AIR REGULATIONS

CPL LEVEL QUESTIONS

(Check Accuracy of Answers)

Air Regulations 1

1. When refuelling an aircraft

a. No unauthorised person with in ……………….15 m
b. No naked flame with in………………………………30m
c. No smoking with in……………………………………30m

2. A red flag on the ATC indicates……………………Flying in progress

3. To an aircraft a red flag on the ATC indicates…………………Nothing

4. At Bombay over Malabar hills flying is not permitted within a distance of

a. 2 nm
b. 5 Km
c. 1 nm

5. The air space over Mathura refinery is a

a Restricted area
b. Prohibited area
c. Danger area

6. The isolation period for yellow fever is ……………………………… 6 Days

7. At an aerodrome a red square with two yellow diagonals indicates……

Landing prohibited and prohibition is likely to be prolonged.

8. A series of green flashes directed -towards an aircraft on the ground indicates

…………………………………Clear to taxi

9. Officers belonging to Army/Navy/Air Force

a. Can carry arms on board a civil aircraft
b. Can not carry arms on board a civil aircraft

10. An extremely sick person

a. Can not be carried on board an aircraft
b. Can be carried on board an aircraft
c. Can be carried on board an aircraft, if Accompanied by an attendant
& certified by a registered medical practitioner

11. The certificate pf air worthiness is suspended

a. After an accident
b. After unauthorized modification have been done
c. Aircraft suffers a major defect
d. All of the above

12. The remains of a crashed aircraft can be tampered / removed to

a. Extricate persons/animals alive or dead
b. Clear the R/W to allow air traffic
c. Take it to place of safety
d. All the above

13. After a forced coming landing an aircraft can T/O for base for repair weather
purpose with put the permission of the DGCA……………… True/False
 14. An aircrafrt coming landing from Bombay to Delhi lands at Jaipur due to
weather. It can T/O again without the permission of the DGCA……True/False

15. Aircraft flying on the the same track & level the longitudinal separation is
a. 30 mts
b. 15 mts
c. 05 mts

16. Aircraft flying on the the same track & level when frequent position fixing is
possible the longitudinal separation is
a. 30 mts
b. 15 mts
c. 05 mts
d. None of above

17. The reciprocal tracks on a semicircular system below F/L 290 have vertical
clearance of
a. 500 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 2000 feet

18. In India the semicircular system starts from F/L

a. 150 ( But see new circular)
b. 170
c. 290
d. 160

19. The rules for public health were published in

a. 1954
a. 1934
b. 1939
c. 1947

20. Which aircraft may be on a collision course?

a. Arcraft on the right with red navigation light in sight
b. Arcraft on the left with red navigation light in sight
c Aircraft on the right with white navigation light in s

21. THr green navigation light is visible through

a. 110 deg from forward to the right
b. 110 deg from -forward to the left
c. 110 deg from tail to the right
d. 140 deg

22. A light aircraft departs behind a medium aircraft the time gap between the Two
is
a. 1 mt
b. 2 mts
c. 3 mts
d. 5 mts

23. Cabotage of traffic refers to

a. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting state to carry
passengers / cargo between two points within the territory of another
contracting state
b. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting to carry passengers/cargo
between two points outside the territory of another contracting state
 c. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting to carry passengers / cargo
to the territory of another contracting state
d. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting to carry passengers/cargo
out from the another of another contracting state

24. Thresh hold is

a. Beginning of the runway
b. Beginning of that part of the runway usable for landing
c. A point where taxy ways meet

25. The displaced threshold is indicated by

a. White lines
b. Green lines
c. Red lines
d. Yellow lines

26. The displaced threshold is indicated by

a White lights
b. Green lights
c. Red lights
d. Yellow lights

27. The end of the R/W is indicated by

a White lights
b. Green lights
c. Red lights
d. Yellow lights

28. For the purpose of renewal of CPL

a. 50 % of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC
b. 50 % of instrument flying is counted as PIC
c. 80 % of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC

29. The ATC is no be intimated if the actual TAS is more then the planned TAS by
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 10%

30. An aircraft can be detained, under which act

a. 8
b. 8a
c. 8b
d. 8c

31. Navigator is required to be carried on board if

a. For a distance of more than 600 nm no Nav aid is available on the route
b. For a distance of more than 600 nm no Navigation aid is available within
30 nm either side of the route

32. The lateral separation between aircraft using VOR is

a. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less
b. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
c. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less

33. The lateral separation between aircraft using NDB is

a. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less
b. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
 c. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less

34. The lateral separation between aircraft using DR is

a. 45 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less
b. 45 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
c. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less

35. In class A airspace.

a. All flights are permitted
b. Only VFP flights are permitted
c. Only IFR flights are permitted

36. In class C airspace.

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted & are subjects to Air Traffic Control
b. IFR flight are separated from other IFR flights & from the VFR flights & receives information
in respect of VFR flight
c. VFR flight are separated from other IFR flights & the IFR flights & receives information in
respect of VFR flight
d. All are correct

37. In class D air space.

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flight are subjects to Air Traffic Control
b. IFR flight are separated from other IFR flights & from the IFR flights & receives information
in respect of VFR flight
c. VFR flight receives traffic about other flight
d. All are correct

38. In class E airspace.

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted
b. All flights receive traffic information
c. IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control & are separated from other – IFR flights
d. All are correct

39. In a class F air space

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted
b. IFR flights receive air traffic advisory service
c. All flights receive flight information service on request
d. All are correct

40. In a class G air space

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted
b. All flights receive flight information service on request
c. Both are correct

41. In class B air space

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted
b. All flights are subject to Air Traffic Control & are separated from each other
c. All are correct

42. All flights are permitted in which airspace

a. Class B
b. Class C & D
c. Class E, F, G
d. All are correct
 AIR REGULATIONS 2

1. An aircraft can fly within 10 nm of an airfield this area is called

a. Restricted area
b. Danger area
c. Prohibited area
d. Airfield area

2. Penalty for carrying explosive or arms & giving wrong statements

a. 2 years of imprisonment & fine
b. 2 years of imprisonment
c. 1 year imprisonment & fine

3. Mails can be carried in the aircraft with the permission of

a. DGCA
b. DDGCA
c. DR & T
d. DGP &T

4. Photography at an aerodrome can be allowed with the permission of

a. DGCA
b. DM
c. Commissioner of police

5. The C of A is deemed to be lapsed if

a. A modification is made without approval of DGCA
b. Aircraft is involved in an accident
c. Aircraft suffers a major damage
d. All are correct

6. Military personnel can carry arms a ammunition in an aircraft with the written permission of
a. DGCA
b. Central Govt
c. Army HQ
d. None of the above

7. An aircraft has forced landed at an aerodrome. It can take of again

a. If the pilot is satisfied after an inspection that the aircraft is air worthy
b. With the permission of DGCA
c. With the permission of commissioner of police
d. Any of the above
8. On change of ownership the aircraft
a. Can fly immediately
b. Can not fly till registered in the name of new owner
c. Can not fly till permission is obtained from central Govt
d. Can not fly till permission is obtained from new owner

9. Landing & housing charges are charged as per the

a. AUW of the aircraft at the time of landing
b. Maximum AUW of the aircraft
c. Number of persons on board
d. Navigation facilities used

10. Route guides are required to be carried in

a. All aircraft
b. All private aircraft
c. Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services

11. ADC clearance is required to be obtained

a. On a cress country flight
b. For all aircraft operating within ADIZ
c. When returning to base on the same day
d. It is not recruited when returning to base on the same day

12. Dead body or remains of a person who has died of yellow fever can be brought to India with
the permission of
a. Health officer
b. Indian embassy abroad
c. Central Govt
d. Can not be brought

13. The crew of an aircraft should not consume any alcholic drinks.
a. With in 12 hours before the flight
b. As in ‘a’ & during flight
c. With in 24 hours before the flight

14. Mental patients cannot be carried in an aircraft except when

a. Certified by an RMP as fit to fly without causing harm to the passenger
b. Accompanied by an attendant
c. Both are the correct

15. Loose sheets of paper containing printed matter can be dropper from an aircraft
with the permission of
a. DM
b. Commissioner of police
c. Both are correct
16. In India the IFR & VFR flights
a Separated from each other
b. Not separated
c. Not separated but information is given to other aircraft

17. The minimum number of Stewards/air hostesses to be carried on board if the

passenger carrying capacity is 63
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

18. Pilots logbook is to be preserved for

a. 5 years from the date of starting the log book
b. 5 years from the date of last entry
c. till the pilot retires

19. Two white crosses on a signal square indicate

a. Area not fit for the use of aircraft
b. Gliding in progress
c. Take permission before landing

20. Over hilly areas IFR flights require a vertical clearance of

a. 2000 feet with in 8 Km of the position of aircraft
b. 2000 feet with in 5 Km of the position of aircraft
c. 1000 feet with in 8 Km of the position of aircraft
d. 1000 feet with in 5 Km of the position of aircraft

21. Control of air traffic over an aerodrome below 3000 feet is by

a. Approach control
b. Aerodrome control
c. Control area

22. Aerobatics should not be performed below

a. 2000 feet
b. 5000 feet
c. 4000 feet
d. 6000 feet

23. R/T signal for emergency is

a. Security
b. Pan Pan
c. May day

24. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 1 year if age is less than 40 years
d. 2 years if the age is less than 40 years

25. Over Bombay aerodrome

a. An aircraft can not fly VTR
b. An aircraft can fly VFR
c. An aircraft can not fly IFR
26. Information has been received that an aircraft is about
make a forced landing. It is
a. Alert phase
b. Uncertainty
c. Distress phase

27. Talking about the ATS routes in India ‘W’ means

a. Domestic routes
b. International routes
c. Any of the above

28. A new flight plan is required to be filed at an

a. Uncontrolled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by mere than 30 minutes
b. Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes
c. Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by less than 30 minute

29. Position report is required to be given when

a. Crossing an FIR
b. Over a compulsory reporting point
c. If so required by AT

30. Check rides are not counted when

a. Aircraft is phased out of service
b. When on a test flight
c. If so flying club training aircraft
d. All are counted

31. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a. Aeradio
b. AIP
c. Notams
 AIR REGULATION 3

1. The Runway direction is measured with respect to:

a. True north
b. Magnetic north
c. Compass north
d. Grid north

2. An aircraft in circuit encounters R/T failure, how will the pilot

acknowledge the light signals received by him.
a. The pilot will pitch the nose up and down.
b. The pilot will rock wings.
c. The pilot will switch on/off the landing lights.

3. Petroleum in bulk means:

a. Petroleum in receptacle of 900 Lit.
b. Petroleum receptacle of more than 90O Lit.
c. Petroleum in receptacle of less than 900 Lit.

4. Red Pyrotcchrrica light given to an aircraft in flight by The Control lower

means.
a. Keep circling and give way to another aircraft.
b. You can land here at this aerodrome.
c. Not withstanding previous instruction do not land for the time being.
d. It means nothing to an aircraft in air.

5. Incubation period for Relapsing Fever:

a. Eight days.
b. Six days.
c. Four days

6. If there is a patient on board suffering from any Quaraminable decease,

commander will send a health report to the health officer,
a. 48 Hrs prior to the arrival.
b. 4 Hrs prior to the arrival
c. 3 Hrs prior to the arrival.
d. 2 Hrs prior to the arrival

7. A person who has died of Yellow Fever needs to be brought to India.

a. The body cannot be brought to India.
b. The body can only be brought provided it is hermetically sealed.
c. Provided the body is preserved in a wooden box.
d. Provided the body is enclosed in a zinc box.
8. Either hand along with the palm downwards and placed level with the
chest and when moved laterally means:
a. Cut the engines.
b. Slow down.
c. Chocks away.
d. Means nothing.

9. The highest point on the landing area is called:

a. Aerodrome elevation
b. Apron elevation
c. Center circle of the runway.

10. Anti collision light is a light:

a. Green in colour affixed on to the runway.
b. A red light on the port wing of the aircraft.
c. A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft
which is visible in all directions
d. The navigation lights of any aircraft are also called anti - collision lights.

11. The pilot of aircraft sees a Red navigation of the aircraft 2 at a Relative Brg
of 270.
a. There is no risk of collision and both the aircraft should continue.
b. Aircraft 2 should alter its course to wards left
c. The pilot of aircraft 1 should alter its course towards right to avoid
collision.

12. An aircraft "is crossing your course from your left on right angle. You will
be able to see its
a. Red light
b. White light
c. Green light

13. Operation Manual is:

a. Prepared by the manufacture and authorized by operator.
b. Prepared by DGCA and authorized by the operator.
c. Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer.
d. Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA.

14. Any prisoner can be carried abroad or onboard any aircraft only if:
a. The prisoner is accompanied by an armed guard
b. Permitted by the DGCA in writing
c. Permitted by the District Magistrate
d. Permitted by the Commissioner of police

15. Leaflets containing printed matter can only be dropped from any aircraft
in motion if
a. Permitted by the Dist Magistrate or The Commissioner of Police
b. Permitted by the DGCA
c. Permitted by the DDGCA
d. Permitted by the DR & I

16. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam
Airport. The altimeter reads 12000S. The commander will report his
vertical distance to the ATC hi terms of
a. 12000 Altitude
b. FL120
c. FL29Q
d. 29000 Altitude
17. An aircraft is fallowing 020 Tr. (M). The choice of FL available to the pilot
is
a. 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,770,290,370,410,450.
b. 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295,
c. 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280.

18. An aircraft is following 220Tr. (M) as per the quadrantal rule, the pilot
must choose FL between
a. 179 - 269
b. 269 - 359
c. 180 - 269
d. 090 - 180

19. An aircraft is flying 5000' AMSL outside control airspace. The commander
must fly at all times under
a. Aerodrome control.
b. FL 50
c. 5000
d. 5000' as Height.

20. For the FACILITIES the pilot should refer to:

a. A1C
b. NOTAM
c. AIP
d. NOT AM CODES

21. VOR gives separation of:

a. 15 Deg for l5Nm
b. 10 Deg for 5 Nm
c. 10 Nm from a VOR
d. It gives no separation.
22. A NOTAM which relates to some repair lasting for more than 2 Hrs would
come under:
a. A: Series
b. B: Series
c. C: Series
d. D: Series

23. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:
a. All VFR are suspended and IFR have been declared compulsory
b. Landings Prohibited
c. Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only.
d. Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad
state of the Maneuvering area.

24. Control zone-refers to:

a. A corridor within a controlled airspace where Radio-Navigation facilities
are available
b. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height
above the surface of the earth
c. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth

25. Routes designated by the alphabet W relate to:

a. World wide routes
b. Domestic routes
c. Local routes.
d. International routes.

26. Rules regarding demolition of obstructions caused by tall buildings and

tress is laid in.
a. Aircraft rules 1937
b. Aircraft public health rule 1954
c. Aircraft rules 1994
d. Aircraft act 1994

27. Before the first flight of the day it is whose responsibility to check the
Serviceability of the RT apparatus
a. The commander
b. The co - pilot
C. radio officer

28. Rules related to carriage of dead bodies in an aircraft are laid down in:
a. Aircraft rules 1954
b. Air corporation act 1953
c. Aircraft authority act 1971
d. Carriage by air act of 1972
29. Air hostesses are to be carried when the seating capacity is:
a. 20 seats
b. More than 10
c. More than 15
d. Carriage of air hostesses depends upon number of Passengers, not upon
number of scats.

30. The % age of Co - Pilot flying to be counted towards the renewal of CPL as
PIC is:
a. 80%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 100%

31. A fresh ADC is required if:

a. A fight is delayed for >than 30Min at any intermediate airport
b. A flight is delayed for > than 1 hour at any intermediate airport
c. Not required if the flight is delayed but conducted on the same day

32. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own
Minima with the DGCA for an airport for Non Precession approach is.
a. 1500’
b. 1500 meters
c. 5 NM
d. 3.7 km

33. VFR flights outside a controlled airspace at a height above 5000' should not
be carried out if the visibility falls below:
a. 8 km
b. 8 NM
c. 5 km
d. 3 km

34. The IFR flight vertical separation minima over hilly terrain is:
a. 2000'above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5 km from the aircraft
b. 2000’ above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 5 Km from the
aircraft.
c. 1000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5 Nm from the aircraft
d. 1000' above the highest obstacle within a Radius of 5 Nm from the
aircraft

35. While re - fueling any unauthorized person should not be near the site
within:
a. 30 meters
b. 15 feet
c. 30 feet
d. 15 meters

36. Anti collision lights must be installed if the AUW of ac is

a. Less than 5700 Kg
b. More than 5700 Kg
c. More than 2lOO0 kg

37. An aircraft can cross an ATS route with precautions such as

a. Cross the ATS route at 90 degrees & as in ‘b' below
b. Obtain permission minimum 10 minutes before crossing
c. Look out visually for any other traffic
d. All are correct
38. In a CTA the VFR ceiling is
a. 2500 feet
b. 1500 feet
c. 3000 feet
d. 1000 feet

39. When in an emergency

a. Squawk code 7700 on mode A
b. Squawk code 7700 on mode B
c. Squawk code 7700 on mode C

40. The responsibilities of ATC are

a.
b.
c.
d.

41. Special VFR flight can not be allowed if visibility is less than
a. 5 km
b. 5 NM
c. 1.5 km
e. 2 km
 AIR REGS 4
1. A steady white light directed towards an aircraft in fight means
a. Land at this aerodrome & proceed to the apron
b. Landing prohibited
c. Return to the starting point
d. Nothing

2. On the ground a red square with two yellow diagonals means

a. Exercise caution while landing
b. Take, off is-prohibited
c. Landing prohibited
d. Landing prohibited 6 prohibitions is likely to be prolonged

3. Letter "C" in black against yellow background means

a. Accident reports to be made here
b. Reports concerning air traffic services to be made here
c. Flight plans to be collected from here
d. All the above are correct

4. Two digits in black colour against a yellow -back ground, displayed vertically
indicates
a. ODM
b. Direction for take off
c. Wind direction
d. QCP for landing

5. Displaced threshold is indicated by

a. White lights in a row
b. Rad light in a row
c. Green lights in a row

6. Distress signal is
a. Dropping of red parachute flares
b. Firing of white pyrotechnical lights in succession
c. Firing of green pyrotechnical lights in succession

7. Series of projectiles fired at an interval of 10 second, or 10 second on bursting

showing red & green stars or lights indicate.
a. Aircraft is in distress but no immediate assistance is required
b. Aircraft is in distress and immediate assistance is required
c. Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of s prohibited area
d. Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of s prohibited area, restricated area or
danger area

8. Weather minima in VMC below 3000 feet, in a controlled air space is

a. Visibility 8 Km
b. Visibility 5 Km
c. Visibility 1.5 Km
d. Visibility 300 meters

9. As regards Air services transit agreement India is

a. True
b. Flase
10. In the above question the privileges are
a.

b.

c.

d.

11. The aircraft registration & marking procedures are given in ICAO annexure.
a. 7
b. 1
c. 11
d. 18

12. The navigation lights on an aircraft are

a. Right - green 110 deg, left red 110 deg
b. Right - green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 70 deg
c. Right - green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 140 deg

13. Fue1 required for propeller driven aircraft is

a. Flight fuel + fuel for 45 minutes
b. Flight fuel + fuel to alternate + fuel for 45 minutes
c. Flight fuel + fuel to alternate + fuel for holding 'for 30 minutes + contingency fuel

14. Track (M) is 200 the flight level to fly in the quadrantal rule is
a. 160
b. 50
c. 75
d. 80

15. While transiting from quadrantal system to semicircular system, the aircraft
should
a. Climb by 500 feet
b. Descend by 500 feet
c. No change in flight level is require if RT contact is maintained

16. While transiting from semicircular system to quadrantal system, the aircraft
should
a. Climb by 500 feet
b. Descend by 500 feet
c. No change in flight level is require if RT contact is maintained

17. After being cleared to lend an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of the
estimated time of landing it is termed as
a. Distress phase
b. Alert phase
c. Increase
d. Search phase

18. NOTAM Class the services ‘A’ are issued when

a. Information is of permanent nature
b. Information is valid for more than 2 hrs
c. Information is valid for less than 2 hrs
 19. An aircraft accident is to be reported.
a. Immediately
b. With in 23 hours
c. With in 48 hours
d. As early as possible

20. A fresh flight plan is required when

a. A flight is delayed for take off
b. A controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes
c. A controlled flight is delayed by more than 60 minutes
d. An un controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes

21. Tokyo Convention Act 1975 is applicable to

a. All aircraft registered in India
b. All aircraft registered in India £ Military aircraft & State aircraft
c. All aircraft whether registered in India or not except Military aircraft &
State aircraft
d. All aircraft whether registered in India – or not

22. Aerodrome operation minima is give by the

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. Operator & is approved by DGCA
d. India Met Department

23. For carriage of arms & ammunition on board- an aircraft

a. Permission from DGCA is required
b. Permission from Army HQ. is required
c. Permission from Central Govt. is required
d. Permission from operator is required

23. For flights of foreign military aircraft over India clearance is required from
a. Central - Govt
b. DGCA
c. Air Head quarters

25. The Aircraft Act 1934 is applicable to:

a. To citizen of India whenever they may be and
b.
c.

26. The aircraft registered in Category A belong to

a.
b.
c.
d.

27. Aerial work aircraft means.

a.
b
c.
d.

28. Petroleum in bulk means

a.
b
c.
d.
29. The minimum age for the issue of CPL is
a.
b.
c.
d.

30. Photography at an aerodrome can be permitted -by

a. DGCA & DDGCA
b. Director of regulation & inspection (DR&I)
c. Controller of aerodromes
d. All the correct

31. No member of the operation crew shall consume any alcoholic drink or
narcotic drug with in a period of……12 Hours before flight & ….. During
night.

32. Epileptic patients can be carried on board provided ……………….........

Certificate of fitness to travel by RMP, No alcohol 12 hours before
flight and if

33. While refueling an aircraft no naked flame is allowed within a distance

of................................................30 m

34. The largest polygon forming a danger zone around refueling aircraft
is……………………………………………………………………………………….

35. except in an emergency dropping of articles from an aircraft is

prohibited except …………………………………………………………………..

36. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 year the validity of medical
is for…………………………………………………………………………..……....

37. The certificate of air worth ness can be suspended or with drown
when a/c

38. Pilots personal log book is to be preserved for

…………………………………………………………………………………….……

39. The minimum height to be flown in hilly areas in IFR flight

is…………………………………………………………………………………….…

40. An aircraft flies away from base. The daily inspection is valid for
…………………………………………………………………………………………

41. Isolation period for yellow fever is……………. Days.

42. The thickness of transition layer is……………………………………………

43. The FVR is measured at a height of……………………………………………

44. The EDTL is applicable for

a. Scheduled flights only
b. Scheduled flights & training flights
c. All flight

45. A fresh flight plan is required for scheduled flights if the flight is
delayed by more than
a. 1 hour
b. 30 minutes
c. 2 hour
d. Always irrespective of the time delay

46. An aircraft wants to indicate the difficulties which compel it to land

without requiring assistance will do so by
a. Firing red pyrotechnical lights
b. Firing red & green pyrotechnical lights
c. Firing white pyrotechnical lights or by repeated switching on &
off of the landing light of navigation lights

47. Cabotage of traffic means………………………………………………………

48. Aircraft is heading North & sees green – navigation light of another
aircraft at a relative bearing of 045 the aircraft
a. Are on a collision course
b. Are not on a collision course
c. Could be on a collision course

49. Above flight level 290 the vertical clearance between aircraft on
reciprocal tracks is
a. 1000 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 4000 ft

50. Lateral separation using VOR is

a. 15 deg at distance of more than 15 nm
b. 15 deg at distance of more than 15 nm
c. 10 deg at distance of more than.15 nm

51. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft on R/W can be removed

a. Extricate dead, animals & persons
b. Extricate animals & persons, dead or alive
c. To permit movement of. other aircraft

52. An aircraft lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome can take off again

a. With the permission of DGCA
b. Without any permission of DGCA
c. Only if there is to injury to any one

53. Wake turbulence separation minima for take Off, if a medium aircraft
is to take Off behind a heavy aircarft
a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.

54. Wake turbulence separation minim for Take Off, if a light aircraft is to
take off behind e heavy or medium aircraft
a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.

55. While taking off from same R/W or parallel R/W less than 760 meters
apart, a light or a medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft,
the separation minima is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
56. While taking off from same R/W or parallel R/W less than 760 meters
apart, a light or a medium aircraft taking off behind a medium
aircraft, the separation minima is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes

57. The revised ETA is to be passed to the ATC it the actual TAS differs
from the planned TAS by a
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%

58. Permission of carried on board the aircraft with written permission of

a. DGCA
b. Commissioner of police
c. Controller of prisons
d. DGCA, DDGCA, DR & I

59. In India all flights above which flight level are to be cleared IFR
irrespective of weather conditions
a. 280
b. 150
c. 140

60. The supersonic speed (mach no) is………………………………………..

61. Changes in the frequencies/location of Nav Aids are notified by

a. Notams
b. AIRAC system
c. AIP amendments
d. Aeradio amendments

62. Define displaced threshold.

63. On the same aircraft you are making another flight on the same day.
a. A fresh ADC clearance is required
b. A fresh ADC clearance is not
c. No ADC clearance is required

64. What does the following marshalling signal indicate.

a. Either arm & hand level with shoulder …………. Hand across throat & plan
downwards…………….
b. Arms repeatedly crosses above head …………
c. Arms down palm facing outward, swing arms outwards……………..
d. Arms down palm facing inward, swing arms inwards……………..
e. Arms down palm towards ground & moved up & down several times……………
f. Right arm raised at below with palm facing forward………………………………….
 AIR REGS 5
1. A red flag on top of ATC building means
a. Do not land
b. Do not take off
c. Flying in progress

2. In an air route service letter ‘W’ means

a. Western sector area
b. Worldwide routes
c. Domestic routes

3. Non scheduled flights can be made in India with a notice of

a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 72 hrs

4. A person coming from Cholera infested area can enter India

a. Without any medical certificate of vaccination
b. With a certificate of vaccination
c. If accompanied with an attendant

5. Dead body of a person can be carried in an aircraft

a. If sealed in a wooden box
b. If hermetically sealed in a zinc box
c. Can not be carried at all

6. Lateral separation using a VOR is

a. 10 deg at 30 nm.
b. 15 deg at 30 nm
c. 15 deg at 15 nm

7. Area of Mathura refinery is a

a. Danger area
b. Prohibited area
c. Restricted area

8. The minimum distance an aircraft can fly from international border is

a. 15 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 20 nm
9. The control area which is in the vicinity of one or more aerodromes is called a
a. Control area
b. Control zone
c. Aerodromes control area

10. The air traffic service, which prevents the collision between aircraft, is called
a. Alerting service
b. Flight information service
c. Air traffic control service

11. Prior take - off the responsibility to check the serviceability of radio equipment lies with
the
a. Commander of aircraft
b. Radio operator
c. Co-pilot

12. The authority to detain an aircraft is given in document

a. Rule 8 of aircraft rules 1937
b. Section 8 of aircraft act 1934
c. DGCA circular no.8

13. Aerodrome broadcasting service is provided by

a. DGCA
b. Controller of Aerodromes
c. Airport Authority if India

14. If an aircraft makes a non precision approach the visibility minima applicable is
a. Given by the operator if filed by the operator with the DGCA
b. DGCA minima if no minima is filed by the with the DGCA
c. Both are correct

15. The visibility minima for Take Off if the aerodrome is not equipped with radio aids
a. 5km
b. 2.7 km.
c. 3.7 km.

16. The visibility minima for Take off if the aerodrome is not equipped with radio aid
a. 5 km.
b. 2.7 km
c. 3.7 km
17. The runway threshold lights are
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Amber

18. The threshold of runway is

a. The point where the aircraft lines up for Take off
b. That point on the beginning of runway used for landing
c. The beginning of the runway

19. A VFR flight can land at a controlled aerodrome if visibility is

a. 1.5 km or more
b. 3.7 km or more
c. 5 km or more

20. The starboard navigation light is

a. Green 110 deg from ahead to the left
b. Green 110 deg from ahead to the right
c. Green 110 deg from behind to the right

21. The displaced threshold lights are

a. Green
b. Blue
c. Amber

22. The duty time of the trainee pilot

a. Is calculated by the FDTL
b. Is not affected by FDTL
c. PDTL is applicable for scheduled flights only

23. A fresh flight plan is required if at a controlled aerodrome a scheduled flight is

delayed by
a. 2 hrs
b. 1 hrs
c. 30 mts

24. Longitudinal separation between aircraft flying at the same level & on the same
track is
a. 15 mts
b. 10 mts if navigational aids permit frequent determination of position & speed
c. Both are correct

25. Longitudinal separation between two aircraft flying at the same level using DME is
a. 20 nm
b. 10 nm if the preceding aircraft is flying at a TAS of 20 or more faster than the
aircraft behind
c. Both are correct

26. The vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks above flight level 290
is
a. 4000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 1000 feet

27. Seriously sick patients can be carried on board the aircraft

a. If accompanied with an attendant
b. If certified fit by a medical officer
c. Cannot be carried at all
28. A prisoner can be carried on board the aircraft with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Central govt.
c. District magistrate
d. State govt.

29. Tokyo Convention Act 1975 is applicable to

a. All aircraft registered in India
b. All aircraft registered in India & Military aircraft & State aircraft
c. All aircraft whether registered in India or not except Military aircraft & state
aircraft
d. All aircraft whether registered in India or no':

30. Wake turbulence separation minima for landing, if a light or a medium aircraft
is to land behind a heavy aircraft
a. 2mts
b. 3 mts
c. 5 mts

31. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is .not entered in his license for endorsement in
the aircraft rating of his license
a. With in Indian territory
b. With in 5 nm of an aerodrome
c. Any where
32. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated
through
a. Amendment to AIP
b. AIC
c. NOTAM

33. Changes in the aeronautical services, which are likely to last for more than 2 hrs,
are given in NOTAMS
a. Series A
b. Series -B
c. Series G

34. On board a civil aircraft the Air Force, Army, Navy personnel can
a. Not carry arms at all
b. Carry arms with the permission of DGCA
c. Carry arms with the permission of 'central Gov:

35. Aircraft incident must be reported with in

a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 43 hrs

36. An aircraft accident is to be reported with in

a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 43 hrs

37. If navigation lights fail at night then an aircraft should

a. Force land immediately
b. Use landing lights & continue to the destination
c. Report to the nearest aerodrome & land

38. If an aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome it can take off again take
off again
a. After permission from DGCA
b. After permission from the central Govt.
c. If it is in a position to reach the destination

39. The ATC is to be notified if the average TAS changes by

a. 5%
b. 10 %
c. 20%

40. In India the controlled airspaces are designated as

a. Class D
b. Class B
c. Class C

41. In India the ATS routs are classified as

a. Class D airspace
b. Class F airspace
c. Class C airspace

42. At an aerodrome tower

a. Red & green beacon light indicates that it is & civil aerodrome
b. Red & white beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome
c. White & green beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome
43. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a. 460
b. 450
c. 400

44. The width of 'an air way is

a. 20 nm
b 40 nm
c. 20 nm over land & 40 nm over sea

45. The international Air Transit agreement was signed India at in ………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

46. The Warsaw Convention was held for

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

47. The operational control is exercised by the

a. The operator
b. DGCA
c. Air Traffic Control

48. The end of runway is indicated by

a. White lights
b. Blue lights
c. Red lights

49. The operational manual is prepared by

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. Operator & is approved by the DGCA

50. The maximum number of landings by a pilot in one day

a. Is not restricted for training flying
b. But if training is conducted after a scheduled fight the maximum number of
landings is six
c. a scheduled flight maximum of four landings
d. All are correct

51. A pilot involved in an aircraft accident can start flying again

a. When ever detailed by the operator
b. When cleared by the DGCA for flying after a corrective flying training if
necessary
c. When ever he is medically fit

52. The operational control consists of………………………………………………………

53. A Cessna 152 & a Boeing 737 are on a converging course at same altitude. Which
aircraft has the right of way a
a. Light aircraft (Cessna 152)
b. Heavier aircraft (Booing 737)
c. Aircraft or the right

54. ATIS is a ………………………………………………………………………………………..

55. An altimeter is set to QNH before landing in order to
a. Have clearance between aircraft flying on the Circuit
b. Have clearance from the obstructions on the ground
c. Reduce the altimeter errors

56. While on a cross country ever hilly terrain the minimum clearance required is
a. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm of position of the aircraft
b. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm of the desire at rae
c. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm. of position of the aircraft

57. The aircraft public healuh rules were published in which year
a. 1937
b. 1954
c. 1934

58. A flight navigator is require to be carried on board if …………………………………...

…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
 AIR REGS 6

1. A prisoner can be carried on board the aircraft if

a. Accompanied by an. attendant
b. Permitted by the DGCA in writing
c. Permitted by the District Magistrate
d. Permitted by the Commissioner of Police

2. The percentage of Co Pilot hours counted towards PIC the purpose of renewal of
CPL is
a. 80%
b. 50%
c. 30%
d. 100%

3. VFR flights at an aerodrome are not permitted if visibility is below

a. 5 Km
b. 8 km
c. 3 km

4. An aircraft, which has crashed on the R/W, can be removed

a. To expedite traffic coming from different directions
b. Only after the photographs have been taken
c. To extricate passengers
d. Can not be shifted at all

5. A series of green & red pyrotechnics fired at short intervals towards an aircraft indicate
that
a. The aircraft is entering a prohibited area
b. The aircraft is entering a danger area
c. The aircraft is entering a restricted area
d. All

6. The certificate of airworthiness is suspended if

a. Low flying is done
b. Un authorized modifications are done
c. Un authorized flying is done

7. Landing & housing charges are based on

a. All up weight of the aircraft
b. Passenger carrying capacity of aircraft
c. Actual landing weight of the aircraft

8. While on a cross country over hilly terrain, the minimum clearance required is
a. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 5 nm of the
estimated position of the aircraft
b. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle with in a radius of 5 nm of the estimated
position of the aircraft
c. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle it in a radius of 5Km of the estimated
position of the aircraft

9. The aircraft public health rules were published in

a. 1937
b. 1954
c. 1934
d. 1947
10. If an aircraft comes from a place which is a yellow fever area & was disinfected it
is to be guarantied
a. If it stopped at a place where there was yellow fever
b. If there is patient suffering from yellow fever on board
c. Not to be guarantied

11. The incubation period to yellow fever is

a. 8 days
b. 6 days
c. 4 days

12. Operations manual is prepared by the

a. Manufacturer & authorized by operator
b. DGCA & authorized by operator
c. Operator & authorized by DGCA

13. Emergency check lists are prepared by the

a. Manufacturer & authorized by operator
b. Operator & authorized by DGCA
c. DGCA & authorized by manufacturer

14. The duty me of the trainee pilot

a. Is calculated as per the FDTL
b. Is not affected by the FDTL
c. FDTL is applicable for scheduled flights only

15. Longitudinal separation between aircraft flying at the same level & along the same
the along the same route is
a. 15 Mts
b. 10 Mts
c. Can not fly on reciprocal tracks

16. Displaced threshold lights are

a. Green
b. Amber
c. Blue

17. The vertical separation between aircraft of reciprocal tracks above flight level 290
is
a. 1000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 4000 feet

18. A prisoner can be carried on board the aircraft with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Central Govt.
c. District Magistrate
d. Commissioner of police

19. Wake turbulence separation minima for landing if a light or a medium aircraft is
to land behind a heavy aircraft
a. 2 mts
b. 3 mts
c. 5 mts
20. A pilot can fly a aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his license for
endorsement on his license
a. With in 5 nm of a aerodrome
b. With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
c. Any where

21. On board a| civil aircraft the Army, Navy, Air Force personnel can
a. Not carry arms at all.
b. Carry arms with, the permission of DGCA.
c. Carry arms with the permission of Central Govt.

22. A aircraft incident is to be reported

a. As soon, as possible
b. With in 24 hrs
c. With in 48 hrs

23. lf navigation lights fail at night then the aircraft the aircraft
should
a. Force land immediately.
b. Use landing lights & continue to the destination
c. Report to the nearest aerodrome & land

24. If an aircraft force lands an un controlled aerodrome, it can take off again
a. After the permission of DGCA.
b. After the permission of central Govt.
c. If it is in a position to reach the destination.

25. ATC is to be notified if the average TAS is changed by

a. 5%
b. 1.0%
c. 20 %

26. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

a. 80 hrs PIC & 70 hrs as Co pilot
b. 80 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot
c. 70 hrs PIC & 80 hrs as Co pilot

27. While refueling an aircraft smoking is not permitted with in

a. 15 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 20 meters

28. An aircraft can fly over danger area

a. Above flight level 29o.
b. If cleared by ATC
c. Unrestricted

29. Tokyo convention is valid for

a. All international flights.
b. All domestic flights.
c. All local flights

30. The authority to detain an aircraft is given in

a. Rule 8 of rules 1957.
b. Act 8 of aircraft act 1934.
c. Rule 8C Aircraft rules 1937.
d. Rule 8D of aircraft act 1934.
31. The Runway threshold lights are
a. Green
b. White
c. Amber

32. The threshold of the Runway is

a. The point where the aircraft lines up
b. That point in the beginning of the Runway used for landing
c. The beginning of the Runway

33. Over Malabar hills in Mumbai aircraft cannot fly within

a. 2 nm from the Tower of silence
b. I nm from the Tower of silence
c. 5 Km from the Tower of silence

34. Supersonic aircraft can fly over Indian territory

a. Above Mach 2.0
b. Unrestricted
c. Below Mach l

35. A flight plan is to be resubmitted if there is a delay of

a. l hour at a controlled aerodrome
b. 30 Minutes at an uncontrolled aerodrome
c. 30 minutes at a controlled aerodrome

36. Cabotage of traffic means carrying goods & passengers from one station to another
a. Station in the same country for commercial purpose
b. Station in another country or commercia1 purpose
c. Country for commercial purpose

37. In India in an air route service letter W indicates

a. Western sector area
b. Worldwide routes
c. Domestic routes

48. Lateral separation using a VOR is

a. 10 Degrees at 30 nm
b. 15 Degrees at 30 nm
c. 15 Degrees at 15 nm

39. Air space over Mathura refinery is

a. Danger area
b. Prohibited area
c. Restricted area

40. When crossing FIR the SSK should be selected to which channel
a. 2000
b. 7600
c. 7700
d. 750O
 AIR REGS 7
1. When flying in the transition layer the altitude is reported as
a. On QFE.
b. On QNH.
c. As flight level.
d. As height above ground level.

2. The separation between two aircraft flying on the same track & above flight level
290 is
a. 2000'
b. 1000’
c. 4000'
d. None of the above

3. The highest point on the ground in an airfield is

a. ARP.
b. Airfield elevation.
c. Aerodrome height.
d. Obstruction height.

4. Flying an aircraft in a manner to cause danger to a person or property is

punishable with
a. Imprisonment up to two months or fine or both.
b. Imprisonment up to six months or fine or both
c. Imprisonment up to two months or fine of Rs 1000/- or both
d. Imprisonment up to Six months or fine of Rs 1000/- or both

5. For f1ying a non scheduled aircraft of foreign registration in to India for non traffic
purposes the permission must be obtained from
a. ICAO
b. DGCA
c. Aerodrome officer of the airport of landing
d. An officer authorized by the central Govt.

6. During a night cross-country, on relative bearing of 270 you see the red light if an
aircraft
a. You turn right to avoid collision
b. Turn left to avoid the collision
c. There is no fear of collision

7. On a flight from Chennai to Delhi, due to engine vibrations, you land at Jhansi, an
un-used airfield. There are no injuries to any one & no damage to the aircraft.
This is
a. A reportable accident.
b. To be reported to the ATC.
c. To be reported to the DGCA within 48 hours.
d. Nothing is to be done.

8. In the above question the aircraft can take off again

a. When ever pilot desired.
b. After rectification of the engine snag.
c. With permission of the DGCA.
d. With the permission of the central Govt.
9. You are flying in Boeing 737 on a heading 075(M) on your right you see a glider on
a heading of 020(M), on a collision course. Your action is
a. Turn right
b. Turn left
c. Continue to fly straight

10. You are flying in Boeing 737 on a heading 020(M) on your left you see a glider on a
heading of 075 (M), on a collision course. Your action is
a. Turn right
b. Turn left
c. Continue to fly straight

11. In VFR the minimum separation from clouds to be maintained when flying over
populated area is
a. 1000'
b. 2000'
c. 3000'
d. 500'

12. In VFR the minimum separation from clouds to be maintained when flying in a
controlled airspace
a. 1000'
b. 2000'
c. 3000'
d. 500'

13. You are about to board your aircraft as PIC. Your license can be checked by
a. The District Magistrate
b. A customs officer
c. A police officer
d. None of the above

14. The Rescue coordination centers in India are headed by

a. Local IAF commander
b. One of the local IAF/Army/Navy commanders
c. Controller of aerodromes

l5. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stooped if a jet aircraft
crosses with in a distance of
a. 15 meters.
b. 30 meters.
c. 43 meters.
d. 45 meters.

16. Loose sheets of paper cn be dropped from an aircraft with the permission of
a. Controller of aerodromes
b. DGCA
c. DM or the police commissioner of that area
d. Local Army commander

17. Anti collision lights ere mandatory for

a. Aircraft AUW > 5700 kg
b. Aircraft AUW > 1500 Kg
c. Any aircraft carrying passengers
d. All aircraft
l8. Instrument flight time is
a. All flight time in IFR
b. All flying time when the flying is done only with reference to instruments
c. Only when flying in clouds

19. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 6000 feet
a. Beyond 4 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
b. Beyond 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
c. Within 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d. Within 4 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome

20. Flying in Danger area is

a. Prohibited
b. Permitted above a certain flight level
c. Allowed if permitted by ATC
d. Allowed if permitted by DGCA

21. The traffic separation between two aircraft using same NDB is
a. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
b. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
c. 15 deg at a distance of 30 nm or more
d. 30 deg at a distance of 3Cnm or more

22. Flying in an aircraft, below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled airspace, the minimum
horizontal separation from clouds is
a. 300 meters.
b. 500 meters.
c. 1500 meters.
d. 1500 feet.

23. 0n an IFR flight plan in VKC you have an R/T failure. The action is
a. Continue strictly as per the flight plan
b. Continue to destination in VMC
c. Proceed to alternate in VMC
d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

24. You will report an air miss when

a. You see an aircraft at same flight level
b. You see an aircraft at close proximity with no risk of collision
c. You see an aircraft at close proximity and you think there was a risk of collision

25. All records associated with defects & their rectification are required to be preserved
for a period of
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Till the aircraft is phased out of service

26. C of A will cease to be valid if

a. Aircraft is engaged in unauthorized operations
b. Aircraft suffers from a major damage or defect
c. There is a change of ownership
d. All are correct
27. All defects observed during flight are to be reported
a. Soon after the flight
b. After the last flight of the day in case of training aircraft making a series of flights in a
single day, unless a serious defect occurs
c. Both are correct

28. Fire extinguishers are carried in an aircraft cabin

a. To extinguish cabin fire
b. To extinguish electrical fire
c. Because it is required under the regulations

29. The FDR has a record of operation of preceding

a. 25 hours
b. 5 hours
c. 30 mts
d. Flight

30. FDR is mandatory for

a. All aircraft
b. Aircraft with AUW exceeding 21000 Kg
c. Aircraft with AUW exceeding 5700 Kg

31. The colour of the FDR is

a. Black
b. Bright yellow
c. Bright orange
d. Either ‘b' or 'c'

32. The CVR has the capability of recording information

a. One hour or more.
b. At least 30 minutes.
c. Preceding flight.

33. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to

a. Monitor the performance of the aircraft
b. Help in accident investigation
c. Both are correct

34. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to

a. Monitor the performance of the aircraft
b. Help in accident investigation
c. Both are correct

Air Regs 8

1. A unit set up to provide air traffic control for aerodrome traffic is

a. Aerodrome control service
b. Aerodrome control tower
c. Area control service

2. The most effective way to use eyes at night is

a. Focus only at dim lights at a distance
b. Flutter eyes rapidly
c. Scan slowly to center off vision
d. Focus only on bright lights

3. When approaching to land n a fiat darkened or fiat snow covered surface, the approach
 might appear to be
a. High
b. Steep
c. Shallow
d. Low

4. Transition altitude is ................................................

5. Transition level is .......................................................

6. Flight level is defined as

7. Way point is defined as

8. Procedure turn is defined as

9. The minimum vertical clearance below flight level 290 is

a. 1000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 500 feet
d. 3000 feet

10. A report received from an aircraft giving its regular position and/or met report
a. Met report
b. Position report
c. Air report

11. A steady red light projected to an aircraft flight means

12. A steady green light projected to an aircraft on the ground means……………………

13. A cross with a single conspicuous colour, preferably white on the maneuvering area
means….........

14. A portion of the airport reserved for loading, off loading of cargo, passengers, parking of
aircraft & for small maintenance except for taxiing is called
a. Apron
b. Movement area
c. Maneuvering area
d. Taxi way

15. The fuelling of an aircraft should be stopped if a jet aircraft Taxies past within
a. 40 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 43 meters

16. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference in discharging your
duties. On SSR you should endeavor to set
a. 7500 mode A
b. 7600 mode A
c. 7500 mode c
d. 7700 mode C

17. On an IFR flight plan but in VMC you have communication failure you should
a. Maintain VMC & land at the most convenient aerodrome
b. Maintain VMC & land at the nearest aerodrome
c. Proceed according to flight plan

18. The airspace set up as a corridor where navigation aids are available is called
a. Airway
b. Controlled airspace
c. Radar airspace

19. Area of operation where no ADC is required

a. Local flying area
b. Within 5 nm of an aerodrome
c. Control zone
d. Control area

20. What information is to be included in the third section of an Air report

a. Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b. Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c. Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence

21. Navigation charges are based upon

a. Airspeed
b. Flying time over India £
c. Distance flown
d. AUW

22. Destruction of buildings & trees on approach path is mentioned in

a. Aircraft rules 1937
b. Aircraft rules 1954
c. Aircraft rules 1976
d. Aircraft rules 1996

23. Lateral separation to be maintained when crossing a holding point

a. 15 nm from the Nav aid
b. 5 minutes
c. 5 nm from the Nav aid

24. On an international flight the maximum number of hours flown and the number of
landings in a day are
a. 9/3
b. 8/4
c. c} 6/3

25. The transition altitude is laid down by

a. The ATC
b. The Pilot
c. The State

26. Above what height the flight levels are to be used in India
a. 4000 feet
b. 3000 feet
C. 5500 feet
d. 6500 feet

27. Anti -collision lights are required to be fitted in an aircraft

a. When carrying passengers
b. When flying IFR
c. When flying IMC
d. With AUW more than 5700 Kg.

28. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in one year are
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 1200
d. 900

29. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in consecutive 30 days
are
a. 100
b. 125
c. 80
d. 120

30. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in consecutive 7 days
are
a. 30
b. 50
c. 40
d. 25

31. The flight duty time limitations are laid down in

a. Aircraft manual
b. Aircraft Rules 1937
c. AIC
d. As in ‘a' & the maximum duty time for domestic operations is limited to 11 hours

32. Minimum rest period after domestic flight duty is

a. Twice the duty time performed
b. Twice the flight time performed
c. As in ‘b' but not less than 8 hours
 Air Regulation 9
1. VMC out side controlled air space at 5000 feet the visibility is
a. 8 km
b. 5 Km
c. 5 nm
d. 1.5 km

2. A risk of collision exists if you see a red navigation light of another aircraft
a. On the port side
b. On the starboard side
c. Both poet & starboard side

3. Minimum vertical separation between aircraft above FL. 290 is

a. 2000 feet
b. 4000 feet
c. 1000 feet
d. Decided by the ATC

4. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than

a. One hour
b. 30 minutes
c. Always, irrespective of the time delay

5. A temporary change concerning operational matter is notified in

a. AIP
b. Notams
c. AIC

6. The air designator for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a. White
b. Red & Green
c. Red, Green, Blue 5 Amber
d. Red, Green, Blue, Amber £ White

7. The air designator for domestic ATS routes are in which colour
a. White
b. Red & Green
c. Red, Green, Blue s Amber
d. Red, Green, Blue, Amber & white

8. A phange operational status of an aeronautic facility, which for more than two hours is
issued under which series of
a. Series A
b. Series B
c. Series C
d. Series D

9. VFR in a control zone is terminated if visibility falls below

a. 8 Km.
b. 5 Km
c. 1.5 Km
d. 3 km.
10. For FDTL the flying time of training flights is
a. Counted
b. Not counted
c. Partially counted
d. Counted only if combined with a scheduled flight

11. FDTL limitations for the flight crew on domestic flights is

a. 8 hrs
b. 9 hrs
c. 10 hrs
d. 11 hrs

12. The minimum time separation for a light aircraft to land behind a heavy aircraft is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes

13. The ATC is to be notified if during a flight the TAS changes by more than
a. 5%
b. 10 %
c. 20 %

14. Aircraft flying on the same track should have a minimum separation of
a. 15 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 20 minutes

15. Which type of airspace exist in India

a. Class A
b. Class D & F
c. Class B, C, D ,S ,F

16. In a controlled airspace the VFR flights will be terminated if the cloud ceiling falls
below
a. 1000 feet
b. 1500 feet
c. 5000 feet
d. 1500 meters

17. The certificate of airworthiness lapses when

a. An aircraft suffers a major damage
b. If un authorized flying is done
c. If un authorized people are carried on board
d. All are correct

18. The air report contains which of the following

a. Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b. Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c. Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
d. All are correct

19. The met minima is provided by the

a. Operator
b. Manufacturer
c. Controller of aerodromes
d. DGCA
20. For class I Met office the minimum notice required for a route forecast is
a. 3 hrs
c. 12 hrs
c. 18 to 24 hrs
d. 12 to 24 hrs

21. For class - III Met office the minimum notice required for a route forecast for domestic
flights is
a. 3 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 18 to 24 hrs
d. 12 to 24 hrs

22. The Tokyo convention Act 1975 apply to

a. All aircraft
b. The whole of India
c. Any where in the world

23. The aircraft rules 1937 apply to

a. The whole of India
b. Ali aircraft registered in India, where ever these are flying & all persons on board these
aircraft
c. All aircraft when flying over India & all persons on board such aircraft
d. All are correct

24. The act rules dealing with public health is

a. Public health rules 1954
b. Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1954
c. Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1937
d. Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1945

25. An incidence report is to be given to DGCA within

a. 48 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. Immediately after landing
d. As soon as possible

26. ATC provides which of the following

a. Advisory service
b. Control of air traffic
c. Search & rescue
d. All are correct

27. The minimum enroute altitude when flying over hilly terrain is
a. 1000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 500 feet

28. The controlled airspace in the confluence of ATS routes is called

a. Approach control
b. Area control
c. Control area

29. The area of 10 km around Mathura refinery is termed as

a. Danger area
b. Prohibited area
c. Protected area
d. Restricted are
30. An aircraft can fly over a danger area
a. If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active
b. With the permission of ATC
c. Out side the stipulated time
d. Cannot fly all

31. Around Malabar hill the flying is prohibited within

a. ½ nm from the tower of silence
b. l nm from the tower of silence
c. 5 nm from the tower of silence
d. 2 nm from the tower of silence

32. Minimum visibility aerodrome equipped with radio aids

a. 2.7 km
b. 3.7 km
c. 5 km
d. 1.5 km

33. Minimum visibility aerodrome not equipped with radio aids

a. 2.7 km
b. 3.7 km
c. 5 km
d. 1.5 km.

34. For the purpose of having additional aircraft in the aircraft rating of the license. The
training flying should be carried
a. With in 5 nm of the aerodrome
b. With in the local flying area of the aerodrome
c. Any where in India
d. All are, correct

35. Aircraft have to follow IFR from which altitude

a. Any altitude
b. At & above flight level 150
c. Above flight level 280
 AIR REGS - 10
1. The punishment for carriage of unauthorised arras & ammunition, in the aircraft is
a. Maximum 3 months imprisonment or fine of Rs 1000/ or both
b. Maximum 6 months imprisonment or fine of Rs 1000/ or both.
c. Maximum 2 months imprisonment or fine of Rs 500/ or both
d. Maximum 2 years imprisonment + fine.

2. In an aircraft prisoners can be carried with the permission of

a. The DG prisons or state Govt.
b. DGCA/Deputy DGCA/DR & I
c. Central Govt.

3. The refueling operation should be stopped if a jet aircraft starts to run up its engines
within a distance of
a. 43 meters
b. 141 meters
c. 15 meters

4. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly in 30 days is

a. 125 hrs as PIC
b. 125 hrs PIC or Co-pilot
c. 156 hrs 15 minutes

5. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorised when

a. Visibility falls below 5 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b. Visibility falls below 8 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c. Visibility falls below 5' Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet

6. Over an aerodrome aerobatic flights are permitted above height of

a. 5000 feet
b. 6000 feet
c. 2000 feet

7. On international flights the health report is required to be given by a pilot minimum

a. 2 hours before ETA
b. 2 hours before entering India
c. 3 hours before ETA

8. The aircraft public health rules were passed in

a. 1937
b. 1950
c. 1954
9. The dead body of a person who has died due to Cholera can be brought in to India with
the permission of
a. Indian foreign mission abroad
b. DGCA
c. Central Govt.

10. Define threshold ……………………

11. A red flag on top of ATC building indicates to a pilot that

a. Aerobatics in progress
b. Local flying in progress j
c. Aerodrome closed for operation
d. Nothing
12. Airspace over Mathura refinery is a
a. Restricted area
b. Danger area
c. Prohibited area

13. At Bombay over Malabar hills flying is not permitted within

a. One mile of the tower of silence
b. Two miles of the tower of silence
c. One mile of the Malabar hill top

14. At an aerodrome a red square with a yellow diagonal means

a. Landing prohibited
b. Exercise caution when approaching to land & when landing
c. Caution more than one direction being used for all Take
d. Offs & Landings

15. An extremely sick person

a. Can not be carried on board £n sircr^ft
b. Can be carried on board & an aircraft, if accompanied, by & an attendant
c. Can be carried on board an aircraft, if authorized, by a doctor

16. The minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft flying on the same track & flight
level
a. 15 minutes
b. 15 nm
c. 10 nm

17. Reciprocal traffic above flight level 290 will have a minimum separation of
a. 2000 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 4000 feet

18. The green Navigation light is visible through an are of angle of

a. 110 deg
b. 140 deg
c. 90 deg

19. The light aircraft departing behind a medium aircraft the minimum time difference is
a. 2 mts
b. 3 mts
c. 5 mts

20. For the purpose of renewal of a CPL, the number of Co pilot hours counted as PTC is
a. All flying as co pilot:
b. 50 % of Co pilot hours
c. 80 % of Co pilot hours
21. ATC is to be intimated if TAS changes by more than
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 7%

22. An aircraft can be detained under

a. Aircraft act 1933
b. Aircraft act rules 1937
c. Aircraft act rules 1934

23. A Navigator is required to be carried or board if the distance between two Navigation aids
is more than
a. 600 nm
b. 800 nm
c. 500 nm

24. Lateral separation between two aircraft at the same altitude & using the same VOR is
a. 15 degrees at a distance of 15 nm or more
b. 30 degrees at a distance of 15 nm or more
c. 15 degrees at a distance of 25 nm or more

25. An aircraft has forced landed. It can take off again

a. After repairs are carried out
b. With the permission of DGCA
c. With the permission of operator

26. For aircraft flying over India enroute navigation charges are based on
a. The duration & length of flight
b. The Duration of stay
c. Maximum AUW of the aircraft

27. ADC is required when operating with in ADIZ

a. For all flights
b. For all flights operating at a distance of more than 5 nm from the aerodrome
c. For all Military aircraft

28. Over a hilly terrain IFR flights require a vertical clearance of

a. 2000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 8 nm
b. 2000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm
c. 1000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm

29. In India colour coding ‘W’ on an ATS route means

a. Domestic route
b. International route
c. A route requiring a special flight clearance

30. At an uncontrolled aerodrome a fresh flight plan is required if a flight is delayed by more
than
a. One hour
b. 30 juts
c. 2 hours

31. When an aircraft is flying away from the base the Daily inspection is valid for
…………………………………………………
32. Anti collision light is required to be fitted on
a. All aircraft
b. All aircraft in IFR flight
c. Aircraft weight exceeding 5700 Kg.

33. The responsibility to check the serviceability of RT apparatus is of

a. PIC
b. Radio operator
c. Co pilot

34. For the pilots in respect of whom the weather minima has not been filed by the operator
the minima applicable is
a. Aerodrome minima for VFR
b. DGCA minima
c. ICAO minima

35. When refueling is going on, no un authorised person should be within a distance of
a. 15 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 15 feet

36. Met minima for VFR flights above 3000 feet AMSL is
a. Visibility 8 Km, Distance from clouds 1. 5 Km Horizontally & 300 m Vertically
b. Visibility 8 nm. Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M Vertically
c. Visibility 5 Km, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M Vertically

37. For civil aerodromes the colour of the rotating beacon is

a. White
b. White & Green
c. White & Blue

38. To cross an ATS route Permission is to be obtained minimum

a. 10 minutes before crossing
b. 15 minutes before crossing
c. 30 minutes before crossing

39. For domestic flights minimum distance from the international border is
a. 5 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 15 nm

40. Aircraft incident is to be reported with in

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. As soon as practicable

41. A pilot involved in an accident can fly again

a. After a medical examination
b. When asked by the operator to fly
c. When cleared by the DGCA

42. VFR Flying below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled aerodrome the visibility is
a. 1.5 Km
b. 5000 meters
c. 8000 meters

43. The aerodrome operating minima is given bya.

a. Operator & approved by DGCA
b. DGCA
C. AAI

44. A series of projectiles fired At an interval of 10 sec means

A. Distress
B. Urgency
C. Indication of danger

45. A fresh flight plan is required if a scheduled flight at controlled aerodrome is delayed by
more than
a. 30 minutes
b. One hour
c. 45 minutes

46. The isolation period for Yellow fever is

a. 6 days
b. 5 days
c. 8 days

47. Series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft means

a. Clear to Take Off
b. Clear for landing
c. Clear to Taxi

48. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft can be tempered with or shifted to

a. Extricate persons or animals whether alive or dead
b. Bring it to a place of safety
c. Prevent inconvenience/obstruction to public
d. All are correct

49. The maximum flying a pilot can do in one year is

a. 1000 hrs
b. 1500 hrs
c. 1200 hrs

50. The validity period of a CPL is

a. 5 Years
b. 10 Years
c. 2 Years

51. The validity of medical for a CPL is

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 5 years
 AIR REGS 11
1. When flying over a crash site a pilot will acknowledge the signs from the survivors by
a. Rocking wings
b. Low pass over the crash site
c. Reporting to ATC

2. The sign from a crash site indicating that 'assistance required' is

a. X
b. S
c. V
d. C

3. Aerodrome control service is provided in

a. Circuit
b. Control zone
c. Control area
d. All the above

4. An IFR flight on a route not defined by specific reporting points, the position report is to
be made every
a. 30 minutes
b. One hour
c. 45 minutes
d. Only when requested by ATC

5. The number of search & rescue areas in India are

a. Six
b. Four
c. Five

6. At any aerodrome in India the transition altitude is not less than

a. 3000 feet
b. 4000 feet
c. 5000 feet

7. Minimum lateral separation between aircraft climbing through the of another aircraft
holding over a navigation aid is ?
a 5 nm
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 nm

8. On Take Off the aircraft is transferred from aerodrome control to approach control
a. Once the aircraft is in clouds
b. When 15 nm from the aerodrome
c. In the vicinity of the aerodrome 3
d. When lined up for Take - off

9. ADC is not required

a. In the vicinity of an aerodrome
b. At a distance less than 10 nm from the aerodrome and altitude less than 100 feet
c. When flying within 5 nm from the aerodrome
d. In the vicinity of an aerodrome as long as the aircraft can to contacted on VHF
10. Minimum DME separation aircraft flying on the same track & same direction is
a. 10 nm
b. 20 nm
c. 10 minutes

11. In the semicircular system the track separation is

a. 000 - 175 & 180 - 356
b. 000 - 179 & 180 - 359
c. 001 - 180 & 181 - 360
d. 000 - 179 & 181 - 359

12. When on a cross country a delay of ETA more than…………..is to be reported to ATC
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes

13. An aircraft can cross ATS route with precautions such as

a. At an angle of 60 degrees
b. At an angle of 90 degrees
c. At an altitude not more than 1000 feet from the cruising altitude

14. The facilities provided by ATC in aerodrome control are

a. Control
b. Traffic
c. Search & rescue
d. All the above are correct

15. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in IMC. It should fly- according to

a. Semicircular system
b. Quadrantal system
c. Return back to base

16. An aircraft is flying on magnetic course (Tr) 180. In a quadrantal system it would be flying
a. Odd thousand feet
b. Even thousand feet
c. Odd thousand + 500 feet
d. Even thousand + 500 feet

17. The facilities available at an airfield will be mentioned in

a. AIP
b. AIKAC
c. ATC
d. NOTAMS

18. An aircraft at supersonic speed can fly over India

a. With permission of Central Govt.
b. With the permission of DGCA.
c. Can not fly

19. The route Navigation charges are based on

a. AUW of the aircraft
b. Availability of navigation facilities on the route
c. The duration the navigation facilities were actually used
d. Number of passengers on boards the aircraft
20. An aircraft is descending over Delhi aerodrome from Flight level 290. The altimeter reads
12000 feet. The pilot will report vertical distance as
a. 12000 feet
b. Flight level 120
c. Flight level 290
d. 29000 feet

21. Rules regarding demolition of obstructions caused by tall buildings, trees etc are laid
down in
a. Aircraft rules 193T
b. Aircraft rules 1934
c. Aircraft act 1934
d. Aircraft: public health rules 1954

22. Before a flight who is responsible to check the proper working the radio apparatus
a. PIC
b. Co Pilot
c. Radio officer

23. Night flying corresponds to flying between

a. Half hr before sunset to halt hr after sunrise.
b. Half hr after sunset to half hr after sunrise
c. Half hr after sunset to half hr before sunrise
d. Half hr before sunset to hall hr alter sunrise

24. The colour of the aerodrome beacon is

a. White & Red
b. Blue & green
c. White & green

25. VMC exists at an aerodrome when visibility is more than

a. 8 Km
b. 5 Km
c. 3 Km

26. UTC means

a. Coordinated universal time
b. Universal coordinated time
c. Universal time coordinated

27. In the quadrantal system the lowest flight level to be flown is

a. 30
b. 40
c. 50

28. The runway direction is measured with respect to

a. True North
b. Magnetic North
29. While in a circuit an aircraft experiences RT failure, the pilot should acknowledge RT
signals by
a. Pitching the nose UP/Down
b. Rocking wings
c. Switching ON/OFF landing lights

30. Petroleum in bulk means Petroleum contained in receptacles

a. Of 900 liters capacity
b. Exceeding 900 liters capacity
c. Less than 900 liters capacity

31. A red pyrotechnical light fired from control tower in front of an aircraft means
a. Keep circling & give way to other aircraft
b. Not with standing, with the previous instructions, do not land for the time being c}
c. Nothing

32. The incubation period for relapsing fever is

a. 6 days
b. 6 days
c. 4 days

33. It a passenger on board the aircraft, is suffering from an PIC is to inform health
officer…………hours before landing
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

34. The body of a person died of yellow fever can be brought to India if
a. The body is hermetically sealed
b. The body is sealed in a zinc box
c. Can not be brought to India

35. Anti collision light is mandatory to be fitted on aircraft AUW it-

a. 1500 kg
b. 5700 kg
c. 6000 kg

36. Permitted leaflets can be dropped from an aircraft with the permission
a. Central Govt
b. DGCA
c. District magistrate or the commissioner of police

37. Either arm & hand level with shoulder, hand across throat palm downwards - means
a. Cut engines
b. Turn to the direction in which hand across throat palm
c. Slow down & stop

38. Unidirectional green lights are arranged at

a. The beginning of the runway
b. The displaced threshold
c. The end of the runway

39. From the beginning of the runway to the displaced threshold the runway edge lights
are
a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. Yellow
40. During flight a red light seen on a Relative bearing of 270 means
a. A risk of collision with another aircraft
b. No risk of collision with another aircraft
c. An aerodrome beacon indicating unsafe conditions

41. An aircraft accident is to be reported to DGCA within

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. As soon as possible

42. On board a civil aircraft the defense personnel can carry arms with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Army HQ
c. Commanding officer
d. Central Govt.

43. During night flying it navigation light fail, the pilot should
a. Send a MAY day signal
b. Land at the alternate aerodrome
c. Land as soon as possible

44. When flying within transition layer the altitude is reported on

a. QFE
b. QNH
c. QNE
d. Not reported at all

45. Minimum Longitudinal separation in terms of time, when passing through the level of
another aircraft cr. the same track, from the time the level is crossed is
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes

46. The FDR should be capable of recording he conversation for at least preceding
a. 25 Hrs
b. 5 Hrs
c. 25 Minutes
d. 30 minutes

47. The FDTL for international flight in terms of flying hours & number of landings is
a. 9/3
b. 8/4
c. 6/3
d. 9/4
48. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly as PIC in one tear
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 125

49. Instrument flying time means

a. Flying time during night
b. The time during which the pilot is flying solely with reference to instruments
with out any external visual reference
c. The time during which the pilot is flying with reference to instruments with external
visual reference

50. A Control zone is

a. An airspace with in which air traffic is controlled
b. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a `
specific upper limit above the earth
c. A controlled air space extending upwards from a specified upper limit above the
earth

51. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions.

a. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
b. Excessive carbon dioxide in the "blood stream
c. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.

52. What causes hypoxia?

a. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b. An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at right altitudes
c. A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure

53. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increas
a. The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased
b. The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased
c. Oxygen partial pressure is decreased

54. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning

a. Rapid shallow breathing
b. Pain & cramping of the hands
c. Dizziness

55. What is the effect alcohol consumption on the function of body

a. Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude
b. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment & decision making
ability
c. Alcohol has little effect it followed by equal quantities of black coffee

56. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?

a. Tingling of the hands & feet.
b. Increased vision keenness
c. Decreases breathing rate
57. What would most likely to occur in hyper ventilation
a. A stressful situation causing anxiety
b. The excessive consumption of alcohol
c. An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen

58. Scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute

a. Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat
b. 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat
c. Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact outside scanning is
unnecessary

59. What is the most effective way to use eyes during night flying?
a. Look only at far away dim lights
b. Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c. Concentrate directly on each object: for few seconds

60. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance
a. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed
b. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed
c. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is
increasing in size

61. When using earth's horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft
a. Above the horizon £ increasing in size
b. On the horizon with little relative movement
c. On the horizon & increasing in size

62. When making an approach on narrower than usual runway without VASI assistance,
the pilot should be aware that the approach
a. Altitude may be higher than it appears
b. Approach attitude may be lower than it appears
c. May result in leveling off too high & landing hard

63. When making an approach for landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as
water or snow pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may
appear to be
a. High
b. Low
c. Shallow

64. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is

a. Closer to the runway than it actually is
b. Farther from the runway than actually is
c. The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility

65. A sudden penetration of fog can give an illusion of

a. Pitching up
b. Pitching down
c. Leveling off

66. Rain on the wind screen can cause what illusion

a. No illusion
b. Lower than actual
c. Higher than actual

67. On a runway there are three pairs of threshold marking. The length of the
runway is.
a. 1200 to 1500 meters
b. 1200 to 2100 meters
 c. More than 2100 meters

68. On a runway there are three pairs of threshold marking. The length of the
runway is.
a. 60 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 45 meters
d. 23 meters

69. The length of R/W center line markings is & the length between the markings
is.
a. 30 meters & 20 meters
b. 30 meters & 30 meters
c. 20 meters £ 20 meters
d. 20 meters & 30 meter

70. The ADC

a. Not required for uncontrolled flights
b. Is required for controlled & uncontrolled flights & is valid till 30 minutes
after controlled flights.
c. Is required only for controlled flights.
d. Is required for controlled & uncontrolled flights & is valid till 30 minutes before
& after the planned T/O time

71. The FDTL may be extended by.

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. PIC
d. Central Govt.

72. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is

a. 4 Hrs
b. 2 Hrs
c. 6 Hrs
d. 8 Hrs

73. The amendments to aircraft rules is done through

a. NOTAMS
b. CAR
c. AIC
d. AIRAC

74. Above which flight level only the IFR flights area permitted.
a. 150
b. 290
c. 100
d. 200