in the firrst quadrant.
(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4
Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a
slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?
(A) −0.030 (B) −0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Q.1 ‘Dharahara’ refers to
(A) Concept of Vastu Shastra
(B) Elevation feature of a Hindu Temple
(C) Heritage tower at Kathmandu
(D) Construction method of Buddhist Architecture
Q.2 ‘Mushroom Column’ is a typical feature of

(A) Pantheon, Rome (B) Parthenon, Athens
(C) Chrysler Building, New York (D) Johnson Wax Building, Racine
Q.3 ‘AMRUT’, the new scheme launched by Government of India, stands for
(A) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(B) Atal Mission for Renewal of Urban Transportation
(C) Atal Mission for Redevelopment of Urban Transportation
(D) Atal Mission for Renewal and Urban Transformation
Q.4 The concept of ‘Dry Garden’ is associated with

(A) Japanese Garden (B) Chinese Garden (C) Mughal Garden (D) Egyptian Garden
Q.5 The concept of Transit Oriented Development (TOD) refers to

(A) Transit oriented planning in institutional campuses
(B) High density development along a mass transit corridor
(C) Orienting residential blocks towards the transit in a gated community
(D) Spatial design for persons with disabilities along a mass transit corridor
Q.6 The components measuring Human Development Index (HDI) of a nation are
(A) Life expectancy, Education and Per Capita Income
(B) Life expectancy, Economy and Housing
(C) Health, Development and Per Capita Income
(D) Housing, Health and Hygiene
Q.7 As per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 2010, the extent of
‘prohibited area’ beyond the ‘demarcated protected area’ in meters is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 500
Q.8 In CMYK colour model, ‘K’ represents the colour

(A) White (B) Black (C) Blue (D) Green
Q.9 ‘Segregation at source’ is a concept associated with

(A) Solid waste management (B) Disaster management
(C) Traffic management (D) Water management
Q.10 In a flat slab, the load is transferred through

(A) Beam action (B) Membrane action
(C) Plate action (D) Vector action
AR 1/8
Q.11 Map is an
(A) Isometric projection (B) Orthographic projection
(C) Axonometric projection (D) Oblique projection
Q.12 ‘Indore Slum Networking Programme’ has been planned by

(A) B. V. Doshi (B) Dulal Mukherjee
(C) Anil Laul (D) Himanshu Parikh
Q.13 ‘Volume Zero’ is a film based on the architectural works of

(A) Peter Eisenman (B) Charles Correa
(C) Daniel Libeskind (D) Roger Angers
Q.14 The unit of Thermal Conductivity of a material is

(A) W/(m K) (B) W/(m2 K)
(C) m K/W (D) m2 K/W
Q.15 A semicircular niche in the wall of a mosque, towards the direction of Mecca is known as
(A) Sahn (B) Minbar (C) Qibla (D) Mihrab
Q.16 As per CPWD Guidelines and Space Standards for Barrier Free Built Environment, the minimum
turning radius for a wheelchair in mm is
(A) 900 (B) 1200 (C) 1500 (D) 1800
Q.17 ‘Summit Curve’ is a term associated with the design of

(A) Roads and flyovers (B) Escalators and elevators
(C) Tensile fabric structures (D) Geodesic domes
Q.18 As per Census of India 2011, Nagar Panchayat refers to

(A) Rural area surrounded by a growing city
(B) Urban area within a panchayat
(C) Rural area adjacent to a nagar
(D) Urban area with a statutory local government
Q.19 Statutory setback of a building depends on

(A) Building height (B) Property boundary
(C) Width of access road (D) Ground coverage
Q.20 Super plasticizer is added in a concrete mix to

(A) Reduce the water-cement ratio for a given workability
(B) Increase the water-cement ratio for a given workability
(C) Reduce the flow
(D) Reduce the content of coarse aggregate
Q.21 Shodhan House, Ahmedabad was designed by

(A) Anant Raje (B) Le Corbusier
(C) Louis I. Kahn (D) B. V. Doshi
AR 2/8
Q.22 Low-emissivity coating on a glazing unit

(A) Increases the SHGC (B) Increases the VLT
(C) Reduces the SHGC (D) Increases the VLT and SHGC
Q.23 Spatial connectedness in GIS refers to

(A) Tomography (B) Topography (C) Topiary (D) Topology
Q.24 In a residential neighbourhood, the net area of residential plots is 50 percent of the total area. If the
population is 8000, the ratio of net density to gross density of the neighbourhood is ________
Q.25 A hemispherical earth mound of 3 meter diameter is proposed to be constructed in a children’s

park. If the proportion of soil and sand for the construction is 3:2, the estimated volume of soil in
cubic meters is ________
Q.26 Match the ancient cities in Group –I with their characteristic features in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Mohen-jo-daro 1 Agora
Q Babylon 2 Enclosed Court
R Kahun 3 Grid Iron Street Pattern
S Athens 4 Forum
5 Hanging Garden
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3
Q.27 Match the water purification stages in Group-I with the corresponding items in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Coagulation 1 Ammonium hydroxide
Q Filtration 2 Sodium Zeolite
R Disinfection 3 Alum
S Softening 4 Sand
5 Chlorine
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
Q.28 Match the software tools in Group-I with their field of application in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Radiance 1 Outdoor thermal environment
Q Odeon 2 Construction management
R Rayman 3 Air-flow analysis
S Primavera 4 Acoustical design
5 Lighting analysis
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5
AR 3/8
Q.29 Match the street layouts of ancient Indian settlements in Group – I with their corresponding types
in Group – II
Group-I Group-II
P 1 Nandyavarta
Q 2 Swastika
R 3 Padmaka
S 4 Chaturmukha
5 Karmukha
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.30 Associate the terms in Group-I with the building hardware in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Parliamentary 1 Bar
Q Aldrop 2 Lock
R Panic 3 Hinge
S Mortise 4 Bolt
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Q.31 Hoop and meridional forces are associated with

(A) Dome (B) Truss
(C) Folded Plate (D) Space Frame
AR 4/8
Q.32 Match the Olympic stadia in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Palazzetto dello Sport, Rome 1 Herzog & de Meuron
Q Olympic Arena, Tokyo 2 Frei Otto
R Bird’s Nest, Beijing 3 Kenzo Tange
S Olympia Stadion, Munich 4 Roger Taillibert
5 P. L. Nervi
(A) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
Q.33 Match the terms in Group-I with the related terms in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Acquisition 1 Ownership
Q Planning permission 2 Construction
R Building plan sanction 3 Land cover
S Mutation 4 Land use
5 Land
(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4
Q.34 Associate the structural systems of Group-I with buildings in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Diagrid 1 Millennium Dome, London
Q Outrigger truss 2 HSBC, Hong Kong
R Suspended floor 3 Taipei 101, Taipei
S Cable stayed 4 Hearst Tower, New York
5 Sears Tower, Chicago
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.35 Associate the systems in Group-I with their applications in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Nisargruna 1 Renewable energy generation
Q Vortex-DEWAT 2 Ground water recharge
R Swale 3 Solid waste management
S BIPV 4 Desalination
5 Waste water treatment
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Q.36 Match the Houses in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Villa Müller, Prague 1 Frank Gehry
Q Farnsworth House, Illinois 2 Frank Lloyd Wright
R Schröder House, Utrecht 3 Adolf Loos
S Dancing House, Prague 4 Mies van der Rohe
5 Gerrit Rietveld
(A) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
AR 5/8
Q.37 Match the Books in Group-I with their Authors in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Space, Time and Architecture 1 Bill Hillier
Q The Social Logic of Space 2 Christopher Alexander
R Timeless Way of Building 3 Rob Krier
S Form, Space and Order 4 Sigfried Gideon
5 Francis D. K. Ching
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5
Q.38 Associate the green rating system in Group-I with the respective country in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P CASBEE 1 UAE
Q Green Mark 2 China
R GRIHA 3 Japan
S Estidama 4 Singapore
5 India
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
Q.39 Match the instruments in Group-I with the corresponding usage in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Pyranometer 1 Shadow analysis
Q Heliodon 2 Seismic intensity
R Total Station 3 Wind velocity
S Anemometer 4 Solar radiation
5 Land survey
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.40 As per URDPFI guidelines, the number of Equivalent Car Space (ECS) required to accommodate
ten cars, sixteen scooters and forty bicycles will be______________
Q.41 A steel I-beam section is subjected to a bending moment of 96 kN-m. The moment of inertia of the
beam section is 24,000 cm4. The bending stress at 100 mm above the neutral axis of the beam in
MPa will be ____________
Q.42 A room is mechanically ventilated through four air-conditioning ducts. The opening area of each
duct is 0.35 sqm. The air velocity in the duct is 0.5 m/s. The temperature difference between the
ambient air and supply air is 10 °C. Volumetric specific heat of air is 1250 J/m3 °C. Assuming one
Ton of refrigeration (TR) equals 3.5 kW, the cooling load of the room in TR will be
_____________
AR 6/8
Q.43 A CPM network of a construction project is given in the figure below. The activity durations are
mentioned in weeks. The project completion time in weeks will be _____________
Q.44 For a room with dimensions 4m × 3m × 3m (L×B×H), the details of indoor acoustical treatment are
as follows.
Component Wall Ceiling Floor
Percentage area 30 70 40 60 100
Absorption coefficient at 1000 Hz 0.4 0.1 0.6 0.1 0.1
The reverberation time in seconds at 1000 Hz is _______
Q.45 In 2001, the population and work force participation rate of a town were 30,000 and 30 percent
respectively. The work force participation rate in the year 2011 increased to 34 percent. If the
decadal population growth rate was 6 percent, the increase in the number of working people in the
town in 2011 was __________
Q.46 In a 20 storey building with 3m floor to floor height, a passenger lift is hoisted by a steel rope.
Weight of the lift car is 750 kg and ultimate load the steel rope can carry is 39,000 kg. Assuming a
factor of safety of 20 for the steel rope and an average passenger weight of 75 kg, the passenger
capacity of the lift is ____________
Q.47 One litre of acrylic paint can cover 16 sqm of wall area for the first coat and 24 sqm for the second
coat. The walls of a lecture hall measuring 12m × 8m × 4m (L × B × H) need to be painted with
two coats of this paint. The hall has total glazed fenestration area of 12 sqm. The number of 4 litre
paint containers required will be __________
Q.48 A 250 mm × 250 mm RCC column is reinforced with one percent steel. The permissible
compressive stress of concrete and steel are 8 N/mm2 and 150 N/mm2 respectively. The axial load
carrying capacity of the column in kN is _____________
Q.49 A solar photo-voltaic system is proposed to be installed at the roof top of a hostel. The cost of
installation and the annual maintenance are INR 2,40,000 and INR 6000 respectively. It is expected
to generate 600 kWh of electricity per month. Assume unit price of electricity as INR 5. Ignoring
the discount rate, the payback period of the investment in years is____________
Q.50 A pump is installed in an apartment building to lift water from ground level to the roof top water
tank with the capacity of 10,000 litres. Total head of lift is 18 m and pumping time is 30 minutes to
fill the tank completely. Assuming acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/sec2 and efficiency of the
pump as 80 percent, the power requirement of the pump in kW will be __________
AR 7/8
Q.51 In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of
areas of the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no
profit no loss situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge
in percentage payable per HIG unit will be ____________
Q.52 The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm × 125 mm × 75 mm) for laying one course of a
250 mm thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be ___________
Q.53 The difference in invert levels between two pits separated by a distance of 30 meter is one meter.
An intermediate pit is required to be constructed at a distance of 18 meter from the pit at higher
level. Maintaining the same slope, the difference in invert levels of the new pit and the pit at lower
level in mm will be _________
Q.54 A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR
of 2.0. If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full
FAR in both cases will be ___________
Q.55 A lamp source of 3200 candela is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the work-plane. It
subtends an angle of incidence of 60o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the
centre of the work plane in Lux is __________
AR 8/8
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA A 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA A 2
1 MCQ AR C 1
2 MCQ AR D 1
3 MCQ AR A 1
4 MCQ AR A 1
5 MCQ AR B 1
6 MCQ AR A 1
7 MCQ AR B 1
8 MCQ AR B 1
9 MCQ AR A 1
10 MCQ AR C 1
11 MCQ AR B 1
12 MCQ AR D 1
13 MCQ AR B 1
14 MCQ AR A 1
15 MCQ AR D 1
16 MCQ AR A 1
17 MCQ AR A 1
18 MCQ AR D 1
19 MCQ AR A 1
20 MCQ AR A 1
21 MCQ AR B 1
22 MCQ AR C 1
23 MCQ AR D 1
24 NAT AR 2.0 : 2.0 1
25 NAT AR 4.15 : 4.30 1
26 MCQ AR C 2
27 MCQ AR D 2
28 MCQ AR C 2
29 MCQ AR B 2
30 MCQ AR C 2
31 MCQ AR A 2
32 MCQ AR B 2
33 MCQ AR A 2
34 MCQ AR D 2
35 MCQ AR C 2
36 MCQ AR B 2
37 MCQ AR D 2
38 MCQ AR D 2
39 MCQ AR C 2
40 NAT AR 18 : 18 2
41 NAT AR 40 : 40 2
42 NAT AR 2.45 : 2.55 2
43 NAT AR 18 : 18 2
44 NAT AR 0.44 : 0.46 2
45 NAT AR 1812 : 1812 2
46 NAT AR 16 : 16 2
47 NAT AR 4:4 2
48 NAT AR 585 : 595 2
49 NAT AR 8:8 2
50 NAT AR 1.2 : 1.3 2
51 NAT AR 5:5 2
52 NAT AR 36 : 36 2
53 NAT AR 400 : 400 2
54 NAT AR 5 : 5 ; 10 : 10 2
55 NAT AR 100 : 100 2

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ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING

QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs

(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75

(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72

(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000

Q.9 If 𝑥 + 𝑥 − = what is the value of 𝑥 + ?

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are

Q.3 The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is

Q.7 A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by

Q.9 In mass transportation, LRTS stands for

Q.10 The structural grid type shown in the figure below is a

Q.12 Government of India’s urban development program ‘HRIDAY’ stands for

Q.14 The Hall of Nations, New Delhi, was designed by

Q.16 Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minarets’ is located in

Q.17 ‘Sight Distance’ is considered in the design of

Q.18 In India, the term ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to

Q.19 Bamboo is a type of

Q.23 The concentric circles in a solar chart represent

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.29 Associate the symbols in Group I with their meanings in Group II

R 3 Electrical and Electronic waste disposal

Q Ziggurat 2 Place of Jewish worship

R Mastaba 3 Built in diminishing stages of masonry with

5 Tomb made of mud bricks

R Bid rent theory 3 Geographic concentration of inter-connected

Q.37 Match the cities in Group-I with their planners in Group-II

Q.39 Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II

Schools Population norm Land requirement per school

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Question Paper Name: Architecture and Planning 4th Feb 2017

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 5 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 6 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 8 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 11 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 13 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 14 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 15 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 16 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 17 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 19 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 20 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 21 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 22 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 24 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 25 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 26 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 28 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66