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CHA 101 FINAL EXAM

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Winter Quarter
March 17, 2015

PLEASE READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS prior to beginning the test.

1. DO NOT begin until instructed to do so.

2. You will have two hours to complete this exam. All exams must be turned in within 5
minutes after the allotted time. Exams submitted after that time WILL NOT be
accepted.

3. Read all questions carefully. Questions concerning the content of the exam will NOT be
answered during the exam period. A “gripe sheet” is attached at the end of the exam if
you believe a question is vague or ambiguous. However, if you find a mistake on the
exam, please bring it to the attention of an instructor or exam proctor and an
announcement will be made to the entire class.

4. ! PRINT YOUR NAME CLEARLY on the SCANTRON form.

5. ! WRITE and BUBBLE IN your 9-digit UC Davis STUDENT ID # on the SCANTRON form.

6. ! BUBBLE IN Test Form A

7. Please bubble in all answers darkly: A NOT A

8. Please erase all corrections completely.

GOOD LUCK!
1. The spinal nerve passing through the space indicated by the arrow is

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A. T11
B. T12
C. L1
D. L2
E. C8

2. The dorsal root ganglion

A. contains synapses between motor and sensory neurons


B. is located within the dorsal region of the spinal cord
C. is the location of the cell bodies of somatic motor neurons
D. is the location of the cell bodies of somatic sensory neurons
E. is too small to be seen in a dissected cadaver specimen

3. Which of the following statements about the latissimus dorsi muscle is INCORRECT?

A. It is innervated by the middle subscapular nerve


B. It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve
C. It can medially rotate the humerus
D. It attaches to the anterior surface of the humerus
E. It can abduct the arm

4. This nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and innervates the
supinator muscle.

A. Median
B. Axillary
C. Ulnar
D. Radial
E. Thoracodorsal

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5. What muscle is the examiner testing as she pushes down in the direction of the arrow against
the patient’s resistance?

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A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Deltoid
D. Triceps
E. Latissimus dorsi

6. Which one of the following joints is MOST important for supination and pronation?

A. Proximal radioulnar
B. Humeroulnar
C. Sternoclavicular
D. Metacarpophalangeal
E. Talocrural

7. Which of the following muscles is NOT innervated by the ulnar nerve?

A. Adductor pollicis
B. Flexor pollicis brevis
C. Opponens digiti minimi
D. First dorsal interosseous
E. Second palmar interosseous

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8. This is the _____ muscle.

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A. Pronator teres
B. Pronator quadratus
C. Supinator
D. Palmaris longus
E. None of the above

9. The puborectalis muscle

A. forms part of the internal anal sphincter


B. forms part of the internal urethral sphincter
C. contracts to facilitate defecation (having a bowel movement)
D. attaches to the ischial tuberosity and the sacrum
E. is part of both the levator ani and the pelvic diaphragm

10. The medial umbilical ligament

A. passes through the deep inguinal ring


B. contains the ovarian artery and vein
C. gives rise to the obturator artery
D. is the fibrous remnant of the distal part of the umbilical artery
E. passes through the pelvic diaphragm

11. When the external intercostal muscles contract

A. the pressure in the pleural cavity decreases


B. the diaphragm elevates
C. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
D. the sternum moves posteriorly
E. the thoracic vertebrae move anteriorly

12. The pulmonary valve

A. has chordae tendinae attached to it


B. is located in the posterior mediastinum
C. has three cusps
D. prevents blood from passing from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk
E. is heard best with a stethoscope placed over the apex of the heart

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13. The tip of the arrow indicates the location of the

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A. clitoris
B. ischiocavernosus muscle
C. perineal body
D. crus of the corpus cavernosum
E. external urethral orifice

14. The spinal nerve that passes through the intervertebral foramen between the C7 and T1
vertebrae

A. contributes to the formation of the cauda equina


B. contributes to the formation of the phrenic nerve
C. contains preganglionic parasympathetic axons
D. contributes to the formation of the brachial plexus
E. innervates structures in the neck but not the upper limb

15. The tunica vaginalis

A. normally communicates directly with the peritoneal cavity in an adult


B. partially surrounds the testicle and allows it to move within the scrotum
C. is the layer of tissue surrounding the vagina
D. is the location of a direct inguinal hernia
E. is a layer of peritoneum surrounding the ovary

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16. Identify the right brachiocephalic vein

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17. The thoracic diaphragm

A. is lined by both peritoneum and pleura


B. is innervated by the pudendal nerve
C. is normally in contact with the right colic flexure
D. contracts during forced expiration
E. None of the above

18. The spleen

A. is located directly posterior to the lesser omentum


B. is in the left lower quadrant
C. is located deep to ribs 9-11 on the left
D. is usually in direct contact with the gall bladder
E. gets its main blood supply from a branch of the superior mesenteric artery

19. The iliacus muscle

A. is a powerful extensor of the thigh


B. is attached to the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae
C. is innervated by the phrenic nerve
D. fuses with the quadratus lumborum muscle to insert on the greater trochanter of
the femur
E. attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur

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20. In this horizontal section through the abdomen, the arrow is passing

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A. through the omental foramen
B. from the greater sac into the lesser sac
C. posterior to the stomach
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

21. A patient has an obstruction in the small intestine. At surgery, the small intestine is so
dilated that the surgeon is having difficulty telling whether the part he is holding is small or
large intestine. You tell the surgeon that you are sure it is the small intestine because

A. it is round and squishy


B. it is supplied by branches from the superior mesenteric artery
C. it is in the right upper quadrant
D. it does not have teniae coli
E. it is not retroperitoneal

22. Sensation over the forehead is transmitted via the

A. frontal branch of CN V1
B. nasociliary branch of CN V1
C. infraorbital branch of CN V2
D. temporal branch of CN VII
E. zygomatic branch of CN VII

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23. This is the _____ suture, and it separates the _____ and _____ bones.

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A. coronal parietal occipital
B. coronal frontal parietal
C. coronal temporal occipital
D. lambdoid parietal frontal
E. sagittal frontal parietal

24. The internal laryngeal nerve

A. is a sensory branch of CN IX
B. is a motor branch of CN IX
C. provides sensation to the lining of the larynx above the true vocal folds
D. provides sensation to the lining of the larynx below the true vocal folds
E. is the motor innervation of the cricothyroid muscle

25. The _____ drains directly into the inferior meatus.

A. subarachnoid space
B. maxillary sinus
C. frontal sinus
D. nasolacrimal duct
E. parotid duct

26. In Clinical Case 2, Mrs. Smith had a pulmonary embolism. The immediate result was a
reduced flow of _____ through a branch of a _____.

A. air bronchus
B. oxygenated blood pulmonary artery
C. deoxygenated blood pulmonary artery
D. oxygenated blood coronary artery
E. deoxygenated blood cardiac vein
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27. A patient has an injury cutting this nerve at the location indicated by the arrow. He will most
likely

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A. have difficulty shrugging his shoulders
B. have severe weakness turning his head to the opposite side
C. loose sensation in the skin over the anterior triangle of the neck
D. loose the function of the right parotid gland
E. have a paralyzed diaphragm

28. A patient has an extra rib articulating with the C7 vertebra. This compresses the space
between the anterior and middle scalene muscles. Of the following, which is the most likely
consequence of this narrowing?

A. compression of the subclavian vein


B. weakness in the intrinsic muscles of the hand
C. weakness of the masseter muscle
D. abnormal sensation in the skin of the face
E. abnormal sensation in the cornea

29. A patient has her thyroid gland removed due to thyroid cancer, damaging a nerve located
near the posterior aspect of the gland. Postoperatively, which of the following is the most
likely result?

A. Ptosis
B. Loss of taste sensation on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
C. Loss of taste sensation on the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
D. Inability to raise the pitch of the voice due to paralysis of the cricothyroid muscle
E. Change in her voice due to weakness of several intrinsic muscles of the larynx

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DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS 30-32: From the list below, choose the structure located
within the indicated region. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

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A. Palatopharyngeus muscle
B. Laryngeal ventricle
C. Pharyngeal tonsil
D. Piriform recess
E. Lower esophageal sphincter

30. Nasopharynx

31. Oropharynx

32. Laryngopharynx

33. Where are the parathyroid glands?

A. In the posterior triangle of the neck


B. On the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland
C. Within the thymus gland
D. Along the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
E. Within the bifurcation of the common carotid artery

34. Movement at the cricothyroid joint can

A. increase the length of the vocal ligament


B. decrease the length of the vocal ligament
C. raise the pitch of the voice
D. lower the pitch of the voice
E. All of the above

35. The primary abductor of the vocal folds

A. is the lateral cricoarytenoid muscle


B. is the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
C. is the vocalis muscle
D. is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve
E. B and D are correct

36. Contraction of the smooth muscle in the ciliary body

A. abducts the eye


B. increases the tension in the suspensory ligaments of the lens
C. causes the lens to become more round
D. is under the control of the sympathetic nervous system
E. is controlled by CN IV

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37. You ask your patient to follow the movement of a penlight without moving his head. You
move the light to the patient’s right, then move it up, and then move it down. Just
considering the right eye, what muscles and cranial nerves have you just tested?

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A. lateral rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, CN VI and CN III
B. lateral rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique, CN VI and CN III
C. lateral rectus, superior rectus, inferior oblique, CN VI and CN III
D. lateral rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, CN III only
E. lateral rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique, CN VI, CN III and CN IV

38. Most of the refraction of light occurs when it passes through the

A. cornea
B. lens
C. aqueous humor in the anterior chamber
D. aqueous humor in the posterior chamber
E. vitreous body

39. Which of the following muscles is NOT attached to the greater trochanter?

A. Piriformis
B. Gluteus minimus
C. Gluteus medius
D. Gluteus maximus
E. Obturator internus

40. Femoral neck fractures can result in avascular necrosis of the head of the femur due to
damage to the _____ artery, a branch of the _____ artery.

A. medial femoral circumflex popliteal


B. medial femoral circumflex deep femoral
C. lateral femoral circumflex external iliac
D. deep femoral popliteal
E. obturator external iliac

41. Some athletes develop sciatica (pain radiating down the posterior thigh) due to compression
of the sciatic nerve as it passes just inferior or even through the __________ muscle.

A. Gluteus maximus
B. Piriformis
C. Quadratus femoris
D. Gluteus medius
E. Quadriceps femoris

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42. This structure

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A. is the posterior cruciate ligament
B. prevents valgus angulation of the tibia
C. prevents varus angulation of the tibia
D. prevents anterior displacement of the tibia
E. prevents anterior displacement of the femur

43. The four heads of the quadriceps femoris muscle

A. all originate on the anterior superior iliac spine


B. are usually innervated by both the femoral and obturator nerves
C. all can flex the hip
D. all insert on the head of the fibula
E. all insert on the tibial tuberosity

44. You land after jumping in a basketball game, hurting your knee. The trainer tells you that the
only abnormality he finds is a positive valgus stress test. Which of the following structures is
most likely injured?

A. anterior cruciate ligament


B. lateral collateral ligament
C. medial collateral ligament
D. medial meniscus
E. anterior talofibular ligament

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45. The sartorius muscle can

A. flex the hip

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B. adduct the hip
C. laterally rotate the hip
D. all of the above
E. A and C

46. The short head of the biceps femoris muscle

A. is innervated by the common fibular nerve


B. attaches to the ischial tuberosity
C. attaches to the medial side of the proximal tibia
D. extends the thigh and flexes the knee
E. crosses the hip joint

47. Which of the following posterior compartment muscles CANNOT plantarflex the ankle?

A. Flexor halluces longus


B. Flexor digitorum longus
C. Tibialis posterior
D. Soleus
E. Popliteus

48. Which is the most commonly injured ankle ligament?

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49. The function of the quadratus plantae muscle is to

A. adjust the pull of the flexor digitorum longus muscle

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B. extend the PIP and DIP joints of the toes
C. plantar flex the ankle
D. evert the foot
E. invert the foot

50. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the middle ear?

A. chorda tympani nerve


B. cochlea
C. malleus
D. stapes
E. tensor tympani muscle

51. The stapes

A. articulates with the malleus


B. is directly attached to the tympanic membrane
C. fits into the round window
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

52. The mastoid air cells

A. drain into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity


B. are found within the sphenoid bone
C. communicate directly with the middle ear cavity
D. are anterior to the middle ear cavity
E. All of the above

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS 53-54: Match the action described with the nerve
innervating the muscle(s) required for that action. Each answer can be used once, more than
once, or not at all.

A. Median
B. Ulnar
C. Axillary
D. Suprascapular
E. Radial

53. Flexion of the DIP joint of the index finger

54. Abduction of the shoulder from 0-15 degrees

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55. In order for an embolus from a deep venous thrombus in the anterior tibial vein to lodge in a
pulmonary artery, it must pass through the

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A. Superior vena cava
B. Tricuspid valve
C. Mitral valve
D. Left atrium
E. Arch of the aorta

56. You are very nervous taking this final exam, so your blood pressure rises. This causes the
carotid sinus to set off a reflex to slow down your heart rate. Which two cranial nerves are
involved in this reflex?

A. VII and IX
B. VII and X
C. V and X
D. IX and X
E. V and IX

57. A patient has ptosis (a drooping eyelid) and a dilated pupil. Which of the following muscles
would probably NOT be weak?

A. Inferior oblique
B. Medial rectus
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior oblique
E. C and D

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS 58-60: Match the action described with the nerve
innervating the muscle(s) required for that action. Each answer can be used once, more than
once, or not at all.

A. Tibial
B. Superficial fibular
C. Deep fibular
D. Obturator
E. Femoral

58. Dorsiflexion of the ankle

59. Extension of the knee

60. Eversion of the foot

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61. Do you think Questions 61-63 will count on this exam?

A. I doubt it

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B. No
C. Of course not
D. No way
E. Who cares, the course is over

62. What is Ryan’s jersey number

A. 13
B. 17
C. 21
D. 33
E. 00

63. Who is this?

A. Stephanie
B. Olivia
C. Dana
D. Caitlin
E. Shadow

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GRIPE SHEET

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NAME (please print clearly)

Please write any comments regarding the accuracy or fairness of specific questions found on this
exam. Remove this page and turn it in along with your SCANTRON. Dr. Gross will read this
page, and your comments will be considered carefully.

QUESTION # COMMENTS

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