Miller and Herlay Book Mcqs Complete-1 PDF

8/27/2016 Chapter 1 Science, the Cell and Molecular Biology
Chapter 1 Science, the Cell and Molecular
Biology
1. Evolutionary processes have resulted in approximately ______ million species, of which
1.4 million species have been described.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 430
d. 100
2. Ideas concerning the theory of organic evolution were published and supported with
convincing evidence by Charles Darwin in ______.
a. 1602
b. 1750
c. 1859
d. 1923
3. One source of evidence for evolution is _____. This source is the study of the distribution
of organisms around the world and helps explain why animals on different continents are
often very different even though their environments are similar. It also explains why fossils of
animals now living in Africa occur in South America.
a. molecular biology
b. comparative anatomy
c. paleontology
d. biogeography
4. Two structures that are similar because of common ancestry are ______.
a. analogous
b. homologous
c. comparative
d. None of the above is correct.
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5. Paleontology is a direct source of evidence of evolution because ______.
a. it is the study of structures in animals that have descended from common
ancestors.
b. it is the study of how animals have adapted to similar environments.
c. it is the study of the distribution of animals around the world.
d. it is the study of plant or animal remains or impressions that have been
encorporated into the earth's crust.
6. When two unrelated animals adapt to similar conditions and superficial structural
similarities result, ______ evolution has occurred.
a. parallel
b. convergent
c. divergent
d. homologous
7. Through the year 2000, about 92% of population growth is expected to occur in ______.
a. third world countries
b. the United States
c. Europe
d. Asia
8. The one environmental problem that is the root of all other environmental problems is
______.
a. pollution
b. depletion of fossil fuels
c. deforestation
d. over population
9. The first part of the binomial name of an animal is the _______.
a. species
b. genus
c. family
d. order
10. All of the following are presuppositions of science EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Nature is real.
b. Science provides absolute knowledge.
c. Causeandeffect relationships are consistent in nature.
d. Nature is understandable.
11. In an experiment, the ______ serves as a basis for comparing data derived from the
experiment.
a. theory
b. hypothesis
c. observation
d. control
12. When scientists talk about a/an _____, they are talking about a concept that has been
supported by data from years of research.
a. theory
b. datum
c. observation
d. hypothesis
13. A scientist attempts to formulate a reasonable explanation for the question she is asking.
This explanation is called the ______.
a. control
b. experiment
c. hypothesis
d. observation
14. In an experiment, the parameter that is being measured to assess the outcome of the
experiment is called the ______.
a. dependent variable
b. independent variable
c. controlled variable
15. Which of the following might indicate that an idea being represented as scientific is
actually based on pseudoscience?
a. The idea, after testing, is proven false.
b. The idea is based on experiments that lack adequate control groups.
c. The assumptions on which the idea is based are not open to scientific testing.
d. The idea is based on a test using two independent variables.
16. A fundamental unity in all life involves four common themes: a common genetic blueprint
(in DNA), a fundamental unit of life (the cell), a common evolutionary origin and shared
evolutionary forces, and a common environment.
True
False
17. Animals that have similar DNA molecules are considered evolutionarily related only if
their proteins are substantially different.
True
False
18. The wings of a bird and an insect are homologous.
True
False
19. By the year 2001 the population of the earth will reach approximately 6.35 million.
True
False
20. Bad science is not as dangerous as pseudoscience because the results of bad science
will eventually be refuted. Pseudoscience is not open to scientific testing, and its conclusions
may be difficult to distinguish from scientific conclusions.
True
False
21. Any valid scientific experiment may have more than one independent variable.
True
False
22. Any valid scientific experiment may have more than one dependent variable.
True
False
23. A theory is a hypothesis that has been supported in an experiment.
True
False
24. In science, the simplest hypothesis that seems consistent with the evidence is usually
the most easily tested.
True
False
25. In an experiment, the controlled variables should be the same in both the experimental
and control groups.
True
False
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8/27/2016 Chapter 2 The Chemical Basis of Animal Life
Chapter 2 The Chemical Basis of Animal
Life
1. The amount of matter in an object is referred to as its __________.
a. weight
b. mass
c. atomic number
d. atomic mass
2. Which of the following does not contribute to the majority of an animal's weight?
a. oxygen
b. carbon
c. hydrogen
d. sodium
3. The atomic mass of an element is equal to the number of __________ and _________ in
the nucleus of one of its atoms.
a. neutrons and protons
b. protons and electrons
c. electrons and neutrons
d. isotopes and neutrons
4. The atomic element of an element is the number of __________ in it's nucleus.
a. neutrons
b. electrons
c. protons
d. isotopes
5. If a substance can be broken down into two or more chemical elements, it is a
a. mixture.
b. solution.
c. element.
d. compound.
6. Which of the following is not a type of chemical bond?
a. ionic
b. hydrogen
c. covalent
d. hydrophobic
7. When elements share outershell electrons with other atoms, the chemical bond that
forms is a __________ bond.
a. ionic
b. hydrogen
c. covalent
d. nonpolar covalent
8. __________ bonds form when an atom or group of atoms develops an electrical charge
and attracts an atom or group of atoms with an opposite charge.
a. ionic
b. hydrogen
c. covalent
d. nonpolar covalent
9. Which of the following is an electrolyte?
a. water
b. NaCl
c. glucose
d. ethane
10. Distilled water has a pH of __________.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
11. Which of the following is not a definition of pH?
a. pH = log [H+]
b. pH = log(1/H+)
c. A measure of the hydrogen ion concentration.
d. A measure of the hydroxyl ion concentration.
12. The key element in all organic molecules is
a. oxygen.
b. hydrogen.
c. nitrogen.
d. carbon.
13. Substances that resist a change in pH are called
a. electrolytes.
b. bases.
c. buffers.
d. acids.
14. The major source of energy in animals comes from
a. fats.
b. nucleic acids.
c. proteins.
d. carbohydrates.
15. Two monosaccharides can combine to form a
a. isomer.
b. polysaccharide.
c. disaccharide.
d. hydrogen bond.
16. Chitin is a good example of a
a. polysaccharide.
b. carbohydrate.
c. polymer.
d. all of these (ac)
17. Lactose is made up of __________ and __________.
a. glucose and galactose
b. glucose and fructose
c. glucose and glucose
d. maltose and glucose
18. Steroids are naturally occurring, lipid soluble molecules.
True
False
19. The individual building blocks of proteins are called amino acids.
True
False
20. When two amino acids bond, they form a tripeptide.
True
False
21. A proteins linear sequence of amino acids is its secondary structure.
True
False
22. Nucleotides are made up of nucleic acid subunits.
True
False
23. NAD+ and FAD are nucleotide coenzymes.
True
False
24. Testosterone and cholesterol are good examples of steroids.
True
False
25. The threedimensional arrangement of more than one polypeptide gives some proteins
their quaternary structure.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 3 Cells, Tissues, Organs, and Organ Systems of Animals
Chapter 3 Cells, Tissues, Organs, and
Organ Systems of Animals
1. Eukaryote cells do not have a __________.
a. centriole
b. DNA
c. cytoskeleton
d. cell wall
2. All eukaryotic cells have three basic parts. Which of the following is not a basic part of a
typical eukaryotic cell?
a. nucleus
b. cytoplasm
c. plasma membrane
d. nucleoid
3. Which of the following is not a function of the cell's glycocalyx?
a. transport
b. celltocell recognition
c. behavior
d. recognition
4. The ability of the plasma membrane to let some substances in and keep others out is
called
a. homeostasis.
b. selective permeability.
c. facilitated diffusion.
d. osmosis.
5. Energy is required for __________.
a. simple diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion
c. osmosis
d. active transport
6. The bulk movement of material into a cell by the formation of a vesicle is called
a. simple diffusion.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. endocytosis.
d. osmosis.
7. If hydrostatic pressure is used to move a molecule through a membrane, this is termed
a. filtration.
b. osmosis.
c. active transport.
d. endocytosis.
8. __________ are the nonmembrane bound structures that are the sites for protein
synthesis.
a. Centrioles
b. Lysosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Vacuoles
9. Which of the following organelles functions in the digestion of materials?
a. lysosomes
b. ribosomes
c. vesicles
d. microfilaments
10. Which of the following is not found within a mitochondrion?
a. DNA
b. matrix
c. cristae
d. RNA
11. Which of the following is not part of the cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cell?
a. microtubules
b. microfilaments
c. intermediate filaments
d. cilia
12. The centrioles arise from the __________.
a. microtubuleorganizing center
b. microfilamentorganizing center
c. basal body
d. nuclear envelope
13. The type of connective tissue that stores lipids is called
a. adipose tissue.
b. blood tissue.
c. epithelial tissue.
d. storage tissue.
14. Cells involved with protection, support, and nourishment within the nervous system are
called
a. neurons.
b. glial cells.
c. impulse conducting cells.
d. nerves.
15. __________ are the functional units of an animal's body.
a. Cells
b. Tissues
c. Organs
d. Systems
16. The highest level or organization in an animal's body is the __________ level.
a. cell
b. tissue
c. organ
d. organismic
17. All of the following are types of connective tissue except
a. blood.
b. bone.
c. nervous.
d. cartilage.
18. The heart is a good example of an organ system.
True
False
19. Intercalated disks would be found in smooth muscle cells.
True
False
20. Collagenous fibers would be found in fibrocartilage.
True
False
21. Simple squamous epithelium is found in the air sacs of the lungs.
True
False
22. Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the surface of the skin.
True
False
23. Both cilia and flagella function in movement.
True
False
24. The nuclear envelope separates the nucleus from the plasma membrane.
True
False
25. The Golgi apparatus consists of stacks of cisternae.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 4 Energy and Enzymes: Life's Driving and Controlling Forces
Chapter 4 Energy and Enzymes: Life's
Driving and Controlling Forces
1. Because plants capture solar energy they are termed __________ consumers.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. decomposing
2. The total of all the chemical reactions occurring in a cell is termed
a. anabolism.
b. catabolism.
c. metabolism.
d. kinetic energy.
3. A typical food chain consists of
a. primary consumers.
b. secondary consumers.
c. decomposers.
d. all of the above (ac)
4. Chemical reactions that occur spontaneously are called __________.
a. endergonic
b. exergonic
c. catalysis
d. positive reactions
5. Which of the following is associated with the second law of thermodynamics?
a. entropy
b. all objects in the universe tend to become more disordered
c. the total amount of disorder in the universe is continually increasing
6. Electrical energy passing through a hot plate to produce heat energy would be a good
example of
a. the first law of thermodynamics.
b. the second law of thermodynamics.
c. entropy
7. __________ lower the amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction.
a. Catalysts
b. Enzymes
c. Ribozymes
8. When a substrate molecule binds to an enzyme's active site, an __________ forms.
a. product
b. reactant
c. enzymesubstrate complex
d. element
9. Which of the following is a cofactor?
a. calcium ions
b. copper ions
c. manganese ions
d. all of the above are cofactors
10. Enzyme activity can be affected by
a. temperature.
b. pH.
c. substrate concentration.
11. The major energy currency of the cell is
a. ATP.
b. ADP.
c. AMP.
d. DNA.
12. One of the most important coenzymes in the cell is the hydrogen acceptor
a. ATP.
b. NAD.
c. FAD.
d. ADP.
13. Within their cells, animals make ATP by
a. substratelevel phosphorylation.
b. chemiosmosis.
c. neither a nor b
d. both a and b
14. From an evolutionary perspective, the oldest mode of generating energy is
a. substratelevel phosphorylation.
b. chemiosmosis.
c. oxidative phosphorylation.
d. direct energy transfers.
15. NAD+ is in its __________ form.
a. oxidized
b. reduced
c. anabolic
d. catabolic
16. The breaking of one highenergy bond in ATP releases approximately _________ kcal of
energy.
a. 1
b. 5
c. 7
d. 25
17. Cells contain a reservoir of ADP and phosphate (Pi) as long as the cell is living.
True
False
18. Coenzymes are nonprotein, organic molecules that participate in enzymecatalyzed
reactions.
True
False
19. The loss of an enzyme's shape is called renaturation.
True
False
20. The reactants of enzymatic reactions are called substrates.
True
False
21. Work is the transfer of matter.
True
False
22. Bacteria and fungi are good examples of primary consumers.
True
False
23. Kinetic energy is stored energy.
True
False
24. Chemical reactions that do not proceed spontaneously are called endergonic.
True
False
25. The measure of the degree of disorder or disorganization is called entropy.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 5 How Animals Harvest Energy Stored in Nutrients
Chapter 5 How Animals Harvest Energy
Stored in Nutrients
1. The end product of glycolysis is
a. glucose 6phosphate
b. pyruvate
c. fructose 6phosphate
d. fructose 1,6diphosphate
2. Which of the following occurs in the cytoplasm?
a. glycolysis
b. fermentation
c. electron transport chain
d. both a and b
3. The end products of fermentation are __________ and _________.
a. pyruvate and glucose
b. pyruvate and lactic acid
c. lactic acid and alcohol
d. alcohol and glucose
4. How many ATPs are produced in glycolysis?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5. The net ATP gain in glycolysis is
a. one.
b. two.
c. three.
d. four.
6. Aerobic respiration occurs in the_________.
a. cytoplasm
b. nucleus
c. lysosomes
d. mitochondrion
7. The transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is termed
a. a redox reaction.
b. an oxidationreduction reaction.
c. a transfer reaction.
d. both a and b are correct
8. Fermentation regenerates __________ which is needed to drive glycolysis to ultimately
obtain ATP.
a. FAD
b. NAD+
c. ADP
d. AMP
9. When the oxidized form of FAD is reduced, it becomes
a. FADHb.
b. FADH.
c. NADH.
d. NADH+.
10. The Krebs cycle generates __________ NADHs.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
11. The eukaryotic cell obtains a net gain of __________ ATP molecules from the
breakdown of each glucose molecule.
a. 2
b. 20
c. 36
d. 42
12. When an amide group is removed from an amino acid to yield ammonia, this is termed
a. glycolysis.
b. lipolysis.
c. amination.
d. deamination.
13. Free fatty acids can be catabolized by entering the Krebs cycle via
a. acetylCoA.
b. pyruvate.
c. glyceraldehyde.
d. NAD.
14. Amino acids can enter the Krebs cycle via
a. pyruvate.
b. acetylCoA.
c. no intermediate.
15. The total number of ATPs produced from the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule
of glucose is
a. 30.
b. 36.
c. 40.
d. 44.
16. Reactions of the Krebs cycle occur in the mitochondrial __________.
a. matrix
b. outer membrane
c. inner membrane
d. cristae
17. The Krebs cycle and glycolysis is regulated by the enzyme __________.
a. glucase
b. phosphatase
c. phosphofructokinase
d. enolase
18. Electrons from NADH and FADH2 generated in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle are
passed along electroncarrier molecules in the electron transport chain by way of oxidation
reduction reactions.
True
False
19. When the electrons reach the end of the electron transport chain, an oxygen molecule
accepts the electrons and combines with hydrogen to generate a water molecule.
True
False
20. For each pyruvate molecule that enters the Krebs cycle by way of acetylCoA, two CO2,
one ATP, and three NADHs, and one FADH2 molecules form.
True
False
21. Another name for the Krebs cycle is the citric acid cycle.
True
False
22. Oxidation of a molecule results in the gain of electrons.
True
False
23. Oxidationreduction reactions always occur together.
True
False
24. The end result of the anaerobic catabolism of one glucose molecule via glycolysis is one
pyruvate molecule.
True
False
25. Coenzyme A is necessary for pyruvate to enter aerobic respiration.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 6 Cell Division
Chapter 6 Cell Division
1. The period from the time a cell is produced until it completes mitosis is called the
__________.
a. mitotic phase
b. cell cycle
c. cytokinesis phase
d. G1 phase
2. Most of the cell cycle is occupied by the __________.
a. G1 phase
b. G2 phase
c. S phase
d. interphase
3. Chromosome replication occurs during the __________ of mitosis.
a. G1 phase
b. G2 phase
c. S phase
d. interphase
4. A copy of a chromosome produced by replication is called a
a. chromatid.
b. daughter chromosome.
c. sister chromosome
d. both b and c
5. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle are attached to the __________.
a. kinetochore
b. centromere
c. centrosome
6. Chromosomes become visible with the light microscope during __________ phase.
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
7. The phase of mitosis that takes the least amount of time is __________.
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
8. The mitotic spindle disassembles during what phase of mitosis?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
9. Which of the following enzymes plays a central role in the control of the cell cycle?
a. cdc2 kinase
b. MPF
c. cyclin
d. glucose 6phosphatase
10. The fusion of gametes is called
a. gametotangeny.
b. syngamy.
c. crossing over.
d. genetic recombination.
11. During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up sidebyside in a
process called __________.
a. genetic recombination
b. meiosis II
c. synapsis
d. crossingover
12. Crossing over is a form of
a. synapsis.
b. syngamy.
c. genetic recombination.
d. dyad formation.
13. Spermatogenesis begins with an unspecialized cell called a __________.
a. daughter cell
b. sex cell
c. sister chromatid
d. spermatogonium
14. In spermatogenesis, meiotic division II produces __________.
a. spermatids
b. daughter chromosomes
c. sister chromosomes
d. daughter cells
15. An oogonium grows and matures into a primary __________.
a. oocyte
b. oogonium
c. polar body
d. ovum
16. In oogenesis in humans, in order for the second mitotic division to occur, __________
must occur.
a. separation of sister chromosomes
b. fertilization
c. crossing over
d. synapsis
17. Each primary spermatocyte gives rise to __________ spermatids.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. In oogenesis, the larger of the daughter cells is the secondary oocyte.
True
False
19. Spermatids undergo one last meiotic division before maturing into spermatozoa.
True
False
20. In meiosis, the second meiotic division (meiosis II) resembles an ordinary mitotic division
except the number of chromosomes has been reduced by half.
True
False
21. Homologous chromosomes carry genes for the same traits.
True
False
22. Genetic recombination or crossingover is a major form of genetic variation.
True
False
23. Evidence indicates that events in the nucleus control the cell cycle.
True
False
24. Prophase begins once daughter chromosomes appear at opposite poles of the cell.
True
False
25. Cell division occurs in all animals.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 7 Inheritance Patterns
Chapter 7 Inheritance Patterns
1. The era of modern genetics began with the rediscovery of the works of _______ in 1900.
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Charles Darwin
c. Thomas Morgan
d. James Watson and Francis Crick
2. The principle of segregation states that _______.
a. during gamete formation pairs of factors move into gamete cells independently of
one another.
b. heterozygous individuals express the dominant trait.
c. heterozygous individuals express the recessive trait.
d. pairs of hereditary factors are distributed between gametes during gamete
formation.
3. Which of the following symbols would represent alleles of one another?
a. vg and se
b. vg and vg
c. vg and vg+
d. se and dp
4. A gene that hides the expression of its allele is ________.
a. dominant
b. recessive
c. codominant
d. homozygous
5. The visual expression that results from the genetic make up of an individual is called the
_______.
a. genotype
b. phenotype
c. karyotype
d. holotype
6. The parents in a monohybrid cross are all _______.
a. heterozygous for genes at two loci.
b. homozygous for genes at two loci.
c. heterozygous for genes at one locus.
d. homozygous for genes at one locus.
7. The offspring of a monohybrid cross are _______.
a. 1/4 homozygous and 3/4 heterozygous
b. 1/2 homozygous and 1/2 heterozygous
c. 3/4 homozygous and 1/4 heterozygous
d. all heterozygous
8. Phenotypically recessive individuals make up ______ of the offspring of a monohybrid
cross.
a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 3/4
d. all
9. A geneticist crossed two fruit flies. One had vestigial wings, and the other was
heterozygous for this trait. Which of the following results should be expected for this cross?
a. 3/4 wild and 1/4 vestigial
b. 1/2 wild and 1/2 vestigial
c. all wild wings
d. all vestigial wings
10. A geneticist crossed two fruit flies. Both were heterozygous for vestigial wings. Which of
the following results should be expected for this cross?
a. 1/4 wild and 3/4 vestigial
b. 1/2 wild and 1/2 vestigial
c. 3/4 wild and 1/4 vestigial
d. all wild
11. The idea that pairs of factors segregate independently of one another during gamete
formation is known as the _______.
a. principle of independent assortment
b. principle of segregation
c. HardyWeinberg principle
d. law of the gene
12. In a cross between two fruit flies that were both heterozygous for vestigial wings and
sepia eyes, one should expect about ______ of the offspring to have wild wings and sepia
eyes.
a. 1/16
b. 3/16
c. 1/2
d. 9/16
13. In a cross between two fruit flies that were both heterozygous for vestigial wings and
sepia eyes, one should expect about ______ of the offspring to have wild wings and wild
eyes.
a. 1/16
b. 3/16
c. 1/2
d. 9/16
14. A geneticist performed a testcross of a fruit fly that was phenotypically wild. There were
42 vestigial winged; wild eyed flies and 40 wild winged; wild eyed flies in the offspring. What
was the genotype of the original wild fruit fly?
a. vg+vg; se+se
b. vg+vg; se+se+
c. vg+vg+; se+se+
d. vgvg; sese
15. The ABO blood system is an example of _______ because the heterozygote (e.g., IAIB)
expresses both alleles.
a. incomplete dominance
b. codominance
c. complete dominance
d. multiple alleles
16. An individual is heterozygous for a trait if the two genes coding for the trait are identical.
True
False
17. Mendel's principle of independent assortment explains why a fruit fly can have vestigial
wings and sepia eyes when one parent had vestigial wings and wild eyes and the other
parent had wild wings and sepia eyes.
True
False
18. In a dihybrid cross, 1/16 of the offspring are phenotypically wild.
True
False
19. The principle of independent assortment concerns events that occur during the first
meiotic division.
True
False
20. The principle of segregation concerns events that occur during the second meiotic
division.
True
False
21. Assume A and B represent genes at different loci. The notation AA BB would represent
the genotype of an individual.
True
False
22. The notation A B C D would represent the genotype of a gamete.
True
False
23. There can only be two alleles for a particular trait in any population.
True
False
24. A cross between a roan bull and a roan cow would result in a phenotypic ration of 3 roan
to 1 white offspring.
True
False
25. A testcross involves a cross between an individual with an unknown genotype and a
homozygous recessive individual.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 8 Chromosomes and Gene Linkage
Chapter 8 Chromosomes and Gene
Linkage
1. The discovery that genes occur on chromosomes was made by ______.
a. Edouard van Benden
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Thomas Hunt Morgan
d. Friedrich Schneider
2. An association of DNA and histone proteins is responsible for packaging DNA into
chromosomes. This combination is called a(n) ______.
a. autosome
b. histone
c. heterosome
d. nucleosome
3. Active portions of chromosomes are usually found in lightly staining regions of the
chromosome called ______.
a. euchromatic regions
b. heterochromatic regions
c. histones
d. autosomes
4. An animal with one set (i.e., 1N) of chromosomes is _______.
a. haploid
b. diploid
c. triploid
d. polyploid
5. A few animals like brine shrimp and some flatworms have more than two sets of
chromosomes. This condition is referred to as ______.
a. haploidy
b. diploidy
c. polysomy
d. polyploidy
6. The whiteeye trait in fruit flies is recessive and Xlinked. A whiteeyed female is crossed
with a redeyed male. Which of the following should be true of the offspring?
a. all female offspring should be whiteeyed
b. all male offspring should be whiteeyed
c. one half of the female offspring should be whiteeyed
d. one half of the male offspring should be whiteeyed
7. A whiteeyed male is crossed with a redeyed female whose father had white eyes. Which
of the following should be true of the offspring?
a. all female offspring should be whiteeyed and all male offspring should be red
eyed
b. all female offspring should be redeyed and all male offspring should be white
eyed
c. one half of the female offspring should be whiteeyed and one half of the male
offspring should be whiteeyed
d. all female offspring should be redeyed and one half of the male offspring should
be whiteeyed
8. A redeyed male is crossed with a redeyed female whose father was whiteeyed. Which
of the following should be true of the offspring?
a. all female offspring should be whiteeyed and all male offspring should be red
eyed
b. all female offspring should be redeyed and one half of the male offspring should
be whiteeyed
c. one half of the female offspring should be whiteeyed and all of the male
offspring should be whiteeyed
d. all female offspring should be redeyed and all of the male offspring should be
whiteeyed
9. All of the following would result in cells containing one or two Barr bodies except one.
Select the exception.
a. a normal female
b. a normal male
c. a XXY male
d. a XXX female
10. Which of the following would be true of a woman who showed extreme thinning of the
hair?
a. Her daughters would all show extreme thinning of the hair regardless of the
father's genotype.
b. Her daughters would show extreme thinning of the hair only if the father was
bald.
c. Her sons would be bald only if the father was bald.
d. Her sons would not be bald under any circumstances.
11. Preparing and examining slides and photographs of metaphase chromosomes is called
_______.
a. chromosome mapping
b. linkage analysis
c. karyotyping
d. restriction mapping
12. The addition or deletion of one or more chromosomes in a chromosome set is called
_______.
a. polyploidy
b. aneuploidy
c. diploidy
d. monoploidy
13. Trisomy 21 is most common in mothers of the _____ age group.
a. 15 to 19
b. 20 to 34
c. 35 to 39
d. 40 to 45
14. Which of the following chromosomal rearrangement usually results in least serious
phenotypic effects.
a. nondisjunction
b. translocation
c. inversion
d. deletion
15. Which of the following chromosomal rearrangements results from the flipflopping of a
central segment of a chromosome?
a. nondisjunction
b. translocation
c. inversion
d. deletion
16. In the human XY system of sex determination, the fertilization of a normal egg by a Y
containing sperm cell would result in a female offspring.
True
False
17. In active portions of a chromosome, chromatin is in a 10 nm form.
True
False
18. Linked genes are always carried to the same pole of a cell during meiotic division.
True
False
19. An Xlinked recessive gene is expressed whenever it is present in male offspring.
True
False
20. The Lyon hypothesis accounts for the presence of Barr bodies in the cells of normal
males.
True
False
21. All sons of a man with a Ylinked trait would also have the trait.
True
False
22. Pattern baldness is an Xlinked trait and can never be passed from father to son.
True
False
23. Nondisjunction occurs when a portion of one chromosome is shifted to a nonhomologous
chromosome.
True
False
24. Secondary nondisjunction occurs during the second meiotic division and results in one of
the four meiotic products having and extra chromosome and one of the four meiotic products
being deficient in a chromosome.
True
False
25. Gene duplications have had important evolutionary consequences. Extra copies of
genes have undergone mutations that have been beneficial for a species.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 9 Molecular Genetics: Ultimate Cellular Control
Chapter 9 Molecular Genetics: Ultimate
Cellular Control
1. In the DNA molecule, the base adenine pairs with the base ______.
a. adenine.
b. cytosine.
c. thymine.
d. uracil.
2. A DNA nucleotide consists of all of the following EXCEPT _______.
a. a base.
b. ribose.
c. deoxyribose.
d. phosphate.
3. During protein synthesis, ______ is produced in the nucleus and carries the genetic code
to the cytoplasm.
a. transfer RNA
b. messenger RNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. deoxynucleotide
4. _______ involves the formation of a polypeptide chain at the ______.
a. Transcription/nucleus
b. Transcription/ribosome
c. Translation/nucleolus
d. Translation/ribosome
5. A sequence of three bases in mRNA that codes for an amino acid is a _______.
a. nucleotide
b. nucleoside
c. codon
d. anticodon
6. The ______ carries amino acids to the ribosome where a polypeptide is assembled.
a. transfer RNA
b. messenger RNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. deoxynucleotide
7. During protein synthesis at the ribosome, the ______ pairs with the ______.
a. nucleotide/nucleoside
b. codon/anticodon
c. codon/amino acid
d. mRNA/DNA
8. All of the following statements regarding DNA and RNA are true except one. Select the
false statement.
a. RNA is single stranded, and DNA is double stranded.
b. RNA contains the base thymine, and DNA contains the base uracil.
c. RNA is found in the nucleus and cytoplasm, and DNA is mainly in the nucleus.
d. RNA contains the sugar ribose, and DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.
9. Which of the following are pyrimidine bases found in RNA.
a. adenine and guanine
b. cytosine and thymine
c. adenine and uracil
d. cytosine and uracil
10. DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because ______.
a. it is remarkably error free
b. it results in one new DNA molecule and one parental molecule
c. it results in two DNA molecules, each consisting of one new and one parental
strand
d. it results in two completely new parental molecules
11. The fact that more than one codon in mRNA can code for a particular amino acid is
referred to as ______.
a. degeneracy
b. redundancy
c. the wobble
d. antiparallel
12. Which of the following occurs at the beginning of transcription?
a. RNA polymerase recognizes a promotor.
b. Introns are removed.
c. Codons pair with anticodons.
d. A new strand of DNA is synthesized.
13. Which of the following occurs at the beginning of translation?
a. A UGA codon is aligned with the P site of the ribosome.
b. An AUG codon is aligned with the P site of the ribosome.
c. RNA polymerase recognizes a promotor.
d. Two strands of DNA are separated.
14. In recombinant DNA techniques, ___________ is used to cut DNA strands prior to
inserting a piece of DNA into a plasmid.
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. a restriction enzyme
d. the polymerase chain reaction
15. Inserting the ADA gene into SCID patients may allow them to produce _________, which
inactivates chemicals that breakdown T lymphocytes and cause immune deficiency
a. DNA ligase
b. RNA polymerase
c. restriction enzyme
d. adenosine deaminase
16. The nitrogen base of a nucleotide attaches at the 3' carbon of the sugar.
True
False
17. The 5' end of a DNA strand would have a free phosphate attached to it.
True
False
18. The 5' end of one DNA strand would be directly across from the 3' end of the sister
strand. The term antiparallel refers to this condition.
True
False
19. During DNA replication, the new strand of DNA grows in the 3' to 5' direction.
True
False
20. There are 20 different codons, one for each naturally occurring amino acid.
True
False
21. The central dogma indicates that genetic information in DNA is not translated directly into
protein, but is first transcribed into transfer RNA.
True
False
22. During protein synthesis, energy for aligning tRNAamino acid units in the ribosome,
moving
23. the ribosome along the mRNA, and termination is supplied in the form of GTP.
True
False
24. An intron is a region of DNA that does not code for functional protein, and intron
ribonucleotides must be spliced out of newly transcribed mRNA.
True
False
25. After it has been synthesized, a protein usually enters the endoplasmic reticulum where
amino acids may be removed to form the functional protein.
True
False
26. The most severe point mutations are those that occur at the third position of a DNA
triplet.
True
Fals
8/27/2016 Chapter 10 Descriptive Embryology
Chapter 10 Descriptive Embryology
1. The study of animal development from the fertilized egg to the formation of all major organ
systems is called ______.
a. comparative anatomy
b. embryology
c. entomology
d. molecular biology
2. Lysins are released from the ______ and dissolve the gel coat of an egg during
fertilization.
a. vitelline layer
b. zona pellucida
c. acrosome
d. microvilli
3. All of the following are a part of membrane and cortical events associated with egg
activation EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Microvilli from the egg plasma membrane wrap around a sperm cell.
b. A fertilization membrane forms.
c. The mitotic spindle forms.
d. The cortical layer thickens, and rotational and sliding movements of the outer
egg cytoplasm begin.
4. Bindin receptors serve the following function during fertilization.
a. They promote spermegg adhesion and are species specific.
b. They ensure fertilization by a single sperm cell.
c. These receptors are found on the acrosomal process of a sperm cell and
promote the release of sperm lysins.
d. They initiate protein synthesis in a fertilized egg.
5. ______ forms the inner lining of the digestive cavity of an embryo.
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Blastoderm
6. _______ forms muscle, blood, skeletal elements and other connective tissues.
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Blastoderm
7. A stage of echinoderm embryology consisting of a hollow ball of cells is called the
_______.
a. morula
b. blastula
c. gastrula
d. archenteron
8. Invagination of cells in the vegetal half of the echinoderm embryo occurs during a process
called ______.
a. gastrulation
b. neurulation
c. morphogenesis
d. epiboly
9. All of the following are structures that characterize chordates EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. dorsal tubular nervous system
b. open circulatory system
c. notochord
d. pharyngeal slits or pouches
10. Gastrulation in an amphibian embryo occurs as superficial cells begin to roll over the
dorsal lip of the blastopore in process called _______.
a. epiboly
b. morphogenesis
c. neurulation
d. involution
11. All of the following are formed during gastrulation in an amphibian embryo EXCEPT one.
a. yolk plug
b. archenteron
c. blastopore
d. blastocoel
12. In the amphibian embryo, the notochord and mesoderm form from ______.
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. chordamesoderm
d. hypoblast
13. Early cleavages in the zygote of a bird result in the formation of the ______.
a. blastoderm
b. Henson's node
c. amnion
d. chorion
14. An inward migration of epiblast cells of the bird embryo results in the formation of
mesoderm. This migration occurs along a linear invagination called the _______.
a. dorsal lip of the blastopore
b. primitive streak
c. chordamesoderm
d. allantois
15. The extraembryonic membranes of amniotes include all of the following EXCEPT one.
a. amnion
b. somite
c. chorion
d. allantois
16. The fusion of the sperm nucleus and the egg nucleus is the beginning of a series of
biochemical changes in the egg that ensures the completion of fertilization and initiates
embryonic development. These changes are called egg activation.
True
False
17. Most mRNA used during protein synthesis that occurs in early development is deposited
in the egg by the mother.
True
False
18. Cleavages that pass entirely through an embryo are meroblastic.
True
False
19. In an echinoderm embryo, the coelom forms as a result of splitting solid blocks of
mesoderm.
True
False
20. Gastrulation of the amphibian embryo results in a spreading and thinning of ectodermal
cells toward the blastopore. This process is called epiboly.
True
False
21. The extraembryonic membrane that encloses a bird embryo in a fluidfilled sac is the
amnion.
True
False
22. The extraembryonic membrane that encloses embryonic wastes of a bird is the chorion.
True
False
23. After gastrulation of a bird embryo, the embryo lifts off the yolk but remains connected to
the yolk through a yolk stalk. Blood vessels develop in the yolk stalk that carry nutrients from
the yolk to the embryo.
True
False
24. The amnion and the chorion of a bird embryo become highly vascular and function in gas
exchange.
True
False
25. Undifferentiated mesoderm, called mesenchyme, develops into blood, bone, and other
connective tissues.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 11 Evolution: A Historical Perspective
Chapter 11 Evolution: A Historical
Perspective
1. Which of the following individuals was an early proponent of evolution. Even though his
explanation of how change in species occurs was incorrect, he was steadfast in promoting
ideas of evolutionary change.
a. Alfred Russel Wallace
b. Charles Darwin
c. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
d. Godfrey H. Hardy
2. According to Charles Darwin, evolution is ________.
a. survival of the fittest
b. descent with modification
c. inheritance of acquired characteristics
d. absence of change in a species.
3. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain, rivers, volcanoes, and
geological upliftjust as it has been in the past in known as ________.
a. uniformitarianism
b. phyletic gradualism
c. punctuated equilibrium
d. natural selection
4. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain, rivers, volcanoes, and
geological upliftjust as it has been in the past was developed by _______.
a. Charles Darwin
b. Alfred Russel Wallace
c. James Hutton and Charles Lyell
d. John Henslow
5. The discovery of fossils of horses, giant armadillos, and giant sloths in South America
suggested to Charles Darwin that _______.
a. horses evolved in Europe and were brought to America by early explorers
b. the species composition of the earth has changed through geological history
c. little change in South American life forms occurred since they originated
d. catastrophic events led to the extinction of mammals in South America
6. The formation of new species from an ancestral species in response to the opening of
new habitats is ______.
a. neutral selection
b. natural selection
c. neoDarwinism
d. adaptive radiation
7. All of the following are a part of the theory of evolution by natural selection EXCEPT one.
a. All organisms have a far greater reproductive potential than is ever realized.
b. Inherited variations arise as a result of encountering an environmental challenge
that must be overcome.
c. There is a constant struggle for existence, and many individuals die.
d. Adaptive traits are perpetuated in subsequent generations because individuals
with less adaptive traits are less likely to reproduce than individuals with more adaptive
traits.
8. An adaptation is any characteristic of an organism that ______.
a. makes the organism stronger
b. makes the organism faster
c. makes the organism better able to reproduce in its particular environment.
d. Both a and b are correct.
9. The combination of Darwinian evolutionary theory and population genetics is referred to
as _______.
a. modern synthesis or neoDarwinism
b. biogeography
c. adaptation theory
d. adaptive radiation
10. The explanation of why fossils of horses occur in South America even though there were
no horses in South America at the time America was settled is found in the study called
_______.
a. geology
b. anthropology
c. biogeography
d. systematics
11. The study of the movement of crustal plates during continental drift is called _______
a. historical geology
b. biogeography
c. anthropology
d. plate tectonics
12. As continents move apart, new crustal material is thrust up from the ocean floor in the
Atlantic ocean, and old crustal material sinks into the earth in _______.
a. fault lines of western North and South America
b. oceanic trenches of the Pacific Ocean
c. the Grand Canyon
d. mountain ranges of the world
13. Geologists estimate that the earth is about _____ years old.
a. 100 million
b. 1.2 billion
c. 4.6 billion
d. 12.3 billion
14. Life arose about _____ years ago.
a. 50 million
b. 1 billion
c. 2.5 billion
d. 3.6 billion
15. RNA is considered by many biologists to be a good candidate for the first genetic
material. This idea hinges on the discovery that some kinds of RNA ________.
a. have the ability to code for proteins
b. have the ability to code for DNA
c. can act as enzymes
d. are the only genetic material in many primitive eukayotic organisms
16. The theory of uniformitarianism was important for Charles Darwin's ideas because it
indicated that the earth was much older than 6,000 years and that the face of the earth
changed gradually over its history.
True
False
17. Ancestral finches encountered habitats in the Galapagos islands that were devoid of
other birds and predators. They rapidly multiplied and filled ecological roles that were
unusual for finches on the mainland. This account is an example of adaptive radiation.
True
False
18. Natural selection is a positive force that selects for individuals with adaptive traits,
allowing them to reproduce.
True
False
19. Evolutionary adaptations lead to perfection in a species.
True
False
20. Variations on which natural selection acts arise as a result of random mutations, not
because of a challenge within the environment. A new variation may, or may not, be
adaptive.
True
False
21. About 250 million years ago all major continents of the earth were united into a single
land mass called Pangaea.
True
False
22. Charles Darwin worked closely with Alfred Wallace in the development of the theory of
evolution by natural selection.
True
False
23. Natural selection involves detrimental traits being eliminated from a population by the
failure of the organism containing them to reproduce.
True
False
24. An adaptation present in an organism in one environment may be maladaptive in another
environment.
True
False
25. Most biologists believe that virtually any characteristic of an animal is an adaptation to
some kind of environmental situation.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 12 Evolution and Gene Frequencies
Chapter 12 Evolution and Gene
Frequencies
1. A change in the frequency of alleles in a population is a definition of ________.
a. natural selection
b. genetic drift
c. evolution
d. gene flow
2. The study of genetic events that occur in gene pools is called _______.
a. evolutionary genetics
b. population genetics
c. gene pool biology
d. allopatrics
3. If the requirements of the HardyWeinberg theorem are all met, then _______.
a. evolution is occurring rapidly
b. evolution is occurring slowly
c. evolution is not occurring
d. gene frequencies are changing
4. Two male deer are equally adapted to their environment. One of these bucks is in the
wrong place at the wrong time and is shot by a hunter. The other buck reproduces, passing
its genes on to following generations. This account is an example of _______.
a. natural selection
b. gene migration
c. bottleneck effect
d. genetic drift
5. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Evolution is always occurring in all populations.
b. Evolution occurs in virtually all populations at some point in their history.
c. Evolution rarely occurs in any population.
d. Evolution never occurs.
6. Two tortoises are caught on a mat of floating vegetation and get carried out to sea. Their
mat happens to land on a volcanic island that is inhabited by a small population of the same
species. Breeding with the island tortoise population introduces new alleles that adds to the
genetic diversity of tortoises on the island. This account is an example of _______.
a. genetic drift
b. gene flow
c. natural selection
d. neutral selection
7. After a bottleneck event has occurred ________.
a. the genetic diversity of a population is greater
b. the genetic diversity of a population is decreased
c. the size of the population always increases
d. the size of the population always decreases
8. When chance events increase or decrease the frequencies of genes in a population,
_______ has occurred.
a. genetic drift
b. natural selection
c. random mating
d. gene flow
9. From the perspective of a population, mutations are positive events because ______.
a. they weed out less fit individuals.
b. they provide new genetic variations that can help ensure the survival of the
species.
c. most mutations make individuals stronger.
d. they are always expressed when they occur.
10. When a geographical barrier divides members of a population, ______ speciation may
occur.
a. sympatric
b. allopatric
c. stabilizing
d. directional
11. A mutation that caused a change in the courtship behavior of occurred in, and spread
among, a few members of a population of cranes. This change in courtship behavior
prevents those that have the mutation from mating with those that do not have the mutation,
even though the two groups share the same breeding territory. This mutation may cause
______ speciation.
a. sympatric
b. allopatric
c. stabilizing
d. directional
12. The punctuated equilibrium model of evolution is the idea that ______.
a. evolution occurs very slowly and steadily over long periods of time
b. evolution occurs a constant, rapid rate
c. evolution occurs rapidly for short periods of time and then a population
undergoes very little change for long periods of time
d. evolution does not occur
13. Natural selection that narrows the phenotypic range by selecting against phenotypic
extremes is called ______.
a. disruptive selection
b. stabilizing selection.
c. directional selection
d. neutral selection
14. Sicklecell anemia was maintained in African populations because the heterozygote was
resistant to malaria. Both homozygotes were selected against by severe sickling or
susceptibility to malaria. This example illustrates ______.
a. directional selection
b. disruptive selection
c. neutral selection
d. heterozygote superiority
15. All genes in an organism do not necessarily change at the same rate. Most cats, for
example, are easily recognized as cats. These traits have been conserved in evolution.
Other traits (e.g., length of the tail, pelage, and stature) vary from species to species. This is
an example of ________.
a. molecular evolution
b. mosaic evolution
c. gene duplication
d. phyletic gradualism
16. In order for speciation to occur, some members of a population must be reproductively
isolated from other members of the population.
True
False
17. Genetic drift is most likely to occur in large populations.
True
False
18. When individuals leave a population and the diversity of alleles in the population
decreases, genetic drift has occurred.
True
False
19. The change in the frequency of body color alleles in peppered moths in England during
the industrial revolution was an example of directional selection.
True
False
20. Virtually all evolutionist agree that neutral selection is the mechanism behind most
evolutionary change.
True
False
21. The formation of a physical barrier that divides one population into two groups is an
example of postmating isolation.
True
False
22. An allele that has been conserved evolutionarily would be present in most members of a
group.
True
False
23. Phyletic gradualism is attractive to many paleontologists because it explains the absence
of fossils that document transitional forms between related organisms.
True
False
24. Speciation that occurs in small, local populations is called parapatric speciation.
True
False
25. Evolution invariably leads to some kind of improvement in a species.
True
Fals
8/27/2016 Chapter 13 Animal Behavior
Chapter 13 Animal Behavior
1. The study of animal behavior that focuses on evolution and the natural environment is
______.
a. comparative psychology
b. ethology
c. behavioral ecology
d. sociobiology
2. The study of the evolution of social behavior is ______.
b. ethology
d. sociobiology
3. ______ emphasizes the ecological aspects of animal behavior involved with predatorprey
interactions, foraging strategies, and habitat selection.
b. ethology
d. sociobiology
4. Causation in animal behavior that occurs on an evolutionary time scale is a/an ______
cause.
a. ultimate
b. proximate
c. ethological
d. anthropomorphic
5. A bird watcher found that squirrels initially ran from a bird feeder when she rapped on the
window. Over time, the squirrels were less apt to be chased from the feeder by this stimulus.
This squirrel behavior illustrates a kind of learning called ______.
a. habituation
b. classical conditioning
c. instrumental conditioning
d. insight learning
6. A mouse improves its ability to negotiate a maze with repeated trials. This mouse
behavior illustrates a kind of learning called ______.
a. habituation
c. latent learning
d. insight learning
7. Training a young child to use mental processes to solve problems, for example matching
block shapes to similarly shaped openings in a board, involves a kind of learning called
______.
a. habituation
c. latent learning
d. insight learning
8. A dog that learns to rollover in response to rewards from its owner illustrates a kind of
learning called ______.
a. habituation
c. instrumental conditioning
d. insight learning
9. Hormones that regulate developmental aspects of behavior, for example testosterone
causing the onset of malelike behavior at sexual maturity, regulate ______.
a. developmental effects
b. organizational effects
c. activational effects
d. habituation effects
10. All of the following are advantages of chemical communication EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. Chemical signals act quickly and are easily modified.
b. Chemical signals are effective night or day.
c. Chemical signals are not blocked by objects in the environment.
d. Chemical signals can be transported over long distances.
11. Which one the following forms of communication was probably LEAST important for
ancestral mammals?
a. visual communication
b. acoustic communication
c. tactile communication
d. chemical communication
12. Aggressive behavior of one animal toward another of the same species is called ______.
a. dominance
b. altruism
c. agonistic behavior
d. kin selection
13. Selection acting on related animals may affect the fitness of an individual. This
phenomenon occurs when the fitness of an individual is based on the genes it passes on, as
well as those common genes a relative passes on. This selection is called ______ selection.
a. kin
b. agonistic
c. altruistic
d. dominance
14. Which of the following is responsible for improved coordination in the swimming
movements of a frog tadpole?
a. habituation
b. maturation
c. classical conditioning
d. instrumental conditioning
15. The mating behavior of a sandhill crane would be studied by a/an ______.
a. comparative psychologist
b. ethologist
c. behavioral ecologist
d. sociobiologist
16. The application of human characteristics to anything not human is teleology.
True
False
17. Inherited components of behavior are never influenced by learning.
True
False
18. Young animals that develop an attachment toward another animal or object illustrate the
occurrence of classical conditioning.
True
False
19. One role of the nervous system in controlling animal behavior is to block incoming stimuli
that are unimportant for the animal. This activity is called stimulus filtering.
True
False
20. Chemicals that are synthesized by one organism and that affect the behavior of another
member of the same species are called allomones.
True
False
21. An animal society is a group of individuals of one or more species that maintains
acooperative social relationship.
True
False
22. When some members of a group of animals have greater access to resources than other
members of the group, the animal society illustrates the concept of altruism.
True
False
23. Altruism can be explained evolutionarily only if a sacrifice made by one individual
promotes the transfer of genes shared within a family group to the next generation.
True
False
24. Jumping into a cool swimming pool and gradually losing the cold sensation is an
example of habituation.
True
False
25. Learning about the environment through exploration is called latent learning.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 14 Ecology I: Individuals and Populations
Chapter 14 Ecology I: Individuals and
Populations
1. For an aquatic animal, the amount of oxygen dissolved in the water may determine where
the animal can live. For this animal, dissolved oxygen is a/an ______.
a. tolerance factor
b. acclimator
c. limiting factor
d. optimum factor
2. For an aquatic animal, the range of values for dissolved oxygen that will support life is
called the ______.
a. range of optimum.
b. tolerance range.
c. existence range
d. home range
3. All of the following contribute to the energy budget of an animal EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. existence energythe energy it takes to survive
b. resistance energythe energy it takes to resist change in the environment
c. productive energythe energy it takes to grow and reproduce
d. excretory energythe energy lost through feces and excretion
4. Human populations in developed countries display type ______ survivorship curves.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
5. Which of the following sequences illustrate exponential growth?
a. 2>4>6>8
b. 2>3>4>5
c. 2>4>8>16
d. 2>4>10>25
6. Evolution in which each of two species exerts a strong influence on the other species is
called ______.
a. contingency
b. parallel evolution
c. coevolution
d. convergent evolution
7. A symbiotic relationship in which one member of a relationship benefits and the second
member is neither helped nor harmed is ______.
a. mutualism
b. commensalism
c. parasitism
d. predation.
8. The population size a particular environment can support is called the environment's
______.
a. environmental resistance
b. population structure
c. biotic potential
d. carrying capacity
9. Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?
a. one butterfly species resembling another distasteful species
b. the stripes on a zebra
c. the stripes on a tiger
d. the contrasting color pattern of a skunk
10. When two organisms live in close association and both organisms benefit from the
association, the relationship is called ______.
a. mutualism
b. parasitism
c. commensalism
d. mimicry
11. Populations that are prevented from achieving their carrying capacity and that tend to
grow rapidly when conditions are favorable are said to be ______.
a. K selected
b. r selected
c. density dependent
d. resistant
12. Two male redwing blackbirds are competing for a breeding territory and female
redwings. This example depicts ______.
a. interspecific competition
b. intraspecific competition
c. coevolution
d. competitive exclusion
13. The capacity of a population to increase maximally is called its ______.
a. carrying capacity
b. biotic potential
c. growth limit
d. survivorship potential
14. A harmless fly resembles a bee. People react to the fly as if they might be stung. This
example illustrates ______.
a. aposematic coloration
b. Batesian mimicry
c. Mullerian mimicry
d. countershading
15. Most natural populations exhibit type _______ population growth.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
16. Change in the tolerance range of an animal for some environmental factor is called
acclimation.
True
False
17. Aestivation is a time of decreased metabolism and lowered body temperature in daily
activity cycles.
True
False
18. Hibernation is a time of decreased metabolism and lowered body temperatures that may
last for weeks or months and occurs in mammals such as rodents, bats, and bears.
True
False
19. Factors that influence animal populations in a densitydependent fashion include
competition for resources, disease, predation, and parasitism.
True
False
20. Populations of animals with little parental care of young, short life spans, large numbers
of offspring, and uncrowded living conditions are usually Kselected populations.
True
False
21. The competitive exclusion principle states that two species with exactly the same
requirements for food habitat, nest sites, and other conditions of life cannot coexist.
True
False
22. A type of camouflage that occurs when an animal takes on the color patterns in its
environment to blend in with the surroundings is called countershading.
True
False
23. A host that harbors the adult stage of a parasite is called the definitive host.
True
False
24. As animal body size increases metabolic rate, expressed as milliliters of oxygen
consumed per gram of body weight per hour, decreases.
True
False
25. Photoperiod, the length of the light period in a 24hour day, is used by many animals as
an index of seasonal change. It also influences daily changes in activity, which are called
circadian rhythms.
True
False
8/27/2016 Chapter 15 Ecology II: Communities and Ecosystems
Chapter 15 Ecology II: Communities and
Ecosystems
1. All populations living in an area make up a/an ______.
a. community
b. ecosystem
c. habitat
d. niche
2. A community and its physical surroundings make up a/an ______.
a. biome
b. ecosystem
c. habitat
d. niche
3. The dominant members of a community often change the community in predictable ways
in a process called ______.
a. spatial structuring
b. temporal structuring
c. dispersal
d. succession
4. The final community in a sere is called the ______.
a. climax community
b. primary community
c. secondary community
d. sere
5. The first trophic level of an ecosystem is made up of ______.
a. free organic molecules
b. decomposers
c. consumers
d. producers
6. The ______ of a species includes all the attributes of its lifestyle.
a. niche
b. habitat
c. range
d. diversity
7. Overall, about ______ percent of the food consumed at one trophic level is converted into
new biomass.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 60
8. Assuming that 1,000 units of energy are available at the producer level of a stream
ecosystem, how many units of energy would be available in the fourth trophic level (e.g., leaf
material>mayfly>stonefly>small mouth bass)?
a. 100 units
b. 10 units
c. 1 unit
d. 0.1 unit
9. All of the following statements regarding energy in ecosystems are true EXCEPT one.
a. Most energy at one trophic level is eventually radiated into the outer atmosphere
as heat and will never be reused.
b. An ecosystem can support more biomass at higher trophic levels than at lower
trophic levels.
c. Larger populations can be supported if organisms feed at lower trophic levels.
d. Consumption is never 100 percent efficient. 70 to 80 percent of the energy at
one trophic level ends up with the decomposers in an ecosystem.
10. Nitrogen in nitrites and nitrates can be returned to the air as gaseous nitrogen by
______.
a. nitrogenfixing bacteria
b. nitrification of ammonia
c. chemolithoautotrophy
d. denitrifying bacteria
11. The nonliving reservoir for nitrogen in an ecosystem is/are ______.
a. gaseous nitrogen in the atmosphere
b. dead animals and plants
c. nitrogen dissolved in water of the oceans
d. bedrock
12. The nonliving reservoir for elements such as sulfur, phosphorus, and calcium is/are
______.
a. the atmosphere
b. bones
c. ocean water
d. the earth
13. All of the following are true of the carbon cycle EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Most carbon is incorporated into living tissues by photosynthesis.
b. Combustion of fossil fuels returns carbon to its reservoir.
c. The rate at which carbon has been accumulating in the atmosphere has been
decreasing dramatically in the last 50 years.
d. Carbon is rarely a limiting factor for animals.
14. The variety of living organisms in an ecosystem is called ______.
a. ecological variation
b. ecosystem strength
c. biodiversity
d. ecosystem wealth
15. Biological magnification refers to the ______.
a. diversity of plants and animals in an ecosystem
b. increase in energy present in higher trophic levels in an ecosystem.
c. increase in numbers of animals at higher trophic levels in an ecosystem.
d. concentration of matter in tissues of animals at higher trophic levels in an
ecosystem.
16. The removal of a keystone species in an ecosystem could cause the death of many
dependent species.
True
False
17. Pioneer communities are nutrient rich and usually support high species diversity.
True
False
18. In the carbon cycle, respiration returns carbon to its reservoir in the atmosphere.
True
False
19. The tundra is a biome characterized by cool summers, cold winters, short growing
seasons, and moderate precipitation. Plants characteristic of the tundra include spruce, fir,
and pine trees. Animals characteristic of the tundra include snowshoe hairs, wolves, caribou,
and moose.
True
False
20. Chaparral is a relatively dry biome. Plants are low and shrubby, and have tough waxy
leaves. Animals include insects, rodents, rabbits, lizards, and mule deer. Fire is an important
regulator of these populations.
True
False
21. Lentic ecosystems include brooks, streams, and rivers in which water is flowing.
True
False
22. Neritic ecosystems extend from the continental shelves into the relatively unproductive
open ocean. Virtually all of the primary production here occurs in the upper waters, a region
called the photic zone.
True
False
23. The age pyramid of a developing country (e.g., India) is triangular with its base in the
lowest age classes.
True
False
24. The current U.S. population is about 265 million, and it continues to grow because of an
increasing birth rate.
True
False
25. The accumulation of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to the depletion of the
ozone layer and an increased risk of skin cancer.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 16 Animal Classification, Phylogeny, and Organization
Chapter 16 Animal Classification,
Phylogeny, and Organization
1. ______ is the study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and the evolutionary
relationships among them.
a. systematics
b. nomenclature
c. biogeography
d. phylogenetics
2. A group of animals that shares a particular set of characteristics forms an assemblage
called a/an ______.
a. intron
b. photon
c. exon
d. taxon
3. Which of the following sequences is arranged from broader to more specific?
a. kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b. kingdom, phylum, class, order, domain, family, genus, species
c. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
d. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
4. Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of the water penny
beetle?
a. Psephenus herricki
b. Psephenus Herricki
c. Psephenus Herricki
d. Psephenus herricki
5. Prokaryotic organisms that live in extreme environments, such as hightemperature rift
valleys on the ocean floor, belong to the domain ______.
a. Protista
b. Eubacteria
c. Archaea
d. Eukarya
6. Animalia can be distinguished from Plantae because ______.
a. animals are heterotrophic
b. animal cells have cell walls
c. plants are prokaryotic
d. plants obtain nutrients by absorption
7. A taxonomic character is ______.
a. any trait of an animal
b. any genetic trait
c. any genetic trait that can be measured
d. any genetic trait that determines an anatomical feature of an animal
8. A taxonomic grouping that is derived from a single ancestor but does not include all
members of the family group is called a ______ group.
a. paraphyletic
b. polyphyletic
c. monophyletic
d. diphyletic
9. The school of systematics that produces evolutionary tree diagrams depicting relatedness,
time since organisms diverged from a common ancestor, and relative abundance of
organisms is _____.
a. evolutionary systematics
b. numerical taxonomy
c. phylogenetic systematics
d. cladistics
10. A character that is shared by an outgroup and all members of a study group is called a
______.
a. synapomorphy
b. symplesiomorphy
c. derived character
d. clade
11. The goal of systematic studies is to arrange animals into ______.
a. monophyletic groups
b. polyphyletic groups
c. paraphyletic groups
d. outgroups
12. A character that can be used to distinguish an animal from other animals within the
group is called a _____.
a. synapomorphy
b. symplesiomorphy
c. paraphyletic character
d. polyphyletic character
13. A structure that is near the plane that divides an animal into equal left and right halves is
______.
a. medial in position
b. anterior in position
c. lateral in position
d. distal in position
14. The development of a coelom in an animal is always associated with ______.
a. bilateral symmetry
b. asymmetry
c. diploblastic organization
d. triploblastic organization
15. The dorsal surface of a frog is at the frog's _____.
a. rear end
b. head end
c. back
d. belly
16. The Eubacteria are the most primitive life forms known.
True
False
17. In a monophyletic grouping, there is often more than one kind of ancestral animal.
True
False
18. Evolutionary trees (cladograms) produced by phylogenetic systematics (cladists) never
depict time scales or relative abundance, but they do indicate characters used to distinguish
members of taxa.
True
False
19. A pseudocoelom is a body cavity that develops between the ectoderm and mesoderm of
a triploblastic animal.
True
False
20. Triploblastic animals whose mesodermally derived tissues form a relatively solid mass of
cells between ectodermally and endodermally derived tissues are said to be acoelomate.
True
False
21. The formation of a distinct head is called cephalization and is usually associated with
bilateral symmetry.
True
False
22. The ankle is distal to the knee.
True
False
23. The anterior end of a sea anemone contains its tentacles and mouth.
True
False
24. A coelom is a body cavity that is completely surrounded by mesodermally derived
tissues.
True
False
25. A transverse plane divides a bilateral animal into left and right mirror images.
True
Fals
8/28/2016 Chapter 17 AnimalLike Protists: The Protozoa
Chapter 17 AnimalLike Protists: The
Protozoa
1. Which of the following is characteristic of protozoa?
a. polyphyletic
b. some are autotrophs
c. some are heterotrophs
2. Reproduction in protozoa involves
a. binary fission.
b. asexual reproduction.
c. sexual reproduction.
3. Asexual reproduction that occurs in the protozoa includes all of the following except
a. budding.
b. schizogony.
c. multiple fission.
d. conjugation.
4. The type of symbiotic relationship where both species benefit is termed __________.
a. parasitism
b. commensalism
c. mutualism
d. symbiosis
5. The specialized region in protozoa that is analogous to a mouth is the __________.
a. vacuole
b. cytopyge
c. food vacuole
d. cytopharynx
6. The phylum Sarcomastigorphora has all of the following characteristics except
a. unicellar or colonial.
b. locomotion by flagella, pseudopodia, or both.
c. autotrophic, saprozoic, or heterotrophic.
d. apical complex for penetrating host cells.
7. Which of the following do not belong to the phylum Phytomastigophorea?
a. Gymnodinium
b. Euglena
c. Trypanosoma
d. Volvox
8. Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by
a. trypanosomes.
b. amoeba.
c. euglenoids.
9. Which of the following is not a type of pseudopodium found in members of the subphylum
Pseudopodia?
a. lobopodia
b. filopodia
c. reticulopodia
d. rizopodia
10. Which of the following is not a marine protozoan?
a. foraminiferans
b. heliozoans
c. radiolarians
d. Giardia
11. When schizogony produces merozoites, it is called
a. gametogony.
b. merogony.
c. sporogony.
d. sexual reproduction.
12. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, merozoites are formed in the __________.
a. mosquito gut
b. red blood cells
c. liver
d. spleen
13. The disease pebrine that occurs in silk worms is caused by members of the phylum
a. Myxozoa.
b. Acetospora.
c. Microspora.
d. Ciliophora.
14. Which of the following sporozoans usually occurs in AIDS patients?
a. Cryptosporidium
b. Isospora
c. Eimera
d. Toxoplasma
15. In ciliated protozoans, a defensive structure is the __________.
a. pellicle
b. trichocyst
c. flagella
d. cytoproct
16. Ciliates reproduce sexually by
a. binary fission.
b. conjugation.
c. budding.
d. fragmentation.
17. Based on 18S ribosomal RNA sequences, which of the following is not related to the
others in the list?
a. flagellates
b. trypanosomes
c. euglenoids
d. ciliates
18. Based on 18S ribosomal RNA sequences, the microspora are closely related to the
ciliates.
True
False
19. Most ciliates are free living.
True
False
20. Ciliates have four kinds of nuclei.
True
False
21. Cilia are generally similar to flagella except that they are much longer.
True
False
22. The most important species in the phylum Apicomplexa are members of the class
Sporozoea (e.g., Plasmodium).
True
False
23. Giardiasis is contracted by drinking water from streams and lakes in the Rocky Mountain
area.
True
False
24. Tsetse flies are the intermediate host for the protozoan (Giardia spp.) that causes
giardiasis.
True
False
25. Volvox is a colonial protozoan.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 18 Multicellular and Tissue Levels of Organization
Chapter 18 Multicellular and Tissue
Levels of Organization
1. Multicellular life has been a part of life on earth for approximately ______ years.
a. 50 million
b. 100 million
c. 550 million
d. 1.5 billion
2. The first animals may have arisen from a large multinucleate cell that subsequently
formed plasma membranes within the cell to produce a small multicellular organism. This
idea is known as the ______ hypothesis.
a. colonial
b. syncytial
c. membrane
d. Precambrian
3. Which of the following is a fossil formation in British Columbia containing about 20 animal
body forms that are not assigned to any modern animal phyla?
a. Burgess Shale
b. Ediacara formation
c. Tommotian formation
d. Gemmule formation
4. All of the following are characteristic of members of the phylum Porifera EXCEPT one.
a. asymmetrical or radially symmetrical
b. three cell types
c. central cavity, or a series of branching chambers, through which water circulates
during filter feeding.
d. diploblastic tissue organization
5. Which of the following cell types is involved with creating water currents during filter
feeding of a sponge?
a. pinacocytes
b. choanocytes
c. porocytes
d. mesenchyme cells
6. Which of the following cell types is involved with secreting skeletal elements of a sponge?
a. pinacocytes
b. choanocytes
c. porocytes
d. mesenchyme cells
7. Which of the following cell types is involved with regulating water movements through a
sponge?
a. pinacocytes
b. choanocytes
c. porocytes
d. mesenchyme cells
8. In an ascon sponge, choanocytes ______.
a. line radial canals that branch off the spongocoel
b. line the spongocoel directly
c. are found in flagellated chambers
d. line incurrent canals
9. In a sycon sponge, the body wall appears to be ______.
a. highly folded
b. thick and perforated by a highly branched canal system
c. unfolded and not perforated by a branched canal system
d. a single cell layer thick
10. The most complex sponges have the ______ organization.
a. sycon
b. leucon
c. ascon
d. mycon
11. All of the following are characteristic of members of the phylum Cnidaria EXCEPT one.
a. radial or biradial symmetry
b. nervous system in the form of a nerve net
c. choanocytes used in defense, feeding, and attachment
d. gelatinous mesoglea located between epidermal and gastrodermal tissue layers
12. In the life cycle of a member of the class Hydrozoa, for example Obelia, ______.
a. the polyp stage is always predominant
b. the medusa stage is always predominant
c. the medusa and polyp are both usually present
d. the polyp stage is usually the sexual stage
13. Members of the class Scyphozoa include ______.
a. anemones
b. corals
c. Hydra
d. jellyfish
14. The largest and most prominent stage in the life cycle of most members of the class
Scyphozoa is the ______.
a. medusa
b. planula
c. polyp
d. ephyra
15. The class of Cnidaria that includes anemones is ______.
a. Hydrozoa
b. Scyphozoa
c. Anthozoa
d. Calcarea
16. Most of the history of multicellular life on earth has been one of extinction rather than the
origin of new kinds of animal life.
True
False
17. Members of the class Scyphozoa have life histories in which the medusa stage is
produced asexually from the strobila.
True
False
18. The coelom of cnidarians functions in digestion, the exchange of respiratory gases, and
discharge of gametes.
True
False
19. Cells are never present in the mesoglea of cnidarians.
True
False
20. Cnidocytes produce nematocysts that are discharged on stimulation of a cnidocil.
Cnidocytes are produced only in members of the phylum Cnidaria.
True
False
21. In many members of the class Hydrozoa, the gonozooid is a reproductive polyp that
produces medusae by budding.
True
False
22. Some members of the class Cubozoa have nematocysts that are dangerous to humans.
True
False
23. Hydrozoan polyps have mesenteries that bear nematocysts, a mouth that leads to a
pharynx, and a mesoglea containing ameboid mesenchyme cells.
True
False
24. Some members of the class Anthozoa are monoecious. In these animals, the male
gametes often mature before the female gametes, thus preventing selffertilization. This
condition is called protandry.
True
False
25. Some anthozoans live in a mutualistic relationship with protists called zooxanthellae and
are largely responsible for the formation of coral reefs.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 19 The Triploblastic, Acoelomate Body Plan
Chapter 19 The Triploblastic, Acoelomate
Body Plan
1. Which of the following is not an acoelomate?
a. Platyhelminthes
b. Nemertea
c. Gastrotrichia
d. Turbellaria
2. Three important characteristics first appeared in the acoelomates. Which of the following
is not one of them?
b. a true mesoderm
c. an excretory system
d. a nervous system
3. Acoelomates lack a body cavity because the __________ mass completely fills the area
between the outer epidermis and digestive tract.
a. mesodermal
b. ectodermal
c. endodermal
d. nervous
4. Which of the following classes is not parasitic?
a. Turbellaria
b. Monogenea
c. Trematoda
d. Cestoidea
5. Marine ribbon worms are found within the phylum
a. Turbellaria
b. Monogenea
c. Nemertea
d. Gastrotricha
6. Which of the following would you find either living a freeliving life style or in the space
between bottom sediments in freshwater?
a. Gastrotricha
b. Nemertea
c. Monogenea
d. Turbellaria
7. Sexual maturity in a larval body form is called __________.
a. incomplete organization
b. complete organization
c. paedomorphosis
8. Characteristics of the phylum Platyhelminthes include all of the following except
__________.
a. usually flattened dorsoventrally
b. usually unsegmented worms
c. incomplete gut
d. many organ systems present
9. A turbellarian that has no pharynx or digestive cavity is termed
a. tricladia.
b. polycladida.
c. acoela
d. marcostomida
10. Most turbellarians, such as the common planarian,
a. are carnivores.
b. will also feed as herbivores.
c. have chemoreceptors that help them detect food.
11. Which is not part of the protonephridial system in a turbellarian?
a. nephridiopore
b. flame cell
c. nephron
d. Excretory tube
12. A few turbellarians have a free swimming larva termed a
a. Muller's larva.
b. Planula larva.
c. Oncomiricidium.
d. Miricidium.
13. Monogenetic flukes are so named because they
a. have only one generation in their life cycle.
b. have a life cycle where only one adult develops from one egg.
c. are solely external parasites.
d. both a and b
14. A small group of flukes that are primarily internal parasites of molluscs are the
a. subclass Aspidogastrea.
b. subclass Digenea.
c. class Monogenea.
d. class Cestoidea.
15. The scientific name of the Chinese liver fluke is __________ __________.
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. S. mansoni
d. Clonorchis sinensis
16. The scientific name of the sheep liver fluke is __________ _________.
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. S. mansoni
d. Clonorchis sinensis
17. Almost all cestodes belong to the subclass
a. Eucestoda.
b. Cestodaria.
c. Cestoidea.
d. tapeworms.
18. In the beef tapeworm life cycle, as an egg develops it forms a sexhooked (hexacanth)
larva called a oncosphere.
True
False
19. A fluidfilled bladder worm is called a cysticercus.
True
False
20. The most distinctive feature of nemerteans is a long proboscis held in a sheath called a
rhynchocoel.
True
False
21. Nemerteans are microscopic, aquatic animals with a head, neck, and trunk.
True
False
22. Tapeworms are structurally more specialized than flukes.
True
False
23. The monogenetic flukes (class Monogenea) are mostly aquatic parasites of fishes.
True
False
24. Turbellarians are monoecious with reproductive systems adapted for internal fertilization.
True
False
25. Most turbellarians move entirely by cilia and are predators and scavengers.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 20 The Pseudocoelomate Body Plan
Chapter 20 The Pseudocoelomate Body
Plan
1. All of the following are aschelminths except the __________.
a. Rotifers
b. Kinorhyncha
c. Acanthocephalans
d. Nemerteans
2. The major unifying aschelminth feature is the __________.
a. nervous system
b. muscular system
c. excretory system
d. pseudocoelom
3. Which of the following is not a common aschelminth feature?
a. incomplete digestive tract
b. a muscular pharynx
c. constant cell numbers (eutely)
d. adhesive glands
4. When aschelminths shed their cuticle, this is called
a. molting.
b. ecdysis.
c. eutely
d. both a and b
5. Which of the following is not a pseudocoelomate animal?
a. Acanthocephala
b. Rotifera
c. Polychaeta
d. Nematoda
6. Characteristics of the phylum Rotifera include all of the following except
a. a welldeveloped cuticle.
b. absence of protonephridia.
c. parthenogenesis is common.
d. tripoblastic, bilateral, unsegmented, pseudocoelomate.
7. There are __________ classes within the phylum Rotifera.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
8. Which of the following is not an external feature of a rotifer?
a. cilia
b. corona
c. germovitellarium
d. foot
9. Where would you look for a kinorhynch?
a. a marine environment
b. a freshwater environment
c. on land that is relatively moist
d. on land that is relatively dry
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the phylum Nematoda?
a. tripoblastic, bilateral, vermiform
b. cuticles are not shed
c. complete digestive tract with a mouth surrounded by lips bearing sense organs
d. body wall has only longitudinal muscles
11. Which of the following is not true with respect to nematode reproduction?
a. most nematodes are dioecious
b. most nematodes are dimorphic
c. males are larger than the females
d. gonads lie free in the pseudocoelom
12. The scientific name of the common pinworm is __________ __________.
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Wuchereria bancrofti
13. The scientific name of the common pork worm is __________ __________.
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Wuchereria bancrofti
14. Members of the phylum Nematomorpha are commonly called the __________ worms.
a. horsehair
b. Gordian
c. round
d. both a and b
15. In acanthocephala, the larva that emerges from an egg is called a __________.
a. acanthor
b. cystacanth
c. acanthella
d. both a and b
16. The most recently described pseudocoelomate animal phylum is the __________.
a. Pariapulida
b. Acanthocephala
c. Loricifera
d. Nematomorpha
17. Which of the following is a distinct feature that occurs in all pseudocoelomate phyla?
a. pseudocoelom
b. adhesive glands
c. cuticle
d. none of the above (ab)
18. The aschelminths are seven phyla grouped only for convenience.
True
False
19. The aschelminths contain organs for gas exchange and circulation.
True
False
20. The majority of rotifer inhabit freshwater.
True
False
21. Nematodes live in aquatic and terrestrial environments.
True
False
22. Acanthocephalans are also known as spinyheaded worms because of their spiny
proboscis.
True
False
23. A mosquito is necessary for development of Trichinella spiralis.
True
False
24. Elephantiasis is caused by filarial worms (i.e., Wuchereria spp.).
True
False
25. Ascaris lumbricoides is commonly known as the giant intestinal roundworm of humans.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 21 Molluscan Success
Chapter 21 Molluscan Success
1. All of the following are unique to the molluscs EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. mantle
b. shell
c. visceral mass
d. headfoot
2. Which of the following is true of the radula of most molluscs?
a. It is used in reproduction.
b. It is used in excretion.
c. It is used in rasping food.
d. It is used in gas exchange.
3. The mantle of most molluscs ______.
a. is modified for locomotion
b. is used in attracting prey
c. secretes the shell
d. supports the radula
4. Which of the following is true of the mantle cavity of a bivalve?
a. It is the area where water circulates during feeding and gas exchange.
b. It is the space between the mantle and the shell.
c. It is the space between the pericardium and the heart.
d. It is the space where blood circulates before being returned to the heart.
5. The molluscs are most closely related to the _____.
a. annelids and chordates
b. echinoderms and chordates
c. arthropods and chordates
d. annelids and arthropods
6. Which of the following are characteristic of most protostomate animals?
a. coelom forms from outpockets of the gut and radial cleavage
b. spiral cleavage and a trochophore larval stage
c. anus develops in the region of the blastopore and trochophore larval stage
d. mouth develops in the region of the blastopore and radial cleavage
7. Which of the following is true of the visceral mass of a mollusc?
a. it contains the gills
b. it secretes the shell
c. it is used in locomotion
d. it contains gonads and digestive glands
8. All of the following mollusc characters would be found in a member of the class Bivalvia
EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. visceral mass
b. headfoot
c. mantle cavity
d. radula
9. Members of which of the following mollusc classes would be characterized by a shell
consisting of 8 plates?
a. Aplacophora
b. Polyplacophora
c. Monoplacophora
d. Cephalopoda
10. Members of which of the following mollusc classes would be characterized by a reduced
head, a mantle that surrounds the entire body and a tuskshaped shell?
a. Scaphopoda
b. Bivalvia
c. Polyplacophora
d. Gastropoda
11. ______ is a developmental process that occurs in gastropods and results in a 180
degree counterclockwise twisting of the visceral mass and mantle cavity.
a. Gastrulation
b. Epiboly
c. Involution
d. Torsion
12. A/an ______ is a mucoid mass that extends to the stomach of gastropods. It contains
trapped food particles and is rotated by cilia.
a. protostyle
b. umbo
c. crystalline style
d. gastric shield
13. Members of the gastropod subclass Pulmonata are predominantly freshwater or
terrestrial. Their mantle is modified into a lung, which opens to the outside of the mantle
cavity through a/an ______.
a. siphon
b. pneumostome
c. umbo
d. operculum
14. Water exits the mantle cavity of a bivalve through the ______ and the excurrent opening.
a. water tube
b. incurrent opening
c. suprabranchial chamber
d. pericardial cavity
15. A ______ is a developmental stage of a freshwater bivalve that is parasitic on fishes.
a. veliger
b. trochophore
c. planula
d. glochidium
16. Members of the classes Cephalopoda and Scaphopoda are the only molluscs that
possess closed circulatory systems.
True
False
17. The zebra mussel was introduced into the Great Lakes by aquarium owners who bought
the bivalves in pet stores.
True
False
18. Cephalopods rely on olfactory senses for detecting prey.
True
False
19. Members of the class Polyplacophora include the chitons, which are found on hard
substrates in shallow marine water.
True
False
20. Members of the class Monoplacophora are wormlike molluscs that lack a shell,
crystalline style, and foot; they live in vertical burrows on the deepsea floor.
True
False
21. Labial palps of bivalves sort filtered food particles delivered by cilia lining the ventral
margin of the gills.
True
False
22. The bivalve shell and the loss of a radula are synapomorphies that distinguish the
Bivalvia from the Scaphopoda.
True
False
23. The Gastropoda and the Cephalopoda form a clade characterized by a dorsoventrally
elongate body and shell coiling.
True
False
24. The diversity of body forms and lifestyles present in the phylum Mollusca is an excellent
example of adaptive radiation.
True
False
25. The absence of a shell in the Caudofoveata and Aplacophora is a primitive character in
the phylum Mollusca.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 22 Annelida: The Metameric Body Form
Chapter 22 Annelida: The Metameric
Body Form
1. The segmental arrangement of body parts in an animal is called ______.
a. tagmatization
b. metamerism
c. cephalization
d. serialism
2. The specialization of body regions in a segmented animal is called _____.
a. tagmatization
b. metamerism
c. cephalization
d. eutely
3. Annelids and Arthropods share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. a ventral nerve cord
b. a complete digestive tract
c. metamerism
d. an exoskeleton
4. The annelid class whose members are mostly marine is ______.
a. Hirudinea
b. Oligochaeta
c. Polychaeta
d. Gnathostomulida
5. A distinctive feature of members of the class Hirudinea is ______.
a. parapodia
b. tentacles
c. anterior and posterior suckers
d. palps
6. Earthworms belong to the annelid class ______.
a. Hirudinea
b. Chaetognatha
c. Polychaeta
d. Oligochaeta
7. A distinctive feature of members of the class Polychaeta is ______.
a. parapodia
b. clitellum
c. annuli
d. absence of setae
8. The girdlelike structure that is used for mucus secretion during copulation and cocoon
formation is the ______.
a. clitellum
b. prostomium
c. parapodium
d. epitoke
9. A clitellum is present in the members of the class(es) ______.
a. Hirudinea
b. Polychaeta
c. Oligochaeta
d. Hirudinea and Oligochaeta
10. Oligochaetes are ______.
a. monoecious
b. dioecious
c. monoecious or dioecious
d. asexual
11. Most polychaetes are ______.
a. monoecious
b. dioecious
c. protandric
d. asexual
12. An excretory structure consisting of an open, ciliated funnel and a tubule that opens
through the body wall is called a ______.
a. protonephridium
b. nephrostome
c. metanephridium
d. nephridiopore
13. The main propulsive structure(s) in the circulatory system of an earthworm is (are)
______.
a. hearts
b. dorsal and ventral blood vessels
c. seminal vesicles
d. the typhlosole
14. The _______ is a site of amino acid metabolism in an earthworm and is analogous to the
vertebrate liver.
a. typlosole
b. seminal vesicle
c. nephridium
d. chloragogen tissue
15. No freeliving larval forms occur in the annelid class(es) ______.
a. Hirudinea
b. Hirudinea and Oligochaeta
c. Polychaeta
d. Polychaeta and Oligochaeta
16. Flexible support and efficient locomotion are probably the primary adaptive features of
metamerism.
True
False
17. The peristomium is the first segment of a polychaete. It surrounds the mouth and bears
sensory tentacles or cirri.
True
False
18. During copulation of earthworms there is mutual sperm exchange. Sperm passes from
the seminal receptacles of each worm to the seminal vesicles of the partner.
True
False
19. True segments of a member of the class Hirudinea are called annuli.
True
False
20. The looping form of locomotion of leeches utilizes a single hydrostatic cavity formed as a
result of the loss of septa separating coelomic compartments.
True
False
21. A taxonomic reevaluation of the phylum Annelida confirms the designation of three
classes: Polychaeta, Oligochaeta, and Hirudinea.
True
False
22. The oligochaetes were the first annelids to be derived from ancestral annelids. The
Hirudinea and freshwater polychaetes were derived from the oligochaetes, and marine
polychaetes were derived from freshwater polychaetes.
True
False
23. Oligochaetes evolved on land during a time when flowering plants were proliferating.
This fact is evidenced, in part, by the reliance of modern oligochaetes on deciduous
vegetation.
True
False
24. Polychaetes may be predators, herbivores, scavengers, or filter feeders.
True
False
25. The immature stages of polychaetes occur in cocoons deposited on the ocean floor.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 23 The Arthropods: Blueprint for Success
Chapter 23 The Arthropods: Blueprint for
Success
1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the phylum Arthropoda EXCEPT
one. Select the exception.
a. metamerism modified by tagmatization
b. dorsal nervous system
c. chitinous exoskeleton provides support and protection
d. open circulatory system in which blood is released into tissue spaces derived
from the blastocoel
2. All of the following are protostomate phyla EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Mollusca
b. Platyhelminthes
c. Arthropoda
d. Annelida
3. The outermost waxy layer of the arthropod exoskeleton is called the ______.
a. epicuticle
b. procuticle
c. hypodermis
d. basement membrane
4. A layer of cells that secretes the arthropod exoskeleton is called the ______.
a. epicuticle
b. procuticle
c. hypodermis
5. In the region of a joint, the ______ of the exoskeleton is less hardened and forms an
articular membrane. In other parts of the exoskeleton this region is hardened and inflexible.
a. epicuticle
b. outer procuticle
c. inner procuticle
d. hypodermis
6. Biramous appendages are present in, or were present in, ______.
a. all arthropods
b. Crustacea and Insecta
c. Crustacea and Trilobitomorpha
d. Trilobitomorpha and Arachnida
7. The sensory, feeding, and locomotor tagma of members of the subphylum Chelicerata is
the ______.
a. thorax
b. prosoma or cephalothorax
c. opisthosoma
d. abdomen
8. The second pair of appendages of members of the subphylum Chelicerata is used in
sensory perception, feeding, locomotion, or reproduction. These appendages are called
______.
a. mandibles
b. chelicerae
c. pedipalps
d. pedicels
9. Excretory structures found in many arachnids consist of thinwalled sacs that open to the
body surface at pores near the base of posterior appendages. These excretory structures
are called ______.
a. tracheae
b. coxal glands
c. Malpighian tubules
d. green glands
10. Most arthropods lay eggs that develop outside the body. They are ______.
a. oviparous
b. ovoviviparous
c. viviparous
d. viperous
11. Ticks and mites are members of the order _____.
a. Opiliones
b. Acarina
c. Araneae
d. Scorpionida
12. Harvestmen or daddy longlegs are members of the order ______.
a. Opiliones
b. Acarina
c. Araneae
d. Scorpionida
13. ______ is the largest class in the subphylum Crustacea.
a. Malacostraca
b. Branchipoda
c. Copepoda
d. Cirripedia
14. Barnacles are members of the class ______.
a. Malacostraca
b. Branchipoda
c. Copepoda
d. Cirripedia
15. All of the following are crayfish mouth appendages EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. mandibles
b. maxillae
c. pleopods
d. maxillipeds
16. Metamorphosis often results in adult and immature stages having different feeding habits
and habitats. Metamorphosis, therefore, reduces competition between adult and immature
stages and has contributed to the success of the arthropods.
True
False
17. Arthropods that have just undergone ecdysis are secretive and remain hidden because
the new exoskeleton has not been formed.
True
False
18. Book lungs or book gills are present in members of the subphylum Crustacea.
True
False
19. Scorpions have a period of courtship prior to mating. Mating occurs by copulation and
the direct transfer of sperm from the male to the female.
True
False
20. Members of the class Pycnogonida are the sea spiders. Pycnogonids are dioecious.
After eggs are fertilized, they are cemented onto ovigers of the male where they are carried
until hatching.
True
False
21. The appendages of a crayfish are said to be serially homologous because they have
evolved from a common ancestral form. The common ancestral form is the biramous
appendage, which consists of a protopodite that attaches to the body wall and gives rise to
two distal processes: a lateral exopodite, and a medial endopodite.
True
False
22. In members of the class Cirripedia, planktonic nauplii larvae attach to the substrate by
their first antennae and metamorphose to adults.
True
False
23. Members of the subphylum Chelicerata were preadapted for terrestrial life by the
exoskeleton, which was relatively impermeable to water and supportive on land. Members of
the class Arachnida were some of the very early terrestrial inhabitants.
True
False
24. Members of the subphylum Trilobitomorpha were a dominant form of life in the ocean
from the Cambrian period (600 million years ago) to the Carboniferous period (345 million
years ago). Today, a few living species of trilobites inhabit deep water along the eastern
coast of North America.
True
False
25. Horseshoe crabs are members of the class Merostomata. Their body form has changed
little over the last 200 million years, and they are an excellent example of stabilizing
selection.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 24 Hexapods and Myriapods: Terrestrial Triumphs
Chapter 24 Hexapods and Myriapods:
Terrestrial Triumphs
1. Millipedes belong to the arthropod class ______.
a. Hexapoda
b. Chilopoda
c. Diplopoda
d. Crustacea
2. Centipedes belong to the arthropod class ______.
a. Hexapoda
b. Chilopoda
c. Diplopoda
d. Crustacea
3. Members of this class feed on decaying plant matter, possess repugnatorial glands, and
possess two pairs of appendages per apparent segment.
a. Hexapoda
b. Chilopoda
c. Diplopoda
d. Crustacea
4. Members of this class live in forestfloor litter, where they feed on fungi, humus, and other
decaying organic matter. Their body consists of 11 segments and 9 pairs of legs.
a. Symphyla
b. Chilopoda
c. Diplopoda
d. Pauropoda
5. The thoracic tagma of an insect often has a pair of wings on ______.
a. the prothorax only
b. the prothorax and mesothorax
c. the mesothorax and metathorax
d. the metathorax only
6. Insect flight, in which muscles act to change the shape of the exoskeleton during both
upward and downward wing beats, is called ______ flight.
a. synchronous
b. asynchronous
c. tympanal
d. regulatory
7. Which of the following mouthparts of a chewing insect, like a grasshopper, is primarily a
sensory, liplike structure and is the anteriormost mouthpart?
a. mandible
b. maxilla
c. labrum
d. labium
8. The smallest branches of an insect's respiratory system exchange respiratory gases at the
level of body cells. These smallest branches are called ______.
a. tracheal trunks
b. tracheoles
c. Malpighian tubules
d. Johnston's organs
9. Sensory structures found in the legs of crickets, the abdomen of grasshoppers, and the
thorax of some moths detect pressure (sound) waves in the air. These sensory structures
are called ______.
a. ommatidia
b. tympanal organs
c. Johnston's organs
d. Malpighian organs
10. The light collecting area of a compound eye that converts light energy into a nerve
impulse is called the ______.
a. retinula cell
b. crystalline cone
c. rhabdome
d. pigment cell
11. A ______ is (are) a protective case(s) for the pupal stage of an insect that is formed from
the last larval exoskeleton?
a. cocoon
b. puparium and cocoon
c. puparium and chrysalis
d. chrysalis and cocoon
12. Insect development in which immatures are very different from the adult in body form,
behavior, and habitat is called ______ metamorphosis.
a. ametabolous
b. paurometabolous
c. hemimetabolous
d. holometabolous
13. Mayfly development occurs through a gradual series of changes, but the immatures are
very different from the adults. One difference is the presence of gills on the immatures
(naiads). This form of development is called ______ metamorphosis.
a. ametabolous
b. paurometabolous
c. hemimetabolous
d. holometabolous
14. Insect development in which molting continues after sexual maturity and in which
immatures resemble adults is called ______ metamorphosis.
a. ametabolous
b. paurometabolous
c. hemimetabolous
d. holometabolous
15. If the biramous appendages of members of Trilobitomorpha and Crustacea are
homologous, which arthropod subphylum would be most distantly related to the other three?
a. Chelicerata
b. Uniramia
c. Trilobitomorpha
d. Crustacea
16. Myriapod is a nontaxonomic designation referring to all members of the subphylum
Uniramia.
True
False
17. The wings of a midge may beat at frequencies of 1,000 cycles per second, which is
much faster than the frequency of nerve impulses to flight muscles.
True
False
18. Insects are not capable of regulating their body temperature.
True
False
19. Gas exchange in insects involves respiratory pigments dissolved in the hemolymph.
True
False
20. Insects excrete uric acid using Malpighian tubules, which empty into the gut tract at the
junction of the midgut and the hindgut. Because uric acid can be excreted as a semisolid,
this excretory mechanism minimizes water loss and aids an insect's life on land.
True
False
21. An insect's compound eyes probably form images, but more importantly, they are
adapted for detecting movement.
True
False
22. Most of the water and salts present in the digestive tract of an insect are absorbed from
the digestive tract through the midgut.
True
False
23. If the biramous appendages of trilobites and crustaceans are homologous, then the
mandibles of crustaceans and insects are probably also homologous.
True
False
24. The presence of ecdysal glands is a major symplesiomorphic character for the phylum
Arthropoda.
True
False
25. Virtually all zoologists agree that the phylum Arthropoda is a monophyletic grouping.
True
Fals
8/28/2016 Chapter 25 The Echinoderms
Chapter 25 The Echinoderms
1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the phylum Echinodermata EXCEPT
a. calcareous endoskeleton in the form of ossicles that arise from mesoderm
b. adults with pentaradial symmetry and larvae with bilateral symmetry
c. spiral cleavage
d. water vascular system composed of waterfilled canals used in locomotion,
attachment, and feeding
2. A sievelike plate that serves as an opening of the water vascular system to the outside is
called the ______.
a. ring canal
b. radial canal
c. ampulla
d. madreporite
3. ______ are canals of the water vascular system that run the length of the arms of star
shaped echinoderms.
a. ring canals
b. radial canals
c. lateral canals
d. hemal canals
4. The following are functions served by echinoderm water vascular systems EXCEPT one.
a. feeding
b. storage of gametes
c. locomotion
d. gas exchange
5. Sea stars belong to the class ______.
a. Echinoidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Crinoidea
6. Sand dollars belong to the class ______.
a. Echinoidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Ophiuroidea
7. Sea cucumbers belong to the class ______.
a. Concentricycloidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Crinoidea
8. Sea lilies and feather stars belong to the class ______.
a. Ophiuroidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Crinoidea
9. A sea star feeds on a bivalve by everting the _______ into the shell of a bivalve and
releasing digestive enzymes from ______.
a. aboral stomach/the hemal system
b. oral stomach/pyloric cecae
c. aboral stomach/radial canals
d. oral stomach/the hemal system
10. Members of the class ______ are predators and scavengers. They use their arms and
tube feet in sweeping motions to collect prey and particulate matter. Their arms are sharply
set off from the central disk.
a. Ophiuroidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Crinoidea
11. A chewing apparatus found in members of the class Echinoidea is ______.
a. the madreporite
b. Aristotle's lantern
c. the calyx
d. the pedicellaria
12. ______ are a pair of tubes that attach to the rectum and branch throughout the body
cavity of members of the class Holothuroidea.
a. radial canals
b. hemal canals
c. respiratory trees
d. Polian vesicles
13. A mouthup feeding posture is found in members of the class ______.
a. Ophiuroidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Crinoidea
14. Of all living echinoderms, members of the class ______ most closely resemble the oldest
fossil echinoderms.
a. Concentricycloidea
b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea
d. Crinoidea
15. Echinoderms are most closely related to members of the phylum ______.
a. Arthropoda
b. Annelida
c. Mollusca
d. Chordata
16. The earliest function of the water vascular system of echinoderms was probably
locomotion.
True
False
17. Even though modern echinoderm adults are pentaradially symmetrical, ancestral
echinoderms were probably bilaterally symmetrical.
True
False
18. Sea stars are monoecious, and external fertilization results in the formation of bipinaria
and brachiolaria larvae that crawl on the ocean floor.
True
False
19. Members of the class Holothuroidea possess interlocking ossicles that form a test.
True
False
20. The fact that most modern echinoderms are predators or scavengers means that
ancestral echinoderms were also predators or scavengers.
True
False
21. The ophiopluteus is a planktonic larval stage produced by members of the class
Holothuroidea.
True
False
22. The tentacles of a sea cucumber are used in feeding and branch from radial canals of
the water vascular system.
True
False
23. A brittle star, if grasped by an arm, may contract muscles that causes the arm to be
severed. This process is called autotomy.
True
False
24. The presence of suckers on the tube feet of many echinoderms is a derived character
that was probably associated with a change from a sedentary, filterfeeding lifestyle to a
more active existence.
True
False
25. All crinoids are attached permanently to the substrate by a stalk of ossicles.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 26 Hemichordata and Invertebrate Chordates
Chapter 26 Hemichordata and
Invertebrate Chordates
1. 1. Acorn worms are members of the class ______.
a. Pterobranchia
b. Enteropneusta
c. Urochordata
d. Osteichthyes
2. 2. All members of the class Enteropneusta share the following characteristic with the
Chordata.
a. notochord
b. pharyngeal slits
c. dorsal tubular nerve cord
d. postanal tail
3. 3. Members of the class ______ use ciliated tentacles in filter feeding; usually live in
secreted tubes in asexually produced colonies; and possess an expanded, shieldlike
proboscis. They live in deep oceanic water of the Southern Hemisphere.
a. Pterobranchia
b. Enteropneusta
c. Urochordata
d. Cephalochordata
4. 4. All of the following are characteristics of members of the phylum Chordata EXCEPT
a. endostyle or thyroid gland
b. complete digestive tract
c. dorsal contractile blood vessel or heart
d. postanal tail
5. 5. All of the following are unique to members of the phylum Chordata EXCEPT one.
a. notochord
b. pharyngeal slits
c. ventral nerve cord
d. postanal tail
6. 6. Tunicates or sea squirts are members of the chordate subphylum ______.
a. Urochordata
b. Cephalochordata
c. Enteropneusta
d. Pterobranchia
7. 7. All of the following are characteristics of tunicates EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. enlarged pharynx with pharyngeal slits
b. oral and atrial siphons
c. secreted tunic containing proteins, salts, and cellulose
d. oral cirri
8. 8. Which of the following chordate structures is a mucussecreting, ciliated groove that is
used for trapping food particles during filter feeding?
a. notochord
b. endostyle
c. midgut cecum
d. stigma
9. 9. The thyroid gland of humans is homologous to the ______ of members of the
subphylum Cephalochordata.
a. atrium
b. notochord
c. endostyle
d. oral hood
10. 10. Lancelets are members of the chordate subphylum ______.
a. Urochordata
b. Cephalochordata
c. Vertebrata
d. Osteichthyes
11. 11. All of the following are true of lancelets EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. They are dioecious, and external fertilization results in freeswimming larvae.
b. The body wall forms a large atrium around the pharynx.
c. They are relatively weak swimmers and spend most of their time partly buried in
a filterfeeding position.
d. Their notochord is restricted to the tail region.
12. 12. Which of the following is an opening to the outside of the body of a cephalochordate
through which water exits the body after passing through pharyngeal slits?
a. oral siphon
b. atrial siphon
c. atriopore
d. anus
13. 13. The development of sexual maturity in a larval body form is called ______.
a. parthenogenesis
b. coevolution
c. paedomorphosis
d. morphogenesis
14. 14. Which of the following characters can be used to distinguish Urochordata from all
other chordates?
a. pharyngeal basket
b. endostyle
c. postanal tail
d. buccal apparatus
15. 15. Paedomorphosis may help explain the evolutionary origin of the ______ from the
______.
a. Urochordata/Cephalochordata
b. motile chordates/ sessile ancestors
c. sessile chordates/ motile ancestors
d. Urochordata/ Hemichordata
16. 16. Animals in the phyla Hemichordata and Chordata share protostomate characteristics
with echinoderms.
True
False
17. 17. A tornaria larva is planktonic. As it matures, it settles to the substrate and grows into
an adult pterobranch.
True
False
18. 18. The pharyngeal slits were used by earliest chordates for gas exchange. In many later
chordates, they have become adapted for filter feeding.
True
False
19. 19. Larval tunicates are planktonic and tadpolelike. Even though the adult tunicates are
initially difficult to recognize as members of the phylum Chordata, the larvae possess all four
unique chordate characteristics.
True
False
20. 20. The notochord of members of the subphylum Cephalochordata is unique in that it is
partly composed of muscle cells and is somewhat contractile.
True
False
21. 21. Planktonic tunicates may occur in colonies that are commonly 10 meters long.
True
False
22. 22. The oral siphon of a tunicate carries water, undigested food wastes, and gametes out
of the tunicate's body.
True
False
23. 23. The atrium of cephalochordates is a diverticulum off the gut that extends anteriorly. It
ends blindly and secretes digestive enzymes.
True
False
24. 24. An endoskeleton containing a cranium and enlargement of the neural tube to form a
brain are synapomorphic characters for members of the subphylum Vertebrata.
True
False
25. 25. The notochord, postanal tail, and endostyle or thyroid gland are important characters
that distinguish the Hemichordata and Chordata.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 27 The Fishes: Vertebrate Success in Water
Chapter 27 The Fishes: Vertebrate
Success in Water
1. Members of the vertebrate class ______ include the hagfishes.
a. Myxini
b. Cephalaspidomorphi
c. Placodermi
d. Chondrichthyes
2. All of the following are synapomorphic characters that distinguish members of the
superclasses Agnatha and Gnathostomata EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. paired appendages
b. vertebrae present
c. jaws
d. three semicircular canals
3. Members of the vertebrate class ______ include the sharks, skates, and rays.
a. Myxini
c. Placodermi
d. Chondrichthyes
4. The class ______ is made of two subclasses: Actinopterygii (the rayfinned fishes) and
Sarcopterygii (the lobefinned fishes).
a. Myxini
c. Chondrichthyes
d. Osteichthyes
5. Ammocoete larvae would be found ______.
a. as planktonic inhabitants of the open ocean
b. partially buried, filter feeding in coastal waters
c. partially buried, filter feeding in a freshwater stream or river
d. attached to a host fish
6. Adult members of the class Myxini _____.
a. are predators of fish
b. are scavengers, feeding on dead and dying fish
c. feed on algae attached to rocks and other substrates
d. are filter feeders
7. Members of which of the following vertebrate subclasses is believed to have given rise to
ancient amphibians?
a. Actinopterygii
b. Sarcopterygii
c. Elasmobranchii
d. Holocephali
8. A vascular network that allows gases to move from the blood stream into a fish's swim
bladder is called the ______.
a. pneumatic duct
b. ovale
c. rete mirabile
d. glomerulus
9. Gases are reabsorbed into the blood stream from a swim bladder at the ______.
a. pneumatic duct
b. ovale
c. rete mirabile
d. glomerulus
10. The lateral line system may function in all of the following EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. detecting water currents
b. detecting predators or prey that may be causing water movements
c. buoyancy regulation
d. detecting lowfrequency sounds
11. Blood flows from the conus ateriosus of the heart of a fish toward the ______.
a. gills
b. ventricle
c. kidneys
d. tail
12. All of the following are adaptations of freshwater fish for osmoregulation EXCEPT one.
a. excreting a hypotonic urine
b. actively transporting salts out of the blood at the gills
c. not drinking water
d. nephrons with large glomeruli and short tubule systems
13. Most fishes excrete ______ as the primary nitrogenous byproduct of protein metabolism.
a. ammonia
b. urea
c. uric acid
d. creatine
14. Diadromous fishes _____.
a. live in murky environments and often rely on electroreception to detect objects in
their environment
b. possess both lungs and gills
c. are open ocean fishes that force water over their gills through ram ventilation
d. migrate between freshwater and marine environments
15. ______ are thought to be a part of the evolutionary lineage leading to terrestrial
vertebrates.
a. Rhipidistian fishes
b. Lungfishes
c. Elasmobranchii
d. Actinopterygii
16. Blood and water move in opposite directions on either side of a gill lamellar epithelium.
This movement provides very efficient gas exchange between blood and water and is called
a countercurrent exchange mechanism.
True
FalseThe correct answer is True.
17. Members of the superclass Agnatha are entirely extinct.
TrueThe correct answer is False.
False
18. Sharks, skates, and rays regulate buoyancy using a swim bladder with a pneumatic duct
connected to the esophagus.
False
19. All members of the class Chondrichthyes possess placoid scales and lack an operculum.
False
20. Lungfishes are probably the closest living fish relative of terrestrial vertebrates.
False
21. Blood flows through the heart of a fish in the following sequence: conus arteriosus,
ventricle, atrium, sinus venosus, ventral aorta.
False
22. All fishes have a heart with a single, undivided ventricle and a single, undivided atrium.
False
23. Some elasmobranchs and open ocean fishes force water over their gills by holding their
mouth open while swimming. This method of gill ventilation is called ram ventilation.
True
FalseThe correct answer is True.
24. Most zoologists believe that swim bladders, like those found in modern bony fishes, were
the forerunner of lungs.
False
25. The tissues of a shark are isosmotic with seawater because of the accumulation of urea
in body tissues.
True
FalseThe correct answer is True
8/28/2016 Chapter 28 Amphibians: The First Terrestrial Vertebrates
Chapter 28 Amphibians: The First
Terrestrial Vertebrates
1. All of the following are members of the amniote lineage EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. amphibians
b. reptiles
c. birds
d. mammals
2. Salamanders are members of the order _____.
a. Caudata
b. Anura
c. Gymnophiona
d. Temnospondyli
3. Caecilians are members of the order _____.
a. Caudata
b. Anura
c. Gymnophiona
d. Temnospondyli
4. Members of the order _____ are wormlike burrowers.
a. Caudata
b. Anura
c. Gymnophiona
d. Temnospondyli
5. Members of the order ______ have caudal vertebrae fused into a urostyle.
a. Caudata
b. Anura
c. Gymnophiona
d. Temnospondyli
6. The major component of the diet of most amphibians is ______.
a. plant matter
b. other vertebrates
c. decaying animal flesh
d. arthropods
7. Members of which of the following groups are most closely related to the salamanders?
a. amniotes
b. Anura
c. Temnospondyli
d. Gymnophiona
8. Which of the following regions of the skeleton of an amphibian is the point of attachment
of the hind limbs to the vertebral column?
a. cervical
b. thoracic
c. sacral
d. caudal
9. ______ are processes on trunk vertebrae of amphibians. They provide support when an
amphibian is out of the water and prevent twisting of the vertebral column.
a. urostyles
b. zygapophyses
c. neural spines
d. transverse processes
10. All of the following are true of the heart of amphibians EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. It consists of a sinus venosus, two atria, a ventricle, and a conus arteriosus.
b. The atria are completely separated from each other.
c. Blood entering the right side of the heart is often as well oxygenated as blood
leaving the heart.
d. There is complete separation of oxygenated and less oxygenated blood
throughout the heart.
11. The ______ of the heart directs blood away from the pulmonary circulation when a frog
is burrowed into the mud at the bottom of a pond.
a. spiral valve
b. conus arteriosus
c. sinus venosus
d. atrioventricular valve
12. A portion of the gas exchange in amphibians occurs across the moist surfaces of the
mouth and pharynx. This process is called ______.
a. buccopharyngeal respiration
b. buccal pumping
c. cutaneous respiration
d. mouthtoblood exchange
13. Unlike fishes, the amphibian ear includes a/an ______.
a. inner ear
b. outer ear
c. middle ear and tympanic membrane
d. group of three middle ear ossicles
14. Low frequency warning sounds are transmitted to the inner ear of amphibians through
the ______.
a. stapes
b. columella
c. operculum
d. incus
15. All but one of the following are used by some adult amphibians when they are on land to
conserve water or replace lost water. Select the exception.
a. nocturnal activity patterns
b. absorption of water through the skin
c. formation of parchmentlike cocoons
d. intentional drinking
16. The nonamniote lineage is mostly extinct; however, the reptiles, birds, and mammals are
modernday representatives of this lineage.
True
False
17. Members of the order Anura possess a tongue that is attached at the anterior margin of
the jaw and have glands on the tongue that exude sticky secretions. Their tongue is used in
a flipandgrab feeding mechanism.
True
False
18. Most salamanders have internal fertilization. A male deposits a spermatophore, which is
picked up and stored by a female. Eggs are fertilized as they are deposited by the female.
True
False
19. Dendrobatid (poison arrow) frogs are unusual amphibians because they alone possess
noxious secretions in the skin that help ward off potential predators.
True
False
20. In adult amphibians, embryonic aortic arch VI becomes pulmonary arteries.
True
False
21. Vision is a very important sense for most amphibians because they are primarily sight
feeders.
True
False
22. The upper eyelid of an amphibian forms a transparent membrane that cleans and
protects the eye. This membrane is called the nictitating membrane.
True
False
23. Metamorphosis of amphibians is solely controlled by the pituitary gland.
True
False
24. At higher environmental temperatures, most gas exchange occurs across the skin of
amphibians.
True
False
25. Amphibians were the first vertebrates to possess a cervical vertebra. This vertebra
increases the flexibility of the vertebral column.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 29 Reptiles: The First Amniotes
Chapter 29 Reptiles: The First Amniotes
1. The major synapomorphy that distinguishes reptiles, birds, and mammals from other
tetrapods is ______.
a. the amniotic egg
b. epidermal scales
c. anapsid skull
d. endothermy
2. The closest living reptilian relatives of the dinosaurs are the _____.
a. Testudines
b. Crocodilia
c. Rhynchocephalia
d. Squamata
3. A synapsid skull was characteristic of a group of reptiles called therapsids. This group
gave rise to ______.
a. modern reptiles
b. birds
c. mammals
d. no other group of animals
4. Cladistic analysis of the amniote lineage indicates that the class Reptilia should probably
be abandoned because of the close relationship between the birds and the _____.
a. anapsid lineage (including modern turtles)
b. Archosauria (a diapsid lineage including modern crocodiles and dinosaurs)
c. Lepidosauria (a diapsid lineage including lizards and the Sphenodon)
d. synapsid lineage (including mammallike reptiles and modern mammals)
5. The lizards and snakes belong to the order ______.
a. Testudines
b. Crocodilia
c. Rhynchocephalia
d. Squamata
6. The turtles belong to the order ______.
a. Testudines
b. Crocodilia
c. Rhynchocephalia
d. Squamata
7. The dorsal portion of the shell of a turtle is the _____.
a. plastron
b. carapace
c. fenestra
d. diaphysis
8. A kind of bone that makes up long bones of a vertebrate and has a cartilaginous stage in
development is called _____.
a. epidermal bone
b. dermal bone
c. endochondral bone
d. embryonic bone
9. Three of the following are true of scales of a fish. One of the following is true of scales of a
reptile. Select the statement that is true of reptilian scales.
a. They form in the epidermis of the skin.
b. They are composed, in part of bone.
c. They are covered by enamel.
d. They contain dentine.
10. The evolution of this group has resulted in the reduction or loss of the left lung and
displacement of the gallbladder, the right kidney and often the gonads.
a. turtles
b. lizards
c. snakes
d. crocodiles
11. The ______ allows an alligator to breath when the mouth is full of water or food.
a. secondary palate
b. Jacobson's organs
c. pit organs
d. plastron
12. All of the following statements regarding reptile hearts are true EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. The ventricle is partially divided in reptiles other than the crocodiles.
b. The conus arteriosus leads to the ventral aorta.
c. The sinus venosus is a functional chamber only in the turtles.
d. Two atria are present.
13. Most reptiles excrete ______ as their primary nitrogenous waste product.
a. ammonia
b. urea
c. uric acid
d. creatine
14. _____ of a vipers' skull allows these snakes to strike at any size prey, even those much
larger than their mouth opening.
a. Loosely joined bones
b. Moveable bones of the upper jaw
c. Fangs near the back of the jaw
d. Hinged maxillary bones
15. The archosaur lineage of reptiles is shared with members of the class ______.
a. Mammalia
b. Aves
c. Amphibia
d. Osteichthyes
16. The crocodiles, birds, snakes, and lizards are all members of the diapsid lineage.
True
False
17. Members of the subclass Anapsida lack openings in the temporal region of the skull and
include the mammallike reptiles and the mammals.
True
False
18. The Cretaceous/Tertiary boundary is marked by an evolutionary explosion that resulted
in the adaptive radiation of reptiles.
True
False
19. A secondary palate, first seen in reptiles, is a plate of bone that separates the nasal
passages from the mouth cavity.
True
False
20. Loosely joined the upper and lower jaws, loosely joined skull bones, a moveable upper
jaw, and a glottis that is positioned near the front of the mouth are all adaptations of snakes
for swallowing prey.
True
False
21. Olfactory receptors located in pouches that open through the secondary palate of many
reptiles are called pit organs.
True
False
22. Snakes possess a well developed middle ear cavity, auditory tube, and tympanic
membrane. All of these structures give snakes a sensitive apparatus for detecting airborne
vibrations.
True
False
23. Many reptiles store water in lymphatic spaces under the skin and in the urinary bladder.
Many lizards possess salt glands below the eyes for ridding the body of excess salt.
True
False
24. Most reptiles use internal heat sources for temperature regulation and are, therefore,
endotherms.
True
False
25. The median (parietal) eye of reptiles is an outgrowth of the forebrain. When it is present,
it is used as a third, imageforming sensory receptor.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 30 Birds: Feathers, Flight, and Endothermy
Chapter 30 Birds: Feathers, Flight, and
Endothermy
1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the class Aves EXCEPT one. Select
the exception.
a. ectothermy
b. vertebral column modified for flight
c. bones lightened by numerous air spaces
d. feathers
2. Fossils of this ancient bird indicate that slow, hovering, and highly maneuverable flight
evolved at least 115 million years ago.
a. Archaeopteryx
b. Sinoris
c. Eoalulavis
d. Sterna
3. 150 million year old fossils of this ancient bird have been found in Germany. They show a
clavicle for the attachment of wing muscles, but other sites for flight muscle attachment were
less developed. These observations indicate that this bird was capable of gliding, but not
long distance, flight.
a. Archaeopteryx
b. Sinoris
c. Eoalulavis
d. Sterna
4. Feathers develop from the ______ of the skin.
a. epidermis
b. dermis
c. hypodermis
5. Feathers of a bird that cover the body, wings, and tail are called ______ feathers.
a. down
b. filoplume
c. contour
d. dermal
6. Feathers of a bird that have sensory functions are called ______ feathers.
a. down
b. filoplume
c. contour
d. dermal
7. Hamuli branch from the ______ of a contour feather and keep these feathers firm and
smooth.
a. quill
b. shaft
c. barb
d. barbule
8. The fusion of posterior thoracic, lumbar, and sacral vertebrae into a ______ helps a bird
maintain proper flight posture.
a. pygostyle
b. ucinate process
c. synsacrum
d. furcula
9. The fusion of posterior caudal vertebrae into a ______ supports tail feathers that are
important in steering during flight.
a. pygostyle
b. ucinate process
c. synsacrum
d. furcula
10. The alula is a group of small feathers on the wing that ______.
a. helps decrease the angle of attack of the wing
b. is elevated during fast flapping flight
c. is elevated to reduce turbulence along the upper surface of the wing during
hovering, takeoff, and landing
d. generates the propulsive force of flight.
11. The portion of the digestive tract of a pigeon that produces "pigeon's milk" used in
feeding young is the ______.
a. esophagus
b. gizzard
c. crop
d. proventriculus
12. A portion of the digestive tract of a bird that is a modification of the stomach and secretes
gastric juices that initiate digestion is the ______.
a. crop
b. gizzard
c. proventriculus
d. pylorus
13. All of the following statements regarding lung ventilation and gas exchange are true
EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Gas exchange occurs in blindending sacs called alveoli.
b. Abdominal and thoracic air sacs are compressed by body muscles to move air
through the respiratory system.
c. Two respiratory cycles are required to move a volume of air through the
respiratory system.
d. Birds have a greater rate of oxygen consumption than any other vertebrate.
14. In some birds, for example spotted sandpipers, males establish nest sites. A female will
mate with more than one male and lay a clutch of eggs in each male's nest. The males then
care for the eggs. This reproductive process is called ______.
a. monogamy
b. polygyny
c. polyandry
d. ovovivipary
15. A reproductive process called ______ is common among birds when resources are
widely and evenly distributed. One parent often incubates and protects the eggs or chicks
while the other parent searches for food.
a. monogamy
b. polygyny
c. polyandry
d. ovovivipary
16. The anterior margin of a bird's wing is thicker than the posterior margin. The upper
surface of the wing is slightly convex. As air passes over the wing, a low pressure area is
created under the wing and creates lift needed for flight.
True
False
17. Birds dissipate excess heat through perspiration from sweat glands.
True
False
18. In vertebrate evolution, the sinus venosus has decreased in size. In the birds, the sinus
venosus is reduced to a patch of pacemaker tissue in the right atrium of the heart.
True
False
19. Ucinate processes on the ribs of birds strengthen the rib cage. They are unique to
members of the class Aves.
True
False
20. The crop is a diverticulum of the stomach of a bird and is used to store and abrade food.
It allows birds to feed on abundant resources quickly and then retreat to a safe location for
digestion.
True
False
21. A volume of air is inspired by a bird. After the next inspiration the first volume of air would
be in the thoracic air sacs of the bird.
True
False
22. A volume of air is inspired by a bird. After the next expiration the volume of air would be
in the abdominal air sacs of the bird.
True
False
23. Birds have two foveae per eye. The search fovea gives birds good monocular vision. The
pursuit fovea gives birds binocular vision and depth perception.
True
False
24. The major center for integration of sensory information in the brain of a bird is a region of
gray matter in the midbrain called the optic lobes.
True
False
25. Altricial chicks, like those of kildeer, are alert and lively shortly after hatching.
True
Fals
8/28/2016 Chapter 31 Mammals: Specialized Teeth, Endothermy, Hair, and Viviparity
Chapter 31 Mammals: Specialized Teeth,
Endothermy, Hair, and Viviparity
1. 1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the class Mammalia EXCEPT one.
a. mammary glands
b. hair
c. homodont teeth
d. sweat, sebaceous, and scent glands
2. 2. Members of the order Chiroptera include the ______.
a. rats and mice
b. rabbits
c. bats
d. armadillos
3. 3. Members of the order Cetacea include the ______.
a. elephants
b. manatees
c. beavers and porcupines
d. whales
4. 4. Members of the order Perissodactyla include the ______.
a. elephants
b. deer and cattle
c. horses and zebras
d. dogs and cats
5. 5. The echidna and the duckbilled platypus are members of the infraclass ______.
a. Prototheria
b. Ornithodelphia
c. Metatheria
d. Eutheria
6. 6. Members of the infraclass Ornithodelphia are characterized by ______.
a. a chorioallantoic placenta
b. ovoviviparous development
c. a marsupium
d. oviparous development and a cloaca
7. 7. Which of the following glands are associated with hair follicles and function to lubricate
and waterproof the skin?
a. sudoriferous glands
b. sebaceous glands
c. mammary glands
d. musk glands
8. 8. Which of the following kinds of mammal teeth are usually modified for gnawing or
nipping?
a. incisors
b. canines
c. premolars
d. molars
9. 9. A dental formula of 2.1.2.3/2.1.2.3 indicates that this mammal has ___ molars.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
10. 10. All of the following statements are true of horns EXCEPT one. One is true of antlers.
Select the statement that is true of antlers.
a. They have a outer layer of keratin.
b. They are primarily defensive structures.
c. They are made of rapidly growing bone and are shed and regrown each year.
d. They are always present in both sexes.
11. 11. In the fetal circulation, blood in the ______ is most highly oxygenated.
a. pulmonary vein
b. pulmonary artery
c. aorta
d. umbilical vein
12. 12. In the adult circulation, blood in the ______ is most highly oxygenated.
a. pulmonary artery
b. pulmonary vein
c. anterior vena cava
d. posterior vena cava
13. 13. A diaphragm is present in ______.
a. birds and mammals
b. reptiles, birds, and mammals
c. mammals only
d. birds and reptiles
14. 14. The ability of the mammalian kidney to produce urine that is more concentrated with
urea and salts than the blood is a result of the function of the ______.
a. glomerulus
b. glomerular capsule
c. loop of the nephron
d. collecting duct
15. 15. The ______ is a time during which the female is behaviorally and physiologically
receptive to the male.
a. menstrual cycle
b. ovarian cycle
c. estrus cycle
d. uterine cycle
16. 16. One source of evidence that the mammals evolved in the archosaur branch of the
amniote lineage is the fact that crocodilians and mammals both possess a secondary palate.
True
False
17. 17. Another source of evidence that the mammals evolved in the archosaur branch of the
amniote lineage is the fact that both birds and mammals have four, completely separated,
heart chambers.
True
False
18. 18. The presence of a secondary palate in crocodiles and mammals and completely
separated heart chambers in birds and mammals are examples of convergent evolution.
True
False
19. 19. Small size, well developed olfactory and auditory senses, and lack of color vision in
most mammals suggests that early mammals were nocturnal.
True
False
20. 20. Sudoriferous glands are found around the face, feet, or anus of many mammals.
They secrete pheromones involved with defense, species and sex recognition, and territorial
behavior.
True
False
21. 21. A cecum is found in horses, rabbits, and many rodents. It is a fermentation pouch at
the junction of the large and small intestines where microorganisms aid in cellulose
digestion.
True
False
22. 22. Hibernation is a period of winter inactivity in which the hypothalamus of the brain
slows the metabolic, heart, and respiratory rates. It is common in rodents, bats, and bears.
True
False
23. 23. Color vision is more common in reptiles and birds than it is in the mammals.
True
False
24. 24. Embryonic diapause occurs in bats. Coitus occurs in the autumn, but fertilization is
delayed until spring. Females store viable sperm for about two months.
True
False
25. 25. All mammals have a placenta through which young are nourished for at least a
portion of their development. The maternal bloodstream, not yolk, supplies nutrients.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 32 Protection, Support, Movement
Chapter 32 Protection, Support,
Movement
1. The integument of most multicellular invertebrates consists of a
a. multilayer of cells.
b. layer called the skin.
c. number of derivatives such as glands, hair, and nails.
d. single layer of cells.
2. Animals have three types of skeletons. Which of the following is not one of the three
types?
a. fluid hydrostatic
b. rigid exoskeleton
c. fluid exoskeleton
d. rigid endoskeleton
3. The supportive tissue in the vertebrate skeleton consists of
a. cartilage
b. bone
c. muscle
d. both a and b
4. The outer protein coat of a protozoan is called the
a. tegument.
b. pellicle.
c. epidermis.
d. dermis
5. The outer layer of flukes and tapeworms is the __________.
a. tegument
b. pellicle
c. epidermis
d. shell
6. __________ is the vertebrate integument.
a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Skin
d. Hypodermis
7. Where would you find skin that is multilayered and contains mucous and sensory cells,
and placoid scales called denticles.
a. In the skin of body fishes.
b. In the skin of cartilaginous fishes.
c. In the skin of jawless fishes.
d. In the skin of birds.
8. The notable features of mammalian skin are
a. hair.
b. a greater variety of epidermal glands than in any other vertebrate class.
c. a highly stratified, cornified epidermis.
9. Modifications of the epidermis include
a. nails.
b. hair.
c. horns
10. What type of skeleton would you find in earthworms and sea anemones?
c. rigid endoskeleton
11. What type of skeleton would you find in an arthropod?
c. rigid endoskeleton
12. Cartilage is a major supportive tissue. It makes up the major skeletal component in all of
the following except
a. gastropods.
b. jawless fishes.
c. humans.
d. sharks.
13. With the exception of the __________, locomotor cilia and flagella occur in every animal
phyla.
a. protozoa
b. molluscs
c. arthropods
d. aschelminths
14. The predominant muscle type in many invertebrates is __________
a. skeletal
b. smooth
c. cardiac
d. both a and b
15. Flatworms, some cnidarians, and the gastropod molluscs move by means of waves of
activity in the muscular system that are applied to the substrate. This type of movement is
called __________.
a. pedal locomotion
b. looping movement
c. watervascular movement
d. walking
16. As a zoologist, you would look for looping movement in __________.
a. earthworms
b. polychaetes
c. echinoderms
d. leeches
17. The functional unit in a skeletal muscle is called a __________.
a. Zline.
b. sarcomere
c. actin filament
d. myosin filament
18. Nerves control skeletal muscle contraction.
True
False
19. The power behind muscular movements in both invertebrates and vertebrates is
connective tissue.
True
False
20. Amoeboid movement does not involve muscles.
True
False
21. The most familiar endoskeletons, both cartilaginous and bony, first appeared in the
vertebrates.
True
False
22. The endoskeletons of sponges consist of mineral spicules.
True
False
23. Animals have three types of skeletons: hydrostatic skeletons, exoskeletons, and
endoskeletons.
True
False
24. The tegument is the external covering of an animal.
True
False
25. Skin is the vertebrate integument.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 33 Communication I: Nerves
Chapter 33 Communication I: Nerves
1. All of the following are functions of the nervous system except __________.
a. communication
b. integration
c. coordination
d. movement
2. The evolution of the nervous system in invertebrates has led to elaboration of organized
nerve cords and centralization of responses in the __________ portion of the animal.
a. posterior
b. lateral
c. ventral
d. anterior
3. Which of the following parts of a neuron contains a nucleus?
a. axon
b. dendrite
c. cell body
d. neurofibril node
4. The concentration of ions on the two sides of a nerve membrane is due primary to
a. the sodiumpotassium ATPase pump.
b. gated channels.
c. open channels for ions.
d. sodium pump.
5. A stimulus that is strong enough to initiate a nerve impulse is called the
a. allornone law.
b. threshold stimulus.
c. refractory period.
d. action potential.
6. Conduction of an action potential along myelinated nerve fibers is known as __________.
a. saltatory conduction
b. allornone law
c. depolarization
d. repolarization
7. A neurotransmitter changes the _________ in the plasma membrane of the receptive
segment of the postsynaptic cell, creating an action potential in that cell.
a. depolarization potential
b. resting potential
c. refractory period
d. threshold potential
8. Which of the following does not have the simplest form of nervous system organization?
a. protozoa
b. hydras
c. jellyfishes
d. sea anemones
9. Which of the following characterize the evolution of the vertebrate nervous system?
b. a notocord
c. a tubular nerve cord
10. The notocord first appeared in __________.
a. marine chordates
b. tunicates
c. amphioxus
d. vertebrates
11. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain in a vertebrate?
a. cerebrum
b. thalamus
c. pineal gland
d. pons
12. Which of the following is not part of the vertebrate hindbrain?
a. pons
b. cerebellum
c. optic tectum
d. medulla oblongata
13. How many pairs of cranial nerves are found in reptiles, birds, and mammals?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
14. Which of the following is responsible for the "fightorflight" response?
a. The parasympathetic nervous system
b. The motor nervous system.
c. The sympathetic nervous system.
d. All of the above (ac).
15. The functional unit of the nervous system is the __________.
a. nerve
b. brain
c. spinal cord
d. neuron
16. The language (signal) of the neuron is the __________.
a. nerve impulse
b. action potential
c. neurotransmitter
d. both a and b
17. Which of the following is not a sensory nerve?
a. olfactory
b. hypoglossal
c. optic
d. vestibulocochlear
18. Neurons have two important properties: excitability and conductivity.
True
False
19. Neuronal activity is transmitted between cells at the synapse.
True
False
20. The vertebrate nervous system has two main divisions.
True
False
21. The number of spinal nerves in an animal is not directly related too the number of
segments in the trunk or tail of a vertebrate.
True
False
22. The autonomic nervous system of vertebrates consists of three antagonistic parts.
True
False
23. The midbrain is the thickened region of gray matter that integrates visual and auditory
signals.
True
False
24. In mammals, the outermost part of the cerebrum, called the cerebral cortex,
progressively decreased in size and complexity from lampreys to birds and mammals.
True
False
25. Nervous systems evolved through the gradual layering of additional nervous tissue over
reflex pathways of more ancient origin.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 34 Communication II: Senses
Chapter 34 Communication II: Senses
1. Any form of energy an animal can detect with its receptors is called a __________.
a. receptor potential
b. stimulus
c. transducer
d. generator potential
2. Which of the following receptors detects a change in pressure?
a. hygroreceptors
b. georeceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
3. Statocysts, as found in various gastropods, cephalopods, and crustaceans, are a good
example of a __________.
a. hygroreceptor
b. georeceptor
c. baroreceptor
d. chemoreceptor
4. True phonoreceptors that respond to sound have been demonstrated only in __________.
a. insects, arachnids, and centipedes
b. protozoa, hydra, and molluscs
c. molluscs, tunicates, and arthropods
d. vertebrates
5. Certain flagellated protozoa (e.g., Euglena) contain bright red photoreceptor granules
called the __________.
a. ocellus
b. compound eye
c. stigma
d. ommatidium
6. Squid and octopuses have __________.
a. compound eyes
b. ocelli
c. complex camera eyes
7. Webbuilding spiders have __________ that can sense struggling prey in webs through
vibrations of the web threads.
a. proprioceptors
b. tactile receptors
c. georeceptors
d. thermoreceptors
8. Which of the following evolved from the lateral line system of fishes?
a. organs for equilibrium
b. organs for gravity detection
c. organs for audition
9. A mechanoreceptor would respond to all of the following except:
a. sight.
b. sound.
c. touch.
d. muscular contractions.
10. The tympanium first evolved in
a. molluscs.
b. amphibians.
c. fishes.
d. vertebrates.
11. How many divisions are present in the human ear?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
12. Pain receptors are also called __________.
a. vomeronasal organs
b. organs of Ruffini
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. nociceptors
13. Jacobson's organs function in the
a. detection of sound.
b. detection of pressure.
c. detection of odors.
d. detection of electrical currents.
14. The process of focusing light rays precisely on the retina is called __________.
a. processing.
b. fixation.
c. accommodation.
15. Which of the following pigments is involved in the production of a generator potential with
respect to light?
a. hemoglobulin
b. hemirhodopsin
c. rhodopsin
16. Taste buds are found on the skin in __________ and __________.
a. fishes and amphibians
b. mammals and amphibians
c. birds and reptiles
d. reptiles and fishes
17. Which of the following is the primary sense that vertebrates use?
a. touch
b. taste
c. vision
d. hearing
18. The sense of smell is due to olfactory neurons in the roof of the vertebrate nasal cavity.
True
False
19. The receptors for taste (gustation) are chemoreceptors on the body surface of an animal
or in the mouth and throat.
True
False
20. Bats, shrews, whales, and fishes can determine distance and depth by sonar.
True
False
21. Most reptiles have heatsensitive pit organs on each side of the face.
True
False
22. The lateralline system for electrical sensing is in the head area of most fishes, some
amphibians, and the platypus.
True
False
23. Invertebrate and vertebrate sensory receptors (organs) have evolved in ways that relate
to the environment in which they must function.
True
False
24. A stimulus is any form of energy an animal can detect with its receptors.
True
False
25. Receptors transduce energy from one form to another.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 35 Communication III: The Endocrine System and Chemical Messengers
Chapter 35 Communication III: The
Endocrine System and Chemical
Messengers
1. Chemical messengers are involved in
a. communication.
b. in maintaining homeostasis in an animal's body.
c. the body's response to various stimuli.
2. Which of the following is not a major endocrine gland in vertebrates?
a. hypothalamus
b. pituitary
c. thyroid
d. placenta
3. Those chemicals that are released to the exterior of one animal and affect the behavior of
another animal are called
a. neurotransmitters.
b. local chemical messengers.
c. pheromones.
d. hormones.
4. Which of the following is not a category of hormone?
a. carbohydrates
b. polypeptides
c. amines
d. steroids
5. The fixedmembrane receptor mechanism for hormone action involves
a. proteins and amines.
b. carbohydrates and steroids
c. steroids and polypeptides
d. carbohydrates and polypeptides
6. The mobilereceptor mechanism for hormone action involves
a. steroids
b. carbohydrates
c. polypeptides
d. amines
7. True hormones were first identified in
a. cnidarians.
b. Platyhelminthes.
c. nematodes.
d. molluscs.
8. With respect to invertebrates, which of the following has the most advanced endocrine
system?
a. echinoderms
b. arthropods
c. annelids
d. molluscs
9. Frog metamorphosis is regulated by __________ hormones.
a. prolactin
b. thyroid
c. adrenal
d. pineal
10. In vertebrates, chromaffin tissue is associated with the
a. brain.
b. adrenal glands.
c. reproductive system.
d. digestive system.
11. Which of the following is not produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
a. STH
b. ACTH
c. FSH
d. MSH
12. Which of the following is not produced by the hypothalamus?
a. TSH
b. CRH
c. PIF
d. calcitonin
13. Epinephrine or adrenaline is produced by the __________ gland(s).
a. adrenal
b. pituitary
c. thyroid
d. parathyroid
14. Which of the following glands diminishes in size as a vertebrate ages?
a. pituitary
b. pineal
c. hypothalamus
d. thymus
15. All of the following are hormones of the digestive tract except __________.
a. CCK
b. gastrin
c. secretin
d. atriopeptin
16. In vertebrates, the endocrine control center is found in the
a. hypothalamus.
b. pituitary.
c. both hypothalamus and pituitary.
d. neither hypothalamus nor pituitary.
17. The kidneys produce the hormone __________.
a. erythropoietin
b. gastrin
c. secretin
d. hCG
18. Hormones modify the biochemical activity of a target cell or tissue.
True
False
19. A hormone is a specialized chemical messenger that an endocrine gland or tissue
produces and secretes.
True
False
20. The pancreas produces several hormones that hep regulate reproductive functions.
True
False
21. The adrenal medulla is under endocrine control.
True
False
22. Zoologist know more about the endocrine system of invertebrates that of any other
animal group.
True
False
23. Jawed fishes and primitive tetrapods have ulimobranchial glands.
True
False
24. In insects, hormones play a major role in growth, maturation, and reproduction.
True
False
25. Classical endocrine glands have been identified in nematodes.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 36 Circulation, Immunity, and Gas Exchange
Chapter 36 Circulation, Immunity, and Gas
Exchange
1. The transport system found in protozoa that moves gases is
a. simple diffusion.
b. a gastrovascular cavity.
c. hemolymph.
d. an open circulatory system.
2. Coelomic fluid is used to transport gases in
a. rotifers.
b. gastrotrichs.
c. nematodes.
3. The annelids, such as the earthworm, have an __________ circulatory system.
a. closed
b. open
c. coelomic
d. hemolymph
4. All of the following are granulocytes except
a. eosinophils.
b. basophils.
c. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
5. Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?
a. monocyte
b. B cell
c. T cell
d. plasma cell
6. A bony fish has a __________ chambered heart.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
7. A four chambered heart is first seen in
a. bony fishes.
b. amphibians.
c. reptiles.
d. crocodilians.
8. The pacemaker of a mammalian heart is the
a. AV node.
b. SA node.
c. Bundle of His.
d. Purkinje fibers.
9. All of the following are nonspecific defenses except
a. biological barriers.
b. chemical barriers.
c. acquired immunity.
d. physical barriers.
10. The type of immunity produced by antibodies acquired from immunization with a vaccine
is termed
a. artificial active immunity.
b. artificial passive immunity.
c. natural immunity.
d. passive immunity.
11. The reason why tissue and organ transplants are rejected in birds and mammals is due
to
a. the action of NK cells.
b. natural immunity.
c. the action of plasma cells.
d. the action of antibodies.
12. Most aquatic invertebrates carry out gas exchange
a. by diffusion.
b. with lungs.
c. by gills.
d. with tracheal systems.
13. Arachnids possess
a. trachea.
b. books lungs.
c. neither a nor b
d. both a and b
14. Land snails breath by way of
a. trachea.
b. book lungs.
c. pulmonate lungs.
15. Amphibians and some reptiles breath by
a. cutaneous body surface exchange.
b. external filamentous gills.
c. internal lamellar gills.
d. all of the above.
16. The type of breathing that allows an organism to exchange gases simultaneously with
both air and water is termed
a. cutaneous exchange.
b. bimodal breathing.
c. gill exchange.
d. lung exchange.
17. Which of the following has the greatest rate of oxygen consumption?
a. frogs
b. humans
c. pulmonates
d. birds
18. Chlorocruorin is green when associated with low oxygen concentrations and bright red
when associated with high oxygen concentrations.
True
False
19. Hemoglobulin is the most commonly occurring respiratory pigment in molluscs and
certain crustaceans.
True
False
20. Oxygen and carbon dioxide always diffuse from areas of low concentration to areas of
high concentration.
True
False
21. Animals that respire anaerobically need a constant supply of oxygen.
True
False
22. Acquired immunity can be either active or passive.
True
False
23. The lymphatic system consists of oneway vessels that help return fluids and proteins
through a closed system of vessels.
True
False
24. Open circulatory systems generally circulate blood and closed systems circulate
hemolymph.
True
False
25. As animals became larger and acquired higher metabolic rates, simple diffusion became
increasingly inadequate as a means of delivering oxygen to the tissues.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 37 Nutrition and Digestion
Chapter 37 Nutrition and Digestion
1. The nutrition of an animal includes
a. the process of taking in food.
b. the process of digesting food.
c. the processes of absorbing and storing food.
2. Most higher invertebrates (e.g., insects) utilize __________ that allows them to exploit
different food sources.
a. intracellular digestion
b. both intracellular and extracellular digestion
c. variations in extracellular digestion
d. just extracellular digestion
3. The development of an anus and complete digestive tract first occurred in the
a. sponges
b. aschelminths
c. molluscs
d. cnidarians
4. Bats, that eat primarily arthropods, are called
a. autrotrophs.
b. heterotrophs.
c. carnivores.
d. insectivores.
5. A vertebrate, such as yourself, can extract approximately __________ calories per gram
of carbohydrate.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
6. In animals, which of the following would be categorized as a trace mineral?
a. copper
b. calcium
c. chlorine
d. sodium
7. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?
a. A
b. B12
c. D
d. K
8. Deposit feeding occurs in
a. earthworms.
b. some snails.
c. sea urchins.
9. Which of the following spends the most time eating?
a. herbivores
b. carnivores
c. suspension feeders
d. discontinuous feeders
10. Digestion involves
a. feeding.
b. extracellular digestion.
c. intracellular digestion.
11. Salivary glands are found in all of the following except
a. fishes.
b. snakes.
c. birds.
d. fishes and birds.
12. Gizzards are found in all of the following except
a. crocodilians.
b. birds.
c. some fishes.
d. mammals.
13. All of the following are ruminant animals except
a. cows.
b. sheep.
c. deer.
d. elephants.
14. In mammals, HCl is secreted by __________ cells.
a. chief
b. parietal
c. zymogen
d. HCL
15. All of the following are functions of the vertebrate stomach except
a. stores and mixes the food bolus received from the esophagus.
b. secretes substances (enzymes, mucus, HCL) that starts the digestion of
proteins.
c. begins carbohydrate digestion.
d. helps control the rate food moves into the small intestine.
16. The stomach contains __________ glands.
a. gastric
b. mucous
c. intestinal
d. both gastric and mucous
17. Which of the following is necessary for the emulsification of fats?
a. bile
b. pancreatic juice
c. intestinal juice
18. Digestion is the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into smaller particles that
the individual cells of an animal can absorb.
True
False
19. Losses of biosynthetic abilities have marked much of animal evolution.
True
False
20. Only a few protists and animals can absorb nutrients directly from their external
environment.
True
False
21. The evolution and structure of the digestive system in various invertebrates and
vertebrates reflects their eating habits, their rate of metabolism, and their body size.
True
False
22. Most digestion occurs in the ileal portion of the small intestine.
True
False
23. The large intestine has a lot of digestive and absorptive activities.
True
False
24. The appendix represents the evolutionary remains of a large intestine.
True
False
25. A rabbit has a very small cecum.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 38 Temperature and Body Fluid Regulation
Chapter 38 Temperature and Body Fluid
Regulation
1. __________ is the loss of heat from a surface as water molecules escape in the form of a
gas.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. Radiation
2. Animals cope with temperature fluctuations by
a. occupying a place in the environment where the temperature remains constant
and compatible with their physiological processes.
b. adapting their physiological processes to the range of temperatures in which the
animals are capable of living.
c. Generating heat and trapping heat internally to maintain a constant body
temperature despite fluctuations in the external environment temperature.
3. In general, reptiles, fishes, and amphibians are __________.
a. endotherms
b. ectotherms
c. homeotherms
4. At night, hummingbirds enter a sleep like state called __________.
a. estivation
b. hibernation
c. daily torpor
d. sleep depravation
5. In order to lose heat, birds
a. pant.
b. utilize gular flutter.
c. sleep.
d. both a and b
6. The hormonal triggering of heat production is called __________.
a. nonshivering thermogenesis
b. shivering thermogenesis
c. gular flutter
d. panting
7. A specialized type of fat found in newborn mammals, in mammals that live in cold
climates, and in mammals that hibernate, is called __________ fat.
a. red
b. brown
c. yellow
d. green
8. Badgers, bears, and opossums __________ during winter months.
a. hibernate
b. estivate
c. enter prolonged sleep
d. enter torpor
9. If the osmotic concentration of the body fluids of an animal equals that of the medium in
which an animal is living, the animals is termed an __________.
a. osmoregulator
b. osmoconformer
c. osmotolerant
d. osmoresistant
10. Contractile vacuoles would be found in
a. protozoa and sponges.
b. metazoan invertebrates.
c. vertebrates.
11. Metanephridia
a. open to the outside of an animal.
b. open internally to the body fluids.
c. are multicellular.
12. Antennal or green glands are found in __________.
a. crayfish and crabs
b. malocostraceans
c. insects
d. molluscs
13. Where would you look for coxal glands.
a. In spiders, scorpions, ticks, and mites.
b. In crayfish and crabs.
c. In vertebrates.
d. In sponges.
14. The __________ appears only briefly in many vertebrate embryos.
a. pronephros
b. mesonephros
c. metanephros
d. kidney
15. Most teleost fishes have __________ kidneys.
a. pronephric
b. mesonephric
c. metanephric
d. polynephric
16. Reptiles, birds, and mammals all possess _________ kidneys.
a. pronephric
b. mesonephric
c. metanephric
d. polynephric
17. The functional unit of the metanephric kidney is the __________.
a. countercurrent exchange mechanism
b. nephron
c. glomerulus
d. loop of the nephron
18. Ectotherms generally obtain heat from their environment.
True
False
19. Heterotherms have a relatively constant body temperature.
True
False
20. Thermogenesis involves mainly shivering, enzymatic activity, brown fat, and high cellular
metabolism.
True
False
21. Freshwater animals tend to gain ions and lose water.
True
False
22. Marine animals tend to take in ions from the seawater and to lose water.
True
False
23. Desert and marine reptiles and birds have salt glands to remove and secrete excess salt
(NaCl).
True
False
24. The loop of the nephron and the collecting duct are in the kidney cortex.
True
False
25. Sharks and their relatives (skates and rays) have mesonephric kidneys.
True
False
8/28/2016 Chapter 39 Reproduction and Development
Chapter 39 Reproduction and
Development
1. Hydra and many species of sponges reproduce by __________.
a. parthenogenesis
b. fragmentation
c. budding
d. fission
2. Certain flatworms, rotifers, roundworms, insects, lobsters, some lizards, and some fishes
can reproduce without sperm and normal fertilization. This type of asexual reproduction is
termed __________.
a. fission
b. budding
c. fragmentation
d. parthenogenesis
3. __________ occurs when an animal has both functional male and female reproductive
systems.
a. sequential hermaphroditism
b. hermaphroditism
c. dioecious reproduction
d. protandrous reproduction
4. When eggs are deposited outside the body of the female, this is termed __________
reproduction.
a. oviparous
b. ovoviviparous
c. viparous
d. broadcast spawning
5. The first group of vertebrates to completely abandon the aquatic habitat and began
reproducing on land were the __________.
a. fishes
b. amphibians
c. reptiles
d. birds
6. Which of the following mammals lays eggs?
a. duckbilled platypus
b. spiny anteater
c. opossums
d. both a and b
7. Water, fructose, vitamin C, and prostaglandins are secreted by the __________ in
mammals.
a. prostate gland
b. seminal vesicles
c. bulbourethral glands
8. Which of the following hormones aids sperm maturation and increases testosterone
production.
a. GnRH
b. LH
c. FSH
d. TSH
9. In a female mammal, which of the following hormones induce the mammary glands to
secrete and eject milk after birth?
a. prolactin
b. oxytocin
c. hCG
d. both a and b
10. Which of the following is not part of the menstrual cycle?
a. follicular phase
b. ovulation
c. luteal phase
d. blastocyst formation
11. During the first few days of birth, a baby receives __________ from the mother's
mammary glands.
a. milk
b. colostrum
c. neither of the above
d. both of the above
12. The baby participates in the birth process by secreting __________.
a. catecholamines
b. prolactin
c. oxytocin
d. FSH
13. In mammalian reproduction, which of the following implants in the endometrial lining of
the uterus?
a. zygote
b. morula
c. blastocyst
d. embryo
14. In female mammals, which of the following hormones stimulates thickening of the uterine
wall?
a. oxytocin
b. LH
c. progesterone
d. hCG
15. In human females, which of the following hormones controls pituitary secretion?
a. oxytocin
b. progesterone
c. GnRH
d. FSH
16. Which of the following human female hormones inhibits FSH secretion and increases LH
secretion?
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. prolactin
d. hCG
17. The female uterus is divided into __________ layers.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
18. Lactation includes just milk secretion (production) by the mammary glands.
True
False
19. The development of a human may be divided into prenatal and postnatal periods.
True
False
20. The human female is fertile for about a week each month.
True
False
21. Asexual reproduction relies on the fusion of haploid cells.
True
False
22. Sexual reproductive strategies and structures in the invertebrates are numerous and
varied.
True
False
23. Sexual reproduction first evolved in land animals.
True
False
24. The reproductive roles of the human female are more complex than those of the human
male.
True
False
25. Pregnancy is humans is arbitrarily divided into 3month periods called trimesters.
True
False

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