10thWeekOnline Planner Test

(Question Paper)
Section – I: English
Phrasal verbs – correct usage

Practice 1
Use the verbs and particles from the following boxes to make phrasal verbs and use them to fill in the
blanks:

Back Change Feel Hold Do

Look Play Set Throw Knock

On After Down Back On

Over In Off Up Over

Find some phrasal verbs to fill the spaces in the following sentences:

1. Even though he was proved wrong, he absolutely refused to ___________.

2. There were two pilots on the flight to Australia and they ___________ after half the flight was
completed.

3. Can you ___________ my cat for a few days while I am away on business?

4. The baby has been quite ill this week and yesterday, after dinner, _______________ her dinner.

5. If the children ___________ while we are out Kathy, put them to bed and don't let them watch
TV in their rooms, OK?

6. I have a splitting headache and I certainly don't ___________ to going to watch a concert.

7. There was a stupid man in the post office asking about the history of stamps. He ___________
the line of people for fifteen minutes!

8. We both left university the same year and ___________ our own business called "Fluffy Fings".

9. Don't get him worried about money. If I were you, I'd ___________ the importance of getting
the loan or he will panic.

10. The government should ___________ their fine words about foreign aid with real increases in
the money they give to the Third World.

Practice 2
Use the verbs and particles from the following boxes to make phrasal verbs and use them to fill in the
blanks:

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 Add Break Work Burst
Strip Carry Win Stand

Up Into Down
Over Out

Find some phrasal verbs to fill the spaces in the following sentences:

11. "It doesn't ___________," the detective said. "In your alibi, you said you were out of town, but
three people said they saw you in a bar near here."

12. It can take many years for hopeful actors to ___________ Hollywood movies.

13. My husband loves ___________ old cars and then working on them for months until they look
like new.

14. It's a very difficult job I'm asking you to ___________, but you will be well paid if you succeed.

15. They argued a lot before the wedding, but it all ___________ well in the end and they're still
very happy together.

16. One of the bride's family ___________ crying halfway through the ceremony, but we all carried
on as if nothing had happened.

17. If we want to buy that company, we'll have to ___________ the founder. That old guy is the key
to everything.

18. That painting ___________ from all the others, doesn't it? It's fantastic!

Practice 3
Use the verbs and particles from the following boxes to make phrasal verbs and use them to fill in the
blanks:

Block Blow Find Get

Look Make Shut Turn

Out Off Up
Forward Down For

Find some phrasal verbs to fill the spaces in the following sentences:

19. The police in the west of the town ___________ four blocks to prevent the public getting too
close to the fire.

20. When certain chemicals are mixed together in the right circumstances, they can ___________.

21. I never did ___________ who was knocking on my door late last night. I was in bed at the time
and didn't want to answer it.

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22. How long do you stay in bed after you wake? Do you ___________ immediately?

23. The children are really ___________ to Christmas this year. We're going skiing in Austria!

24. The group leader stayed calm when the weather got bad and told everyone to ___________ the
red light they could see on the horizon.

25. "The tank's going to explode," Riley shouted as the flames got closer. "___________ the gas. Do
it! Turn the valve!"

26. If Jacob dressed more smartly for his job interviews, he wouldn't be ___________ all the time!

Practice 4
Use the verbs and particles from the following boxes to make phrasal verbs and use them to fill in the
blanks:

Add Clear Draw Find Keep

Make Pull Stand Turn Lay

Up By About Against
Over Out Off Down

Find some phrasal verbs to fill the spaces in the following sentences:

27. First he buys the flowers, then the theater tickets. Then he gets all embarrassed when we ask
about Mary. It all ___________ to them two going out I think.

28. Kathy was two hours late and we had to __________ in the cold waiting for her.

29. Try and ___________ the meeting as long as possible because we don't have the final budget
plans yet!

30. The Americans ___________ of the 1980 Moscow Olympics after the invasion of Afghanistan.

31. Because of this economic downturn, we may have to ___________ up to 100 people.

32. I never ___________ about my wife's affairs until well after the divorce.

33. He got a lot of people to lend him money by ___________ he represented an up and coming film
company. Then he disappeared overnight.

34. And he ___________ with all the money he had been given.

35. Thecorruptionscandal caused the resignation of three minister andeventually,even the prime
minister ___________.

36. To help your heart Mr. Jones, I suggest you ___________ all fatty foods for a few months.

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Practice 5
Use the verbs and particles from the following boxes to make phrasal verbs and use them to fill in the
blanks:

Come Call Climb Drop Hand

Work Leave Move Put Take

In After Off On
Into Away Round Up

Find some phrasal verbs to fill the spaces in the following sentences:

37. John ___________ his mother in many ways. They are very similar.

38. Before the ship could ___________, the crew had to wait for a late passenger.

39. Feeling bored in prison, a lot of prisoners decide to ___________ a new hobby or interest.

40. I lost my wallet but went to the police station where someone had _______ it _______.

41. The most dangerous part of a flight is when the plane is ___________.

42. I had a few minutes and I was in the area so I decided to ___________.

43. Even though this is a film about politics, the writer manages to ___________ many references to
football which I thought very strange.

44. He ___________ a lot of money when his rich French uncle died a couple of years ago.

45. The doctor was ___________ urgently while at the party.

46. I was so tired last night that I ___________ in front of the TV.

Practice 6
Use the verbs and particles from the following boxes to make phrasal verbs and use them to fill in the
blanks:

Blow Carry Cover End Give

Let Pass Run Talk Touch

In Around To Back
Over For Up On

Find some phrasal verbs to fill the spaces in the following sentences:

47. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soon ___________.

48. If you see Jane tomorrow, ___________ my best wishes to her for her new baby.

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49. We went to that new cinema first, then the pizza restaurant and we ___________ in the bar
near the old bridge.

50. Parents often worry about their teenage children ___________ a huge phone bill

51. It's been raining for three hours now and it doesn't look like it will ___________ today.

52. He tried to ___________ his deception but he was discovered when he left an incriminating
photocopy on his desk.

53. He isn't a good boxer but his trainer keeps ___________ him ___________ as though he was
world champion.

54. The professor spent two hours speaking about the economy without even ___________
globalisation.

55. The money we owe you for un–used vacation time will ___________ to next month's cheque.

56. With that accent of his, he could ___________ a Frenchman I think.

Practice 7
Complete this exercise by choosing one of the phrasal verbs given in the box below. Each phrasal verb
is used one time. Sometimes, you must use a pronoun between the main verb and the particle. If this
is the case, the required pronoun can be found in brackets after the space.
Remember the tenses!

57. I'm tired and stressed and the kids have been _________________ all day. They don't seem to
know how to behave properly.

58. I met Harold in the supermarket. He was _________________ you and I said you were fine and
really happy about this new job you've got.

59. I'll _________________ (your boss) for dinner tonight if he isn't busy. It will make a good
impression, don't you think?

60. If your boss accuses you of missing yesterday's meeting on purpose, I will _________________
(you) by saying you had to do something for me.

61. I can hardly read this document. Go and _________________ (it) so it is at least twice the size.

62. These statistics are too confusing. We need to _________________ (them) down into the four
different seasons of the year for a clearer picture.

63. If someone phones me while I am in the meeting, I will have to _________________ for a few
minutes as I am expecting a really important call.

64. After the First World War, the Austro–Hungarian empire was _________________ into several
pieces.
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65. Sales are up 10% on this period last year. We need to _________________ that if we are to save
this company.

66. When I told her about her mother's illness being incurable, she _________________ tears.

67. He _________________ the police inspector by buying his wife a nice present and
complimenting his car, hoping it would help his son who was being held in custody.

68. The trade union leader may be a problem with these new conditions but Mr. Harvis seems to
think he can be _________________ with a few thousand dollars.

breakoff butter up
break into ask after
back up ask over
break down blow up
act up build on
buy off break up

Practice 8
Complete this exercise by choosing one of the phrasal verbs given in the box below. Each phrasal verb
is used one time. Sometimes, you must use a pronoun between the main verb and the particle. If this
is the case, the required pronoun can be found in brackets after the space.
Remember the tenses!

69. They decided to name their son Arthur like after the husband's father even though she wanted
to _________________ (him) her brother Vincent.

70. We don't want to _________________ the baseball match now. A lot of people have already
bought tickets.

71. My father was _________________ into the army when he was only 17.

72. My aunt is a type of nurse. She _________________ elderly people at a residential care centre.

73. The 3 men who robbed the First National Bank were confronted by the most technologically
advanced security system developed for a bank but they still managed to _________________
(it).

74. With property prices so high now, you should _________________ on your house before they
fall again.

75. She needs to _________________ to what her boss is doing behind her back. She will go to jail
with him!

76. Seeing as I have the day off today, I will _________________ on my correspondence.

77. Try and get your brother to ______________. He looks thoroughly miserable!!

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78. Every air crash _________________ at the public's confidence in the airlines.

79. The new owners will be here on Monday so we need to _________________ totally by then.

80. The police say they are _________________ on the serial killer after his ex–wife came to them.

81. I fear Mary has _________________ the flu again. She catches it off the other kids at school.

82. John planned the speech meticulously and everything _________________ really well. It was a
great success.

83. The union _________________ to the restructuring plan after several weeks of tough
negotiation.

84. The photocopier isn't working so I have to _________________ this document by hand.

85. Mandy will be away all next week so I want you to _________________ her.

86. When I arrived to vote, I found that my name had been _________________ the list – someone
else had voted in my name!

87. The passenger pigeon _________________ in the USA in the 19th Century.

88. I think the government should _________________ all laws pertaining to public speech and
expression.

89. We are totally lost Mike. Why don't we _________________ and try and find our original path.

90. The general meeting _________________ for two hours longer than anticipated.

91. If we want that yacht, you realise we will have to _________________ all our savings from the
bank.

92. Stop beating about the bush, Tony. What are you _________________ when you say "more
money"? Do you want a pay rise or not?

carry off die out

cover for double back
do away with care for
copy out cross off
close in come down with
draw out drive at
catch up cheer up
call after come off
catch on call up
come round call off
drag on cash in
clear out chip away

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Practice 9
Complete this exercise by choosing one of the phrasal verbs given in the box below. Each phrasal verb
is used one time. Sometimes, you must use a pronoun between the main verb and the particle. If this
is the case, the required pronoun can be found in brackets after the space.
Remember the tenses!

93. As a teacher, doing a lot of paperwork really _________________ my free time.

94. The governments of the western world should _________________ their responsibilities
towards the poorer nations.

95. Some European economies are _________________ those of the Asian world where growth is
often double the rate.

96. You two go ahead to the disco without me. I don't _________________ going out tonight. I am
too tired.

97. She was attacked by two youths but managed to _________________ (them) successfully and
call the police.

98. When your dad _________________ what you did at school, you'll be grounded for a year!!

99. Thank you everyone for your attention. I would like to _________________ by asking if there is
anything you didn't understand.

100. The killer escaped capture because the police failed to _________________ important clues
found at the start of the investigation.

101. She can't walk very well, but _________________ by using a sort of electric bicycle. Very hi–
tech!

102. My husband _________________ with my mother better than his own. It's very strange!

103. Some people still insist that OJ Simpson _________________ murder.

104. There's no way we can _________________ on this money. I will have to find a part–time job.

105. We got lost one time in Paris and it was so difficult to _________________ to this old man
where it was we wanted to go. In the end, we gave up.

106. When young, our son _________________ all sorts of things at school and was consequently
always in trouble. After the age of about 15, he really calmed down.

follow up feel like

get away with get about
fall behind finish off
get over get on
get up to face up to
fight off eat into
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 find out get by

Section – II: General Knowledge

Geography

107. The port of Banku is situated in–

a) Thailand b) Iran c) U.A.E. d) Azerbaijan

108. Madagascar Island is situated in–

a) Indian Ocean b) Pacific Ocean c) Atlantic Ocean d) None of these

109. The country known as heaven on earth

a) Korea b) Nepal c) Canada d) None

110. The highest waterfalls in the world is the–

a) VictoriaFalls b) Angel Falls c) Jog Falls d) Niagara Falls

111. Which planet of the solar system spins on its axis at the slowest rate?
a) Jupiter b) Mars c) Neptune d) Venus

112. Which planet is nearest to the Sun?

a) Mars b) Jupiter c) Venus d) Mercury

113. Match the following–

(a) 23rdSeptember 1. Autumnal Equinox
(b) 21stMarch 2.Vernal Equinox
(c) 21stJune 3.Summer Solstice
(d) 22ndDecember 4.Winter Solstice
a) 1,3,2,4 b) 2,1,3,4 c) 4,3,2,1 d) 1,2,3,4

114. Removable of fertile content from the soil by nature and man is called –
a) Soil Erosion b) Soil Conservation c) Soil Formation d) None of these

115. _______ receives the highest rainfall in India.

a) Cherrapunji b) Mawsynram c) Assam d) Darjeeling

116. The soil found in the Arid zone is known as–

a) Red Soil b) Laterite Soil c) Black Soil d) Desert Soil

117. Resources that can be used or reproduced again and again are –
a) Renewable resources b) Non–Renewable resources
c) Human resources d) None of these

118. The first man to reach North Pole was–

a) Robert Peary b) Ronald Amundson c) Erratosthenes d) None of these

119. The first explorer to reach the South Pole was–

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 a) Robert Peary b) Ronald Amundson c) Erratosthenes d) None of these

120. Australia was discovered by–

a) James Cook b) Robert Peary c) Ronald Amundson d) None of these

121. In the northern hemisphere,the wind blowing from the Horselatitudes to the Doldrums is called–
a) Trade Wind b) Jet Stream c) Westerlies wind d) Polarwind

122. The ocean surface currents follow clockwise circulatory path in the northern parts of the pacific
and Atlantic oceans due to the:
a) Corioli’s force b) Impact of the prevailin wind
c) Density difference in sea water d) None of these

123. Which one of the following countries does not border the Caspian Sea?
a) Kazakhstan b) Russia c) Armenia d) Azerbaijan

124. Which of the following country is known as Pearl of the Caribbean Sea?
a) Canada b) Greenland c) Iceland d) Cuba

125. The highest Peak of UK is

a) Kilimanjaro b) Mount Logan c) Atlas d) None

126. Which one of the following Continents is the Largest in area?

a) Europe b) North America c) South America d) Australia

Section – III: Quantitative Aptitude

PROBLEM SOLVING

127. If the number 258 * 4 is divisible by 11, the digit in the place of* should be?
a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6

The number of prime factors in the product 610  17   11 is?
17 27
128.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5

129. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their difference as quotient
and 30 as remainder.The number is
a) 220000 b) 220030 c) 220060 d) 220090

130. In a division sum the divisor is 10 times the quotient 5 times the remainder.If the remainder is 46
determine the dividend?
a) 5336 b) 5326 c) 5426 d) 5556

131. What will be the remainder obtained when 96 + 1 will be divided by 8?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

132. Find the unit digit of the expansion 2551 + 362 +64
a) 6 b) 8 c) 7 d) 0
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133. Find the number of divisors of 1420?
a) 12 b) 10 c) 16 d) 15

134. Which of the following can never be in the ending of a perfect square?
a)4 b) 6 c) 0 d)7

135. Find the remainder when the number 9100 is divided by 8?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

136. The product of three consecutive natural numbers, it first of which is an even number is always
divisible by?
a) 6 b) 12 c) 24 d) 56

137. What is the unit digit of 23!

a) 3 b) 6 c) 0 d) Cannot be determined

138. How many composite factors does223272 have?

a) 25 b) 24 c) 23 d) 26

139. Find the remainder when 121  122  123 is divided by 12?
a) 6 b) 5 c) 8 d) 10

140. Find the remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + 5! + ….+100! Is divided by 2

a) 1 b) 0 c) 3 d) None of these

141. Find the unit digit of 2344?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 7 d) 9

142. How many odd factors does 2354 have?

a) 12 b) 4 c) 5 d) 20

143. Find the remainder when 645 is divided by 7?

a) 1 b) 6 c) 0 d) 5

144. A number when divided by 15 leaves remainder 12. Find the remainder when the same number
is divided by 5?
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 0

145. Find the unit place of 242 764

a) 4 b) 8 c) 6 d) 2

146. How many numbers from 1 to 1000 are divisible by 17?

a) 59 b) 58 c) 57 d) 60

Section – IV: Legal Aptitude (Economics)

147. Which of the following is the oldest share market in India?
a) Bombay b) Madras c) Calcutta d) Delhi
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148. The “Ease of Doing Business Index” is prepared and published by:
a) World Trade Organisation b) World Bank Group
c) United Nations d) European Union

149. Which is the single policy rate to unambiguously signal the stance of monetary policy as recently
recommended by RBI?
a) PLR b) Repo c) Bank d) CLR

150. Which of the following is a Direct Tax?

a) Excise duty b) Sales Tax c) Income Tax d) None of the above

151. One rupee note in India was issued by:

a) Reserve Bank of India b) Union Government of India
c) Governor of Reserve Bank of India d) Central Bank of India

152. What is the NASDAQ?

1.World’s first electronic stock market
2.World’s largest shipping fleet
3.World’s highest postal office
4.Another name for New York Stock Exchange
a) 1 & 4 are correct b) Only 1 is correct c) Only 4 is correct d) All are incorrect

153. As per United Nations Report, which 2 countries will lead global urban population growth
between 2010 and 2050?
a) Nigeria and USA b) India and China
c) Ukraine and Brazil d) Pakistan and Bangladesh

154. As per a recent World Bank report, which country, has overtaken Japan to become the world’s
3rd largest economy in terms of PPP (Purchasing Power Parity)?
a) India b) China c) Brazil d) Indonesia

155. Census takes place in India:

a) Every 20 years b) Every 10 years c) Every 15 years d) Every 5 years

156. Income Tax in India is:

1.Indirect Tax
2.Progressive Tax
3.Direct Tax
4.Proportional Tax
a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 4 are correct c) 2 & 3 are correct d) 3 & 4 are correct

157. Planning Commission has been scrapped and replaced by a new think tank called:
a) National Institution for Transforming India Ayog
b) National Rural Development Commission
c) National Commission for Progress and Development
d) National Research and Development Commission

158. The term Fiscal Deficit means:

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 a) Total receipts minus expenditure
b) Total receipts minus interest payments on external debt
c) Revenue receipts minus expenditure
d) Revenue receipts minus defence expenditure

159. The functions of the Reserve Bank of India are:

I. Issuing all notes and coins
II. Distributing all notes and coins
III. Formulating monetary policy
IV. Acting as agent of government in respect of India’s membership of the IMF
a) I, II and III b) II and III c) II, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV

160. What do you understand by Bear Raid?

a) An attempt to bring down the price of strong short selling
b) Simultaneous buying of shares and debentures in view of getting more values in near future
c) Higher rate of price paid for particular government share or debentures
d) Any of the above

161. The foreign exchange reserves of India include:

a) Gold b) SDRs c) Foreign Currencies d) All of these

162. Among the remedies of inflation, we cannot include:

a) Better capacity utilization b) Lowering bank rate
c) Reducing budgetary deficit d) An efficient public distribution system

163. According to 2011 census, which is the Second Most Populous State in India?
a) Bihar b) West Bengal c) Maharashtra d) Andhra Pradesh

164. _______ is NOT a Central Government Tax.

a) Income Tax b) Custom Duty c) Land Revenue d) Service Tax

165. As per United Nations Report, which two countries will lead global urban population growth
between 2010 and 2050.
a) Nigeria and USA b) India and China
c) Ukraine and Brazil d) Pakistan and Bangladesh

166. JNNURM means:

a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
b) Jawaharlal Nehru Natural Urban Rural Mission
c) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Rural Mission
d) None of these

Section – V: Logical Reasoning

167. Between 7 and 8 o’clock when do the two hands coincide with each other?
2 6 5
a) 7 : 38 b) 7 : 38 c) 7: 38 d) None of these
11 11 11

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168. Find the angles between the two hands at 7:30?
a) 45° b) 35° c) 55° d) 25°

169. Find the angle between the two hands at 8:20

a) 130° b) 230° c) 160° d) Both (a) and (b)

170. A clock is set correct today. If it gains 6 minutes in 5 hours, then after how many days will it
again show the correct time?
a) 23 days b) 24 days c) 25 days d) 26 days

171. A clock is set correct today. If it loses 4 hours in 10 days, then after how many days will it again
show the correct time?
a) 27 days b) 30 days c) 32 days d) 33 days

172. If clock A and clock B are both set correct today.Clock A gains 2 hours in 1 day and Clock B loses 3
hours in 1 day. After how many days will both the clocks simultaneously show the correct time?
a) 9 days b) 18 days c) 12 days d) 26 days

173. If clock A and clock B are both set correct today.Clock A gains 6 minutes in 10 hours and Clock B
gains 12 minutes in 8 hours. After how many days will both the clocks simultaneously show the
correct time?
a) 100 days b) 90 days c) 50 days d) 60 days

174. A clock was found to be 2 minutes slow at 6:00 am in the morning and 2 minutes fast at 2: 00 pm
in afternoon. When did the clock show the correct time?
a) 11:30 am b) 11:00 am c) 10:00 am d) 12:00 pm

175. A clock was found to be 10 minutes slow at 6:00 am in the morning and 10 minutes fast at 4:00
pm in the evening. When did the clock show the correct time?
a) 11:00 am b) 12:00 pm c) 1:00 pm d) 2:00 pm

176. How many times in a day do the two hands of a clock intersect with each other?
a) 11 b) 22 c) 44 d) 40

177. How many times in a day are the two hands of a clock perpendicular with each other?
a) 11 b) 22 c) 44 d) 40

178. How many times in a day are the two hands of a clock opposite to each other?
a) 11 b) 22 c) 44 d) 40

179. How many times in a day are the two hands of a clock in a straight line?
a) 11 b) 22 c) 44 d) 40

180. How many times in a day are the two hands opposite to each other from 11 am to 9pm?
a) 10 b) 9 c) 11 d) 8

181. How many times in a day do the two hands coincide with each other from 11 am to 9pm?
a) 10 b) 9 c) 11 d) 8

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182. How many times in a day are the two hands perpendicular to each other from 11 am to 9pm?
a) 20 b) 19 c) 18 d) 17

183. Between 6 and 7 o clock when are the two hands opposite with each other?
2 6 3
a) 6 : 03 b) 6 : 05 c) 6 : 08 d) None of these
11 11 11

184. By how many degrees does the hour hand move in 25 minutes?
a) 12 b) 12.5 c) 13.7 d) 25

185. By how many degrees does the minute hand move in 5 minutes?
a) 22 b) 30 c) 32.5 d) 35

186. If the hands of a clock coincide every 60 minutes, then the clock is said to be?
a) Running slow b) Running fast c) Moving right time d) Cannot be determined

PASSAGE BASED CR
Test 1
Read the given passages and answer the following questions.

187. When individual students are all treated equally in that they have identical exposure to
curriculum material, the rate, quality, and quantity of learning will vary from student to student.
If all students are to master a given curriculum, some of them need different types of help than
others, as any experienced teacher knows.
If the statements above are both true, which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on
the basis of them?
a) Unequal treatment, in a sense, of individualstudents is required in order to ensure equality
with respect to the educational tasks they master.
b) The rate and quality of learning, with learningunderstood as the acquiring of the ability to
solve problems within a given curriculum area, depend on the quantity of teaching an
individual student receives in any given curriculum.
c) The more experienced the teacher is, the morethe students will learn.
d) All students should have identical exposure tolearn the material being taught in any given
curriculum.
e) Teachers should help each of their students tolearn as much as possible.

188. George: Some scientists say that global warming will occur because people are releasing large
amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere by burning trees and fossil fuels. We can see,
though, that the predicted warming is occurring already. In the middle of last winter, we had a
month of springlike weather in our area, and this fall, because of unusually mild temperatures,
the leaves on our town’s trees were three weeks late in turning color.
Which one of the following would it be most relevantto investigate in evaluating the conclusion
of George’sargument?
a) whether carbon dioxide is the only cause ofglobal warming
b) when leaves on the trees in the town usuallychange color
c) what proportion of global emissions of carbondioxide is due to the burning of trees byhumans
d) whether air pollution is causing some trees inthe area to lose their leaves
e) whether unusually warm weather is occurringelsewhere on the globe more frequently
thanbefore
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189. Famous personalities found guilty of many types of crimes in well–publicized trials are
increasingly sentenced to the performance of community service, though unknown defendants
convicted of similar crimes almost always serve prison sentences. However, the principle of
equality before the law rules out using fame and publicity as relevant considerations in the
sentencing of convicted criminals.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following conclusions?
a) The principle of equality before the law isrigorously applied in only a few types of criminal
trials.
b) The number of convicted celebrities sentencedto community service should equal the number
of convicted unknown defendants sentenced to community service.
c) The principle of equality before the law canproperly be overridden by other principles in some
cases.
d) The sentencing of celebrities to communityservice instead of prison constitutes a violation of
the principle of equality before the law in many cases.
e) The principle of equality before the law doesnot allow for leniency in sentencing.

190. The National Association of Fire Fighters says that 45 percent of homes now have smoke
detectors, whereas only 30 percent of homes had them 10 years ago. This makes early detection
of house fires no more likely, however, because over half of the domestic smoke detectors are
either without batteries or else inoperative for some other reason.
In order for the conclusion above to be properly drawn, which one of the following assumptions
would have to be made?
a) Fifteen percent of domestic smoke detectors wereinstalled less than 10 years ago.
b) The number of fires per year in homes withsmoke detectors has increased.
c) Not all of the smoke detectors in homes are battery operated.
d) The proportion of domestic smoke detectors thatare inoperative has increased in the past ten
years.
e) Unlike automatic water sprinklers, a properlyfunctioning smoke detector cannot by itself
increase fire safety in a home.

191. It takes 365.25 days for the Earth to make onecomplete revolution around the Sun. Long–
standing convention makes a year 365 days long, with an extra day added every fourth year, and
the year is divided into 52 seven–day weeks. But since 52 times 7 is only 364, anniversaries do
not fall on the same day of the week each year. Many scheduling problems could be avoided if
the last day of each year and an additional day every fourth year belonged to no week, so that
January 1 would be a Sunday every year.
The proposal above, once put into effect, would be most likely to result in continued scheduling
conflicts for which one of the following groups?
a) people who have birthdays or otheranniversaries on December 30 or 31
b) employed people whose strict religiousobservances require that they refrain from working
every seventh day
c) school systems that require students to attendclasses a specific number of days each year
d) employed people who have three–day breaksfrom work when holidays are celebrated on
Mondays or Fridays
e) people who have to plan events several yearsbefore those events occur

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192. The workers at Bell Manufacturing will shortly go on strike unless the management increases
their wages. As Bell’s president is well aware, however, in order to increase the workers’ wages,
Bell would have to sell off some of its subsidiaries. So, some of Bell’s subsidiaries will be sold.
The conclusion above is properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed?
a) Bell Manufacturing will begin to suffer increasedlosses.
b) Bell’s management will refuse to increase itsworkers’ wages.
c) The workers at Bell Manufacturing will not begoing on strike.
d) Bell’s president has the authority to offer theworkers their desired wage increase.
e) Bell’s workers will not accept a package ofimproved benefits in place of their desired wage
increase.

193. Marianna: The problem of drunk driving has been somewhat ameliorated by public education
and stricter laws. Additional measures are nevertheless needed. People still drive after drinking,
and when they do the probability is greatly increased that they will cause an accident involving
death or serious injury.
David: I think you exaggerate the dangers of driving while drunk. Actually, a driver who is in an
automobile accident is slightly less likely to be seriously injured if drunk than if sober.
In responding to Marianna’s argument, David makeswhich one of the following errors of
reasoning?
a) He contradicts himself.
b) He assumes what he is seeking to establish.
c) He contradicts Marianna’s conclusion withoutgiving any evidence for his point of view.
d) He argues against a point that is not one thatMarianna was making.
e) He directs his criticism against the personmaking the argument rather than directing itagainst
the argument itself.

194. From a magazine article: Self–confidence is adangerous virtue: it often degenerates into the vice
of arrogance. The danger of arrogance is evident to all who care to look. How much more
humane the twentieth century would have been without the arrogant self–confidence of a Hitler
or a Stalin!
The author attempts to persuade by doing all of thefollowing EXCEPT
a) using extreme cases to evoke an emotionalresponse
b) introducing value–laden terms, such as “vice”
c) illustrating the danger of arrogance
d) appealing to authority to substantiate anassertion
e) implying that Hitler’s arrogance arose fromself–confidence

195. A study was designed to establish what effect, if any, the long–term operation of offshore oil rigs
had on animal life on the bottom of the sea. The study compared the sea–bottom communities
near rigs with those located in control sites several miles from any rig and found no significant
differences. The researchers concluded that oil rigs had no adverse effect on sea–bottom
animals.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the researchers’ conclusion?
a) Commercially important fish depend onsea–bottom animals for much of their food, so a drop
in catches of those fish would be evidence of damage to sea–bottom communities
b) The discharge of oil from offshore oil rigstypically occurs at the surface of the water, and
currents often carry the oil considerable distances before it settles on the ocean floor.

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 c) Contamination of the ocean floor from sewageand industrial effluent does not result in the
destruction of all sea–bottom animals but instead reduces species diversity as well as density
of animal life.
d) Only part of any oil discharged into the oceanreaches the ocean floor: some oil evaporates,
and some remains in the water as suspended drops.
e) Where the ocean floor consists of soft sediment,contaminating oil persists much longer than
where the ocean floor is rocky.

196. Scientists are sometimes said to assume thatsomething is not the case until there is proof that it
is the case. Now suppose the question arises whether a given food additive is safe. At that point,
it would be neither known to be safe nor known not to be safe. By the characterization above,
scientists would assume the additive not to be safe because it has not been proven safe. But
they would also assume it to be safe because it has not been proven otherwise. But no scientist
could assume without contradiction that a given substance is both safe and not safe; so this
characterization of scientists is clearly wrong.
Which one of the following describes the technique of reasoning used above?
a) A general statement is argued to be false byshowing that it has deliberately been formulated
to mislead.
b) A statement is argued to be false by showingthat taking it to be true leads to
implausibleconsequences.
c) A statement is shown to be false by showingthat it directly contradicts a second statement
that is taken to be true.
d) A general statement is shown to be uninformativeby showing that there are as many specific
instances in which it is false as there are instances in which it is true.
e) A statement is shown to be uninformative byshowing that it supports no independently
testable inferences.

197. During the 1980s the homicide rate in Britain rose by 50 percent. The weapon used usually was a
knife. Potentially lethal knives are sold openly and legally in many shops. Most homicide deaths
occur as a result of unpremeditated assaults within the family.
Even if these are increasing, they would probably not result in deaths if it were not for the
prevalence of such knives. Thus the blame lies with the permissiveness of the government that
allows such lethal weapons to be sold.
Which one of the following is the strongest criticism of the argument above?
a) There are other means besides knives, such asguns or poison, that can be used to accomplish
homicide by a person who intends to cause the death of another.
b) It is impossible to know how many unpremeditatedassaults occur within the family, since
many are not reported to the authorities.
c) Knives are used in other homicides besidesthose that result from unpremeditated assaults
within the family.
d) The argument assumes without justificationthat the knives used to commit homicide are
generally purchased as part of a deliberate plan to commit murder or to inflict grievous harm
on a family member.
e) If the potentially lethal knives referred to areordinary household knives, such knives were
common before the rise in the homicide rate; but if they are weaponry, such knives are not
generally available in households.

LOGICAL CONSISTENCY
Identify if the following are valid or invalid
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198. To be a man, it is sufficient to be humane. Anhad is a man, he must be humane.

199. Daily riyaaz is sufficient condition to be a versatile singer. Amiya is not a versatile singer. He does
not do daily riyaaz.

200. Avriti is surely healthy. It is said that having an apple daily is necessary for being healthy. And
Avriti has an apple every day.

201. Yoga is a necessary condition for a focused mind. Neerja is focused. She must be practicing yoga.

202. only when you get the most number of medals in the Olympics can you be Michael Phelps. Here
is Phelps. He has the most number of medals in the Olympics.

203. No one can be both an Earthling and a Martian. XzaXza is not an Earthling. He must not be a
martian.

204. No one can wear botha saree and frock. Rohini does not wear a frock. She must be wearing a
saree.

205. You cannot be both an engineer and a doctor. Aditya is an engineer. He must not be a doctor.

206. You cannot be both an actor and a politician. Hiten is an actor. So he must be a politician.

207. Doctors are either working or learning or teaching. Dr. Varma is teaching today. So he must not
be learning or working.

Identify the following sets of statements as logically consistent or inconsistent. Explain your
reasoning.

Example: All men have blonde hair. I am a man. I have brown hair.

Answer: These three beliefs are logically inconsistent. If the first two statements are true, the third
must be false. If the third is true, the first or second must be false. They cannot all be simultaneously
true.

208. I am a man. I have brown hair. You have blonde hair.

209. All dogs are brown. Some dogs are not brown.

210. Killing another person is always wrong. It is not wrong to kill a person in self–defense. It is also
not wrong to kill people in times of war.

211. Everyone should be tolerant because there is no way to judge another person's beliefs.

212. Nobody is ever wrong. 2+2=4. Harry is wrong in believing that 2+2=5.

213. This sentence is false.

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214. If God exists then Bob is mistaken. Bob is not mistaken. God exists.

215. It is raining. It is not raining.

216. I love beer and I hate beer.

217. Light is simultaneously both a wave and a particle.

DEDUCTIVE LOGIC
Identify the correct conclusions and conversions in the following questions.

Conversion of Conversion of Conclusions and their

Sl.No. Premises
premise 1 premise 2 conversions
All red are green
218.
All green are yellow
All p are q
219.
All s are q
All p are q
220.
All p are s
All p are q
221.
No q are s
All p are q
222.
No p are s
All p are q
223.
No s are p
All p are q
224.
Some p are s
All p are q
225.
Some q are s
All p are q
226.
Some s are q
All p are q
227.
Some p are not s
All p are q
228.
Some q are not s
All p are q
229.
Some s are not p
No p are q
230.
No q are s
No p are q
231.
Some p are s
No p are q
232.
Some q are s
Some p are q
233.
Some q are s
Some p are q
234.
Some q are not s
235. Some p are not q
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Some q are not s

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