1.

The principle of the stenopaeic slit is based on:-

a. The circle of least confusion
b. The conoid of strum
c. Horizontal vs. vertical astigmatism
d. The pinhole phenomenon
e. Knapp’s rule
2. The operation of which instrument is based on one of the Purkinje-Sanson images?
a. indirect ophthalmoscope
b. retinoscope
c. slit lamp
d. keratometer
e. cross cylinder
3. An indirect ophthalmoscope will project a/an:-
a. virtual image
b. real image
c. upright image
d. flat image
e. condensed image
4. A lensometer measures the:-
a. vertex power of a lens
b. true power of a lens
c. equivalent power of a lens
d. front power of a lens
e. all of these
5. Base curves of lenses can be checked with a:-
a. lensometer
b. neutralizing lens
c. retinoscope
d. Geneva lens measure
e. lens caliper
6. The best way to check the optical centers of eyeglasses is to:-
a. use a clear plastic ruler to find the geometric center of the lens
b. use a keratometer
c. calculate them from the refraction
d. use a lensometer with ink marker
e. use a flashlight
7. Which of the following k readings are “with the rule”?
a. 43.0/44.0 at 90
b. 44.0/44.0 at 18
c. 44.0/46.0 at 18
d. 42.0/46.0 at 12
e. none of these
8. Which of the following properties of a laser is least clinically important in ophthalmic
applications?
a. energy level
 b. power level
c. pulse duration
d. polarity
e. focal spot size
9. The power of an intraocular lens (IOL) should be increased
a. as the power of the cornea increases and the axial length increases
b. as the power of the cornea decreases and the axial length increases
c. as the power of the cornea increases and the axial length decreases
d. as the power of the cornea decreases and the axial length decreases
10. A patient comes for refractive surgery with keratometry readings of 43.0 d/42.0 d and a
manifest refraction of -9.5 d. if LASIK were performed, you would expect the postoperative
average keratometry reading to be
a. 34.9 d
b. 36.3 d
c. 37.3 d
d. 34.0 d
11. The principle of the astronomical telescope is used for magnification in which of the following
ophthalmic instruments?
a. indirect ophthalmoscope
b. direct ophthalmoscope
c. retinal fundus camera
d. a and c
12. When a binocular indirect ophthalmoscope is used on a patient with small pupils, binocular
visualization can be improved by
a. moving the ophthalmoscope's mirror closer to the observer
b. narrowing the observer's effective interpupillary distance
c. moving the ophthalmoscope's eyepieces farther apart
d. increasing the distance between the observer's head and the patient
e. all of the above
13. Which of the following is not true of how keratometer works?
a. They measure the radius of curvature of the central cornea.
b. They assume the cornea to be a convex mirror.
c. They directly measure the refractive power of the cornea.
d. They use a mathematical formula to convert radius of curvature to approximate refractive
power.
14. Which of the following is not an optical component of the slit-lamp biomicroscope?
a. field lens
b. astronomical telescope
c. inverting prism
d. Galilean telescope
15. Which of the following is not a component of an optical coherence tomography (OCT) system?
a. movable mirror
b. beam splitter
c. reference beam
d. split prism
16. Proper distance visual acuity testing for a low vision patient includes all of the following
except:
a. a testing chart with an equal number of symbols on each line
b. non standardized room illumination
c. a snellen visual acuity chart at 20 ft
d. a test distance of 10ft
17. Which of the following statements regarding the prescription of visual aids is false?
a. The kestenbaum rule provides a starting point to determine the appropriate addition
required to read l-m size print.
b. Base-in prisms increase effective magnification for binocular patients using reading
spectacles.
c. Illuminated stand magnifiers help overcome stability and lighting problems associated with
higher-power magnification.
d. Optical magnification without contrast enhancement may be insufficient for patients with
severely reduced contrast sensitivity function.
e. In some states it is legal to drive with bioptic telescopes even when visual acuity falls below
the normally accepted cutoff limit.
18. The operation of which instruments is based on one of the purkinje-sanson images?
a. indirect ophthalmoscope
b. retinoscope
c. slit lamp
d. keratometer
e. cross cylinder
19. An indirect ophthalmoscope will project a/an
a. Virtual image.
b. real image
c. upright image
d. flat image
e. condensed image
20. The best way to check the optical centers of eyeglasses is to
a. Use a. clear plastic ruler to find the geometric center of the lens.
b. use a keratometer
c. calculate them from the refraction
d. use a lensometer with indie ink marker
e. use a flashlight
21. what is the vergence of rays coming from 6 meters
a. - 0.25 d
b. + 025d
c. - 0.17d
d. + 0.17 d
22. The length of astronomical telescope is _______ of the focal length of both of the lenses.
a. equal to sum
b. equal to difference
c. equal to multiplication
d. independent
23. Specular microscopy uses specular reflection form the interface between
a. the endothelium and aqueous humor
b. epithelium and tear film
c. epithelium and aqueous humor
d. none of the above
24. Split prisms in Goldman applanation tonometer have orientation
a. bases away from each other
b. bases towards each other
c. apex to base arrangement
d. none of the above
25. Objective lens is used to move the working distance of a slit lamp from infinity to usually a
distance of
a. 10 cm
b. 5 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 30 cm
26. Fundus camera has a working principle similar to that of
a. direct ophthalmoscope
b. indirect ophthalmoscope
c. Galilean telescope
27. Most standard fundus cameras provide a ______ field of view
a. 30 degree
b. 45 degree
c. 15 degree
d. 60 degree
28. The distance of image formed by condensign lens of an indirect ophthalmoscope is
determined by
a. vergence of rays striking the lens
b. focal length of the condensing lens
c. distance of patient from the condensing lens
d. refractive error of the observer
29. During direct ophthalmoscopy if the observer is 1 diopter hyperope, while the patietn is 1
diopter myope, what power of lens would be dialed on the instrument to make the image
claer
a. -1 d
b. -2 d
c. 0 d
d. +2 d
30. The interference filter used in excitation filter allows which wavelength of light to pass
a. 350 nm
b. 480 nm
c. 530 nm
d. 1200 nm
31. What percentage of fluorescein is bound to the plasma proteins
 a. 80%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 98%
32. OCT uses which wavelength of light
a. visible spectrum
b. UV
c. IR
d. gamma rays
33. Speed of sound in cornea is
a. 1640 m/s
b. 1540 m/s
c. 1532 m/s
d. 980 m/s
34. The brightness of a structure during usg depends upon
a. difference in refractive index
b. difference in acoustic impedance
c. thickness of the structure
d. Transmittance of waves through the structure.
35. A lesion is located in the inferior angle of a patient, during gonioscopy with a gold man three
mirror lens the lesion would be seen when the mirror is placed
a. superiorly
b. inferiorly
c. laterally
d. medially
36. A scarred cornea is ________ to flatten, as compared to normal cornea.
a. easier
b. more difficult
c. both of the above
d. none of the above
37. In slit lamp most magnification is produced by
a. objective lens
b. eyepiece
c. Galilean telescope
d. all of the above
38. the field of view by a fundus lens depends upon
a. power of the lens
b. lens diameter
c. both of the above
d. None of the above.
39. Keratometry is done using the ____________ purkinje image
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
40. During retinoscopy of a patient’s eye, the reflex was dull. On shifting to concave mirror setting
the reflex becomes bright. most likely cause of this is
a. high myopia
b. high hyperopia
c. media opacity
d. cycloplegia
41. A clover leaf pattern is obtained on perimetry when there are
a. high false positive
b. high false negative
c. high fixation losses
d. both a and b
42. Principle of perimtery is
a. differential contrast sensitivity
b. differential color sensitivity
c. interferometer
d. badal principle
43. Positive lens become more stronger when it is moved _______ from the eye
a. towards
b. away
c. below
d. above
44. Normal value of the central corneal thickness is:
a. 546 micron
b. 646 micron
c. 446 micron
d. 586 micron
45. your patient can see 6/6 by each of the following correction which would you as the final
refraction:
a. +1.25/ -1.50 at 180
b. +1.00/ -1.00 at 180
c. +1.50/ -2.00 at 180
d. +1.25/ -1.75 at 180
46. Regarding the direct ophthalmoscope, which one is false:
a. gives an angular magnification of 15x
b. gives a real erect image
c. makes the disc of a myope appears larger than that of a hypermetrope
d. makes the disc of a hypermetrope larger than that of an emmetrope
47. When using a direct ophthalmoscope, the field of view is not:
a. about 6 degrees
b. smaller than that through an indirect ophthalmoscope
c. larger in an eye dilated with mydriatic
d. larger when the observer moves towards the patient
48. The image formed by an indirect ophthalmoscope, all are true except:
a. is upside down
b. is real
 c. is laterally inverted
d. is not affected by the refractive state of the patient
e. is formed between the observer and the condensing lens
49. In indirect ophthalmoscopy, the field of view is not affected by:
a. size of the patient's pupil
b. size of the observer's pupil
c. diameter of the condensing lens
d. power of the condensing lens
50. The advantages of indirect ophthalmoscope over direct ophthalmoscope include:
a. larger field of view
b. higher magnification
c. erect image
d. the instrument is smaller size
51. Regarding the condensing lenses used in indirect ophthalmoscope, which one is false:
a. it is usually aspheric to reduce aberration
b. the stronger the condensing lens used the higher the angular magnification
c. the stronger the condensing lens used the larger the field of vision
d. when deliver laser photocoagulation through the condensing lens, the stronger the
condensing lens the larger the laser spot magnification
52. Regarding indirect ophthalmoscopy, which is incorrect:
a. observer needs to accommodate to see clearly
b. image size in emmetrope remains the same irrespective of the position of the condensing
lens
c. image size in myope increases when the condensing lens moves towards the eye of the
patient
d. image from myopic retina always falls within the second principal focus of the condensing
lens
53. The following is not true about the retinoscope:
a. two mirror systems are used: the plane mirror and the convex mirror
b. in the uk, most retinoscope gives a plane mirror effect when the condensing lens is moved
down the shaft of the instrument
c. scissors shadows are usually seen in patient with widely dilated pupil
d. the speed of the reflex increases as the neutralization point is near
e. a myope who accommodates excessively during retinoscopy will result in a more myopic
refraction
54. When using the plane mirror technique during retinoscopy, which statement is not true:
a. a 'with' movement is neutralized with a plus lens
b. an 'against' movement is neutralized with a minus lens
c. a 'with' movement always indicates hypermetropia
d. an 'against' movement always indicates myopia
e. the neutral point occurs when the patient's far-point coincides with the observer's nodal
point
55. Which statement is false regarding keratometer:
a. uses the cornea as a convex mirror in the measurement of corneal curvature
b. measures only the central 3 mm of the cornea
 c. can be misleading in patients who have had corneal transplantation
d. doubles the central image to overcome the effectof eye movement
e. is more important in fitting soft contact lens than rigid gas permeable contact lens
56. The following are true about the keratometer except:
a. in the javal-schiøtz instrument, the object size is fixed
b. wollaston prism is used in javal-schiøtz instrument
c. von helmholtz instrument uses rotating glass plates to double the size of the image
d. the power of the cornea is equal to 337.5 divided by the radius of curvature in mm.
57. Regarding slit-lamp, which is false:
a. is a low powered binocular compound microscope
b. contains prisms that shorten and invert the image
c. incorporates Galilean telescopes that are used to magnify the image
d. visualizes vitreous best with green light
e. can be used to perform watzke's sign
58. The following are true about the techniques used in slit-lamp, except:
a. uncoupling of the microscope and light source is needed in sclerotic illumination
b. specular illumination is best for visualizing the endothelium
c. the light and the microscope are co-axial in retroillumination
d. diffuse illumination is best for visualizing iris atrophy
59. Regarding hruby lens, which is true:
a. is a powerful biconcave lens
b. gives a virtual, erect and diminished image
c. is useful for laser photocoagulation of the retina
d. requires a coupling solution in order to visualize the retina
e. forms retinal image between the lens and the observer
60. Regarding the indirect lens, which statement is true
a. 90d has a larger angular magnification than a 78d
b. 90d has a larger field of view than a 78d lens
c. super field has a larger angular magnification than a 78d
d. panfundoscope gives a larger field of view than a 90d
e. panfundoscope gives a real erect image
61. Regarding the optical pachymeter (pachometer), all are true, except:
a. can be used to measure the corneal thickness as well as the anterior chamber depth
b. uses images i and ii of purkinje-sanson's imagesto measure the corneal thickness
c. is more precise than ultrasound pachymeter
d. gives a thicker corneal measurement in the earlymorning than in the afternoon
e. can be used to decide if the ocular pressure recorded is spuriously high
62. Following statements are true regarding oct (optical coherence tomography), except:
a. uses reflection of infrared light to obtain retinal image
b. provides a three-dimensional picture of the retina
c. can give resolution as small as 10 micrometer
d. can be used to detect subtle macular oedema
63. Regarding the autorefractors, which one is correct:
a. which are currently available on the market show large variation in accuracy
b. scheiner double-pinhole principle are used in all modern autorefractors
c. modern autorefractors are useful in checking binocular muscle balance
d. accommodation and the size of the pupil can affect the accuracy