What Is Organizational Behavior

_____ are individuals who get things done through other people.
A. Leaders
B. Psychologist
C. Organizations
D. Managers

Which French industrialist said that a manager's functions consist of planning, organizing,
commanding, coordinating, and controlling?
A. Henri Fayol
B. Henry Mintzberg
C. Fred Luthans
D. Herb Kelleher

Through the _____ function, managers monitor the performance of the organization and
significant deviations.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Leading
D. Controlling

_____ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have
on behavior within organizations.
A. Psychology
B. Organizational behavior
C. Sociology
D. Leadership

is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behaviour of humans and
other animals.
A. Anthropology
B. Social psychology
C. Sociology
D. Psychology

Productivity implies a concern for _____ and _____.

A. Efficiency, effectiveness
B. Customer service, quality control
C. Customer service, efficiency
D. Effectiveness, quality control

The four management functions include all of the following EXCEPT.

A. Controlling
B. Planning
C. Staffing

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 D. Organizing

_____ studies behavior as it relates to concerns such as absenteeism, turnover, productivity,

and performance
A. Psychology
B. Kinetics
C. Organizational behavior
D. Ergonomics

According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about human behavior
is_____.
A. Using common sense
B. A n observational approach
C. A theoretical approach
D. A systematic approach

What behavioral science discipline has made the MOST significant contributions to
understanding individual behavior?
A. Sociology
B. Social psychology
C. Psychology
D. Anthropology

_____ has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior
between people in different countries.
A. Anthropology
B. Psychology
C. Social psychology
D. Political science

The field of organizational behavior is most concerned with an organization's _____.

A. Responsiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Perception
D. Effectiveness

"Intuition" is concerned with _____.

A. Gut feelings
B. Systematic study scientific
C. Analysis
D. Predictive ability

_____ is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of
humans and other animals.
A. Anthropology

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 B. Social psychology
C. Sociology
D. Psychology

Which is not a contributing area to Organizational Behavior?

A. Anthropology
B. Physiology
C. Psychology
D. Sociology

_____ is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities.
A. Sociology
B. Social Psychology
C. Anthropology
D. Political Science

Foundations of Organization Structure

Work specialization is also known as _____.

A. Span of control
B. Chain of command
C. Formalization
D. Division of labour

_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.

A. Formalization
B. Specialization
C. Departmentalization
D. Chain of command

The _____ is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the
lowest level and clarifies who reports to whom.
A. Chain of command
B. Span of control
C. Formalization
D. Organizational structure

_____ refers to the number of employees that can be directed by one manager.
A. Formalization
B. Span of control
C. Authority
D. Centralization

Most small businesses are organized as _____.

A. Simple structures
B. Matrix structures

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 C. Virtual organizations
D. Bureaucracies

The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is _____.

A. Flexibility
B. Decentralization
C. Standardization
D. Creativity

The _____ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product.

A. Simple structure
B. Virtual organization
C. Bureaucracy
D. Matrix structure

Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization?

A. Clear organizational structure.
B. Coordination of complex and interdependent activities.
C. Elimination of power struggles.
D. All of the above.

A _____ relies primarily on outsourcing.

A. Team structure
B. Boundaryless organization
C. Virtual organization
D. Strategic alliance

The _____ model has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information
network, and little participation by low-level members in decision making.
A. Mechanistic
B. Strategy
C. Organic
D. Routine

A(n) _____ organization uses flat, cross-hierarchal and cross-functional teams, has low
formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and involves high participation
in decision making.
A. Mechanistic
B. Strategy
C. Organic
D. Routine

Organizations that pursue a cost-minimization strategy are more likely to choose a(n) _____
structure.
A. Functional
B. Mechanistic

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 C. Departmentalized
D. Organic

_____ refers to how a firm converts its inputs to outputs.

A. Environment
B. Structure
C. Routine
D. Technology

_____ is the degree to which an environment can support growth.

A. Instability
B. Complexity
C. Capacity
D. Volatility

_____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
A. Chain of command
B. Span of control
C. Centralization
D. Organizational structure

Division of labour is also known as _____.

A. Span of control
B. Departmentalization
C. Work specialization
D. Formalization

Which of the following is true regarding specialization?

A. Less time is spent in changing tasks.
B. It's easier and less costly to find and train workers to do specific and repetitive tasks.
C. Employee skills tasks at performing tasks increases through repetition.
D. Training for specialization is less efficient.

_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.

A. Compartmentalization
B. Structured hierarchy
C. Departmentalization
D. Specialization

The _____ is an unbroken line of authority running from the top to the bottom of the
organization.
A. Chain of command
B. Span of control
C. Hierarchical line
D. Vertical structure

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_____ refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders
to be obeyed.
A. Unity of command
B. Authority
C. Bureaucratic control
D. Formalization

_____, to a large degree, determines the number of levels and managers an organization has.
A. Hierarchy
B. Authority
C. Formalization
D. Span of control

_____ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the
organization.
A. Decentralization
B. Formalization
C. Centralization

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple structure?

A. Wide spans of control
B. Low degree of departmentalization
C. Authority centralized in a single person
D. Highly formalized rules and regulations

The simple structure is most widely practiced in _____.

A. Mid-range size businesses
B. Large corporations
C. Small businesses
D. International organizations

A _____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks, very formalized rules, and tasks
that are grouped into functional departments.
A. Virtual organization
B. Bureaucracy
C. Boundaryless organization
D. Team structure

As size increases, decision making typically _____.

A. Becomes more efficient
B. Moves through fewer organizational levels
C. Becomes slower
D. Becomes more effective

Typically, a matrix structure combines _____ departmentalization.

A. Customer and geographic
B. Geographic and process

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 C. Functional and process
D. Functional and product

A matrix structure violates that _____ concept.

A. Span of control
B. Unity-of-command
C. Centralization
D. Contingency

In a _____ organization, a small, core organization outsources major business functions.

A. Vertical
B. Virtual
C. Boundaryless
D. Team

Virtual organizations are highly _____, with little or no _____.

A. Centralized, departmentalization
B. Formalized, centralization
C. Departmentalized, formalization
D. Decentralized, departmentalization

The boundaryless organization is also known as the _____.

A. Network organization
B. Cultural structure
C. T-form
D. Modular organization

In a mechanistic organization, communication is _____.

A. Mostly upward
B. Both upward and lateral
C. Mostly downward
D. Both lateral and downward

_____ structures include cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams and a flat structure.
A. Mechanistic
B. Hybrid
C. Routine
D. Organic

Innovation, cost minimization, and imitation are examples of _____.

A. Corporate models
B. Formalization
C. Environments
D. Strategy

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_____ need the flexibility of an organic structure, while _____ seek the efficiency and stability
of a mechanistic structure.
A. Innovators, cost minimisers
B. Cost minimisers, imitators
C. Imitators, innovators
D. Innovators, imitators

Size affects structure _____.

A. At an increasing rate
B. At a decreasing rate
C. At a stable rate
D. At an intermittent rate

Routine technology is accompanied by decentralization when _____.

A. When formalization is low
B. When formalization is high
C. When the company is organized by customer
D. When tasks are routine

The greatest degree of uncertainty is faced by organizations that are _____.

A. Robust, complex, and dynamic
B. Stable, complex, and scarce
C. Dynamic, stable, and robust
D. Scarce, dynamic, and complex

_____ refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.
A. Volatility
B. Complexity
C. Dynamism
D. None of the above

Work specialization is associated with _____.

A. Lower employee productivity and lower satisfaction
B. Higher employee productivity and higher satisfaction
C. Lower employee productivity and higher satisfaction
D. Higher employee productivity and lower satisfaction

The ____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization.
A. Matrix organization
B. Bureaucracy
C. Simple structure
D. Team structure

The ____ violates the unity-of-command concept.

A. Simple structure
B. Bureaucracy

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 C. Matrix structure
D. Virtual organization

The ____ is also called the network or modular organization.

A. Virtual organization
B. Team structure
C. Matrix
D. Bureaucracy

The boundaryless organization relies heavily on _____

A. Information technology
B. Vertical boundaries
C. Horizontal boundaries
D. External boundaries

The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a

limited information network, and centralization.
A. Mechanistic model
B. Organic model
C. Technology model
D. Boundaryless organization

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of an organization's structure?

A. Strategy
B. Organization size
C. Industry
D. Technology

Changes in corporate strategy precede and lead to _____.

A. Changes in the environment
B. Better communication
C. Increased productivity
D. Changes in an organization's structure

Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee

performance and satisfaction is MOST true?
A. There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction.
B. There is no evidence that supports a relationship between span of control and employee
performance.
C. No one wants work that makes minimal intellectual demands and is routine.

The unbroken line of authority that extends from top of the organization to the lowest echelon
is termed the chain of command.
A. True
B. False

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Narrow spans of control encourage overly tight supervision and discourage employee
autonomy.
A. True
B. False

A major weakness of the bureaucracy is lack of attention to rules.

A. True
B. False

The major disadvantages of the matrix structure lie in the confusion it creates, its propensity to
foster power struggles, and the stress it places on individuals.
A. True
B. False

The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility.

A. True
B. False

Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization.

A. True
B. False

The organic structure is characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a

limited information network, and centralization.
A. True
B. False

Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 members is likely to result in a
shift towards a more organic structure.
A. True
B. False

The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should
be.
A. True
B. False

Research supports the notion that employees prefer an organic structure.

A. True
B. False

Personality And Values

_____ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.
A. Moods
B. Values
C. Personality

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 D. Attitudes

_____ refers to those factors that were determined at conception.

A. Temperament
B. Heredity
C. Environment
D. Situation

_____ are enduring characteristics that describe an individual's behavior.

A. Personality traits
B. Individual dimensions
C. Value systems
D. Terminal values

The _____ is the most popular typology of personality traits.

A. Hofstede Cultural Profile
B. Holland Code
C. Big Five Model
D. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

_____is the degree to which individuals like or dislike themselves, whether they see themselves
as capable and effective, and whether they feel they are in control of their environment.
A. Emotional bias
B. Machiavellianism
C. Job satisfaction
D. Core self-evaluation

_____ is the tendency to be pragmatic, emotionally distant, and exploitative.

A. Emotionally maturity
B. Low self-esteem
C. High self-esteem
D. Machiavellianism

_____ refers to the tendency to be arrogant, have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require
excessive self-admiration, and have a sense of entitlement.
A. Narcissism
B. Job involvement
C. Organizational commitment
D. External locus of control

An individual who is able to adjust his/her behavior to external factors is a high _____.
A. Machiavellianism
B. locus of control
C. Type A
D. self-monitor

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Those who have a _____ personality are perpetually involved in a struggle to do more and
more activities in less time.
A. Self-monitor
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Machiavellian

The value attribute that specifies importance is known as ____.

A. Mode of conduct
B. End state
C. Intensity
D. Freedom

Is most often described in terms of measurable traits that a person exhibits.

A. Organization
B. Tolerance
C. Personality
D. Value

Which of the following best describes heredity?

A. Situational determinants at work
B. Environment factors
C. Factors that were determined at conception
D. Personality traits that develop with age

The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator prefers routine and order.
A. Perceiving
B. Intuitive
C. Extroverted
D. Sensing

The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relies on personal values and emotions.
A. Judging
B. Intoitive
C. Feeling
D. Sensing

______ types, according to the MBTI typology, want control and prefer their world to be
ordered and structured.
A. Perceiving
B. Judging
C. Sensing
D. Intuitive

Which personality dimension is measured in both the MTBI and the Big Five model?
A. Emotional stability

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 B. Conscientiousness
C. Agreeableness
D. Extroversion

The _____ dimension of the Big Five Model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to
others.
A. Extroversion
B. Agreeableness
C. Conscientiousness
D. Openness to experience

Which of the Big Five dimensions has shown a strong and consistent relationship with job
performance?
A. Extrovrsion
B. Agreeableness
C. Consientiousness
D. Openness to experience

Machiavellianism, self-esteem, self-monitoring, propensity for risk taking, and Type A are all
examples of _____.
A. Personality attributes
B. Compensable skills
C. Genetically heritable traits
D. Core competencies

Individuals with _____ core self-evaluations tend to dislike themselves, question their
capabilities, and view themselves as powerless over their environment.
A. Internal
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. External

Which is not true of a high Mach?

A. He/she manipulates less.
B. He/she wins more.
C. He/she is persuaded less.
D. He/she persuades others more.

When do high Machs flourish?

A. When they interact face to face with others rather than indirectly.
B. When the situation has a minimum number of rules and regulations.
C. All of the above

A study found that while _____ thought that they were better leaders than their colleagues,
their supervisors actually rated them as worse leaders.
A. Self-monitors
B. Risk takers

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 C. Machiavellians
D. Narcissists

Which is NOT true of high self-monitors?

A. He/she adjusts his or her behaviour to external factors.
B. He/she is highly sensitive to external cues.
C. He/she tends to display true emotions.

_____ behavior may lead to more effective performance for a share trader in a brokerage firm.
A. Low risk-taking
B. High risk-taking
C. Risk-averse
D. Multi-risk

_____ personalities strive to do two or more things at once.

A. Type B
B. Aggressive
C. Protocol
D. Type A

_____ personalities tend to play for fun and relaxation, rather than to exhibit superiority.
A. Type B
B. Aggressive
C. Prosaic
D. Type A

A _____ personality type takes the initiative to improve its circumstances.

A. Machiavellian
B. Entrepreneurial
C. Prosaic
D. proactive

According to the Myers-Briggs type Indicator, people who are classified as _____ are
conceptualizers.
A. INTJs
B. ESTJs
C. ENTPs
D. MBTIs

Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others?
A. Extroversion
B. Openness to experience
C. Emotional stability
D. Agreeableness

Individuals with a positive _____ like themselves, see themselves as effective, capable, and in
control of their environment.
A. Narcissism

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 B. Propensity
C. Core self-evaluations

Individuals who are high in the _____ dimension of personality manipulate more, win more,
are persuaded less, and persuade others more.
A. Rokeach
B. Aesthetic
C. Machiavellianism

If personality characteristics were completely dictated by heredity, they would be fixed at birth
and no amount of experience could alter them.
A. True
B. False

A substantial body of research supports the MBTI as a valid measure of personality.

A. True
B. False

Extroverts tend to be reserved, timid, and quiet.

A. True
B. False

The opposite of emotional stability is neuroticism.

A. True
B. False

Compared to introverts, extroverts tend to be happier in their jobs and lives as a whole.
A. True
B. False

Terminal values are preferable modes of behaviour, or means of achieving one's instrumental
values.
A. True
B. False

The lives of Xers have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers.
A. True
B. False

Organizations in a society low in uncertainty avoidance are likely to have more formal rules.
A. True
B. False

Individuals with Holland's investigative personality are well suited for careers as small business
managers.
A. True
B. False

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Motivation Concepts

_____ is the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of
effort toward attaining a goal.
A. Perception
B. Cooperation
C. Motivation
D. Affect

Which is NOT a dimension in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?

A. Ego
B. Physiological
C. Safety
D. Esteem

_____ theory is an extension of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

A. Two-factor
B. Theory Y
C. Theory X
D. ERG

Which of the following comments was made by a Theory X manager?

A. Employees dislike work.
B. Employees will exercise discretion.
C. The average person will seek responsibility.
D. Employees can view work as natural as rest or play.

Which of the following is a motivational factor, according to Herzberg's two-factor theory?

A. Quality of supervisions
B. Recognition
C. Pay
D. Relations with others

According to Edwin Locke, _____ goals produce the greatest degree of achievement.
A. Ambiguous and difficult
B. Specific and difficult
C. Specific and easy

_____ programs emphasize participative set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable.
A. Self-efficacy
B. Management by objectives
C. Reinforcement
D. Organizational

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_____ is also known as social cognitive theory or social learning theory.
A. Self-efficacy
B. Reinforcement
C. Goal-setting
D. Cognitive evaluation

The _____ effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy where believing something to be true can
make it true.
A. Archimedes
B. Galatia
C. Icarus
D. Pygmalion

_____ theory argues that behaviour is a function of its consequences.

A. Equity
B. Reinforcement
C. Goal-setting
D. Expectancy

_____ theory makes the assumption that people will compare their job inputs and outcomes
with those of others and then respond to eliminate perceived inequities.
A. Equity
B. Reinforcement
C. Goal-setting
D. Expectancy

When an employee compares their inputs and outcomes with another employee within their
organization, they are making a(n) _____ comparison.
A. Self-outside
B. Self-inside
C. Other-inside
D. Other-outside

_____ justice is the perceived degree to which an individual is treated with dignity, concern,
and respect.
A. Procedural
B. Equity
C. Interactional
D. Distributive

According to expectancy theory, which of the following factors lead to good performance ?
A. The individual must have the requisite ability to perform.
B. The performance appraisal system must be perceived as fair.
C. The rewards must be desirable to the employee.
D. All of the above

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Processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward
attaining a goal are collectively known as _____.
A. Redirection
B. Motivation
C. Cognitive effort
D. Expectancy

In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _____ needs include security and protection from physical and
emotional harm.
A. Esteem
B. Physiological
C. Safety
D. Self-actualization

Physiological and safety needs are _____ needs.

A. Higher-order
B. Lower-order
C. Lateral
D. Equity

ERG theory is associated with _____.

A. Abraham Maslow
B. Frederick Herzberg
C. Clayton Alderfer
D. Douglas McGregor

According to ERG theory, _____.

A. An unsatisfied need ceases to motivate.
B. A person may work on three needs at the same time.
C. Frustration over a lower-level need will cause an individual to focus on higher-level
needs.
D. Individuals will focus on their lowest level of unsatisfied need.

Which of the following statements was most likely to have been made by a Theory X manager?
A. "My employees work really hard - they seem to motivate themselves."
B. "Most people are hard workers."
C. "I spend most of my day closely supervising employees. When I'm not around, I suspect
that they do as little as possible."
D. "The key to high productivity is giving employees the opportunity to make decisions."

Which of the following assumptions are characteristic of McGregor's Theory Y?

A. Employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play.
B. People will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the
objectives.
C. The average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility.

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 D. All of the above

According to Herzberg, which of the factors below is NOT considered an intrinsic motivator?
A. Advancement
B. Recognition
C. Responsibility
D. Pay

In Herzberg's model, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision pay, and
company policies are known as _____ factors.
A. Motivation
B. Recognition
C. Hygiene
D. Intrinsic

Promotional opportunities would be a(n) _____ factor in Herzberg's model.

A. Hygiene
B. Motivational
C. Extrinsic
D. Equity

_____ suggests that introduction of extrinsic rewards reduces the enjoyment of the task.
A. Contingency theory
B. Goal setting theory
C. Cognitive evaluation theory
D. Expectancy theory

Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

A. Salary
B. Bonus
C. Interesting work
D. Promotion

_____ considers the degree to which peoples' reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with
their interests and core values.
A. Self-concordance
B. Goal setting theory
C. Self-efficacy
D. Equity theory

Goal-setting theory suggests all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Specific goals lead to higher performance.
B. Difficult goals increase performance.
C. Feedback leads to higher performance.
D. Ambiguous goals increase performance.

_____ operationalizes goal-setting theory.

A. Equity theory

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 B. Self-efficacy
C. Management by objectives
D. Expectancy theory

_____ refers to an individual's beliefs that he or she is capable of performing a task.

A. Self-efficacy
B. Self-concordance
C. Reinforcement
D. Equity

Which of the following is NOT a strategy for increasing self-efficacy?

A. Vicarious modeling
B. Extinction
C. Enactive mastery
D. Verbal persuasion

_____ refers to increasing self-efficacy by seeing someone else performing a task.

A. Enactive mastery
B. Arousal
C. Verbal persuasion
D. Vicarious modeling

The _____ effect occurs when high performance expectations are communicated to employees.
A. Pygmalion
B. Zeus
C. Trojan
D. Galatea

_____ theory ignores the inner state of the individual and concentrates solely on what happens
to a person when he or she takes some action.
A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Reinforcement
D. Self-efficacy

When an employee compares his current position with experiences in a different or former
position he/she has just made a _____ comparison.
A. Self-outside
B. Other-inside
C. Other-outside
D. Self-inside

_____ justice refers to the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among
individuals.
A. Interactional
B. Distributive
C. Equity

20 | P a g e
 D. Procedural

An entitlement attitude implies that _____.

A. Employees expect outcomes to be greater than inputs.
B. Employees expect inputs to be greater than outcomes.
C. Employees expect inputs and outcomes to be the same.
D. Employees expect outcomes without inputs.

Which of the following is NOT a key element in motivation?

A. Environment
B. Intensity
C. Direction

_____ is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A. Social
B. Self-actualization
C. Physiological

Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow?

A. Physiological, safety, and social needs
B. Safety, social, and esteem needs
C. Esteem and self-actualization needs
D. Socially, esteem, and self-actualization needs

A Theory X manager would assume employees would _____.

A. Like work
B. Seek responsibility
C. Need to be controlled
D. Exercise self direction

Two-factor theory suggests that extrinsic factors such as _____ cause dissatisfaction.
A. Advancement
B. Working conditions
C. Achievement
D. Recognition

Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. Job situations with personal responsibility
B. A high degree of risk
C. Overcoming obstacles
D. Feedback

According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, goals should be _____.

A. Extremely difficult
B. Easy
C. Difficult but attainable
D. Similar to goals for other organizations

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Manager's can increase an employee's _____ through enactive mastery, vicarious modelling,
verbal persuasion, and arousal.
A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Self-efficacy

_____ exists when an individual perceives that the ratio of their inputs to outcomes is dissimilar
to the ration of relevant others.
A. Reinforcement
B. Cognitive dissonance
C. Equity tension
D. Turnover

The degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and
the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual is the ____ relationship.
A. Rewards-personal goals
B. Performance-reward
C. Effort-performance
D. Rewards-effort

Motivation is a personality trait.

A. True
B. False
According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer motivates.
A. True
B. False
Theory X assumptions hold a basically negative view of human beings.
A. True
B. False
According to Herzberg, the opposite of "satisfaction" is "dissatisfaction".
A. True
B. False
Hygiene factors usually lead to job satisfaction when present in a job.
A. True
B. False
According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a higher level of output than
a specific goal.
A. True
B. False
Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions
to correct the inequities.
A. True
B. False

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In expectancy theory, the strength of a person's motivation to perform depends in part on how
strongly he believes he can achieve what he attempts.
A. True
B. False

Motivation From Concept To Applications

The _____ suggests that any job can be described in terms of five core job dimensions.
A. opportunity to perform score
B. productivity indicator model
C. core competency paradigm
D. job characteristics model

_____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of
work.
A. Autonomy
B. Task significance
C. Task identity
D. Feedback

_____ is the horizontal expansion of a job.

A. Job enlargement
B. Job sharing
C. Job enrichment
D. Job congruence

Jobs may be enriched by _____, grouping tasks so that an employee creates an identifiable and
meaningful output.
A. establishing client relationships
B. forming natural work units
C. expanding jobs vertically
D. opening feedback channels

Bill and Jane each work 20 hours per week and share the same job. They benefit from their
company's _____ program, which allows two employees to share one full-time job.
A. job sharing
B. flexitime
C. job rotation
D. teleworking

Which of the following is one of the three major forms of employee involvement?
A. flexitime
B. gainsharing
C. employee stock ownership
D. participative management

23 | P a g e
_____ is the distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs
A. Unilateral decision making
B. Group consensus
C. Continuous feedback
D. Joint decision making

Which of the following is an example of representative participation?

A. groupthink
B. board representatives
C. work sharing
D. quality circle

A _____ is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors that meet regularly to
discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and
take corrective actions.
A. board representative
B. work council
C. quality circle
D. employee share ownership plan

An advantage of _____ is that they allow employers to differentiate pay based on performance,
so that those people thought to be high performers are given bigger raises.
A. piece-rate pay plans
B. merit pay plans
C. gainsharing plans
D. bonus plans

_____ allow employees to choose benefits that best meet their needs.
A. Skill-based pay
B. Flexible benefits
C. Gainsharing
D. Pay for performance

_____ plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for
particular services.
A. Core-plus
B. Profit sharing
C. Modular
D. Flexible spending

_____ range from private letters of thanks to publicized formal programs where specific types
of behaviour are encouraged and the procedures for attaining recognition are clearly identified.
A. Flexible benefits
B. Gainsharing plans
C. Employee recognition programs
D. ESOPs

24 | P a g e
Across all countries, _____ job characteristics (pay, working conditions) were consistently and
positively related to satisfaction with one's job.
A. intrinsic
B. intuitive
C. extrinsic
D. external

Richer countries, countries with stronger social security, countries that stressed individualism
rather than collectivism, and countries with a smaller power distance showed a stronger
relationship between the presence of _____ job characteristics (recognition, interesting job)
and job satisfaction.
A. intrinsic
B. intuitive
C. extrinsic
D. external

The _____ describes jobs in terms of skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy,
and feedback.
A. opportunity to perform score
B. productivity indicator model
C. core competency paradigm
D. job characteristics model

In the JCM model, the _____ dimension relates to the degree to which jobs have a substantial
impact on the lives or work of other people.
A. autonomy
B. task identity
C. task significance
D. feedback

The core dimensions of the job characteristics model can be combined into a single predictive
index, called the _____.
A. motivating potential score
B. job characteristics index
C. task significance model
D. feedback factor

_____ is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another.

A. Job enrichment
B. Job enlargement
C. Job rotation
D. Job characteristics

25 | P a g e
_____ is the vertical expansion of a job, increasing the degree to which the worker controls the
planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work.
A. Job enrichment
B. Job enlargement
C. Job rotation
D. Job characteristics

_____ lets employees know how well they are performing their jobs and whether their
performance is improving, deteriorating, or remaining at a constant level.
A. Expanding jobs vertically
B. Forming natural work units
C. Opening feedback channels
D. Combining tasks

_____ allows employees some discretion over their start and stop times, while requiring a
specific number of hours per week.
A. Job enrichment
B. Teleworking
C. Job sharing
D. Flextime

The _____ variable reflects that individuals may be willing and able to perform, but that there
may be obstacles that constrain performance.
A. autonomy
B. job enlargement
C. opportunity to perform
D. task identity

_____ are a way to increase workers' control and autonomy to improve their motivation,
organizational commitment, productivity, and job satisfaction.
A. Merit pay plans
B. Employee share ownership plans
C. Share option compensation programs
D. Employee involvement programs

Participative management requires the use of _____.

A. power redistribution
B. quality improvement
C. employee ownership
D. joint decision making

_____ is considered the "most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the
world".
A. Quality circles
B. Representative participation
C. Employee share ownership

26 | P a g e
 D. None of the above

While _____ programs have little impact on employee satisfaction, many studies report
positive effects on productivity.
A. participative management
B. representative participation
C. measurement
D. quality circle

_____ is consistent with participative management, while _____ aligns with the more
traditional autocratic style of managing people.
A. Theory X, Theory Y
B. Theory Y, Maslow's needs hierarchy
C. Theory Y, Theory X
D. equity theory, Theory Y
The process of initially setting pay levels requires evaluating _____, the worth of the job to the
organization.
A. internal equity
B. profit-sharing
C. piece-rates
D. external equity

Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing, and employee share
ownership plans are all forms of _____ programmers’.
A. employee involvement
B. variable-pay
C. job sharing
D. total quality management

In _____, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production completed.
A. piece-rate plans
B. merit based pay plans
C. bonus plans
D. profit sharing programs

_____ are organization-wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established
formula designed around a company's profitability.
A. Piece-rate plans
B. Merit based pay plans
C. Bonus plans
D. Profit sharing programs

_____ are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire share, often at
below-market prices, as part of their benefits.
A. Gain sharing plans
B. Employee share ownership plans

27 | P a g e
 C. Share options
D. Variable pay programs

_____ can be uniquely tailored to reflect difference in employee needs based on age, marital
status, spouses' benefit status, number and age of dependents.
A. Skill-based pay
B. Flexible benefits
C. Gain sharing
D. Pay for performance

_____ are predesigned packages of benefits, with each module put together to meet the needs
of a specific group of employees.
A. Core-plus options
B. Modular plans
C. Flexible spending plans
D. Pay for performance plans

_____ consist of a core of essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefit options
from which employees can select and add to the core.
A. Core-plus options
B. Modular plans
C. Flexible spending plans
D. Pay for performance plans

_____ allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for
particular services.
A. Core-plus options
B. Modular plans
C. Flexible spending plans
D. Pay for performance plans

_____ is an example of an extrinsic reward.

A. Challenging work
B. Opportunity for advancement.
C. Recognition
D. Compensation

A recent survey of employees in a variety of work settings found that _____ was considered to
be the most powerful workplace motivator.
A. working conditions
B. pay
C. recognition
D. location

An obvious advantage of workplace recognition programmers is that they are _____.

A. unusual
B. intuitive

28 | P a g e
 C. inexpensive
D. complex

An employee recognition program is most likely to be considered fair in which of the following
jobs?
A. sales representative
B. customer service representative
C. human resource manager
D. receptionist

Which of the following is NOT a recommendation concerning employee motivation?

A. Allow employees to participate in decisions that affect them.
B. Recognize individual differences.
C. Link rewards to seniority.
D. Use goals and feedback.

The _____ says that internal rewards are obtained by individuals when they learn that they
personally have performed well on a task that they care about.
A. management by objectives plan
B. participative decision making model
C. job characteristics model
D. performance feedback system

_____ (or cross-training) is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another.
A. Job enlargement
B. Employee involvement
C. Job rotation
D. Job enrichment

_____ may be implemented by combining tasks, forming natural work units, establishing client
relationships, expanding jobs vertically, and opening feedback channels.
A. Job enlargement
B. Employee involvement
C. Job rotation
D. Job enrichment

Writers, lawyers, analysts, and employees who spend the majority of their time on computers
or on the telephone are natural candidates for _____.
A. department modeling
B. job sharing
C. teleworking
D. flextime

_____ is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to
encourage increased commitment to the organization's success.
A. MBO
B. Employee involvement

29 | P a g e
 C. Reengineering

A _____ is a group of employees and supervisors who meet regularly to discuss their quality
problems and recommend solutions.
A. department team
B. cooperative group
C. evaluation team
D. quality circle

Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing, and employee share
ownership plans are all forms of _____ programs.
A. ESOP
B. gain sharing
C. variable-pay
D. Scanlon

_____ is an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity determine the total
amount of money that is allocated.
A. ESOP
B. Gain sharing
C. Variable pay
D. Scanlon plan

The three most popular types of _____ are modular plans, core-plus options, and flexible
spending accounts.
A. share options
B. gain sharing plans
C. variable pay programs
D. flexible benefits

Task identity refers to the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the lives or work
of others.
A. True
B. False
Employee involvement is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and
is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success.
A. True
B. False
Quality circles have the authority to find problems, assess alternative actions, and implement a
solution.
A. True
B. False
Gain sharing programs may also be referred to as profit-sharing programs.
A. True
B. False

30 | P a g e
ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire shares as part of
their benefits.
A. True
B. False
One advantage of bonuses over merit pay is that bonuses reward employees for recent
performance.
A. True
B. False
Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two highly desirable skills.
A. True
B. False
Traditional benefit packages were designed for the typical employee of the 1950s; fewer than
10% of employees now fit that stereotype, requiring an updated look at these benefits.
A. True
B. False
A survey of 1,500 employees found that recognition was the most powerful workplace
motivator.
A. True
B. False

Communication

When employees are required to communicate grievances to their supervisor, communication

is performing a _____ function.
A. Information
B. emotional expression
C. control
D. motivation

When communicating, a sender _____ a message and passes the message through a medium
or channel.
A. feeds back
B. decodes
C. transfers
D. encodes

_____ channels are established by the organization and transmit messages that are related to
the professional activities of members.
A. Professional
B. Informal
C. Formal
D. Member

_____ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs.
A. Upward
31 | P a g e
 B. Lateral
C. Downward
D. Emotional

A(n) _____ network is used by self-managed work teams.

A. wheel
B. chain
C. all-channel
D. spoken

Which is NOT a characteristic of the grapevine?

A. It is not controlled by management.
B. It is perceived by most employees as being more believable.
C. It largely serves the self-interests of the people within it.
D. It is a highly accurate source of information.

Electronic communication includes _____.

A. video conferencing
B. e-mail
C. instant messaging
D. all of the above

_____ is an effective computer-aided form of communication, allowing messages to be sent to

one or thousands of people simultaneously.
A. Videoconferencing
B. Instant messaging
C. E-mail
D. An intranet

_____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the
right information gets to the right people at the right time.
A. E-mail
B. Communication
C. Knowledge management

_____ messages are likely to be complicated and have the potential for misunderstanding.
A. Complicated
B. Routine
C. Non routine
D. Rich

_____ refers to the purposeful manipulation of language so that it will be seen more favorably
by the receiver.
A. Barrier making
B. Deception
C. Filtering
D. None of the above

32 | P a g e
_____ is a barrier to effective communication - people receiving information tend to protect
their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.
A. Information overload
B. Selective perception
C. Filtering
D. Language

A fear of speaking in front of groups or to other people is known as _____.

A. fear of speaking
B. speaking phobia
C. selective perception
D. communication apprehension

According to author Deborah Tannen, men use talk to emphasize _____, while women use it
to create _____.
A. status, connection
B. closeness, emotion
C. intimacy, independence
D. affiliation, power

_____ must include both the transference and understanding of meaning.

A. Writing
B. Reading
C. Speaking
D. Communication

Teasing and verbal harassment are forms of _____ control.

A. formal
B. informal
C. lateral
D. normal

_____ is the process of converting a message to a symbolic form.

A. Decoding
B. Retranslation
C. Encoding
D. Receiving

Communication barriers that distort the clarity of a message are known as _____.
A. noise
B. conference
C. static
D. feedback

A memo is typically transmitted through a(n) _____ communication channel.

A. formal
B. corporate

33 | P a g e
 C. informal
D. institutional

Communication from a supervisor to a subordinate is _____ communication.

A. upward
B. lateral
C. downward
D. cross-functional

A climate survey is an example of _____ communication.

A. downward
B. lateral
C. upward
D. informal

Which of the following is NOT true of oral communication?

A. Oral messages can be conveyed and a response received in a minimal amount of time.
B. Oral messages reduce distortion.
C. Oral communication allows for rapid detection of unclear messages.
D. The grapevine often communicates orally.

Which of the following is NOT true of written communication?

A. Written communication is readily verifiable.
B. With written communication, the message can be stored for an indefinite period.
C. People tend to be less careful in writing than in speaking.
D. Written communication may be physically available for later reference

_____ is the emphasis given to words or phrases.

A. Stress
B. Inflection
C. Tonal duration
D. Intonation

The _____ network relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for the entire group's
communication.
A. all-channel
B. chain
C. wheel
D. spoke

A _____ network is appropriate if accuracy is most important.

A. all-channel
B. chain
C. wheel
D. spoke

34 | P a g e
Which of the following is an advantage of face-to-face communication over e-mail?
A. Personal touch
B. Non-verbal cues
C. Tone
D. All of the above

_____ refers to real time e-mail.

A. Rapid e-mail
B. Close-up
C. Instant messaging
D. Instant Replay

Who are the fastest growing users of Facebook?

A. elementary school students
B. high school students
C. people over 25
D. college students

A _____ is an internet log.

A. blog
B. internal wheel
C. intranet
D. medium

_____ allows employees in an organization to have meetings with people at different locations.
A. A network
B. Videoconferencing
C. A communication channel
D. Networking

A _____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so

the right information gets to the right people at the right time.
A. knowledge dissemination system
B. knowledge management system
C. cornucopia
D. decision control system

_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication
episode.
A. Signal strength
B. Interpersonal bandwidth
C. Information load
D. Channel richness

35 | P a g e
Managers that are _____ have the ability to match appropriate media richness with the
ambiguity involved in the communication.
A. media-savvy
B. techno-savvy
C. media-sensitive
D. filtered

Rob routinely withholds negative information in the weekly report he transmits to his
supervisor. In terms of communication, Rob is engaging in _____.
A. selective perception
B. "muddying the waters"
C. filtering
D. information overload

_____ is the process of receivers projecting their interests and expectations into
communications as they decode them.
A. Selective perception
B. Noise
C. Information overload
D. Feedback

When individuals experience _____, they select out, pass over, or forget information.
A. selective perception
B. information overload
C. emotion
D. filtering

The _____ initiates a message by encoding a thought.

A. channel
B. sender
C. receiver
D. medium

The chief means of conveying messages is _____ communication.

A. nonverbal
B. interpersonal
C. oral
D. written

The _____ communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured committee.

A. wheel
B. all-channel
C. interpersonal
D. circle

Electronic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. internet logs.

36 | P a g e
 B. telephone calls.
C. videoconferencing.

_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication
episode.
A. Feedback
B. Filtering
C. Perception
D. Channel richness

Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is engaging in _____.
A. filtering
B. selective perception
C. jargon
D. feedback

Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication?

A. Filtering
B. Channel richness
C. Selective perception
D. Language

Tannin’s research indicates that men use talk to ___, while women use it to _____.
A. emphasize status; create connection
B. build relationships; get promotions
C. establish blame; emphasize status
D. Create networks; emphasize separateness

In _____ cultures, the words themselves are the primary conveyors of meaning
A. rich
B. low-context
C. symbolic
D. semantic

In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding.

A. True
B. False

The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback.

A. True
B. False

The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command.

A. True
B. False

Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic communications.

A. True

37 | P a g e
 B. False

Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that it will be seen more
favorable by the receiver.
A. True
B. False

Oral apprehensive may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face-to-face.
A. True
B. False

Men are more direct than women in conversation.

A. True
B. False

Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when
communicating with others.
A. True
B. False

Organization culture

When an organization becomes _____, it takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or
any of its members.
A. institutionalized
B. stabilized
C. cultured
D. mature
_____ is a shared system of meaning among employees.
A. Organizational systems
B. Collective sensemaking
C. Organizational culture
D. sensitivity
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organization's culture?
A. Outcome orientation
B. Assertiveness
C. Innovation and risk taking
D. Attention to detail
The term "organizational culture" is considered _____, while "job satisfaction" is _____.
A. evaluative, objective
B. subjective, descriptive
C. descriptive, evaluative
D. objective, subjective
Which of the following is NOT a function of culture?
A. Enhances the stability of the social system
B. Conveys a sense of identity

38 | P a g e
 C. Acceptance of diversity
D. Generation of commitment
Individual-organizational fit refers to _____.
A. an employee's pre-socialization
B. whether an employee has an appropriate educational background
C. the technical proficiency of employees
D. whether the applicant or employee's attitudes and behavior are compatible with the
culture.
_____ is known for its democratic culture.
A. W. R. Gore
B. K-mart
C. BFI
D. Wal-mart
The process of "on boarding" is a type of ____ at Limited Brands.
A. training
B. encounter
C. socialization
D. metamorphosis
The _____ stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes,
and expectations.
A. selection
B. prearrival
C. metamorphosis
D. encounter
Which of the following is NOT associated with organizations with high ethical standards?
A. high in risk tolerance
B. high in innovation
C. focus on means
D. high aggressiveness
Employees will view the behavior of _____ as a benchmark for defining appropriate behavior.
A. their immediate supervisor
B. government officials
C. top management
D. new employees
A _____ is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more
than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.
A. positive organizational culture
B. centralized organizational culture
C. bureaucracy
D. matrix organization
Institutionalization is the process through which _____.
A. individuals become a part of an organization
B. an organization takes on a life of its own

39 | P a g e
 C. an individual is offered a life-time position
D. an organization employs a critical mass of people
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizational culture?
A. Attention to detail
B. Innovation
C. Formalization
D. Team orientation
A strong culture builds all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A. cohesiveness
B. loyalty
C. quality
D. organizational commitment
Culture is most likely to be a liability when _____.
A. it increases consistency of behavior
B. the environment is dynamic
C. management is incompetent
D. it reduces ambiguity
Which of the following is NOT a way that culture is created?
A. Founders hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do.
B. Founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and feeling.
C. Founders poll early employees to determine the appropriate cultural values.
D. The founders' own behaviour acts as a role model that encourages employees to
identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs.
All of the following serve to sustain a culture EXCEPT _____.
A. selection
B. formalization
C. socialization
D. top management
_____ is the process that adapts employees to the organization's culture.
A. Training
B. Mentoring
C. Socialization
D. Communicating
Which of the following is NOT a common form by which culture is transmitted to employees?
A. Stories
B. Selection
C. Rituals
D. Language
Which of the following is NOT identified that managers can create a more ethical culture?
A. Visibly reward ethical acts.
B. Set aggressive performance goals.
C. Communicate ethical expectations.
D. Provide protective mechanisms.

40 | P a g e
The origin of culture as an independent variable affecting an employee's attitudes and behavior
can be traced back more than 50 years to the notion of _____.
A. bureaucracy
B. organizational structure
C. institutionalization
D. uniformity
_____ refers to the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of
outcomes on employees.
A. Team orientation
B. Attention to detail
C. Outcome orientation
D. People orientation
_____ is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the
techniques and processes used to achieve those outcomes.
A. Attention to detail
B. Innovation and risk taking
C. Outcome orientation
D. Stability
Bureaucratic organizations tend to maintain the status quo and have cultures that emphasize
_____.
A. stability
B. mediocrity
C. outcome orientation
D. aggressiveness
A _____ culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization's
members.
A. weak
B. dominant
C. core
_____ tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or
experiences that members face.
A. Groups
B. Teams
C. Weak cultures
D. Subcultures
Microsoft's culture values _____ and risk taking.
A. attention to detail
B. team orientation
C. people orientation
D. aggressiveness
In a _____, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared.
A. strong culture
B. transitional culture
C. weak culture
D. intense culture

41 | P a g e
A strong culture can substitute for _____, which also creates predictability, orderliness, and
consistency.
A. specialization
B. formalization
C. centralization
D. authority
In its role as a _____ mechanism, culture creates distinctions between one organization and
others.
A. control
B. stabilization
C. boundary-defining
D. identification
When is culture a liability?
A. When the environment is stable
B. When there is little competition
C. When the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the
organization's effectiveness
D. When employees come to the organization with similar cultural backgrounds
How is culture created?
A. The founders indoctrinate new employees with their values and vision.
B. The founders hire and retain only employees who think and feel the same way that they
do.
C. The founders act as role models of acceptable behaviour and values.
D. All of the above.
At _____, there no bosses, job titles, or chains of command.
A. IBM
B. BFI
C. Delta
D. W. R. Gore

_____ is a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis.

A. Socialization
B. Selection
C. Contrition
D. Customization
During the _____ stage, the newly hired employee confronts the possible dichotomy between
her expectations and reality.
A. prearrival
B. encounter
C. metamorphosis
D. customization
Nike employees recount the story of how co-founder Bill Bowerman went to his workshop and
poured rubber into his wife's waffle iron to create a better running shoe. This story highlights
Nike's culture of _____.
A. socialization

42 | P a g e
 B. innovation
C. diversity
D. aggressiveness
Which of the following is NOT likely to shape an ethical culture?
A. High risk tolerance
B. High aggressiveness
C. Focuses on means as well as outcomes
D. Support for innovation
Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating a(n) _____.
A. employee handbook
B. organizational code of ethics
C. performance standard
D. quota system
To create an ethical organizational culture, performance appraisals should evaluate the ____ as
well as the extent to which goals are reached.
A. importance
B. economy
C. environment
D. means
Which of the following is NOT an example of a formal protective mechanism?
A. ethical counsellors
B. ethical officers
C. ombudsmen
D. auditors
A _____ organizational culture emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than
it punishes, and emphasizes vitality and growth.
A. positive
B. centralized
C. formalized
When an organization has become institutionalized, its original goals become viewed as the
prime directive.
A. True
B. False
Strong cultures are made up of values that are intensely held and widely shared.
A. True
B. False
The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on
people within the organization is termed outcome orientation.
A. True
B. False
Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a dynamic environment.
A. True
B. False

43 | P a g e
The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the organization's culture since
they are so far removed from the employees.
A. True
B. False
Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture: selection practices,
promotion policies, and socialization methods.
A. True
B. False
Language can serve to unite members of a given culture as new employees learn the acronyms
and jargon specific to the organization.
A. True
B. False
A strong organizational culture will exert more influence on employees then a weak one.
A. True
B. False
A positive organizational culture is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee
strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.
A. True
B. False

44 | P a g e