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DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations 90 mins 100 Marks

1. Which ICAO document covers Operations 9. When determining the OCA for a precision
of Aircraft? approach, obstacle clearance height is
(A) Annexure 2 referenced to:
(B) Annexure 6 (A) Threshold
(C) Annexure 9 (B) Highest obstacle within 25 nm of
aerodrome
2. The convention on offences and certain (C) Mean Sea Level
acts committed on board aircraft, is:
(A) the convention of Rome 10. What is the obstacle clearance in the
(B) the convention of Tokyo primary area of the intermediate approach
(C) the convention of Chicago segment?
(A) 300 m (984 feet)
3. Cabotage refers to (B) 200 m (656 feet)
(A) a national air carrier (C) 900 m (2952 feet)
(B) crop spraying
(C) domestic air services by a foreign state 11. A steady red light from the ground to an
aircraft in the air means:
4. Rules of the Air is applicable to (A) Return for landing
(A) IFR flights only (B) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
(B) VFR flights only (C) Give way to other aircraft and continue
(C) Both IFR & VFR circling

5. Minimum sector altitudes are determined 12. What does a red flashing light from the
by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. control tower to an aircraft on the
These sectors are established for a manoeuvring area mean?
distance from the IAF of: (A) Cleared to taxi
(A) 20NM (B) Return to the start point
(B) 5NM (C) Move clear of the landing area
(C) 25NM
13. A red pyrotechnic addressed to a flying
6. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful aircraft means:
interference, the pilot-in-command shall (A) Dangerous airfield. Do not land
indicate the situation by setting the (B) Not withstanding previous instructions,
transponder to: do not land for the time being
(A) 7700 (C) Return for landing
(B) 7600
(C) 7500 14. Which of the following is not a straight
departure?
7. When entering a FIR where SSR is used (A) When the initial departure track is 25°
from an area where SSR is not used. What from the alignment of the runway
would you squawk? centerline
(A) 7500 (B) When the initial departure track is 15°
(B) 7700 from the alignment of the runway
(C) 2000 centerline
(C) When the initial departure track is 10°
8. At what point in a flight is the QNH from the alignment of the runway
communicated to the pilot by ATC? centerline
(A) On engine start
(B) In the taxi clearance
(C) In the ATC clearance
DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations 90 mins 100 Marks
15. The approach categories of aircraft are 22. As a result of automation in cockpits,
based upon: (A) coordination between the members is
(A) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean facilitated by the provision of more
configuration at maximum certified precise and more important information
landing mass (B) communication and coordination call
(B) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean for an even greater effort on the part of
configuration at minimum certified the crew members
landing mass (C) man-made communication has been
(C) 1.3 times the stalling speed in landing significantly improved
configuration at maximum certified
landing mass 23. Gases of physiological importance to man
are:
16. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under (A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
IFR shall change the altimeter setting from (B) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPa when (C) oxygen and carbon monoxide
passing:
(A) Transition layer 24. What are the characteristics of short-term-
(B) The level specified by ATC memory?
(C) Transition altitude (1) Easy to access
(2) Capacity of information is limited
17. Under which conditions may an aircraft on (3) They are subject to bio-chemical burn
a straight-in VOR approach continue its in
descent below the OCA?
(A) When it seems possible to land (A) 1, 2
(B) When the aircraft is in contact with the (B) 1, 2, 3
ground but not with the runway in sight (C) 1, 3
yet
(C) When the aircraft is in visual contact 25. Carbon monoxide poisoning
with the runway and with the runway (A) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT
lights in sight (B) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes
where the cabin heat is technically
18. Prisoners can be carried on board with the supplied by coating the exhaust
permission of: (C) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes
(A) Police Commissioner with twin-engines because of high
(B) DM engine efficiency
(C) DGCA
26. Carbon monoxide is a
19. The Alerting Service is provided by (A) colourless and odourless gas
(A) Search and Rescue centres (B)
(B) Air Traffic Centers and Flight (C)
Information Centers
(C) Area Control Centers 27. Which of the following are the symptoms of
hypoxia?
20. What is the principle requirement for a (A)
signals area on an aerodrome? (B) Headache, fatigue, impaired judgement
(A) It must be big enough to contain all (C) Increase in body temperature, fatigue,
signals convulsions
(B) It must be clearly visible from all parts
of the manoeuvring area 28. Aerobatics within 2NM of airport can not be
(C) It is only used for VFR operations done below:
(A) 2000’
21. The minimum descent altitude for a non- (B) Over congested towns and settlements
precision approach is not lower than: (C) 6000’
(A) 200 feet
(B) Obstacle Clearance Altitude
(C) 400 feet
DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations 90 mins 100 Marks
29. It is estimated that due to a repair at an 37. You plan to takeoff behind a departing
airport, some facilities will remain heavy aircraft from a parallel runway with a
inoperative for a period of more than 2 hrs. light crosswind
It is notified by NOTAM: (A) Depart before the rotation point of the
(A) Series A preceding aircraft and stay clear of its
(B) Series B wake
(C) Series C (B) Depart well after the preceding aircrafts
rotation point
30. Nitrogen bubbles in the lungs causes (C)
(A) Creeps
(B) Chokes 38. ATC will provide the winds when
(C) Staggers (A) The variation is between 5°E and 5°W
(B) The latitudes of the airport is between
31. Time of useful consciousness after a rapid 75°N and 75°S
decompression at 30,000 feet is (C) To all aircraft before landing or taking
(A) 10 - 15 mins off
(B) 5 - 10 mins
(C) 45 secs to 1 min 30 secs 39. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is
possible
32. When instructed by ATC to hold short of (A) If the commander so requests
runway pilot should stop: (B) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is
(A) With nose gear on hold line forecasted during the next 30 minutes
(B) So that no part of the a/c extends (C) Only when leaving controlled airspace
beyond the hold line
(C) So that the Flt Deck Area of a/c is even 40. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and
with the hold line you experience a total communications
failure, you should:
33. A piece of equipment on your public (A) Continue the flight according to flight
transport airplane fails while you are still plan
parked. The reference document you use (B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
in the first place to decide on the procedure and report to ATS
to follow is: (C) Try to contact another aircraft for relay
(A) The flight manual
(B) The operations manual 41. A flight condition where there are slight
(C) The minimum equipment list changes in attitude/altitude
(A) Light chop
34. Photography is restricted at (B) Light turbulence
(A) Terminal buildings (C) Moderate turbulence
(B) Civil aerodromes
(C) Military aerodromes 42. Which of the following is true regarding
change in partial pressure of oxygen with
35. Clearance limit is valid altitude
(A) Up to the point specified in the (A) Increases with increase in altitude
clearance (B) Decreases at the same rate as
(B) After the point specified in the atmospheric pressure
clearance (C) Decreases at thrice the rate as
(C) increase in altitude

36. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, 43. Susceptibility to hypoxia


according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be (A) Increases with altitude
determined by: (B) Is normally experienced below 8000
(A) ICAO feet
(B) The operator’s state (C) Is due to over breathing
(C) The state of registry
DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations 90 mins 100 Marks
44. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for
immediate take off”, what does it mean?
(A) Take off immediately after completing
all mandatory power checks
(B) Takeoff within 30 seconds of receiving
the clearance
(C) Taxi immediately to runway and
commence rolling takeoff

45. Readability 3 signifies


(A) Readable
(B) Perfectly readable
(C) Readable but with difficulty

46. To check if the ELT has been inadvertently


activated,
(A) Turn OFF ELT after the flight
(B) Ask Air Traffic Control
(C) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

47. Radar separation minima can be reduced


to what value
(A) 1.5 NM
(B) 2 NM
(C) 5 NM

48. A position report shall consist of the


following information in the order listed:
(A) Aircraft identification, position, time,
flight level/altitude, next ensuing
position
(B) Aircraft identification, position, flight
level/altitude, time, next ensuing
position
(C) Aircraft identification, position, flight
level/ altitude, time

49. The reduced visibility upto which a


helicopter is permitted to operate at a
speed that will give adequate opportunity
to observe other traffic or any obstacle in
time to avoid collision:
(A) 1500 m
(B) 800 m
(C) 1000 m