Code 025

1. Red-green color-blindness is controlled by an X chromosomal gene in

humans. A normal man whose father is color-blind marries a woman whose
mother is color-blind. What is the probability that their first child will be
color-blind?
A. ½
B. 1/3
C. 1/8
D. ¼

2. I know that black coat color in mice is dominant to albino. Black mice get a
higher price at the pet store so I am disapointed when I cross a black
mouse with an albino mouse and get 6 albino and 2 black mice in the litter.
I excepted all black. What mistake did I made?
A. I assumed that black alleles were more common than white
B. I assumed that my white mouse were true- breeding
C. I assumed that my black mouse were true- breeding
D. I assumed that my white alleles were more common than black

3. The term genomic imprinting refers to an analogous situation in which a

segment of DNA is marked, and that mark is retained and regconized
throughout the life of the organism inheriting the marked DNA
A. False
B. True

4. When a bacteria cells die, it releases a fragment of its DNA into the
environment. This DNA fragment is taken up by a recipient cell, which
incorporates the DNA into its chromosome
A. Conjugation
B. All of these
C. Transduction
D. Transformation

5. In linkage mapping, one map unit is equal to one % crossover frequency

 A. True
B. False

6. Analysis of genetic diseases in humans and animals allows to detect gene

mutations: single gene (monogenic genetic diseases), multiple genes
(multifactorial / polygonic genetic diseases), chromosomal mutations
(chromosomal genetic diseases), mutation mitochondrial genome
(mitochondrial genetic diseases)
A. False
B. True

7. A quantitative trait locus (QTL)

A. Contains a known gene which affects a polygenic trait
B. Contains a single gene which affects a polygenic trait
C. Controls all of the variation for a polygenic trait
D. None of the above

8. During which phase of meiosis does independent assortment occur

A. Anaphase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Metaphase I

9. Twins studies are able to assess the impact of genotype and environment
on the formation of each individual traits and behavioral genetics
A. True
B. False

10. In most organism, which molecules acts as an intermediary in the

processing of the genetic information?
A. DNA
B. Fats and lipids
C. Proteins
D. RNA
11. Which organisms below can be used as model organisms?
1. Caenorhabditis elegans
2. Danio rerio
3. Mus musculus
4. Drosophila melanogaster
5. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
6. Escherrichia coli
A. 1,4,5
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5,6
D. 1,3,4,5,6

12. The alleles present in an individual for a given trait constitute its:
A. Heterozygous
B. Homozygous
C. Phenotype
D. Geneotype

13. Why is tetrad analysis useful for studying genetics?

A. Analysis of simple systems can elucidate general rules that apply more
broadly
B. Cells within a tetrad reflect the events of meiosis
C. All of the above
D. Cells within a tetrad are haploid so genotypes is directly reflected in
the phenotype

14. Pedigree

15. The mutation rate is defined as the probability that a gene will be altered
by a new mutation. The rate is typically expressed as the number of new
mutations in a given gene per generation
A. True
B. False

16. Unequal crossing over may account for all of the following except:
 A. Duplications
B. Microsatellites
C. Detetions
D. SNPs

17. Which statement about nucleic acid is NOT correct?

A. They are macromolecules
B. They are organic molecules
C. None; all of these statement are correct
D. They are typically long, linear molecules

18. Which of the following could NOT be used to described a sex limited
trait:
A. This term refers to a trait controlled by a gene located on the X or Y
chromosomes
B. This trait is likely to be a secondary sex characteristics
C. This is a trait that occurs more frequently in one sex than another
D. This is an example of a sex influenced trait

19. You set up a monohybrid cross between true breeding round winged and
true breeding oval winged insects. Your F1 offspring have round wings, and
you collect the following numbers of F2: Round wings: 302; Oval wings: 86.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Mendel rules accurately predict the outcome of this cross
B. None of these; all are correct statements
C. The chi square value for this calculation is 1.663
D. The critical value for this chi square calculation is 7.815

20. A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree

that shows affected individuals having at least one affected parents
A. True
B. False

21. Twins studies are able to assess the impact of genotype and environment
on the formation of each individual traits and behavioral genetics
 A. True
B. False

22. For alleles that display incomplete dominance, the phonotype ratio
expected in the F2 generation os a monohybrid cross would be the same
as the genotypic ratio
A. True
B. False

23. The differences in the genotype of the twins may be due to

A. All of these
B. Influence of common environment
C. Influence of unique environment
D. The recombinance of gametes in fertilization

24. Recombination in mitosis is occuring phenomenon crossovers between

chromatid in mitosis
A. True
B. False

25. Bacteriophage may be able to infect some strains of bacteria but not the
others
A. True
B. False

26. Which of the following statements regarding X inactivation in mammals is

FALSE?
A. This process ensures a homogenous pheotype in heterozygotes
B. X inactivation occurs early in embronic development
C. X inactivation may occasionally occurs in males
D. The process is entirely random

27. The nucleus divides during the _____ cell cycle phase and the cytoplasm
divides during the ____ cell cycle phase
A. Mitosis, mitosis
 B. Cytokinesis, mitosis
C. Mitosis, cytokinesis
D. G1, G2

28. Which of these is the best example of the dominance hypothesis?

A. Two inbreed wheat strains are homozygous for deleterious recessive
alleles for different genes, which mildly decrease yeild. Hybrids of
these two inbred strains are heterozygous for each locus, and display
a dramatic increase in yeild over eitheir parent
B. Two inbred wheat strains are homozygous for deleterious dominant
alleles for different genes, which mildly decrease yeild. Hybrids of
these two inbreed strains are heterozygous for each locus, and display
a dramatic increase in yeild over either parent
C. Two inbred wheat strains are homozygous for different codominant
alleles at a single locus. Hybrids of these two inbred strains are
heterozygous for this locus and display an increase in yield over either
parent due to an interaction between the gene products of both
alleles.
D. All of the above illustrate the dominance hypothesis

29. If the map distance genes A and B is 15 map units and the map distance
between genes B and C is 40 map uits, what is the map distance between
genes A and C?
A. 45 map units
B. 55 map units
C. 25 map units
D. Either 25 map units or 55 map units, depending on the order of the
genes

30. Subpopulations (also known as local populations) are:

A. Subsets of a population whose individuals are more likely to mate with
each other than with other members of the general population
B. Often separated by a geographic barrier
C. Able to mate with other members of the same general population
D. All of the above
31. In the cross AaBb x aabb, probability for offspring have dominant
phenotype is ________ if alleles A and B are completely dominant over a
and b
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. None of the above

32. Which piece of evidence privides the strongest support for the
endosymbiosis theory?
A. All eukaryotes have mitochondrion, but not all have chloroplasts
B. Genes in chloroplasts and mitochondrion have a high degree of
similarity to bacterial genes
C. Some genes which control mitochondrial or chloroplast function are
located in the nucleus
D. All of these

33. Height, weight, number of bristles in Drosophila, ear length in corn, and
the degree of pigmentation in flowers and skin are example of
physiological traits
A. True
B. False

34. Pedigree

35. Somatic cells hybrid technique is not used for genetic mapping
A. True
B. False

36. For genes which have multiple alleles, the relationship between those
alleles can be a variety of types of dominant/ recessive relationships
A. True
B. False
37. Which of these might be considered a neutral mutation?
A. A mutation in the wobble base of a lysine codon of the gene for an
essential metabolic protein
B. A nonsense mutation in a gene required for correct assembly of the
cytoskeleton
C. A mutation in an intron splice recognition site in a unique
aminoacyltransferase.
D. All of these might be considered neutral mutations

38. A high chi square value always means that our hypothesis is wrong
A. False
B. True

39. When a geneticist abolishes gene function by creating an organism that is

homozygous for a loss of function allele, the resulting organism is said to
be undergone a _______
A. Gene knockdown
B. Gene knockin
C. None of these
D. Gene knowout

40. What is the difference between between cross-fertilization and self-

fertilization
A. In the case of plants, cross-fertilization when the pollen and eggs
come from the same plants, whereas in self-fertilization they come
from the same plants
B. In the case of plants, cross-fertilization when the pollen and eggs
come from the same plants, whereas in self-fertilization they come
from the different plants
C. In the case of plants, cross-fertilization when the pollen and eggs
come from the different plants, whereas in self-fertilization they
come from the different plants
D. In the case of plants, cross-fertilization when the pollen and eggs
come from the different plants, whereas in self-fertilization they
come from the same plants
41. What is the main function of DNA?
A. It provides energy for cells
B. It can be mutated
C. It stored information for protein synthesis
D. It directs the process of protein synthesis

42. Pedigree analysis can be used to follow the Mendelian inheritance of

traits in humans
A. True
B. False

43. In some species, meiosis is followed by a mitotic division to produce eight

spores, known as an octad. In Ascomycete fungi, the cells of a tetrad or
octad are contained within sac known as ascus
A. True
B. False

44. The inheritance pattern occurs when the heterozygote has a phenotype
that is intermediate between either corresponding homozygote
A. Overdominance
B. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Incomplete penetrate

45. How might the function of extracellular endonucleases help protect the
bacterium from infection by viruses ?
A. They would destroy the viral coat, so it cannot inject its genetic
material
B. They prevent the virus from binding to the outside of the bacterial
cell
C. They would cut the viral DNA into small pieces
D. All of the above
46. Albinism in humans is controlled by a single gene. You observe a population
of humans where 82% are albino and the rest are normally pigmented.
Which trait is recessive?
A. Normal pigmentation
B. Albino pigmentation
C. Neither; these alleles are codominant
D. There is not enough information to determine which trait is recessive

47. During which phase of meiosis does the segregation described by mendel
primarily occur ?
A. Segregation does not occur during meiosis
B. Meiosis II
C. Meiosis I
D. Segregation occurs equally in meiosis I and meiosis II

48. All sexually reproducing organisms are diploid

A. True
B. False

49. The ___________ is the set of all genes, or genetic information, in any
population, usually of a particular species
A. Gene pool
B. Transcriptome
C. Genetic resource
D. Genome

50. A semilethal allele is an example of which of the following extensions of

Mendelian genetics?
A. Incomplete penetrance
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Variable expressivity
D. Overdominance

51. Sex limited inheritance refers to traits that are located on the X or Y
chromosome
 A. True
B. False

52. The term sex-influenced inheritance refers to the phenomenon in which

an allele is dominant in one sex but recessive in the opposite sex.
Therefore, sex influence is a phenomenon of heterozygotes
A. True
B. False

53. The life cycle of the fungus usually includes asexual and sexual
reproduction
A. True
B. False

54. A trait that appears to be dominant in one sex but recessive in the other
is called:
A. A sex linited trait
B. None of the above
C. A sex influenced trait
D. A sex linked trait

55. In most natural populations, many genes are polymorphic

A. True
B. False

56. The p values given on the chi square chart indicate probability of that
much variation occurring by random chance alone.
A. True
B. False

57. Lethal alleles violate the rules of Mendelian inheritance

A. True
B. False
 58. Horizontal genes transfer is the trasfer of genes between different
species
A. True
B. False

59. Which of the following examples would NOT be consistent with a gene
dosage effect?
A. Males with one normal allele for the X linked gene dystrophin are
unaffected, while females (who shut off one of their two X
chromosomes) with one normal allele for dystrophin may be mildly
affected with muscular dystrophy.
B. Flower color in four-o-clocks seems to be incompletely dominant.
C. In fruit flies, homozygotes for an allele that produces a small amount
of functional protein are severely abnormal but survive to adulthood,
while homozygotes for an allele that produces no protein at all die as
embryos.
D. In bees, males normally are haploid while females normally are diploid.

60. In humans, XXY individuals are males with Klinefelter syndrome which of
the following events could not give rise to a Klinefelter male?
A. Nondisjunction at meiosis II in the mother
B. Nondisjunction at meiosis I in the mother
C. Nondisjunction at meiosis II in the father
D. Nondisjunction at meiosis I in the father

Code 034
1. An allele that is not expressed in a heterozygote is an example of a(n):
A. Allele
B. Gene
C. Recessive trait
D. Dominant trait
2. An alloploid that has one set of chromosome from 2 different species is
called allodiploid
A. True
B. False

3. Sex limited inheritance refers to traits that are located on the X or Y

chromosome
A. False
B. True

4. While studying for your genetics exam, a fellow student comments that the
albino coat color gene in mice must be recessive. What mistake did they
make?
A. The gene that controls the coat color character comes in both
dominant and recessive forms
B. The black coat color gene is actually dominant
C. The albino coat color gene is actually dominant
D. Coat color in mice cannot be easily described in dominant/ recessive
relationship

5. In most natural populations, many genes are polymorphic

A. True
B. False

6. The inheritance pattern ocurs when the heterozygote express both alleles
simultaneously
A. Overdominance
B. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Incomplete penetrance

7. Which of these definitions of heritability is most correct ?

A. The total amount of genetic variation in a population
B. The total amount of phenotypic variation in a population
 C. The proportion of phenotypic variation in a population that is due to
genetic factors
D. The proportion of phenotypic variation in a population that is due to
environmental factors
8. The term genomic imprinting refers to an analogous situation in which a
segment of DNA is marked, and that mark is retained and regconized
throughout the life of the organism inheriting the marked DNA
A. False
B. True

9. How are meiosis and gametogenesis linked in plant ?

A. Meiosis produces haploid gametes that are modified by the sporophyte to
produce functional gametes
B. They are not linked in any way
C. Meiosis produces haploid gametes directly
D. Meiosis produces a haploid cell that divided by mitosis to form a
gametophyte, which then produces gametes by mitosis

10. What is the main function of DNA?

A. It can be mutated
B. It provides eergy for cell
C. It direct the process of protein synthesis
D. It stores information for protein synthesis

11. Which of the following examples would NOT be consistent with a gene
dosage effect?
A. Males with one normal allele for the X linked gene dystrophin are
unaffected, while females (who shut off one of their two X
chromosomes) with one normal allele for dystrophin may be mildly
affected with muscular dystrophy.
B. Flower color in four-o-clocks seems to be incompletely dominant.
C. In fruit flies, homozygotes for an allele that produces a small amount
of functional protein are severely abnormal but survive to adulthood,
while homozygotes for an allele that produces no protein at all die as
embryos.
 D. In bees, males normally are haploid while females normally are diploid.

12. In fungi, the homothalic forms are capable of combining the same cell (eg. A
with a or α with α) , whereas heterothalic forms are only capable of
combining 2 different cells ( a to α)
A. True
B. False

13. The location on a chromosome that harbors one or more genes that affect
the out come of a quantitative trait is called QTL
A. True
B. False

14. In a study of rate of weight gain in pigs, scientists crossed two very
different breeds of pigs and interbred the offspring for several
generations. When they analyzed the F4 offspring, even though all the pigs
were raised on the same farm and given the same feed, there were dramatic
differences in the rate of weight gain, measured both as pounds of gain per
day and number of days to reach market weight. When graphing either
statistic for a large number of pigs, a continuous distribution was found.
Which of the following statements is the most correct?
A. Rate of weight gain in pigs is primarily controlled by environmental
factors
B. There are probably only a few genetic factors controlling this trait.
C. This trait is controlled by a large number of genetic factors.
D. This trait is not affected by environmental factors.

15. In the cross AaBb x aabb, probability for offspring have dominant phenotype
is ________ if alleles A and B are completely dominant over a and b
E. 25%
F. 50%
G. 100%
H. None of the above
16. _________ requires direct contact betweeen a donor and a recipient cell.
The donor cell transfers a strand of DNA to the recipient
A. Transduction
B. All of these
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation

17. Quantitative traits are probably controlled by single genes

A. True
B. False

18. Which of these describes a Holliday junction?

A. A section of DNA where base pairing is not exact
B. A three stranded DNA structure where single stranded DNA has invaded
a double helix
C. An interaction of 2 strands of DNA from homologous chromosomes
D. A strand DNA containing genetic material from 2 different chromosomes

19. Self-incompatibility is one of the most important means to prevent selfing

and promote the generation of new genotypes in plants, and it is considered
as one of the causes for the spread and success of the angiosperms on the
earth
A. True
B. False

20. Which of the following is not true maternal effect gene?

A. It may contrl deposition of maternal into oocytes
B. It is located in the nuclear DNA
C. Maternal genotype affects offspring phenotypes
D. It must be located on the X chromosome

21. The multiple effects os a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is

called pleiotropy:
A. True
B. False

22. Pedigree

23. The inheritance pattern occurs when the heterozygote has a trait that is
more beneficial than either homozygote
 A. Incomplete dominance
B. Codominance
C. Overdominance
D. Incomplete penetrate
24. Which of these is the best example of the dominance hypothesis?
A. Two inbreed wheat strains are homozygous for deleterious recessive
alleles for different genes, which mildly decrease yeild. Hybrids of
these two inbred strains are heterozygous for each locus, and display
a dramatic increase in yeild over eitheir parent
B. Two inbred wheat strains are homozygous for deleterious dominant
alleles for different genes, which mildly decrease yeild. Hybrids of
these two inbreed strains are heterozygous for each locus, and display
a dramatic increase in yeild over either parent
C. Two inbred wheat strains are homozygous for different codominant
alleles at a single locus. Hybrids of these two inbred strains are
heterozygous for this locus and display an increase in yield over either
parent due to an interaction between the gene products of both
alleles.
D. All of the above illustrate the dominance hypothesis

25. Inbreeding is extremely rare in humans

A. True
B. False

26. Which of the following would be a valuable application of a karyotype?

A. Microscopic analysis could allow identification of unusual cellular
structures.
B. An individual could be matched to a forensic sample based on identical
karyotypes.
C. A specific gene which causes a genetic disorder could be identified.
D. Genetic disorders caused by chromosomal rearrangements could be
diagnosed.

27. Pairs of alleles that separate during gamete formation illustrate the
A. Punnett square
 B. Law of independent assortment
C. Law of segregation
D. Law of the product

28. In a cross of AABB x aabb, how frequent are heterozygotes at both gene
pairs among the F2 offspring?
A. 1/16
B. 9/16
C. ¼
D. 3/16

29. Unordered tetrad analysis is useful for determining recombination

frequencies
A. True
B. False

30. Which of the following were key reasons for Mendel's success in elucidating
his genetic laws?
A. Mendel had a strong understanding of the chemical nature of cells and
knew DNA was passed on between generations.
B. Mendel carefully established true breeding lines and used them in
hybridization experiments carried out over multiple generations.
C. Mendel's use of peas as a model organism and his experience with plant
breeding in his father's orchard.
D. Mendel was able to dedicate the efforts of a large research team and
arranged to have very large test plots available for growing the numbers
of plants required.

31. A visible site of crossing over is known as a _________

A. Kinetochore
B. Centromeres
C. Map unit
D. Chiasma
32. Red-green color-blindness is controlled by an X chromosomal gene in humans.
A normal man whose father is color-blind marries a woman whose mother is
color-blind. What is the probability that their first child will be color-blind?
A. ½
B. 1/3
C. 1/8
D. ¼

33. When a geneticist abolishes gene function by creating an organism that is

homozygous for a loss of function allele, the resulting organism is said to be
undergone a _______
A. Gene knockdown
B. Gene knockin
C. None of these
D. Gene knowout

34. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a characteristic of a model

organism?
A. Ability to manipulate their genomes
B. Possess a genome that is closely related to the human genome
C. Ability to be bred experimantally
D. Ability to be bred experimantally and ability to manipulate their
genomes

35. Atherosclerosis, hypertension, cancer, diabetes, arthritis, and obesity are

examples of __________
A. Behavioral traits
B. Physiological traits
C. Diseases
D. Anatomical traits

36. The ___________ is the set of all genes, or genetic information, in any
population, usually of a particular species
A. Gene pool
B. Transcriptome
 C. Genetic resource
D. Genome

37. The term sex-influenced inheritance refers to the phenomenon in which an

allele is dominant in one sex but recessive in the opposite sex. Therefore,
sex influence is a phenomenon of heterozygotes
A. True
B. False

38. Subpopulations (also known as local populations) are:

A. Subsets of a population whose individuals are more likely to mate with
each other than with other members of the general population
B. Often separated by a geographic barrier
C. Able to mate with other members of the same general population
D. All of the above

39. Suppose the L and M genes are on the same chromosome but separated by 65
map units. What fraction of the progeny from the cross LM/lm x lm/lm would
be Lm/lm?
A. 32.5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%

40. During which phase of meiosis does the segregation described by mendel
primarily occur ?
A. Segregation does not occur during meiosis
B. Meiosis II
C. Meiosis I
D. Segregation occurs equally in meiosis I and meiosis II

41. Pedigree
42. What is the main difference between the dominance and over dominance
hypothesis?
A. Overdominance requires interactions between alleles of the same gene
 B. Overdominance requires the presence of recessive alleles for the genes
involved
C. Overdominance requires interactions between alleles of different genes
D. All of these are correct

43. A semilethal allele is an example of which of the following extensions of

Mendelian genetics?
A. Incomplete penetrance
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Variable expressivity
D. Overdominance

44. Which of the following is a correct description for mitosis?

A. Cell division of prokaryotic cells
B. The process whereby a eukaryotic cell is created from a prokaryote
C. A sorting mechanism which accompanies cell division in eukaryote cell
D. A mechanism which reduces chromosome number from diploid to haploid
during gametes formation

45. Somatic cell hybrid technique is not used for genetic mapping
A. True
B. False

46. Genetic mapping allows us to estimate the _____ between linked genes based
on the likelihood that a crossover will occur between them
A. Obsolute distances
B. Relative distances
C. Physical distances
D. Map distances

47. In some species, meiosis is followed by a mitotic division to produce eight

spores, known as an octad. In Ascomycete fungi, the cells of a tetrad or
octad are contained within sac known as ascus
A. True
B. False
48. The mitochondrial genetic disorders often cause serious consequences
leading to neuromuscular disease, memory impairment, impaired vision, loss of
sensation and perception space
A. True
B. False

49. Symbiotic infective particles:

A. Tend to be inherited in a nextranuclear pattern
B. Have their own DNA
C. Appear to be similar to viruses in function
D. All of these

50. Drosophila females are capable of storing sperm and using it to fertilize eggs
long after mating. How might this present a problem for a geneticist?
A. In order to design a specific cross, females must be prevented from
mating with anyother strain of males
B. This allows Drosophila females to “select” sperm from the stronger
male
C. Individual offspring from these females may have more than 1 father
D. This should not present a problem for a geneticist; it is merely a
reproductive advantage to the fly if the population size is low

51. Pedigree

52. What do transduction, transformation, and conjugation have in common

A. All requires presence of an outside factor to facilitated gene transfer
B. In all 3 processes, DNA is transferred as a single stranded molecule
C. They all transfer large pieces odDna into recipient cells
D. None of these above

53. The probability that 2 heterozygous produce an affected and a heterozygous

offspring is 3/4 . Keep in mind that each offspring is considered a seperated
event
A. True
 B. False
54. In some cases, the tyoes of dominance relationship observed depends on how
the phenotype is defined
A. True
B. False

55. Pedigree

56. The alleles present in an individual for a given trait constitues its:
A. Heterozygote
B. Homozygote
C. Genotype
D. Phenotype

57. Epistasis is a genetic condition in which certain alleles of one locus can alter
the expressity of alleles of a different locus
A. True
B. False

58. The diploid zygote can then proceed through meiosis to produce four haploid
cells. Are celled spores. This group of 4 spores is known as a tetrad.
A. True
B. False

59. Pedigree

60. The gene pool is the variety of alleles of a particular gene present in a given
species
A. True
B. False
 Code 105
1. What is a restriction point?
A. A point at which a cell is prevented from proceeding through the cell
cycle.
B. A point at which a cell has become committed to proceeding through the
cell cycle to cell division.
C. A point at which the cell density in a population has become too high and
none of the cells are allowed to divide.
D. None of these.

2. A cross in which an experiment is observing only one trait is called a _____,

also called a _____
A. Multiple factor cross, monohybrid cross
B. Multiple fator cross, dyhrid cross
C. None of these
D. Single – factor cros, monohybrid cross

3. In the cross AABB x aabb, how frequent are heterozygote at both gene pairs
among the F2 offspring?
A. 3/16
B. 1/16
C. 9/16
D. ¼

4. One gene can have multiple effect on anrganism

A. True
B. False

5. For qunatitative traits , two individuals with the same genotype may have
different phentypes
A. True
B. False

6. Genetic mapping allows us to estimate the _____ between linked genes based
on the likelihood that a crossover will occur between them
A. Obsolute distances
B. Relative distances
 C. Physical distances
D. Map distances
7. Which of these might be considered a neutral mutation?
A. A mutation in the wobble base of a lysine codon of the gene for an
essential metabolic protein
B. A nonsense mutation in a gene required for correct assembly of the
cytoskeleton
C. A mutation in an intron splice recognition site in a unique
aminoacyltransferase.
D. All of these might be considered neutral mutations

8. In mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the

dominant to recessive ratio was
A. 9 3 3 1
B. 1 3 1
C. 9 7
D. 3 1
9. __________ is the masking of one gene’s phenotype by another
A. Epistasis
B. Mutation
C. Phenocopy
D. Penetrate
10. The ratio refer to medelian ratio is
A. 9 7
B. 1 3 1
C. 1 3 3 1
D. 3 1
11. Which structure of the plant becomes the part of an apple that you eat
A. The embryo sac
B. The megaspore
C. The ovary
D. The ovule
12. Unequal crossing over may account for all of the following except
A. Microsatellites
B. Deletions
C. SNPs
D. Duplication
13. Phenotypic variation may also be influenced by interactions and association
between genotypes and the environment
 A. True
B. False
14. ______ means that the pollen of a plant is unable to develop a pollen tube at
the stigma of the same plant, while pollen of another plant of the same
species does fertilize the plant
A. In-fertiliation
B. Pollen formation
C. Self-incompability
D. Emasculation
15. ______ are particularly interested in ______ and how that variation is
related to an organism’s environment
A. Population genetics, genetic variation
B. Population geneticist, population genetics
C. Population gentics, quantitative genetics
D. Population geneticists, genetic variation
16. How is genetic transfer different from sexual reproduction?
A. In genetic transfer, genetic material is transferred form one individual
to another
B. None of these
C. In both processes, the individual donating gentic material retains ther
original complement of genetic material
D. IN sexual reproduction, genetic material from 2 individuals is mixed
equally
17. which of the following processes can generate recombinant gametes
A. segration of alleles in a heterozygous
B. Crossing over between two linked heterozygous loci
C. Independent assortment of two unlinked heterozygous loci
D. B & C
18. A genetic phenomenon known as positive interference when the occurance of
a cross in one region of a chromosome decreases the probability that a
second crossover will occur nearby
A. False
B. True
19. A mutation in which most of the protein coding sequence of the gene is
removed is likely to be which types of alleles
A. Lethal
B. Sex-limited
C. Loss of function
 D. Dominant
20. Pedigree
21. Pedigree
22. Morgan was able to demonstrate linkage of genes to chromosomes because
he studied X linked gene
A. True
B. False
23. Conjugation involves direct transfer of gentic material from 1 bacterum to
another
A. true
B. Flase
24. Mendel had extensive training in biology and heredity prior to his
groundbreaking work
A. True
B. False
25. The inheritance pattern occurs when the heterozygote has a phenotype that
is intermediate between either corresponding homozygote
A. Overdominance
B. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Incomplete penetrate
26. Theoretically, the monozygote twins have identical genetic material _______
while fratermal twins have _______ number of the genes identical and
_____
A. 50%, 100%, may have the same of different gender
B. 100%, 50%, may have the same gender
C. 100%, 50%, may have the same or different gender
D. 50%, 100%, may have the same gender
27. Self-incompability (SI) is a general name for several genetic mechnisms in
angiosperms, which prevent self-fertilization and thus encourage outcrossing.
In a plant with SI, when a pollen grain produced in a plant reaches a stigma
of the same plant or another plant with a different genotype, the process of
pollen germination, pollen tube growth, ovule fertilization, and embryo
development is halted at one of its stages and consequently no seed are
produced
 A. True
B. False
28. The term _____ refers to different versions of the same gene
A. Chromatid
B. Trait
C. None of these
D. Allele
29. An allele that is not expressed in a heterozygote is an example of a (n)
A. Gene
B. Allele
C. Dominant trait
D. Recessive trait
30. What is the major different between sexual and asexual reproduction?
A. Sexual reproduction does not require cell division
B. Asexual reproduction cannot occur in eukaryotes
C. Asexual reproduction cannot occur in diploid species
D. Asexual reproduction produces offsprings identical to the parents
31. The term linkage has 2 related meanings. First, linkage refers to the
phenomenon that two or more gene may be located on the same cromosome.
The gene are physically linked to each other, because each eukaryotic
chromosome contains a single, continuous, linear molecule of DNA. Second,
genes that are close together on the same chromosome tend to be
transmitted as a unit
A. True
B. False
32. Heterosis may be explained by dominance or overdominance
A. True
B. False
33. Double crossover can occur between multiple chromatids
A. True
B. False
34. Which of the following is a correct description for mitosis?
A. Cell division of prokaryotic cells
B. The process whereby a eukaryotic cell is created from a prokaryote
C. A sorting mechanism which accompanies cell division in eukaryote cell
 D. A mechanism which reduces chromosome number from diploid to haploid
during gametes formation
35. Chi square analysis can help distinguish between 2 competing hypothesis
A. True
B. False
36. The mitochondrial genetic disorders often cause serious consequences
leading to neuromuscular disease, memory impairment, impaired vision, loss of
sensation and perception space
A. True
B. False
37. In a study of rate of weight gain in pigs, scientists crossed two very
different breeds of pigs and interbred the offspring for several
generations. When they analyzed the F4 offspring, even though all the pigs
were raised on the same farm and given the same feed, there were dramatic
differences in the rate of weight gain, measured both as pounds of gain per
day and number of days to reach market weight. When graphing either
statistic for a large number of pigs, a continuous distribution was found.
Which of the following statements is the most correct?
A. Rate of weight gain in pigs is primarily controlled by environmental
factors
B. There are probably only a few genetic factors controlling this trait.
C. This trait is controlled by a large number of genetic factors.
D. This trait is not affected by environmental factors.
38. When a bacterial cell dies, it releases a fragment of its DNA into the
environment. This DNA fragment is taken up by a recipient cell, which
incorporated the DNA into its chromosome
A. Transduction
B. All of these
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
39. A picture
40. Epistasis is a genetic condition in which certain alleles of one locus can alter
the expressity of alleles of a different locus
A. True
 B. False
41. Any individual having only one copy of a gene is the same as any other
individual having only one copy of a gene
A. True
B. False
42. Medelian inheriatnce may be difficult to analyze beacause of all the following
except:
A. Continuous variation
B. Epistasis
C. Pleiotropic effects
D. Formation of Barr bodies
43. Horizontal gene transfer may be mediated via conjugation but not
transduction or trasnformation
A. True
B. False
44. Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material, from largest
to smallest
A. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
B. Gene, chromosome, nucleotide, genome
C. Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
D. Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
45. Which of the following would be a valuable application of a karyotype?
A. Microscopic analysis could allow identification of unusual cellular
structures.
B. An individual could be matched to a forensic sample based on identical
karyotypes.
C. A specific gene which causes a genetic disorder could be identified.
D. Genetic disorders caused by chromosomal rearrangements could be
diagnosed
46. Parental phenotype in the offspring are the most common in a mapping cross
A. True
B. False
47. If the number of chromosomes in a normal organisms set is 2n, how many
chromosomes will the oocyte contain after meiosis
A. 1/2n
 B. 2n
C. N
D. 6n
48. Which is an example of a study that might be dome by a transmission
geneticist?
A. DNA sequencing allows geneticistts to determined thediffenrence
between the short and long variants of a newly discovered gene
B. Geneticists are able to clone and express a gene to produce human insulins
C. A geneticist collects family histories in order to study the mechanism of
transmission of a genetic disoder
D. A comparision between many individuals indicated that the “short” variant
of a particular gene seem s to increase risk for alcoholism
49. An underlying assumption about linkage can be given by ______ and a
statistical test of linkage is called ______
A. A null hypothesis/ chi square
B. Chromosomal interference/ null hypothesis
C. A null hypothesis/ chromosomal interference
D. Chi square/ null hypothesis
50. Bacteria can transfer geentic material during conjugation
A. True
B. False
51. You cross a truebreeding normal corn plant with a true breeding plant with
variegated seed coat and colorless endosperm. You suspect the genes are
linked, so you cross one of the resulting normal offspring to a true breeding
variegated, colorless plant. What are your expected results if the genes are
completely linked?
A. 1 normal: 1 variegated: 1 colorless: 1 variegated and colorless
B. 9 normal: 3 variegated: 3 colorless: 1 variegated and colorless
C. 3 normal: 1 variegated and colorless
D. 3 variegated and colorless: 1 normal
52. _______ occurs when a virus infects a donor cell, it incorporated a fragment
of bacterial chromosomal DNA into a newly made virus particle. The virus
then transfers this fragment of DNA to a recipient cell
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
 C. Allof these
D. Transduction
53. Which statement regarding recombination is false
A. Gene conversion may occur during recombinaiton
B. Sister chromatid exchange is a form of recombination
C. Recombination commonly occurs between homologous sequences
D. Recombination creates new combinations of alleles on a chromosome
54. Genetic variance and environmental variance both may contribute to
phenotype variance
A. True
B. False
55. The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is
called pleiotropy
A. True
B. False
56. Twins studies help to detect and evaluate the role of environment nad
genotype formation of each individual traits and genetic behavior
A. True
B. False
57. For alleles that display incomplete dominance, the phonotype ratio expected
in the F2 generation os a monohybrid cross would be the same as the
genotypic ratio
A. True
B. False
58. Pedigree
59. Which are more abundant?
A. Minisatellite
B. Microsatellites
C. Mutation
D. SNPs
60. How could you verify that a gene you suspect to be X linked is actually
located on the X chromosome?
A. Set up a crosses between the F1 and both parental types
B. Set up a two point test cross with another gene known to be located on
the X
 C. Set up reciprocal crosses and two point test cross with another
geneknown to be located on the X
D. Set up reciprocal crosses

Code 78
1. Heterosis may be explained by dominance or overdominance
A. True
B. False
2. What is the major different between sexual and asexual reproduction?
A. Sexual reproduction does not require cell division
B. Asexual reproduction cannot occur in eukaryotes
C. Asexual reproduction cannot occur in diploid species
D. Asexual reproduction produces offsprings identical to the parents
3. Lethal alleles violate the rules of Medelianinheriatance
A. True
B. False
4. Pedigree analysis can be used to follow the Mendelian inheritance of traits in
human
A. True
B. False
5. _________ requires direct contact betweeen a donor and a recipient cell.
The donor cell transfers a strand of DNA to the recipient
A. Transduction
B. All of these
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
6. Like chromosomal DNA, the chloroplast DNA is circular double-stranded
DNA associated with histone proteins
A. True
B. False
7. Gene expression can be defined as the process of transcription and
translation
A. True
B. False
8. _______ occurs when a virus infects a donor cell, it incorporated a fragment
of bacterial chromosomal DNA into a newly made virus particle. The virus
then transfers this fragment of DNA to a recipient cell
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Allof these
D. Transduction
9. The alleles present in an individual for a given trait constitute its:
A. Heteroygous
B. Homozygous
C. Phenotype
D. Genotype
10. Which of the following most accurately restates mendel’s laws of
segregation?
A. Genes can exist in different forms, known as alleles
B. Genes on different chromosomes are inherited independently
C. Genes are inherited in discrete units from one generation to the next
D. Homologous chromosome separate during gamete formation
11. Morgan was able to demonstrate linkage of genes to chromosomes because
he studied X linked gene
a. True
b. False
12. An example in which sex affects an organism’s pheotype is provided by sex
limited inheritance, in which the trait occurs in only one of the two sexes
A. True
B. False
13. Although the genetic control of inactivation is not entirely understood at the
molecular level, a short region on te X chromosome called the X-inactivation
canter (Xic) is known to play a critical role
A. True
B. False
14. A chi square value below the critical value means that our hypothesis is
correct
A. True
B. False
15. The name of a chromosome map unit is
A. Centistem
B. Millimendel
C. Centimorgan
D. Decibarr
16. The chromosome theory of inheriatance allows us to see the realtionship
between laws and chromosomal transmission
A. False
B. True
17. How is genetic transfer different from sexual reproduction?
A. In genetic transfer, geentic material is transferred from one individual to
another
B. None of these
C. In both processes, the individual donating gentic material retains ther
original complement of genetic material
D. IN sexual reproduction, genetic material from 2 individuals is mixed
equally
18. The nucleus divides during the _____ cell cycle phase and the cytoplasm
divides during the ____ cell cycle phase
A. Mitosis, mitosis
B. Cytokinesis, mitosis
C. Mitosis, cytokinesis
D. G1, G2
19. Which of the following is not true maternal effect gene?
A. It may contrl deposition of maternal into oocytes
B. It is located in the nuclear DNA
C. Maternal genotype affects offspring phenotypes
D. It must be located on the X chromosome
20. Which of the following model organisms posseses many of the same
information processing network as in humans/.
A. Drosophila melanogaster
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Mus musculus
21. In a group of fruit flies homozygous for an allele that causes a reduced
number of thoracic bristles, you notice that the number of bristles varies
 from about half the normal number to only a few bristles. This is an example
of which of the following?
A. Incomplete penetrance
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Overdominance
D. Variable expressity
22. Which of these is an example of a quantitative trait
A. A study compares rats with and without pigment in the irises of their
eyes.
B. Chinese strains of pigs have larger numbers of piglets per litter than
American strains
C. Caterpillars exposed to juvenile hormone mimics are unable to
metamorphose into adults.
D. All of these are quantitative traits.
23. As previously mentioned, complete nondis-junction, due to a general defect in
the spindle apparatus, can produce an individual with one or more extra sets
of chromosomes. This individual is known as an autopolyploid
A. True
B. False
24. Analysis of genetic diseases in humans and animals allows to detect gene
mutations: single gene (monogenic genetic diseases), multiple genes
(multifactorial / polygonic genetic diseases), chromosomal mutations
(chromosomal genetic diseases), mutation mitochondrial genome
(mitochondrial genetic diseases)
A. False
B. True
25. By what process is the λ viral DNA inserted in to the E.coli chromosome
during lysogeny?
A. Integral ligation
B. Strand invasion
C. Homologous recombination
D. Site specific recombination
26. In a cell with a diploid chromosome number (2n) of 12, there are 12
chromosomes per set
A. True
 B. False
27. The inheritance pattern occurs when the heterozygote has a trait that is
more beneficial than either homozygote
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Codominance
C. Overdominance
D. Incomplete penetrate
28. Inheritance patterns of human diseases may be determined via pedigree
analysis
A. True
B. False
29. When a bacterial cell dies, it releases a fragment of its DNA into the
environment. This DNA fragment is taken up by a recipient cell, which
incorporated the DNA into its chromosome
A. Transduction
B. All of these
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
30. ________ states that: The two copies of a gene segregate (or separate)
from each other during transmission from parent to offspring
A. None of these
B. Mendel’s law of segregation
C. Mendel’s law of dominance
D. Mendel’s law of independent assortment
31. Bacterial cells that are able to take up DNA are known as competent cells
A. True
B. False
32. In generalized transduction, random bits of the bacterial chromosome are
packed in a phage head
A. True
B. False
33. Suppose the L and M genes are on the same chromosome but separated by 65
map units. What fraction of the progeny from the cross LM/lm x lm/lm would
be Lm/lm?
A. 32.5%
 B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
34. A individual who has 2 of the same allele is said to be
A. Homologous
B. Heterozygous
C. Homozygous
D. Heteromologous
35. In a population of Drosophila, 200 individuals have bright red eyes and are
homozygous for the wild type allele of a specific gene, 28 individuals have
bright red eyes and are heterozygous at that locus, and 13 individuals have
dull brown eyes and are homozygous for a mutant version of the gene. What
is the homozygous recessive genotype frequency?
A. 0.05
B. 0.17
C. 0.83
D. 0.95
36. The ratio often referred to the Mendelia ratio is
A. 1 3 3 1
B. 9 7
C. 3 1
D. 1 3 1
37. Theoretically, the monozygote twins have identical genetic material _______
while fratermal twins have _______ number of the genes identical and
_____
A. 50%, 100%, may have the same of different gender
B. 100%, 50%, may have the same gender
C. 100%, 50%, may have the same or different gender
D. 50%, 100%, may have the same gender
38. Recombination in mitosis is occuring phenomenon crossovers between
homologous chromatid in mitosis
A. True
B. False
39. Which of the following is the best example of overdominance?
 A. Two lines of true breeding white parents produce purple flowered
offspring
B. Two lines of true breeding tomatoes that are susceptible to
verticillium wilt (a fungal infection) produce offspring that are
resistant to verticillium wilt
C. Two true breeding lines, one tall and one short, produce offspring of
medium height
D. Two true breeding lines, one tall and one short, produce all tall
offspring
40. Cytoplasmic inheritance is not follow the rules of Medelian genetics because
extrachromosomal genetic elements are not under the control of the nucleus
A. True
B. False
41. The mitochondrial genetic disorders often cause serious consequences
leading to neuromuscular disease, memory impairment, impaired vision, loss of
sensation and perception space
A. True
B. False
42. A representation of phenotypic ratios of offspring is given by the
A. Law of segregation
B. Product rule
C. Punnett square
D. Independent assortment
43. Which of the following is a correct definition of genetics
A. The study of transmission of traits from parent to offspring
B. The study of variation between members of a species
C. The study of genes and traits defined by genes
D. The study of DNA
44. In population genetics, the term polymorphism refers to the observation
that many triats display variation within a population
A. True
B. False
45. The term _____ gene refers to a gene that is found on one of the 2 types of
sex chromosomes but not both
A. Y linked
 B. X linked
C. Sex linked
D. None of these
46. The children borned in consanguineous mating have high risk of geentic
disorder due to the effect of dominant alleles
A. True
B. False
47. Which of the following would be a valuable application of a karyotype?
A. Microscopic analysis could allow identification of unusual cellular
structures.
B. An individual could be matched to a forensic sample based on identical
karyotypes.
C. A specific gene which causes a genetic disorder could be identified.
D. Genetic disorders caused by chromosomal rearrangements could be
diagnosed.
48. Most behavioral traits are affected by many different genetic influences as
well as environment. The best descriptor for such traits is :
A. Mendelian
B. None of these
C. Highly heriable
D. Polygenic
49. The single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) can be used to label and to
construct genetic mapping
A. True
B. False
50. What is a restriction point?
A. A point at which a cell is prevented from proceeding through the cell
cycle.
B. A point at which a cell has become committed to proceeding through the
cell cycle to cell division.
C. A point at which the cell density in a population has become too high and
none of the cells are allowed to divide.
D. None of these
51. Bacteria can transfer genetic material during conjugation
A. True
 B. False
52. In fungi, the homothalic forms are capable of combining the same cell (eg. A
with a or α with α) , whereas heterothalic forms are only capable of
combining 2 different cells ( a to α)
A. True
B. False
53. Which is the most correct description of a dominant traits
A. The most common triat in the population
B. A trait confers a selective advantages to the organism and thus increase
its frequency of reproduction
C. The trait that is seen in a heteroygous organism (hybrid)
D. A trait that reappears in the F2 of a monohybrid cross
54. You would expect individuals with type B blood to produce the anti B antibody
A. True
B. False
55. The haploid generation is called the sporophyte, whereas the diploid
generation is called the gametophyte
A. True
B. False
56. A new phenotype not seen in the parents can arise by
A. Complementation
B. Gene interaction
C. All od these
D. Codominance
57. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a characteristic of a model
organism?
A. Ability to manipulate their genomes
B. Possess a genome that is closely related to the human genome
C. Ability to be bred experimantally
D. Ability to be bred experimantally and ability to manipulate their
genomes
58. For alleles that display incomplete dominance, the phenotypic ratio expected
in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross would be the same as the
genotypic raio
A. True
 B. False
59. the phonotypic effects of a mutation can be reserved by a suppressor
mutation
A. true
B. False
60. A visible site of crossing over is known as a ____
A. Centromere
B. Chiasma
C. Map unit
D. Kinetochore

Code 069

1. Double cross over can occur between multiple chromatids

A. True
B. False
2. Which of these organisms below can be used as model organisms?
1. Caenorhabditis elegans
2. Danio rerio
3. Mus musculus
4. Drosophila melanogaster
5. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
6. E. coli
A. 1,3,4,5,6
B. 1,4,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
D. 1,2,3,4,5,6
3. Which of the following methods is not suitable to study human gentics ?
A. Pedigree analysis and twin studies
B. Population analysis and comparative genome analysis
C. None of these
D. Crossing and population analysis
4. The nucleus divides during the _____ cell cycle phase and the cytoplasm
divides during the ____ cell cycle phase
 A. Mitosis, mitosis
B. Cytokinesis, mitosis
C. Mitosis, cytokinesis
D. G1, G2
5. Parental phenotypes in the offsprings are the most common in a mapping
cross
A. True
B. False
6. Pedigree
7. The degree or intensity with which a particular genotype is expressed in a
phenotype is its
A. Pleiotropy
B. Expressity
C. Penetrate
D. Dominance
8. The single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) can be used to label and to
construct genetic mapping
A. True
B. False
9. Heterosis may be explained by dominance or overdominance
A. True
B. False
10. Meiotic nondisjunction produce haploid cells that have too many or too few
chromosomes
A. True
B. False
11. In linkage mapping, one map unit is equal to one % crossover frequency
A. True
B. False
12. The name for a chromosome map unit is
A. Decibarr
B. Centistem
C. Milimendel
D. Centimorgan
13. The term _____ refers to different versions of the same genes
 A. None of these
B. Chromatid
C. Trait
D. Allele
14. In a population of Drosophila, 200 individuals have bright red eyes and are
homozygous for the wild type allele of a specific gene, 28 individuals have
bright red eyes and are heterozygous at that locus, and 13 individuals have
dull brown eyes and are homozygous for a mutant version of the gene. What
is the homozygous recessive genotype frequency?
A. 0.05
B. 0.17
C. 0.83
D. 0.95
15. Which types of genetic transfer laed to incorporation of new DNA into
bacterial chromosome?
1. Conjugation mediated by F factor
2. Hfr mediated conjugation
3. Transduction
4. Transformation
A. 2,3,4
B. 1,2 only
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 3,4 only
16. Critical value for the chi square test are larger when there are more degrees
of freedom because each class of data is expected to show a small amount of
variation
A. True
B. False
17. In most natural populations, many genes are polymorphic
A. True
B. False
18. Which of the following model organisms posseses many of the same
information processing network as in humans/.
A. Drosophila melanogaster
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
 C. Escherichia coli
D. Mus musculus
19. Currently, the estimated number of genes in the human genome is ____
A. 30,000 to 40,000
B. 5,000 to 10,000
C. 20,000 to 30,000
D. 10,000 to 20,000
20. The ratio often referred to the mendelian ratio is
A. 3 1
B. 1 3 3 1
C. 9 7
D. 1 3 1
21. Fusion of gametes is called fertilization and this creates a diploid individual
A. True
B. False
22. The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is
called pleiotropy. Which of following reasons leads to pleiotropy?
A. A gene be expressed in different cell types in a multicellular organism
B. A gene may be expressed at different stages of development
C. One or all of these
D. The expression of a single gene can affect cell function in more thann one
way. For example, a defect in a microtubule protein may affect cell
division and cell movement
23. phenotypic variation may also be influenced by interactions and associations
between genotype and the environment
A. true
B. false
24. I know that black coat color in mice is dominant to albino. Black mice get a
higher price at the pet store so I am disapointed when I cross a black mouse
with an albino mouse and get 6 albino and 2 black mice in the litter. I
excepted all black. What mistake did I made?
A. I assumed that black alleles were more common than white
B. I assumed that my white mouse were true- breeding
C. I assumed that my black mouse were true- breeding
D. I assumed that my white alleles were more common than black
25. In the cross AaBb x AaBb (alleles A and B are completely dominant over a
and b), the ratio of genotype of offsprings is
A. 3 6 3 1 2 1
B. 9 3 3 1
C. 1 1 1 1
D. 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 1
26. If the map distance genes A and B is 15 map units and the map distance
between genes B and C is 40 map uits, what is the map distance between
genes A and C?
A. 45 map units
B. 55 map units
C. 25 map units
D. Either 25 map units or 55 map units, depending on the order of the
genes
27. Which of the following represents a test cross ?
A. WW x WW
B. Ww x WW
C. Ww x Ww
D. ww x Ww
28. Analysis of genetic diseases in humans and animals allows to detect gene
mutations: single gene (monogenic genetic diseases), multiple genes
(multifactorial / polygonic genetic diseases), chromosomal mutations
(chromosomal genetic diseases), mutation mitochondrial genome
(mitochondrial genetic diseases)
A. False
B. True
29. Virulent phages generally follow the lysogenic cycle when infecting bacteria
A. True
B. False
30. Why is tetrad analysis useful for studying genetics?
A. Analysis of simple systems can elucidate general rules that apply more
broadly
B. Cells within a tetrad reflect the events of meiosis
C. All of the above
 D. Cells within a tetrad are haploid so genotypes is directly reflected in
the phenotype

31. Trihybrid mapping cross are more accurate than dihybrid mapping cross
A. True
B. False
32. In population genetics, the term polymorphism refers to the observation
that many traits display variation within a population
A. True
B. False
33. Self-incompability (SI) is a general name for several genetic mechnisms in
angiosperms, which prevent self-fertilization and thus encourage outcrossing.
In a plant with SI, when a pollen grain produced in a plant reaches a stigma
of the same plant or another plant with a different genotype, the process of
pollen germination, pollen tube growth, ovule fertilization, and embryo
development is halted at one of its stages and consequently no seed are
produced
A. True
B. False
34. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a characteristic of a model
organism?
A. Ability to manipulate their genomes
B. Possess a genome that is closely related to the human genome
C. Ability to be bred experimantally
D. Ability to be bred experimantally and ability to manipulate their
genomes
35. Genes on the X or Y chromosomes in humans are not always inherited in a
different pattern than are genes on the autosomes
A. True
B. False
36. An example in which sex effect an organism’s phenotype is provided by sex-
limited inheritance, in which the trait occurs in only one of the two sexes
A. True
B. False
37. Population genetics is concerned with geneticvariation and its role in
evolution
A. True
B. False
38. All sexual reproducing organism are diploid
A. True
B. False
39. What is a restriction point?
A. A point at which a cell is prevented from proceeding through the cell
cycle.
B. A point at which a cell has become committed to proceeding through the
cell cycle to cell division.
C. A point at which the cell density in a population has become too high and
none of the cells are allowed to divide.
D. None of these.
40. Bacterial cells that are able to take up DNA are known as competent cells
A. True
B. False
41. Horizontal gene transfer is the transfer of genes between different species
A. True
B. False
42. Atherosclerosis, hypertension, cancer, diabetes, arthritis, and obesity are
examples of __________
A. Behavioral traits
B. Physiological traits
C. Diseases
D. Anatomical traits
43. You are trying to develop true breeding blue hydranges, but the plants in one
corner of your plot consistently turn pink regerdless of your mating
strategy.Which of the following would you suspect?
A. Multiple genes affecting this trait
B. Incomplete penetrate
C. Environmental effects
D. Variable expressity
44. Statistical test:
 A. Are useful to distinguish between competing hypotheses to explain a
set of data
B. Allow determination of how well a hypothesis predicts a set of
experimental results
C. Can provide a quantifiable measure of goodness of fit
D. B and C
45. Pedigree analysis can be used to follow the mendelian inheritance of trait in
humans
A. True
B. False
46. Genetic variance and environmental variance both may contribute to
phenotypic variance
A. True
B. False
47. From a cross of heterozygotes, which of the following ratios show co-
dominance
A. 2 1
B. 3 1
C. 1 1
D. 1 2 1
48. Pedigree
49. Deletion mapping is more efficientbut less detailed than fine structure
mapping of genes
A. True
B. False
50. Which of the following statements about a lethal allele is NOT correct
A. Lethal allele may be caused by mutations in essential genes
B. Lethal allele may have a late age of onset
C. Lethal allele are always recessive
D. Lethal allele may affect one individual differently than another
51. For quantitative traits, 2 individuals with the same genotype may have
different phenotypes
A. True
B. False
52. Which is NOT a characteristic that made peas useful as a model system for
mendel’s studies
A. They have a complex phenotype with much genetic variability
B. They are diploid and produce haploid gametes
C. They produce edible fruit
D. They are relatively small and easy to grow
53. I do a chi square analysis of the offspring from my cross of a black mouse
and albino mouse. If the black mouse was heterozygous I should have
expected a 1:1 ratio, and I got 6 albino and 2 black mice. What is my chi
square value?
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
54. Mutation can be recessive because cells can increase the amount of
functional protein produced from their remaining normal allele
A. True
B. False
55. Sequential transfer of chromosomal genes is carried out by a (n):
A. Transducing phage
B. Plasmid
C. Transposable element
D. Hfr strain
56. Which of the following is a correct definition of genetics
A. The study of transmission of traits from parent to offspring
B. The study of variation between members of a species
C. The study of genes and traits defined by genes
D. The study of DNA
57. _______ occurs when a virus infects a donor cell, it incorporated a fragment
of bacterial chromosomal DNA into a newly made virus particle. The virus
then transfers this fragment of DNA to a recipient cell
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Allof these
D. Transduction
58. Twin studied help to detect and evaluate the role of environment and
genotype on the formation of each individual traits and genetic behavior
A. True
B. False
59. Unequal crossing over may account for all of the following except:
A. SNPs
B. Deletions
C. Duplication
D. Microsatellites
60. The end result of F factor mediated conjugation:
A. None of the above
B. Involves transfer of the entire bacterial chromosome
C. Converts the recipient strain F+ and the donor to F-
D. Is that both strains are F+
E. A and B
61. Genetic mapping allows us to estimate the _____ between linked genes based
on the likelihood that a crossover will occur between them
A. Map distance
B. Obsolut distance
C. Relative distance
D. Physical distances
62. Pedigree
63. The human genome is distributed over 24 chromosomes
A. True
B. False
64. Which of the following examples would NOT be consistent with a gene
dosage effect?
A. Males with one normal allele for the X linked gene dystrophin are
unaffected, while females (who shut off one of their two X
chromosomes) with one normal allele for dystrophin may be mildly
affected with muscular dystrophy.
B. Flower color in four-o-clocks seems to be incompletely dominant.
C. In fruit flies, homozygotes for an allele that produces a small amount
of functional protein are severely abnormal but survive to adulthood,
 while homozygotes for an allele that produces no protein at all die as
embryos.
D. In bees, males normally are haploid while females normally are diploid.
65. The location on a chromosome that harbors one or more genes that affect
the outcome of a quantitative trait is called a quantitative trait locus (QTL)
A. True
B. False
66. Which method of genes transfer involves direct contact between the
bacteria ?
A. None of these
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. Transformation
67. Haploid cells in the human body
A. Are caused by allelic variation
B. Are a typical example of human cells
C. Are gemetes, which allow sexual reproduction
D. Contain 46 chromosomes
68. The observable characteristics for a given trait is knoen as the
A. Heterozygote
B. Homozygote
C. Genetype
D. Phenotype
69. Albinism in humans is controlled by a single gene, and is recessive. You
observe a population of humans where 82% are albino and the rest are
normally pigmented. What is the allelic frequency of the dominant allele?
A. 0.094
B. 0.088
C. 0.18
D. 0.82
 Code 87

1. The best way to identify an X- linked trait is that the trait affects one sex
morethan the other.
A. true B. false
2. In cell with a diploid chromosome number 2n of 12, there are 12 chromosomes
per set
A. true B. false
3. Heterosis may be explained by dominance or overdominance
A. false B. true
4. Bacteria cells that are able to take up DNA are known as competent cells
A. true B. false
5. Which of the following is a description of generalized transduction?
A. Pieces of bacterial DNA may be released into the culture medium when a cell is
lysed
B. Inaccurate excision of prophage can occasionally remove a small portion of the
bacterial chromosome
C. All of these
D. Random pieces of bacterial DNA can become incorporated into a phage coat
6. Sex limited inheritance refers to traits that are located on the X or Y
chromosome.
A. False B. true
7. A representation of phenotypic rations of offspring is given by the:
A. Law of segregation
B. independent assortment
C. Punnett square
D. product rule
8. You set up a monohybrid cross between true breeding round winged and true
breeding oval winged insects. Your F1 offspring have round wings, and you collect
the following number of F2; round wings 302, Oval wings 86. Which of the
following statements is not correct.
A. Medel’s rule accurately predict the outcome of this cross
B. The cho square value for this calculation is 1.663
C. None of these, all are correct statement
D. The critical value for this cho square calculation is 7.815
9. The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is called
pleitropy
A.False B. True
10. How are meiosis and gametogenesis linked in plants?
A. They are not linked in any way
B. Meiosis prodces haploid gametes directly
C. Meiosis produces haploid gametes that are then modified by the sporophyte to
produce function gametes
D. Meiosis produces a haploid cell that devides by mitosis to form a gametophyte,
which then produce gametes by mitosis.
11. Mutations may be recessive because cells can increase the amount of functional
reduced from their remaining normal allele.
A. True B. False
12. The term sex- influenced inheritance refers to the phenomenon in which an
allele dominant in one sex but recessive in the opposite sex. Therefore, sex
influence is a phenomenon of heterozygotes.
A. false B.True
13. Which of the following could Not be used to describe a sex limited trait
A. This is trait that occurs more freqyently in one sex tha another
B. This is an extreme example of a sex influenced trait
C. This term refers to a trait controlled by a gene located on the X or Y
chromosomes
D. this traits,….
14. Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material, from largest to
smallest
C. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
15. Inheritance patterns of human diseases may be determined via predigree
analysis.
A. False B. True
16. The term _____ gene refers to a gene that is found on one of the tow tupyes of
sex chromosomes bit not on both
A X-linked B. Y-linked C. sex-linked D. None of these
17. Twin studies help to detect and evaluate the role of environment and genotype
on the formation of each individual traits and genetic behavior.
A. True B. False
18. Genetic composition of a species is stable over time
A. False B. True
19. Cellular division is important for which of the following processes?
A. Reproduction of a unicellular organism
B. Growth of a unicellular organism
C. Growth of a multicellular organism
D. Growth of a multicellular organism and reproduction of a unicellular organism.
20. Cross fertilization is the typical mode of reproduction for pea plants.
A. False B. True
21. Pea plants can
A. reproduction without pollination
B. self- fertilize
C. Only cross- fertilize
D. Self- pollinate, but not self- compatible
22. The location on a chromosome that harbors one or more genes that affect the
outcome quantitative trait is called a quantitative trait locus( QTL)
A False B. True
23. Pedigree
24. Phenotypic variation may also be influenced by interactions and associations
between genotypic and the environment
A. false B. true
25. ______ are particular interested in ______ and how that variation is related to
an organism’s environment.
A. Population geneticists, population genetics
B. Population genetics, genetic variation
C. Population genetics, quantitative genetics
D. Population geneticists, genetic variation
26. Currently, the estimated number of genes in the human genome is____
C. 20000 to 30000
27. How might the ability of pea plants to self fertilize be a problem for genetic
experiments?
A. Self fertile plants are not able to produce viable seeds due to inbreeding
B. Self fertileplants tend to be weaker and require more care
C. Stamens must be remove from self fertile plants to control fertilization
D. Pistils of self fertile plants are unable to accept pollen from other plants.
28. Virulent phages generally follow the lysogenic cycle when infecting bacteria.
A. True B. False
29. An underlying assumption about linkage can be given by____ and a statical test
of linkage is called___
B. a null hypothesis, chi square
30. In a group of fruit flies homozygous for an allele that causes a reduced number
of thoralbrisle, you notice that the number of bristles varies from about half the
normal number to only a bristles. This is an example of which?
D. Variable expressivity
31. The P value give in the cgi square chart indicate probality….
A True
32. In most organism, which molecule acts as an intermediary in the processing of
the gene information?
A. DNA
B. Fats and lipits
C. RNA
D. Proteins
33. Pedigree
34. On a rare blood type referred to as the Bombay phenotype, individuals are
unable to the A or B antigens to their red blood. Individuals that are homozygous
recessive for gen” How the Bombay phenotype and their blood type is type O
regardless of their ABO genotype. This example of what extension of MEdelian
inheritance?
A. Environmental influence
B. Overdominance
C. Epitasis
D. Multiple alleles
35. Analysis of genetic diseases in humans and animals allows to detect gene
mutation gene( monogenic genetic diseases), multiple genes ( multifactorial /
polygonic genetic chromosomal mutations( choromosomal genetic diseases),
mutation mitochondrial genome( mitochondrial genetic diseases)
A. False B. True
26. An allele that is not expressed in a heterozygote is an example of an
A. allele B. gene C. Dominant trait D. recessive trait
37. Which of the following pairs of structures has the same amount if DNA
A. A replicated chromosome and a sister chromatid
B. A replicated chromosome and a bivalent
C. An unreplicated chromosome and a bivalent
D. An unreplicated chromosome and a chromatid.