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MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY

1. According to the frequency of occurrence, a disease that is acquired by many in a given area in a short time
is
A. Sporadic C. Epidemic
B. Endemic D. Pandemic

2. The opaque whitish liquid secreted by mammary gland which gives infants certain degree of immunity to
some infectious diseases.
A. Colesterum C. Colostomy
B. Colostrom D. Colostrum

3. Malnutrition in the Philippines is more of


A. Deficiency of food intake D. Excessive food intake
B. Improper utilization of food E. Improper distribution of food
C. Defective absorption of food

4. Foodborne diseases can be controlled by


I. Proper disposal of sewage
II. Purification of water for domestic use
III. Proper hygiene and sanitation
IV. Use of mask in crowded areas
A. I only C. I,II,III and IV
B. I and II only D. I,II and III only

5. This antibody optimizes bacteria, fixes complement, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses and it is the
only bacteria that crosses the placenta.
A. IgM D. IgE
B. IgA E. IgD
C. IgG

6. Which antibody mediates type 1 hypersensitivity and also mediates immunity to worm infections.
A. IgM D. IgE
B. IgA C. IgD
C. IgG

7. Of the important cytokines in the body which is an endogenous pyrogen


A. IL-1 D. IL-4
B. IL-2 E. IL-5
C. IL-3

8. Which cytokine is secreted by helper T cells and stimulate production of IgE


A. IL-1 D. IL-4
B. IL-2 E. IL-5
C. IL-3

9. Transplant rejection that occurs months to years after transplantation and the damage is irreversible
A. Acute rejection C. Hyperacute rejection
B. Chronic rejection D. Superacute rejection

10. DiGeorge’s syndrome is a result of


A. B-cell deficiency C. T-cell deficiency
B. B and t-cell deficiency D. Phagocyte deficiency

11. It means programmed cell death:


A. Apoptosis C. Hayflick effect
B. Angiogenesis D. None of the above

12. The cellular immune response is mediated by


A. B cells C. both B and T cells
B. T cells D. endothelial cells

13. The humoral immune response


A. Results in the production of antibody by differentiated B cells
B. Involves T cell only
C. Requires macrophages to present antigen to B cells
D. Is part of natural/innate immune system

14. T-cell epitopes are those regions of an immunogen that


A. Bind specifically to IgM and IgD on the surface of B cells
B. Bind to Fc receptors on macrophages
C. Are bound by MHC antigens, presented to T cells and for which specific T-cell receptors are
Present
D. Bind to receptor on polymorphonuclear leukocytes and aid in the subsequent opsonization of
the immunogen

15. Heterogenetic antigens


A. Are found in some members of a given species
B. May show idiotypic variation
C. Are specific to macrophages
D. Are found in unrelated species

16. It is true to say that the lymphatic system


A. Is the richest source of secretory IgA
B. Is primarily involved in the innate response to infection
C. Drain into the left subclavian vein near the heart
D. Is very rich in platelets

17. In human, the primary lymphatic organ include


A. Thymus and liver C. Bursa-equivalent regions and the thymus
B. Spleen and kidney D. Stomach and the lung

18. Molecules are present on the surface of B cells but not on T cells include
A. A receptor for sheep RBCs and another for pokeweed mitogen
B. IgM and IgD plus receptors for the C3 component of complement
C. CD4 + and CD8+
D. TCR receptor and CD28

19. It is true to say that natural killer cells


A. Arise in the bone marrow C. Express their TCR genes
B. Rearrange their Ig genes D. Have IgG molecules on their cell surface

20. Macrophages
A. First appear in the blood as immature T cells
B. Mature into plasma cells
C. Are major source of specific immunoglobulin
D. None of these

21. In an acute inflammatory reaction:


A. Kallikrein and bradykinin are not formed
B. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are not released
C. Cross-reactive protein appears, binds to bacterial cell walls and begins the complement
cascade.
D. The Hageman factor is not involved

22. The spleen contains


A. Hassall’s corpuscles C. Islet of Langerhans cells
B. Bursa of Fabricus cells D. Regions derived embryogically from the
third pharyngeal pouch

23. A lymph node contains the following anatomic regions


A. Cortex and medulla C. Regions of red and white pulp
B. No primary follicles D. No germinal centers

24. Immature B lymphocytes


A. Have both IgM and IgD on their surface
B. Produce L chains and u H chains to form surface IgM
C. Produce only u H chains intracellularly with no surface Ig
D. Have not yet begun cutting and splicing of their immunoglobulin genes

25. Bence Jones proteins are produced by:


A. Some patients with multiple myeloma
B. Majority of patients with Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
C. Patients with AIDS
D. Patients with SCID

26. Helper T cells


A. Have CD8 on their cell surface C. Have CD4 on their cell surface
B. Have IgM on their cell surface D. Have IgD on their cell surface

27. Secretory component is


A. Synthesized by B cells C. Synthesized by epithelial cells
B. Attached to secretory IgM D. Attached to IgG found in saliva

28. The mucosal immune system includes the


A. Popliteal lymph nodes C. Thymus
B. Spleen D. Gut-associated lymphoid tissues

29. The most important feature of immunologic tolerance is its


A. Dependence on dosage
B. Dependence on the nature of the tolerated substance
C. Specificity
D. Dependence on the generic makeup of the individual

30. Antigenic cross-reactivity is shown by tumors induced by:


A. Smoking C. UV radiation
B. Oncogenic DNA viruses D. Carcinogens

31. The ability of the immune system to deal with a tumor is influenced by the
A. Location of the tumor
B. Ability of the tumor to change its surface antigen
C. Ability of the tumor to secrete blocking factors
D. All of these

32. As compared to primary response, a typical amnestic response yields


A. About the same antibody level but the level persists longer
B. More antibody level but the level is slower to develop
C. A much higher antibody level that also persists longer
D. A higher antibody level that, however declines much more rapidly

33. A 27 year old white man returning from a 2 – month active duty in Panama was hospitalized with chills and
fever, and a unilateral conjunctivitis with facial edema and regional lymphagitis. Stained thin blood smears
revealed extracellular trypomastigotes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. African trypanosoniasis
B. Babesiosis
C. Chaga’s disease
D. Malaria
E. Lymphatic filariasis

34. Opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients may include all of the following except
A. Acanthamebic keratitis D. Protracted cryptosporidiosis
B. Chronic granulomatous acanthamebic E. Reactivation
Encephalitis
C. Disseminated strongylodiasis

35. In a young child with a history of recurrent febrile illness, transient pneumonitis, hypereosinophilia, and
hepatomegaly, which of the folloing should always be included in the differential diagnosis:
A. Amebic liver disease D. Visceral larva migrans
B. Clonorchiasis E. Unilocular hydatid disease
C. Hepatic schistosomiasis

36. Progressive dyspnea resulting from the alveolocapillary blockage caused by asexually reproducing
trophozoites that fail to evoke a tissue macrophage response describe the pathogenicity of
A. Cystecercosis D. Pulmonary ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis E. Pulmonary schistosomiasis
C. Pneumocystosis

37. Enterobiasis, strongylodiasis and hymenolepiasis have which of the following in common
A. Autoinfection D. Nonpathogenic
B. Filariform larvae E. Zoonoses
C. Nematodes

38. Because of the primary exoerythrocytic cycle of schizogony cannot be repeated, I is necessary to treat
the infection with only an erythrocytic schizonticidal drug in which of the following?
A. Leishmania donovani D. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium falciparum E. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Plasmodium vivax

39. A 3-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with severe emaciation and anemia secondary to a long
term bloody diarrhea. While hospitalized, she experienced several episodes of rectal prolapse. Numerous
white worms were seen attached to the surface of the prolapsed rectal mucosa. The patient was
successfully treated with mebendazole without further complications. What was the diagnosis?
A. Dwarf tapeworm D. Visceral larva migrans
B. Hookworm E. Whipworm
C. Pinworm

40. The infective larval stage in fascioliasis, fasciolopsiasis, clonorchiasis and paragonimiasis that is
encysted on certain plant and animal foods is called
A. Cercaria D. Metacercaria
B. Cesticercoid E. Plerocercoid
C. Filariform

41. Rhabditiform larvae in unstained fecal smears is the usual diagnostic finding in
A. Ascariasis D. Strongyloidiasis
B. Enterobiasi E. Trichuriasis
C. Hookworm

42. Finding intraerythrocytic trophozoite, schizont and gametocyte stages in stained thin blood smears
during febrile periods is the usual means of diagnosis of
A. African trypanosomiasis D. Toxoplasmacosis
B. American trypanosomiasis E. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Malaria

43. Sparganosis, cysticercosis, trichinosis and toxoplasmosis have this in common


A. Immunodeficiency D. Transplacental
B. Neuropathy E. Tapeworms
C. Raw meat

44. Liquid wastes conducted from residence together with ground surface or rain water is known as
A. Garbage C. Refuse
B. Sewage D. Rubbish

45. Extreme hypersensitivity to a given protein is manifested by


A. Anaphylactic shock reaction C. Urticaria
B. Immunity D. Itching

46. The time interval between the infection of a susceptible person and the appearance of symptoms of the
disease
A. Prodromal period C. Period of illness
B. Incubation period D. Convalescence period

47. The simplest and most efficient method of providing specific protection against a communicable disease
A. Disinfection C. Artificial active immunization
B. Vaccination D. Passive immunization

48. A toxoid is
A. Endotoxin C. Attenuated toxin
B. Exotoxin D. Poison

49. Disease that is prevalent in the usual number in a given population and there is no increase in the
number of cases
A. Prevalent C. Pandemic
B. Endemic D. Sporadic

50. Test use to differentiate E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes


A. IMVIC test C. Weil-Felix test
B. Schick test D. Coagulase test

51. The process of all elimination of all microbes from a material by physical means
A. Sanitation C. Sterilization
B. Disinfection D. Antisepsis

52. Protozoa with “false feet”


A. Ciliates C. Amoeba
B. Flagellates D. Sporozoites

53. The following are intestinal protozoans except


A. E. histolytica C. E. nana
B. G.lamblia D. I. Butschii

54. Cestodes are


A. Roundworms C. Tapeworms
B. Flukes D. Trypanosome
55. Proportion of population suffering from a disease at a given time:
A. Incidence rate C. Prevalence rate
B. Morbidity rate D. None

56. Waste materials such as bottles, broken glass, tin cans, are called
A. Refuse D. Garbage
B. Sewage E. Night soil
C. Rubbish

57. Expressed as a percentage or the number of persons diagnosed as having a specified disease who died
as a result of that disease:
A. Mortality rate C. Morbidity rate
B. Case fatality rate D. Incidence rate

58. Which of the following dust is responsible for Byssinosis


A. Silica dust C. House dust
B. Cotton fiber dust D. Mine dust

59. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by:


A. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium falciparum

60. Constitute health promotion and specific protection


A. Primary prevention C. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention D. None

61. The amount of residual chlorine to ensure bacteriological safety of water is


A. O.5 ppm C. 1 ppm
B. 0.1 ppm D. 0.5 ppm

62. The phase of pre-pathogenesis in the natural history of disease starts when
A. When the disease agent enters human host
B. Agent, host, environment interact
C. When signs and symptoms appear
D. When host recover from the disease

63. Deals with the data and laws of human mortality, morbidity and natality
A. Statistics C. Biostatistics
B. Epidemiology D. Ecology

64. An insect vector which harbor part of the life cycle of the infective agent
A. Mechanical C. Biological
B. Artificial D. None

65. Restoration of the disabled to useful place in society with maximum use of his remaining capabilities
A. Public health C. Primary care
B. Rehabilitation D. Senior citizen

66. Class of antibody which is present in mucous membranes and in body secretions
A. IgA C. IgE
B. IgD D. IgG

67. Metals that have been associated with an increase incidence of lung cancer in occupationally exposed
workers include:
A. Copper C. Iron
B. Chromium D. Silver

68. The first oral cholera vaccine


A. Vivotif C. Orofar-L
B. Orochol-E D. Tetramune

69. Workers associated with occupational exposure to lead include all of the following except
A. Battery makers C. Coal miners
B. Painters D. Gasoline station attendant

70. Cigarette smoking increases the risk of acquiring cancers of all of the following except
A. Liver C. Esophagus
B. Larynx D. Pancreas

71. The first person to become sick in an epidemic


A. Contact C. Index case
B. Primary case D. Secondary case

72. One of the most useful index to measure the risk of transfer of infection in a community is
A. Survival rate C. Cause specific death rate
B. Case fatality rate D. Secondary attack rate

73. Important index of measuring the communicability of a disease


A. Primary attack rate C. Secondary attack rate
B. Incidence rate D. Crude birth rate

74. Excess of fluorine in drinking water give rise to


A. Osteoporosis C. Dental carries
B. Dental fluorosis D. Ketoacidosis

75. The most common physical health hazard in most industries


A. Heat C. Humidity
B. Noise D. Ionizing radiation

76. Permissible limit of fluorine in drinking water is


A. 0.5g – 1g/liter C. 0.5ug – 1 ug/liter
B. 0.5 mg – 1mg/liter

77. The most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice


A. Iodine C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Chlorine D. Gentian violet

78. Which of the following organisms are not eukaryotic?


A. Bacteria C. Molds
B. Yeasts D. Protozoa

79. Which microorganisms are used to make microbiological growth media?


A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Protozoa

80. In which habitat would you most likely find archaea?


A. Acidic hot springs C. Great salt lake
B. Swamp mud D. All of the above

81. Of the following scientists, who defended the theory of abio-genesis?


A. Aristotle C. Needham
B. Pasteur D. Spallanzani

82. Which of the following scientists hypothesized that a bactericidal colony arises from a single bacterial
cell?
A. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek C. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur D. Richard Petri

83. Which scientist first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens?
A. Edward Jenner B. John Snow
B. Joseph Lister D. Ignaz Semmelweis

84. A cell may allow a large or charged chemical to move across the cytoplasmic membrane, down the
chemical’s electrochemical gradient, in a process called
A. Active transport C. Endocytosis
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Pinocytosis

85. Which of the following statements concerning growth and reproduction is not true?
A. Growth and reproduction may occur simultaneously in living organisms.
B. A living organism must reproduce to be considered alive.
C. Living things may stop growing and reproducing, yet still alive.
D. Normally, living organisms have the ability to grow and reproduce themselves.

86. Which of the following is not associated with prokaryotic organisms?


A. Nucleoid C. Cilia
B. Glycocalyx D. Circular DNA

87. Which of the following statements is true?


A. The cell walls of bacteria are composed of peptidoglycan.
B. Peptidoglycan is a fatty acid.
C. Gram-positive cell walls have relatively thin layer of peptidoglycan anchored to the
cytoplasmic membrane by teichoic acids.
D. Peptidoglycan is found mainly in the cell walls of fungi, algae and plants.

88. Which of the following is not a function of aglycocalyx?


A. It forms pseudopodia for faster mobility of an organism.
B. It can protect a bacterial cell from drying out.
C. It hides the bacterial cell from other cells.
D. It allows a bacterium to stick to a host.

89. Which cellular structure is important in classifying a bacterial species as Gram-positive or Gram-
negative?
A. Flagella C. Cilia
B. Cell wall D. Glycocalyx

90. Gram-positive cells


A. Have a thick cell wall, which retains crystal violet dye
B. Contain teichoic acids in their cell walls
C. Appear purple under magnification
D. All of the above

91. Redox reactions


A. Transfer energy C. Involve oxidation and reduction
B. Transfer electrons D. Are involved in all of the above

92. A reduced molecule


A. Has gained electrons C. Has lost electrons
B. Has become more positive in charge D. Is an electron donor

93. Activation energy


A. Is the amount of energy required during an activity such as flagellar motion
B. Requires the addition of nutrients in the presence of water
C. Is usually lowered by the action of organic catalysts
D. Results from the movement of molecules.

94. Coenzymes
A. Are types of apoenzymes C. Are inorganic cofactors
B. Are proteins D. Are organic cofactors

95. Which of the following statements best describes ribozymes?


A. Ribozymes are proteins that aid in the production of ribosomes.
B. Ribozymes are nucleic acids that produce ribose sugars.
C. Ribozymes store enzymes in ribosomes.
D. Ribozymes process RNA molecules in eukaryotes.

96. Which of the following does not affect the function of enzymes?
A. Ubiquinone C. Temperature
B. Substrate concentration D. Competitive inhibitors

97. Most oxidation reactions in bacteria involve the


A. Removal of hydrogen ions and electrons
B. Addition of hydrogen ions and electrons
C. Removal of oxygen
D. Addition of hydrogen ions

98. Under ideal conditions, the fermentation of one glucose by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP
molecules?
A. 2 C. 38
B. 4 D. 0

99. Under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose by a bacterium allows a
net gain of how many ATP molecules?
A. 2 C. 38
B. 4 D. 0

100. Reactions involved in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis constitute the


A. Krebs cycle C. Calvin-Benson cycle
B. Entner-Duodoroff pathway D. Pentose phosphate pathway

101. Which of the following would be found growing in a Petri plate?


A. An anaerobe C. Viruses on an agar surface
B. A colony on an agar surface D. barophiles

102. Which of the following terms best describes an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen?
A. Obligate aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe
B. Facultative aerobe D. Facultative anaerobe

103. Superoxide dismutase


A. Causes hydrogen peroxide to become toxic
B. Detoxifies superoxide radicals
C. Neutralizes singlet oxygen
D. Is missing in aerobes

104. The most reactive of the four toxic forms of oxygen is the
A. Hydroxyl radical C. Superoxide radical
B. Peroxide anion D. Singlet oxygen

105. Microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of
oxygen are called
A. Aerotolerant C. Facultative anaerobes
B. Capnophiles D. Fastidious

106. Which of the following is not a growth factor for various microbes?
A. Cholesterol C. Vitamins
B. Water D. Heme

107. Organisms that may be found thriving in icy waters are described as
A. Barophiles C. Mesophiles
B. Thermophiles D. Psychrophiles

108. Barophiles
A. Cannot cause diseases in humans C. Die if put under high pressure
B. Live at normal barometric pressure D. Thrive in warm air

109. This statement, “In the laboratory, a sterile inoculating loop moved across the agar surface in a culture
dish, thinning a sample and isolating individuals,” describes which of the following?
A. Broth culture C. Streak plate
B. Pour plate D. Dilution plate

110. In a defined medium


A. The exact composition of the medium is known
B. Agar is available for microbial nutrition
C. Blood may be included
D. Organic chemicals are excluded

111. Which of the following methods is best for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety
of the water for drinking?
A. Dry weight C. Viable plate counts
B. Turbidity D. Membrane filtration

112. A Coulter counter is


A. A statistical estimation using five dilution tubes and a table of numbers to estimate the
number of bacteria per milliliter.
B. An indirect method of counting microorganisms.
C. A device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic
detector.
D. A device that directly counts microbes that are differentially stained with fluorescent dyes.

113. Lyophilization is best described as


A. Freeze-drying C. Refrigeration
B. Deep-freezing D. Pickling

114. Quorum sensing is


A. The ability to respond to changes in population density
B. A characteristic of most bacteria
C. They are located in the cytosol
D. They are associated in linear pairs

115. Which of the following is a true statement concerning prokaryotic chromosomes?


A. They typically have two or three origins of replications
B. The contain single-stranded DNA
C. They are located in the cytosol
D. They are associated in linear pairs

116. Which of the following substances or processes kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces?
A. Antiseptics C. Degermers
B. Disinfectants D. Paseurization

117. Which of the following terms best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates?
A. Pasteurization C. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis D. Sanitization

118. The microbial death rate is used to measure


A. The efficiency of a detergent C. The efficiency of sanitization techniques
B. The efficiency of antiseptic D. All of the above

119. Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent?
A. An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage
B. An antimicrobial agent is fast acting
C. Ideal microbial agents do not exist
D. All of the above

120. Which of the following items functions most like an autoclave?


A. A boiling pan C. A dessicator
B. An incinerator D. A pressure cooker

121. The spores of which organisms are used as biological indicator of sterilization?
A. Bacillus staerothermophilus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Salmonella typhi D. Staphylococcus aureus

122. Which of the following substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes in a deep wound?
A. Phenol C. Isopropanol
B. Hexachlorophene D. Hydrogen peroxide

123. Which of the following adjectives best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial
contaminants?
A. Disinfected C. Degermed
B. Sanitized D. Aseptic

124. A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time and 90% of the cells have been
destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event?
A. Thermal death point C. Decimal reduction time
B. Thermal death time D. None of the above

125. In Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing
antimicrobial agents indicates
A. That the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents
B. That the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents
C. The smallest amount of the agent that will inhibit the growth of the microbe
D. The minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question

126. The key to successful chemotherapy is


A. Selective toxicity C. The minimum inhibitory concentration
B. The diffusion test D. The spectrum of action

127. Which of the following is most closely associated with a B-lactam ring?
A. Penicillin C. Bacitracin
B. Vancomycin D. Isoniazid

128. Drugs that act against protein synthesis include


A. Beta-lactams C. Polymyxin
B. Trimethoprim D. Aminoglycosides

129. The type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade of cells is called
A. Pleomorphic division C. Snapping division
B. Endospore formation D. Binary fission

130. The thick-walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments are called
A. Akinetes C. Metachromatic granules
B. Terminal enospores D. Myxospores
131. Which of the following terms best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cell?
A. Cocci C. Spirilla
B. Bacilli D. Spirochetes

132. Endospores
A. Can remain alive for decades
B. Can remain alive in boiling water
C. Live in a state of suspended animation
D. All of the above

133. Which genus is the most common anaerobic human pathogen?


A. Bacteriodes C. Chlamydias
B. Spirochetes D. Methanopyrus

134. Which of the following sequences reflects the correct order of events in mitosis?
A. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
B. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
C. Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

135. Multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called
A. Myoses C. Haustoria
B. Coenocytes D. Pseudohypa

136. Branched, tubular filaments with crosswalls found in large fungi are
A. Septate hyphae C. Aseptate haustoria
B. Aseptate hyphae D. Dimorphic mycelia

137. A phycologist study which of the following?


A. Classification of eukaryotes
B. Alternation of generations in algae
C. Rusts, smuts and yeasts
D. Parasitic worms

138. The stemlike portion of a seaweed is called its


A. Thallus C. Stipe
B. Holdfast D. Blade

139. Carrageenan is found in the cell walls of which group of algae?


A. Red algae C. Dinoflagellates
B. Green algae D. Yellow-green algae

140. The motile feeding stage of protozoan is called


A. An apicomplexa C. A cyst
B. A gametocyte D. A trophozoite

141. In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?
A. Mutualism C. Commensalism
B. Parasitism D. Pathogenesis

142. An axenic environment is one that


A. Exist in the human mouth
B. Is free of microbes
C. Exist in the human colon
D. Both a and b

143. The most frequent portal of entry of pathogens is


A. The respiratory tract C. The conjunctiva
B. The skin D. A cut or wound

144. The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is


A. Infection C. Disease
B. Contamination D. Adhesion

145. When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they
A. Become virulent C. Absorb endotoxin
B. Produce endotoxin D. Increase in virulence

146. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases?
A. Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
B. Incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence
C. Prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence
D. Convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline

147. A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is
termed a(n)
A. Subacute disease C. Chronic disease
B. Acute disease D. Latent disease

148. Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease?
A. It normally occurs in a given geographic area
B. It is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical
area/group/population
C. It occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population
D. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than 1 continent at the same time

149. Consider the ff. case, an animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated
with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector?
A. Animal C. Mosquito
B. Virus D. Person

150. A patient contracted athlete’s foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the
malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed:
A. Nosocomial infections C. Iatrogenic infections
B. Exogenous infection D. Endogenous infections

151. Fixed phagocytes of the epidermis are called:


A. Lysozymes C. Kupffer cells
B. Goblet cells D. Dendritic cells

152. The alternate pathway


A. Is also called the Properdin pathway
B. Involves the cleavage of C5 to form C9
C. Is more efficient than the classical pathway
D. Involves recognition of antigens bound to specific antibodies

153. The type of interferon present late in an infection is


A. Alpha-interferon C. Gamma-interferon
B. Beta-interferon D. Delta-interferon

154. Interferons
A. Do not protect the cell that secretes them
B. Stimulate the activity of neutrophils
C. Cause muscle aches, chills and fever
D. All of the above

155. An autoantigen is
A. An antigen from bacteria D. Any carbohydrate antigen
B. A normal body component E. A nucleic acid
C. An artificial agent

156. Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant?
A. Attenuated vaccine D. An immunoglobulin
B. A modified live vaccine E. An agglutinating antigen
C. A chemically killed vaccine

157. Which of the following condition is a “systemic disease” caused by Staphylococcus?


A. Impetigo C. Carbuncle
B. Folliculitis D. Toxic shock syndrome

158. A bacterium associated with bacteremia, meningitis, and pneumonia in newborns is


A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococci pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus epidermitis D. Streptococcus agalactiae

159. Which type of anthrax is more common in animals than humans?


A. Cutaneous anthrax C. Gastrointestinal anthrax
B. Inhalation anthrax D. Mucoid anthrax

160. Motility is observed best with a


A. Hanging drop preparation C. Streak plate
B. Negative stain D. Flagellar stain
161. Active transport of a substance across the membrane requires
A. A gradient C. Water
B. The expenditure of ATP D. Diffusion
162. A cell exposed to a hypertonic environment will _________ by osmosis
A. Gain water C. Neither gain nor lose water
B. Lose water D. Burst

163. An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from carbon dioxide using energy
from the sun is a
A. Photoautotroph C. Chemoautotroph
B. Photoheterotroph D. Chemoheterotroph

164. A laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by:


A. Adding ATP C. Including salt in the medium
B. Adding blood D. Increasing the level of potassium

165. Superoxide ion is to toxic to strict anaerobes because they lack


A. Catalase C. Dismutase
B. Peroxidase D. Oxidase

166. Psychrophilic bacteria are those that grow best


A. In oxygen-free environments C. At cold temperatures
B. At pH levels of 8 or above D. Only in the presence of viruses

167. Microorganisms that survive in moisture-free environments do so because they


A. Form spores C. Have no cell membranes
B. Metabolize glucose molecules only D. Have no chromosomes

168. An obligate halophile requires high


A. pH C. Salt
B. Temperature D. Pressure

169. The process of binary fission proceeds most frequently in


A. Viruses C. Bacteria
B. Protozoa D. Fungi

170. During the stationary phase of growth of microorganisms:


A. The rate of cell division increases
B. The rate of cell division decreases
C. The population is at its most vigorous state
D. The population is at its least vigorous state

171. The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the
A. Exponential growth rate C. Generation time
B. Growth curve D. Lag period

172. Bacterial growth is expressed mathematically as ______, and this is a reflection of their growth by
________.
A. Linear/budding C. Exponential fusion
B. Linear/binary fission D. Exponential/binary fission

173. The part of the bacterial growth curve that reflects an adjustment to the media and a replenishment of
the pools of metabolic intermediates is the:
A. Stationary phase D. Death phase
B. Exponential phase E. Interphase
C. Lag phase

174. For purposes of microbial control, the term sterilization implies:


A. The removal of pathogenic forms of microorganisms
B. The lowering of the microbial count
C. The destruction of all forms of life
D. The destruction of microorganisms only on body surface

175. The moist heat of sterilization employing 15 lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121°C is
called:
A. Autoclaving C. Membrane-filter method
B. Fractional sterilization D. Any of the above

176. The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that:


A. A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on skin surface
B. A disinfectant kills bacterial spores, while an antiseptic does not
C. A disinfectant does not achieve sterilization, and an antiseptic does
D. Disinfectants are chemical substances, while antiseptics are not chemical substances

177. A process widely used in the dairy industry that destroys a very high percentage of undesirable microbial
population by heating at a certain temperature is known as:
A. Tyndallization C. Dry-heat sterilization
B. Pasteurization D. Moist-heat sterilization

178. Dry heat is often used to sterilize:


A. Saline solutions C. Oily materials
B. Bacterial media D. Hospital blankets

179. The primary effect of ultraviolet radiations is on microbial


A. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acids
B. Enzymes D. Cell walls

180. Ionizing radiation acts by


A. Thymine dimerization C. Oxidation
B. Formation of highly reactive radicals D. Protein denaturation

181. The primary action of nonionizing radiation is to


A. Produce superoxide ions C. Denature proteins
B. Make pyrimidine dimers D. Break disulfide bonds

182. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:


A. Ethylene oxide C. Oygen
B. Carbon dioxide D. None of the above

183. In the clinical situation, silver nitrate is sometimes used:


A. To prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns
B. To prevent passage of streptococci into the blood after a strep throat
C. To sterilize the intestine before surgery
D. To flush out the respiratory tract of tubercle bacilli

184. Betadine is an antimicrobial product containing:


A. Formaldehyde C. Calcium hydroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide D. Iodine

185. The active antimicrobial agent in bleach is:


A. Phenol D. Iodine
B. Hydrochloride E. Bromide
C. Hypochlorite

186. The source of the antibiotic streptomycin is


A. Streptomyces aureofaciens C. Streptococcus lactis
B. Streptomyces griseus D. Streptococcus faecalis

187. Metronidazole is active against


A. Aerobic bacteria D. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Facultatively anaerobic bacteria E. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Obligately anaerobic bacteria

188. Poor clinical results in antimicrobial chemotherapy may be due to:


A. Choice of an effective antibiotic
B. Giving an inadequate or excessive doses
C. Continuing use after bacterial resistance has developed
D. All of the above

189. Anti-infective agents should only be used when:


A. A significant infection has been diagnosed or is strongly suspected
B. An established indication for prophylactic therapy exists
C. Both A & B
D. A only

190. When a patient’s immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of:
A. Superinfection C. Allergy
B. Drug resistance D. Toxicity

191. An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause


A. The teeth to turn down C. A superinfection
B. Aplastic anemia D. Hepatotoxicity

192. Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?
A. Interrupting ribosomal function C. Preventing cell wall synthesis
B. Dissolving the cell membrane D. Inhibiting DNA replication

193. In a broth dilution method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the tube with the lowest concentration of
antimicrobial in which there is no visible growth is the minimal:
A. Antimicrobial concentration C. Inhibitory concentration
B. Bactericidal concentration D. Lethal concentration

194. The MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe
A. Largest concentration C. Smallest concentration
B. Standard dose D. Lowest dilution

195. A disease producing organism is termed as:


A. Vector C. Antigen
B. Pathogen D. Antibody

196. The best descriptive term for the resident flora is


A. Commensals C. Pathogens
B. Parasites D. Mutualists

197. Communicable diseases are transmitted by:


A. Direct contact with an infected person
B. Indirect contact with contaminated substances/materials
C. A&B
D. A only
198. The term defined as the ability of a microorganism to cause disease is:
A. Pathogenesis C. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence D. All of the above

199. Infectious diseases acquired during a hospital stay are known as:
A. Nosocomial infections C. Superficial infections
B. Systemic infections D. Any of the above

200. Virulence factors include:


A. Toxins C. Capsules
B. Enzymes D. All of the above

201. The systemic infection associated with microrganisms multiplying in circulating blood is:
A. Bacteremia C.Septicemia
B. Viremia D. None of the above

202. The presence of a new bacteria in the blood is termed


A. Septicemia C.Bacteremia
B. Toxemia D. a secondary infection

203. The ___ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms.
A. Prodronium C. Period of convalescence
B. Period of invasion D. Period of incubation

204. A/an___is a passive animal transporter of pathogens.


A. Zoonosis C. Mechanical vector
B. Biological vector D. Asymptomatic carrier

205. The host’s first line of defense mechanisms are:


A. Skin and tears C. All of the above
B. Cilia on mucous membranes D. A only

206. Which is included in GALT?


A. Thymus C. Tonsils
B. Peyer’s patches D. Breast lymph nodes

207. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain?


A. Tumor C.calor
B. Dolor D.Rubor

208. An example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation is.


A. Histamine C. Complement C5a
B. Collagen D. interferon

209. An acquired resistance to an infectious agent due to prior contact with that agent is known as :
A. Vaccination C. Immunity
B. Immunization D. Any of the above
210. A large protein molecules evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen is
called:
A. An antitoxin C. An antibody
B. An antiserum D. Any of the above

211. Immunologic memory refers to the ability of the immune system to


A. Recognize millions of different antigens
B. React with millions of different antigens
C. Migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues
D. Recall a previous immune response

212. The primary B cell receptor is


A. IgD C. IgE
B. IgA D. IgG

213. The cross-linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as:


A. Opsonization C. Agglutination
B. A Cross-reaction D. Complement fixation

214. Which type of cell actually secretes antibodies?


A. T cells C. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages D. Monocytes

215. Drugs that prevent the formation of cell wall are


A. Quinolones C. Tetracyclines
B. Beta-lactams D. Aminoglycosides

216. The differential stain which provides for grouping of all true bacteria as either stain-positive or stain-
negative;
A. Simple stain C. Gram-stain
B. Acid-fast stain D. Any of the above

217. The major difference between a spirochete and spirillum is


A. The presence of flagella C. The nature of motility
B. A cell with coils D. Size

218. Eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms that range in size from unicellular to multicellular.
A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Virus

219. Referred to as “the borderline of life”


A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Virus

220. A virus that is transmitted by an anthropod:


A. Arbovirus C. Adenovirus
B. Retrovirus D. None of the above

221. A virus that infects a bacterium; known simply as a phage


A. Bacteriophage C. Retrovirus
B. Arbovirus D. Adenovirus

222. Candidiasis is also knows as:


A. Moniliasis C. Schistosomiasis
B. Filariasis D. Stomatitis

223. The external protein coat or covering of a virion:


A. Capsid C. Flagella
B. Capsule D. Pilus

224. A polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls:


A. Chitin C. Murein
B. Cellulose D. Heparin

225. A macromolecule containing the genetic code in the form of genes:


A. DNA C. genome
B. RNA D. None of the above

226. Fungi that causes superficial mycoses of the skin, hair and nails:
A. Dermatophytes C. Prions
B. Conidia D. Virions
227. Tinea infection are also known as:
A. Ringworm C. Filariasis
B. Threadworm D. Whipworm

228. Eukaryotic, nonphotosynthetic microoorganisms that are saprophytic or parasitic:


A. Fungi C. Virus
B. Algae D. Bacteria

229. A functional unit of heredity that occupies a specific space on the chromosomes:
A. Gene C. DNA
B. Genome D. RNA

230. Long, branching, intertwining, cytoplasmic filaments of molds:


A. Hyphae C. Spore
B. Conidia D. Mycelium

231. A fungal colony, composed of a mass of intertwined hyphae:


A. Mycelium C. Conidia
B. Spore D. Fimbriae

232. Study of fungi


A. Mycology C. Virology
B. Phycology D. Microbiology

233. An extrachromosomal genetic element:


A. Plasmid C. DNA
B. RNA D. Gene

234. An infectious agent consisting of atleast one protein, but no demonstrable nucleic acids
A. Prion C. Phage
B. Virion D. Virus

235. An organism that lives on dead or decaying organic matter:


A. Saprophyte C. Lithotroph
B. Dermatophyte D. Virus

236. The synthesis of an mRNA molecule from a DNA template:


A. Transcription C. Transformation
B. Translation D. Transduction

237. It refers to protein synthesis:


A. Translation C. Transduction
B. Transcription D. Transformation

238. A complete, infectious viral particle:


A. Virion C. Virus
B. Viroid D. Prion

239. An infectious agent that consists of nucleic acid, but no protein:


A. Viroid C. Prion
B. Virion D. Virus

240. Acellular microorganisms that are smaller than bacteria:


A. Viruses C. Fungi
B. Bacteria D. Algae

241. A synthetic purine nucleoside derivative with antiviral activity against the herpes simplex virus
A. Acyclovir C. Acetaminophen
B. Amantadine D. Adenovirus

242. Fungal metabolite found in peanuts that can cause cancer:


A. Aflatoxin C. Hydrocyanic acid
B. Tetradotoxin D. Endotoxin

243. An antiviral compound used to prevent type A influenza infections:


A. Amantadine C. Aflatoxin
B. Tetradotoxin D. Endotoxin

244. Warts are caused by:


A. Viruses C. Algae
B. Bacteria D. Fungi
245. Athletes foot is also known as:
A. Tinea pedis C. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea corporis D. None of the above

246. An index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter present:


A. BOD C. CBD
B. COD D. DOA

247. The use of biological processes to remedy problems, particularly those caused by pollution:
A. Bioremediation C. Biotechnology
B. Biotransformation D. Biomagnifications

248. A fungal infection, also known as tinea nigra, that forms hard black nodules on the hairs of the scalp
A. Black piedra C. Tinea corporis
B. Tinea capitis D. Black nodules

249. A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction
A. Budding C. Hypha
B. Spore D. Conidium

250. Refers to the number of phages released by a host cell during the lytic life cycle;
A. Burst size C. Translation
B. Generation time D. Transduction

251. A group of beta-lactam antibiotics derived from a fungus


A. Cephalosporin C. Amikacin
B. Penicillin D. Nystatin

252. Chickenpox is also known as:


A. Varicella C. Warts
B. Variola D. Parotitis

253. A recombinant plasmid containing foreign DNA, which is used as a cloning vector in genetic engineering:
A. Chimera C. Camera
B. Chitin D. Chameleon

254. The bodies that have most or all of the cell’s DNA and contain most of its genetic information
A. Chromosomes C. Nuclei
B. Genes D. None of the above

255. A group of genetically identical cells or organisms derived by asexual reproduction from a single parent
A. Clone C. Chromosomes
B. Gene D. DNA

256. A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during
translation;
A. Codon C. Chitin
B. Apoenzyme D. Antigen

257. A lesion caused by the herpes simplex virus;


A. Cold sore C. Herpes labialis
B. Fever blister D. Any of the above

258. An acute, self-limiting, and highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract that produces
inflammation, profuse discharge, and other symptoms:
A. Common cold C. None of the above
B. Coryza D. Any of the above

259. Algal protists with siliceous cell walls called frustules:


A. Diatoms C. Bloom
B. Phytoplankton D. None of the above

260. The dried sclerotium of Claviceps purpurea:


A. Ergot C. Aflatoxin
B. Strychnine D. penicillin
261. German measles is also known as:
A. Rubella C. Varicella
B. Rubeola D. Variola

262. An antibiotic from a species of Penicillium given orally to treat chronic dermatophyte infections of skin
and nail:
A. Griseofulvin C. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin D. Ampicillin

263. The process of deliberate modification of an organism’s genetic information by directly changing its
nucleic acid genome:
A. Genetic engineering C. Biotechnology
B. Biomagnifications D. None of the above

264. The full set of genes present in a cell or virus:


A. Genome C. Proteomics
B. Genomics D. Biotechnology

265. Hepatitis A is caused by:


A. Virus C. Bacterium
B. Fungus D. Algae

266. Lesions of the oral cavity caused by the measles virus that are characterized by bluish white speck in
the center of each:
A. Koplik’s spots C. Chancre
B. Pustules D. Pox

267. An organism composed of a fungus and an alga in a symbolic relationship:


A. Lichen C. Aerial plant
B. Hyphae D. Mycelium

268. An acute generalized viral infection occurring in school-age children manifested by swelling of the
parotid salivary glands:
A. Mumps C. Colds
B. Measles D. Influenza

269. A mass of viruses or unassembled viral subunit found within the brain neurons of rabies-infected
animals:
A. Negri bodies C. Chancre
B. Koplik’s spots D. Pox

270. A polyene antibiotic from Streptomyces noursei that is used un the treatment of candida infections of the
skin, vagina, and alimentary tract:
A. Nystatin C. Chloramphenicol
B. Cephalosporin D. Griseofulvin

271. A natural soil aggregate, formed partly through bacterial and fungal growth in the soil:
A. Ped C. Peplomer
B. Pseudopodium D. Peptidoglycan

272. A group of antibiotics containing a beta-lactam ring, which are active against gram-positive bacteria:
A. Penicillins C. Griseofulvins
B. Cephalosporins D. Chloramphenicol

273. An acute, contagious viral disease that destroys the nerve cells that control the muscles, and sometimes
causing paralysis:
A. Poliomyelitis C. Polio
B. Infantile paralysis D. All of the above
C.
274. An in vitro technique used to synthesize large quantities of specific nucleotide sequences from small
amounts of DNA:
A. PCR C. HPLC
B. Polymerase chain reaction D. A or B

275. Refers to water suitable for drinking:


A. Potable C. Tap
B. Edible D. Mineral

276. Refers to the total number of individuals infected at any one time in a given population regardless of
when the disease began:
A. Prevalence rate C. Epidemiologic rate
B. Incidence rate D. Dominance rate

277. An acute, viral, infectious disease of the CNS, which affects all warm-blooded animals, including
humans:
A. Rabies C. Any of the above
B. Hydrophobia D. None of the above

278. The techniques used in carrying out genetic engineering:


A. Recombinant DNA technology C. Any of the above
B. Biotechnology D. None of the above

279. The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving
as template:
A. Replication C. Transduction
B. Translation D. Conjugation

280. A site, alternative host, or carrier that normally harbors pathogenic organisms and serves asa source
from which other individuals can be infected:
A. Reservoir C. Passive
B. Intermediate D. Secondary

281. A group of viruses with RNA genomes that carry the enzyme reverse transcriptase and from a DNA copy
of their genome during their reproductive cycle:
A. Retroviruses C. Arboviruses
B. Adenoviruses D. None of the above

282. A tank used to process small quantities of domestic waste:


A. Septic tank C. Gas collector
B. Hydrogen tank D. LPG tank

283. The use of physical and biological processes to remove particulate and dissolved material from sewage:
A. Sewage treatment C. Bioremediation
B. Flocculation D. Effluent treatment

284. A reactivated form of chickenpox caused by the herpes zoster virus


A. Shingles C. Varicella
B. Herpes zoster D. Rubeola

285. A highly contagious, often fatal disease caused by a povirus, manifested by the appearance of blisters
and postules on the skin:
A. Smallpox C. Varicella
B. Variola D. Varicella

286. An inoculum, consisting of a mixture of carefully selected microorganisms, used to start a commercial
fermentation
A. Starter culture C. Pour plate
B. Spread plate D. Pour plate

287. A strand of DNA or RNA that specifies the base sequence of a newly synthesized complementary
strand of DNA or RNA:
A. Template C. Any of the above
B. Temperate D. None of the above

288. A sequence that marks the end of a gene and stops transcription;
A. Terminator C. Scavenger
B. Predator D. Carnivore

289. A type of body that is devoid of root, stem or leaf, characteristic of some algae, many fungi and lichens:
A. Thallus C. Spore
B. Hypha D. Mycelium

290. Infection of the oral mucosa membrane by a fungus;


A. Thrush C. Any of the above
B. Oral candidiasis D. None of the above

291. Also known as jock itch:


A. Tinea cruris C. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea barbae D. Tinea pedis

292. The following are genera of fungi, except:


A. Streptomyces C. Trichophyton
B. Candidiasis D. Epidermophyton

293. Also known as athlete’s foot:


A. Tinea pedis C. Tinea corporis
B. Tinea ungulum D. Tinea cruris

294. A fungal infection caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur, that forms brownish-red scales on the skin of
the trunk, neck, face and arms:
A. Tinea versicolor C. Tinea manuum
B. Tinea cruris D. Tinea pedis

295. Referred to an animal that has gained new genetic information from the insertion of foreign DNA
A. Transgenic C. Transduced
B. Transient D. Transformed

296. A raised epidermal lesion with horny surface caused by an infection by a human papilloma virus
A. Verruca C. Variola
B. Wart D. A or B

297. Small membrane-bound bodies which are swollen areas in the colonizing hyphae:
A. Vesicles C. Verruca
B. Wart D. Rashes

298. An epidermal tumor of viral origin


A. Wart C. Rash
B. Vesicles D. Pustule

299. A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or
sexually through spore formation:
A. Yeast C. Mushroom
B. Mold D. None of the above

300. A fungal alkaloid that have been associated with witchcraft and lycanthrophy:
A. Ergot C. Penicillin
B. Aflatoxin D. Saxitoxin

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