TBChap006 Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs

Chapter 06 Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs Answer Key
True / False Questions
1. The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.
FALSE
The process of selecting employees varies considerably from organization to organization and
from job to job.
AACSB: Analytical Thinking

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-01 Identify the elements of the selection process.
Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy
Topic: Selection Process
2. Automated systems always ensure that all highly qualified candidates are included in the
selection process.
FALSE
Critics point out that these automated systems may arbitrarily reject highly qualified people
who submit a creatively worded résumé rather than simply mimicking the wording of the job
posting.

Blooms: Remember
6-1
Copyright © 2016 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of
McGraw-Hill Education.
3. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.
TRUE
The reliability of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random
error. A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-02 Define ways to measure the success of a selection method.
4. Reliability answers the important question if one is measuring something that matters.
FALSE
Reliability answers one important question—whether you are measuring something

accurately—but ignores another question that is as important: Are you measuring something
that matters?

Blooms: Remember
6-2
5. A predictive criterion-related validation strategy establishes consistency between the test items
or problems and the kinds of situations that occur on the job.
FALSE
Predictive validation uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between
the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set period of
time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired.

Blooms: Understand
Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium
6. Predictive validation is less time consuming and the easiest to administer.
FALSE
Predictive validation is more time consuming and difficult, but it is the best measure of validity.

Blooms: Remember
6-3
7. Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or
leadership ability.
FALSE
The usual basis for deciding that a test has content validity is through expert judgment. Because
establishing validity is based on the experts' subjective judgments, content validity is most
suitable for measuring behavior that is concrete and observable.

Blooms: Remember
8. Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said
to have utility.
TRUE
Selection methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to
have utility.

Blooms: Remember
6-4
9. Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather
on application forms and in interviews.
TRUE
Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather
on application forms and in interviews.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-03 Summarize the government's requirements for employee selection.
10. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), when an employer makes hiring decisions, it
can use employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
FALSE
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), employers may not, in making hiring decisions,
use employment physical exams or other tests that could reveal a psychological or physical
disability.

Blooms: Remember
6-5
11. The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before
downloading his or her résumé from an online job site.
FALSE
The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires employers to obtain a candidate's consent before using a
third party to check the candidate's credit history or references.

Blooms: Remember
12. An application form can request information regarding an applicant's marital status and race.
FALSE
An application form should not request information that could violate equal employment
opportunity standards. For example, questions about an applicant's race, marital status, or
number of children would be inappropriate.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-04 Compare the common methods used for selecting human resources.
Topic: Job Applications and Résumés
6-6
13. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
elements of a job description.
TRUE
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the

Blooms: Remember
14. Most organizations check references as soon as they receive a candidate's application form.
FALSE
Usually an organization checks references only after it has determined that an applicant is a
finalist for a job.

Blooms: Remember
6-7
15. Aptitude tests assess a person's existing knowledge and skills.
FALSE
Aptitude tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-05 Describe major types of employment tests.
Topic: Employment Tests and Work Samples
16. Achievement tests are only used to measure how well a person can acquire skills and abilities.
FALSE
Achievement tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills.

Blooms: Remember
6-8
17. Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial
groups.
TRUE
Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial
groups. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming.

Blooms: Remember
18. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of sex norming as a selection tool.
FALSE
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 forbids the use of race or sex norming.

Blooms: Remember
6-9
19. The results of a personality test are the most reliable.
FALSE
Compared with intelligence tests, people are better at faking their answers to a personality test
to score higher on desirable traits. For example, people tend to score higher on
conscientiousness when filling out job-related personality tests than when participating in
research projects.

Blooms: Remember
20. The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most
organizations.
FALSE
In 1988, the passage of the Polygraph Act banned the use of polygraphs for screening job
candidates.

Blooms: Remember
6-10
21. In a nondirective interview, the interviewer always asks questions from an established set of
questions.
FALSE
In a nondirective interview, an interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. A

candidate's reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-06 Discuss how to conduct effective interviews.
Topic: Interviews
22. In a behavior description interview, a candidate is asked by the interviewer how he or she
handled a type of situation in the past.
TRUE
A behavior description interview (BDI) is a situational interview in which an interviewer asks a

candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past. Questions about
candidates' actual experiences tend to have the highest validity.

Blooms: Remember
Topic: Interviews
6-11
23. Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.
FALSE
Despite certain benefits, interviewing is not necessarily the most accurate basis for making a
selection decision. Research has shown that interviews can be unreliable, low in validity, and
biased against a number of different groups.

Blooms: Remember
Topic: Interviews
24. Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.
FALSE
Interviews are costly. They require that at least one person devote time to interviewing each
candidate, and the applicants typically have to be brought to one geographic location.

Blooms: Remember
Topic: Interviews
6-12
25. The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of increasing the number of candidates at
each stage of the selection process.
FALSE
The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of arriving at a selection decision by

eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process.

Blooms: Remember
Learning Objective: 06-07 Explain how employers carry out the process of making a selection decision.
Topic: Selection Decisions
26. In an organization, a supervisor usually makes the final employee selection decision.
TRUE
Usually a supervisor makes the final decision, often alone. This person may couple knowledge
of the job with a judgment about who will fit in best with others in the department.

Blooms: Remember
Multiple Choice Questions
6-13
27. Which of the following enables organizations to make decisions about who will or will not be
allowed to join the organization?
A. Predictive validation
B. Job analysis
C. Concurrent validation
D. Trend analysis
E. Personnel selection
Through personnel selection, organizations make decisions about who will or will not be
allowed to join the organization.

Blooms: Remember
6-14
28. In most organizations, the first step in the personnel selection process is:
A. verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.
B. negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits.
C. screening the applications to see who meet the basic requirements for the job.
D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.
E. inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.
from job to job. In most organizations, however, first, a human resource professional reviews
the applications received to see which meet the basic requirements of the job.

Blooms: Understand
6-15
29. Along with 50 other candidates, Rita applied for the position of analyst at Mechalium Inc.
Because Rita's profile stood out from other candidates' profiles, she was called for an interview
in which she performed well. In the context of the steps involved in the selection process for
recruitment, which of the following would most likely be the next step taken by the recruiter?
A. Reviewing Rita's work samples
B. Negotiating salary and benefits with Rita
C. Verifying Rita's qualifications through background checks
D. Sending Rita a job offer letter
E. Getting Rita to sign the job offer
from job to job. In this case, the recruiter would verify Rita's qualifications by employing
background and reference checks after the interview.
AACSB: Knowledge Application

Blooms: Apply
Level of Difficulty: 3 Hard
6-16
30. Gary, the new human resource manager at Alchemy Corp., proposes using automated systems
for screening résumés of applicants. Gary claims that automated systems are better than
humans at picking the right profiles. Which of the following statements weakens Gary's claim?
A. Automated systems arbitrarily reject highly qualified people who submit a creatively worded
résumé.
B. Automated systems reduce the pace of the selection process by a large margin.
C. Automated systems prevent candidates from knowing the status of their applications.
D. Automated systems do not help in matching résumés to the keywords in job requirements.
E. Automated systems refrain from replying to the candidates when their profiles are rejected.
from job to job. Critics point out that automated systems may arbitrarily reject highly qualified
people who submit a creatively worded résumé rather than simply mimicking the wording of a
company's job posting.

Blooms: Apply
6-17
31. The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random
error.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. verifiability
The reliability of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random
error. A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.

Blooms: Remember
6-18
32. Numex, an equities firm, requires its employees to be highly analytical. The company's HR
department develops a series of tests to be used in the preliminary rounds of interviews to
gauge the candidates' analytical skills. Before using it in the selection process, the HR
department got some of the best analysts in the firm to take the test on different days of the
week. Surprisingly, each of their scores was highly inconsistent on different days. After an
evaluation, the test was found to be unreliable. Which of the following assumptions would lead
to such a conclusion?
A. The analysts were randomly chosen.
B. The intelligence quotient levels of the different analysts are on par with each other.
C. The analysts have similar amounts of experience.
D. The on-job performance levels of the analysts decreased over the week.
E. The skills of the analysts remain constant over a week.
In this scenario, it can be concluded that the test is not reliable because the analysts' skills
remain constant. A reliable measurement should generate consistent results.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Blooms: Analyze
6-19
33. A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates _____.
A. a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets
B. that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set
C. that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down
D. a positive correlation between the two sets
E. an indefinite relationship between the two sets
Correlation coefficients measure the degree to which two sets of numbers are related. At one
extreme, a correlation coefficient of 1.0 means a perfect positive relationship—as one set of
numbers goes up, so does the other. At the other extreme, a correlation of -1.0 means a perfect
negative correlation—when one set of numbers goes up, the other goes down.

Blooms: Understand
6-20
34. Juan takes a test in which the questions are of varying levels of difficulty. As the questions
become harder, his scores go down. In this context, which of the following accurately shows the
correlation factor between the difficulty levels of the questions and Juan's scores?
A. 0.5
B. 0.98
C. 0
D. -0.92
E. -0.24
-0.92 would be the most accurate depiction of the correlation between the difficulty levels of
the questions and Juan's test results. A correlation of -1.0 means a perfect negative
correlation—when one set of numbers goes up, the other goes down.

Blooms: Analyze
6-21
35. Amelia takes online practice tests as part of her preparation for a competitive examination. If
the tests are known to be highly reliable, which of the following would most accurately be the
correlation coefficient of her test results over a seven-day period?
A. 0.5
B. 0.43
C. 0
D. 0.99
E. 0.72
Since the test is highly reliable, the correlation coefficient would be 0.99. A reliable test would
be one for which scores by the same person or people with similar attributes have a correlation
close to 1.0.

Blooms: Analyze
6-22
36. Nathaniel believes that assessing the reliability of a selection method is the only requirement for
predicting the success of the selection method. Which of the following statements weakens his
argument?
A. Reliability cannot clarify if something that matters is being measured.
B. Reliability cannot answer whether something is measured accurately.
C. Reliability is only suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D. Reliability cannot be measured for generalizable selection methods.
E. Reliability is only useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
Reliability answers one important question—whether something is measured accurately—but

ignores another question that is as important: Is something that matters being measured?

Blooms: Analyze
6-23
37. The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to
actual job performance.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. generalizability
D. utility
E. dependability
For a selection measure, validity describes the extent to which performance on the measure
(such as a test score) is related to what the measure is designed to assess (such as job
performance).

Blooms: Remember
6-24
38. The HR department at Buckworth Consulting recently developed and employed a certain test in
the selection process for managers. After observing a certain trend in the organization, the HR
department concluded that the test being used was not a valid selection criterion. Which of the
following most likely led to that observation?
A. Managers who were recruited without the tests performed well when promoted to other
roles.
B. Managers who got low scores on the tests performed poorly when promoted to other roles.
C. Managers who fared well in the tests performed well in their roles.
D. Managers who performed well on the tests performed poorly in their roles.
E. Managers who were recruited without the tests performed poorly in their roles.
One way to determine whether a measure is valid is to compare many people's scores on that
measure with their job performance. If the managers who performed well in the tests do not
demonstrate the same level of performance in their respective job roles, it undermines the
validity of the test.

Blooms: Analyze
6-25
39. Which of the following is true of the validity of selection criteria?
A. Validity cannot be explained using correlation coefficients.
B. Validity identifies the extent of random error in a selection procedure.
C. Validity assures the accuracy of selection criteria.
D. Validity cannot measure the relevance of selection criteria.
E. Validity ensures the fairness of employment practices during selection procedures.
Validity ensures the fairness of employment practices during the selection procedure. Validity
shows that their selection process is indeed valid.

Blooms: Understand
40. Which of the following measures of validity is based on showing a substantial correlation
between test scores and job performance scores?
A. Criterion-related validity
B. Diagnostic validity
C. Content validity
D. Convergent validity
E. Construct validity
Criterion-related validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation

between test scores and job performance scores.
6-26
Blooms: Remember
41. Tiara Inc., an international clothing brand, recruited 15 people as brand managers. They all took
a test as part of the recruitment process. Three months after the recruitment, their test scores
were analyzed along with their performance on the job to find a substantial correlation
between the two factors. Which of the following methods of research is exemplified in this
scenario?
A. Content validation
B. Predictive validation
C. Concurrent validation
D. Construct validation
E. Diagnostic validation
In this case, Tiara Inc., is employing the predictive validation method. This method uses the test
scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance.

Blooms: Apply
6-27
42. Identify the correct statement regarding predictive validation.
A. It is the least effective method of measuring validity.
B. It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and
future performance.
C. It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their
scores to existing measures of their current job performance.
D. It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.
E. Its scores are influenced by applicants' job experiences.
Predictive validation involves using the test scores of all applicants and looking for a
relationship between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests,
waits a set period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were
hired.

Blooms: Understand
6-28
43. To test the validity of a selection test for advanced widget designers, Techspark Inc. administers
the test to its current widget designers. The test results are then compared with the employees'
latest performance appraisal scores. In this instance, what type of validation is being used by
Techspark?
A. Predictive validation
B. Concurrent validation
C. Content validation
D. Construct validation
E. Diagnostic validation
Concurrent validation research administers a test to people who currently hold a job and then
compares their scores to existing measures of job performance. If the people who score highest
on the test also do better on the job, the test is assumed to be valid.

Blooms: Apply
6-29
44. Grace is the HR manager of Trelsoft Inc., a software company located in Boston. She wants to
establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive criterion-
related validation strategy. According to this validation, Grace must administer the test to _____.
A. at least half the present computer technicians in Trelsoft
B. people doing similar jobs in other companies
C. people applying for computer technician jobs in Trelsoft
D. only those computer technicians in Trelsoft who are performing at acceptable levels
E. a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at Trelsoft
Predictive validation research uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship
between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set
period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired.

Blooms: Apply
6-30
45. Identify an accurate difference between predictive validation and concurrent validation.
A. Predictive validation correlates job performance and job roles; concurrent validation does
not.
B. Predictive validation correlates future job performance and applicant test scores; concurrent
validation does not.
C. Concurrent validation is very time-consuming; predictive validation is not.
D. Concurrent validation is difficult to employ; predictive validation is not.
E. Concurrent validation is utilized on new recruits; predictive validation is not.
Predictive validation correlates the test scores and the future job performance of applicants.
Concurrent validation correlates the job performance of existing employees to their test scores.

Blooms: Understand
6-31
46. The consistency between test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that
occur in a job is known as _____.
A. predictive validity
B. content validity
C. concurrent validity
D. diagnostic validity
E. construct validity
The consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems
that occur on a job is known as content validity. A test that is "content valid" exposes a job
applicant to situations that are likely to occur on a job.

Blooms: Remember
6-32
47. Buildtron Inc., a construction firm, is in need of a construction superintendent, whose primary
responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several
subcontractors. Buildtron administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant
has to enter a shed that has 25 construction errors and has to record as many of these errors as
can be detected. What type of validity is being established in this case?
A. Concurrent validity
B. Construct validity
C. Content validity
D. Representative validity
E. Predictive validity
Content validity is the consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of
situations or problems that occur on the job. A test that is "content valid" exposes the job
applicant to situations or problems that occur on the job. It tests whether the applicant has the
knowledge, skills, or ability to handle such situations.

Blooms: Apply
6-33
48. Which of the following is true about content validity?
A. It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.
B. It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.
C. It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D. A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.
E. It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
The usual basis for deciding that a test has content validity is through expert judgment. Experts
can rate the test items according to whether they mirror essential functions of the job.

Blooms: Understand
6-34
49. For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would
best be established by _____ validation.
A. criterion-related
B. content
C. concurrent
D. construct
E. predictive
For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability, establishment
of validity may have to rely on construct validity. This involves establishing that tests really do
measure intelligence, leadership ability, or other such constructs, as well as showing that
mastery of this construct is associated with successful performance of the job.

Blooms: Remember
6-35
50. An international car manufacturing company wants to hire new employees for its new assembly
unit. As part of the selection process, the applicants are required to assemble a mini model of
one of the company's products. They are judged on their speed, ability to follow a set of
instructions, and coordination skills. What type of validity is being established in this scenario?
A. Content validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Diagnostic validity
D. Concurrent validity
E. Construct validity
Construct validity is being established in this case. This involves establishing that tests really do
measure intelligence, leadership ability, or other such "constructs," as well as showing that
mastery of this construct is associated with successful performance of a job.

Blooms: Apply
6-36
51. A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which the selection method was
developed is known as a(n) _____ method.
A. practical
B. generalizable
C. reliable
D. invalid
E. concurrent
A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which a selection method was
developed is known as generalizable. A generalizable method applies not only to the

conditions in which the method was originally developed—job, organization, people, time
period, and so on. It should also be valid in other contexts.

Blooms: Remember
6-37
52. David Carr is the HR manager of Witherspoon Inc., a publishing company. He wants to know if
a certain test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his
organization. This scenario suggests that he wants to know if this test is a(n) _____ method of
personnel selection.
A. substitutable
B. evaluative
C. practical
D. generalizable
E. nondirective
A generalizable method applies not only to the conditions in which the method was originally
developed—job, organization, people, time period, and so on. It also applies to other
organizations, jobs, applicants, and so on. In other words, a generalizable method is a selection
method that was valid in one context and is also valid in other contexts.

Blooms: Apply
6-38
53. Which of the following exemplifies a generalizable test?
A. Intratel Inc. uses the same test for selecting candidates for different job profiles in two
different countries.
B. Utopia Corp. uses a test that has a probability of zero random error to recruit its employees.
C. Sellatra Corp. uses a test that provides greater economic value than its cost for recruitment.
D. ZingUp Inc. uses a test that is relevant to the specific job roles for which it recruits
employees.
E. Nyx Corp. uses a test that simulates specific job conditions that an employee will experience
while in that position.
In this case, Intratel Inc. uses a generalizable test. A generalizable method applies not only to
the conditions in which the method was originally developed—job, organization, people, time
period, and so on.

Blooms: Apply
6-39
54. The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its _____.
A. practicality
B. utility
C. validity
D. accountability
E. reliability
The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its utility.
In the context of practical value of selection methods, not only should selection methods such
as tests and interview responses accurately predict how well individuals will perform, but they
should also produce information that actually benefits an organization.

Blooms: Remember
6-40
55. Which of the following exemplifies a high utility selection procedure?
A. Bette's, a suburban diner, spends a lot of time and money recruiting a server.
B. A local gas station has a recruitment procedure that spans four months for the position of a
cashier.
C. Tywell Capital, an international investment firm, spends close to a million dollars to hire a
renowned economist as its new CEO.
D. Shinecare, a local car wash, employs a three-month-long selection procedure for hiring one
of its operators.
E. Haleview High School conducts several rounds of interviews to recruiting a maintenance
worker.
In this case, Tywell Capital has a high utility selection procedure because methods that provide
economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have utility.

Blooms: Apply
6-41
56. Which of the following laws requires employers to make "reasonable accommodation" to
incapacitated individuals?
A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B. The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1988
C. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991 requires employers to make reasonable
accommodation to disabled individuals. Under the ADA, pre-employment questions may not
investigate disabilities but must focus on job performance.

Blooms: Remember
6-42
57. Which of the following statements is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991?
A. Employers can ask pre-employment questions to investigate disabilities.
B. Interviewers are prohibited from asking a candidate if he or she can meet the attendance
requirements for a job.
C. Interviewers are permitted to ask candidates the number of sick leaves he or she took at his
or her previous job.
D. Employers are permitted to use employment physical exams that could reveal a
psychological or physical disability for making hiring decisions.
E. Employers are required to make reasonable accommodation to disabled individuals.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991 requires employers to make "reasonable
accommodation" to disabled individuals and restricts many kinds of questions during the
selection process.

Blooms: Understand
6-43
58. Gromart, an international retailer, opens a store in a town predominantly populated by a
particular racial group. While recruiting employees for the store, it uses a test that favors a
particular racial group in the selection process. When questioned about the selection
procedure, the management reasons that the customers are more comfortable with employees
of their own race. In the context of the legal standards of selection, which of the following is an
accurate statement?
A. Gromart's actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 or
the equal employment opportunity law at all.
B. Though Gromart's selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991, it's justifiable under
the equal employment opportunity law.
C. Gromart's selection process is justifiable because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act
of 1967 requires employers to make reasonable accommodation according to the

demographics of a locality.
D. Gromart's actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991, but
it violates the equal employment opportunity law.
E. Gromart's actions during the selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because
customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices.
Gromart's actions during the selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because
customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices. The Civil Rights Act
of 1991 and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 place requirements on the
choice of selection methods.

Blooms: Analyze
6-44
59. Which of the following laws restricts an organization from asking indirect questions that gather
information about a person's protected status?
B. The employee benefit laws
C. The equal employment opportunity laws
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act
E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
The equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may
gather on application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that
gather information about a person's protected status, even indirectly.

Blooms: Remember
6-45
60. Which of the following is a permissible question to ask in job applications and interviews?
A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B. Are you a citizen of the United States?
C. What religious holidays do you observe?
D. Where were you born?
E. Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this job position?
on application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that gather
information about a person's protected status, even indirectly. Asking if a candidate will need
any reasonable accommodation is permissible.

Blooms: Understand
6-46
61. Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews?
A. What is your full name?
B. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
C. What was your major in college?
D. Do you have any disabilities?
E. Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?
on application forms and in interviews. The organization may not ask questions that gather
information about a person's protected status, even indirectly. Questioning a candidate's ability
to meet the requirements of a work schedule is permissible.

Blooms: Understand
6-47
62. Marianna Baxter attends an interview for the position of a paralegal at one of the biggest law
firms in the country. During the interview, she is asked a particular question which she refuses
to answer. Frustrated by her behavior, the interviewer repeats the question. She refuses to
answer it again and says that it violates her rights under equal employment opportunity law.
Which of the following is most likely the question she was asked?
A. What is your complete name?
B. What is your ancestry?
C. Can you meet the requirements of strict work schedules?
D. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
E. What organizations or groups do you belong to that you consider relevant to being able to
perform this job?
An organization may not ask questions that gather information about a person's protected
status, even indirectly. Questioning a candidate's ability to meet the requirements of a work
schedule is permissible. Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an
organization may gather on application forms and in interviews. Therefore, in this case,
questioning Marianna about her ancestry will violate the law of equal employment opportunity.

Blooms: Apply
6-48
63. Which of the following is a requirement under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of
1986?
A. Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the
United States.
B. Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service
and retain the documents for at least ten years.
C. Employers must pay lower wages to immigrant workers.
D. Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E. Employers must ask a potential employee's religion.
Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers must verify and maintain
records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States by having applicants fill
out the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services' Form I-9 and present documents showing
their identity and eligibility to work.

Blooms: Understand
6-49
64. Rigatel Corp., an investment bank, was in the final stage of its selection process for a business
analyst. Rob was one of the desired candidates for the position. As part of background checks,
the bank wanted to look at his credit history. Which of the following requires them to obtain
Rob's consent before using a third party to check his credit history?
B. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. The Fair Labor Standards Act
D. The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
E. The Consumer Credit Protection Act
The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires employers to obtain a candidate's consent before using a
third party to check the candidate's credit history or references. If the employer then decides to
take an adverse action (such as not hiring) based on the report, the employer must give the
applicant a copy of the report and summary of the applicant's rights before taking the action.

Blooms: Apply
6-50
65. Identify the detail that needs to be asked in an application form to gather information about
suitable candidates.
A. Marital status
B. History of disabilities
C. Number of children
D. Educational background
E. Applicant's race
The application form should not request information that could violate equal employment
opportunity standards. For example, questions about an applicant's race, marital status, or
number of children would be inappropriate. Employment applications include areas for
applicants to provide several types of information. One of them is educational background. This
includes high school, college, and universities attended and degree(s) awarded.

Blooms: Remember
6-51
66. Irene is filling out an application form for the position of an elementary school teacher. While
she is filling it out, she comes across a section that asks for information about her high school,
college, courses, and grades. Which of the following sections of the application form is being
referred to here?
A. Mailing address
B. Work experience
C. Racial details
D. Educational background
E. Declaration
Employment applications include areas for applicants to provide several types of information.
One of them is educational background. This includes high school, college, and universities
attended and degree(s) awarded.

Blooms: Apply
6-52
67. Which of the following is an accurate feature of a job application form?
A. It is an expensive way of gathering information from candidates.
B. It ensures that certain standard categories of information are obtained.
C. It prevents human resource personnel from ranking candidates.
D. It has a customized format for every candidate.
E. It is usually biased in favor of certain candidates.
An accurate feature of an application form is that it ensures that the organization has certain
standard categories of information, such as mailing address and employment history, from each
candidate. Asking each applicant to fill out an employment application is a low-cost way to
gather basic data from many applicants.

Blooms: Understand
6-53
68. What is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of information about job applicants?
A. It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.
B. It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C. Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of
the elements of a job description.
D. It is biased in favor of the employer.
E. The content of the résumé is controlled by the applicant.
An obvious drawback of using résumés as a source of information is that applicants control the
content of the information, as well as the way it is presented. This type of information is
therefore biased in favor of the applicant and may not even be accurate. On the positive side,
résumés may enable applicants to highlight accomplishments that might not show up in the
format of an employment application. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the
résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.

Blooms: Understand
6-54
69. Why do organizations typically review applicant résumés?
A. They are used as a substitute for interviews.
B. They are used as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further.
C. They are used to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job.
D. They are used because they can control the content of the information as well as the way it
is presented.
E. They are used because they are generally an unbiased source of information.
Organizations typically use résumés as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate
further.

Blooms: Understand
70. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in:
A. terms of the elements of a job description.
B. comparison with other applicants' qualifications.
C. terms of the incumbent's competencies.
D. terms of the industrial benchmarks.
E. comparison with other employees in an organization.
Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the
6-55
Blooms: Understand
71. While filling out an application for the position of administrative assistant, Rachel was asked to
provide the name and phone number of her previous supervisor. She was also provided the
alternative of presenting a letter from her previous supervisor vouching for her performance on
the job. Which of the following tools used in the initial selection process is illustrated in this
case?
A. Application form
B. Résumé
C. Background checks
D. Aptitude tests
E. References
Application forms often ask that applicants provide the names of several references. Applicants
provide the names and phone numbers of former employers or others who can vouch for their
abilities and past job performance.

Blooms: Apply
6-56
72. Generally, an organization checks references:
A. only if it believes the information provided by an applicant is incorrect.
B. immediately after an applicant submits a résumé.
C. after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist for a job.
D. because it is a legal requirement under equal employment opportunity laws.
E. because it is an unbiased source of information.
Usually the organization checks references after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist
for a job.

Blooms: Understand
6-57
73. If a person who is a reference gives negative information about a job candidate, there is a
chance the candidate will claim _____, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation
by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.
A. defamation
B. misappropriation
C. fraud
D. misrepresentation
E. negligence
If a person who is a reference gives negative information, there is a chance the candidate will
claim defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making
statements that cannot be proved truthful.

Blooms: Remember
6-58
74. If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later
learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the
new employer may sue the former for _____.
A. negligence
B. misrepresentation
C. defamation
D. misappropriation
E. libel
If a person who is a reference for a job applicant gives a glowing statement about a candidate,
and the new employer later learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace
violence, the new employer might sue the former employer for misrepresentation.

Blooms: Remember
6-59
75. Marshall, a 33-year old unemployed software engineer, applied for a job at Bluetel Inc., a
Florida-based software company. In his résumé, he gave his former project manager as a
reference. But he was rejected soon after the HR specialist at Bluetel called his former manager
and learned that Marshall was accused of racial discrimination against another employee.
Sensing this to be the reason for his rejection at Bluetel, Marshall can sue his former manager
on charges of _____.
A. misappropriation
B. fraud
C. misrepresentation
D. defamation
E. negligence
If a person who is a reference for a job candidate gives negative information, there is a chance
the candidate will claim defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation
by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.

Blooms: Apply
6-60
76. Jonas had a great résumé and a glowing recommendation from his previous employer.
Impressed by his qualifications and expertise, Vizion Tech Inc. hired him for the position of
quality analyst. However, he was found guilty of sexual misconduct at Vizion after a couple of
weeks on the job. During the inquiry, Vizion Tech found that Jonas was fired for sexual
misconduct at his previous employer. The management of Vizion Tech could sue Jonas's
previous employer for _____.
A. misrepresentation
B. fraud
C. defamation
D. negligence
E. embezzlement
If the former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and the new employer
later learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the new employer
might sue the former employer for misrepresentation. Therefore, in this case Vizion Tech might
sue Jonas's previous employer for misrepresentation.

Blooms: Apply
6-61
77. How can individuals acting as references for job applicants minimize the risk of being sued for
defamation or misrepresentation?
A. By giving as much information as possible
B. By exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate
C. By only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
D. By giving only broad opinions
E. By excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary
In order to minimize the risks associated with providing information about job candidates, most
organizations have policies that the HR department will handle all requests for references and
that they will only verify employment dates and sometimes the employee's final salary. In
organizations without such a policy, HR professionals should be careful—and train managers to
be careful—to stick to observable, job-related behaviors and to avoid broad opinions that may
be misinterpreted.

Blooms: Understand
6-62
78. In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if employers
_____.
A. contact many references
B. rely exclusively on the list provided by applicants
C. avoid direct contact with references
D. restrict contact with references through e-mails
E. receive positive opinions about the applicants from their references
In general, the results of reference checking will be most valid if the employer contacts many
references (if possible, going beyond the list of names provided by the applicant) and speaks
with them directly by phone, and listens carefully for clues such as tone of voice.

Blooms: Understand
6-63
79. Donna Hernandez has applied for the position of data systems operator in one of the federal
governmental agencies. As part of the selection process, she takes a civil services examination
that measures her existing knowledge and skills. This scenario exemplifies a(n) _____.
A. psychometric test
B. critical thinking test
C. judgment test
D. aptitude test
E. achievement test
Achievement tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills. For example, government
agencies conduct civil service examinations to see whether applicants are qualified to perform
certain jobs. Therefore, in this case, Donna is given an achievement test as part of the selection
process for that position.

Blooms: Apply
6-64
80. Francisco Holt had applied for the position of an emergency direct care worker at the City
Medical Center. In the last round of the selection process, he had to take part in a testing
procedure that simulated an emergency situation. He had to run a half-mile on the treadmill,
followed by a step test, a posture test, a squat test, and a weight-lifting test. His performance
was timed and his heart rate was monitored throughout the tests. Which of the following tests
is exemplified in this case?
A. Cognitive ability test
B. Critical thinking test
C. Psychometric test
D. Physical ability test
E. Achievement test
This is an example of a physical ability test. This evaluates one or more of the following areas of
physical ability muscular tension, muscular power, muscular endurance, cardiovascular

endurance, flexibility, balance, and coordination.

Blooms: Apply
6-65
81. Tests designed to measure such mental skills as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning
ability are referred to as _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. honesty
C. personality inventories
D. cognitive ability
E. physical ability
Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning
ability are referred to as cognitive ability tests.

Blooms: Remember
6-66
82. Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests?
A. They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.
B. They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.
C. They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D. They are free from legal complications.
E. They are especially valid for simple jobs.
Cognitive ability tests—sometimes called "intelligence tests"—are designed to measure such

mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability. The tests are especially
valid for complex jobs and for those requiring adaptability in changing circumstances.

Blooms: Understand
6-67
83. Identify the limitation of cognitive ability tests.
A. Lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs
B. Lack of reliable and commercially available tests
C. Legal issues related to administering the tests
D. Lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability
E. Relatively high cost of the tests
The evidence of validity, coupled with the relatively low cost of these tests, makes cognitive
ability tests appealing, except for one problem: concern about legal issues. These concerns arise
from a historical pattern in which use of the tests has had an adverse impact on African
Americans.

Blooms: Understand
6-68
84. The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows
employers to give preference to underrepresented groups within these similar scores is known
as _____.
A. banding
B. generalizing
C. affirmative action
D. sensitizing
E. race norming
The concept of banding treats a range of scores as being similar. All applicants within a range
of scores, or band, are treated as having the same score. Then within the set of tied scores,
employers give preference to underrepresented groups.

Blooms: Remember
6-69
85. Zoemetra Corp. has been receiving some criticism about the way it evaluates the results of a
test used in the selection process for job candidates. It employs a method wherein scores
between 90 and 100 are graded A, scores between 80 and 90 are graded B, scores between 70
and 80 are graded C, and so on. The criticism has come about because this practice allows
them to give preference to unrepresented groups within a range. Which of the following
accurately describes this method of evaluating tests?
A. Race norming
B. Banding
C. Desensitizing
D. Generalizing
E. Modelling
Zoemetra Corp., in this case, is using the method of banding for evaluating the results of the
test. The concept of banding treats a range of scores as being similar. All applicants within a
range of scores, or band, are treated as having the same score. Then within the set of tied
scores, employers give preference to underrepresented groups.

Blooms: Apply
6-70
86. A typing test for an administrative assistant's job is an example of a(n) _____ test.
A. job performance
B. cognitive ability
C. physical ability
D. personality inventories
E. emotional intelligence
Testing for job performance may involve a simulated work environment, a difficult team project,
or a complex computer programming puzzle. Examples of job performance tests include tests
of keyboarding speed and in-basket tests.

Blooms: Remember
6-71
87. Which of the following statements is true of an assessment center?
A. It is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B. It conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C. It uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D. It is a selection method generally used for unskilled applicants.
E. It has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
Tests for selecting managers may take the form of an assessment center—a wide variety of
specific selection programs that use multiple selection methods to rate applicants or job
incumbents on their management potential.

Blooms: Understand
88. Identify the correct statement regarding job performance tests.
A. They provide fair evaluations for applicants.
B. They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.
C. These tests are highly generalizable.
D. Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E. They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
Job performance tests have the advantage of giving applicants a chance to show what they can
do, which leads them to feel that the evaluation was fair.
6-72
Blooms: Understand
89. In-basket tests are examples of _____ tests.
A. job performance
B. physical ability
C. honesty
D. personality
E. cognitive ability
Job performance testing may involve a simulated work environment, a difficult team project, or
a complex computer programming puzzle. Examples of job performance tests include tests of
keyboarding speed and in-basket tests. An in-basket test measures the ability to juggle a
variety of demands, as in a manager's job.

Blooms: Remember
6-73
90. Which of the following is a "Big Five" personality trait?
A. Physical ability
B. Cognitive ability
C. Aptitude
D. Extroversion
E. Honesty
One way that psychologists think about personality is in terms of the "Big Five" traits:
extroversion, adjustment, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and inquisitiveness.

Blooms: Remember
91. Identify the traits that are found in a conscientious person.
A. Sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative
B. Dependable, organized, persevering, and achievement-oriented
C. Courteous, trusting, good-natured, and tolerant
D. Emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, and content
E. Curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded
Conscientiousness is indicated in a person who is dependable, organized, persevering,
thorough, and achievement-oriented.

6-74
Blooms: Remember
92. Melissa Jetton, a manufacturing supervisor, is popular with her employees and other colleagues.
She is sociable, gregarious, and easy to talk to. However, she is not very organized or
achievement-oriented. In this context, which of the "Big Five" personality traits does she
demonstrate?
A. Conscientiousness
B. Extroversion
C. Aggression
D. Depression
E. Inquisitiveness
Melissa possesses the quality of extroversion. It includes traits such as sociable, gregarious,
talkative, expressive.

Blooms: Apply
6-75
93. Ottercut Tech, a software start-up, is putting together a new team to work on the marketing
strategies for their expansion project. In the context of using the "Big Five" personality traits for
effective team building, which of the following employees would be a good addition to a team
that encourages a strong and harmonious culture and is most likely to give the best results?
A. Jamie is very organized; Stella is very cooperative.
B. Mary is not achievement-oriented; Issac is laid-back.
C. Both John and Adam are domineering.
D. Both Miriam and Ann are aggressive and unforgiving.
E. George is emotionally unstable; Bianca is constantly depressed.
Jamie and Stella exhibit qualities of agreeableness and conscientiousness. Traits such as
agreeableness and conscientiousness have been associated with effective teamwork.
Organizations select team members with similar traits and values in order to promote a strong
culture where people work together harmoniously.

Blooms: Analyze
6-76
94. Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally
involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences
with theft?
A. Polygraph test
B. Paper-and-pencil honesty test
C. Cognitive ability test
D. Personality inventory test
E. In-basket test
Paper-and-pencil honesty (or integrity) tests ask applicants directly about their attitudes toward
theft and their own experiences with theft. These were developed in response to the passage of
the Polygraph Act in 1998 that banned the use of polygraphs for screening job candidates.

Blooms: Remember
6-77
95. Which of the following is NOT a rule for drug testing?
A. Drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants who have applied for
the same job.
B. Drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.
C. Drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety
hazards.
D. Drug testing should not be conducted in an intrusive environment.
E. Drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.
Drug-testing report should be sent to the applicants who have taken the drug test, along with
information about how to appeal the results and be retested if appropriate.

Blooms: Understand
6-78
96. Which of the following is true about medical examinations of job candidates?
A. Medical examinations may not be related to job requirements.
B. Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of a candidate's résumé.
C. Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.
D. Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.
E. Medical examinations are conducted after a candidate has been given a job offer.
To protect candidates' privacy, medical exams must be related to job requirements and may
not be given until the candidate has received a job offer.

Blooms: Understand
6-79
97. A(n) _____ measures the ability to juggle a variety of demands, as in a manager's job where the
candidate is presented with simulated memos and phone messages describing the kinds of
problems that confront a person in the job.
A. paper-and-pencil honesty test
B. in-basket test
C. cognitive ability test
D. exit test
E. work sample test
An in-basket test measures the ability to juggle a variety of demands, as in a manager's job.
The candidate is presented with simulated memos and phone messages describing the kinds of
problems that confront a person in the job. The candidate has to decide how to respond to
these messages and in what order.

Blooms: Remember
6-80
98. Emma, a manager at Synergy Inc., conducted an interview with Sean for a job as regional sales
manager. During the course of the interview she conducted a test to assess the Sean's integrity
by asking him about his attitude toward robbery and his own experiences with robbery, if any.
Which of the following tests was conducted by Emma?
A. Exit test
B. Paper-and-pencil honesty test
C. Cognitive ability test
D. Work sample test
E. In-basket test
Paper-and-pencil honesty (or integrity) tests ask applicants directly about their attitudes toward
theft and their own experiences with theft. These were developed in response to the passage of
the Polygraph Act in 1998 that banned the use of polygraphs for screening job candidates.

Blooms: Apply
6-81
99. A _____ interview allows interviewer's discretion in choosing the questions to be asked and
generally includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career
goals, and work experience.
A. behavioral
B. situational
C. nondirective
D. structured
E. computerized
In a nondirective interview, an interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. A

candidate's reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask. Nondirective interviews
typically include open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career
goals, and work experience.

Blooms: Remember
Topic: Interviews
6-82
100. Alexander was being interviewed for the position of an entry-level financial analyst at a well-
known asset management company. Alexander was asked questions about the current state of
the U.S. stock market, the current net worth of certain financial firms, and concepts such as IPO,
mergers, and leverage from a set of pre-determined questions that the interviewer had
prepared. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A. structured interview
B. in-basket interview
C. work-sample interview
D. exit interview
E. nondirective interview
This is an example of a structured interview, which consists of a predetermined set of questions
for the interviewer to ask. Ideally, the questions are related to job requirements and cover
relevant knowledge, skills, and experiences.

Blooms: Apply
Topic: Interviews
6-83
101. During an interview for medical assistants at the Haleview Medical Center, all the candidates
were asked to talk about a situation in the past when they had to empathize with an
emotionally unstable person and help that person make rational decisions. This was to test if
the candidates would be able to assist a frantic patient and help him or her make informed
decisions while on the job. This is a(n) _____ interview.
A. unstructured
B. nondirective
C. behavior description
D. physical ability
E. exit
This is an example of a behavior description interview is a structured interview in which an
interviewer asks the candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past.
Questions about candidates' actual experiences tend to have the highest validity.

Blooms: Apply
Topic: Interviews
6-84
102. During an interview for a sales position at Lock-Spark Inc., all job candidates are asked about
what they would do to regain business with a client whose products were damaged during a
business transaction with Lock-Spark. This is an example of a(n) _____ interview.
A. behavior description
B. situational
C. computerized
D. exit
E. in-basket
A situational interview is a structured interview in which an interviewer describes a situation

likely to arise on the job and asks a candidate what he or she would do in that situation.

Blooms: Apply
Topic: Interviews
6-85
103. Pluto Inc. is a car manufacturing company that wants to hire a new product manager. Senior
management decides to have the department heads for production, sales, and human
resources interview the candidates on a variety of topics. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A. behavior description interview
B. in-basket interview
C. situational interview
D. exit interview
E. panel interview
This is an example of a panel interview where several members of an organization meet to

interview each candidate. A panel interview gives a candidate a chance to meet more people
and see how people interact in that organization.

Blooms: Apply
Topic: Interviews
6-86
104. Ashton, an HR manager at Reed Inc., only prefers to use nondirective interview techniques.
Nico, the CEO of Reed, wants to convince Ashton to use structured interview techniques
instead. Which of the following arguments must Nico use to convince Ashton to use structured
interview techniques?
A. Nondirective interviews can only assess abstract qualities of a candidate such as intelligence
and leadership.
B. Nondirective interviews are less reliable than structured interviews as they give interviewers
wider latitude.
C. Nondirective interviews are often more expensive than structured interviews.
D. Nondirective interviews rely exclusively on the firsthand job experience of candidates.
E. Nondirective interviews are always more time consuming than structured interviews.
In a nondirective interview, the interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. Because
these interviews give the interviewer wide latitude, their reliability is not great, and some
interviewers ask questions that are not valid or even legal.

Blooms: Analyze
Topic: Interviews
6-87
105. Harley wants to build a startup company with a small number of people working for him. He
decides to do all the hiring himself. Antonio, a friend of Harley's, who is also a lawyer, wants to
warn Harley about the risk of discrimination complaints by applicants who were not hired.
Which of the following arguments must Antonio use to warn Harley?
A. Interviews are narrow and standardized, so they do not allow interviewers to test the
integrity of interviewees with ease.
B. Interviews are subjective, so they have the potential of assessing candidates based on
questions not related to the job.
C. Interviews are objective, so they have the potential of assessing candidates based on
questions not related to the job.
D. Interviews are expensive, so their validity and reliability is always in question.
E. Interviews require polygraph tests, which give the interviewer an opportunity to ask
questions that can violate the privacy rights of the interviewee.
Interviews are subjective, so they place the organization at greater risk of discrimination
complaints by applicants who were not hired, especially if those individuals were asked
questions not entirely related to the job.

Blooms: Analyze
Topic: Interviews
6-88
106. Which of the following best describes the multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?
A. It is a process of selecting employees in which a very high score on one type of assessment
can make up for a low score on another.
B. It is a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each
stage of the selection process.
C. It is a selection process in which several members of an organization form a panel and

interview each candidate.
D. It is a testing program that establishes different norms for hiring members of different racial
groups.
E. It is a selection process that treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates
into groups based on the range into which they fall.
The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some
candidates at each stage of the selection process.

Blooms: Understand
6-89
107. Summerton High School has three open positions for teachers. The school's HR personnel
contact the candidates who meet the school's minimum requirements, and they are interviewed
by subject matter experts. The selected short list of candidates then appear before a panel of
members from the school board for the final interview. Management hires the three best
candidates based on the final interview. Which of the following describes this method of
selection?
A. Compensatory model
B. Multiple-hurdle model
C. Leadership model
D. Behavior description model
E. Nondirective model
This exemplifies the multiple-hurdle model. The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving
at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process.
Each stage of the process is a hurdle, and candidates who overcome a hurdle continue to the
next stage of the process.

Blooms: Apply
6-90
108. Which of the following statements is true of selection decisions?
A. They should be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best.
B. They should only observe confidence in job candidates to assert competence of candidates.
C. They should be based on which candidate best fits a job position.
D. They should be a simple matter of which candidate will take the lowest offer.
E. They should only be based on assessments of candidates' intelligence and leadership

qualities.
Selection decisions should not be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best or which
candidate will take the lowest offer. Also, observing confidence in job candidates does not
necessarily mean they are competent. Rather, the people making the selection should look for
the best fit between candidate and position.

Blooms: Understand
Essay Questions
6-91
109. Describe the steps involved in a selection process.
from job to job. First, a human resource professional reviews the applications received to see
which meet the basic requirements of a job. For candidates who meet the basic requirements,
the organization administers tests and reviews work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.
Those with the best abilities are invited to the organization for one or more interviews. For the
top few candidates, the organization checks references and conducts background checks to
verify that the organization's information is correct. Then supervisors, teams, and other decision
makers select a person to receive a job offer. In some cases, the candidate may negotiate with
the organization regarding salary, benefits, and the like. If the candidate accepts the job, the
organization places him or her in that job.

Blooms: Remember
110. Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.
Reliability is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error. A reliable
measurement therefore generates consistent results.
Validity is the extent to which performance on a measure (such as a test score) is related to
what the measure is designed to assess (such as job performance).
Utility indicates that the selection methods provide economic value greater than the cost of
using them.

Blooms: Remember
6-92
111. Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive criterion-related researches are conducted and
identify at least two potential advantages of predictive validation.
Concurrent criterion-related validation research administers a test to people who currently hold
a job and then compares their scores to existing measures of job performance. If the people
who score highest on the test also do better on the job, the test is assumed to be valid.
Predictive validation research uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship
between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set
period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired.
Potential advantages of predictive validation include: (1) Job applicants are typically more
motivated to perform well on the test than job incumbents; (2) Their performance on the tests
is not influenced by their firsthand experience with the job; and (3) The group studied is more
likely to include people who perform poorly on the test—a necessary ingredient to accurately
validate a test.

Blooms: Remember
6-93
112. Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) impact
personnel selection processes.
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 places requirements on the choice of selection methods. An
employer that uses a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is
obligated to show that there is a business necessity for using that method. It also prohibits
preferential treatment in favor of minority groups. In the case of an organization using a test
that tends to reject members of minority groups, the organization may not simply adjust
minority applicants' scores upward, a practice known as race norming.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires employers to make "reasonable
accommodation" to disabled individuals and restricts many kinds of questions during the
selection process. Under the ADA, pre-employment questions may not investigate disabilities,
but must focus on job performance. Also, the employer may not, in making hiring decisions,
use employment physical exams or other tests that could reveal a psychological or physical
disability.

Blooms: Understand
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113. Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job
candidates. How do organizations cope with this burden?
Providing information as references for job candidates poses some burden on the people or
organizations contacted for the purpose. Part of that burden is the risk of giving information
that is seen as too negative or too positive. If the person who is a reference gives negative
information, there is a chance the candidate will claim defamation, meaning the person
damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful. At
the other extreme, if the person gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and the new
employer later learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the new
employer might sue the former employer for misrepresentation. Because such situations
occasionally arise, people who give references tend to give as little information as possible.
Most organizations have policies that the HR department will handle all requests for references
and that they will only verify employment dates and sometimes the employee's final salary. In
organizations without such a policy, HR professionals should be careful—and train managers to

be careful—to stick to observable, job-related behaviors and to avoid broad opinions that may
be misinterpreted.

Blooms: Understand
6-95
114. Explain the two broad categories of employment tests.
Employment tests fall into two broad categories:
1. Aptitude tests: These assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities. In the
realm of employment testing, the best-known aptitude test is the General Aptitude Test Battery
(GATB), used by the U.S. Employment Service.
2. Achievement tests: These measure a person's existing knowledge and skills. For example,
government agencies conduct civil service examinations to see whether applicants are qualified
to perform certain jobs.

Blooms: Understand
6-96
115. Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process? What are
some of the ways in which organizations can avoid problems associated with drug testing?
Drug tests are controversial for several reasons. Some people are concerned that they invade
individuals' privacy. Others object from a legal perspective. When all applicants or employees
are subject to testing, whether or not they have shown evidence of drug use, the tests might be
an unreasonable search and seizure or a violation of due process. Taking urine and blood
samples involves invasive procedures and accusing someone of drug use is a serious matter.
Employers considering the use of drug tests should ensure that their drug-testing programs
conform to some general rules: • Administer the tests systematically to all applicants for the
same job. • Use drug testing for jobs that involve safety hazards. • Have a report of the results
sent to the applicant, along with information about how to appeal the results and be retested if
appropriate. • Respect applicants' privacy by conducting tests in an environment that is not
intrusive and keeping results confidential.

Blooms: Understand
6-97
116. Describe the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection.
The different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection are:
1. Nondirective interview: The interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. The
candidate's reply to one question may suggest other questions to ask. These interviews typically
include open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and
work experience. Because these interviews give the interviewer wide latitude, their reliability is
not great, and some interviewers ask questions that are not valid or even legal.
2. Structured interview: This interview establishes a set of questions for the interviewer to ask.
Ideally, the questions are related to job requirements and cover relevant knowledge, skills, and
experiences. The interviewer is supposed to avoid asking questions that are not on the list.
Although interviewers may object to being restricted, the results may be more valid and reliable
than with a nondirective interview.
3. Situational interview: This is a structured interview in which the interviewer describes a

situation likely to arise on the job and asks the candidate what he or she would do in that
situation. This type of interview may have high validity in predicting job performance.
4. Behavior description interview (BDI): This is a structured interview in which the interviewer
asks the candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past. Questions
about candidates' actual experiences tend to have the highest validity.

Blooms: Understand
Topic: Interviews
6-98
117. How can organizations avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method?
In order to avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method, human resource staff
should keep the interviews narrow, structured, and standardized. The interview should focus on
accomplishing a few goals, so that at the end of the interview, the organization has ratings on
several observable measures, such as ability to express ideas. The interview should not try to
measure abilities and skills—for example, intelligence—that tests can measure better.
Situational interviews are especially effective for doing this. Organizations can prevent problems
related to subjectivity by training interviewers and using more than one person to conduct
interviews. Training typically includes focusing on the recording of observable facts, rather than
on making subjective judgments, as well as developing interviewers' awareness of their biases.

Using a structured system for taking notes or scoring responses may be helpful for limiting
subjectivity and helping the interviewer remember and justify an evaluation later. Finally, to
address costs of interviewing, many organizations videotape interviews and send the tapes
(rather than the applicants) from department to department.

Blooms: Understand
Topic: Interviews
6-99
118. Discuss the multiple-hurdle model and the compensatory model of arriving at a personnel
selection decision.
The multiple-hurdle model is the process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some
candidates at each stage of the selection process. Each stage of the process is a hurdle, and
candidates who overcome a hurdle continue to the next stage of the process. Another, more
expensive alternative is to take most applicants through all steps of the process and then to
review all the scores to find the most desirable candidates. With this alternative, decision
makers may use a compensatory model, in which a very high score on one type of assessment
can make up for a low score on another.

Blooms: Remember
6-100

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Chapter 06 Selecting Employees and Placing Them in Jobs Answer Key

True / False Questions

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

3. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.

error. A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

Reliability answers one important question—whether you are measuring something

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

6. Predictive validation is less time consuming and the easiest to administer.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

suitable for measuring behavior that is concrete and observable.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

finalist for a job.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

Achievement tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

In a nondirective interview, an interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions. A

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

handled a type of situation in the past.

A behavior description interview (BDI) is a situational interview in which an interviewer asks a

candidates' actual experiences tend to have the highest validity.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

24. Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of arriving at a selection decision by

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

Multiple Choice Questions

allowed to join the organization?

allowed to join the organization.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

A. verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.

B. negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

A. Reviewing Rita's work samples

B. Negotiating salary and benefits with Rita

C. Verifying Rita's qualifications through background checks

D. Sending Rita a job offer letter

E. Getting Rita to sign the job offer

background and reference checks after the interview.

AACSB: Knowledge Application

company's job posting.

AACSB: Knowledge Application

error. A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results.

AACSB: Analytical Thinking

A. The analysts were randomly chosen.

C. The analysts have similar amounts of experience.

E. The skills of the analysts remain constant over a week.

AACSB: Reflective Thinking