General Anatomy and Physiology
14 Facial bones
1. Glomerular Filtration Rate = 125ml/min
a. GFR/day = 170,000 to 180,000ml/day
2. Water exhaled daily = 400ml
3. Survival rate of platelets = 10 days
4. Daily urine output = 1.5L to 2.0L/day
5. Segments of kidney (no answer yet)
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 11
6. Survival rate of platelets = 10 days
7. Foramen not seen in greater wing of sphenoid bone.
Choices:
a. Ovale
b. Spinosum
c. Optic canal – seen in lesser wing of sphenoid
bone
d. Petrosal foramen
8. Most posterior foramen. Choices:
a. Ovale
b. Spinosum
c. Rotundum
d. Lacerum
9. Which of the following is not a ligament of TMJ or
Ginglymoarthrodial Joint? Choices:
a. Lateral temporomandibular ligament
b. Stylomandibular ligament
c. Sphenomandibular ligament
d. Capsular ligament
e. Ligamentum nuchae
10. Nephrons in a single kidney = 1million
11. Number of bones in adult skull = 22 bones
a.
b. 8 Cranial bones
12. Hypoglossal nerve innervates all of the following,
except: Choices:
a. Styloglossus
b. Hyoglossus
c. Genioglossus
d. Palatoglossus – innervated by Pharyngeal
plexus
13. Iron is ABSORB in = Duodenum (“I duo”)
a. Iron is carried by the protein Transferrin
14. Clotting Factor not produced by the liver
a. Clotting Factor VIII
15. Clotting Factors produced by the liver which is Vitamin
K dependent.
a. Clotting Factors 2, 7 ,9, 10
16. Cranial Nerves with parasympathetics
a. CN 3, 7, 9, 10
17. Collagen type found in dermis and bone = Type I
18. Draining of fluid in lungs is made in what intercostal
space (Thoracentesis procedure)? Choices:
a. 7th intercostal space
b. 8th intercostal space
c. 9th intercostal space
d. 10th intercostal space
19. Gray matter of brain and spinal cord (OB IS GRAY)
a. Outer Brain; Inner Spinal Cord is GRAY
20. Layers of digestive tract from outer to inner
a. Adventitia, Muscularis propria, submucosa,
muscularis mucosa, lamina propia, epithelium
21. Tongue came from what Pharyngeal (brachial) arch
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
22. Dural venous sinuses (memorize)
23. Calcium binds to troponin
24. Tropomyosin prevents binding of myosin to actin
25. Powerhouse of the cell = Mitochondria
26. Membrane responsible for osmosis = cell membrane
27. Cholinergic receptors = muscarinic and nicotinic
28. Hard or deep inspiration = external intercostalis
muscle
29. Part of the brain where pain is pathways are sent =
cortex/thalamus
30. Packaging organelle = golgi apparatus
31. Digestive organelle = lysosomes
32. Passage way of substances in nucleus = nuclear pores
33. Malignant with suffix -oma
a. Lymphoma
b. Melanoma
c. Multiple Myeloma
d. Neuroblastoma
34. Lining of bladder = transitional epithelium
35. Stage of mitosis where chromosomes migrate to
equatorial plate = metaphase
36. Layers of arteries and veins (memorize)
37. Secretions of anterior pituitary gland (GPA B FLAT)
38. Oxyphil cells are found in = parathyroid gland
39. Cells increasing towards anus = goblet cells
40. Rotator cuff muscles (memorize)
41. Main duct of pancreas = wirsung’s duct
42. Tubuloglomerular feedback = macula densa
43. What detects NaCl concentration in DCT = macula
densa
44. Renin is secreted by = juxtaglomerular cells
45. Color of muscles = white and red
46. Anemic hypoxia – associated with problem with
oxygen-carrying structures in the blood.
47. Hypoxemic or altitude hypoxia – lack of oxygen supply
due to decrease oxygen absorbed by the lungs.
48. Stagnant hypoxia – hypoxia due to poor circulation.
Example is hypothermia or vasoconstriction of vessels
49. Histotoxic hypoxia – cells are poisoned and hence
they cannot carry oxygen.
50. Life threatening = pansinusitis
51. Nerve not innervating the TMJ?
a. Inner maxillary artery
b. Externa carotid
c. Arteries of pterygoid muscle
d. Facial artery
52. OD – right eye
53. OS – left eye
54. Ou – both eyes
55. Resting membrane potential = -70mv (tortora) or -
90mv (Guyton)
56. CN XI innervates = trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
General Pathology and Microbiology
1. Benign glandular neoplasm = adenoma
2. Malignant glandular neoplasm = adenocarcinoma
3. Cause of exudate = increase capillary pemeability
4. 75-year old male, fractured femur = osteoporosis
5. Primary lesion of herpes zoster infection (shingles) =
chicken pox
6. Most common malignant skin cancer in oral cavity =
SCC
7. Most common malignant tumor in skin = BCC
8. Most common nevus = intradermal
9. Ewing’s sarcoma = moth eaten
10. Transferred by human lice = epidemic typhus (R.
prowazekii)
11. Exudate changes the pH = from alkaline to acidic
12. Sialolith is common in = submandibular gland
13. Enzyme of streptococcus microorganisms that
activates plasminogen to plasmin = streptokinase
14. Common malignant tumor in children =
neuroblastoma
15. Bacteria causing root caries = actinomyces viscosus
16. Sjogren’s triad = RA, xerostomia and
keratoconjunctivitis sicca
17. Found in body fluids = IgA
18. Fluorosis is = endemic
19. Fordyces granules = misplaced sebaceous glands
20. Most common associated with TMJ problem =
myofascial pains
21. Origins of tooth structure (memorize)
a. Dental sac/follicle – cementum, bone, PDL
b. Dental papilla – dentin and pulp
c. Enamel organ – enamel
22. Brachial arches are seen during = 4th week of
development
23. Tongue starts to form during the = 4th week of
development
24. First to form ameloblast or odontoblast = ameloblast
25. First to lay down, dentin or enamel = dentin
26. Transudate and exudate (composition)
27. Causative agent of endemic typhus – R. typhi
28. SCC or mucoepidermoid carcinoma
a. With keratin pearls
29. Anemia (memorize the types and features)
30. Hallmark of malignancy – anaplasia
31. Malignant melanoma (memorize features)
32. Which doesn’t cause latent infections?
a. Polio
b. Varicella
c. Herpes simplex
33. Aflatoxin – carcinogens; found in aspergillus
34. Most versatile cell (no answer)
35. Delayed hypersensitivity – mediated by lymphocytes
36. Legionnaires disease = due to inhalation of
aerosolized contaminated water or soil.
37. Most common cause of hypothyroidism = hashimoto’s
thyroiditis
Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry
1. Skirt preparation (definition)
2. Collar preparation (definition)
3. Optimal Fluoride Concentration in community
a. 0.7 to 1.2ppm
4. ZOE and cavity varnish – inhibits polymerization of
resins
5. Patient is allergic to oil of cloves, what medicament is
contraindicated to the patient?
a. ZOE
6. Most important dimension of color = go for Hue
(other source – Value)
7. Primary use of acid etch = reduce microleakage or for
formation of microporosities for retention
8. During etching, tooth is contaminated with saliva.
What is the next procedure? RE-ETCH
9. Amalgam Class I preparation of buccal and lingual
walls = converging occlusally (80 to 100 degrees in
relation to cavosurface margin)
10. Proper way of amalgam carving = resting the sharp
instrument on the cusp of the tooth
11. To prevent damage of adjacent tooth during proximal
tooth preparation, this technique is utilize = proximal
ditch cut
12. Magna Carta of Public health workers (RA 7305)
a. March 26, 1992 = date of approval
b. April 17, 1992 = date of effectiveness
 13. Hours before allowing the patient to eat to the side
where you give an amalgam restoration = 24 hours
14. Etching allows = formation of enamel microtags
15. Which of the following is not hypocalcified
a. Tufts
b. Spindle
c. Lamellae
16. Metamerism – definition
17. Used to polish composite = aluminum oxide (or bur
with reduced cutting ability like highly-fluted carbide
burs)
a. Remember: more flutes means, lesser cutting
ability
b. 6-fluted carbide cuts more efficiently than 30-
fluted carbide burs
18. Wedging – to make the band taut
19. Cavity varnish = 1 to 2 coats
Prosthodontics
1. Ideal crown root ratio = 1:2
2. Minimum acceptable crown root ratio = 1:1
3. Most commonly encountered crown root ratio in the
clinic = 2:3
4. Prior to cementation, the solution that shouldn’t be
applied to the tooth = peroxides and alcohols
5. Material that gives strength to the porcelain = Quartz
6. Kennedy classification that is tooth bound = class III
7. Denture is most commonly fractured in what type of
ridge = flat ridge
8. Beading in rpd functions to = increase contact to
tissues
9. Cusp to fossa = maximum intercuspation
10. Ideal thickness of palatal strap = 8mm
11. Mixing of gypsum = circular
12. Orange material that hardens and is resistant to
heating process = investment material
13. Bilabial sounds = BPM
14. V sound becomes F is due to = incisal edge of
maxillary incisor not touching the lower lip
15. Abutment that is located between 2 pontics = pier
abutment
16. Titanium is combined with what other metal = Nickel
17. Tilted abutment, what is the best thing to do? Treat
orthodontically
18. Proximal plate is located = 2/3 above survey line
19. Other term for epulis fissuratum = inflammatory
fibrous hyperplasia
20. Most important part of RPD framework = denture
base
21. Superior tragus to ala of nose = camper’s line
22. Maxillary occlusal plane should be parallel to = ala-
tragus line (camper’s line)
Oral Surgery, Roentgenology and Oral Pathology
1. When maxillary tuberosity is fractured and is still
attached to the periosteum, what is the treatment?
a. Reposition and stabilize with sutures
2. Blade with hook = Blade #12
3. Radiograph to see the base of the skull
a. Submentovertex or Jughandle View
b. Also used for zygomatic arch fracture
4. Raccoon eyes = Le Fort III
5. Condylar fractures = Reverse Towne’s
6. Maxillary sinus imaging = Water’s view
7. Ohm’s law formula is I = V/R
a. I is amperes
b. V is voltage
c. R is resistance
 d. If V will increase, I will increase
e. If V will decrease, I will decrease
f. If R will increase, I will decrease
8. Size of xray cone (no answer yet)
a. 7x7 square inch
b. 12x12 square inch
c. 7 inches diameter
d. 12 inches diameter
9. PET scan
10. Sialography
11. MRI – doesn’t use ionization
a. Acts at microcellular activity
12. Computed Tomography
13. CBCT
14. Neurotmesis – damaged all layers of nerves
15. Most common associated with CSF rhinorrhea = go for
Le Fort II
16. Dry socket = alveolar osteitis
17. Universal scalpel blade = #15
18. Stab incision = #11
19. Loss of lamina dura = hyperparathyroidism
20. Pheochromocytoma = affects chromaffin cells of
adrenal glands
21. Mucocele = bluish lesion due to entrapment of
salivary gland products (found in lips)
22. Other term for albers-schonberg = osteopetrosis
23. Sialoadenitis = salivary gland inflammation (resulting
to swelling/tumor-like)
24. Mallory-weiss syndrome = esophageal bleeding
25. Hemoglobin count = 14gm/dl of blood
26. Hematocrit count
a. Male – 45% to 52%
b. Female – 37% to 48%
27. Cherubism characteristics:
a. Angel-like face; bony expansion
b. Rx: bilateral soap bubble
c. Common in males
d. Common in mandibular bone
e. Delayed tooth eruption
f. Pathognomonic: perivascular collagen cuffing
28. Raccoon eyes = Le Fort III
29. Grafting materials (memorize)
30. Categories of grafts (memorize)
31. All are associated with flap surgeries, except:
a. Trephination
b. Necrosis
c. Fenestration
d. Dehiscence
32. Restoring maxillary full dentition – 5 to 6 implants
33. Restoring mandibular full dentition – 4 implants
34. Pear-shaped between lateral incisors and canines =
globullomaxillary cyst
Pharmacology
1. Temporary storage of drug = Blood
2. Tetracyline inhibits = 30s ribosomal unit
3. Allergic to penicillin = erythromycin
4. Contraindicated in pregnancy = narcotics (codeine)
5. Patient under long term steroidal therapy = double
the dose before exo
6. Px has endocarditis and allergic to penicillins
a. Vancomycin
b. Sulfonamides
c. Chloramphenicol
7. Parent drug of acetaminophen = Phenacetin
8. 1st sensation lost after administration of local
anesthesia = Pain (remember PaT ToPS)
9. Ototoxic = Streptomycin (aminoglycosides)
 10. Drug that is contraindicated for patients with
emphysema, bronchitis and bronchiectasis (COPD) =
Nitrous Oxide
11. Treatment for Myesthenia Gravis =
acetylcholinesterase
12. Diphenhydramine = h1 blocker
13. 5-FU (5-fluorouracil) is what kind of drug =
antimetabolite
14. Study of drugs = Pharmacology
15. Xanthine for asthma = theophylline and theobromine
16. Allergy to tetracaine = also allergic to procaine
17. Most difficult tooth to anesthetize when there is
irreversible pulpitis – maxillary molars
18. Therapeutic index = LD50/ED50
19. Diacetylmorphine = Heroin
20. Computation of mg in 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000
epinephrine in a 1.8ml carpule
a. 36 mg of lidocaine present
b. 0.018 mg of epinephrine present
21. Study of drug dosage = posology
22. Ultra-short acting barbiturates skip = 2nd stage of
general anesthesia (delirium)
Orthodontics and Pediatric Dentistry
1. Hands free technique brackets (no answer yet)
a. Edgewise
b. Crozat
c. Begg
2. Partial Pulpotomy = CVEK pulpotomy
3. Mandibular blocking in children = below occlusal
plane
4. Point of rotation of tooth during tipping = 2/3
apicocervically of root (or 1/3 cervicoapically of root)
5. Eruption sequence (memorize)
6. Endochondral and intramembranus (ESPECOLS)
7. Interstitial and appositional (ILAW)
8. Growth peak of thymus:
a. Age 10 to 12 = 200% in size and starts to shrink
9. Clark’s and Young’s formula (memorize)
10. Deep bite appliance = anterior bite plane
Endodontics and Periodontics
1. Distal orifice should be approach from = mesial
2. Difference between an endo lesion and a perio lesion
= tooth vitality and presence of calculary deposits
3. Referred pain sites:
a. Forehead = maxillary incisors
b. Nasolabial area = maxillary canines and
premolars
c. Temporal region = maxillary 2nd premolars
d. Ear, angle of the jaw or posterior regions of
neck = mandibular molar
e. Mental area = mandibular incisors, canines and
premolars
f. Maxillary sinus, Zygomatic, parietal and
occipital regions of head = maxillary molars
g. Opposing quadrant or to other teeth in the
same quadrant = maxillary and mandibular
molars
4. C-shape canal = mandibular 2nd molar
5. Which of the following has vital pulp? = internal root
resorption
6. Shape and number of roots = HERS (if not in choices,
answer diaphragm)
7. Shape and number of apex = Epithelial Diaphragm
(answer HERS if not in choices)
8. Fibers resisting if force is directed occlusally = apical
fibers
 9. Fibers resisting if force is directed apically = oblique
fibers
10. Fibers crushed when tooth is moved apically = apical
fibers
11. Internal root resorption = pink tooth of mummery
12. Gingiva (keratinized/nonkeratinized part)
13. Gingiva (parakeratinized and orthokeratinized part)
14. Ethylene oxide – sanitation of heat sensitive dental
instruments (disinfectant); NOT AN ANTISEPTIC
15. Endo and periodontal treatment, which should be
first?
a. General rule – perio first
b. If there is pain – endo first
16. Fracture in the middle 3rd of root in a 11-year old
patient (no answer yet)
a. Observe
b. Splint
c. Exo
17. Tx for a non-vital permanent tooth with open apex =
apexification
18. Gracey curettes (memorize)
19. Complex microorganisms (memorize)
20. How many consecutive negative culture test before
doing obturation? (no answer yet)
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
21. Ankylosis = thickened lamina dura
22. Unhealthy periodontium = gram negative obligate
anaerobic microbes
23. Heathy periodontium – gram positive facultative
anaerobes
Others:
1. If patient is not satisfied with the treatment, he/she
should
a. Sue the dentist
b. Still pay the dentist
c. Not pay the dentist
2. How many hours should a dentist work in a week? (no
answer)
a. 30 hours
b. 40 hours
c. 45 hours
3. Law of taxation (no answer yet)
4. Medical records should be kept for = 10 years
5. PRC ID is renewed for every = 3 years
6. Term off members of board of dentistry = 3 years
7. Term of chairman of board of dentistry = 1 year
8. CPE units = go for 60 units (if none, 45 units)
9. Damage to the reputation of a person through written
(published) material = libel
10. Damage to the reputation of a person through spoken
words = slander