Sei sulla pagina 1di 40

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................


(To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll No.
(In words)
N0 5 8 1 7 PAPER - III
Time : 2½ hours] LAW [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 40 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates ¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÙ¢ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
1. ß‚ ¬ÎDU ∑§ ™§¬⁄U ÁŸÿà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •¬ŸÊ ⁄UÙ‹U Ÿê’⁄U Á‹Áπ∞–
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of 2. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¢ ¬ø„ûÊ⁄U ’„ÈÁfl∑§À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥–
questions. 3. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬˝Ê⁄êU÷ „ÙŸ ¬⁄U, ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •Ê¬∑§Ù Œ ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ¬„‹U ¬UÊ°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©‚∑§Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¡Ê°ø ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested ¡Êÿ¢ª, Á¡‚∑§Ë ¡Ê°ø •Ê¬∑§Ù •fl‡ÿ ∑§⁄UŸË „Ò —
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(i) ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U ‹ªË ∑§Êª¡ ∑§Ë ‚Ë‹ ∑§Ê
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
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a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open (ii) ∑§fl⁄U ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ ¬ÎDU ÃÕÊ ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑§Ë
booklet. ‚¢ÅÿÊ ∑§Ù •ë¿UË Ã⁄U„ øÒ∑§ ∑§⁄U ‹¢U Á∑§ ÿ ¬Í⁄U „Ò¢U– ŒÙ·¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in Á¡Ÿ◊¢ ¬ÎDU/¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§◊ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ •Ê ªÿ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ‚ËÁ⁄Uÿ‹U ◊¢ Ÿ „Ù¢
the booklet with the information printed on the cover •ÕʸØ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë òÊÈÁ≈U¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê SflË∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ ∑§⁄¢U ÃÕÊ
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ©‚Ë ‚◊ÿ ©‚ ‹Uı≈UÊ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ŒÍ‚⁄UË ‚„Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‹
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a ‹¢– U ß‚∑§ Á‹∞ •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑§ ’ÊŒ Ÿ ÃÙ
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê flʬ‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄U Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑§Ù •ÁÃÁ⁄UQ§
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
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(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
•Uı⁄U OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ∑§Ê Ÿ¥’⁄U ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄U Œ¢–
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬ (1), (2), (3) ÃÕÊ (4) ÁŒÿ ªÿ „Ò¢–
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) •Ê¬∑§Ù ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ù ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄U∑§⁄U ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò ¡Ò‚Ê Á∑§ ŸËø
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
the correct response against each item. ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ — ¡’Á∑§ (3) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U „Ò–
Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ OMRU ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „Ë
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
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8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
»§ÊŸ Ÿê’⁄U ÿÊ ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ∞‚Ê Áøq Á¡‚‚ •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ „Ê ‚∑§, •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ
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your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥, ¡Ò‚ Á∑§ •¥Á∑§Ã Á∑§ÿ ªÿ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê Á◊≈UÊŸÊ ÿÊ ‚»§Œ SÿÊ„Ë ‚
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or ’Œ‹ŸÊ ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ Á‹ÿ •ÿÊÇÿ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã Á∑§ÿ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
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disqualification. •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò •ı⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators Ÿ ‹∑§⁄U ¡Êÿ¢– „Ê‹Ê¥Á∑§ •Ê¬ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ¬⁄U ◊Í‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ÃÕÊ OMR
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
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however, allowed to carry original question booklet and 10. ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’Ê‹U åflÊßZ≈U ¬Ÿ ∑§Ê „Ë ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¢U–
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 11. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑§ (∑Ò§‹∑ȧ‹≈U⁄U) UÿÊ ‹Êª ≈U’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑§Ê
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. ¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
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12. ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ∑§Ê⁄UÊà◊∑§ •¥∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ÿÁŒ •¥ª˝¡Ë ÿÊ Á„¥ŒË Áflfl⁄UáÊ ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ Áfl‚¥ªÁà „Ê, ÃÊ •¥ª˝¡Ë Áflfl⁄UáÊ •¥ÁÃ◊
English version will be taken as final. ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 1 P.T.O.


LAW
PAPER - III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. Answer the following by using code given below.


‘Economic Justice’ is one of the objectives of the Constitution of India. It has been provided
in
(a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Duties
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

2. Arrange the following decided cases in a chronological order and answer by using the code
given below :
(a) Union of India v. N.S. Rathnam and others
(b) Basawaraj v. Special Land Acqisition Officer
(c) Usha Mehta v. Government of A.P
(d) City Industrial Development v. Platinum Entertainment
Code :
(1) (c), (b), (d), (a) (2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(3) (d), (b), (c), (a) (4) (b), (c), (a), (d)

3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India under Article 40 states that The State shall take
steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers
and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of
self government.
Reason (R) : This directive gives an assurance that every village where maximum people
live, has to be made an autonomous republic, self-sufficient, self-sustaining
and capable of managing its own affairs.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 2 Paper-III


ÁflÁœ
¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ - III
ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê — ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¥ ¬ø„ûÊ⁄U (75) ’„È-Áfl∑§À¬UËÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ŒÙ (2) •¢∑§ „Ò¥– ‚÷Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸
„Ò–¥

1. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U Œ —


“•ÊÁÕ¸∑§ ãÿÊÿ” ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§ ©g‡ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∞∑§ ©g‡ÿ „Ò – •‚∑§Ê ©À‹π Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò —
(a) ¬˝SÃÊflŸÊ ◊¥ (b) ◊ÊÒÁ‹∑§ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄UÊ¥U ◊¥
(c) ⁄UÊíÿ ∑§ ŸËÁÃ-ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê∑§ ÃàflÊ¥ ◊¥ (d) ◊ÊÒÁ‹∑§ ∑§Ã¸√ÿÊ¥ ◊¥
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ –
(3) (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ – (4) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò –

2. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ÁŸáÊ˸à ◊Ê◊‹Ê¥ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹∑˝§◊ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U √ÿflÁSÕà ∑§⁄¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
(a) ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ∞Ÿ.∞‚. ⁄UÕŸ◊˜ ∞á«U •ãÿ
(b) ’‚ÊflÊ⁄UÊ¡ ’ŸÊ◊ Áfl‡Ê· ÷ÍÁ◊ •Áœª˝„áÊ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄UË
(c) ™§·Ê ◊„ÃÊ ’ŸÊ◊ •Êãœ˝ ¬˝Œ‡Ê ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U
(d) Á‚≈UË ß¥«UÁS≈˛Uÿ‹ «Ufl‹¬◊¥≈U ’ŸÊ◊ å‹Á≈UŸ◊ ∞ã≈U⁄U≈Uã◊¥≈U
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (c), (b), (d), (a) (2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(3) (d), (b), (c), (a) (4) (b), (c), (a), (d)

3. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ◊¥ •ŸÈë¿UŒ 40 ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ∑§„Ê ªÿÊ „Ò Á∑§ ⁄UÊíÿ ª˝Ê◊ ¬¥øÊÿÃÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ
∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Œ◊ ©∆UÊ∞¥ª •ÊÒ⁄U ©ã„¥ ∞‚Ë ‡ÊÁÄÃÿÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄¥Uª ¡Ê Sfl-‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ
∑§Ë ß∑§Ê߸ÿÊ¥ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©ã„¥ ‚ˇÊ◊ ’ŸÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „ÊªÊ –
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ß‚ ÁŸŒ‡Ê ◊¥ •Ê‡flÊ‚Ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò Á∑§ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ªÊ¥fl, ¡„Ê¥ •Áœ∑§Ã◊ ‹Êª ÁŸflÊ‚ ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥, ∑§Ê
∞∑§ SflÊÿà ªáÊÃ¥òÊ, •Êà◊-ÁŸ÷¸⁄U, Sfl¬Ê·Ë •ÊÒ⁄U •¬Ÿ Sflÿ¥ ∑§ ∑§Ê◊∑§Ê¡ ∑§Ë Œπ⁄Uπ ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥
‚ˇÊ◊ ’ŸÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ „Ò –
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò –
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò –
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò –
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò –

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 3 Paper-III


4. Which of the following statements are correct ? Answer by using the code given below.
(a) Persons in Govt/Judicial service need not resign to participate in District Judge selection
process held in “Vijay Kumar Misra and another v. High court of Judicature at Patna”
by the Supreme Court of India
(b) The Supreme Court of India held in S. Kazi v. Muslim education society that “All
Tribunals are not necessary parties to the proceedings where legality of its orders
challenged
(c) The Supreme Court of India observed in Cardamom Marketing Corporation and others
v. State of Kerala and others that Social Security to the legal profession becomes an
essential part of legal system
(d) The Supreme Court of India held in ‘Union of India v. Rajasthan High Court and
others that High Court Judges are exempted from Airport frisking.
Code :
(1) Only (b) is correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the
Constitution of India ?
(1) Art 118........Duration of parliament
(2) Art 119........Restriction on discussion in Parliament
(3) Art 120........Language to be used in Parliament
(4) Art 121........courts not to inquire into the Proceedings of Parliament

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Constitutional Provision) (Subject)
(a) Article 249 (i) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by
consent and adoption of such legislation by any other State
(b) Article 250 (ii) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any
matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency
is in operation
(c) Article 252 (iii) Legislation for giving effect to international agreements
(d) Article 253 (iv) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter
in the State List in the national interest
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 4 Paper-III


4. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
(a) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ©ëøÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ mÊ⁄UÊ “Áfl¡ÿ ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U Á◊üÊÊ ∞fl¥ •ãÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ¬≈UŸÊ ©ëø ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ” ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ
Á∑§ ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄UË/ãÿÊÁÿ∑§ ‚flÊ ∑§ √ÿÁQ§ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê Á¡‹Ê ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê øÿŸ ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ◊¥ ÷ʪ ‹Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ àÿʪ-¬òÊ ŒŸ
∑§Ë ¡M§⁄Uà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(b) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ©ëøÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ∞‚. ∑§Ê¡Ë ’ŸÊ◊ ◊ÈÁS‹◊ ∞¡ÈÈ∑§‡ÊŸ ‚Ê‚Êÿ≈UË ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ Á∑ ‚÷Ë
•Áœ∑§⁄UáÊË ∞‚Ë ∑§Êÿ¸flÊÁ„ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ •Êfl‡fl∑§ ¬ˇÊ∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥ Á¡Ÿ◊¥ ©‚∑§ •ÊŒ‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ë flÒœÃÊ ∑§Ê øÈŸÊÒÃË ŒË ªß¸ „Ê–
(c) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ©ëøÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ∑§Ê«¸U◊◊ ◊Ê∑¸§Á≈¥Uª ∑§Ê⁄U¬Ê⁄U‡ÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U •ãÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ∑§⁄U‹ ⁄UÊíÿ •ÊÒ⁄U •ãÿ ◊¥ Á≈Uå¬áÊË
∑§Ë Á∑§ ÁflÁœ∑§ √ÿfl‚Êÿ ◊¥ ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ÁflÁœ∑§ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ∑§Ê •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ •¥ª ’ŸÃÊ „Ò–
(d) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ©ëøÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ‘÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ⁄UÊ¡SÕÊŸ ©ëø ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∞fl¥ •ãÿ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ Á∑§ ©ìÊ
ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∞fl¥ •ãÿ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ Á∑§ ©ìÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿÊ¥ ∑§ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê „flÊ߸ •«˜U«U ¬⁄U ËʇÊË Á‹∞ ¡ÊŸ ‚
◊ÈÄà „Ò¥–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) ∑§fl‹ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò– (2) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–

5. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ÿÈÇ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§ ©¬’¥œÊ¥ ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ‚È◊Á‹Ã „Ò?
(1) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 118........‚¥‚Œ ∑§Ë ∑§Ê‹ÊflÁœ
(2) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 119........‚¥‚Œ ◊¥ øøʸ ¬⁄U ¬˝ÁÃ’¥œ
(3) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 120........‚¥‚Œ ◊¥ ©¬ÿÊª ∑§Ë ¡ÊŸ flÊ‹Ë ÷Ê·Ê
(4) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 121........ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿÊ¥ mÊ⁄UÊ ‚¥‚Œ ∑§Ë ∑§Êÿ¸flÊÁ„ÿÊ¥ ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ¬Í¿UàÊÊ¿U Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UŸÊ

6. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(‚¥flÒœÊÁŸ∑§ ©¬’¥œ) (Áfl·ÿ)
(a) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 249 (i) ‚¥‚Œ ∑§Ë, ŒÊ ÿÊ •Áœ∑§ ⁄UÊíÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚ê◊Áà ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁflœÊŸ ’ŸÊŸ ∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄÃ
•ÊÒ⁄U Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ⁄UÊíÿ mÊ⁄UÊ ∞‚ ÁflœÊŸ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ –
(b) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 250 (ii) ‚¥‚Œ ∑§Ë, ⁄UÊíÿ ‚ÍøË ∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ◊Ê◊‹ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ©‚ ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ÁflœÊŸ ’ŸÊŸ
∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄà ¡’ •Ê¬ÊÃ∑§Ê‹ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÅÿʬŸ ¬˝øÊ‹ŸÊœËŸ „Ê –
(c) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 252 (iii) •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ∑§⁄UÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑§Êÿ¸M§¬ ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁflœÊŸ
(d) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 253 (iv) ‚¥‚Œ ∑§Ë, ⁄UÊíÿ ‚ÍøË ∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ◊Ê◊‹ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ Á„à ◊¥ ÁflœÊŸ ’ŸÊŸ ∑§Ë
‡ÊÁÄÃ
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

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7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill ?
Give correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional
Amendment Bill in Parliament
(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
(c) President is bound to give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both Houses of
Parliament and ratified, if required, by the Legislatures of not less than one - half of the
States
(d) President may return the Bill to the Houses for reconsideration
Code :
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

8. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Article 324(1) (i) Composition of Election Commission
(b) Article 324(2) (ii) Appointment of Regional Commissioners
(c) Article 324(4) (iii) Powers vested in the Election Commission
(d) Article 324(5) (iv) Conditions of service and tenure of office of Election
Commission
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

9. Administrative Law as a separate branch of legal discipline, especially in India, came to be


recognised in the middle of :
(1) 17th century (2) 18th century (3) 19th century (4) 20th century

10. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : Natural justice is justice of the nature where the lion devours the lamb and
the tiger feeds upon the antilope
Reason (R) : Above statement is taken from Union of India V. Tulsiram Patel
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(3) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 6 Paper-III


7. ‚¥flÒœÊÁŸ∑§ ‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ Áflœÿ∑§ ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë
‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
(a) ‚¥flÒœÊÁŸ∑§ ‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ Áflœÿ∑§ ‚¥‚Œ ◊¥ ¬‡Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ ⁄UÊC˛¬Áà ∑§Ë ¬Ífl¸ •ŸÈ◊Áà •¬ÁˇÊà „Ò–
(b) ‚¥flÒœÊÁŸ∑§ ‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ Áflœÿ∑§ ‚¥‚Œ ∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ‚ŒŸ ◊¥ ¬‡Ê Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–
(c) ⁄UÊC˛¬Áà ∞‚ Áflœÿ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸË ‚„◊Áà ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ’ʱÿ „Ò ¡’ fl„ ‚¥‚Œ ∑§ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚ŒŸÊ¥ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁflÁœflØ M§¬
‚ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ÿÁŒ ¡M§⁄Uà „Ê, ÃÊ ⁄UÊíÿÊ¥ ∑§ ∑§◊ ‚ ∑§◊ •Êœ Á„S‚ mÊ⁄UÊ •ŸÈ‚◊Áոà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ
„Ê–
(d) ⁄UÊC˛¬Áà ∞‚ Áflœÿ∑§ ∑§Ê ‚ŒŸÊ¥ ∑§ ¬ÈŸÁfl¸øÊ⁄UÊÕ¸ ‹ÊÒ≈UÊ ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) ∑§fl‹ (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò– (2) ∑§fl‹ (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑§fl‹ (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë¥ „Ò¥– (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–

8. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 324(1) (i) ÁŸflʸøŸ •ÊÿÊª ∑§Ë ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ
(b) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 324(2) (ii) ˇÊòÊËÿ •ÊÿÈÄÃÊ¥ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄÃ
(c) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 324(4) (iii) ÁŸflʸøŸ •ÊÿÊª ◊¥ ÁŸÁ„à ‡ÊÁÄÃÿÊ°
(d) •ŸÈë¿UŒ 324(5) (iv) ÁŸflʸøŸ •ÊÿÊª ∑§Ë ‚flÊ ∑§Ë ‡ÊÃZ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Œ ∑§Ê ∑§Êÿ¸∑§Ê‹
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

9. ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑§ ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê ÁflÁœ‡ÊÊSòÊ ∑§Ë ∞∑§ •‹ª ‡ÊÊπÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ Áfl‡Ê·∑§⁄U ÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ‡ÊÃÊéŒË
∑§ ŒÊÒ⁄UÊŸ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ Á◊‹Ë —
(1) 17 flË¥ ‡ÊÃÊéŒË (2) 18 flË¥ ‡ÊÃÊéŒË (3) 19 flË¥ ‡ÊÃÊéŒË (4) 20 flË¥ ‡ÊÃÊéŒË

10. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) — ¬˝Ê∑ΧÁÃ∑§ ãÿÊÿ ¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§Ê ãÿÊÿ „Ò ¡„Ê° Á‚¥„ ◊◊Ÿ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ÁŸflÊ‹Ê ’ŸÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ’ÊÉÊ Á„⁄UáÊ
∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ©¬ÿȸÄà ∑§ÕŸ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÃÈ‹‚Ë⁄UÊ◊ ¬≈U‹ ◊Ê◊‹ ‚ ©Œ˜ÉÊÎà „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò¥, ¬⁄UãÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(3) (R) ‚„Ë „Ò, ¬⁄UãÃÈ (A) ª‹Ã „Ò– (4) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ª‹Ã „Ò¥–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 7 Paper-III


11. In which of the following cases, underwritten quotation is taken from ?
“Principles of natural justice must be read into the provision of law”.
(1) State of U.P. v. Vijay Kumar Tripathi
(2) P. Satyanarayana v. Land Reforms Tribunal
(3) I.T.C. v. State of Madras
(4) Manjula Manjari Devi v. Director of Public Instruction

12. Match List - I (Name of Principle) with List - II (Related Case) and answer by using the
code below :
List - I List - II
(a) Res judicata (i) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(b) Legitimate expectation (ii) Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
(c) Promissory estoppel (iii) Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Locus standi (iv) Monnet Ispat and Energy Ltd. v. Union of India
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

13. Which of the following is a ground for judicially attacking the exercise of administrative
discretion ? Answer by using code below :
(a) Ultra vires the law (b) Mala fide intent
(c) Arbitrariness (d) Irrelevant considerations
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

14. “Writ of certiorari can be issued to quash actions which are administrative in nature”.
Above principle was laid down in :
(1) Indian Rly. Construction Co. Ltd v. Ajay Kumar
(2) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
(3) Union of India v. Bashyan
(4) Rajesh Kumar v. C.I.T.

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 8 Paper-III


11. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ‚ ÁŸê‹Á‹Áπà ©h⁄UáÊ Á‹ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò?
“¬˝Ê∑ΧÁÃ∑§ ãÿÊÿ ∑§ Á‚hÊ¥ÃÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÁflÁœ ∑§ ©¬’¥œÊ¥ ∑§ •Ê‹Ê∑§ ◊¥ ¬…∏Ê ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ –”
(1) ©ûÊ⁄U ¬˝Œ‡Ê ⁄UÊíÿ ’ŸÊ◊ Áfl¡ÿ ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U ÁòʬÊ∆UË
(2) ¬Ë. ‚àÿŸÊ⁄UÊÿáÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷ÍÁ◊ ‚ÈœÊ⁄U ãÿÊÿÊÁœ∑§⁄UáÊ
(3) •Ê߸.≈UË.‚Ë. ’ŸÊ◊ ◊Œ˝Ê‚ ⁄UÊíÿ
(4) ◊¥¡È‹Ê ◊¥¡⁄UË ŒflË ’ŸÊ◊ «UÊÿ⁄UÄ≈U⁄U •ÊÚ»§ ¬Áé‹∑§ ߥS≈˛Ućʟ

12. ‚ÍøË - I (Á‚hʥà ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊) •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II (‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ◊Ê◊‹Ê) ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê
¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ¬Ífl¸ ãÿÊÿ (i) ∞‚.¬Ë. ªÈ#Ê ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
(b) ÁflÁœ‚ê◊à •¬ˇÊÊ (ii) ◊ÊÃË‹Ê‹ ¬Œ◊¬≈U ‚Ȫ⁄U Á◊À‚ ’ŸÊ◊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬˝Œ‡Ê ⁄UÊíÿ
(c) fløŸ Áfl’¥œ (iii) Œ⁄UÿÊ•Ê ’ŸÊ◊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬˝Œ‡Ê ⁄UÊíÿ
(d) ‚ÍŸ ¡ÊŸ ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U (iv) ◊ÊŸ≈U ßS¬Êà •ÊÒ⁄U ∞Ÿ¡Ë¸ Á‹Á◊≈U«U ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

13. ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ Áflfl∑§ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬˝ÿÊª ¬⁄U ãÿÊÁÿ∑§ ¬˝„Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê •ÊœÊ⁄U „Ò ? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë
‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
(a) ÁflÁœ ∑§ ¬˝Áà •Áœ∑§Ê⁄UÊÃËà (b) ŒÈ÷ʸflŸÊ
(c) ÿÊŒÎÁë¿U∑§ÃÊ (d) •¬˝Ê‚¥Áª∑§ ÁfløÊ⁄UáÊ
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–

14. “¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑§¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§Ë ∑§Êÿ¸flÊßÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •Á÷π¥Á«Uà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©à¬˝·áÊ Á⁄U≈U ¡Ê⁄UË Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–”
©¬ÿȸÄà Á‚hʥà ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚◊¥ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ —
(1) ߥÁ«UÿŸ ⁄UÀfl ∑¥§S≈˛Ućʟ ∑§ê¬ŸË Á‹Á◊≈U«U ’ŸÊ◊ •¡ÿ ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U
(2) ∞.∑§. ∑˝§Ê߬Ê∑§ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
(3) ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ’‡ÿŸ
(4) ⁄UÊ¡‡Ê ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U ’ŸÊ◊ ‚Ë.•Ê߸.≈UË.

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 9 Paper-III


15. Which is the qualification of a judicial member of Lokpal ?
(1) A member of Parliament (2) A member of State Legislature
(3) A retired High Court judge (4) A retired Chief Justice of a High Court

16. “I think adherence to precedent should be the rule and not the exception”. This statement is
of :
(1) Keeton (2) Blackston (3) Cardozo (4) Paton

17. Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the natural law school ?
(1) Emmanuel Kant (2) John Rawls
(3) Jeremy Benthem (4) Stammeler

18. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Utilitarian Individualism (i) Pound
(b) Social Utilitarian (ii) Bentham
(c) Scientific Positivism (iii) Ihering
(d) Social Engineering (iv) Compte
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

19. Which one of the following sources of law has the basis under Article 141 of the Constitution
of India ?
(1) Supreme legislation (2) Subordinate legislation
(3) Colonial legislation (4) Precedent

20. Which one of the following jurists is not related to Historical school ?
(1) Savigny (2) Ehrlich (3) Henry Main (4) Hegel

21. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute right
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(4) (R) is right but (A) is wrong

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 10 Paper-III


15. ‹Ê∑§¬Ê‹ ∑§ ãÿÊÁÿ◊ ‚ŒSÿ ∑§Ë •„¸ÃÊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ë „Ò?
(1) ‚¥‚Œ ‚ŒSÿ (2) ÁflœÊŸ ‚÷Ê ‚ŒSÿ
(3) ©ëø ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑§ ‚flÊÁŸflÎûÊ ¡¡ (4) ©ëø ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑§ ‚flÊÁŸflÎûÊ ◊ÈÅÿ ãÿÊÿʜˇÊ

16. “◊Ò¥
◊ÊŸÃÊ „Í¥ Á∑§ ¬Ífl¸-ÁŸáʸÿ ∑§Ê ¬Ê‹Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸÊ ÁŸÿ◊ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ Ÿ Á∑§ •¬flÊŒ ”– ÿ„ ∑§ÕŸ „Ò —
(1) ∑§Ë≈UŸ ∑§Ê (2) é‹Ò∑§S≈UÊŸ ∑§Ê (3) ∑§Ê«UÊ¸¡Ê ∑§Ê (4) ¬≈UŸ ∑§Ê

17. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ÁflÁœflûÊÊ ¬˝Ê∑ΧÁÃ∑§ ãÿÊÿ ÁfløÊ⁄UœÊ⁄UÊ ∑§ Áfl⁄UÊœË Õ?
(1) ß◊ÒŸÈ•‹ ∑§Ê¥≈U (2) ¡ÊÚŸ ⁄UÊ©À‚
(3) ¡⁄U◊Ë ’¥Õ◊ (4) SÃÒ◊‹⁄U

18. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ©¬ÿÊÁªÃÊflÊŒË √ÿÁÄÃflÊŒ (i) ¬Ê©¥«U
(b) ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ©¬ÿÊÁªÃÊflÊŒ (ii) ’¥Õ◊
(c) flÒôÊÊÁŸ∑§ ¬˝àÿˇÊflÊŒ (iii) ß„Á⁄¥Uª
(d) ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ •Á÷ÿÊ¥ÁòÊ∑§Ë (iv) ∑§Ê꬘≈U
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

19. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ÁflÁœ ∑§ dÊà ∑§Ê ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§ •ŸÈë¿UŒU 141 ◊¥ •ÊœÊ⁄U „Ò?
(1) ‚flʸëø ÁflœÊÿŸ (2) •œËŸSÕ ÁflœÊÿŸ
(3) ©¬ÁŸflÁ‡Ê∑§ ÁflœÊÿŸ (4) ¬Ífl¸-ãÿÊÿ

20. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ÁflÁœflûÊÊ ∞ÁÄÊÁ‚∑§ ÁfløÊ⁄UœÊ⁄UÊ ‚ ‚ê’ÁãœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥?
(1) ‚ÒÁflÇŸË (2) ∞„˜⁄UÁ‹ø (3) „Ÿ⁄UË ◊Ÿ (4) „˪‹

21. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏U¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ∞∑§ ÁflÁœ∑§ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ÁflÁœ∑§ M§¬ ‚ ‚È⁄UÁˇÊà Á„à „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ª∆UŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‹Ê÷ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ Ãàfl •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (R) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (A) ª‹Ã „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 11 Paper-III


22. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Inner morality of Law (i) Maine
(b) Minimum content of law (ii) Stammler
(c) Law with a variable Content (iii) Fuller
(d) ‘Status to contract’ Theory (iv) Hart
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

23. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Theory) (Subject)
(a) Will Theory (i) Legal Person
(b) Concession Theory (ii) Analytical School
(c) Declaratory Theory (iii) Legal Right
(d) Command Theory (iv) Precedent
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

24. The Self evident principle of criminal justice is based on :


(1) Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla poena sine lege
(2) Perils of his life and liberty on refusal of bail
(3) Simple Principles based on corrective law
(4) To avoid purposeless cruelty

25. What is the basic justification on the law of conspiracy ?


(1) It does not allow a preventive action because an act of conspiracy is derived when the
crime results
(2) It dispenses the difficult requirement of proximity in attempt
(3) The momentum justifies punishment
(4) The object is simply to make of a crime

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 12 Paper-III


22. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ÁflÁœ ∑§Ë •Ê¥ÃÁ⁄U∑§ ŸÒÁÃ∑§ÃÊ (i) ◊Ÿ
(b) ÁflÁœ ∑§Ë ãÿÍŸÃ◊ Áfl·ÿ-flSÃÈ (ii) S≈ÒU◊‹⁄U
(c) ¬Á⁄UfløŸËÿ Áfl·ÿ-flSÃÈ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ ÁflÁœ (iii) »È§‹⁄U
(d) ¬˝˝Ê¥ÁSÕÁà ‚ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ∑§Ê Á‚hʥà (iv) „ÊÚ≈¸
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

23. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(Á‚hÊ¥Ã) (Áfl·ÿ)
(a) ßë¿UʇÊÁÄà Á‚hʥà (i) ÁflÁœ∑§ √ÿÁÄÃ
(b) Á⁄UÿÊÿà Á‚hʥà (ii) Áfl‡‹·áÊÊà◊∑§ ÁfløÊ⁄UœÊ⁄UÊ
(c) ÉÊÊ·áÊÊà◊∑§ Á‚hʥà (iii) ÁflÁœ∑§ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U
(d) •ÊŒ‡ÊÊà◊∑§ Á‚hʥà (iv) ¬Ífl¸-ãÿÊÿ
∑ͧ≈U —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

24. Œ¥«U-ãÿÊÿ ∑§Ê Sfl× Á‚Œ˜œ Á‚hʥà ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ¬⁄U •ÊœÊÁ⁄Uà „Ò —
(1) “Ÿ‹◊ Á∑˝§◊Ÿ ‚Êߟ ‹ª, Ÿ‹Ê ¬Ê∞ŸÊ ‚Êߟ ‹ª”
(2) ¡◊ÊŸÃ •SflË∑§Ê⁄U Á∑§∞ ¡ÊŸ ¬⁄U ©‚∑§ ¡ËflŸ •ÊÒ⁄U SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ ¬⁄U •Ê¬ŒÊ
(3) ‚ÈœÊ⁄U ÁflÁœ ¬⁄U •ÊœÊÁ⁄Uà ‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á‚hÊ¥Ã
(4) ¬˝ÿÊ¡Ÿ„ËŸ ÁŸŒ¸ÿÃÊ ‚ ’øŸÊ

25. ·«Uÿ¥òÊ ∑§ Á‚hʥà ∑§Ê ◊Í‹ •ÊÒÁøàÿ ÄÿÊ „Ò?


(1) ß‚◊¥ ÁŸflÊ⁄U∑§ ∑§Ê⁄¸UflÊ߸ ∑§Ë ªÈ¥¡Êß‡Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃË ÄÿÊ¥Á∑§ ·«Uÿ¥òÊ ∑§Ê ¬ÃÊ Ã’ ø‹ÃÊ „Ò ¡’ •¬⁄UÊœ ÉÊÁ≈Uà „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(2) ß‚◊¥ ¬˝ÿÊ‚Ê¥ ◊¥ ŸÒ∑§≈˜Uÿ ∑§Ë ŒÈc∑§⁄U ¡M§⁄Uà „ÊÃË „Ò–
(3) ß‚∑§Ë ªÁÃÁflÁœ Œ¥«U ∑§ ‹Êÿ∑§ „ÊÃË „Ò–
(4) ß‚∑§Ê ©g‡ÿ ß‚ •¬⁄UÊœ ’ŸÊŸÊ „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 13 Paper-III


26. Which one of the expressive factors does not constitute sedition ?
(1) Disapprobation of the government
(2) Excite disrespect against government
(3) Commenting on administrative actions of the government
(4) Attempting to excite disaffection against government

27. The right to private defence against an act done by a public servant is not available :
(1) When it is discharged in good faith
(2) When it is attempted to be done by him
(3) When it was done while he was not in his office
(4) When it is strictly to be justifiable by law

28. Which of the conditions are essential for enhanced punishment to an offender with previous
conviction ?
(1) The previous conviction must have been for not less than 3 years of imprisonment
(2) The subsequent offence is not punishable with imprisonment for more than 3 years
(3) The offence must be an offence relating to property or coin or government stamp
(4) The previous conviction was not in India

29. Non - Compos mentis denotes :


(1) Every person is considered to be sane unless contrary is proved
(2) When a criminal act is performed during derrangement
(3) When the cognitive facilities are such that he does not know what he has done
(4) Non - serene memory not from birth

30. In which of the conditions the act will not be wrongful confinement ?
(1) Circumscribing limits (2) Malice
(3) Moral force (4) Mistaken exercise of power

31. Which of the following statement is correct ?


(1) A publisher is responsible for publishing a defamatory statement for first time only and
not for repeating it
(2) Only editor and not printer and publisher are responsible for that defamatory statement
in the newspaper
(3) Defamatory imputation concerning any person may be conveyed obliquely or indirectly,
or by way of question, conjecture, exclamation or by irony
(4) The court does not distinguish between “character” and “reputation” for fixing liability
against defamation

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 14 Paper-III


26. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ ⁄UÊ¡Œ˝Ê„ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê •ŸŸÈ◊ÊŒŸ–
(2) ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ÁflM§h •ŸÊŒ⁄U ÷Êfl ©∑§‚ÊŸÊ–
(3) ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄¸UflÊßÿÊ¥ ¬⁄U Á≈Uå¬áÊË ∑§⁄UŸÊ–
(4) ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ÁflM§h •¬˝ËÁà ∑§Ê ÷Êfl ¬ÒŒÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊ‚–

27. Á∑§‚Ë ‹Ê∑§ ‚fl∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ Á∑§∞ ª∞ Á∑§‚Ë ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ ÁflM§h ÁŸ¡Ë ’øÊfl ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ©¬‹éœ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ —
(1) ¡’ fl„ ‚Œ˜÷Êfl ‚ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ê–
(2) ¡’ ©‚∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ß‚ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊ‚ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ê–
(3) ¡’ ÿ„ ∑§Êÿ¸ Ã’ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ê ¡’ fl„ ∑§Êÿʸ‹ÿ ◊¥ ©¬ÁSÕà Ÿ „Ê–
(4) ¡’ ÿ„ ÁflÁœ mÊ⁄UÊ ãÿÊÿÊÁøà ∆U„⁄UÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸflÊ‹Ê „Ê–

28. ¬„‹ ‚ ŒÊ·Á‚h Á∑§‚Ë •¬⁄UÊœË ∑§Ê ’…∏UË „È߸ ‚¡Ê ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ë ‡Êø •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò?
(1) ÁflªÃ ŒÊ·Á‚Áh ◊¥ ©‚ ∑§◊ ‚ ∑§◊ 3 fl·¸ ∑§Ë ∑Ò§Œ ∑§Ë ‚¡Ê „È߸ „Ê–
(2) ¬‡øÊÃflÃ˸ •¬⁄UÊœ ∑§ Á‹∞ 3 fl·¸ ‚ •Áœ∑§ ∑§Ë ∑Ò§Œ ∑§Ë ‚¡Ê Ÿ ’ŸÃË „Ê–
(3) •¬⁄UÊœ - •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ M§¬ ‚ ‚ê¬Áà ÿÊ Á‚Ä∑§Ê ÿÊ ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄UË S≈UÊê¬ ‚ ¡È«∏UÊ „È•Ê •¬⁄UÊœ „Ê–
(4) ÁflªÃ ŒÊ·Á‚Áh ÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ Ÿ „È߸ „Ê–

29. Áfl∑ΧÃÁøà ߥÁªÃ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò —


(1) ¬˝àÿ∑§ √ÿÁ∑à ∑§Ê SflSÕ-ÁøûÊ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ¡’ Ã∑§ Á∑§ ß‚∑§ Áfl¬⁄UËà ‚ÊÁ’à Ÿ „Ê–
(2) ¡’ ∑§Ê߸ •¬⁄UÊœË∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸ •√ÿflÁSÕà ÁøûÊ ◊¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê∞–
(3) ¡’ ‚¥ôÊÊŸÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ∞‚Ë „Ê Á∑§ √ÿÁÄà ∑§Ê ÿ„ ôÊÊŸ Ÿ „Ê Á∑§ ©‚Ÿ ÄÿÊ Á∑§ÿÊ „Ò–
(4) •¬˝‡Êʥà S◊ÎÁà ¡ã◊¡Êà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–

30. Á∑§Ÿ ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁÃÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ ∑§Êÿ¸ ‚ŒÊ· ¬Á⁄U⁄UÊœ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊªÊ–
(1) ¬Á⁄U‚Ë◊Ê∞° (2) ŒÈ÷ʸfl
(3) ŸÒÁÃ∑§ ’‹ (4) ‡ÊÁÄà ∑§Ê ÷Í‹fl‡Ê Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ¬˝ÿÊª

31. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò?


(1) ∑§Ê߸ ¬˝∑§Ê‡Ê∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ flÄÃ√ÿ ∑§Ê ¬˝∑§ÊÁ‡Êà ∑§⁄UŸ Á‹∞ Á‚»¸§ ¬„‹Ë ’Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄UŒÊÿË „ÊÃÊ „Ò, ©‚
’Ê⁄U-’Ê⁄U ŒÊ„⁄UÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ Ÿ„Ë¥–
(2) ‚◊ÊøÊ⁄U¬òÊ ◊¥ ¬˝∑§ÊÁ‡Êà ©‚ ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ flÄÃ√ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ Á‚»¸§ ‚ê¬ÊŒ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄UŒÊÿË „ÊÃÊ „Ò Ÿ Á∑§ ◊ÈŒ˝∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U
¬˝∑§Ê‡Ê∑§–
(3) Á∑§‚Ë √ÿÁÄà ‚ ¡È«∏U ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ •Ê⁄UÊ¬ ∑§Ê ¬⁄UÊˇÊ •ÕflÊ •¬˝àÿˇÊ M§¬ ‚, •ÕflÊ ¬˝‡Ÿ, •≈U∑§‹, ÁflS◊ÿ
ÿÊ √ÿ¥ª ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ ¬˝∑§≈UU Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
(4) ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ ∑§ Áπ‹Ê»§ Á¡ê◊ŒÊ⁄UË Ãÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ““øÁ⁄UòÊ”” •ÊÒ⁄U ““ÅÿÊÁÔ” ∑§ ’Ëø •¥Ã⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ
„Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 15 Paper-III


32. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of
sustainable development and as such polluter in liable to pay the cost of the
individual sufferers as well as the cost of reversing the damaged ecology
Reason (R) : “Polluter pays principle” is part of the environmental jurisprudence of this
country
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

33. Which one of the following principle is associated with “Trial Smelter” case ?
(1) Principle of sustainable development
(2) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by
fumes in the territory of another
(3) Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable
development
(4) Placing a duty on the State to hold environmental resources in trust for the benefit of
public

34. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) National Environmental Tribunal (i) Basel Convention, 1989
(b) “Doctrine of Sic utere tuo ut alienum (ii) Rio Declaration
non leadas”
(c) To stop and prevent the international (iii) Kyoto Protocol, 1997
traffic in dumping and resultant
accumulation of toxic and dangerous
products and wastes
(d) Convention or climate change strengthened (iv) Principle 21 and 22 of Stockhalm
Declarations
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 16 Paper-III


32. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ˇÊÁê˝Sà ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ©Œ˜œÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸÊ ‚¥œÊ⁄UáÊËÿ Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§Ë ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ Á„S‚Ê „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U
ß‚Á‹∞, ¬˝ŒÍ·∑§ „ÊÁŸ ©∆UÊŸ flÊ‹ •‹ª-•‹ª √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‹ÊªÃ ∑§Ê ÷ȪÃÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§
‚ÊÕ-‚ÊÕ ˇÊÁê˝Sà ¬ÊÁ⁄UÁSÕÁÃ∑§Ë-Ã¥òÊ ∑§Ê ¬ÈŸ— ∆UË∑§ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ‹ÊªÃ ∑§Ê ÷ȪÃÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ÷ÊªË „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : “¬˝ŒÍ·∑§ •ŒÊ ∑§⁄U - Á‚hʥÔ ß‚ Œ‡Ê ∑§ ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊËÿ ÁflÁœ-‡ÊÊSòÊ ∑§Ê Á„S‚Ê „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò –
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò –
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò –
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò –

33. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê Á‚hʥà “≈˛UÊÚÿ‹ S◊À≈U⁄U” ∑§‚ ‚ ¡È«UÊ „È•Ê „Ò ?
(1) ‚¥œÊ⁄UáÊËÿ Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§Ê Á‚hʥÖ
(2) Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ⁄UÊC˛ ∑§Ê •¬Ÿ ÷Í-÷ʪ ∑§Ê ß‚ Ã⁄U„ ßSÃ◊Ê‹ ∑§⁄UŸ ÿÊ ßSÃ◊Ê‹ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë •ŸÈ◊Áà ŒŸ ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U
Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò Á∑§ ©‚‚ ŒÍ‚⁄U ∑§ ÷Í-÷ʪ ◊¥ œÈ•Ê° ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ˇÊÁà ∑§ÊÁ⁄Uà „Ê–
(3) ˇÊÁê˝Sà ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ¬ÈŸ— ∆UË∑§ ∑§⁄UŸÊ ‚¥œÊ⁄UáÊËÿ Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§Ë ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ Á„S‚Ê „Ò–
(4) ⁄UÊC˛ ¬⁄U ÿ„ ∑§Ã¸√ÿ ÁŸM§Á¬Ã ∑§⁄UŸÊ Á∑§ fl„ ‹ÊªÊ¥ ∑§ ‹Ê÷ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊËÿ ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ãÿÊ‚ ◊¥ œÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄U–

34. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊËÿ •Áœ∑§⁄UáÊ (i) ’Ê‚‹ •Á÷‚◊ÿ, 1989
(b) “Á‚∑§ ÿÍ≈U⁄U ≈˜UÿÈ•Ê ÿÍ≈U ∞Á‹Ÿ◊ ŸÊÚŸ ‹«U‚ ” (ii) Á⁄UÿÊ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ
∑§Ê Á‚hÊ¥Ã
(c) •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ÿÊÃÊÿÊà ∑§Ê ¬Ê≈UŸ («Uê¬ ∑§⁄UŸ) •ÊÒ⁄U (iii) ÄÿÊ≈UÊ ¬˝Ê≈UÊ∑§ÊÚ‹, 1997
Áfl·ÊÄà ∞fl¥ πÃ⁄UŸÊ∑§ ©à¬ÊŒÊ¥ ∞fl¥ •¬Á‡ÊCÊ¥ ∑§ ¬Á⁄UáÊÊ◊Ë
‚¥ª˝„áÊ ∑§Ê ⁄UÊ∑§ŸÊ ∞fl¥ ©Ÿ∑§Ê ÁŸflÊ⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(d) ¡‹flÊÿÈ ¬Á⁄UfløŸ ¬⁄U •Á÷‚◊ÿ ∑§Ê ‚Ȍ΅∏U Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ (iv) S≈UÊÚ∑§„Ê◊ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ ∑§ Á‚hʥà 21 ∞fl¥ 22
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 17 Paper-III


35. Which one of the following statement is wrong ?
(1) Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment which is a facet of the right
to life guaranteed under Art 21 of the Constitution of India
(2) The power confered under an Environmental Statute may be exercised only to advance
Environment Protection and not for a purpose that would defeat the object of the law
(3) Financial constraints of the government may be a reasonable factor to exonorate the
Government/Municipal bodies from performing its statutory liability
(4) Precautionary principle imposes the onus of proof on the developer to show his or her
action is environmentally benign

36. The Supreme Court in which one of the following cases observed that, “the issue of pollution
should not be resolved at the cost of the poor people’s livelihood“ ?
(1) Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India
(2) Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardichand
(3) M.C. Metha v. Union of India
(4) T.N. Godavarman Thimmulpaad v. Union of India

37. Under the Wild Life Protection Act, the boundaries of a National Park shall be made in one
of the following way :
(1) By passing a resolution in the Parliament
(2) By passing a resolution in the Legislature of a State
(3) By passing a resolution both in the Parliament and State Legislature
(4) By passing a resolution in the Municipal Body and State Legislature

38. ‘Basel Convention’ is associated with one of the following conventions on :


(1) International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(2) The control of transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal
(3) Climate Change
(4) Protection of the ozone layer

39. Which of the following jurists deny legal character of international law ?
(a) Habbes (b) Pufendorf (c) Oppenheim (d) Starke
Code :
(1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 18 Paper-III


35. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ª‹Ã „Ò ?
(1) ¬˝àÿ∑§ √ÿÁÄà ∑§ ¬Ê‚ SflÊSâÿ∑§⁄U ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ÀÊÊ÷ ©∆UÊŸ ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U „Ò ¡Ê ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§ •ŸÈë¿UŒ
21 ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ¡ËflŸ ∑§ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ¬„‹Í „Ò –
(2) ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊËÿ ‚¥ÁflÁœ ∑§ Äà ¬˝ŒûÊ ‡ÊÁÄà ∑§Ê ∑§fl‹ ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ ‚¥⁄UˇÊáÊ ∑§Ê ’…∏ÊflÊ ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ßSÃ◊Ê‹ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê
‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U Ÿ Á∑§ ∞‚ ¬˝ÿÊ¡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ Á¡‚‚ ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê ©g‡ÿ √ÿÕ¸ „Ê ¡Ê∞ªÊ –
(3) ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ÁflûÊËÿ ’ÊäÿÃÊ∞¥, ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U / Ÿª⁄U¬ÊÁ‹∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§ÊÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©Ÿ∑§ ‚Ê¥ÁflÁœ∑§ ŒÊÁÿàflÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÁŸc¬ÊŒŸ ∑§⁄UŸ
‚ ÷Ê⁄U-◊ÈÄà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ Ã∑¸§‚¥ªÃ ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ „Ê ‚∑§ÃË „Ò –
(4) ¬ÍflÊ¸¬Êÿ Á‚hʥà «Ufl‹¬⁄U ¬⁄U ß‚ ’Êà ∑§Ê ¬˝◊ÊáÊ ŒŸ ∑§Ê ŒÊÁÿàfl ‚ÊÒ¥¬ÃÊ „Ò Á∑§ fl„ ÿ„ Œ‡Êʸ∞ Á∑§ ©‚∑§Ë
∑§Ê⁄¸UflÊ߸ ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊËÿ ŒÎÁC ‚ ‚È‚Êäÿ „Ò –

36. ©ëøÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ∞∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ Á≈Uå¬áÊË ∑§Ë Á∑§ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ ∑§Ê ◊ÈgÊ ª⁄UË’ •ÊŒ◊Ë ∑§Ë
•Ê¡ËÁfl∑§Ê ∑§Ë ‹ÊªÃ ¬⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ ÁŸ¬≈UÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ –
(1) ߥÁ«UÿŸ ∑§Ê©¥Á‚‹ »§ÊÚ⁄U ∞ãflÊÿ⁄UÊ ‹Ëª‹ ∞ćʟ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
(2) êÿÈÁŸÁ‚¬‹ ∑§Ê©¥Á‚‹, ⁄UËÊ◊ ’ŸÊ◊ flҌ˸øÊ¥Œ
(3) ∞◊.‚Ë. ◊„ÃÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
(4) ≈UË.∞Ÿ. ªÊŒÊfl◊¸Ÿ ÁÕê◊‹¬ÊŒU ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ

37. flãÿ ¡Ëfl ‚¥⁄UˇÊáÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ∞∑§ ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ ¬Ê∑¸§ ∑§Ë ‚Ë◊Ê∞¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∞∑§ Ã⁄UË∑§ ‚ ’ŸÊ߸ ¡Ê∞¥ªË —
(1) ‚¥‚Œ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚¥∑§À¬ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄U∑§
(2) ⁄UÊíÿ ∑§ ÁflœÊŸ-◊¥«U‹ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚¥∑§À¬ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄U∑§
(3) ‚¥‚Œ •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄UÊíÿ ÁflœÊŸ-◊¥«U‹ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚¥∑§À¬ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄U∑§ –
(4) Ÿª⁄U¬ÊÁ‹∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§Êÿ •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄UÊíÿ ÁflœÊŸ-◊¥«U‹ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚¥∑§À¬ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄U∑§ –

38. ’Ê‚‹ ∑§ãfl¥‡ÊŸ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ∞∑§ •Á÷‚◊ÿ ‚ ¡È«UÊ „È•Ê „Ò?
(1) flãÿ ¬ÊŒ¬ fl ¡ãÃÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥∑§≈Uʬ㟠¬˝¡ÊÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§ •¥Ã⁄U⁄Uʸ·Î≈˛UËÿ √ÿʬÊ⁄U ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ ‚ –
(2) πÃ⁄UŸÊ∑§ •¬Á‡ÊCÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ Œ‡Ê ‚ ŒÍ‚⁄U Œ‡Ê ◊¥ ‹ÊŸ-‹ ¡ÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ©Ÿ∑§ ÁŸ¬≈UÊŸ ¬⁄U ÁŸ◊¥òÊáÊ ‚¥’œ
¥ Ë •Á÷‚◊ÿ ‚
(3) ¡‹flÊÿÈ ¬Á⁄UfløŸ ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ ‚
(4) •Ê¡ÊŸ ¬⁄Uà ∑§Ê ’øÊŸ ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ ‚

39. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ÁflÁœflûÊÊ •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ÁflÁœ ∑§ flÒœÊÁŸ∑§ øÁ⁄UòÊ ∑§Ê Ÿ∑§Ê⁄UÃ „Ò¥?
(a) „ÊÚ’‚ (b) ¬È»¥§«UÊ»¸§ (c) •Ê¬Ÿ„◊ (d) S≈UÊ∑¸
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) Á‚»¸ (a) (2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b) ŒÊŸÊ¥
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚÷Ë

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 19 Paper-III


40. In which of the following cases the world court by majority has taken the view that the
sources of law are not hierarchal but are necessarily complimentary and inter related ?
(1) Nicaragua v. U.S.A
(2) Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
(3) Portugal v. India
(4) Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear

41. Who of the following has viewed that there is legal duty on the part of the existing states to
recognise any community that has in fact acquired the characteristics of Statehood ?
(1) Oppenheim (2) Lauterpacht (3) Philip C. Jessup (4) Anzilloti

42. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?


(a) In Nottelohm’s case the International Court of Justice held that in respect of grant of
nationality there is no obligation of the states if that man has no relationship with the
State of Naturalisation
(b) In famous Re lynch case it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state he will
be called Stateless
(c) Nationality is the principal link between an individual and international law
(d) The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1959 by the General
Assembly
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a) and (c) both are correct

43. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code
given below :
Assertion (A) : It is a very important principle of International Law that extradition for
political crimes is not allowed.
Reason (R) : Stoeck v. The Public Trustee is a leading case relating to non - extradition of
political criminals.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 20 Paper-III


40. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ Áfl‡fl •ŒÊ‹Ã Ÿ ’„È◊à ‚ ÿ„ ÁfløÊ⁄U ⁄UπÊ „Ò Á∑§ ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê dÊà ‚Ê¬ÊÁŸ∑§Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò
’ÁÀ∑§ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ M§¬ ‚ ¬Í⁄U∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬⁄US¬⁄U ¡È«∏UÊ „È•Ê „Ò?
(1) ÁŸ∑§Ê⁄UÊªÈ•Ê ’ŸÊ◊ ÿÍ.∞‚.∞. (2) »¥˝§Á≈U˜ÿ⁄U ÁflflÊŒ (’È⁄UÁ∑§ŸÊ »§Ê‚Ê ’ŸÊ◊ ◊Ê‹Ë)
(3) ¬ÈøªÊ‹ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà (4) ∑§‚ ∑§ã‚ŸËZª ÁŒ ≈Uꬋ •ÊÚ»§ ¬˝Ë„ Áfl„ÿ⁄UU

41. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚Ÿ ÿ„ ÁfløÊ⁄U √ÿÄà Á∑§ÿÊ „Ò Á∑§ Áfll◊ÊŸ ⁄UÊC˛Ê¥ ∑§Ë ÿ„ flÒœÊÁŸ∑§ ∑§Ã¸√ÿ „Ò Á∑§ fl Á∑§‚Ë ∞‚
‚◊ÈŒÊÿ ∑§Ê ◊ÊãÿÃÊ Œ¥ Á¡‚Ÿ flSÃÈ× ∞∑§ ⁄UÊC˛ ∑§Ê ªÈáÊ •Á¡¸Ã Á∑§ÿÊ „Ê–
(1) •Ê¬Ÿ„◊ (2) ‹Ê≈U⁄U¬Êø≈U (3) Á»§Á‹¬ ‚Ë. ¡‚¬ (4) ∞¥Á¡‹ÊÁ≈U

42. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?


(a) ŸÊ≈U‹Ê„◊˜ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ •¬ŸÊ ÁfløÊ⁄U √ÿQ§ Á∑§ÿÊ Á∑§ Á∑§‚Ë √ÿÁÄà ∑§Ê Á∑§‚Ë Œ‡Ê ∑§Ë
ŸÊªÁ⁄U∑§ÃÊ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ⁄UÊC˛Ê¥ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê߸ ŒÊÁÿàfl Ÿ„Ë¥ ÿÁŒ ©‚ √ÿÁÄà ∑§Ê Œ‡ÊËÿ∑§⁄UáÊ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ ‚¥’¥œ Ÿ
„Ê–¥
(b) ¬˝Á‚h Á⁄U ‹Ëãø ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ÿ„ ◊ÊŸÊ ªÿÊ Á∑§ ÿÁŒ ∑§Ê߸ √ÿÁÄà Á∑§‚Ë ⁄UÊC˛ ∑§Ê ŸÊªÁ⁄U∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ÃÊ ©‚ ⁄UÊíÿÁfl„ËŸ
∑§„Ê ¡Ê∞ªÊ–
(c) ⁄UÊC˛ËÿÃÊ √ÿÁÄà •ÊÒ⁄U •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ÁflÁœ ∑§ ’Ëø ¬˝◊Èπ ∑§«∏Ë „Ò–
(d) •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ 1959 ◊¥ ⁄UÊíÿÁfl„ËŸÃÊ ∑§Ë ∑§◊Ë ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ ∑§Ê •¥ªË∑§Ê⁄U Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) Á‚»¸§ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò– (2) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(3) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò– (4) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò–

43. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏U¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ÿ„ •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ◊„àfl¬Íáʸ Á‚hʥà „Ò Á∑§ ⁄UÊ¡ŸËÁÃ∑§ •¬⁄UÊœÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝àÿ¬¸áÊ ∑§Ë
•ŸÈ◊Áà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ⁄UÊ¡ŸËÁÃ∑§ •¬⁄UÊÁœÿÊ¥ ∑§ ¬˝àÿ¬¸áÊ ∑§Ë ◊ŸÊ„Ë ‚¥’¥œË ¬˝◊Èπ ◊Ê◊‹Ê S≈UÊ∞∑§ ’ŸÊ◊ ÁŒ ¬Áé‹∑§
≈˛US≈UË „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 21 Paper-III


44. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?
(a) United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted in 1977
by the General Assembly
(b) Article 14 of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights makes obligatory by
states to grant Asylum
(c) The international court of justice explained the distinction between ‘Territorial asylum’
and ‘diplomatic asylum’ in the Colombia v. Perus
(d) The Convention on the status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 22, 1954
Code :
(1) Only (a) is not correct (2) (a) and (d) are not correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) all are not correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct

45. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?


(a) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations. Each member
may not have not more than five representatives in the General Assembly
(b) China, Russia, America, Britain and Italy are the permanent members of the security
Council
(c) The members of the Economic and Social Council are elected by the security council,
one - third of its members are elected every year by the security council for a term of
five years
(d) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the Statute of
International Court of Justice
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (d) are correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

46. Advisory opinion can be given by the International Court of Justice on legal question :
(1) On the request of Security Council only
(2) On the request of the General Assembly only
(3) On the request of General Assembly or the Security Council both
(4) On the request of the Economic and Social Council if authorised by the Security Council

47. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : In Mithila, a widow cannot adopt at all, not even if she has the express
authority of her husband.
Reason (R) : A widow may adopt under the authority from her husband.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is correct

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 22 Paper-III


44. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-SÊÊ/∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò/„Ò¥?
(a) •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄UÊ fl·¸ 1977 ◊¥ ¬˝ÊŒÁ‡Ê∑§ ‡Ê⁄UáÊ ‚¥’¥œË ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊC˛ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ ∑§Ê ‚fl¸‚ê◊Áà ‚ •¬ŸÊÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ–
(b) 1948 ∑§Ë ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚Êfl¸÷ÊÒÁ◊∑§ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ ∑§ •ŸÈë¿UŒ 14 Á∑§‚Ë ⁄UÊC˛ ∑§Ê ‡Ê⁄UáÊ ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ’Êäÿ∑§Ê⁄UË
’ŸÊÃÊ „Ò–
(c) •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ∑§Ê‹Áê’ÿÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ¬M§‚ ◊¥ “¬˝ÊŒÁ‡Ê∑§ ‡Ê⁄UáÊ” •ÊÒ⁄U “⁄UÊ¡ŸÁÿ∑§ ‡Ê⁄UáÊ” ∑§ ’Ëø ∑§ ÷Œ ∑§Ê
√ÿÊÅÿÊÁÿà Á∑§ÿÊ ÕÊ–
(d) ‡Ê⁄UáÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ÁSÕÁà ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ, 1951 ∑§Ê 22 •¬˝Ò‹, 1954 ∑§Ê ‹ÊªÍ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) Á‚»¸§ (a) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– (2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–

45. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?


(a) •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊc≈˛U ∑§ ‚÷Ë ‚ŒSÿ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „ÊÃ „Ò¥– •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ‚ŒSÿ Œ‡Ê ∑§ ¬Ê¥ø ‚ •Áœ∑§
¬˝ÁÃÁŸÁœ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
(b) øËŸ, M§‚, •◊Á⁄U∑§Ê, ߥª‹Ò¥«U, •ÊÒ⁄U ß≈U‹Ë ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬⁄UË·Œ ∑§ SÕÊÿË ‚ŒSÿ „Ò¥–
(c) •ÊÁÕ¸∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ¬⁄UË·Œ˜ ∑§ ‚ŒSÿ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬⁄UË·Œ mÊ⁄UÊ øÈŸ ¡ÊÃ „Ò¥, ß‚∑§ ∞∑§-ÁÄÊ߸ ‚ŒSÿ ¬Ê¥ø fl·¸ ∑§
∑§Êÿ¸∑§Ê‹ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬⁄UË·Œ˜ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬˝àÿ∑§ fl·¸ øÈŸ ¡ÊÃ „Ò–
(d) ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊC˛ ∑§ ‚÷Ë ‚ŒSÿ •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÁflÁœ ∑§ Sfl× ‚ŒSÿ „ÊÃ „Ò¥–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) Á‚»¸§ (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ U(d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–

46. •¥Ã⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁflÁœ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬⁄U ¬⁄UÊ◊‡Ê¸∑§Ê⁄UË ⁄UÊÿ Œ ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò —
(1) Á‚»¸§ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬⁄UË·Œ ∑§ •ŸÈ⁄UÊœ ¬⁄U–
(2) Á‚»¸§ •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê ∑§ •ŸÈ⁄UÊœ ¬⁄U–
(3) •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê •ÕflÊ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬⁄UË·Œ ∑§ •ŸÈ⁄UÊœ ¬⁄U–
(4) ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬⁄UË·Œ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑Χà Á∑§∞ ¡ÊŸ ¬⁄U •ÊÁÕ¸∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ¬Á⁄U·Œ ∑§ •ŸÈ⁄UÊœ ¬⁄U–

47. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) — Á◊ÁÕ‹Ê ◊¥ ∞∑§ ÁflœflÊ •¬Ÿ ¬Áà ‚ S¬c≈U •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ¬˝Ê# „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ÷Ë ∑§Ã߸ ŒûÊ∑§-ª˝„áÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄U
‚∑§ÃË „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ∞∑§ ÁflœflÊ •¬Ÿ ¬Áà ∑§ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ŒûÊ∑§-ª˝„áÊ ∑§⁄U ‚∑§ÃË „Ò¥–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥§ÃÈ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 23 Paper-III


48. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that “We are not prepared to express
any definite opinion on the question whether there can be two Karta of a Joint Hindu
Family”.
(1) Moraka Properties v. Biharilal Moraka
(2) Union of India v. Sree Ram Bohra
(3) Nopany Investment v. Santosh Singh
(4) Commissioner of Income Tax v. Govindram Sugar Mills

49. In which of the following case, the court held that, “Divorce is good in law through bad in
Theology” ?
(1) Shah Bano case (2) Bai Tahira case
(3) Shamim Ara case (4) Sarabai case

50. In Muslim law “Hizanat” related to :


(1) Father’s custody of child (2) Brother’s custody of child
(3) Mother’s custody of child (4) Sister’s custody of child

51. Match the List - I with List - II and indicate the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Nijhawan v Nijhawan (i) Dowry
(b) Daniel Latifi v Union of India (ii) Uniform civil code
(c) Husain Ara v Zubaida Begum (iii) Cruelty
(d) Gujarat Woman Workers Association Case (iv) Maintenance
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

52. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : ‘Option of Puberty’ is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu
Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under
Muslim Law.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct (R) is false
(4) (A) is false (R) is correct

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 24 Paper-III


48. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ©ëøÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ÿ„ ◊ÊŸÊ Á∑§ “„◊ ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ Á∑§ ÄÿÊ ‚¥ÿÈÄà Á„ãŒÈ ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U ◊¥ ŒÊ
∑§Ãʸ „Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ ÁŸÁ‡øà ÁfløÊ⁄U √ÿÄà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÃÒÿÊ⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– ”
(1) ◊Ê⁄UÊ∑§Ê ¬˝Ê¬≈U˸¡ ’ŸÊ◊ Á’„Ê⁄UË ‹Ê‹ ◊Ê⁄UÊ∑§Ê
(2) ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ üÊË ⁄UÊ◊ ’Ê„⁄UÊ
(3) ŸÊ¬ÊŸË ßãflS≈U◊¥≈U ’ŸÊ◊ ‚¥ÃÊ· Á‚¥„
(4) •Êÿ∑§⁄U •ÊÿÈÄà ’ŸÊ◊ ªÊÁfl¥Œ ⁄UÊ◊ ‡ÊȪ⁄U Á◊À‚

49. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ∑§‚ ◊¥ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ◊ÊŸÊ Á∑§ “ËÊ∑§ ∑§ÊŸÍŸ ◊¥ •ë¿UÊ „Ò ÿlÁ¬ Á∑§ œ◊¸‡ÊÊSòÊ ◊¥ ’È⁄UÊ „Ò ” ?
(1) ‡ÊÊ„’ÊŸÊ ∑§‚ (2) ’Ê߸ ÃÊÁ„⁄UÊ ∑§‚
(3) ‡Ê◊Ë◊ •Ê⁄UÊ ∑§‚ (4) ‚Ê⁄UÊ’Ê߸ ∑§‚

50. ◊ÈÁS‹◊ ÁflÁœ ◊¥ “Á„¡ÊŸÃ” ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò —


(1) Á¬ÃÊ ∑§Ë •Á÷⁄UˇÊÊ ◊¥ ’Ê‹∑§ (2) ÷Ê߸ ∑§Ë •Á÷⁄UˇÊÊ ◊¥ ’Ê‹∑§
(3) ◊ÊÃÊ ∑§Ë •Á÷⁄UˇÊÊ ◊¥ ’Ê‹∑§ (4) ’„Ÿ ∑§Ë •Á÷⁄UˇÊÊ ◊¥ ’Ê‹∑§

51. ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ÁŸ¤ÊÊflŸ ’ŸÊ◊ ÁŸ¤ÊÊflŸ (i) Œ„¡
(b) «UÁŸÿ‹ ‹ÃË»§Ë ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ (ii) ‚◊ÊŸ ŸÊªÁ⁄U∑§ ‚¥Á„ÃÊ
(c) „È‚ÒŸ •Ê⁄UÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ¡È’ÒŒÊ ’ª◊ (iii) ∑˝Í§⁄UÃÊ
(d) ªÈ¡⁄UÊà flÍ◊Ÿ ∑§Ê◊ªÊ⁄U ∞‚ÊÁ‚∞‡ÊŸ ∑§‚ (iv) ÷⁄UáÊ-¬Ê·áÊ
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

52. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) — Á„ãŒÈ ÁflÁœ ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ““ÿÊÒflŸÊª◊ ∑§Ê Áfl∑§À¬”” ÁflflÊ„ ∑§Ê ÁŸ⁄UÊ∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ‚⁄U‹
¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ◊ÈÁS‹◊ ÁflÁœ ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ““ÿÊÒflŸÊª◊ ∑§Ê Áfl∑§À¬”” ÁflflÊ„ ∑§Ê ÁŸ⁄UÊ∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ‚⁄U‹ ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ
Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 25 Paper-III


53. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought various grounds for dissolution of
marriage based on the principles of :

(1) Shia Schools (2) Hanafi School (3) Shafai School (4) Maliki School

54. A muslim husband has E - mailed Talaq letter writing “I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce
you,” without the signature of witnesses, Talaq will be :

(1) Valid (2) Voidable

(3) Void (4) Neither valid nor void or no talaq

55. Sec 2(d) of ‘The protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines ,”human rights” means the
rights relating to __________ of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied
in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. Fill in the blank.

(1) Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity

(2) Life, Equality, Liberty and Dignity

(3) Life, Equality, Dignity and Liberty

(4) Life, Liberty, Dignity and Equality

56. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to National Human Rights
Commission of India, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 ?

(1) Sec 3......Appointment of chairperson and other members

(2) Sec 4......Removal of a member of the commission

(3) Sec 5......Member to act as chairperson in certain times

(4) Sec 6......Term of office of members

57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to the duration of the
position of the members/chairpersons of N.H.R.C of India ?

(1) Justice S. Rajendra Babu - 02.04.2007 to 31.05.2009

(2) Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan - 07.06.2010 to 11.05.2015

(3) Justice Ms.M. Fathima Beevi - 03.11.1993 to 24.01.1997

(4) Justice V.S. Malimat - 05.08.1994 to 12.10.1998

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 26 Paper-III


53. ◊ÈÁS‹◊ ÁflflÊ„ ÁflÉÊ≈UŸ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1939 ‚ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ Á‚hʥà ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ÁflflÊ„ ∑§ ÁflÉÊ≈UŸ ∑§
ÁflÁ÷㟠•ÊœÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝SÃÈà Á∑§ÿÊ —
(1) Á‡ÊÿÊ ◊à (2) „ŸÊ»§Ë ◊à (3) ‡ÊÊ»§ß¸ ◊à (4) ◊ÊÁ‹∑§Ë ◊Ã

54. ∞∑§ ◊ÈÁS‹◊ ¬Áà Ÿ ªflÊ„Ê¥ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á’ŸÊ ߸ ◊‹ ËÊ∑§ ¬òÊ ““◊Ò¥ •Ê¬∑§Ê ËÊ∑§ ŒÃÊ „Í°, ◊Ò¥ •Ê¬∑§Ê ËÊ∑§ ŒÃÊ
„Í°, ◊Ò¥ •Ê¬∑§Ê ËÊ∑§ ŒÃÊ „Í°,”” ÷¡Ê, ÿ„ „ÊªÊ —
(1) flÒœ (2) ¬Á⁄U„Êÿ¸
(3) ‡ÊÍãÿ (4) Ÿ flÒœ Ÿ ‡ÊÍãÿ ÿÊ ∑§Ê߸ ËÊ∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥

55. “◊ÊŸfl •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ‚¥⁄UˇÊÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1993 ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UÊ 2(ÉÊ) ◊¥ ¬Á⁄U÷Ê·Ê ŒË ªß¸ „Ò” Á∑§ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê •Õ¸ ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§
‚¥ÁflœÊŸ mÊ⁄UÊ ªÊ⁄¥U≈UË ŒË ªÿË •ÕflÊ •ãÃ⁄UʸC˛Ëÿ •Á÷‚◊ÿ ◊¥ ‚ÁãŸÁ„à ÃÕÊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ◊¥ flÊŒ ÿÊÇÿ √ÿÁÄà ∑§
__________ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò – Á⁄UÄà SÕÊŸ ∑§Ë ¬ÍÁø ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —

(1) ¡ËflŸ, SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ, ‚◊ÊŸÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝ÁÃDÊ (2) ¡ËflŸ, ‚◊ÊŸÃÊ, SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝ÁÃc∆UÊ
(3) ¡ËflŸ, ‚◊ÊŸÃÊ, ¬˝ÁÃDÊ •ÊÒ⁄U SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ (4) ¡ËflŸ, SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ, ¬˝ÁÃDÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚◊ÊŸÃÊ

56. ◊ÊŸfl •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ‚¥⁄UˇÊáÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1993 ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÁœ∑§Ê⁄U •ÊÿÊª ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ
◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ÿÈÇ◊ ‚È◊Á‹Ã „Ò?
(1) œÊ⁄UÊ 3......•äÿˇÊ ∞fl¥ •ãÿ ‚ŒSÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄÃ
(2) œÊ⁄UÊ 4......•ÊÿÊª ∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ‚ŒSÿ ∑§Ê „≈UÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ
(3) œÊ⁄UÊ 5......∑§Áìÿ ‚◊ÿ ◊¥ Á∑§‚Ë ‚ŒSÿ ∑§Ê •äÿˇÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(4) œÊ⁄UÊ 6......ß‚∑§ ‚ŒSÿÊ¥ ∑§ ¬Œ ∑§Ê ∑§Êÿ¸∑§Ê‹

57. ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U •ÊÿÊª ∑§ ‚ŒSÿÊ¥/•äÿˇÊÊ¥ ∑§ ¬Œ ∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸∑§Ê‹ ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚
∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ÿÈÇ◊ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ãÿÊÿ◊ÍÁø ∞‚ ⁄UÊ¡ãŒ˝ ’Ê’Í - 02.04.2007 ‚ 31.05.2009 Ã∑§
(2) ãÿÊÿ◊ÍÁø ∑§ ¡Ë ’Ê‹Ê ∑ΧcáÊŸ - 07.06.2010 ‚ 11.05.2015 Ã∑§
(3) ãÿÊÿ◊ÍÁø üÊË◊ÃË ∞◊. »§ÊÁÃ◊Ê ’Ë’Ë - 03.11.1993 ‚ 24.01.1997 Ã∑§
(4) ãÿÊÿ◊ÍÁø flË.∞‚. ◊Á‹◊Õ - 05.08.1994 ‚ 12.10.1998 Ã∑§
N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 27 Paper-III
58. Match List - I with List - II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the (i) Proclaimed by the U.N General
Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Assembly resolution 3318 (XXIX) of
against Women 14 December, 1974
(b) Declaration on the Elimination of (ii) Adopted and opened for signature,
violence against women ratification and accession by the
U.N. General Assembly resolution
34/180 of 18 December, 1979
(c) Convention on the Elimination of All forms (iii) Proclaimed by the U.N General
of Discrimination against Women Assembly resolution 48/104 of
20 December, 1993
(d) Declaration on the protection of women (iv) Adopted by the U.N General
and children in Emergency and Armed Assembly Resolution 54/4 of
conflict 6 October, 1999 and opened for
signature, ratification and
accession on 10 December, 1999
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

59. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?


(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child on the involvement of
Children in Armed Conflict was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and
accession by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 54/263 of 25 May, 2000
(b) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No.182) was adopted on 15 June,
1999 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its eighty
- seventh session
(c) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) was adopted on 26 August, 1973 by the
General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its Fifty Eighth session
(d) Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted and opened for signature, ratification
and accession by the United Nations General Council Resolution 44/25 of 20 November,
1989
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect (2) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
(3) (a) and (b) are incorrect (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 28 Paper-III


58. ‚ÍøË - I ∑§Ê ‚ÍøË - II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ªÿ ∑ͧ≈U ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ◊Á„‹Ê•Ê¥ ∑§ Áπ‹Ê»§ ‚÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ÷Œ÷Êfl (i) 1974 ∑§ 14 ÁŒ‚¥’⁄U ∑§ ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊC˛ ‚¥ÉÊ ∑§Ë
ŒÍ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ „ÃÈ •Á÷‚◊ÿ ∑§ ¬˝Áà flÒ∑§ÁÀ¬∑§ ŸÿÊøÊ⁄U •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄UÊ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã ¬˝SÃÊfl 3318 (XXIX)
(b) ◊Á„‹Ê•Ê¥ ∑§ Áπ‹Ê»§ Á„¥‚Ê ‚◊Ê# ∑§⁄UŸ ‚¥’¥œË ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ (ii) •¥ªË∑Χà ÃÕÊ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U, ¬ÈÁC ÃÕÊ ¬Á⁄Uª˝„áÊ ∑§
Á‹ÿ •¬ÁˇÊà 18 ÁŒ‚¥’⁄U, 1979 ∑§ ‚¥ÿÈÄÃ
⁄UÊC˛ ◊„Ê‚÷Ê ∑§Ê ¬˝SÃÊfl 34/180
(c) ◊Á„‹Ê•Ê¥ ∑§ Áπ‹Ê»§ ‚÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ÷Œ÷Êfl ‚◊Ê# (iii) ‚¥ÿÈQ§ ⁄UÊC˛ •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄UÊ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã 20 ÁŒ‚¥’⁄U,
∑§⁄UŸ ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ 1993 ∑§Ê ¬˝SÃÊfl 48/104
(d) •Ê¬Êà ∑§Ê‹ ÃÕÊ ‚‡ÊSòÊ ‚¥ÉÊ·¸ ◊¥ ◊Á„‹Ê•Ê¥ (iv) ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊC˛ •Ê◊ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄UÊ 6 •ÄÃÍ’⁄U 1999
ÃÕÊ ’ëøÊ¥ ∑§ ‚¥⁄UˇÊáÊ ∑§Ë ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ ∑§Ê •¥ªË∑Χà ÃÕÊ 10 ÁŒ‚¥’⁄U, 1999 ∑§Ê
„SÃÊˇÊ⁄U, ¬ÈÁC ÃÕÊ ¬Á⁄Uª˝„áÊ „ÃÈ •¬ÁˇÊÃ
¬˝SÃÊfl 54/4
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

59. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ª‹Ã „Ò–


(a) ‚‡ÊSòÊ ‚¥ÉÊ·¸ ◊¥ ’ëøÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥Á‹åÃÃÊ ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ’Ê‹ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ ∑§Ê flÒ∑§ÁÀ¬∑§ ãÿÊøÊ⁄U
25 ◊߸, 2000 ∑§ ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊC˛ ◊„Ê‚÷Ê ∑§ ¬˝SÃÊfl 54/263 mÊ⁄UÊ •¥ªË∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U, ¬ÈÁC ∞fl¥ ¬Á⁄Uª˝„áÊ
„ÃÈ ⁄UπÊ ªÿÊ–
(b) •ãÃ⁄U⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ üÊ◊ ‚¥ª∆UŸ ∑§ ‚àÃÊÁ‚fl¥ ‚òÊ ◊¥ ß‚∑§ ◊„Ê‚ê◊‹Ÿ ◊¥ 15 ¡ÍŸ, 1999 ∑§Ê ‚flʸÁœ∑§ ’È⁄U ¬˝M§¬ ∑§Ê
’Ê‹ üÊ◊ •Á÷‚◊ÿ, 1999(‚¥.182) •¥ªË∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ–
(c) ãÿÍŸÃ◊ •ÊÿÈ •Á÷‚◊ÿ, 1973 (‚¥. 138) ∑§Ê •¥Ã⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ üÊ◊ ‚¥ª∆UŸ Ÿ •¬Ÿ •Ê∆UÊflŸfl¥ ‚òÊ ∑§ ◊„Ê ‚ê◊‹Ÿ
◊¥ 26 •ªSÃ, 1973 ∑§Ê •¥ªË∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ–
(d) ’Ê‹ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ‚¥’¥œË •Á÷‚◊ÿ ∑§Ê ‚¥ÿÈÄÃ⁄UÊC˛ ◊„ʬÁ⁄U·Œ ∑§ 20 Ÿfl¥’⁄U, 1989 ∑§ ¬˝SÃÊfl 44/25 mÊ⁄UÊ
•¥ªË∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÃÕÊ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U, ¬ÈÁC ∞fl¥ ¬Á⁄Uª˝„áÊ ∑§ Á‹ÿ ⁄UπÊ ªÿÊ–
∑ͧ≈ U—
(1) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ª‹Ã „Ò¥– (2) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(3) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b) ª‹Ã „Ò¥– (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚÷Ë ª‹Ã „Ò¥–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 29 Paper-III


60. The division of Human Rights into three generations was initially proposed in 1979 by one of
the following Czech Jurist at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strasbourg ?
(1) Karel Vasak (2) Charles O. Lee
(3) Maurice Cranston (4) Frederic Bastial

61. Arrange the following decided cases on the right to health in a chronological order and
choose the answer by using the code given below :
(a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal
(b) Paramananda Katara v. Union of India
(c) Social Jurists v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
(d) Sahara House v. Union of India
Code :
(1) (b), (a), (c), (d) (2) (d), (a), (b), (c) (3) (b), (d), (c), (a) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to ‘absolute liability’principle
laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India. Answer by using the code below :
(a) The principle was approved except as to quantum of damages in Charan Lal Sahu v.
Union of India
(b) The principle in determining compensation was applied in Union Carbide Corporation
v. Union of India
(c) The compensation to be awarded must have some broad correlation not only with
magnitude and capacity of the enterprise but also with the harm caused by it was held
in Deepak Nitrite v. State of Gujrat.
(d) The principle is not followed in India because Parliament could not pass yet Public
Liability Insurance Bill, 1991
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

63. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?


(1) Defamation published in permanent form - Slander
(2) Libel is recognized as offence - England
(3) Truth of defamatory matter is no defence - Civil law
(4) Action lies for defamatory statement - Absolute Privilege

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 30 Paper-III


60. S≈¥˛UÊS’Êª¸ ◊¥ •ãÃ⁄U⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U ‚¥SÕÊŸ ◊¥ fl·¸ 1979 ◊¥ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÃËŸ ¬ËÁ…∏UÿÊ¥ ◊¥ Áfl÷ÊÁ¡Ã Á∑§ÿ ¡ÊŸ
∑§Ê •Ê⁄¥U÷ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ø∑§ ÁflÁœflûÊ Ÿ ¬˝SÃÊfl Á∑§ÿÊ ÕÊ?
(1) ∑§Ê⁄U‹ fl‚Ê∑§ (2) øÊÀ‚¸ •Ê. ‹Ë
(3) ◊ÊÒÁ⁄U‚ ∑˝§Ê¥S≈UŸ (4) »˝§«UÁ⁄U∑§ ’ÊÁS≈U•‹

61. SflÊSâÿ ∑§ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ÁflÁŸÁ‡øà ◊Ê◊‹Ê¥ ∑§Ê ©Ÿ∑§ ‚„Ë ∑§Ê‹∑˝§◊ÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄U √ÿflÁSÕà ∑§ËÁ¡∞
•ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑ͧ≈U ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡ÿ —
(a) ¬Á‡ø◊ ’¥ªÊ‹ πà ◊¡ŒÍ⁄U ‚Á◊Áà ’ŸÊ◊ ¬Á‡ø◊ ’¥ªÊ‹ ⁄UÊíÿ
(b) ¬⁄U◊ʟ㌠∑§≈UÊ⁄UÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
(c) ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ÁflÁœflÃÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ ⁄UÊ¡œÊŸË ˇÊòÊ ÁŒÀ‹Ë ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U
(d) ‚„Ê⁄UÊ „Ê©‚ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (b), (a), (c), (d) (2) (d), (a), (b), (c) (3) (b), (d), (c), (a) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)

62. ∞◊.‚Ë. ◊„ÃÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà ¬Íáʸ ŒÊÁÿàfl Á‚hʥà ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë
„Ò/„Ò¥– ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
(a) ÿ„ Á‚hÊ¥Ã, Á‚flÊÿ ŸÈ∑§‚ÊÁŸÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ◊ÊòÊÊ ∑§, ø⁄UáÊ ‹Ê‹ ‚Ê„Í ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ◊¥ •ŸÈ◊ÊÁŒÃ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ –
(b) ÿ„ Á‚hÊ¥Ã, ˇÊÁìÍÁø ∑§Ê ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ ÿÍÁŸÿŸ ∑§Ê’ʸ߫U ∑§Ê⁄U¬Ê⁄U ‡ÊŸ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚¥ÉÊ ◊¥ ‹ÊªÍ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ–
(c) ŒË ¡ÊŸ flÊ‹Ë ˇÊÁìÍÁø ∑§Ê Ÿ ∑§fl‹ ©l◊ ∑§ •Ê∑§Ê⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ ’ÁÀ∑§ ©‚∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§ÊÁ⁄Uà „ÊÁŸ ∑§
‚ÊÕ ÷Ë ∑ȧ¿U √ÿʬ∑§ ‚„-‚¥’¥œ •fl‡ÿ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞, ß‚ ŒË¬∑§ ŸÊß≈˛UÊß≈U ’ŸÊ◊ ªÈ¡⁄UÊà ⁄UÊíÿ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄UÃ
Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ–
(d) ß‚ Á‚hʥà ∑§Ê ÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ ¬Ê‹Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ÄÿÊ¥Á∑§ ‚¥‚Œ •÷Ë Ã∑§ ‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑§ ŒÊÁÿàfl ’Ë◊Ê Áflœÿ∑§,
1991 Ÿ„Ë¥ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄U ‚∑§Ë „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) ∑§fl‹ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò– (2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò– (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò–

63. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ÿÈÇ◊ ‚„Ë ‚È◊Á‹Ã „Ò?


(1) SÕÊÿË M§¬ ◊¥ ¬˝∑§ÊÁ‡Êà ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ - •¬◊ÊŸ-fløŸ
(2) •¬◊ÊŸ-‹π ∑§Ê •¬⁄UÊœ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò - ߥNjҥ«U
(3) ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ∑§Ë ‚àÿÃÊ ∑§Ê߸ ¬˝ÁÃflÊŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò - Á‚Áfl‹ ∑§ÊŸÍŸ
(4) ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ ∑§ÕŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê⁄¸UflÊ߸ ’ŸÃË „Ò - ¬Íáʸ Áfl‡Ê·ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄U

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 31 Paper-III


64. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code below :
Assertion (A) : The existence of a duty to take care is essential before a person can be held
liable in negligence.
Reason (R) : The standard of care required is not a matter of law and does vary according
to the individuals although it does not vary according to the circumstances.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

65. Match List - I with List - II with regard to tort of nuisance and answer by using code below :
List-I List-II
(a) Burden of proof, once nuisance is proved (i) Prescription
(b) Remedy for the private nuisance (ii) Occupier
(c) Right to action for nuisance of a temporary (iii) Abatement
nature
(d) Right to commit a private nuisance may (iv) Defendant
be acquired
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

66. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code below :
Assertion (A) : According to the ‘law of tort’ every wrongful act for which there is no
justification or excuse to be treated as a tort.
Reason (R) : Theory of ‘pigeon - hole’ was propounded by Salmond.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 32 Paper-III


64. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ∞∑§ √ÿÁÄà ∑§Ê ‹Ê¬⁄UflÊ„Ë ∑§ Á‹∞ ÷ÊªË ∆U„⁄UÊ∞ ¡ÊŸ ‚ ¬„‹ Œπ÷Ê‹ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë «˜UÿÍ≈UË ∑§Ê „ÊŸÊ
•ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : •¬ÁˇÊà Œπ÷Ê‹ ∑§Ê SÃ⁄U ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê ◊Ê◊‹Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ß‚◊¥ √ÿÁÄà ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U •¥Ã⁄U „ÊÃÊ „Ò,
ÿlÁ¬ ß‚◊¥ ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U •¥Ã⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

65. ãÿÍ‚¥‚ ∑§ •¬∑Χàÿ ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ‚ÍøË - I •ÊÒ⁄U ‚ÍøË - II ∑§Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄U
‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ãÿÍ‚¥‚ ‚ÊÁ’à „ÊŸ ¬⁄U, ‚’Íà ∑§Ê ÷Ê⁄U (i) Áø⁄U÷Êª
(b) ¬˝Êßfl≈U ãÿÍ‚¥‚ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©¬øÊ⁄U (ii) •Áœ÷ÊªË
(c) •SÕÊÿË SflM§¬ ∑§ ãÿÍ‚¥‚ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê⁄¸UflÊ߸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U (iii) ©¬‡Ê◊Ÿ
(d) ¬˝Êßfl≈U ãÿÍ‚¥‚ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U •Á¡¸Ã Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò (iv) ¬˝ÁÃflÊŒË
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

66. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : “•¬∑Χàÿ ∑§Ë ÁflÁœ” ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ∞‚ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ‚ŒÊ· ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§Ê, Á¡‚∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë •ÊÒÁøàÿ‚ê◊ÃÃÊ
ÿÊ ¬˝ÁÄÃÈ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê, ∞∑§ •¬∑Χàÿ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊŸÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : “∑§ÊD ¬hÁÔ ∑§ Á‚hʥà ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁìʌŸ ‚Ê‹◊Ê¥«U mÊ⁄UÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 33 Paper-III


67. The provisions of the Consumer Protection Act shall be :

(1) Only in derogation of other law

(2) No addition to other law

(3) Not in addition and in derogation of other law

(4) In addition to and not in derogation of other law

68. Section 19 - A of the Consumer Protection Act provides that State and National Commissions
shall hear as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to finally dispose of
the appeal within ninety days from the date of its admission. The Section further empowers
the Commissions to make following orders ; answer by using code below :

(a) Ordinarily grant no adjournment unless sufficient cause

(b) To impose costs occasioned by adjournment

(c) Record the reason for delay while disposing of the appeal

(d) Dispose of the appeal ex parte

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

69. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code below :

Assertion (A) : Where a bill is unintentionally cancelled by the holder or his agent and the
cancellation is not apparent thereon, the bill is discharged.

Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 82 of the Negotiable Instruments
Act.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong (2) Both (A) and (R) are right

(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 34 Paper-III


67. ©¬÷ÊÄÃÊ ‚¥⁄UˇÊáÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§ ©¬’¥œ Á∑§‚ M§¬ ◊¥ „Ê¥ª?
(1) ŒÍ‚⁄UË ÁflÁœ ∑§ •À¬Ë∑§⁄UáÊ ◊¥–
(2) ŒÍ‚⁄UË ÁflÁœ ∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬Á⁄Uflœ¸Ÿ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥–
(3) Ÿ „Ë ŒÍ‚⁄UË ÁflÁœ ∑§ ¬Á⁄Uflœ¸Ÿ ◊¥ •ÊÒ⁄U Ÿ „Ë •À¬Ë∑§⁄UáÊ ◊¥ –
(4) ŒÍ‚⁄UË ÁflÁœ ∑§ ¬Á⁄Uflœ¸Ÿ ◊¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚∑§ •À¬Ë∑§⁄UáÊ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ –

68. ©¬÷ÊÄÃÊ ‚¥⁄UˇÊáÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UÊ 19-∑§ ◊¥ ÿ„ ©¬’¥œ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò Á∑§ ⁄UÊíÿ •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄UÊC˛Ëÿ •ÊÿÊª ÿÕÊ‚¥÷fl
ÿÕʇÊËÉÊ˝ ‚ÈŸflÊ߸ ∑§⁄¥Uª •ÊÒ⁄U ß‚ ’Êà ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊ‚ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ Á∑§ •¬Ë‹ ∑§Ê, ©‚∑§ ª˝„áÊ Á∑§∞ ¡ÊŸ ∑§Ë ÃÊ⁄UËπ ‚ Ÿé’
ÁŒŸÊ¥ ∑§ ÷ËÃ⁄U •¥ÁÃ◊ M§¬ ‚ ÁŸ¬≈UÊ⁄UÊ ∑§⁄U ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞– œÊ⁄UÊ ◊¥ •Êª •ÊÿÊªÊ¥ ∑§Ê ß‚ ’Êà ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚◊Õ¸ ’ŸÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò
Á∑§ fl ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà •ÊŒ‡Ê Œ– ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
(a) ¡’ Ã∑§ Á∑§ ¬ÿʸ# „ÃÈ∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê Ã’ Ã∑§ ∑§Êß ÷Ë SÕªŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞–
(b) SÕªŸ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ‚ ‹ÊªÃ •Áœ⁄UÊÁ¬Ã ∑§⁄UŸÊ–
(c) •¬Ë‹ ∑§Ê ÁŸ¬≈UÊ⁄UÊ ∑§⁄UÃ ‚◊ÿ Áfl‹¥’ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê •Á÷Á‹Áπà ∑§⁄UŸÊ–
(d) •¬Ë‹ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ¬ˇÊËÿ M§¬ ◊¥ ÁŸ¬≈UÊ⁄UÊ ∑§⁄UŸÊ–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–

69. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬…∏¥U ÃÕÊU ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ¡’ ∑§Ê߸ Á’‹ œÊ⁄U∑§ •ÕflÊ ©‚∑§ ∞¡¥≈U mÊ⁄UÊ •Ÿ¡ÊŸ ◊¥ ⁄Œ˜Œ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄UŒ˜Œ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê
∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ©‚ ¬⁄U S¬C Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ Á’‹ Á«USøÊ¡¸ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ©¬ÿȸÄà Á‚hʥà ¬⁄U∑˝§Êêÿ Á‹πà •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UÊ 82 ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ª‹Ã „Ò– (2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò, ¬⁄¥UÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò– (4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò, ¬⁄¥UÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 35 Paper-III


70. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Partnership not created by status (i) CST v. K. Kelukutty
(b) Essentials of partnership (ii) Kshetra Mohan v. Commr. of Excess
Profit Tax
(c) Joint Hindu Family and partnership (iii) Rakesh Kumar Dinesh Kumar v. U.G.
Hotels and Resorts Ltd.
(d) Partnership between outsiders and (iv) Ganpat v. Annaji
joint family
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

71. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Duties of partners) (Relevant section under the Indian Partnership Act)
(a) Duty of absolute good faith (i) Section 16 (b)
(b) Duty not to compete (ii) Sections 12 (b) and 13 (f)
(c) Duty of due deligence (iii) Section 10
(d) Duty to indemnify for fraud (iv) Section 9
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

72. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : “Goods” means every kind of movable property including actionable claims
and money and excludes stock and shares, growing crops, grass and things
attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed
before sale or under the contract of sale.
Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 2 (7) of the Sale of Goods Act.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right (2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(3) (A) is wrong but, (R) is right (4) (A) is right but, (R) is wrong

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 36 Paper-III


70. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚ÍøË - I ∑§Ê ‚ÍøË - II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(a) ÷ʪˌÊ⁄UË „ÒÁ‚ÿà ‚ ‚ÎÁ¡Ã Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃË „Ò (i) ‚Ë ∞‚ ≈UË ’ŸÊ◊ ∑§. ∑§‹È∑ͧ≈˜U≈UË
(b) ÷ʪˌÊ⁄UË ∑§ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ Ãàfl (ii) ˇÊòÊ ◊Ê„Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ∑§◊ˇŸ⁄U •ÊÚ»§ ∞Ä‚‚
¬˝Ê»§Ë≈U ≈ÒÄ‚
(c) ‚¥ÿÈÄà Á„ãŒÈ ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U ÷ʪˌÊ⁄UË (iii) ⁄UÊ∑§‡Ê ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U, ÁŒŸ‡Ê ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U ’ŸÊ◊ ÿÍ.¡Ë. „Ê≈U‹
∞¥«U Á⁄U¡ÊÚ≈‚¸ Á‹.
(d) ’Ê„⁄UË √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚¥ÿÈÄà ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U ∑§ ’Ëø ÷ʪˌÊ⁄UË (iv) ªŸ¬Ã ’ŸÊ◊ •ãŸÊ¡Ë
∑ͧ≈U :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

71. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚ÍøË - I ∑§Ê ‚ÍøË - II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
‚ÍøË - I ‚ÍøË - II
(÷ʪˌÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ ∑§Ã¸√ÿ) (÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ÷ʪˌÊ⁄UË •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§ •ãê¸Ã ‚¥ªÃ œÊ⁄UÊ)
(a) ÁŸ⁄U¬ˇÊ ‚Œ˜÷Êfl ∑§Ê ∑§Ã¸√ÿ (i) œÊ⁄UÊ 16 (π)
(b) ¬˝ÁÃS¬œÊ¸ Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ∑§Ã¸√ÿ (ii) œÊ⁄UÊ 12 (π) •ÊÒ⁄U 13 (ø)
(c) ‚êÿ∑§ Ãà¬⁄UÃÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ã¸√ÿ (iii) œÊ⁄UÊ 10
(d) œÊπ ∑§Ë ˇÊÁìÍÁø ∑§Ê ∑§Ã¸√ÿ (iv) œÊ⁄UÊ 9
∑ͧ≈U —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

72. •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U Ã∑¸§ (R) ∑§Ê ¬Á…∏∞ ÃÕÊ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : “◊Ê‹” ‚ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ø‹ ‚ê¬Áà •Á÷¬˝à „Ò Á¡‚◊¥ •ŸÈÿÊíÿ ŒÊfl •ÊÒ⁄U œŸ ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã „Ò¥, •ÊÒ⁄U
S≈UÊÚ∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ‡Êÿ⁄U, ©ªË »§‚‹¥, ÉÊÊ‚ •ÊÒ⁄U øË¡¥ ¡Ê ÷ÍÁ◊ ‚ ‚¥‹ÇŸ ÿÊ ∑§Ê ÷ʪ „Ò¥ ∑§Ê ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã
Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ Á¡‚ Á’∑˝§UË ‚ ¬Ífl¸ •ÕflÊ Á’∑˝§Ë ∑§ ∑§⁄UÊ⁄U ∑§ •ãê¸Ã ÷ÍÁ◊ ‚ „≈UÊ ‹Ÿ ∑§Ë
‚„◊Áà „ÊÃË „Ò–
Ã∑¸§ (R) : ©¬ÿȸÄà Á‚hʥà ◊Ê‹ Áfl∑˝§ÿ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UÊ 2 (7) ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà „Ò–
∑ͧ≈U :
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ª‹Ã „Ò–
(3) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò, ¬⁄¥UÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò– (4) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò, ¬⁄¥UÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–

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73. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Notwithstanding any express contract the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them
until the buyer applies for delivery

(2) Apart from any express contract, the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until
the buyer applies for delivery

(3) Apart from any express contract the seller of goods is bound to deliver them until the
buyer applies for deliver

(4) Apart from any express contract, the buyer of goods is bound to deliver them when the
seller applies for delivery

74. “Directors are agents of the company”.

In which of the following cases above principle was laid down. Answer using code given
below :

(a) Ferguson v. Wilson (b) Elkington and Co. v. Harter

(c) Hampshire Land Co, re (d) Allen v. Hyatt

Code :

(1) Only (a) (2) Only (a) and (b)

(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

75. Which of the following case is about doctrine of ultravires ?

(1) Royal British Bank v.Turquand

(2) Premier Industrial Bank Ltd. v. Carlton Mfg. Co. Ltd.

(3) Rajendra Nath Dutta v. Shibendra Nath Mukherjee

(4) Attorney General v. Great Eastern Railway Co.

-oOo-

N-05817 !N-05817-PAPER-III! 38 Paper-III


73. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò?
(1) Á∑§‚Ë S¬C ∑§⁄UÊ⁄U ∑§ „ÊÃ „È∞ ÷Ë ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ Ã’ Ã∑§ ©Ÿ∑§Ë ‚ȬȌ¸ªË ∑§ Á‹∞ ’Êäÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ¡’ Ã∑§ ∑˝§ÃÊ
©Ÿ∑§Ë ‚ȬȌ¸ªË ∑§ Á‹∞ •ÊflŒŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(2) Á∑§‚Ë S¬C ∑§⁄UÊ⁄U ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ ©ã„¥ Ã’ Ã∑§ ‚ȬȌ¸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ’Êäÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ¡’ Ã∑§ ∑˝§ÃÊ
‚ȬȌ¸ªË ∑§ Á‹∞ •ÊflŒŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(3) Á∑§‚Ë S¬C ∑§⁄UÊ⁄U ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ, ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ ©ã„¥ ‚ȬȌ¸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ’Êäÿ „Ò ¡’ Ã∑§ ∑˝§ÃÊ ‚ȬȌ¸ªË ∑§ Á‹∞
•ÊflŒŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
(4) Á∑§‚Ë S¬C ∑§⁄UÊ⁄U ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ, ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê ∑˝§ÃÊ ©ã„¥ ‚ȬȌ¸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ’Êäÿ „Ò ¡’ Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ ‚ȬȌ¸ªË ∑§ Á‹∞
•ÊflŒŸ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–

74. “ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑§ ∑§ê¬ŸË ∑§ ∞¡¥≈U „ÊÃ „Ò¥ ”.


ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ©Äà Á‚hʥà ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ – ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ©ûÊ⁄U
ŒËÁ¡∞–
(a) »§⁄UªÈ‚Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ÁflÀ‚Ÿ (b) ∞‹Á∑¥§Ç≈UŸ ∞¥«U ∑¥§. ’ŸÊ◊ „Ê≈¸U⁄U
(c) „Ò꬇ÊÊÿ⁄U ‹Ò¥«U ∑¥§. ⁄U (d) ∞‹Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ „ÿÊÃ
∑ͧ≈U :

(1) ∑§fl‹ (a) (2) ∑§fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄U (b)


(3) ∑§fl‹ (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d)

75. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ◊Ê◊‹Ê •Áœ∑§Ê⁄UÊÃËà ∑§ Á‚hʥà ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ „Ò?
(1) ⁄UÊÚÿ‹ Á’˝Á≈U‡Ê ’Ò¥∑§ ’ŸÊ◊ ÃÈ⁄U∑ȧflÊ¥Œ
(2) ¬˝ËÁ◊ÿ⁄U ߥ«US≈˛UËÿ‹ ’Ò¥∑§ Á‹. ’ŸÊ◊ ∑§Ê‹¸≈UŸ ◊ÒãÿȻҧ. ∑¥§. Á‹.
(3) ⁄UÊ¡ãŒ˝ ŸÊÕ ŒûÊÊ ’ŸÊ◊ Á‡Ê’ãŒ˝ ŸÊÕ ◊Èπ¡Ë¸
(4) •≈UÊڟ˸ ¡Ÿ⁄U‹ ’ŸÊ◊ ª˝≈U ßS≈UŸ¸ ⁄U‹fl ∑¥§.

-oOo-

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Space For Rough Work

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