Options For Questions 1-1

20 random questions for Best of 5 Test
Options for Questions 1-1
RNA: ribose sugar, uracil, purine and pyrimidine

A DNA: ribose sugar, no uracil and no purine bases B
bases
DNA: purine and pyrimidine bases, uracil, no ribose RNA: 6-carbon sugar, uracil, purine and pyrimidine
C D
sugar bases
DNA: 6 carbon sugars, purine and pyrimidine bases,
E
no uracil
Question 1 With respect to the structure of nucleic acids
A Nucleotides linked by 3-5-phosphodiester bonds B Ribose linked to deoxyribose by hydrogen bonds
Purine bases linked to pyrimidine bases by hydrogen

C Nucleotides linked to ribose or deoxyribose D
bonds
Purine bases linked to ribose sugars by 3-5-
E
phosphodiester bonds
Question 2 Nucleic acids are formed from
A DNA has a left-handed double helix structure B The DNA helix has 12 bases per turn
Heating to 90 degrees C causes irreversible

C The DNA helix completes a turn every 20 nm D
denaturation of DNA
Complementary nucleotides are held together by
E
hydrogen bonds
Question 3 With respect to the structure of nucleic acids
A Are highly acidic proteins B Are negatively charged proteins
C Are rich in arginine and lysine D Are rich in valine and alanine
Interact with the positively charged ribose group on

E
the DNA molecule
Question 4 Histones
A H1 / H5 B H2A
C H2B D H2C
E H4
Question 5 Which one is not a recognized family of histones
A Single-stranded linker DNA B Double-stranded RNA
C Double-stranded linker DNA D 3-5-phosphodiester bonds
E hydrogen bonds
With respect to the structure of DNA and chromosomes, nucleosomes

Question 6
are joined by
A Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H1 B Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H2
C Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H4 D Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H2A
E Single-stranded DNA bound to histone H4
With respect to the structure of DNA and chromosomes, nucleosomes

Question 7
are joined by
A Cannot be detected by Northern blotting B Can be detected by Western blotting
C Can be detected by Southern blotting and PCR D Cannot be detected by PCR
E Can be detected by Northern blotting and PCR
Question 8 Messenger RNA
A Has a 3-methylated cap B Has a 5-poly-A tail
C Has a start codon AUG D Has a sequence that is written in the 3- to 5- direction
E Contains the base Thymine
A Makes up about 80% of total cellular RNA B Is more stable than ribosomal RNA
C Has a secondary structure with hairpin loops D Makes up about 99% of total cellular RNA
E Is broken down rapidly after transcription
Question
Messenger RNA
10
A mRNA is more stable than rRNA B There is base-paring within mRNA but not rRNA
mRNA does not have a secondary structure while mRNA does not have a poly-A tail while rRNA has a
C D
rRNA has a secondary structure poly-A tail
E mRNA is 80S in size while rRNA is 40S or 60S
Question
With respect to the differences between mRNA and rRNA
11
A 5% of total cellular RNA B 15% of total cellular RNA
C 35% of total cellular RNA D 55% of total cellular RNA
E 85% of total cellular RNA
Question
Transfer RNA makes up
12
C Has an amino-acid binding site at the 3-end D Has an anti-codon at the 5-end
E Has 40S and 50S sub-units
Question
Transfer RNA
13

Both the sense and the anti-sense DNA strands are
A A primer is required for mRNA synthesis B
transcribed
C Only the sense DNA strand is transcribed D The mRNA is synthesized in the 5- to 3- direction
E Any incorrect bases are removed by nucleases
Question
During transcription
14

A Addition of exons B Removal of exons
C Addition of introns D Removal of introns
E Conversion of introns into exons
Question
Post-transcriptional mRNA processing includes
15
A That begins with 5-GU B That ends in 5-GU
C That begins with 3-AG D That begins with 5-AG
E That ends with 3-GU
Question
Introns have a sequence
16
A The cell is haploid in the G2 phase B The cell is diploid in the G2 phase
C The cell is tetraploid in the G2 phase D DNA synthesis occurs in the G1 phase
E DNA synthesis occurs in the M phase
Question
During the cell cycle
17
The double helix is unwound at 20-80 sites forming

A The double helix is unwound by DNA ligase B
Okazaki fragments
The leading strand is synthesized in Okazaki The action of DNA helicase produces 20-80
C D
fragments replicons
E DNA polymerase beta synthesizes the leading strand
Question
During DNA replication
18
A Recognize specific amino acid sequences B Recognize specific proteins
C Recognize specific nucleotides D Recognize specific polysaccharides
E Recognize specific DNA sequences
Question
Restriction endonucleases
19
A Western blotting B Southern blotting
C Northern blotting D Eastern blotting
E Fluorescent in-situ hybridisation
Question
Which of the following laboratory techniques is used for RNA analysis?
20

The 3-5-phosphodiester bonds are broken by heating The complementary DNA chains are separated by
A B
to 90 degrees C heating to 90 degrees C
The deoxyribose sugar molecule is destroyed by Purine and pyrimidine bases are denatured by
C D
heating to 90 degrees C heating to 90 degrees C
Purine, but not pyrimidine bases are destroyed by
E
heating to 90 degrees C
Question 1 With respect to the structure of DNA
Is a fragment of DNA once it has been cut by a Is a bead formed from DNA wrapped around
A B
restriction enzyme histones
Is a chain of nucleotides joined by 3-5- Is a bead of highly basic protein found within the
C D
phosphodiester bonds nucleus
Is the remnant of the cell nucleus following
E
apoptosis
Question 2 A nucleosome
A H1 / H5 B H2A
C H2B D H2C
E H4
Question 3 Which one is not a recognized family of histones
Are segments of DNA following digestion by

A B Are units of size for DNA
restriction enzymes
Are individual turns in the DNA double helix
C Are units of size for mRNA D
structure
E Are segments of non-coding DNA
Question 4 Svedberg units
A Contains introns and exons B Does not contain exons
C Does not contain introns or exons D Does not contain introns
E Can contain both introns and exons
Question 5 Mature messenger RNA
A DNA B rRNA
C tRNA D mRNA
E tRNA bound to mRNA
Question 6 Which nucleic acid has a clover-leaf secondary structure?

transcribed
Question 7 During transcription
A Occurs when some introns are not spliced B Occurs when some exons are spliced
C Is part of RNA editing D Results in addition or substitution of nucleotides
E Does not occur in eukaryotic cells
Question 8 Alternative splicing of mRNA

The double helix is unwound at 20-80 sites forming
A The double helix is unwound by DNA ligase B
Okazaki fragments
The leading strand is synthesized in Okazaki The action of DNA helicase produces 20-80
C D
fragments replicons
E DNA polymerase beta synthesizes the leading strand
Question 9 During DNA replication
A Are enzymes B Are phospholipids
C Are histones D Produce Okazaki fragments
E Are used in the polymerase chain reaction
Question
10
A ATATAT B AAATTT
C AATAAT D ATTATT
E AATTAA
Question
Which one is a palindromic sequence?
11
Question
12
A Northern blotting – DNA B Southern blotting – DNA
C Western blotting – RNA D Eastern blotting – mRNA
E Western blotting – DNA
Question
With respect to techniques used to detect macromolecules
13

A Bacteria that have ingested white blood cells B White blood cells that have ingested bacteria
C Bacteria that have been infected by viruses D Bacteria that can be infected by viruses
E Viruses that infect bacteria
Question
Bacteriophages are
14
A Fragments of DNA outside cells B Fragments of RNA outside cells
DNA species that can enter cells and replicate within

C DNA species that can replicate outside cells D
them
DNA species that can enter cells and inhibit DNA
E
replication
Question
Vectors are
15
A Alanine and arginine B Arginine and lysine
C Methionine and serine D Glutamine and aspartate
E Tyrosine and phenylalanine
Question
Basic amino acids include
16
A Glutamine and asparagine B Glutamine and glutamate
C Arginine and methionine D Serine and valine
E Tyrosine and tryptophan
Question
Which amino acids contain an amide group?
17
A Serine and valine B Arginine and lysine
C Glutamine and lysine D Histidine and proline
E Methionine and serine
Question
Which amino acids are converted to cysteine in the human adult liver?
18
A The smooth endoplasmic reticulum of fibroblasts B The smooth endoplasmic reticulum of myocytes
C The rough endoplasmic reticulum of fibroblasts D The rough endoplasmic reticulum of myocytes
E The lysosomes of fibroblasts
Question
Collagen is synthesised mainly in
19
A Cysteine B Methionine
C Valine D Proline
E Hydroxy-proline
Question The alpha chain of collagen has the basic structure Gly-A-B. One in
20 three A residues are
A Has two alpha chains B Has two identical and one different alpha chain
Has three identical alpha chains and is found in the

C D Has three different alpha chains and is found in skin
inter-vertebral disc
E Has three identical alpha chains and is found in skin
Question
Type III collagen
21
A There are 96 possible codons B Each codon has 4 bases
Some amino acids are recognised by more than one

C Some codons recognise more than one amino acid D
codon
E Some codons have 5 bases
Question
With respect to protein synthesis and the genetic code
22
A The glomerulus B The proximal convoluted tubule
C The collecting ducts D The renal pelvis
E The descending limb of the loop of Henle

Question With respect to the renal handling of urea, carrier-mediated secretion
23 of urea into the tubular fluid occurs in
A Have an aldose and a ketose group B Have an aldose but not a ketose group
C Have a ketose but not an aldose group D Have an aldose or a ketose group
E May not have an aldose or a ketose group
Question
Monosaccharides
24
A Lactose = glucose + fructose B Maltose = glucose + galactose
C Sucrose = glucose + fructose D Maltose = glucose + fructose
E Lactose = glucose + glucose
Question
With respect to the structure of disaccharides
25
A Triglycerides B Cholesterol
C Apoproteins D Phospholipids
E Glycogen
Question
Which one is not typically found in lipoproteins?
26
A Chylomicrons are denser than HDL B VLDL carries triglycerides from cells to the liver
There is an association between high levels of HDL

C HDL caries phospholipids and cholesterol to the liver D
and atherosclerosis
High levels of LDL are known to protect against
E
atherosclerosis
Question
With respect to lipoproteins
27
A 0.01 g/ml B 0.05 g/ml
C 0.1 g/ml D 0.5 g/ml

E 1.0 g/ml
Question
The density of LDL is around
28
Is an oligosaccharide containing glucose and Is a branched chain polysaccharide containing

A B
galactose glucose
C Is a polysaccharide containing glucose and galactose D Is not stored in skeletal muscle
Is a branched chain polysaccharide containing

E
glucose and lactose
Question
Glycogen
29
Liver glycogen is converted to glucose-6-phosphate Skeletal muscle and kidneys lack glucose-6-
A B
for use by other tissues phosphatase
The gut, skeletal muscle and kidneys cannot convert Skeletal muscle glycogen is converted to glucose-6-
C D
glycogen to glucose phosphate which is used for glycolysis
Liver glycogen cannot be used for glycolysis in the
E
liver
Question
During glycogenolysis
30
A Glucose-1-phosphate B Glucose-6-phosphate
C UDP-glucose D UTP-glucose
E AMP-glucose
Question
The first step in glycogen synthesis is the conversion of glucose to
31
A Occurs in the mitochondria B Occurs in the cytoplasm
C Requires oxygen D Does not occur in red blood cells
Results in the consumption of one molecule of ATP

E
per glucose molecule
Question
Glycolysis
32

A The liver and skeletal muscle B The liver, gut and skeletal muscle
C The liver, renal cortex and skeletal muscle D The liver and renal cortex
E Skeletal muscle and renal cortex
Question
Gluconeogenesis occurs in
33
A Free fatty acids B Oxaloacetate
C Lactate D Pyruvate
E Glycerol
Question
Which one is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis?
34
A Pyruvate is converted to glucose in skeletal muscle B Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid by the liver
C NAD+ is converted to NADH in skeletal muscle D Lactate is converted to glucose by the liver
E Glucose is converted to lactate by the liver
Question
During the Cori cycle
35
A Results in the release of carbon monoxide B Is mediated by the enzyme fatty acylCoA
C Results in the generation of ATP D Is mediated by fatty acid synthase
Occurs by the repetitive addition of two carbon units

E
from glycerol
Question
Fatty acid synthesis
36
A The cytoplasm B The lysosomes
C The golgi apparatus D The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E The rough endoplasmic reticulum
Question
The breakdown of triglycerides occurs in
37
A Is catalysed by fatty acid synthase B Results in the generation of ATP
C Results in the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP D Results in the hydrolysis of ATP to AMP
E Occurs in the mitochondria
Question Fatty acid oxidation begins with the conversion of fatty acids to fatty
38 Acyl CoA. This reaction
A Can utilise ketone bodies as fuel B Only utilises glucose as fuel
C Can utilise glucose and ketone bodies as fuel D Only utilises ketone bodies as fuel
Can utilise ketone bodies as fuel if the woman has

E
type 1 diabetes
Question
The fetal brain
39
A Glucose B Ribose
C Glucose-1-phosphate D Ribose-6-phosphate
E Glucose-6-phosphate
Question
The starting substrate for the pentose phosphate pathway is
40
A 6 ATP and 6 GTP B 12 ATP and 12 GTP
C 12 ATP and 1 GTP D 3 ATP and 1 GTP
E 4 ATP and 2 GTP
Question
Each turn of the citric (tri-carboxylic) acid cycle produces
41
A Pyruvate dehydrogenase B Hormone-sensitive lipase
C Phosphofructokinase D Pyruvate kinase
E Lactate dehydrogenase
Question
Thiamine phosphate is a prosthetic group for which enzyme?
42
A Fatty acids B Glucose
C Amino acids D Porphyrin
E Folic acid
Question Which one is not a product of intermediate molecules derived from the
43 citric acid cycle?
The enzyme concentration at which the initial

A B The initial velocity at t = 0.5
velocity is half of Vmax
The substrate concentration at which the initial The enzyme concentration at which the initial
C D
velocity is half of Vmax velocity is proportional to the substrate concentration
The substrate concentration at which the initial
E
velocity is equal to Vmax
Question
With respect to enzyme kinetics, the Michaelis constant is
44
A A rectangular hyperbola B The Michaelis-Menten plot
C The Lineweaver-Burk plot D Intercepts the x-axis at Vmax
E Has a slopw = Km
Question With respect to enzyme kinetics, a graph plotting 1/V0 against 1/[S]
45 is
A Cause an apparent increase in the Km of the enzyme B Cannot be converted to product by the enzyme
C Cause a reduction in the Vmax of the enzyme D Result in the Km of the enzyme being unchanged
Can result in an apparent increase in the Vmax of the

E
enzyme
Question The activity of enzymes can be influenced by competitive inhibitors.

46 Competitive inhibitors
A Are proteins or polypeptides B Bind to enzymes and convert them to apo-enzymes
C Can be co-enzymes or prosthetic groups D Are always bound to the enzyme by covalent bonds
Are always bound to the enzyme by non-covalent

E
bonds
Question
Enzyme cofactors
47
A Hydrolyses peptide bonds B Converts pepsinogen to pepsin
Hydrolyses triglycerides to free fatty acids and

C Hydrolyses glycosidic bonds D
glycerol
E Is most active in an acidic environment
Question
Salivary amylase
48
A Occurs in the mouth, stomach and small intestines B Occurs in the stomach and small intestines only
C Does not occur in the stomach D Is undertaken by amylase and pepsin
E Is undertaken by pepsinogen and trypsinogen
Question
Enzymatic digestion of carbohydrates
49
A Adenine B Uracil
C Cytosine D Guanine
E Thymine
Question Nitrogenous bases make up cellular nucleic acids including DNA and
50 RNA. Which of these nitrogen bases is found in RNA but not in DNA?

A Alanine B Arginine
C Taurine D Serine
E Tyrosine
Question 1 Which one is an aromatic amino acid?

A Arginine and lysine B Aspartate and glutamate
C Alanine and valine D Taurine and methionine
E Glutamine and cysteine
Question 2 Aliphatic amino acids include
A Leucine and arginine B Alanine and arginine
C Serine and valine D Methionine and cysteine
E Leucine and lysine
Question 3 Strictly ketogenic amino acids include
A Alanine and valine B Leucine and lysine
C Tyrosine and alanine D Phenylalanine and lysine
E Arginine and lysine
Question 4 Strictly glucogenic amino acids include
C Valine D Proline
E Hydroxy-proline
The alpha chain of collagen has the basic structure Gly-A-B. One in
Question 5
three B residues are
Collagen fibrils are visible under the light Collagen fibrils have a banded appearance on
A B
microscope electron microscopy
Collagen fibres are not visible under the light
C D Collagen fibres aggregate to form collagen fibrils
microscope
E All collagen fibrils have a double helix structure
Question 6 With respect to the structure of collagen

A Type I B Type II
C Type III D Type IV
E Type V
Which one is the predominant type of collagen found in basement

Question 7
membranes?
A Has two alpha chains B Has three different alpha chains
C Is mainly found in skin and bone D Has two identical and one different alpha chain
E Is the main type of collagen in skin
Question 8 Type IV collagen
A Occurs by transcription in the ribosomes B Occurs by translation in the nucleus
C Occurs by transcription within the cytoplasm D Does not occur in the rough endoplasmic reticulum
E Occurs by translation in ribosomes
Question 9 Protein synthesis
A 2 bases B 3 bases
C 4 bases D 3 or 4 bases
E 3 base pairs
Question Proteins are synthesised from amino acids using the genetic code.
10 Each codon is made up of

codon
Question
11
A There are 5 different enzymes B The reaction catalysed results in ATP production
The reaction catalysed results in the formation of

C There are 20 different enzymes D
disulphide bonds
There are 3 different enzymes – alpha, beta and
E
gamma
Question
Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase plays a key role in protein synthesis.
12

Pairing will only occur if the third position on the
The pairing between codon and anti-codon is more
A B mRNA codon read from the 5- to 3- end and the first
stringent than the pairing between DNA base pairs
position on the anticodon are an exact match
Pairing will not occur if the third position on the
Pairing will only occur if all bases on the mRNA
C mRNA codon read from the 5- to 3- end and the first D
codon and the tRNA anti-codon are an exact match
position on the anticodon are not an exact match
Pairing may still occur when the third position on the
E mRNA codon read from the 5- to 3- end and the first
position on the anticodon is not an exact match
Question The genetic code is central to protein synthesis. This requires pairing
13 between the codon and the anti-codon
A TTT B GAU
C AUG or GAU D AUG
E AUG or TTT
Question
During protein synthesis, the start codon is
14
New amino acids are added at the P site of the

A Elongation is catalysed by peptidyl transferase B
ribosome
Once the peptide bond is formed, there is a checking
C D The termination codon is AUG
mechanism to remove wrong amino acids
The polypeptide chain is synthesised from C- to N-
E
terminal
Question
During protein synthesis
15
A AUG B TTT
C UAA D UTT
E GUT
Question
With respect to protein synthesis, which one is a stop codon?
16
A Gout B Pre-renal renal failure
C Low dose aspirin D Diabetic keto-acidosis
E Corticosteroid therapy
Question
Which one is not associated with raised plasma uric acid levels?
17
A The spleen B The kidneys
C The liver D The reticulo-endothelial system
E Red blood cells
Question
The urea cycle occurs in
18
A During pregnancy B By insulin
C By consuming a high protein diet D By testosterone
E By growth hormone
Question
Urea excretion is increased
19
A Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C Lysosomes D Ribosomes
E Nucleolus
Question Which intracellular organelle processes, packages and transports

20 proteins out of the cell?
A Nucleotides linked by 3-5-phosphodiester bonds B Ribose linked to deoxyribose by hydrogen bonds
Purine bases linked to pyrimidine bases by hydrogen

C Nucleotides linked to ribose or deoxyribose D
bonds
Purine bases linked to ribose sugars by 3-5-
E
phosphodiester bonds
Question 1 Nucleic acids are formed from
A Are highly acidic proteins B Are negatively charged proteins
C Are rich in arginine and lysine D Are rich in valine and alanine
Interact with the positively charged ribose group on

E
the DNA molecule
Question 2 Histones
A Histone octamers B Histone dimers
C Histone tetramers D Chromatin
E Spindle fibres
Question 3 To form nucleosomes, DNA is wrapped around
A mRNA is more stable than rRNA B There is base-paring within mRNA but not rRNA
mRNA does not have a secondary structure while mRNA does not have a poly-A tail while rRNA has a
C D
rRNA has a secondary structure poly-A tail
E mRNA is 80S in size while rRNA is 40S or 60S

Question 5 With respect to the differences between mRNA and rRNA
Question 6 Transfer RNA makes up
A DNA B rRNA
C tRNA D mRNA
E tRNA bound to mRNA
Question 7 Which nucleic acid has a clover-leaf secondary structure?
Promoter regions are located downstream of the start

A DNA polymerase recognizes promoter regions B
site
C There are no specific stop codons D The RNA chain elongates in the 3- to 5- direction
Transcription factors bind transfer RNA to amino

E
acids
Question 9 Introns have a sequence
A Addition of 3-poly-A tail B Addition of 5-methylated cap
C Addition of exons D Removal of introns
E Amino acid binding

Question
With respect to transcription, which process occurs in spliceosomes?
10
A The cell is haploid in the G2 phase B The cell is diploid in the G2 phase
C The cell is tetraploid in the G2 phase D DNA synthesis occurs in the G1 phase
E DNA synthesis occurs in the M phase
Question
During the cell cycle
11
A Occurs in the M phase of the cell cycle B Is semi-conservative and uni-directional
C Is semi-conservative and bi-directional D Occurs in ribosomes
Results in the production of a DNA molecule with

E
two new strands
Question
DNA replication
12
DNA polymerase alpha – synthesizes the lagging

A B DNA polymerase alpha – repairs DNA
strand of DNA
DNA polymerase gamma – synthesizes the leading DNA polymerase delta – produces Okazaki
C D
strand of DNA fragments
E DNA polymerase beta – replicated DNA at telomeres
Question
With respect to the action of DNA polymerases
13
A ATATAT B AAATTT
C AATAAT D ATTATT
E AATTAA
Question
Which one is a palindromic sequence?
14
A DNA ligase B DNA helicase

C DNA polymerases D Telomerases
E Restriction endonucleases
The polymerase chain reaction has been used to amplify a specific

Question DNA sequence. In order to identify the amplified DNA, it needs to be
15 cut into fragments of specific sizes. Which enzymes undertake this
function?
Question
16
A Arginine B Leucine
C Lysine D Tryptophan
E Valine
Question
Which one is not an essential amino acid?
17
A Methionine, serine and taurine B Leucine, isoleucine and lysine
C Lysine, arginine and taurine D Methionine, phenylalanine and alanine
E Histidine, valine and tyrosine
Question
Essential amino acids include
18
Secondary structure is the linear sequence of amino

A Haemoglobin does not have a quaternary structure B
acids including disulphide bonds
Secondary structure includes folding into pleated
C D Tertiary structure is dependent on covalent bonds
sheets
Tertiary structure is only present in proteins with
E
more than one sub-unit
Question
With respect to the structure of proteins
19
A Endothelial cells B Fibroblasts
C Epithelial cells D Myocytes
E Phagocytes
Question
Collagen is synthesised mainly by
20
A 3 B 20
C 23 D 64
E 96
Question With respect to the genetic code, how many different possible codons
21 are there?

codon
Question
22
A AUG B TTT
C UAA D UTT
E GUT
Question
With respect to protein synthesis, which one is a stop codon?
23
A Uric acid B Urea
C Urate D Acetyl CoA
E Acetate
Question
Which molecule has formula CO(NH2)2?
24
A Is independent of anti-diuretic hormone B Increases at low urine flow rates
C Increases at high urine flow rates D Decreases at low urine flow rates
E Occurs by passive diffusion
Question
Urea reabsorption in the medullary collecting ducts
25
A Pregnancy B Insulin
C Corticosteroids D Growth hormone
E Testosterone
Question
Which one is not associated with decreased urea excretion?
26
A Have an aldose and a ketose group B Have an aldose but not a ketose group
C Have a ketose but not an aldose group D Have an aldose or a ketose group
E May not have an aldose or a ketose group
Question
Monosaccharides
27
A Fatty acids B Glycocholate or taurocholate
C Phospholipids D Bile pigment
E Bilirubin
Question
Cholesterol is excreted in bile as
28
Three identical fatty acid chains esterified to a Three fatty acid chains esterified to a galactose
A B
glycerol backbone backbone
Three fatty acid chains esterified to a glycerol Three glycerol molecules esterified to a fatty acid
C D
backbone chain
Three galactose molecules esterified to a fatty acid
E
chain
Question
Triglycerides are composed of
29
A Three identical fatty acid chains B Three glycerol molecules
C Unsaturated fatty acid chains D Saturated fatty acid chains
E Only one fatty acid chain
Question
Simple triglycerides have
30
A Triglycerides B Cholesterol
C Apoproteins D Phospholipids
E Glycogen
Question
Which one is not typically found in lipoproteins?
31
A Are the smallest types of lipoprotein B Are the most dense lipoprotein
C Have a mass of about 400kDa D Have a protein content of 15-20%
E Have a density of about 0.095 g/ml
Question
Chylomicrons
32
A All glucose units B Glucose units up to 4 residues from a branch point
C Glucose units up to 3 residues from a branch point D Glucose units up to 2 residues from a branch point
E Glucose units up to the branch point
Question
During glycogenolysis, phosphorylase removes
33
Addition of glucose units from glucose-1-phosphate

A Removal of glucose units from glycogen B
to glycogen
Addition of glucose units from glucose-6-phosphate Addition of glucose units from UDP-glucose to
C D
to glycogen glycogen
Addition of glucose units from UMP-glucose to
E
glycogen
Question
Which reaction is catalysed by the enzyme glycogen synthase?
34
Insulin stimulates the activation of protein Insulin inhibits the phosphorylation of protein
A B
phosphatase I phosphatase I
C Insulin stimulates glycogenolysis D Insulin inhibits glycogen synthesis
Insulin stimulates the conversion of skeletal muscle

E
glycogen to glucose
Question
With respect to the regulation of glycogen metabolism
35
A One B Two
C Three D Four
E Two or three depending on oxygen levels
Question How many molecules of ATP are generated per glucose molecule
36 during glycolysis?
A Other carbohydrates B Free fatty acids
C Non-carbohydrate precursors D Amino acids
E Lactate
Question
Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from
37

Fatty acyl CoA is carried to the cytoplasm for beta Shuttling of fatty acyl CoA requires the presence of
A B
oxidation folic acid
C Carnitine is required for fatty acyl CoA shuttling D Ketone bodies are consumed
E Cyclic GMP is generated
Question
During fatty acid oxidation
39
A Can utilise ketone bodies as fuel B Only utilises glucose as fuel
C Can utilise glucose and ketone bodies as fuel D Only utilises ketone bodies as fuel
Can utilise ketone bodies as fuel if the woman has

E
type 1 diabetes
Question
The fetal brain
40
A Insulin concentrations rise B Glucagon concentrations fall
C Glycogen synthesis is stimulated D Glycogenolysis is stimulated
E Triglyceride breakdown is inhibited
Question
During the post-absorptive phase of starvation
41
A Glycolysis is stimulated B Fatty acid oxidation is inhibited in the liver
Amino acids are utilised by skeletal muscle for

C Amino acids are released from skeletal muscle D
glucose synthesis
E Phosphofructokinase is activated
Question
In the gluconeogenic phase of starvation
42
A Glucose B Ribose
Question
43
A NAD+ only B NAD+ and FAD only
C NAD+, FAD and fatty acids D NAD+, FAD and CoA
E FAD only
Question
Ribose-5-phosphate is a precursor for the synthesis of
44
A Svedberg units B MicroM per second
C Katal D Michaelis units
E Kilo Joules
Question
The SI unit for enzyme activity is
45
E Has a slopw = Km
46 is
A Are proteins or polypeptides B Bind to enzymes and convert them to apo-enzymes
C Can be co-enzymes or prosthetic groups D Are always bound to the enzyme by covalent bonds
Are always bound to the enzyme by non-covalent

E
bonds
Question
Enzyme cofactors
47
A Increase the Vmax of the enzyme B Reduce the Km of the enzyme
C Bind to the enzyme by covalent bonds D Convert the enzyme into an apo-enzyme
E Are types of co-enzyme
Question
Enzyme prosthetic groups
48
A Sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and galactose B Lactase converts lactose to glucose and fructose
C Maltase converts maltose to glucose and fructose D Sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and fructose
E Maltase converts maltose to glucose and galactose
Question
During the digestion of carbohydrates
49
A Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C Lysosomes D Ribosomes
E Nucleolus
Question Which intracellular organelle processes, packages and transports

50 proteins out of the cell?

A Have 6 carbon atoms B Have either 5 or 6 carbon atoms
C Have 5 carbon atoms D Include maltose
E Include pyrimidine
Question 1 With respect to the structure of nucleic acids, the sugar molecules
Question 2 Transfer RNA makes up

transcribed
A Addition of exons B Removal of exons
C Addition of introns D Removal of introns
E Conversion of introns into exons
Question 4 Post-transcriptional mRNA processing includes
A Occurs when some introns are not spliced B Occurs when some exons are spliced
C Is part of RNA editing D Results in addition or substitution of nucleotides
E Does not occur in eukaryotic cells
Question 5 Alternative splicing of mRNA
A Is called transcription B Is called translation
C Requires the presence of primers D Requires the presence of ribonucleotides
E Is catalyzed by DNA polymerase
Question 6 The synthesis of DNA from RNA
Question 7 Restriction endonucleases
A Bacteria that have ingested white blood cells B White blood cells that have ingested bacteria
C Bacteria that have been infected by viruses D Bacteria that can be infected by viruses
E Viruses that infect bacteria
Question 8 Bacteriophages are

them
E
replication
Question 9 Vectors are
A Methionine, serine and taurine B Leucine, isoleucine and lysine
C Lysine, arginine and taurine D Methionine, phenylalanine and alanine
E Histidine, valine and tyrosine
Question
Essential amino acids include
10
A Alanine and arginine B Arginine and lysine
C Methionine and serine D Glutamine and aspartate
E Tyrosine and phenylalanine
Question
Basic amino acids include
11
E Phagocytes
Question
Collagen is synthesised mainly by
12

A Three alpha chains B Five alpha chains
C One alpha and two beta chains D Two alpha and one beta chain
E Two alpha and two beta chains
Question
Collagen fibrils contain
13
A Initiation B Transcription
C Elongation D Translocation
E Termination
Question Which one is not a recognised stage during protein synthesis from
14 mRNA?

codon
Question
15

Pairing will only occur if the third position on the
The pairing between codon and anti-codon is more
A B mRNA codon read from the 5- to 3- end and the first
stringent than the pairing between DNA base pairs
position on the anticodon are an exact match
Pairing will not occur if the third position on the
Pairing will only occur if all bases on the mRNA
C mRNA codon read from the 5- to 3- end and the first D
codon and the tRNA anti-codon are an exact match
position on the anticodon are not an exact match
Pairing may still occur when the third position on the
E mRNA codon read from the 5- to 3- end and the first
position on the anticodon is not an exact match
Question The genetic code is central to protein synthesis. This requires pairing
16 between the codon and the anti-codon
A TTT B GAU
C AUG or GAU D AUG
E AUG or TTT
Question
17
A Gout B Pre-renal renal failure
C Low dose aspirin D Diabetic keto-acidosis
E Corticosteroid therapy
Question
Which one is not associated with raised plasma uric acid levels?
18
A 2 or 3 B 3 or more
C 5 or 6 D 3, 6 or 9
E 2, 4 or 6
Question
Monosaccharides have a formula (CH2O)n where n is
19
A Mainly excreted by the kidneys B Mainly synthesised from triglycerides
C Mainly synthesised from phospholipids D Synthesised from acetyl CoA
E Mainly excreted as cholesterol phosphate
Question
With respect to cholesterol metabolism, cholesterol is
20
A Fatty acids B Glycocholate or taurocholate
C Phospholipids D Bile pigment
E Bilirubin
Question
Cholesterol is excreted in bile as
21
A Are synthesised by the liver B Are synthesised in the portal circulation
C Transport cholesterol from the liver D Transport dietary lipids to tissues

E Are not present in the peripheral circulation
Question
Chylomicrons
22
Question
Chylomicrons
23
A Is synthesised by adipose tissue B Has a molecular weight of about 400 kDa
C Has a density of less than 1 g / ml D Transports lipids from the liver to other tissues
E Transports lipids from the gut to the liver
Question
Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)
24
Skeletal muscle glycogen is used to maintain blood Liver, but not skeletal muscle glycogen is used to
A B
glucose levels maintain blood glucose levels
Liver glycogen is stored in the endoplasmic
C Liver glycogen is stored in the lysosomes D
reticulum
Glycogen is stored in granules within the cell
E
membrane
Question
With respect to glycogen metabolism
25
Liver glycogen is converted to glucose-6-phosphate Skeletal muscle and kidneys lack glucose-6-
A B
for use by other tissues phosphatase
The gut, skeletal muscle and kidneys cannot convert Skeletal muscle glycogen is converted to glucose-6-
C D
glycogen to glucose phosphate which is used for glycolysis
Liver glycogen cannot be used for glycolysis in the
E
liver
Question
During glycogenolysis
26

Phosphorylase exists as an active (beta) form and an The phosphorylated form of phosphorylase is
A B
inactive (delta) form inactive
The phosphorylated form of glycogen synthase is The de-phosphorylated form of phosphorylase is
C D
inactive active
The phosphorylated form of glycogen synthase is
E
active
Question Glycogen metabolism is partly regulated by the activity of

27 phosphorylase and glycogen synthase
Insulin stimulates the activation of protein Insulin inhibits the phosphorylation of protein
A B
phosphatase I phosphatase I
C Insulin stimulates glycogenolysis D Insulin inhibits glycogen synthesis
Insulin stimulates the conversion of skeletal muscle

E
glycogen to glucose
Question
28
A Free fatty acids B Oxaloacetate
C Lactate D Pyruvate
E Glycerol
Question
Which one is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis?
29
A Results in the release of carbon monoxide B Is mediated by the enzyme fatty acylCoA
C Results in the generation of ATP D Is mediated by fatty acid synthase
Occurs by the repetitive addition of two carbon units

E
from glycerol
Question
Fatty acid synthesis
30
A Is mediated by fatty acylCoA synthase B Is mediated by hormone sensitive lipase
C Is inhibited by glucagon D Is activated by insulin
Results in the production of glycerol which cannot

E
be used in the glycolysis pathway
Question
The breakdown of triglycerides
31
A Occurs exclusively in the cytoplasm B Occurs exclusively in the mitochondria
Begins in the cytoplasm and continues in the Begins in the mitochondria and continues in the
C D
mitochondria cytoplasm
E Results in the production of glycerol
Question
Fatty acid oxidation
32
A Acetyl CoA B Malonyl CoA
C Oxaloacetate D Lactate
E Glycerol
Question
During beta oxidation, ketone bodies are produced from
33
A Are produced mainly by skeletal muscle B Are metabolised mainly by the brain
C Can be used as fuel by the heart and renal cortex D Are the main fuel used by the brain during exercise
Are the main fuel used by the renal medulla and the
E
adrenal gland
Question
Ketone bodies
34
A Ketone bodies inhibit insulin secretion B Insulin secretion is increased
C Acetoacetate is converted to acetyl CoA D The liver uses ketone bodies as fuel
E Protein hydrolysis is accelerated
Question
During the ketotic phase of starvation
35
A Glucose B Ribose
Question
36

Has a phosphorylated and a de-phosphorylated
A B Has an oxidative and a non-oxidative pathway
pathway
Has an alpha-glycolytic and a beta-glycolytic
C Has a cytosolic and a mitochondrial component D
pathway
E Occurs in the nucleus
Question
The pentose phosphate pathway
37
A NAD+ only B NAD+ and FAD only
C NAD+, FAD and fatty acids D NAD+, FAD and CoA
E FAD only
Question
Ribose-5-phosphate is a precursor for the synthesis of
38
A The nucleus B The mitochondria
C The mitochondria and cytoplasm D The lysosomes
E The cytoplasm
Question
The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in
39
A Resulta in the oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water B Cannot utilise acetyl CoA
C Begins in the cytosol D Occurs in mitochondria
E Can occur under anaerobic conditions
Question
The citric acid (tri-carboxylic acid) cycle
40
A Pyruvate dehydrogenase B Hormone-sensitive lipase
C Phosphofructokinase D Pyruvate kinase

E Lactate dehydrogenase
Question
Thiamine phosphate is a prosthetic group for which enzyme?
41
A molecule that increases the rate at which

A A molecule that increases the rate of the reaction B
equilibrium is reached
C A molecule that modifies the activity of the enzyme D A molecule that alters the product of the reaction
A molecule that reduces the rate at which

E
Question
With respect to the properties of enzymes, a cofactor is
42
A Increase the Vmax of the enzyme B Reduce the Km of the enzyme
C Bind to the enzyme by covalent bonds D Convert the enzyme into an apo-enzyme
E Are types of co-enzyme
Question
Enzyme prosthetic groups
43
A Hydrolyses peptide bonds B Converts pepsinogen to pepsin
Hydrolyses triglycerides to free fatty acids and

C Hydrolyses glycosidic bonds D
glycerol
E Is most active in an acidic environment
Question
Salivary amylase
44
A Occurs in the mouth, stomach and small intestines B Occurs in the stomach and small intestines only
C Does not occur in the stomach D Is undertaken by amylase and pepsin
E Is undertaken by pepsinogen and trypsinogen
Question
Enzymatic digestion of carbohydrates
45

A Begins in the mouth B Does not occur in the stomach
C Is undertaken by amylase and lipase D Occurs in the mouth and stomach
E Begins in the stomach
Question
The digestion of lipids
46
A Phospholipids B Polysaccharides
C Positively charged proteins D Negatively charged proteins
E Arachidonic acid derivatives
Question
What type of compound is Histones?
47
A DNA repair B DNA synthesis
C Unwinding of the double helix D DNA breakdown
E Ligation of DNA fragments
Question
What is the function of DNA polymerase?
48
A Adenine B Uracil
C Cytosine D Guanine
E Thymine
Question Nitrogenous bases make up cellular nucleic acids including DNA and
49 RNA. Which of these nitrogen bases is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A Inhibition of mitochondrial function B Binding to folic acid receptor
C Ectopic induction of gene expression D Vaso-constriction in limb bud arteries
E Induction of prostaglandin E2 synthesis
Question What is the pathophysiological mechanism by which vitamin A excess

50 can cause congenital anomalies?
A Arginine B Leucine
C Lysine D Tryptophan
E Valine
Question 1 Which one is not an essential amino acid?
A Alanine B Arginine
C Taurine D Serine
E Tyrosine
Question 2 Which one is an aromatic amino acid?
A Methionine and glutamine B Taurine and valine
C Serine and arginine D Methionine and taurine
E Leucine and alanine
Question 3 Sulphur-containing amino acids include
A Glutamine and asparagine B Glutamine and glutamate
C Arginine and methionine D Serine and valine
E Tyrosine and tryptophan
Question 4 Which amino acids contain an amide group?
A Stored in ribosomes B Stored in the liver
C Excreted in urine D Excreted in bile

E Converted to glucose or fatty acids
Question 5 With respect to amino acid metabolism, excess amino acids are
A Lysine and leucine B Lysine and arginine
C Tyrosine and phenylalanine D Tryptophan and leucine
E Lysine and isoleucine
Amino acids that can be converted to glucose and ketone bodies

Question 6
include
A Alanine and valine B Leucine and lysine
C Tyrosine and alanine D Phenylalanine and lysine
E Arginine and lysine
Question 7 Strictly glucogenic amino acids include

By facilitated diffusion in the distal convoluted
A B By active transport in the proximal convoluted tubule
tubule
C By diffusion in the proximal convoluted tubule D By active transport in the loop of Henle
E By facilitated diffusion in the loop of Henle
Amino acids are small molecules which are filtered in the glomerulus.
Question 8
The amino acids are than absorbed
E Phagocytes
Question 9 Collagen is synthesised mainly by
A The smooth endoplasmic reticulum of fibroblasts B The smooth endoplasmic reticulum of myocytes
C The rough endoplasmic reticulum of fibroblasts D The rough endoplasmic reticulum of myocytes
E The lysosomes of fibroblasts
Question
Collagen is synthesised mainly in
10
C Valine D Proline
E Hydroxy-proline
Question The alpha chain of collagen has the basic structure Gly-A-B. One in
11 three B residues are
A Occurs by transcription in the ribosomes B Occurs by translation in the nucleus
C Occurs by transcription within the cytoplasm D Does not occur in the rough endoplasmic reticulum
E Occurs by translation in ribosomes
Question
Protein synthesis
12
A One gene can code for more than one protein B One protein can be coded for by more than one gene
One amino acid can be recognised by more than one

C One codon can recognise more than one amino acid D
codon
E One codon can have different number of bases
Question
The genetic code is degenerate. This means that
13
A TTT B GAU
C AUG or GAU D AUG
E AUG or TTT
Question
14

A Are only present in hormones B Play an important role in cell signaling
Are only present in proteins destined for export into

C Target the proteins to specific sites within the cell D
the extra-cellular space
E Are removed in the ribosomes
Question Post-translational modification of proteins include excision of signal

15 sequences. Signal sequences
A 50% of circulating urate is bound to albumin B Urate is not filtered at the glomerulus
One third of daily uric acid production is excreted in Net reabsorption of urate occurs in the renal tubules
C D
faeces in adults
E Uric acid is excreted only by the kidneys
Question
With respect to renal handling of urate and uric acid
16
A Polycythaemia B Allopurinol
C Hypothyroidism D Hyperlipidaemia
E Lactic acidosis
Question
Which one is associated with low plasma uric acid levels?
17
2 molecules of ATP are consumed per molecule of

A 1 molecule of ATP is produced per molecule of urea B
urea
3 molecules of ATP are produced per molecule of 2 molecules of ATP are produced per molecule of
C D
urea urea
3 molecules of ATP are consumed per molecule of
E
urea
Question
During the urea cycle
18
A Urea is freely filtered at the glomerulus B Urea is secreted into the proximal tubule
Urea is transferred across the proximal tubule by

C D Urea is actively absorbed by the distal loop of Henle
facilitated diffusion
E 99% of filtered urea is actively reabsorbed
Question
With respect to renal handling of urea
19
A The glomerulus B The proximal convoluted tubule
C The descending limb of the loop of Henle D The medullary collecting ducts
E The renal pelvis
Question With respect to renal excretion of urea, carrier-mediated reabsorption

20 occurs in

A Ribose – hexose sugar B Deoxyribose – pentose sugar
C Uracil – purine base D Ribose – pyrimidine base
E Thymine – purine base
With respect to the structure of nucleic acids, which grouping is

Question 1
correct?
A Cannot be detected by Northern blotting B Can be detected by Western blotting
C Can be detected by Southern blotting and PCR D Cannot be detected by PCR
E Can be detected by Northern blotting and PCR

Introns are removed before transport to the
A Exons are added in the cytoplasm B
cytoplasm
C Splicing is undertaken by RNA polymerase D Thymine replaces Uracil

E Ribose is replaced by deoxyribose
Question 4 With respect to the synthesis of messenger RNA
A Makes up about 80% of total cellular RNA B Is more stable than ribosomal RNA
C Has a secondary structure with hairpin loops D Makes up about 99% of total cellular RNA
E Is broken down rapidly after transcription

Ribosomal RNA makes up about 80% of total Messenger RNA makes up about 80% of total
A B
cellular RNA cellular RNA
Transfer RNA makes up about 80% of total cellular Ribosomal RNA makes up about 15% of total
C D
RNA cellular RNA
Transfer RNA makes up about 90% of total cellular
E
RNA
Question 6 With respect to total cellular RNA

A 40S sub-unit made up of 18S rRNA and 34 A 20S sub-unit made up of 18S rRNA and 10
A B
different proteins different proteins
A 60S sub-unit made up of 18S rRNA and 34 A 100S sub-unit made up of 80S rRNA and 34
C D
different proteins different proteins
A 10S sub-unit made up of 8S rRNA and 34
E
different proteins
Question 7 In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have
A 5S, 10S and 20S rRNA molecules B 5S, 5.8S and 20S rRNA molecules
C 5.8S, 10S and 28S rRNA molecules D 2.8S, 5S and 28S rRNA molecules
E 5S, 5.8S and 28S rRNA molecules
In eukaryotic cells, the ribosomes have 2 sub-units. The larger sub-

Question 8
unit has

Question 9 Introns have a sequence
Segments of DNA after the double helix has been

A B Joined together by DNA ligase
unwound by DNA helicase
C Separated by DNA ligase D Produced by the action of DNA synthetase
E Produced from the leading strand of DNA
Question
Okazaki fragments are
10
A Is called transcription B Is called translation
C Requires the presence of primers D Requires the presence of ribonucleotides
E Is catalyzed by DNA polymerase
Question
The synthesis of DNA from RNA
11
Question
12
A Northern blotting – DNA B Southern blotting – DNA
C Western blotting – RNA D Eastern blotting – mRNA
E Western blotting – DNA
Question
With respect to techniques used to detect macromolecules
13


them
E
replication
Question
Vectors are
14
A Are viruses B Occur naturally in bacteria
C Integrate into bacterial DNA before replication D Are bacteria
E Infect viruses
Question
Plasmids
15
A Taurine B Glutamine
C Lysine D Glycine
E Alanine
Question
Which one is an essential amino acid?
16
A Vitamin K B Folic acid
C Vitamin B12 D Vitamin B6
E Vitamin C
Question Transamination of amino acids requires the presence of a prosthetic

17 group derived from
Each collagen molecule has an alpha and a beta The collagen peptide has a right handed helical
A B
chain structure
The collagen peptide is rich in cysteine and The collagen peptide is rich in proline and
C D
methionine hydroxyproline
E The collagen peptide does not contain lysine
Question
With respect to the structure of collagen
18
A Vitamin D B Vitamin E
C Folate D Tetrahydrofolate
E Vitamin C
Question During collagen synthesis, proline and lysine residues are

19 hydroxylated. This reaction is dependent on which co-factor?
Type II collagen has a left-handed triple helix

A Type 1 collagen has a double helix structure B
structure
All types of collagen have a right handed triple helix
C D Type IV collagen does not have a helical structure
structure
Type II and IV collagen have a right handed double
E
helix structure
Question
With respect to the structure of collagen
20
A Contains three different alpha chains B Contains two beta chains
C Is found in bone, cartilage and skin D Contains two identical and one different alpha chain
E Is not found in the skin
Question
Type I collagen
21
A Type I B Type II
C Type III D Type IV
E Type V
Question The type of collagen with three identical alpha chains and is present in
22 cartilage
A One gene can code for more than one protein B One protein can be coded for by more than one gene
One amino acid can be recognised by more than one

C One codon can recognise more than one amino acid D
codon
E One codon can have different number of bases

Question
The genetic code is degenerate. This means that
23

Is produced from the breakdown of proteins in the Is produced from the breakdown of purines in the
A B
liver spleen
Is produced from the breakdown of pyrimidines in Is produced from the breakdown of purines in the
C D
the liver liver
Is produced from the breakdown of nucleotides in
E
reticulo-endothelial cells
Question
Uric acid
24
A Hexose and pentose forms B Aldose and ketose forms
The asymmetry of the C atom nearest to the aldehyde The asymmetry of the C atom furthest away from the
C D
or ketone group aldehyde or ketone group
E The asymmetry of the aldehyde or ketone group
Question
D and L forms of monosaccharides refer to
25
A Glucose B Lactose
C Maltose D Galactose
E Sucrose
Question
Which one is a non-reducing sugar?
26
A Is not found in cell membranes B Is a precursor of vitamin D
Cannot be synthesised by humans and must be

C Is a precursor of vitamins A and E D
obtained from the diet
E Is a C20 compound
Question
Cholesterol
27

Question
Chylomicrons
28
LDL is taken up by cells through receptor-mediated

A B The major lipid in LDL is triglyceride
endocytosis
High intra-cellular cholesterol levels results in
C The LDL receptor is located in the cytoplasm D
increased expression of the LDL receptor
E The protein content of LDL is 2-5%
Question
With respect to the metabolism of low density lipoprotein (LDL)
29
Skeletal muscle glycogen is used to maintain blood Liver, but not skeletal muscle glycogen is used to
A B
glucose levels maintain blood glucose levels
Liver glycogen is stored in the endoplasmic
C Liver glycogen is stored in the lysosomes D
reticulum
Glycogen is stored in granules within the cell
E
membrane
Question
With respect to glycogen metabolism
30
A Phosphorylase B Glucosidase
C Phosphoglucomutase D Glucose-6-phosphatase
E Glucose-1-phosphatase
Question During glycogenolysis, which enzyme converts glucose-1-phosphate to

31 glucose-6-phosphate?
A Glucagon inhibits glycogenolysis B Glucagon stimulates glycogen synthesis
C Calcium ions inhibit glycogenolysis D Calcium ions stimulate glycogen synthesis
Glucagon stimulates the phosphorylation of

E
phosphorylase b
Question
32

A Adrenalin inhibits glycogenolysis B Adrenalin stimulates glycogen synthesis
Adrenalin stimulates the phosphorylation of

C D Adrenalin activates protein phosphatase I
phosphorylase b
Adrenaline stimulates the phosphorylation of protein
E
phosphatase I
Question
33
A One B Two
C Three D Four
E Two or three depending on oxygen levels
Question How many molecules of ATP are generated per glucose molecule
34 during glycolysis?
A The production of 2 molecules of ATP B The production of 2 molecules of GTP
The hydrolysis of 2 molecules of ATP and 2 The production of 2 molecules of ATP and 2
C D
molecules of GTP molecules of GTP
The hydrolysis of 4 molecules of ATP and 2
E
molecules of GTP
Question
Gluconeogenesis results in
35
A The lysosomes B The cytoplasm
C The golgi apparatus D The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E The rough endoplasmic reticulum
Question
Fatty acid synthesis occurs in
36
A Glucagon B Adrenaline
C ACTH D Noradrenaline
E Insulin
Question
Which one inhibits the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase?
37
A Are produced mainly by skeletal muscle B Are metabolised mainly by the brain
C Can be used as fuel by the heart and renal cortex D Are the main fuel used by the brain during exercise
Are the main fuel used by the renal medulla and the
E
adrenal gland
Question
Ketone bodies
39
A Phosphorylase and glycogen synthase B Glycogen synthase and hormone-sensitive lipase
C Phosphorylase and hormone-sensitive lipase D Phosphorylase only
E Hormone-sensitive lipase only
Question The following enzymes are activated in the post-absorptive phase of

40 starvation
A 6 ATP and 6 GTP B 12 ATP and 12 GTP
C 12 ATP and 1 GTP D 3 ATP and 1 GTP
E 4 ATP and 2 GTP
Question
Each turn of the citric (tri-carboxylic) acid cycle produces
41
A molecule that increases the rate at which

A A molecule that increases the rate of the reaction B
C A molecule that modifies the activity of the enzyme D A molecule that alters the product of the reaction
A molecule that reduces the rate at which

E
Question
With respect to the properties of enzymes, a cofactor is
42
A Equal to the Michaelis constant B Proportional to the substrate concentration
C Proportional to the product concentration D Proportional to the enzyme concentration
E Equal to the square root of the Michaelis constant
Question With respect to enzyme kinetics, when there is an excess amount of

43 substrate, the initial velocity of the reaction is

The enzyme concentration at which the initial
A B The initial velocity at t = 0.5
velocity is half of Vmax
The substrate concentration at which the initial The enzyme concentration at which the initial
C D
velocity is half of Vmax velocity is proportional to the substrate concentration
The substrate concentration at which the initial
E
velocity is equal to Vmax
Question
With respect to enzyme kinetics, the Michaelis constant is
44
A Svedberg units B MicroM per second
C Katal D Michaelis units
E Kilo Joules
Question
The SI unit for enzyme activity is
45
E Has a slopw = Km
46 is
A Reversible inhibition is always competitive B Non-competitive inhibition is always irreversible
Irreversible inhibitors bind to enzymes by non- Reversible inhibitors bind to enzymes by covalent
C D
covalent forces forces
Reversible inhibitors can be competitive or non-
E
competitive
Question
With respect to the different types of enzyme inhibitors
47
A Sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and galactose B Lactase converts lactose to glucose and fructose
C Maltase converts maltose to glucose and fructose D Sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and fructose
E Maltase converts maltose to glucose and galactose
Question
During the digestion of carbohydrates
48
A Begins in the mouth B Does not occur in the stomach
C Is undertaken by amylase and lipase D Occurs in the mouth and stomach
E Begins in the stomach
Question
The digestion of lipids
49
A Translation B Transcription
C Reverse transcription D Polymerisation
E Hybridisation
Question
The process by which mRNA is made from DNA is
50

A Include glucose and fructose but not galactose B Include glucose, fructose and maltose
C Are all reducing sugars D All have 6 carbon atoms
E Are always aldose sugars
Question 1 Monosaccharides
A Hexose and pentose forms B Aldose and ketose forms
The asymmetry of the C atom nearest to the aldehyde The asymmetry of the C atom furthest away from the
C D
or ketone group aldehyde or ketone group
E The asymmetry of the aldehyde or ketone group
Question 2 D and L forms of monosaccharides refer to
Three identical fatty acid chains esterified to a Three fatty acid chains esterified to a galactose
A B
glycerol backbone backbone
Three fatty acid chains esterified to a glycerol Three glycerol molecules esterified to a fatty acid
C D
backbone chain
Three galactose molecules esterified to a fatty acid
E
chain
Question 3 Triglycerides are composed of
A Three identical fatty acid chains B Three glycerol molecules
C Unsaturated fatty acid chains D Saturated fatty acid chains
E Only one fatty acid chain
Question 4 Simple triglycerides have
A Is converted to HDL as triglycerides are hydrolysed B Does not contain phospholipids
C Is converted to IDL and then LDL D Is synthesised from LDL
E Transports cholesterol from the tissues to the liver
Question 5 Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)
Is an oligosaccharide containing glucose and Is a branched chain polysaccharide containing

A B
galactose glucose
C Is a polysaccharide containing glucose and galactose D Is not stored in skeletal muscle
Is a branched chain polysaccharide containing

E
glucose and lactose
Question 6 Glycogen
A Glucagon inhibits glycogenolysis B Glucagon stimulates glycogen synthesis
C Calcium ions inhibit glycogenolysis D Calcium ions stimulate glycogen synthesis
Glucagon stimulates the phosphorylation of

E
phosphorylase b
Question 7 With respect to the regulation of glycogen metabolism
A Other carbohydrates B Free fatty acids
C Non-carbohydrate precursors D Amino acids
E Lactate
Question 8 Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from
A Gluconeogenesis B Glycolysis
C Glycogen synthesis D Glycogenolysis
E The Cori cycle
Question 9 The enzyme fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase plays a key role in
A Pyruvate is converted to glucose in skeletal muscle B Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid by the liver
C NAD+ is converted to NADH in skeletal muscle D Lactate is converted to glucose by the liver
E Glucose is converted to lactate by the liver
Question
During the Cori cycle
10
A Glucagon B Adrenaline
C ACTH D Noradrenaline
E Insulin
Question
Which one inhibits the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase?
11
A Occurs exclusively in the cytoplasm B Occurs exclusively in the mitochondria
Begins in the cytoplasm and continues in the Begins in the mitochondria and continues in the
C D
mitochondria cytoplasm
E Results in the production of glycerol
Question
Fatty acid oxidation
12
A Glycerol B Free fatty acids
C Fatty Acyl CoA D Acetyl CoA
E Triglycerides
Question With respect to fatty acid oxidation, which substrate is transferred

13 from the cytosol to the mitochondria for beta oxidation?
The rate of fatty acid oxidation exceeds oxygen

A The rate of glycolysis exceeds oxygen availability B
availability
The rate of fatty acid oxidation exceeds the rate of The rate of carbohydrate breakdown exceeds the rate
C D
glycerol synthesis of protein synthesis
The rate of fatty acid oxidation exceeds the rate of
E
carbohydrate breakdown
Question
Ketone bodies are produced when
14
A Acetone, acetic acid and acetoacetate B Acetic acid, acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate
C Acetyl CoA, acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate D Glycerol, acetoacetate and acetone
E Acetone, acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate
Question
Ketone bodies include
15

The activity of fructose-1,6-bisphoaphatase is
A B The activity of phosphofructokinase is increased
increased
C Glucose is converted to amino acids by the liver D Insulin concentrations increase

E The brain begins to use free fattu acids as fuel
Question
During the gluconeogenic phase of starvation
16
A The nucleus B The mitochondria
C The mitochondria and cytoplasm D The lysosomes
E The cytoplasm
Question
The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in
17
A Resulta in the oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water B Cannot utilise acetyl CoA
C Begins in the cytosol D Occurs in mitochondria
E Can occur under anaerobic conditions
Question
The citric acid (tri-carboxylic acid) cycle
18
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
E 5
Question During the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of CO2 are produced
19 per molecule of acetyl CoA?
A Fatty acids B Glucose
C Amino acids D Porphyrin
E Folic acid
Question Which one is not a product of intermediate molecules derived from the
20 citric acid cycle?

Options For Questions 1-1

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20 random questions for Best of 5 Test

Options for Questions 1-1

RNA: ribose sugar, uracil, purine and pyrimidine

Question 1 With respect to the structure of nucleic acids

Options for Questions 2-2

A Nucleotides linked by 3-5-phosphodiester bonds B Ribose linked to deoxyribose by hydrogen bonds

Purine bases linked to pyrimidine bases by hydrogen

Question 2 Nucleic acids are formed from

Options for Questions 3-3

Heating to 90 degrees C causes irreversible

Question 3 With respect to the structure of nucleic acids

Options for Questions 4-4

A Are highly acidic proteins B Are negatively charged proteins

Interact with the positively charged ribose group on

Options for Questions 5-5

Options for Questions 6-6

A Single-stranded linker DNA B Double-stranded RNA

C Double-stranded linker DNA D 3-5-phosphodiester bonds

With respect to the structure of DNA and chromosomes, nucleosomes

Options for Questions 7-7

A Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H1 B Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H2

C Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H4 D Double-stranded DNA bound to histone H2A

E Single-stranded DNA bound to histone H4

With respect to the structure of DNA and chromosomes, nucleosomes

Options for Questions 8-8

A Cannot be detected by Northern blotting B Can be detected by Western blotting

C Can be detected by Southern blotting and PCR D Cannot be detected by PCR

E Can be detected by Northern blotting and PCR

Question 8 Messenger RNA

Options for Questions 9-9

A Has a 3-methylated cap B Has a 5-poly-A tail

E Contains the base Thymine

Question 9 Messenger RNA

Options for Questions 10-10

Options for Questions 11-11

E mRNA is 80S in size while rRNA is 40S or 60S

Options for Questions 12-12

A 5% of total cellular RNA B 15% of total cellular RNA

C 35% of total cellular RNA D 55% of total cellular RNA

E 85% of total cellular RNA

Options for Questions 13-13

A Has a 3-methylated cap B Has a 5-poly-A tail

E Has 40S and 50S sub-units

Options for Questions 14-14

E Any incorrect bases are removed by nucleases

Options for Questions 15-15

C Addition of introns D Removal of introns

E Conversion of introns into exons

Options for Questions 16-16

A That begins with 5-GU B That ends in 5-GU

C That begins with 3-AG D That begins with 5-AG

E That ends with 3-GU

Options for Questions 17-17

E DNA synthesis occurs in the M phase

Options for Questions 18-18

The double helix is unwound at 20-80 sites forming

E DNA polymerase beta synthesizes the leading strand

Options for Questions 19-19

A Recognize specific amino acid sequences B Recognize specific proteins

C Recognize specific nucleotides D Recognize specific polysaccharides

E Recognize specific DNA sequences

A Western blotting B Southern blotting

C Northern blotting D Eastern blotting