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Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 2 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 80
for
GUJCET-2019
(Physics, Chemistry)
Important Instructions :
1. The physics and Chemistry test consists of 80 question. Each question carries 1 marks. For correct response, the
candidate will get 1 marks. For each incorrect response 1/4 mark will be deducted. The maximum marks are 80.
2. This test is of 2 hours duration.
3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on OMR Answer Sheet and marking answers by darkening the
circle.
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall.
The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Bookle with them.
6. The Set No. for this Booklet is 13. Make sure that the Set No. Printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as that on
this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for
replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet.
8. Do not write your Seat No. anywhere else, except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
9. Use of White fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the Superindent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
12. Use of manual Calculator is permissible.
13. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty and must sign the Attendance Sheet (Patrak-01). Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance
Sheet (Patrak-01) will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and will be dealt with as an unfair
means case.
14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regards to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Set No. as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance
Sheet. (Patrak-01)
1
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
PART–A : PHYSICS
b e2
Sol. sin atom is , then its potential energy
2 2 8 0 r
is.............
= sin
b e2 e2
(A) (B)
2. The ratio of resolving power of telescope, when lights 8 0 r 8 0 r
o o
of wavelenghts 4400 A and 5500 A are used, is
e 2 e2
........ (C) (D)
4 0 r 4 0 r
(A) 5 : 4 (B) 9 : 1
(C) 4 : 5 (D) 16 : 25 Answer (C)
1 e2
Sol. R. P = 2
80 r
3. In Young's experiment fourth bright fringe produced 6. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series is
o
. The wavelength of the first line in Paschen series
by light of 5000 A superposes on the fifth bright
is ............. .
fringe of an unknown wavelength. the unknown
o 5 7
wavelength is ............ A . (A) (B)
27 108
(A) 8000 (B) 5000
(C) 6000 (D) 4000 27 108
(C) (D)
5 7
Answer (D)
Answer (D)
4D 5 'D
Sol.
d d 1 3
Sol. R 4
4 o L1
' 4000 A
5
4
4. In X-ray tube the potential difference between the L
anode and the cathode is 20 k V and the current
1
3R
flowing is 1.6 mA. The number of electrons striking
the anode in 1 s is............ 1 1 1
R
P1 9 16
(Charge of an electron = 1.6 1019 C )
2
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
the value of x is............ 12. For PN junction, the width of space charge region is
(A) 10 (B) 4 approximately...... m .
(C) 6 (D) 8 (A) 0.005 (B) 5
Answer (D) (C) 6 (D) 0.5
Sol. 92 = 82 + 2x – 6
Answer (D)
x=8
Sol. 0.5 m
9. If the radii of 64
30 Zn and 27
13 Al nuclei are R1 and R 2
13. A modulating signal of frequency 5 kHz and peak
R1 voltage of 8 V is used to modulate a carries of
respectively then R ....... frequency 10 MHz and peak voltage 10 V. Then the
2
amplitude of USB is ............V.
27 3
(A) (B) (A) 5 (B) 2
64 4
(C) 4 (D) 3
4 64
(C) (D)
3 27 Answer (C)
Answer (C) 8
Sol. M.I. 0.8
10
1
Sol. R R A 3
0
mVe
Amplitude of USB =
2
1
R1 64 3 4 0.8 10
R2 27 3 2
10. For PN junction, the intensity of electric field is = 4V
1 106 V / m and the width of deplection region is 14. The propagation of radio waves with frequency 2 MHz
0
to 30 MHz is due to....................
5000 A . The value of potential barrier = (A) Sky wave (B) Ground wave
................V.
(C) Optical fibre (D) Space wave
(A) 5 (B) 0.5
Answer (A)
(C) 0.005 (D) 0.05
Sol. Sky wave
3
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
15. When two sppheres having 4Q and 2Q charge are 17. An electric dipole is placed in a nonuniform electric
placed at a certain distance, the force acting field, then.............
between them is F. Now they are connected by a (A) Torque acting on it is always zero
conducting wire and again separated from each
(B) The resultant force acting on the dipole may be
other. Now they are kept at a distance half of the zero
previous one. The force acting between them is
.......... (C) Torque acting on it may be zero
(D) The resultant force acting on the dipole is always
F F zero
(A) (B)
8 2
Answer (B) & (C)
F 18. The unit of Intensity of polarization is ............
(C) (D) F
4
m2 C2
Answer (B) (A) (B)
C m
8KQ2
Sol. F C2 C
r2 (C) (D)
m2 m2
Final charge on each sphere = Q
Answer (D)
KQ2 KQ2 19. In the figure area of each plate is A and the distance
F' 2
4 2
r r between consecutive plates is as shown in the
2
figure. What is the effective capacitance between
points A & B.
4F
1
8
2d
F 2
F' A
2 d
3
16. Charge of 1 C each is placed on the five corners B
2d
of a ragular hexagon of side 1m. The electric field at
its centre is ...........N/C. 4
4A 0 2A 0
(A) (B)
6 d d
(A) 106 K (B) 10 6 K
5 3A 0 A 0
(C) (D)
5 d d
(C) 5 106 K (D) 10 6 K
6 Answer (B)
Answer (A)
0A 0A 0A
Sol. C
Kq 2d d 2d
Sol. E
r2 20A
=
q 1 c d
20. A moving positive charge approaches a negative
r 1m charge. What will happen to the potential energy of
the system?
+q +q (A) May increase or decrease
(B) Will increase
21. The heat produced per unit time, on passing electric 24. Shunt wire should be...........
current through a conductor at a given temperature,
(A) Thick and short (B) Thin and long
is directly proportional to the ..............
(C) Thin and short (D) Thick and long
(A) Reciprocal of electric current
Answer (A)
(B) Square of electric current
(C) Reciprocal of square of electric current
Sol. R
(D) Electric current A
5 103 (T)
X Y
27. The gyromagnetic ratio of an electron =...........
specific charge of an electron.
2 1
(A) (B) 1 (A) 4 (B)
3 2
(C) 4 (D) 2 (C) 2 (D) 1
Answer (B) Answer (B)
M e 1
1 2 2
1 Sol. L 2m Specific charge of an electron
e 2
29. The focal length of a thin lens made from the 32. Photons of energy 2eV and 2.5 eV successively
material of refractive index 1.5 is 15 cm. When it is illuminate a metal whose work function is 0.5 eV.
The ratio of maximum speed of emitted electron
4
placed in a liquid of refractive index , its focal is...........
3
length will be ...............cm. (A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 2
(A) 60 (B) 78.23
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 :2
(C) 50 (D) 80.31
Answer (D)
Answer (A)
Sol. KE1 2 0.5 1.5eV
1 3 1 1
Sol. 15 2 1 R R KE2 2.5 0.5 2.0 eV
1 2
V1 KE1 15 3
1 3/2 1 1
1 V2 KE2 20 2
f 4 / 3 R1 R2
33. To increase de Broglie wavelength of an electron from
1 1 2 1 0.5 1010 m to 1010 m , its energy should
f 8 15 60 be.............
f = 60 cm (A) Decreased to fourth part
30. Time taken by the sunlight to pass through a slab (B) Doubled
of 4 cm and refreactive index 1.5 is ............... sec. (C) Halved
(A) 2 10 11 (B) 2 10 10
(D) Increased to 4 times
Answer (B) h
Sol. 2m K 1
d d
Sol. t
v c
1.5 4 10 2 h
= 2 2m K 2
3 10 8
31. If the tube length of astronomical telescope is 96 cm
and magnifiying power is 15 for normal setting then 1 K2
the focal length of the objective is ........... cm. = 2 K1
(A) 92 (B) 105
(C) 90 (D) 100 K1
= K2
Answer (C) 4
34. A wheel of radius 2 m having 8 conducting
f0
Sol. f 15 concentric spokes is rotating about its geometrical
e axis with an angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a uniform
magnetic field of 0.2 T perpendicular to its plane. The
= f0 fe 96 value of induced emf between the rim of the wheel
and centre is ..................V
f0
= f0 96 (A) 8 (B) 4
15
(C) 6 (D) 2
16f0 Answer (B)
= 96
15
Bw 2
f0 90 cm Sol. Emf =
2
6
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
0.2 10 2
2
2 i
2 4
4V
2
Sol.
35. A coil of surface area 200 cm2 having 25 turns is
held perpendicular to the magnetic field of intensity VC VL
Wb
0.02 . The resistance of the coil is 1 . If it is
m2 38. In L-C-R, A.C. series circuit, L = 9H, R =
removed from the magnetic field in 1 s, the induced 10 & C 100 F . Hence Q-factor of the circuit is
charge in the coil is ................C.
.........
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.1
(A) 30 (B) 35
(C) 0.01 (D) 1
(C) 45 (D) 25
Answer (C)
Answer (A)
| | NBA 0
Sol. Q = WoL
R R Sol. Q
R
25 0.02 200 10 4
1
1 W0
LC
2
10 0.01 C
100 9
36. The dimensional formula of JWL is ................. Take = Q 30
3 10
Q as the dimension of charge.
(C) M1L1T 2 A 0
ML2 T 2
= [WL] [R] [Q][Q] [T]
(D) M1L1T 2 A 1
Answer (B)
[M L2 T 1Q 2 ]
Sol. r r is a dimension less quantity
37. If in an A.C., L-C series circuit XC X1 . Hence
potential .............. 40. At large distances from source E and B are in
(A) Lags behind the current by in phase phase and the decrease in their magnitude is
comparitively slower with distance r as per.
(B) Leads the current by in phase (A) r 2 (B) r 3
2
(C) r (D) r 1
(C) Leads the current by in phase
Answer (D)
(D) Lags behind the current by in phase
2 1
Sol. E0
r
Answer (D)
7
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
PART–B : CHEMISTRY
H Hybridisation = SP3
3--H-atoms Bond angle : 108o
8
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
48. Identify X and Y in following reaction. 51. Giving 'T' symbol for true statement and 'F' symbol
for false statement, select suitable option from the
N = N.Cl given options for following statements.
CuPowder 2NH3 (i) Cytosine base is the derivative of pyrimidine
X Y
HCl [Cu2O]
473K, 60bar
(ii) - D Ribose sugar is present in DNA.
9
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
(C) Plasticizer (D) Semisynthetic polymer 59. The value of which of the following unit of
concentration will not change with the change in
Answer (D)
temperature?
Sol. Cellulose diacetate is semisynthetic polymer (A) Formality (B) Normality
55. What is the packing efficiency of arrangment in a (C) Molality (D) Molarity
body centred unit cell.
Answer (C)
(A) 64.00% (B) 68.00%
Sol. Molality has no volume term in its expression so it
(C) 74.00% (D) 53.26% will not change with the change in temperature
Answer (B) 60. 2
Zn(s) / Zn(aq) 2
(1M) / /Ni(aq) (1M) / Ni(s)
Sol. The packing efficiency of arrangement in BCC unit Which is incorrect for the above given cell?
3 (A) Daniel cell (B) Galvanic cell
cell is , i.e. 68%
8
(C) Voltaic cell (D) Electrochemical cell
56. Which one of the following compounds show both
Schottky and Frenkel defects? Answer (A)
Sol. Daniel cell involves oxidation of Zn and Reduction of
(A) KCI (B) Agl
Cu2+(aq) ions
(C) AgBr (D) AgCl
Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)(1M)||Cu2+(aq)(1M)|Cu(s)
Answer (C)
61. If one mole electrons is passed through the solutions
Sol. AgBr shows both schottky and frenkel defects of AlCl3, AgNO3 and MgSO4, in what ratio Al, Ag
57. Calculate Van't Hoff factor (i) for an aqueous solution and Mg will be deposited at the electrodes?
of K3[Fe(CN)6] having a degree of dissociation () (A) 3 : 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3
equal to 0.778.
(C) 2 : 6 : 3 (D) 3 : 6 : 2
(A) 2.334 (B) 0.222 Answer (C)
(C) 3.334 (D) 4.334 Sol. For 1 mole electrons :
Answer (C) 1 1 1
mass of Al, Ag, Mg = : :
Sol. K3[Fe(CN)6] 3K+(aq) + [Fe(CN)6]3–(aq) 3 1 2
t=o 1 = 2:6:3
10
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
Sol. Iorn pyrites : FeS2 69. Which of the following group of compounds are
extinguisher, antiseptic, insecticide and anesthetic
Magnetile : Fe3O4
respectively?
Siderite : FeCO3
(A) CCl4, CHI3, CHCl, DDT
Haematile : Fe2O3
(B) CCl4, CHI3, DDT, CHCl3
64. Which of the following hybride is the most stable?
(C) DDT, CHCl3, CCl4, CHI3
(A) AsH3 (B) NH3
(D) CHCl3, CHI3, DDT, CCl4
(C) SbH3 (D) PH3 Answer (B)
Answer (B) Sol. Fact
Sol. Stability of Hydrides decreases down the group 70. Which of the following alcohol has the highest boiling
NH3 is most stable. point?
65. In which of the following pair of oxyacid of (A) Butan - 1 -ol
phosphorous, oxidation states of P are not the (B) Propan - 2 -ol
same?
(C) 2 - Methyl propan - 2 -ol
(A) H4P2O7 and H3PO3 (B) H4P2O7 and H5P3O10
(D) Butan - 2 -ol
(C) H3PO4 and H5P3O10 (D) H3PO4 and H4P2O7
Answer (A)
Answer (A)
Sol. Butan - 1-ol has highest Boiling point due to least
Sol. P has oxidation state of +5 in H4P2O7 no. of Branches and high molecular mass.
P has oxidation state of +3 in H3PO3 71. Which of the major product obtained by hydrolysis
66. Which of the following order of acidic strength is of compound formed by reaction between
formaldehyde and ethyl magnesium bromide?
correct?
(A) 2 - Methyl - propan - 2 - ol
(A) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO
(B) Propan - 1 - ol
(B) HClO2 > HClO > HClO4 > HClO
(C) Propan - 2 - ol
(C) HClO4 > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO
(D) Ethan - 1 - ol
(D) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
Answer (B)
Answer (A)
Sol. Correct order of acidic strength : +
O O MgBr
HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO Sol. H C H + C2H5 MgBr H C H
67. 1, 2 - dichloro ethane is which type of halide?
CH2–CH3 H2O
(A) Allylic halide (B) Alkylidene halide
(C) Vicinal halide (D) Gaminal halide Mg(OH)Br + H3C–CH2–CH2–OH
Propan–1–ol
Answer (C)
72. Give the IUPAC name for methyl salicylate.
H2C–CH2
Sol. is a vicinal halide (A) Methyl - 3 - hydroxy benzoate
Cl Cl
(B) Methyl - 2 - hydroxy benzoate
68. Polarimeter is used to determine ______ of
(C) 2' - hydroxy benzoic acid
compounds.
(D) Methoxy benzoic acid
(A) D and L configuration
Answer (B)
(B) d and l configuration
(C) R and S configuration O
6 1
(D) Both D and L as well as d & l configuration 5 O
Sol. Methyl salicylate:
4 OH
Answer (B) 3 2
Sol. Polarimeter is used to determine IUPAC name : Methyl–2–hydroxy benzoate
d and l-configuration of compounds
11
GUJCET-2019 (Code-13)
73. Instantaneous rate of reaction for the reaction 3A + 77. Which of the following reaction is used to prepare
2B 5C is ______ colloidal sol by double decomposition?
12