(d) watt-hour

Ans: c

2. Electric pressure is also called

(a) resistance

(b) power

(c) voltage

(d) energy

Ans: c

3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and

offer a low resistance are called

(a) insulators

(b) inductors

(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors

Ans: d

4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?

(a) Cast iron

(b) Copper

(c) Carbon

(d) Tungsten

Ans: b

5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?

(a) Copper

(b) Gold

(c) Silver

(d) Paper

Ans: d
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is

called

(a) resistance

(b) reluctance

(c) conductance

(d) inductance

Ans: c

7. Conductance is reciprocal of

(a) resistance

(b) inductance

(c) reluctance

(d) capacitance

Ans: a
8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

(a) length

(6) area of cross-section

(c) temperature

(d) resistivity

Ans: b

9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(c) first increases and then decreases

(d) remains constant

Ans: a

10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors

(a) decreases
(b) increases

(c) first increases and then decreases

(d) remains constant

Ans: a

11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its

thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around

(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m

(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m

(c) 1.6 x 10″”8 Q-m

(d) 1.8 x 10″8 Q-m

Ans: c

12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are

connected in parallel.

The total resistance of the combination is

(a) 5 ohms

(b) 10 ohms

(c) 15 ohms

(d) 55 ohms

Ans:

13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

(a) voltmeter

(b) rheostat

(c) wattmeter

(d) galvanometer

Ans: d

14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage

across the

resistor is
(a) 33 V

(b) 66 v

(c) 80 V

(d) 132 V

Ans: b

15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V.

The resistance of the light bulb is

(a) 400 Q

(b) 600 Q

(c) 800 Q

(d) 1000 Q

Ans: c

16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is

12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the

resistance of the other ?

(a) 18 Q

(b) 36 Q

(c) 48 Q

(d) 64 Q

Ans: b

17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and

the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25

Q. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective

resistance will be

(a) 1 Q

(b) 2 Q

(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q

Ans: d

18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in

parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms

respectively. The current in each branch is

(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A

(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A

(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A

(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A

Ans: b

19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is

(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy

(b) independent of current strength

(c) of the order of a few ^.s/m

(d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s

Ans: c

20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-

efficient of resistance?

(a) Manganin

(b) Porcelain

(c) Carbon

(d) Copper

Ans: a

21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500

Q resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect

(a) two in parallel

(b) two in parallel and one in series

(c) three in parallel

(d) three in series

Ans: b

22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(a) same current passes in turn through both

(b) both carry the same value of current

(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents

(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.

Ans: a

23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a

parallel D.C. circuit?

(a) Elements have individual currents

(b) Currents are additive

(c) Voltages are additive

(d) Power are additive

Ans: d

24. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-

efficient of resistance?

(a) Copper

(b) Aluminum

(c) Carbon

(d) Brass

Ans: c

25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

(a) vacuum tubes

(b) carbon resistors

(c) high voltage circuits

(d) circuits with low current densities

Ans: a

26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

(a) Iron

(b) Silver

(c) Copper

(d) Carbon

Ans: b

27. For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could be the unit ?

(a) Reluctance

(b) Charge

(c) Power

(d) Energy

Ans: b
28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except

(a) (amperes) ohm

(b) joules/sec.

(c) amperes x volts

(d) amperes/volt

Ans: d

29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a

(a) metallic resistor

(b) carbon resistor

(c) wire wound resistor

(d) variable resistor

Ans: c

30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature

co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium

(b) Paper

(c) Rubber

(d) Mica

Ans: a

31. Varistors are

(a) insulators

(6) non-linear resistors

(c) carbon resistors

(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient

Ans: b

32. Insulating materials have the function of

(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires

(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the
load

(c) conducting very large currents

(d) storing very high currents

Ans: b

33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

(a) ampere-hours

(b) ampere-volts

(c) kWh

(d) amperes

Ans: d

34. The minimum charge on an ion is

(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom

(b) equal to the charge of an electron

(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#)

zero

Ans: b

35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it

(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop

(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current

(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop

Ans: d

36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of

(a) carbon

(b) aluminium

(c) tungsten

(d) nickel

Ans: c
37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of

(a) 2 watts

(b) 4 watts

(c) 6 watts

(d) 8 watts

Ans: c

38. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter

(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter

Ans: c

39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed

electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero

(b) low

(c) high

(d) very high

Ans: a

40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance

(b) increases in each branch

(c) is zero in all branches

(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch

Ans: c

41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its

resistance becomes

(a) 0.4 ohm

(b) 0.6 ohm

(c) 0.8 ohm

(d) 1.0 ohm

Ans: a

42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If

one bulb burns open

(a) there will be heavy current in the main line

(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light

(c) all three bulbs will light

(d) the other two bulbs will light

Ans: d

43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a

battery across them, which of the following statement is true ?

(a) The current through each bulb in same

(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same

(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same

(d) None of the above

Ans: a

44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the

voltage source where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be across

(a) Rl

(b) Ri

(c) either Rl or Ri

(d) none of them

Ans: a

45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to

drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 20 V across

the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules

(b) 10 joules

(c) 15 joules

(d) 20 joules

Ans:

46. A closed switch has a resistance of

(a) zero

(b) about 50 ohms

(c) about 500 ohms

(d) infinity

Ans: a

47. The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its cold

resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is

(a) zero
(b) negative

(c) positive

(d) about 2 ohms per degree

Ans: c

48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric

current due to

(a) reactance

(b) capacitance

(c) impedance

(d) resistance

Ans:

49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided

(a) to prevent leakage of current

(b) to prevent shock

(c) both of above factors

(d) none of above factors

Ans: c

50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends

on

(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor

(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of

a series circuit ?

(a) Voltage

(b) Current
(c) Power

(d) Resistance

Ans: b

52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40

W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will

(a) decrease

(b) increase

(c) remain same

(d) heater will burn out

Ans: b

53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to

boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains

(a) length of heating element should be decreased

(b) length of heating element should be increased

(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

(a) D.C. supply only

(b) A.C. supply only

(c) Battery supply only

(d) All above

Ans: d

55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases

(a) decreases

(b) increases

(c) remains same

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

(a) magnetic effect

(b) luminous effect

(c) thermal effect

(d) chemical effect

(e) all above effects

Ans: c

57. Resistance of a material always decreases if

(a) temperature of material is decreased

(6) temperature of material is increased

(c) number of free electrons available become more

(d) none of the above is correct

Ans: c

58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

(a) Input power

(b) Losses

(c) True component of power

(d) kWh consumed

(e) Ratio of output to input

Ans: b

59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its

temperature rises. This is due to

(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms

(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms

(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms

(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons

Ans: a

60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have

resistance ratio as

(a) 4 : 25

(b) 25 : 4

(c) 2 : 5

(d) 5 : 2

Ans: c

61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because

(a) it takes in proton

(b) its atoms are removed

(c) it gives away electrons

(d) it gives away positive charge

Ans: c

62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most

effective in reducing the magnitude of the current.

(a) Reactor

(b) Capacitor

(c) Inductor

(d) Resistor

Ans: d

63. It becomes more difficult to remove

(a) any electron from the orbit

(6) first electron from the orbit

(c) second electron from the orbit

(d) third electron from the orbit

Ans: d

64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current

will

(a) reduce

(b) increase

(c) decrease

(d) become zero

Ans: c

65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the

total resistance of the load

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(c) remains same

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V

(alternating).

Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter

(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter

(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright

(d) 40 W lamp will fuse

Ans: b

67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be

(a) 4.84 Q

(b) 48.4 Q

(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q

Ans: c

68. In the case of direct current

(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant

(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time

(c) magnitude of current changes with time

(d) magnitude of current remains constant

Ans: a

69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot

of bubbling is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is

(a) A.C.

(b) D.C.

(c) any of above two

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage

increases.

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(c) remains same

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

(a) parallel

(b) series

(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end

Ans: a

72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be

(a) very low

(b) low

(c) high

(d) any value

Ans: c

73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is

because switching operation produces

(a) arcs across separating contacts

(b) mechanical noise of high intensity

(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit

has high

(a) resistance

(b) inductance

(c) capacitance

(d) impedance

Ans: b

75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to

three times its length without change in volume, the new resistance

of wire becomes

(a) 1/9 times

(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times

(d) unchanged

Ans: c

76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect

it after removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will

(a) decrease

(b) increase

(c) remain constant

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

77. A field of force can exist only between

(a) two molecules

(b) two ions

(c) two atoms

(d) two metal particles

Ans: b

78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called

(a) semi-conductor

(b) super-conducto

(c) compound

(d) insulator

Ans: c

79. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of

(a) a column of mercury

(b) a cube of carbon

(c) a cube of copper

(d) the unit length of wire

Ans: a
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then

in series.

The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will

be

(a) 9 times

(b) 1/9 times

(c) 1/3 times

(d) 3 times

Ans: b

91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of

resistances ?

(a) Lorentz method

(b) Releigh method

(c) Ohm’s law method

(d) Wheatstone bridge method

Ans: d

92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is

the resistance between any two corners ?

(a) 3/2 Q

(b 6 Q

(c) 4 Q

(d) 8/3 Q

Ans: c

93. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

(a) semi-conductors

(b) D.C. circuits

(c) small resistors

(d) high currents

Ans: a

94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional

area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the

conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40

ohms the resistance of other conductor will be

(a) 160 ohms

(b) 80 ohms

(c) 20 ohms

(d) 10 ohms

Ans: d

95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2

£2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will

be
(a) 80 m

(b) 60 m

(c) 40 m

(d) 20 m

Ans: a

96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of

(a) ohms/°C

(b) mhos/ohm°C

(e) ohms/ohm°C

(d) mhos/°C

Ans: c

97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?

(a) Zinc

(b) Lead
(c) Mercury

(d) Copper

Ans:

98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply

wiring does not glow because

(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed

(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer

(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires

(d) supply wires are made of superior material

Ans: c

99. The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is that

(a) resistance must be uniform

(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance

(c) resistance must be wire wound type

(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the

temperature at negative end

Ans: a

100. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as

between that of a conductor and an insulator

(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having

average value of conductivity of metal and insulator

(c) A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied

voltage

(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of

conducting material and insulator

Ans: a
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wattage rating

(b) has higher wattage rating

(c) has large number of turns

(d) offers large number of tapping

Ans: b

102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a

copper conductor of identical cross-section, for the same electrical

resistance, is

(a) 50%

(b) 60%

(c) 100%

(d) 150%

Ans: a
103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads

(a) zero

(b) infinite

(c) high but within tolerance

(d) low but not zero

Ans: b

104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than

most of the metals but much greater than that of typical insulators.

(a) Varistors

(b) Thermistor

(c) Semi-conductors

(d) Variable resistors

Ans: c
105. All good conductors have high

(a) conductance

(b) resistance

(c) reluctance

(d) thermal conductivity

Ans: a

106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from

(a) charcoal

(b) silicon carbide

(c) nichrome

(d) graphite

Ans: c

107. Voltage dependent resistors are used

(a) for inductive circuits

(6) to supress surges

(c) as heating elements

(d) as current stabilizers

Ans: b

108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly

(a) 1840

(b) 1840

(c) 30

(d) 4

Ans: a

109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom

is

(a) 3

(b) 4
(c) 6

(d) 7

Ans: b

110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates

20 W the total power supplied by the voltage source equals

(a) 10 W

(b) 20 W

(c) 40 W

(d) 60 W

Ans: d

111. A thermistor has

(a) positive temperature coefficient

(b) negative temperature coefficient

(c) zero temperature coefficient

(d) variable temperature coefficient

Ans: c

112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively,

then according to Joule’s law heat produced will be proportional to

(a) I2Rt

(b) I2Rf

(c) I2R2t

(d) I2R2t*

Ans: a

113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of

(a) lead and zinc

(b) chromium and vanadium

(c) nickel and chromium

(d) copper and silver

Ans: c

114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro

ampere current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is

(a) 1 n-mho

(b) 106 mho

(c) 1 milli-mho

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

115. Which of the following can have negative temperature

coefficient ?

(a) Compounds of silver

(6) Liquid metals

(c) Metallic alloys

(d) Electrolytes

Ans: d

116. Conductance : mho ::

(a) resistance : ohm

(b) capacitance : henry

(c) inductance : farad

(d) lumen : steradian

Ans: a

117. 1 angstrom is equal to

(a) 10-8 mm

(6) 10″6 cm

(c) 10″10 m

(d) 10~14 m

Ans: c
r factor? Answer: true power/apparent power

2. To reduce cost of power generation?

Answer: Load factor(higher/increase)+Diversity factor(higher

increase)

3. An Ideal voltage source has internal resistance

Answer: 0Ω Resistance

4. An Ideal current source has internal resistance

Answer: ∞Ω Resistance

5. ____ is defined as the measure of instrument by which it is error

free

A. Accuracy

B. Precision

C. Resolution

6. Electrical lines of force about a negative charge are

A. Circular, anticlockwise

B. Circular, clockwise

C. Radial, inward

D. Radial, outward

Answer: C

7. A _____ meter is used a null detector in wheatstone bridge

A. Ammeter

B. Voltmeter

C. Galvanometer

Answer: voltemeter

8. A moving iron ammeter coil has few turns of thick wire in order

to have:

A. Low resistance

B. High sentivity
C. Effective damping

D. Large scale

Answer: A

9. A permanent magnet coil meter has which features

A. Low power consumption

B. no hysteresis loss

C. reduced eddy current

D. reduced damping

E. all

10. A digital signal is what in

A. Dicrete

B. Discrete in time

C. Discrete in amplitude

D. Discrete in neather time nor amplitude

E. Discrete in both amplitude and time

Answer: E

11. The EM field and current are concentrated close to the surface

of the conductor. The phenomenon is called?

Answer: Skin Effect

12. The wavelength of an EM wave after reflection at an angle on a

surface

Answer: Increases in the actual direction of propagation

13. When electric field is parallel to the plane of incidence, the

electromagnetic wave is said to be

Answer: Parallel polarized

14. Δ x H = J + D is Maxwell equation

15. Bucholz relay is used in Transformer Protection

16. Gates between following range reffered by MSI

17. Gates between following range reffered by LSI

18. Which type of system is referred by pneumatic system

A. Pressure

B. Hydraulic

C. Fluid

19. Solid grounding is used for voltages

a. above 220 kV

b. above 11 kV

c. below 660 V

d. below 115 V

Answer: C

20. Cross over distortion is

Answer: Class B

21. The channel of a JFET is between the

A. Gate and drain

B. Drain and source

C. Gate and source

D. Input and output

Answer: B

22. Velocity saturation in MOSFET is

23. Which type of engine uses maximum air fuel ratio

A. Petrol engine

B. Gas engine

C. Diesel engine

D. Gas turbine

E. Hydro turbine

24. If ROC (Region of Convergence) does not converge

25. Transfer function is

A. Mathematical model

B. System with no physical structure

C. Can be calculated through differential equations

26. In LTI system is characterized by

A. Impulse input

B. Step input

27. When the current decreases to 2% the power in bulb decrease to

28. Question about Convolution

29. Which bulb operates on lowest power

A. Night bulb

B. Neon bulb

C. GLS bulb

D. Torch lamp

Answer: D
30. Which thing happens in gas discharge lamps

Answer: Ionization in vapor or gas

31. Continuous signal in the time domain in frequency domain

32. Superposition theorem relates to

33. Which of the following relay is used in Motor for protection

Answer: Thermal relay

34. Kilowatt hour is the unit of

Answer: Energy

35. In z transform cos pi/4 is the period is equal to

36. What will be the sampling frequency that reveals the same

sampled signal

37. Which transistors are used in TTL? Bipolar

38. Which system used dc to dc high voltage gain

A. Solar system
B. Battery backup

39. Which statement is false for switching regulators

40. To decrease the power in control system we use

41. Power plant the availability of power is least for

A. Wind

B. Solar

C. Tidal

D. Geothermal

E. Bio gass

42. A diode that has a negative resistance characteristics is the

A. Schottkey diode

B. Tunnel diode

C. Hot-carrier diode

D. Laser diode
E. Zener Diode

Answer: B

43. Common mode rejection ratio is the ratio of

Answer: Differential mode gain to Common Mode gain

44. Resolution of ADC is defined as the no of bits in

Answer: Output

45. The control system is used for

46. Horizontal line in the s plane is for

47. Recharge able batteries are called? Secondary batteries

48. The batteries which are charged and discharged continuously

49. Which system needs more stability

A. Automatic washing machine

B. Traffic signal system

C. Home heating system

D. Motor with position control

50. Natural frequency in the control system represents

51. For measuring small resistance we use

Answer: Kelvin bridge

52. Hay bridge is used for the measurement of

Answer: Inductance

53. ____ bridge used for the measurement of resistance

Answer: Wheatstone bridge

54. In three phase 4 wire system how many voltages are available

Answer: Two

55. _____ acts as voltage controlled variable capacitor

Answer: Varactor

56. By which a meter after checking with no current returns to its

previous state

Answer: Controlling Torque

57. By connecting a shunt of higher value in ammeter what will

decrease

Answer: Current sensitivity decreases

58. If z transform lies in ROC then

A. System is stable

B. Inverse of system is stable

C. Both system and its inverse are unstable

D. Both system and its inverse are stable

59. If R1 is the resistance of a coil of copper at t oC and RT is the

resistance at T oC and also the resistance temperature coefficient of

copper per degree centrigrade at 0oC is 1/234.45, then Rt/RT

(A) (1+t) / (1+T)

(B) (1+ 234.45t) / (1+234.45 T)

(C) (234.45 + t) / (234.45 + T)

(D) (234.45 + t2 ) / (234.45 + T 2).

60. The shunt winding of a motor has a resistance of 85 ohm at

22oC. When the motor runs at full load, its resistance increases to

100 ohms. The resistance temperature coefficient of winding per

0oC is 0.004. The rise in temperature of the winding will be nearly

(A) 20oC

(B) 50oC

(C)70oC

(D) 100oC.

61. Wimbledon Tournament is for? Lawn Tennis

62. All organizations share

63. For minimum input a person has got the output he has used the
resources

efficiently

64. Sharjah is in? UAE

65. Against Nehru’s Report Qaid-e-Azam proposed a solution of

how many points? Answer: 14 points

66. the punishment for robbery in Islam

67. on simple series question (___, 15, 19, 24,) answer 12

68. Which of the following Rukn-e-Islam is called a shield? Answer:

Fasting

69. What is the literal meaning of word Qiblah? Answer: In front of

70. Northern end of Pakistan is occupied by western range of which

of following? Answer: Himalayan range

71. The ancient name of IRAN

72. TLRIA is to WOULD then YBVLKA is for? BEYOND

73. Which word will be in the middle select and tick that one

A. Rigorous

B. Retrospective

C. Remove

D. Revive

E. rumor

74. on 6th September India attacked

75. Washington DC is called ____ (City of Magnificent Distance)

or junior engineers electrical and electronics

Test held through NTS on 16 Oct 2016

Note: Purpose of this document is just to familiarize with pattern of NTS

test for upcoming NTDC jobs.

Paper composition:

General knowledge = 17 questions

Post related (technical) = 83 questions

General Knowledge portion

Q1: FIFA world cup 2018 will be held in?

Russia

Q2: PTI and PML (N) agreed on

(a)JIT b) High commission c)judicial commission d) NAB e)FIA

Q3: Nawaz Shareef is currently elected for prime minister for ____

times.

a)4th b)2nd c)5th d)3rd

Q4: Iran-Pak gas pipeline is called.

Peace pipeline

Q5: Operation Zarb-e-Azab is for

a)terrorism b)Political instability c)Radicalism d)All

Q6: current president of India.

Pernab MukherJee

Q7: Current chief minister of Punjab.

Shahbaz Shareef

Q8: Allai hydropower project is in

a)Punjab b)Bluchistan c)KPK d)Sindh

Q9: Ishaq Dar is:

Finance Minister

Q10: Amjad Sabri who shot dead in Karachi is:

Qawwal

Q11: APS attack is on:

a)14 dec 2014 b)16 dec 2014 c)6 dec 2014 d)8 dec 2014

Q12: Malalah Yousaf Zai shared 2014 Nobel peace prize with:
Kailash satyarthi

Q13: Pakistan won 3rd Asian Kabaddi 2016 by defeating:

a)China b)Bangladesh c)India d)Brazil

Q14: 2015 Cricket world cup champion is:

a)New Zealand b)Australia c)England d)Pakistan

Q15: Bangladesh banned which religious scholar recently?

a)Zakir Ali b)Zakir Muhammad c)Zakir Naik d)Muhammad Owais

Q16: “State of world’s children 2016” is published by

a)WHO b)UNESCO c)UNICEF d)IMF

Q17: Abdus Sattar Edhi is died due to disease?

a)Kidney b)Heart c)Diabetes d)hypoglycemia

Post Related(Technical)
Q18: In DC motor which loss decreases with increase in load

a)friction and windage loss b)core c)brush contact loss d)None

Q19: Transformer Oil should be free from

a)Odour b)Gasses c)Sulphur d)Moisture

Q20: Constant current transformer should not have

a)moveable secondary winding b)high resistance c)primary and

secondary winding surrounding core d)none

Q21: Green functions is useful for solving

a)ordinary differential equation b)partial differential equation c)first

order ordinary differential equation d) second order differential equation

Q22:In piston maximum temperature is at:

a)ring set b)Gudgeon pin c)topsides d)top centre

Q23: Copper wire which has highest tensile strength

a)Soft drawn b)medium drawn c)hard drawn d) none

Q24: Outdoor substation lightening arrestor is placed near

a)Isolator b)current transformer c)Power transformer d)Current breaker

Q25: Isolator tests

d)All

Q26: P = 3000KW, d = 30km transmission line voltage will be:

a)11KV b)66kV c)33KV d)132KV

Q27:Condensors take steam coming out of:

a)boiler b)turbine c)super heater d)Economizer

Q28: Coal which has lowest calorific value:

a)Steam coal b)Bituminous c)lignite d)Anthracite

Q29:Graphic representation between discharge and time is called:

a)monograph b)Hectograph c)Topograph d)Hydrograph

Q30:Coal from storage to boiler is taken through:

a)Buckets b)V-ballets c)Trolleys d)Manually

Q31: Main drawback of feedback system is:

a)Inaccuracy b)Inefficiency c)Insensitivity d)Instability

Q32: phase margin specifies

a)Absolute Stability b)Relative Stability c)frequency response d)

Q33:Non-linearity caused by servomotor is due to:

a)coulomb friction b)Dead space c)Saturation d)dissemination

Q34:In force-voltage analogy Inertia is analogous to:

a)Capacitance b)Inductance c)Inverse of capacitance d)Inverse of

Inductance

Q35: When control unit commands ALU to perform an operation,

machine cycle is involved in which step?

a)1st step b)3rd step c)2nd step d)4th step

Q36:Padders in receivers are used for

a)Increase sensitivity b)…… c)fine tuning d)decrease noise

Q37:PCM quantization noise depends on

a)Number of quantization levels b)Sampling rate c)Index number d)none

Q38:Graphical difference between nFET and pFET is

a)inversion bubble at gate b)Inversion bubble at source c)Inversion

bubble at drain d)all

Q39:Probability of defective bulbs = 0.12, Total bulbs = 8000 then

number of defective bulbs:

a)960 b)96 c)9600 d)96000

Q40:In poison distribution probability of success is very close to

a)1 b)0.5 c)0.2 d)0

Q41:Technique used to enable multiple broadband signals to be

transmitted over single mode fiber:

a)Subscriber b)wavelength division multiplexing c)time division

multiplexing d)frequency division multiplexing

Q42:single flip flop is constructed using

a)NAND b)AND c)OR d)NOR

Q43: ___Cells make concentration layer of lens

a)Strong b)Fibrous c)Weak d)Optical

Q44:Which communication system is digital

a)FM b)AM c)PAM d)PCM

Q45:PWM is generated by:

a)a mono stable multi vibrator b)astable multi vibrator c)Integration of

PPM signal d)derivative the PPM signal

Q46:In communication receivers the fidelity is provided by

a)Audio stage b)Detector stage c)mixer stage d)All

Q47:Balanced modulator produces

a)AM b)SSB c)USB d)DSB

Q48:Reciever with poor IF selectivity will have poor

a)sensitivity b)blocking of adjacent element channels c)Diverse

reception d)none

Q49:AGC voltage is applied to the stages which are

a)Before the detector stage b)After the detector stage c)at detector stage

d)both a & c

Q50: Closed loop system

Q51: In position control system, device which provides rate-feedback is

a)…. b)Tachogenerator c)…… d)…….

Q52:Not applicable to non-linear system

a)Functional analysis b)Nyquist criterion c)Quasi-linearization d)phase-

plane representation

Q53:A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

a)Saturation in amplifying stages b)loss of gain c)Vibrations

d)Oscilations

Q54:Basically a controller is

a)amplifier b)comparator c)clipper d)Summer

Q55:Pole shoes of DC machine fastened to pole core by

a)welding b)soldering c)steal clamp d)counter sunk

Q56:Brushes on commutator are shifted from GNP to

a)obtain highest generated voltage b)Avoid sparking c)to increase

generated efficiency d)to produce sparking

Q57:admittance is reciprocal of:

Impedance

Q58:Power in AC is consumed by

a)inductor b)Capacitor c)Resistance d)All

Q59:Negative maximum of cosine waveform is

-1 at 180 degree

Q60:RF chokes are air cored to

a)keep frequency low b)keep inductive reactance low c) to keep

frequency high d)to keep inductive reactance high

Q61:Form factor for 220V and 50HZ AC is

a)1.5 b)1.14 c)1.11 d)0.85

Q62:In common base amplifier output voltage is taken from

a)collector b)Emitter c)Base d)both A & C

Q63:Rectification

Q64:V = 50v AC, f = 10kHZ, I = 7.96mA then Inductance = L = ?

a)1mH b)10mH c)100mH d)1H

Q65:Instantenous of sinusoidal AC current at 45 degree is called

a)Peak-peak b)RMS c)Peak current d)average

Q66:Current and voltage are out of phase the power is

a)0 b)minimum c)maximum d)square root(3)VI

Q67:Form factor is ratio of

a)avg to rms b)peak to rms c)rms to avg

Q68:Mutual inductance ……….

Q69:which is universal gate

a)AND b)OR c)NOR d)XOR

Q70:127 decimal to binary

a)….. b)…… c)1111111 d)0111 1111

Q71 igital electronics base on how many number of basic operations

a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5

Q72:Programmer most likely prepare

a)general system design b)specific system design c)general program

flowchart d)specific program flowchart

Q73:Thyristor is

4 layer 3 PN junction device

Q74:In three phase half wave diode rectification, average output voltage

to per phase maximum AC voltage is

a)1 b)1.169 c)0.827 d)1.57

Q75 ata communication in telegraph line

a)simplex line b)wideband c)narrowband d)dialed service

Q76:Knowldege of transfer function gives

a)The order of System b)The time constant c)The output for any given

input d)The steady state gain e)All

Q77:Video Transmission in TV broadcast is

a)FM b)PM c)AM d)SM

Other Questions whose Answers are not validated from NTS

Q78: Scalar product of parallel vector is an addition of:

Product of their magnitude

Q79: Structured data that can be used for assessing the system is called

Date Base

Q80: horizontal and vertical component of earth magnetic field is equal ,

angle of dip is ?

60 , 90 , 45 , 30

Q81: If zener regulator current is dropped below knee current then

a)Zener will damage b)voltage will be constant

Q82: An electrode b/w cathode and anode is called ____

a)Filament b)Grid c)…. D)…..

Q83: Optical power depends on ------- associated with optical fibre

receiver. (Repeated from previous NTS discos papers)

e)All

Q84: A transformer transform ______

Power

Current

Voltage

Q85: Knowldege of transfer function gives

a)The order of System b)The time constant c)The output for any given

input d)The steady state gain

Q86: Which will enter to super heater of boiler __

Wet steam

Hot steam

Cold steam

Q87: The process of AC to Dc conversion is called ______

Rectification

Q88: The _____ field last as long as current flowing in the wire.

a)Electric field b)magnetic field c)…. d)…..

Q89: At breakaway point, several branches of root loci coalese because

the system characteristic equation has

Q90: . A semiconductor device is connected to battery, upon changing

the polarity of battery the current reduced to zero, device is

N- type semiconductor

P- type semiconductor

P-N junction

Q91: Which wave does not require any physical medium for its

propagation?

Q92: . Principle of fiber optics transmission is

Total internal reflection

Q93: form same peak value, of which signal the RMS value is smaller

Sinusoidal

Trianglar

Square

Full-wave rectified

Q94: . Filter used for extracting original signal from sampled signal

isband pass

band stop

high pass

low pass

Q95: A matrix has “m” rows and “n” columns then order of matrix is?

m*n
Q96: If a and b vectors are anti-parallel, then their resultant is

a-b

Q97: Which one is closed loop system?

Autopilot

Q98: Which is not true about VHDL?

a)Strong language b)case sensitive language c) … d)

Q99: In critically damped system, damping factor of system is

Q100: Electric dipole moment per unit volume of dielectric is called

Material for Guidance of Assistant Director (ATC ) Test in CAA

Pakistan

NTS Paper experience for AATCO May 09, 2015

Part one: English portion: 30 marks

a) Comprehension:
six questions related to importance of packaging in marketing i-e attracts

customers, helps to recognize brand name, makes specification easily

accessible and finally makes consumers to identify their brand easily

among other present products.

Question were like:

i) what is main idea of paragraph,

ii) which statement does not fulfills the arguments made in the paragraph

iii) in paragraph, “THEY” refers to

etc

b) Fill in the blanks related to tense, preposition and vocabulary; almost

7-8 Q.

c) Analogies 5-6 Q

d) Antonym like propel, unmerited

e) Synonym like pleasant=lovely

Part two: Physics portion 20 marks

Some questions that I remember along with their answers are as follows:

1) A body moves in circle with constant speed; Then which of the

following is true:

a) Work done is zero (correct confirmed)

b) Velocity is constant

etc

2) a satellite moving around the earth in orbit. which one represents its

orbital speed i-e (formulai were given in mcqs) and correct one was (

sqrtGM/R) which was option B

3) a rope of length (value was given) has tension 8oN and mass was

given and frequency of waves was asked (this was related to “stationary
waves in stretched string” and related formula that was being used in

numerical was “f=(1/2l)( sqrt(F/M) )”

4) four particles move in a constant magnetic field with same

speed;which will has highest deflection

a) a copper ion

b) helium nucleus

c) electron (correct confirmed)

d) proton

(the reson is that particles will deflects on the basis of their m/e value

electron has lowest m-e value so will deflect most)

5) superposition and constructive interference related numerical

6) organ pipe closed at one end having length (value was given) and
speed of sound was given. Fundamental frequency of note was asked:

(the formula for this numerical is “f=v/4l”)

7) numerical related to a projectile launched with speed (value was

given) at an angle of 30 degree: what time will it require to reach the

peak of trajectory

(for this question I am unable to find any formula or solution any one

having its solution method will be appreciated )

a train(or any object was given) at a distance (value was given)

produces a sound whose speed is (value was given).what time will sound

require to reach the listener?

(very easy question related to formula “t=s/v”)

9) a stone is thrown horizontally with speed 30 m/s. what will be its

speed when it hits water surface after 4 seconds

a) 30

b) 40

c) 50

d) 60

10) A person in an elevator is moving with constant speed (value I think

20 m/s was given) leaves a stone at the height of (I think 4.9 m was

given or some other value may be).what time will stone take to reach the

surface?

(I solved it like that but does not know that it is right or not:

Vi=0, g=9.8 or 10, height or s=let 4.9 m: the ny 2nd equation of motion

S=Vit_.5gtsqr) If anyone has confirm solution then please share.

11) Numerical related to velocity at the base point of simple pendulum.

I have obtained 12/20 marks in the portion.

Part three: quick math 30 marks

1) If (x+y)/(x-y)= ½ then (xy+xsqr)/(xy-xsqr)=? I took x=3/2 , y= -1/2

and solved it

2) Which of the followinh is sum of three consecutive integres:

a) 17

b) 23

c) 30(correct as 9+10+11=30)

d) 40

3) X:y,y:z was given the x:y:z?

Part four: GK, airplane and aviation related questions; marks 20

Questions related to this portion

1)C-394 has switching circuits

a) 6 (not correct as I filled it but answer key made it wrong)

8,9 were given does not know exactly

2) Capital of china=Beijing

2) term empennage mean

a) I think nose/tail like something was given and this “a”option is right

according to answer key;

3) gwadar is on -----side of makran valley

a)east

b) west(confirm correct by answer key since this was question# 91 or

92)

c) south

d) north
4) Arabian sea is located in which ocean=indian ocean

5) ATU stands for=antenna tuning unit

6) CVR stands for= cockpit voice recorder

7)ASCB stand for= avionics stansdard communication

8)FAA stands for= federal aviation administration(USA aviation )

9)HF is (single band (correct confirm by answer key) double, triple

band)

10)ILS stands for=instrument landing system

(I marked internal landing system that was wrong)

11)aerodynamically stall means

12)K-2 in in(Pakistan (correct), india, Nepal,)

13)old name of KPK=NWFP

14) border between azad Kashmir and indian occupied Kashmir is=line

of control
15) siachin glaciers is dispute between (pakistan-india, india-china,

india-nepal)

16) Pakistan location in asia=south asia

ATU?? Antenna tuning unit

CVR?? Cockpet voice recorder

FAA?? Federal aviation Administration

ASCB?? Avionics standard communication bus

Take off affect by? Hot and humid, cold and humid etc etc.

Largest PIA destinations is in which province?

what happens when aircraft stall?

Largest pia dest. Province is punjab

cold and humid could effect the takeoff

Hf is SSB

Continent without river antarctica

Buggage loading depends question i.e all of above

In ticketing COB stands for?

Intercom switches?

ILS stands for?

Change of booking but not sure

ILS instrument landing system

COB= change of booking

ILS = instrument landing system

Intercom switches = 8 (not sure)

Free falling body is (a) 1st law of motion (b) 2nd law of motion (c)
Archimedes principle (d) Bernoulli's

Fc=m(2v)^2/r

1. Province of Pakistan has most PIA destination (Punjab)

2. ILS means (Instrumental landing system)

3. Luggage should be loaded in baggage compartment of aircraft

according to (capacity of compartment)

4. Management of airport is primary duty of (airport manager)

5. In the context of tickecting COB stands for (change of booking)

6. which of the following would have most negative impact on take off

performance (Hot and Humid)

7. ATU stands for (Antenna Tuning Unit)

8. HF System is (SSB)
9. ASCB stands for(Avionics standard communication bus)

10. Intercome C-3942 has_______ monitory switches(9)

11. CVR stand for (Cockpit voice recorder)

12. FAA stand for (Federal aviation administration)

13. Capital of Afghanistan (Kabul)

14. Continent has no river (Antarctica)

Imran

handa transmission and distribution mcqs in ffc [4/29, 11:23 PM] Saad

Mustafa: 1 [4/29, 11:23 PM] Saad Mustafa: 9 [4/29, 11:23 PM] Saad

Mustafa: 16 [4/29, 11:24 PM] Saad Mustafa: 26 [4/29, 11:24 PM] Saad

Mustafa: 31 [4/29, 11:25 PM] Saad Mustafa: 52 [4/29, 11:25 PM] Saad

Mustafa: 81 [4/29, 11:25 PM] Saad Mustafa: 74 [4/29, 11:25 PM] Saad

Mustafa: 94 [4/29, 11:26 PM] Saad Mustafa: 104 [4/29, 11:26 PM] Saad
Mustafa: 111 [4/29, 11:27 PM] Saad Mustafa: 155 [4/29, 11:27 PM]

Saad Mustafa: 170

Imran

Golden Tips.. Mr: Irshad Ali Sodhar Cleared PCS 2008,CSS 2009, CSS

2010. Q : What steps are required for the preparation of CSS? Irshad Ali

Sodhar : The most important in the CSS is the understanding of

competitive examinations. However, the steps required for CSS exam

preparation are. 1 : Seek proper and sincere guidance. 2 : Choose

Optional subjects carefull. 3 : Thorough study and analysis of papers. 4 :

Preparation strategy and planning. 5 : Time distribution for subjects. 6 :

Continued practice of writing and attempting papers. 7 : Get the papers

checked by qualified experts. Besides, the CSS candidate must have

hope and will of qualifying exam, which gives him confidence in

attempting papers, along with fear of failure, which gears him to work
hard. Q : What paper presentation an examiner requires and tell the

techniques how can one get higher marks in written? Irshad Ali Sodhar :

Most importantly, the candidate shall comprehend the asked question

and ensure that he is answering to the point. The outline of every answer

attracts examiner’s attention and exhibits what candidate has to offer in

the question. In addition, the analysis and argumentativeness are crucial

for scoring high marks. Q : You have qualified three competitive

examinations consecutively. What was special in your preparation?

Irshad Ali Sodhar : It is the blessing of Almighty Allah. I think the

understanding of examination was crucial in qualifying exams. I was

fortunate to have wide interaction and guidance of my seniors and

friends during preparation. Q : It is wide perception that a poor person,

an employed one or one with family responsibilities cannot do the CSS

as it is a tough exam. What is your observation? Irshad Ali Sodhar ; My

success refutes all such perceptions. I, despite facing all those hardships,

qualified not only CSS-2009 but also CSS-2010 and PCS-2008. I rather

believe in the proverb, “Sweet are the uses of adversity”, Shakespeare

said. Harder the circumstances more firm the resolve shall be.However,

it depends upon your commitment and dedication to the goals,

counselling and guidance. If you are sincere with yourself, you can

manage time for study, whatever your engagements be. Q : Any

message. Irshad Ali Sodhar :.. The CSS is one of the best careers for the

graduates. It is a graduate level exam, which can be qualified by

ordinary candidates. They must not miss this opportunity. The required

thing to excel is commitment and dedication under proper and sincere

guidance.
Imran

100 important mcqs of transformer with answers... 1. Which of the

following does not change in a transformer ? (a) Current (b) Voltage (c)

Frequency (d) All of the above Ans: c 2. In a transformer the energy is

conveyed from primary to secondary (a) through cooling coil (b)

through air (c) by the flux (d) none of the above Ans: c 3. A transformer

core is laminated to (a) reduce hysteresis loss (b) reduce eddy current

losses (c) reduce copper losses (d) reduce all above losses Ans: b 4. The

degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a

transformer depends on (a) tightness of clamping (b) gauge of

laminations (c) size of laminations (d) all of the above Ans: d 5. The no-

load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-

load current ? (a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent (b) 2 to 5 per cent (c) 12 to 15 per

cent (d) 20 to 30 per cent Ans: b 6. The path of a magnetic flux in a

transformer should have (a) high resistance (b) high reluctance (c) low

resistance (d) low reluctance Ans: d 7. No-load on a transformer is

carried out to determine (a) copper loss (b) magnetising current (c)

magnetising current and loss (d) efficiency of the transformer Ans: c 8.

The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be (a) lkV (b) 33

kV (c) 100 kV (d) 330 kV Ans: b 9. Sumpner’s test is conducted on

trans-formers to determine (a) temperature (b) stray losses (c) all-day

efficiency (d) none of the above Ans: a 10. The permissible flux density

in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around (a) 1.7 Wb/m2 (b)

2.7 Wb/m2 (c) 3.7 Wb/m2 (d) 4.7 Wb/m2 Ans: a 11. The efficiency of a

transformer will be maximum when (a) copper losses = hysteresis losses

(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses (c) eddy current losses =

copper losses (d) copper losses = iron losses Ans: d 12. No-load current

in a transformer (a) lags behind the voltage by about 75° (b) leads the
voltage by about 75° (c) lags behind the voltage by about 15° (d) leads

the voltage by about 15° Ans: a 13. The purpose of providing an iron

core in a transformer is to (a) provide support to windings (b) reduce

hysteresis loss (c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path (d)

reduce eddy current losses Ans: c 14. Which of the following is not a

part of transformer installation ? (a) Conservator (b) Breather (c)

Buchholz relay (d) Exciter Ans: d 15. While conducting short-circuit test

on a transformer the following side is short circuited (a) High voltage

side (b) Low voltage side (c) Primary side (d) Secondary side Ans: b 16.

In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area

(a) Low voltage winding (b) High voltage winding (c) Primary winding

(d) Secondary winding Ans: a 17. A transformer transforms (a) voltage

(b) current (c) power (d) frequency Ans: c 18. A transformer cannot

raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because (a) there is no need
to change the D.C. voltage (b) a D.C. circuit has more losses (c)

Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate

of change of flux is zero (d) none of the above Ans: c 19. Primary

winding of a transformer (a) is always a low voltage winding (b) is

always a high voltage winding (c) could either be a low voltage or high

voltage winding (d) none of the above Ans: c 20. Which winding in a

transformer has more number of turns ? (a) Low voltage winding (b)

High voltage winding (c) Primary winding (d) Secondary winding Ans:

b 21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of (a) 100 per

cent (b) 98 per cent (c) 50 per cent (d) 25 per cent Ans: b 22. In a given

transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant

irrespective of load changes are (a) friction and windage losses (b)

copper losses (c) hysteresis and eddy current losses (d) none of the

above Ans: c 23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is

(a) natural air cooling (b) air blast cooling (c) oil cooling (d) any of the

above Ans: c 24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the

applied voltage by an angle of about (a) 180° (b) 120″ (c) 90° (d) 75°

Ans: d 25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon (a) supply

frequency (b) load current (c) power factor of load (d) both (b) and (c)

Ans: d 26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to (a)

provide fresh air for cooling the transformer (b) supply cooling oil to

transformer in time of need (c) protect the transformer from damage

when oil expends due to heating (d) none of the above Ans: c 27.

Natural oil cooling is used for transformers up to a rating of (a) 3000

kVA (b) 1000 kVA (c) 500 kVA (d) 250 kVA Ans: a 28. Power

transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at (a) nearly full

load (b) 70% full load (c) 50% full load (d) no load Ans: a 29. The

maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is (a) at no load (b) at

50% full load (c) at 80% full load (d) at full load Ans: b 30. Transformer

breaths in when (a) load on it increases (b) load on it decreases (c) load

remains constant (d) none of the above Ans: b 31. No-load current of a

transformer has (a) has high magnitude and low power factor (b) has

high magnitude and high power factor (c) has small magnitude and high

power factor (d) has small magnitude and low power factor Ans: d 32.

Spacers are provided between adjacent coils (a) to provide free passage

to the cooling oil (b) to insulate the coils from each other (c) both (a) and

(b) (d) none of the above Ans: a 33. Greater the secondary leakage flux

(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f. (b) less will be the primary

induced e.m.f. (c) less will be the primary terminal voltage (d) none of

the above Ans: a 34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up

transformer is (a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary

(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux (c) to decrease the

magnitude of mag-netizing current (d) to provide all above features Ans:

c 35. The power transformer is a constant (a) voltage device (b) current

device (c) power device (d) main flux device Ans: d 36. Two

transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon

their (a) leakage reactance (b) per unit impedance (c) efficiencies (d)

ratings Ans: b 37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the

transformer and K is the transformation ratio then the equivalent

secondary resistance referred to primary will be (a) R2/VK (b) R2IK2

(c) R22!K2 (d) R22/K Ans: b 38. What will happen if the transformers

working in parallel are not connected with regard to polarity ? (a) The

power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power

factor of common load (b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short

circuit (c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their

kVA ratings (d) none of the above Ans: b 39. If the percentage
impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different,

then (a) transformers will be overheated (b) power factors of both the

transformers will be same (c) parallel operation will be not possible (d)

parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which

the two transformers operate will be different from the power factor of

the common load Ans: d 40. In a transformer the tappings are generally

provided on (a) primary side (b) secondary side (c) low voltage side (d)

high voltage side Ans: c 41. The use of higher flux density in the

transformer design (a) reduces weight per kVA (6) reduces iron losses

(c) reduces copper losses (d) increases part load efficiency Ans: a 42.

The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of

(a) ionizing air (b) absorbing moisture (c) cleansing the transformer oil

(d) cooling the transformer oil. Ans: b 43. The chemical used in breather

is (a) asbestos fiber (b) silica sand (c) sodium chloride (d) silica gel Ans:
d 44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary

inductances. The statement is (a) true (b) false Ans: b 45. The

transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of (a) volts (b)

amperes (c) kW (d) kVA Ans: d 46. The noise resulting from vibrations

of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as (a) magnetostrication

(b) boo (c) hum (d) zoom Ans: c 47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer

varies as CBmax = maximum flux density) (a) Bmax (b) Bmax1-6 (C)

Bmax1-83 (d) B max Ans: b 48. Material used for construction of

transformer core is usually (a) wood (b) copper (c) aluminium (d) silicon

steel Ans: d 49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is

usually (a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm (b) 4 mm to 5 mm (c) 14 mm to 15 mm

(d) 25 mm to 40 mm Ans: a 50. The function of conservator in a

transformer is (a) to project against’internal fault (b) to reduce copper as

well as core losses (c) to cool the transformer oil (d) to take care of the
expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of

temperature of sur-roundings Ans: d 51. The highest voltage for

transmitting electrical power in India is (a) 33 kV. (6) 66 kV (c) 132 kV

(d) 400 kV Ans: d 52. In a transformer the resistance between its

primary and secondary is (a) zero (b) 1 ohm (c) 1000 ohms (d) infinite

Ans: d 53. A transformer oil must be free from (a) sludge (b) odour (c)

gases (d) moisture Ans: d 54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on (a)

auto-transformers (b) air-cooled transformers (c) welding transformers

(d) oil cooled transformers Ans: d 55. Gas is usually not liberated due to

dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil temperature exceeds (a)

50°C (b) 80°C (c) 100°C (d) 150°C Ans: d 56. The main reason for

generation of harmonics in a transformer could be (a) fluctuating load

(b) poor insulation (c) mechanical vibrations (d) saturation of core Ans:

d 57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum

efficiency around (a) 90% load (b) zero load (c) 25% load (d) 50% load

Ans: d 58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable

in the material for transformer core ? (a) Mechanical strength (6) Low

hysteresis loss (c) High thermal conductivity (d) High permeability Ans:

c 59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when (a) load is

unbalanced only (b) load is balanced only (c) on balanced as well as

unbalanced loads (d) none of the above Ans: b 60. Delta/star transformer

works satisfactorily when (a) load is balanced only (b) load is

unbalanced only (c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads (d) none of

the above Ans: c 61. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection

against (a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself (b) electrical fault

outside the transformer in outgoing feeder (c) for both outside and inside

faults (d) none of the above Ans: a 62. The magnetising current of a

transformer is usually small because it has (a) small air gap (b) large
leakage flux (c) laminated silicon steel core (d) fewer rotating parts Ans:

a 63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer

? (a) Frequency (b) Voltage (c) Current (d) Any of the above Ans: a 64.

Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the

material for transformer core ? (a) Low hysteresis loss (b) High

permeability (c) High thermal conductivity (d) Adequate mechanical

strength Ans: c 65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon (a)

load current (b) load current and voltage (c) load current, voltage and

frequency (d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor Ans: a

66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have (a) high

reluctance (b) low reactance (c) high resistance (d) low resistance Ans: b

67. Noise level test in a transformer is a (a) special test (b) routine test

(c) type test (d) none of the above Ans: c 68. Which of the following is

not a routine test on transformers ? (a) Core insulation voltage test (b)
Impedance test (c) Radio interference test (d) Polarity test Ans: c 69. A

transformer can have zero voltage regulation at (a) leading power factor

(b) lagging power factor (c) unity power factor (d) zero power factor

Ans: a 70. Helical coils can be used on (a) low voltage side of high kVA

transformers (b) high frequency transformers (c) high voltage side of

small capacity transformers (d) high voltage side of high kVA rating

transformers Ans: a 71. Harmonics in transformer result in (a) increased

core losses (b) increased I2R losses (c) magnetic interference with

communication circuits (d) all of the above Ans: d 72. The core used in

high frequency transformer is usually (a) copper core (b) cost iron core

(c) air core (d) mild steel core Ans: c 73. The full-load copper loss of a

trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be (a) 6400

W (b) 1600 W (c) 800 W (d) 400 W Ans: d 1.74. The value of flux

involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is (a) average value (b)

r.m.s. value (c) maximum value (d) instantaneous value Ans: c L.75.

Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces (a) hysteresis loss (b)

eddy current losses (c) copper losses (d) all of the above Ans: a 76.

Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ? (a)

Primary winding (b) Secondary winding (c) Low voltage winding (d)

High voltage winding Ans: d 77. Power transformers are generally

designed to have maximum efficiency around (a) no-load (b) half-load

(c) near full-load (d) 10% overload Ans: c .78. Which of the following is

the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding

transformer ? (a) Hysteresis losses are reduced (b) Saving in winding

material (c) Copper losses are negligible (d) Eddy losses are totally

eliminated Ans: b 79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible

because (a) the current on secondary side is negligible (b) the voltage on

secondary side does not vary (c) the voltage applied on primary side is
low (d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer Ans: c 80.

Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not

have equal percentage impedance. This is likely to result in (a) short-

circuiting of the secondaries (b) power factor of one of the transformers

is leading while that of the other lagging (c) transformers having higher

copper losses will have negligible core losses (d) loading of the

transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings Ans: d 81. The

changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of

atmospheric temperature during day and night is taken care of by which

part of transformer (a) Conservator (b) Breather (c) Bushings (d)

Buchholz relay Ans: a 82. An ideal transformer is one which has (a) no

losses and magnetic leakage (b) interleaved primary and secondary

windings (c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings (d)

core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal (e) none of the
above Ans: a 83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but

reduced frequency, its (a) flux density remains unaffected (b) iron losses

are reduced (c) core flux density is reduced (d) core flux density is

increased Ans: d 84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains

practically constant from noload to fullload because (a) value of

transformation ratio remains constant (b) permeability of transformer

core remains constant (c) core flux remains practically constant (d)

primary voltage remains constant (c) secondary voltage remains constant

Ans: c 85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load

such that (a) copper loss = iron loss (b) copper loss < iron loss (c) copper

loss > iron loss (d) none of the above Ans: a 86. If the supply frequency

to the transformer is increased,”the iron loss will (a) not change (b)

decrease (c) increase (d) any of the above Ans: c 87. Negative voltage

regulation is indicative that the load is (a) capacitive only (b) inductive
only (c) inductive or resistive (d) none of the above Ans: a 88. Iron loss

of a transformer can be measured by (a) low power factor wattmeter (b)

unity power factor wattmeter (c) frequency meter (d) any type of

wattmeter Ans: a 89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-

circuited its iron core will be (a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking

place in it due to high flux density (b) hot because primary will carry

heavy current (c) cool as there is no secondary current (d) none of above

will happen Ans: a 90. The transformer laminations are insulated from

each other by (a) mica strip (6) thin coat of varnish (c) paper (d) any of

the above Ans: b 91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type

transformer ? (a) Circular type (b) Sandwich type (c) Cylindrical type

(d) Rectangular type Ans: b 92. During open circuit test of a transformer

(a) primary is supplied rated voltage (b) primary is supplied full-load

current (c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage (d) primary is

supplied rated kVA Ans: a 93. Open circuit test on transformers is

conducted to determine (a) hysteresis losses (b) copper losses (c) core

losses (d) eddy current losses Ans: c 94. Short circuit test on

transformers is conducted to determine (a) hysteresis losses (b) copper

losses (c) core losses (d) eddy current losses Ans: b 95. For the parallel

operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should

have (a) same efficiency (b) same polarity (c) same kVA rating (d) same

number of turns on the secondary side. Ans: b 96. The transformer oil

should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity. (a) low,low (b)

high,high (c) low,high (d) high,low Ans: a 97. The function of breather

in a transformer is (a) to provide oxygen inside the tank (b) to cool the

coils during reduced load (c) to cool the transformer oil (d) to arrest flow

of moisture when outside air enters the transformer Ans: d 98. The

secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always

kept closed ? (a) Step-up transformer (b) Step-down transformer (c)

Potential transformer (d) Current transformer Ans: d 99. The size of a

transformer core will depend on (a) frequency (b) area of the core (c)

flux density of the core material (d) (a) and (b) both Ans: d 100. Natural

air cooling is generally restricted for transformers up to (a) 1.5 MVA (b)

5 MVA (c) 15 MVA (d) 50 MVA Ans: a

Imran

NEPRA: Pakistan Largest Hydro Power Plant ? Pakistan Smallest Hydro

Power Plant ? Present Short Fall in Pakistan ? (6000MW) K-Electric

Thermal Power Generation Capacity ? How much Auxiliary

Consumption Allow in Thermal Power Plant ? NTDC Load Bearing

Capacity will be in 2020 (in MWs) ? On which Heat Cycle Steam Power

Plants Run ? Total Number of Independent Power Producers (IPP's) in

Pakistan? Short Fall In Pakistan in MW ? Pakistan Load Increasing by

which every year ? 6-7 % Reason of Loadsheading in Pakistan ? How

Much % Power Production from Oil from Total Consumption oil in

Pakistan ? In which Gear Steam Turbine running at very low speed ? If

angle between Current and Voltage is 90 Degree then the power will be

? How Much Power Production from Gas from total Power Production

in Pakistan .? Calorific Values Measured in Energy / ? (Weight .Mass ,

Volume , Capacity ) Semi Fixed Tariff ? Demand Tariff ? Depreciation

of Power Plant Equipment ? 5 MCQ's From Tariff + 30-35 MCQ from

Heat Rate + Calorific Values and Boilers Used In Power Plants ..

Imran

Istalam is kissing of Hajr Aswad. • Islam has 2 major sects. • There are 5

fundaments of Islam. • 2 types of faith. • 5 Articles of faith. • Tehlil

means the recitation of Kalima. • Deen-e-Hanif is an old name of Islam.

• First institution of Islam is Suffah. • Haq Mahar in Islam is fixed only

400 misqal. • Ijma means ageing upon any subject. • Qayas means

reasoning by analogy. • There are four schools of thought of Islamic

Law. • Janatul Baki is situated in Madina. • Masjid-e-Hanif is located in

Mina. • JANAT UL MOALA is a graveyard in MECCA. • Qazaf: false

accusation of adultery punishable with 80 lashes. • Lyla-tul-Barrah

means the Night of Forgiveness. • Karam-un -Katibin means Illustrious

writers. • Oldest mosque on earth is Kaabatullah. • 1st Kalima=Tayyab,

2nd =Shahadat, 3rd =Tamjeed, 4th =Tauheed, 5th =Astaghfar, 6th Kufar

• Qiblah means anything in front. • Saabi is one who changes his

religion. • Sidrat-ul-Mantaha means last tree of the Eternity. • Jaabi is

one who collects Zakat. • First collection of Ahadith is Sahifah-e-

Saadiqa. • Saying of Prophet are called Wahi Ghair Matlloo. • In iman-e-

Mufassal essential beliefs are 7 in number. • The most exalted angels are

four. • Greatest angel as per Islam is Jibra‘eel. • Each human being is

attended permanently by two angels. • Barzakh: time period between

death and Day of Judgment. • Another name of surah Ali-Isra is bani

Israel

National Transmission and Dispatch Company For junior engineers

electrical and electronics Test held through NTS on 16 Oct 2016 Note:

Answers are strictly according to NTS answer keys. So, you may or may

not agree with answers. Purpose of this document is just to familiarize

with pattern of NTS test for upcoming NTDC jobs. Paper composition:

General knowledge = 17 questions Post related (technical) = 83

questions General Knowledge portion Q1: FIFA world cup 2018 will be

held in? Russia Q2: PTI and PML (N) agreed on (a)JIT b) High

commission c)judicial commission d) NAB e)FIA Q3: Nawaz Shareef is

currently elected for prime minister for ____ times. a)4th b)2nd c)5th

d)3rd Q4: Iran-Pak gas pipeline is called. Peace pipeline Q5: Operation

Zarb-e-Azab is for a)terrorism b)Political instability c)Radicalism d)All

Q6: current president of India. Pernab MukherJee Q7: Current chief

minister of Punjab. Shahbaz Shareef Q8: Allai hydropower project is in

a)Punjab b)Bluchistan c)KPK d)Sindh Q9: Ishaq Dar is: Finance

Minister Q10: Amjad Sabri who shot dead in Karachi is: Qawwal Q11:

APS attack is on: a)14 dec 2014 b)16 dec 2014 c)6 dec 2014 d)8 dec

2014 Q12: Malalah Yousaf Zai shared 2014 Nobel peace prize with:

Kailash satyarthi Q13: Pakistan won 3rd Asian Kabaddi 2016 by

defeating: a)China b)Bangladesh c)India d)Brazil Q14: 2015 Cricket

world cup champion is: a)New Zealand b)Australia c)England

d)Pakistan Q15: Bangladesh banned which religious scholar recently?

a)Zakir Ali b)Zakir Muhammad c)Zakir Naik d)Muhammad Owais Q16:

“State of world’s children 2016” is published by a)WHO b)UNESCO

c)UNICEF d)IMF Q17: Abdus Sattar Edhi is died due to disease?

a)Kidney b)Heart c)Diabetes d)hypoglycemia Post Related(Technical)

Q18: In DC motor which loss decreases with increase in load a)friction

and windage loss b)core c)brush contact loss d)None Q19: Transformer

Oil should be free from a)Odour b)Gasses c)Sulphur d)Moisture Q20:

Constant current transformer should not have a)moveable secondary

winding b)high resistance c)primary and secondary winding surrounding

core d)none Q21: Green functions is useful for solving a)ordinary

differential equation b)partial differential equation c)first order ordinary

differential equation d) second order differential equation Q22:In piston

maximum temperature is at: a)ring set b)Gudgeon pin c)topsides d)top

centre Q23: Copper wire which has highest tensile strength a)Soft drawn

b)medium drawn c)hard drawn d) none Q24: Outdoor substation

lightening arrestor is placed near a)Isolator b)current transformer

c)Power transformer d)Current breaker Q25: Isolator tests d)All Q26: P

= 3000KW, d = 30km transmission line voltage will be: a)11KV b)66kV

c)33KV d)132KV Q27:Condensors take steam coming out of: a)boiler

b)turbine c)super heater d)Economizer Q28: Coal which has lowest

calorific value: a)Steam coal b)Bituminous c)lignite d)Anthracite

Q29:Graphic representation between discharge and time is called:

a)monograph b)Hectograph c)Topograph d)Hydrograph Q30:Coal from

storage to boiler is taken through: a)Buckets b)V-ballets c)Trolleys

d)Manually Q31: Main drawback of feedback system is: a)Inaccuracy

b)Inefficiency c)Insensitivity d)Instability Q32: phase margin specifies

a)Absolute Stability b)Relative Stability c)frequency response d)

Q33:Non-linearity caused by servomotor is due to: a)coulomb friction

b)Dead space c)Saturation d)dissemination Q34:In force-voltage

analogy Inertia is analogous to: a)Capacitance b)Inductance c)Inverse of

capacitance d)Inverse of Inductance Q35: When control unit commands

ALU to perform an operation, machine cycle is involved in which step?

a)1st step b)3rd step c)2nd step d)4th step Q36:Padders in receivers are

used for a)Increase sensitivity b)…… c)fine tuning d)decrease noise

Q37:PCM quantization noise depends on a)Number of quantization

levels b)Sampling rate c)Index number d)none Q38:Graphical difference

between nFET and pFET is a)inversion bubble at gate b)Inversion

bubble at source c)Inversion bubble at drain d)all Q39:Probability of

defective bulbs = 0.12, Total bulbs = 8000 then number of defective

bulbs: a)960 b)96 c)9600 d)96000 Q40:In poison distribution probability

of success is very close to a)1 b)0.5 c)0.2 d)0 Q41:Technique used to

enable multiple broadband signals to be transmitted over single mode

fiber: a)Subscriber b)wavelength division multiplexing c)time division

multiplexing d)frequency division multiplexing Q42:single flip flop is

constructed using a)NAND b)AND c)OR d)NOR Q43: ___Cells make

concentration layer of lens a)Strong b)Fibrous c)Weak d)Optical

Q44:Which communication system is digital a)FM b)AM c)PAM

d)PCM Q45:PWM is generated by: a)a mono stable multi vibrator

b)astable multi vibrator c)Integration of PPM signal d)derivative the

PPM signal Q46:In communication receivers the fidelity is provided by

a)Audio stage b)Detector stage c)mixer stage d)All Q47:Balanced

modulator produces a)AM b)SSB c)USB d)DSB Q48:Reciever with

poor IF selectivity will have poor a)sensitivity b)blocking of adjacent

element channels c)Diverse reception d)none Q49:AGC voltage is

applied to the stages which are a)Before the detector stage b)After the

detector stage c)at detector stage d)both a & c Q50: Closed loop system

Q51: In position control system, device which provides rate-feedback is

a)…. b)Tachogenerator c)…… d)……. Q52:Not applicable to non-linear

system a)Functional analysis b)Nyquist criterion c)Quasi-linearization

d)phase-plane representation Q53:A control system with excessive

noise, is likely to suffer from a)Saturation in amplifying stages b)loss of

gain c)Vibrations d)Oscilations Q54:Basically a controller is a)amplifier

b)comparator c)clipper d)Summer Q55:Pole shoes of DC machine

fastened to pole core by a)welding b)soldering c)steal clamp d)counter

sunk Q56:Brushes on commutator are shifted from GNP to a)obtain

highest generated voltage b)Avoid sparking c)to increase generated

efficiency d)to produce sparking Q57:admittance is reciprocal of:

Impedance Q58:Power in AC is consumed by a)inductor b)Capacitor

c)Resistance d)All Q59:Negative maximum of cosine waveform is -1 at

180 degree Q60:RF chokes are air cored to a)keep frequency low b)keep

inductive reactance low c) to keep frequency high d)to keep inductive

reactance high Q61:Form factor for 220V and 50HZ AC is a)1.5 b)1.14

c)1.11 d)0.85 Q62:In common base amplifier output voltage is taken

from a)collector b)Emitter c)Base d)both A & C Q63:Rectification

Q64:V = 50v AC, f = 10kHZ, I = 7.96mA then Inductance = L = ?

a)1mH b)10mH c)100mH d)1H Q65:Instantenous of sinusoidal AC

current at 45 degree is called a)Peak-peak b)RMS c)Peak current

d)average Q66:Current and voltage are out of phase the power is a)0

b)minimum c)maximum d)square root(3)VI Q67:Form factor is ratio of

a)avg to rms b)peak to rms c)rms to avg Q68:Mutual inductance ……….

Q69:which is universal gate a)AND b)OR c)NOR d)XOR Q70:127

decimal to binary a)….. b)…… c)1111111 d)0111 1111 Q71:Digital

electronics base on how many number of basic operations a)2 b)3 c)4

d)5 Q72:Programmer most likely prepare a)general system design

b)specific system design c)general program flowchart d)specific

program flowchart Q73:Thyristor is 4 layer 3 PN junction device Q74:In

three phase half wave diode rectification, average output voltage to per

phase maximum AC voltage is a)1 b)1.169 c)0.827 d)1.57 Q75:Data

communication in telegraph line a)simplex line b)wideband

c)narrowband d)dialed service Q76:Knowldege of transfer function

gives a)The order of System b)The time constant c)The output for any

given input d)The steady state gain e)All Q77:Video Transmission in

TV broadcast is a)FM b)PM c)AM d)SM Other Questions whose

Answers are not validated from NTS Q78: Scalar product of parallel

vector is an addition of: Product of their magnitude Q79: Structured data

that can be used for assessing the system is called Date Base Q80:

horizontal and vertical component of earth magnetic field is equal ,

angle of dip is ? 60 , 90 , 45 , 30 Q81: If zener regulator current is

dropped below knee current then a)Zener will damage b)voltage will be
constant Q82: An electrode b/w cathode and anode is called ____

a)Filament b)Grid c)…. D)….. Q83: Optical power depends on -------

associated with optical fibre receiver. (Repeated from previous NTS

discos papers) e)All Q84: A transformer transform ______ Power

Current Voltage Q85: Knowldege of transfer function gives a)The order

of System b)The time constant c)The output for any given input d)The

steady state gain Q86: Which will enter to super heater of boiler __ Wet

steam Hot steam Cold steam Q87: The process of AC to Dc conversion

is called ______ Rectification Q88: The _____ field last as long as

current flowing in the wire. a)Electric field b)magnetic field c)…. d)…..

Q89: At breakaway point, several branches of root loci coalese because

the system characteristic equation has Q90: . A semiconductor device is

connected to battery, upon changing the polarity of battery the current

reduced to zero, device is N- type semiconductor P- type semiconductor

P-N junction Q91: Which wave does not require any physical medium

for its propagation? Q92: . Principle of fiber optics transmission is Total

internal reflection Q93: form same peak value, of which signal the RMS

value is smaller Sinusoidal Trianglar Square Full-wave rectified Q94: .

Filter used for extracting original signal from sampled signal isband pass

band stop high pass low pass Q95: A matrix has “m” rows and “n”

columns then order of matrix is? m*n Q96: If a and b vectors are anti-

parallel, then their resultant is a-b Q97: Which one is closed loop

system? Autopilot Q98: Which is not true about VHDL? a)Strong

language b)case sensitive language c) … d) Q99: In critically damped

system, damping factor of system is Q100: Electric dipole moment per

unit volume of dielectric is called

Istalam is kissing of Hajr Aswad. • Islam has 2 major sects. • There are 5

fundaments of Islam. • 2 types of faith. • 5 Articles of faith. • Tehlil

means the recitation of Kalima. • Deen-e-Hanif is an old name of Islam.

• First institution of Islam is Suffah. • Haq Mahar in Islam is fixed only

400 misqal. • Ijma means ageing upon any subject. • Qayas means

reasoning by analogy. • There are four schools of thought of Islamic

Law. • Janatul Baki is situated in Madina. • Masjid-e-Hanif is located in

Mina. • JANAT UL MOALA is a graveyard in MECCA. • Qazaf: false

accusation of adultery punishable with 80 lashes. • Lyla-tul-Barrah

means the Night of Forgiveness. • Karam-un -Katibin means Illustrious

writers. • Oldest mosque on earth is Kaabatullah. • 1st Kalima=Tayyab,

2nd =Shahadat, 3rd =Tamjeed, 4th =Tauheed, 5th =Astaghfar, 6th Kufar

• Qiblah means anything in front. • Saabi is one who changes his

religion. • Sidrat-ul-Mantaha means last tree of the Eternity. • Jaabi is

one who collects Zakat. • First collection of Ahadith is Sahifah-e-

Saadiqa. • Saying of Prophet are called Wahi Ghair Matlloo. • In iman-e-

Mufassal essential beliefs are 7 in number. • The most exalted angels are

four. • Greatest angel as per Islam is Jibra‘eel. • Each human being is

attended permanently by two angels. • Barzakh: time period between

death and Day of Judgment. • Another name of surah Ali-Isra is bani

Israel

Imran

Pakistan Study NTS exam ( Most repeated Questions) • Tomb of Noor

Jehan is located at Lahore. • Attock Fort was built by Akbar. • Heer

Ranjha was written by Waris Shah. • Sohni Mahiwal was written by

Hashim Shah. • Sindh is called Bab-ul-Islam. • Chack was the father of

Raja Dahir. • Keti Bunder is the name of a coastal area. • French Beach

is located at Karachi. • Ranikot Fort is located near Hyderabad • The

total length of coastline of Pakistan is 1046. • Cease Fire line came into

existence in 1949. • Pakistan can be divided into six natural regions. •

High of K2 is 8611 Meters. • The coldest place in Pakistan is Sakardu. •

Most of the Hosiery Industry is located in Karachi. • The Heavy

Mechanical complex was established with the help of China at Taxila. •

The first Census in the subcontinent took place in the year 1901. • Wheat

is the major Kharif Crop of Pakistan. • Kotli is the city of Azad Kashmir.

• The SOS village built in Faisalabad. • Pakistan celebrated Quaid’s year

in 2001. • Pakistani Cricketer Saeed Anwar declared to join Afghan

Jehad. • Maulana Shibly wrote books on Islamic History. • The first

translation of the Holy Quran was in Sindhi. • Qutab Minar is in Delhi. •

Cholistan Desert is in Bahawalpur. • Pakistan can be divided per climate

into 4 regions. • Hashim Shah wrote Sassi Punnu. • The British

Communal Award was announced in 1932. • Land between two rivers is

called Do, aba. • Shah Jahan Constructed Jamia Masjid Thatta. • Sindh

River flows from Bolan River. • Kohat is the oldest cantonment of

Pakistan. • Muslims were interested in the art of Calligraphy. • The

length of Durand Line is 2240 km. • The length of Pakistan’s common

border with Iran is 805 km. • Chinese province adjoining Pakistan is

Sinkiang. • Jinnah Barrage is originated on the river Sindh. • The height

of Tarbela Dam is 500 feet. • Wah city of Pakistan is linked with

cement, arms and ammunition industry. • Sukkur barrage is completed in

1932.

Imran

NTS/ PPSC General knowledge QuestiOns #General_Knowledge A

Lines joining place of same earthquake intensity are known as? Answer

Isoseismal lines Q.Largest ocean (Pacific) Smallest (Arctic) Q.Cold

Desert? Ans. GOBI in asia Q.Days and nights are in ans (March).

Q.leading producer of Silver. ans (Mexco) * Zakat in gold 87.48.grams

in Silver 612.36grams * Al-Aqsa Mosque in jerusalem. Its 3rd holiest

site for muslims. Prophet Muhammad(s.a.w) stayed here during night

journey(Mairaj) christan burnt it on 21Aug: 1969 Q. How many Ghazwa

are mentioned in holy Quran? 12 Q. First sahabi who was martyed? Ans

hazrat Haris r.a Q. Sahabia first martyred in history of Islam? Ans hazrat

sumaiya Q. Police force was set up during Caliphate? Ans hazrat umar

Q. First person of madina embraced (kbol) Islam? Ans Hazrat sawad a.s

Q. First muslim recited Quran openly in Makkah? Ans Hazrat Abdullah

bin masod Australian * jalalabad city in afghanistan destroyed by USA *

jeddah seaport of saudi arabia on Red sea * Gold and Diamond mining

in south Africa → Scientific Instruments And Their Uses ● Altimeter–

An instrument used for measuring altitudes in aircraft. ● Ammeter–An

instrument for measuring electric currents in amperes. ● Anemometer–

An instrument for measuring the force and velocity of wind. ●

Audiometer–An instrument for measuring the intensity of sound. ●

Audiophone–An instrument for improving imperfect sense of hearing. ●

Barometer–An apparatus used for measuring the atmospheric pressure. ●

Calorimeter–An instrument used for measuring quantities of heat. ●

Carburettor–An apparatus used in an internal combustion engine for

charging air with petrol vapour. ● Cardiograph–A medical instrument

for tracing heart movements. ● Chronometer–An instrument kept on

board ships for measuring accurate time. ● Crescograph–It is used for

measuring growth in plants. ● Dynamo–The origin of electricity in a

dynamo is the transformation of mechanical energy into electrical

energy. ● Galvanometer–An instrument for measuring electric currents

of small magnitude. ● Hydrometer–An instrument used for measuring

the specific gravity of liquids. ● Hydrophone–An instrument for

recording sound under water. ● Hygrometer–An instrument for

measuring humidity in air. ● Lactometer–An Instrument for measuring

the relative density of milk. ● Manometer–An instrument for measuring

the pressure of a gases. ● Mariner's compass–An apparatus used by

sailors to know the direction. The needle always points north-south. ●

Microphone–An instrument used for converting sound waves into

electrical vibrations and to magnify the sound. ● Microscope–An

instrument used for magnifying minute objects by a lens system. ●

Odometer–An instrument by which the distance covered by wheeled

vehicles is measured. ● Phonograph–An instrument for reproducing

sound. ● Photometer–It is an instrument for measuring the intensity of

light; a device for comparing the luminous intensity of sources of light.

● Polarimeter–An instrument used for measuring optical activity. ●

Pyrometer–An instrument for recording high temperatures from a great

distance. ● Radar–It is an abbreviated form of Radio, Angle, Direction

and Range. It is used for detecting the direction and range of an

approaching plane by means of radio microwaves. ● Rain Gauge–An

apparatus for recording rainfall at a particular place. ● Radiometer–An

instrument for measuring the emission of radiant energy. ●

Refractometer–An instrument to measure refractive indexes. ●

Seismometer or Seismograph–An instrument for recording earthquake

shocks. ● Sextant–An instrument used for measuring the altitude of the

sun and other heavenly bodies. ● Spectrometer–An instrument for

measuring the energy distribution of a particular type of radiation. ●

Speedometer–An instrument which indicates the speed at which a

vehicle is moving. ● Spherometer–An instrument for measuring

curvature of surfaces

Imran

#Islamic_Studies 1. The word Muhammad (SAW) as a name has been

mentioned in Quran only: Ans. 4 times 2. Khateeb –ul-Anbia is a title of:

Ans. Hazrat Shoaib (AS) 3. Hazrat Umer (RA) appointed as custodian of

Bait-ul-Mal: Ans. Abdullah bin Masud 4. The effective Zakat System

can ensure the elimination of: Ans. Poverty 5. A Verse of the Holy

Quran indicates the name of: Ans. Hazrat Zaid R.A 6. Masjid Zu

Qiblatain is situated in ....... Ans. Madina 7. Who was a Historian,

justice, philospher as well as Politician? Ans. Abdur Rehman bin

Khaldun 8. Which Surah of Quran has Bismillah twice: Ans. Al Namal

9. Had -e- Qazaf (False Accusation) is: Ans. 80 Lashes 10. Ada Bin

Hatam Thai embraced Islam in: Ans. 9 Hijri 11. Wealth obtained from a

mine is liable to: Ans. Khumus 12. Sadaq-e-Eid-ul-fitr has been

proclaimed in the year: Ans. 2 Hijri 13. Imam-e-Dar-ul-Hijrat was a title

of: Ans. Imam Malik 14. The seal affixed on important letters by

prophet (SAW) was in the Custody of: Ans. Hazrat khuzaifa (RA) 15.

Ameen –ul-Umat is the title of Hazrat: Ans. Abu-ubaida bin Al jaraah

(RA) 16. River Neil was declared as Sayed-ul-Anhar by Hazrat: Ans.

Hazrat Umar R.A 17. Umm-ul-Masakeen was the title given to one of

the wives of the Prophet (SAW): Ans. Hazrat Zainab benet Khuzima

(R.A) 18. . Hazrat Muhammad (SAW) gave the key of Bait Ullah

permanently to Hazrat: Ans. Usman bin Talha 19. Arafat gathering is

held on: Ans. 9 Zil hajj 20. Which one of the following is included

amongst the Ushera-e- Mubhashera: Ans. Saad Bin Abi waqas

Imran

Pakistan Study NTS exam all post • Tomb of Noor Jehan is located at

Lahore. • Attock Fort was built byAkbar. • Heer Ranjha was written by

Waris Shah. • Sohni Mahiwal was written by Hashim Shah. • Sindh is

called Bab-ul-Islam. • Chack was the father of Raja Dahir. • Keti Bunder
is the name of a coastal area. • French Beach is located at Karachi. •

Ranikot Fort is located near Hyderabad • The total length of coastline of

Pakistan is 1046. • Cease Fire line came into existence in 1949. •

Pakistan can be divided into six natural regions. • High of K2 is 8611

Meters. • The coldest place in Pakistan is Sakardu. • Most of the Hosiery

Industry is located in Karachi. • The Heavy Mechanical complex was

established with the help of China at Taxila. • The first Census in the

subcontinent took place in the year 1901. • Wheat is the major Kharif

Crop of Pakistan. • Kotli is the city of Azad Kashmir. • The SOS village

built in Faisalabad. • Pakistan celebrated Quaid’s year in 2001. •

Pakistani Cricketer Saeed Anwar declared to join Afghan Jehad. •

Maulana Shibly wrote books on Islamic History. • The first translation

of the Holy Quran was in Sindhi. • Qutab Minar is in Delhi. • Cholistan

Desert is in Bahawalpur. • Pakistan can be divided per climate into 4

regions. • Hashim Shah wrote Sassi Punnu. • The British Communal

Award was announced in 1932. • Land between two rivers is called Do,

aba. • Shah Jahan Constructed Jamia Masjid Thatta. • Sindh River flows

from Bolan River. • Kohat is the oldest cantonment of Pakistan. •

Muslims were interested in the art of Calligraphy. • The length of

Durand Line is 2240 km. • The length of Pakistan’s common border

with Iran is 805 km. • Chinese province adjoining Pakistan is Sinkiang. •

Jinnah Barrage is originated on the river Sindh. • The height of Tarbela

Dam is 500 feet. • Wah city of Pakistan is linked with cement, arms and

ammunition industry. • Sukkur barrage is completed in 1932.

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