CSWIP 3.

1 (SET- 4) EXAM - 4
GENERAL & TECHNICAL – 110 (MCQ’s)
(Please Don’t Mark your Answers on this Sheet)
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1. ISO 1011
a. Pre-Heat requirements
b. Welder qualification
c. Welding procedure qualification
d. NDT requirements
2. Difference between Codes and standards
a. Standards are derived from codes
b. Codes are derived from standards
c. Codes are for products only
d. Codes are mandatory
3. Burn through
a. Excess root face
b. Excess bevel angle
c. Small root face
d. Excess root gap
4. When should be Pre-Heat measured?
a. Immediately before welding
b. Immediately before welding and after Pass
c. After welding
d. Just before welding and Between intervals
5. Rm
a. Elongation
b. Ductility
c. UTS
d. Proof stress
6. Which of the following indicates Ductility property
a. Re
b. Rm
c. Elongation
d. %E
7. Re is a term
a. used to express maximum elastic point
b. used to express maximum plastic point
c. used to express ultimate tensile point
d. used to express the elongation value
8. Preheating
a. Is always used to carried out around 200˚C
b. Not greater than 50°C
c. It is generally Minimum & required for medium carbon steel
d. Delays the cooling rate and improves fusion

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9. Preheat
a. It is calculated by CEV, Hydrogen content & Material thickness
b. Required when PWHT follows
c. ‘A’ is correct but requires more information
d. ‘B’ is correct but requires more information
10. Lamellar tearing will come
a. During Welding
b. Immediately after welding
c. In all rolled products
d. During welding and immediately after welding
11. As per BS EN 22553, weld symbol on reference line indicates
a. Arrow side
b. Other side
c. Depends on identification line
d. None
12. In NDT
a. Radiographic requires access from both sides
b. Ultrasonic inspection require access both sides
c. Ultrasonic would be preferred over radiography when temperature record is required
d. Both A & b are correct
13. Which of the following is correct
a. In transverse tensile test Elongation is 24%
b. In All weld tensile test Elongation is 20%
c. Both A & B
d. Elongation cannot be calculated
14. Interpass temperature
a. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature may cause reduction in toughness
b. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature may cause increases in toughness
c. Interpass temperature has no effect on toughness
d. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature may result in excessive hardness
15. Weld decay
a. Is caused by excessive amounts of ‘Fe’ in the material
b. Can be minimized by specifying steel with lower carbon level
c. Can be minimized by specifying steel with lower amount of sulphur
d. Both B & C
16. Basic Electrodes
a. Should be baked at 350°C for 1 hour
b. Need to control to remove moisture according to manufacturer recommendations
c. To be issued in portable ovens
d. All the above
17. Open corner joint always contain
a. Butt weld
b. Fillet weld
c. Compound weld
d. Butt & Fillet weld

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18. Laminar tearing is most susceptible in
a. Highly restrained full penetration T joints ‘Z’ classified material
b. Highly restrained full penetration double v butt on thick section plates
c. Highly restrained compound joints
d. Both A and C
19. Stabilized steels used to reduce the risk of
a. Formation of Chromium carbide along the grain boundary
b. Decrease of carbon content
c. Formation of Carbon carbide along the grain boundary
d. Increase of carbon content
20. Solidification cracking will be
a. In transverse direction
b. In longitudinal direction
c. Occurs in HAZ
d. A cold crack
21. Advantages of RT over UT
a. Access needed on both sides
b. Can be used on 316L steels
c. Can detect linear defects
d. Can’t tell depth of the defect
22. Arc strikes
a. Can lead to hard and brittle spots
b. Can cause a reduction in area
c. May result in the entire weld been removed
d. All the above
23. NDT
a. In penetrant testing a high level of surface cleaning is required to ensure all the defects
b. In penetrant testing the developer is sometimes applied during the dwell time
c. In penetrant testing only surface breaking defects can be detected
d. Both A and C correct
24. Which of the following is true
a. Carbon has greatest effect on toughness
b. Manganese has greatest effect on hardness
c. Carbon has greatest effect on Hardness
d. Carbon will not effect on Hardness
25. Typical preheat temperature for C-Mn steels
a. 10°C
b. 20°C
c. 100°C
d. 1000°C
26. Which of the following indicates ductility
a. Re
b. Rm
c. Elongation
d. %A

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27. In HICC, which of the following statement is not true
a. It occurs immediately after welding
b. Cellulose electrodes are deal to avoid HICC
c. Pre heating will increase the chances of HICC
d. All the above
28. HICC Occurs
a. After a specified time
b. All of a sudden without notice
c. During welding
d. After post weld heat treatment
29. Radiographic test cannot revel
a. The length of the defect
b. The location of the defect
c. The depth of the defect
d. The type of the defect
30. Which of the following may cause weld pool contamination
a. Use of High Current
b. Slope in
c. Slope out
d. Opposite to ‘A’
31. Solidification cracking in carbon steels can be reduced by
a. Reducing the level of carbon in the weld metal
b. Using heavy tack and restraints during welding
c. During a post weld heat treatment
d. None of the above
32. What does sensitization in Austenitic stainless steels
a. Formation of iron carbides
b. Formation of chromium carbides along the grain boundaries
c. Formation of chromium carbides
d. None of the above
33. Stabilization of Austenitic stainless steel means
a. Heat treating the stainless steels at annealing temperature
b. Add titanium to be take care of carbon
c. To increase nickel in the composition
d. None of the above
34. As per BS EN 22553, weld on identification line indicates
a. Weld on Arrow side
b. Weld on other side
c. It decided by draftsman
d. It decides by specification
35. Which of the following is correct for refer high elongation
a. Ductile
b. Brittle
c. Fatigue
d. Can’t say, need more information

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36. Radiography
a. Is used for Limited thickness
b. Is significant for finding the defects which is linear
c. Is better than UT for finding Planar defects
d. Is better for finding Volumetric defects
37. Bevel angle of single-V
a. 10-20
b. 20-30
c. 25-30
d. 60-70
38. WPS should be available to
a. Welding inspector
b. Welding engineer
c. Welder & welding inspector
d. Welder & welding engineer
39. In cross-country pipe line, using GMAW process for C-Mn steels.which is preffered?
a. Solid wire
b. Solid core wire
c. Flux core wire
d. All of the above
40. As the carbon percentage increases in plain carbon steels, which of the following is true
a. Tensile strength decreases
b. Yield strength decreases
c. Toughness decreases
d. Hardness decreases
41. A 58mm thickness C-Mn steel pipe weld to be done by MMA welding process. The
hydrogen content in weld zone can be best controlled by
a. Post heat
b. Post heat & PWHT after one day
c. Pre heat & Immediate Post Heat
d. Post heat & PWHT after one week
42. As per BSEN 22553, A symmetrical weld size are shown as
a. Same on both sides
b. Different on either sides
c. Decided by draftsman
d. Both A & C
43. ISO 17637 means
a. Minimum recommended illumination is same for the visual inspection and MPI
b. Minimum of 350 lux but recommends 500 lux for VT
c. Minimum of 500 lux
d. Both a & b
44. Penetration power of X-rays depends on
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Size of focal spot
d. Source strength

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45. Typical industrial X-ray range
a. 30KeV to 20 MeV
b. 100KeV to 200MeV
c. 250KeV to 350KeV
d. All of the above
46. Which of the following is true
a. Heat input can be reduced by 25% from original heat input
b. Heat input can be increased by 25% from original heat input
c. Heat input depends on current, voltage, Travel speed & Thermal efficiency factor
d. All of the above
47. To increase deposition in MIG/MAG welding, change polarity from
a. DCEP to DCEN
b. DCEN to DCEP
c. DCEN to AC
d. Polarity will not effect deposition
48. Preheat
a. Removes all surface contamination prior to welding
b. Reduce the risk of weld decay and hydrogen cracking
c. Makes the joint easier to weld
d. None of the above
49. PWHT decided by
a. Welding inspector & WPS
b. Welding engineer
c. Welding engineer & Code of practice
d. Depends on welding process
50. During tensile testing the specimen will undergo
a. Elastic limit
b. Cross section area will be reduced
c. Diameter & thickness will be reduced
d. All the above
51. Weld decay is
a. Cracking in A.S.S in service
b. Cracking occurs in longitudinal direction
c. The structure converts to inter-granulation
d. All of the above
52. In MMA process, Hydrogen can be controlled by
a. Basic electrode with Short arc technique
b. Basic electrode with Long arc technique
c. Rutile electrode with Baking t 350°C
d. Cellulosic electrode with Long arc technique
53. Cathodic cleaning is
a. Removal of oxides from surface
b. Electroplating purpose
c. To avoid porosity
d. Cleaning of slag from weld surface

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54. Which process cannot be used for Aluminum welding
a. SAW
b. FCAW
c. SMAW
d. MAG
55. When solidification cracking will occur
a. After welding
b. After PWHT
c. At some specified time
d. Suddenly or During & Immediately after welding
56. Find out High Ductile steel
a. STRA 17% - 20%
b. ‘Z- grade’ will be specified
c. It depends on Heat treatment
d. All of the above
57. Which gas is used for Low carbon steel in GMAW process
a. 100% Argon
b. 100% CO₂
c. Argon + 15% - 20% CO₂
d. Argon + 2% O₂
58. Necking will start
a. At UTS
b. Before failure
c. After elastic stage
d. After plastic stage
59. Which of the following is True
a. DPT cannot be repeated for several times
b. MPI should not be done in two direction
c. RT is best for Planar defects
d. None of the above
60. A Ø80mm & 12mm thickness C-Mn steel pipe, what would be correct Technique in RT
a. DWDI using cobalt 60
b. SWSI using cobalt 60
c. DWDI using iridium 192
d. SWSI using iridium 192
61. Which of the following is a RT technique
a. DWSI
b. DDWI
c. DPWS
d. SWDI

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62. Flat characteristic
a. Constant voltage
b. Constant current
c. Constant Travel speed
d. Constant wire feed speed
63. An unqualified welder can do procedure test?
a. No
b. Yes and its depends on welding inspector
c. Yes and its depends on welding engineer
d. Depends on Code of practice
64. E 43 0 1Ni R …. What is 43 indictes
a. Tensile strength
b. Yield strength
c. Impact properties
d. None
65. Carbon influence
a. Weldability
b. Hardability
c. Strengthability
d. All of the above
66. Sensitization
a. Chromium carbide
b. Iron carbide
c. Grain structure
d. Copper carbide
67. C-Mn, tempering temperature
a. 250°C - 350°C
b. 500°C - 520°C
c. 550°C - 650°C
d. 880°C - 920°C
68. Preheating is to be done to avoid
a. To avoid weld decay & Crack
b. To remove paint
c. To remove contamination
d. None
69. Preheat
a. It is calculated by CEV, Hydrogen content & Material thickness
b. Required when PWHT follows
c. ‘A’ is correct but requires more information
d. ‘B’ is correct but requires more information
70. Solidification crack
a. Carbon
b. Sulphur
c. Phosphorus
d. All of the above

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71. Inductance is used to avoid
a. Porosity
b. Spatter
c. Lack of fusion
d. Cracking
72. Delayed cracking
a. HICC
b. Toe cracking
c. Under-bead cracking
d. All of the above
73. Non-Essential variable for WPS
a. Material composition
b. Included angle
c. PWHT
d. Mechanical property
74. Lamellar tearing will appear
a. Terraced appearance
b. Straight line
c. No indication
d. Effect mechanical property
75. Distortion in thin plates during welding can be reduced by
a. Increase thickness of material
b. Use Balanced welding
c. Use Back-step welding
d. Spot/Line heating
76. Basic Electrode
a. Should be baked at 350°C for 1 hour
b. Need to control to remove moisture according to manufacturer recommendations
c. To be issued in portable ovens
d. All the above
77. %E
a. Ductility
b. Elongation
c. Plasticity
d. Elasticity
78. Tensile stress units
a. PSI
b. Joule
c. Kj/mm
d. Mm/sec
79. Z-grade steel has
a. Confidence to designer and Engineer
b. Good mechanical properties
c. Good chemical composition
d. High through thickness ductility

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80. Austenitic stainless steels will show
a. Low co-efficient of thermal expansion
b. Low thermal conductivity
c. High thermal conductivity
d. Low co-efficient of contraction
81. Half-life
a. Isotope penetration reduce by half
b. Isotope strength reduce by half
c. Isotope density reduce by half
d. Isotope sensitivity reduce by half
82. Before starting UT, what need to apply on surface
a. Water
b. Coolant
c. Solvent
d. Couplant
83. Copper should not be welded with
a. TIG
b. SAW
c. MIG
d. MAG
84. Proof stress
a. Is a yield point of some steels
b. Is a tensile point of some steels
c. Is a residual stress value of some steels
d. Is used to calculate plastic limit
85. Excess root penetration caused by
a. Wrong consumables
b. Wrong polarity
c. Excess root gap
d. All of the above
86. E7018
a. Basic
b. Rutile
c. Cellulosic
d. Iron powder
87. In HICC, which of the following statement is not true
a. It occurs immediately after welding
b. Cellulose electrodes are deal to avoid HICC
c. Pre heating will increase the chances of HICC
d. All the above
88. HICC Occurs
a. After a specified time
b. All of a sudden without notice
c. During welding
d. After post weld heat treatment

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89. Heat input increases, what will be happen
a. Grain growth rate increases
b. A large course grain
c. Grain growth rate decreases
d. A fine grain
90. Z- Grade in Mill certificate denotes
a. Poor through thickness ductility
b. Good through thickness ductility
c. Made with good chemical composition
d. Made with Z-type CNC machine operation
91. Normalizing can be done at
a. 720°C-900°C
b. 880°C -920°C
c. 900°C -1200°C
d. 1000°C -1100°C
92. What does sensitization in Austenitic stainless steels
a. Formation of iron carbides
b. Formation of chromium carbides along the grain boundaries
c. Formation of carbon carbides along the grain boundaries
d. None of the above
93. Which of the following is odd one
a. Under bead crack
b. Cold crack
c. Hot crack
d. HAZ crack
94. As per BS EN 22553, weld on identification line indicates
a. Weld on Arrow side
b. Weld on other side
c. It decided by draftsman
d. It decides by specification
95. Which of the following is essential variable for WQT
a. Bevel angle
b. Included angle
c. Welding position
d. Heat Input
96. Transition range is
a. Lowest preheat temperature
b. Highest interpass temperature
c. A plot in Charpy V-Notch test
d. A Plot in CTOD test
97. Excess weld metal is prone to
a. Fatigue failure
b. Ductile failure
c. Brittle failure
d. Corrosion

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98. WPS should be available to
a. Welding inspector
b. Welding engineer
c. Welder & welding inspector
d. Welder & welding engineer
99. In cross-country pipe line, using GMAW process for C-Mn steels. Which is preferred?
a. Solid wire
b. Solid core wire
c. Flux core wire
d. All of the above
100. As the carbon percentage increases in plain carbon steels, which of the following is true
a. Tensile strength decreases
b. Yield strength decreases
c. Toughness decreases
d. Hardness decreases
101. Which welding symbol is not used?
a. A
b. S
c. T
d. Z
102. HAZ cracking is possible if
a. Low Heat input
b. High Heat input
c. Heat input does not effect on HAZ cracking
d. None
103. Impact properties will change if
a. Heat input increases
b. Heat input decreases
c. Wrong shielding gas used
d. Polarity changed
104. In RT, lack of root fusion & lack of root penetration will
a. Appear same
b. Not appear same
c. Can’t find in RT
d. None of the above
105. Macro
a. x5 to x10
b. x50 to x 100
c. x500 to x1000
d. greater than x100
106. Which parameter is used to reduce the risk of open short-circuit in MIG/MAG welding
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Inductance
d. High frequency

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107. Which process C-Mn steel can’t be welded
a. TIG
b. MIG
c. MAG
d. Both a & b
108. Essential variable for WPS
a. Process
b. Heat input
c. Pre-heat
d. All of the above
109. Why inert gas is used in GTAW?
a. It gives Low heat input
b. It gives High heat input
c. To avoid porosity
d. To avoid contamination
110. Essential variable for WQT
a. Process
b. Preheat
c. Position
d. Both A & C

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 KEY for EXAM – 4

1. A 41. C 81. B
2. B 42. A 82. D
3. D 43. D 83. D
4. D 44. B 84. A
5. C 45. A 85. D
6. D 46. D 86. A
7. A 47. A 87. D
8. D 48. C 88. A
9. C 49. C 89. B
10. D 50. D 90. B
11. A 51. D 91. B
12. A 52. A 92. B
13. B 53. A 93. C
14. A 54. D 94. B
15. D 55. D 95. C
16. D 56. B 96. C
17. B 57. C 97. A
18. C 58. A 98. C
19. A 59. A 99. C
20. B 60. C 100. C
21. B 61. A 101. C
22. D 62. A 102. A
23. D 63. C 103. A
24. C 64. B 104. B
25. C 65. A 105. A
26. D 66. A 106. C
27. D 67. C 107. B
28. A 68. C 108. D
29. C 69. C 109. D
30. A 70. D 110. D
31. A 71. B
32. B 72. D
33. D 73. B
34. B 74. A
35. A 75. C
36. D 76. D
37. C 77. B
38. C 78. A
39. C 79. D
40. C 80. B

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