Clearias Current Affairs Capsule Jan 2019 PDF

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Current Affairs
Capsule
Jan 2019
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Q1) Consider the following statements.
1. As per the latest data (January 2019) released by RBI, the gross non-
performing assets (GNPA) ratio of public sector banks is more than that
of private banks.
2. Under the Basel III norms, the Indian scheduled commercial banks are
required to maintain a capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR) of 9%.
3. Financial Stability Report (FSR) is a biannual document released by the
Department of Economic Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Financial Stability Report (FSR) is a biannual document

released by the Reserve Bank of India.
As per the latest Financial Stability Report (January 2019), the gross non-
performing assets (GNPA) ratio of public sector banks is 14.8% in September
2018 under a baseline stress scenario, while for private banks the ratio is
3.8%.
The Basel III norms stipulated a capital to risk weighted assets of 8%. However,
as per RBI norms, Indian scheduled commercial banks are required to
maintain a CAR of 9%.
As per the report, as many as eight PSU banks under prompt corrective action
framework (PCA PSBs) may have CRAR below the minimum regulatory level of
9 per cent by March 2019.
Why is this question important?
RBI recently released its biannual Financial Stability Report (FSR).

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/bad-
loans-will-shrink-in-march-rbi/articleshowprint/67329841.cms and
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/non-
performing-assets-stress-to-decline-for-first-time-in-3-years-rbi-5517757/
Q2) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information

Commission (CIC).
1. CIC is a statutory body constituted under the Right to Information Act,

2005.
2. While inquiring into any matter under the RTI Act, the CIC shall have the
powers of a civil court.
3. The decisions of the Central Information Commission are final and
binding.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Central Information Commission has been constituted

with effect from 12-10-2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
It is the highest appeal body under the Right to Information Act. The
jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities.
The Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the

case may be, shall, while inquiring into any matter, have the powers of a civil
court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
The decisions of the Commission are final and binding.

The government has appointed Sudhir Bhargava as the new Chief Information
Commissioner. The government also appointed four new commissioners. All of
them are retired, senior bureaucrats.
Activists have slammed the government for a lack of transparency in the

appointment process.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sudhir-bhargava-new-
chief-information-commissioner-govt-appoints-four-information-
commissioners/article25869926.ece and https://cic.gov.in
Q3) Consider the following pairs.
Space Missions Targeted object/region

Seen in news
1. New Horizons : Kuiper Belt

2. OSIRIS-Rex : Bennu asteroid
3. Chang’e 4 : Far side of the Moon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The New Horizons mission launched by NASA helps to

understand worlds at the edge of the solar system by making the first
reconnaissance of the dwarf planet Pluto and by venturing deeper into the
distant, mysterious Kuiper Belt – a relic of solar system formation.
OSIRIS-Rex spacecraft was launched by NASA to orbit around the asteroid

Bennu and bring a small sample back to Earth for study.
A Chinese lunar explorer Chang'e 4 recently made the first-ever landing on the
far side of the moon.

These space missions were recently seen in the news.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nasa-spaceship-zooms-
toward-farthest-world-ever-photographed/article25874213.ece ;
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/china/chinese-spacecraft-makes-
first-landing-on-moons-far-side/articleshowprint/67359945.cms
Q4) What is/are the most likely advantage(s) of signing the ‘Regional
Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)’?
1. It will provide market access for India’s goods and services exports.
2. It will encourage greater investments and technology into India.
3. It will deepen and strengthen India’s economic and technological
cooperation with APEC member countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is

a proposed Free Trade Agreement between ten ASEAN member states and their
six Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners namely India, Australia, China,
Japan, New Zealand and the Republic of Korea.
Likely benefits of RCEP for India:
 RCEP is expected to provide market access for India’s goods and services
exports.
 It is expected to encourage greater investments and technology into
India.
 It would also facilitate India’s MSMEs to effectively integrate into the
regional value and supply chains.

The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is currently under
advanced stages of negotiation.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1558010
Q5) In the context of ‘Agri Export Zones’ (AEZ), which of the following
statement is/are correct?
1. Each AEZ focuses on a particular produce/product located in a

contiguous area for the purpose of promoting the exports.
2. The concept of Agri Export Zone was introduced through Agriculture
Export Policy, 2018.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The concept of agri export zone takes a comprehensive look at
a particular produce/product located in a contiguous area for the purpose of
developing and sourcing the raw materials, their processing/packaging, leading
to final exports. The entire effort is centered on the cluster approach of
identifying the potential products, the geographical region in which these
products are grown and adopting an end-to-end approach of integrating the
entire process right from the stage of production till it reaches the market.
The concept of Agri Export Zone (AEZ) was introduced in 2001, through EXIM
Policy 1997-2001.
In all 60 Agri Export Zones (AEZ) were notified by the Government till 2004 -
05. No new AEZs have been set up after 2004.
The term Agri Export Zones (AEZ) was recently seen in the news in the context
of recently approved Agriculture Export Policy, 2018.
Q6) The term ‘Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA)’, recently seen in
news in the context of affairs of which of the following?
A. China
B. ASEAN
C. Afghanistan
D. United States
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The term ‘Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA)’, recently seen
in the news in the context of affairs of the United States of America.
The Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA) called for the strengthening of
diplomatic, economic and security ties with India and allocates a budget of
$1.5 billion over a five-year period to enhance cooperation with America’s
strategic regional allies in the region.
It is an Act designed to counter the encroaching influence and growing threat

from China and to reinvigorate US leadership in the Indo-Pacific region.
US President Donald Trump recently signed the Asia Reassurance Initiative Act
(ARIA).
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/narendra-modi-donald-
trump-india-us-china-relations-defence-army-airforce-navy-5519154/
Q7) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘ecologically

sensitive areas (ESA)’.
1. ESA are notified by the Union government under the Environment

(Protection) Act 1986.
2. In Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESA) the human activities are completely
prohibited.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: ESA are notified by the Union government under the
Environment (Protection) Act 1986.
‘Ecologically Sensitive Areas’ are areas under human use, where human
activities will continue, but be prudently regulated under the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986.
The aim of the ESA is to ensure that development is environment friendly and
people oriented, as well as serve to preserve the ecological heritage on a long
term basis.
Recently, a parliamentary committee has said that over 56,000 square

kilometers of ecologically sensitive areas (ESA) in the Western Ghats could not
be earmarked as ‘no-go’ zones due to State governments’ ‘insensitivity’.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/states/parliamentary-committee-
irked-by-states-insensitivity-to-western-ghats/article25884232.ece ;
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=64396
1. The Indian Trade Union Act of 1926 was enacted to give legal and
corporate status to the trade unions.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai was the first chairman of All India Trade Union Congress
(AITUC).
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The passing of the Indian Trade Union Act of 1926 conferred a
legal and corporate status on registered trade unions and granted them certain
immunities in regard to trade disputes. The act makes provision for two
matters. (1) The conditions governing the registration (2) The right and privilege
accorded to registered unions
In 1919 the international labour organisation was founded and for the purpose
of sending representatives to the organisation the AITUC was started. Lala
Lajpath Rai was elected to attend the conference held at Geneva. B.P. Wadia,
Divan Chammanlal, and N M Joshi were elected as the advisors. The first
meeting elected Lajpath Rai as chairman.
The Union Cabinet has recently approved Amendment to the Trade Unions Act,
1926 to make provisions regarding Recognition of Trade Unions.
Additional reference:
http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/610/11/11_chapter3.pdf
Scheduled Corresponding
Tribes States
1. Adi : Assam
2. Idu Mishmi : Arunachal Pradesh
3. Monpa : Sikkim
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: All the three tribes – Adi, Idu Mishmi and Monpa – are from
Arunachal Pradesh.
Some other tribes found in Arunachal Pradesh are - 'Khampti', Taraon (Digaru
Mishmi), Memba, Sartang, Sajolong etc.
The Union Cabinet has recently approved the introduction of The Constitution
(Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2018 in the Parliament for certain
amendments in the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950 so as to
modify the list of Scheduled Tribes (STs) of Arunachal Pradesh.
Q10) Consider the following statements about ‘Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan

(SNA)’.
1. It aims to create awareness on health issues and influence the health

seeking behavior of citizens to encourage healthy lifestyles.
2. It is an important component of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
(PMJAY).
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan (SNA) aims at dissemination of

information on health issues to create awareness among citizens of India of ail
age/sex/locations and appropriately influence their health seeking behavior to
encourage healthy lifestyles and empower the citizens.
It is a Central Sector Schemes with 100% funding from Central Government. It
is one of the five programmes under the "Umbrella Scheme for Family Welfare
and Other Health Interventions".
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently given its approval for
continuation of five schemes under the "Umbrella Scheme for Family Welfare
and Other Health Interventions" during the Fourteenth Finance Commission
period 2017-18 to 2019-20.
1. The Constitution of India prohibits ‘Begar’ and other similar forms of

forced labour.
2. Both the parliament and the state legislature can make legislation to
provide for punishment for forced labour.
3. The Global Slavery Index is released annually by International Labour
Organisation.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Article 23(1) of the Constitution prohibits ‘begar’ and other
similar forms of forced labour and further provides that any contravention of
the said prohibition shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Article 35(a)(ii) of the Constitution not only confers the power on Parliament to
provide for punishment for the contravention of the said provisions of Article
23(1) but expressly takes away the power of the State Legislature to make
any legislation with regard to the said matter.
The Global Slavery Index is released by The Walk Free Foundation.
Recently, an incident of bonded labour reached the national headlines. 52

trafficked labourers had been rescued from a ginger farm in Karnataka where
they had been made to work inhuman hours with little pay.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/breaking-the-
stranglehold/article25892877.ece
https://www.childlineindia.org.in/CP-CR-
Downloads/Bonded%20Labour%20System%20(Abolition)%20Act%201976%20
and%20Rules.pdf
Towns/provinces Corresponding
Mentioned in news Country
1. Manbij : Syria
2. Maidan Wardak: Afghanistan
3. Mannar : Srilanka
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Manbij is a place in Syria near its border with Turkey.
Recently hundreds of Kurdish fighters had withdrawn from Manbij, days after
the Kurds appealed to Syria for support against a threatened Turkish offensive.
Recently, the Taliban killed more than 100 members of the Afghan security
forces inside a military compound in central Maidan Wardak province,
Afghanistan.
The recently a mass grave was discovered in Mannar town in Sri Lanka’s
Northern Province. This has raised fresh questions about Sri Lanka’s history of
violence.
These cities were in news recently.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/syria-regime-
says-kurdish-fighters-withdraw-from-manbij-119010300021_1.html ;
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/change-in-
congo/article25986897.ece
Q13) Which of the following statement correctly describes the term ‘Polar
Vortex’?
A. It is a rotating cone of high pressure over the poles formed due to the
reduced temperature contrast and driven by the Coriolis Effect.
B. It is a rotating cone of low pressure over the poles formed due to the
increased temperature contrast between the Polar Regions and the mid-
latitudes.
C. It is the fast-moving air current in the atmosphere formed due to heating
of the polar region by solar radiation during summer months.
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) is correct in this context.
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Polar vortex is described as a whirling cone of low pressure

over the poles that is strongest in the winter months due to the increased
temperature contrast between the polar regions and the mid-latitudes, such as
the US and Europe.
The polar vortex spins in the stratosphere, a layer of the atmosphere 10-48 km
above the ground and above the troposphere, where most familiar weather
patterns develop.

Recently weather experts predicted an extremely cold January and February
for the northeastern United States, much of northern Europe and parts of Asia.
The reason being given is the polar vortex.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/just-what-
exactly-is-a-polar-vortex--62648
Q14) ‘Climate Change Performance Index’ (CCPI) is released by which of

the following?
A. UNFCCC Secretariat
B. The European Environmental Bureau
C. GermanWatch
D. The International Institute for Sustainable Development
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Climate Change Performance Index is published by

GermanWatch, CAN International and the New Climate Institute.
It evaluates and compares the climate protection performance of 56 countries

and the EU.
CCPI was released recently. Sweden is in top position, followed by Morocco and
Lithuania in the CCPI 2019.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/morocco-ranks-high-
in-climate-action/article25892724.ece
Q15) What is the objective of ‘Pahchan’ initiative of the Government of

India?
A. To organize and standardize the Indian handicrafts industries

B. To rescue, identify and rehabilitate the street and runaway children
C. To generate self-employment opportunities for women through the
establishment of micro-enterprises
D. To provide skill-based training for rural youths
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: ‘Pahchan’ initiative of the Government of India is aimed at

organizing and standardizing the Indian handicrafts industries.
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles.
The government has also launched a direct marketing portal for handicraft
artisans to provide direct market access facility to genuine handicraft artisans
including tribal artisans working in the far-flung areas. Any handicraft artisan
registered under Pachchan can utilize this portal for marketing their products.
Under the Pahchan initiative, the government has registered approximately

22.85 lakhs artisans. Moreover, 35 crafts have been identified as endangered
crafts and 92 crafts have been registered under Geographical Indication Act.
Q16) With reference to the Attorney General for India, which of the
statement is not correct?
A. The Attorney-General for India has the right of audience in all courts in
the country.
B. Attorney-General for India holds office at the pleasure of the President.
C. The Attorney-General advises the government on such legal matters as
referred or assigned by the President.
D. A person who is qualified to be a Supreme Court judge or a High Court
judge can be appointed as the Attorney-General for India.
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Article 76 of the Constitution deals with the Attorney-General

for India. It says that the President can appoint a person who is qualified to be
a Supreme Court judge as the Attorney-General for India.
The AG advises the government on such legal matters as referred or assigned

by the President, has the right of audience in all courts in the country, holds
office at the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the
President determines.
Recently, the office of the Attorney General for India (AG) came under criticism
for some of the statements made about the Sabarimala litigation pending
before the Supreme Court.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/attorney-
general-constitution-supreme-court-sabarimala-the-countrys-counsel-
5522426/
Q17) With reference to the term ‘Fugitive Economic Offender (FEO)’,

consider the following statement.
1. A person can be declared as FEO, if an arrest warrant has been issued

against the individual and the value of offences exceeds Rs. 100 crore.
2. Only the Union government has the power to declare a person FEO
under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA), which became a
law on July 31, 2018, allows for declaring a person as an offender after an
arrest warrant has been issued against the individual and the value of offences
exceeds Rs. 100 crore.
Another condition for declaring a person a fugitive economic offender (FEO) is

when the individual refuses to return to the country to face prosecution in the
specified cases.
As per the new law only the special court can declare a person fugitive
economic offender.
Recently, Vijay Mallya became the first person to be declared as person fugitive
economic offender by the special court hearing cases under the Fugitive
Economic Offenders Act (FEOA.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/vijay-mallya-declared-as-
fugitive-economic-offender-under-new-law/article25919274.ece
Q18) ‘Agasthyar koodam’ was recently seen in the news. In this context
consider the following statements.
1. It is the highest peak in Kerala.

2. It is located in the Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Agasthyarkoodam is the second highest peak in Kerala at

1,868 metres.
It is located in the Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Thiruvananthapuram.
Recently, the Kerala Forest Department lifted the long-standing ban preventing
women from summiting the Agasthyarkoodam.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/another-male-
bastion-set-to-collapse-in-kerala-with-women-applying-for-permits-to-ascend-
agasthyar-peak/article25918673.ece
Q19) Consider the following statements about ‘National Programme for
Organic Production (NPOP)’.
1. The programme aims to encourage the development of organic farming

and organic processing.
2. It provides the means of evaluation of the certification programme for
organic agriculture and products as per the approved criteria.
3. The programme is implemented by the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Ministry of Commerce & Industry has implemented the

National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001 with the
following objectives:
1. To provide the means of evaluation of the certification programme for

organic agriculture and products (including wild harvest, aquaculture,
livestock products) as per the approved criteria.
2. To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking
accreditation.
3. To facilitate the certification of organic products in conformity with
the prescribed standards.
4. To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the
importing countries organic standards as per equivalence agreement
between the two countries or as per importing country requirements.
5. To encourage the development of organic farming and organic
processing.
Currently, 29 Certification Bodies are accredited for carrying out inspection

and certification for process certification of organic products for exports from
the country.
It is one of the important schemes to boost the export of organic products from
the country. It is expected that this programme will help in achieving the goals
of newly introduced Agriculture Export Policy.
Q20) Consider the following statements about the ‘DNA Technology

Regulation Bill, 2019’.
1. The Primary purpose of the bill is to regulate the use and application of
DNA technology, for establishing the identity of missing persons, victims,
offenders, under trials and unknown deceased persons.
2. The bill provides for the establishment of National and Regional DNA
Data Banks that stores the DNA information of the entire population.
3. The Bill will strengthen the criminal justice delivery system by enabling
the application of DNA evidence.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill –
2019 has been formulated recognizing the need for regulation of the use and
application of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) technology, for establishing the
identity of missing persons, victims, offenders, under trials and unknown
deceased persons.
DNA information will not be stored for the entire population but only that of
offenders, suspects and relatives of missing persons.
The key components of this Bill include:
 Establishment of a DNA Regulatory Board;

 Accreditation of DNA laboratories undertaking DNA testing, analyzing,
etc.;
 Establishment of the National and Regional DNA Data Banks, as
envisaged in the Bill, will assist in forensic investigations.
The Bill will add value in empowering the criminal justice delivery system by
enabling the application of DNA evidence, which is considered the gold
standard in crime investigations.
The Lok Sabha recently passed “The DNA Technology (Use and Application)
Regulation Bill 2019”.
Q21) Who among the following can make deposits under the Gold
Monetization Scheme (GMS)?
1. Individual and joint depositors

2. Charitable institutions
3. Central and the state government
4. SEBI registered Mutual Funds and Exchange Traded Funds
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Resident Indians [Individuals, HUFs, Proprietorship &

Partnership firms, Trusts including Mutual Funds/Exchange Traded Funds
registered under SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations, Companies, charitable
institutions, Central Government, State Government or any other entity owned
by Central Government or State Government] can make deposits under the
Gold Monetization Scheme.
In 2015, the government launched the GMS to mobilize the gold held by
households and institutions in the country.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently made some changes in the Gold
Monetization Scheme (GMS) by including charitable institutions and the
central government, among others.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/rbi-
makes-changes-in-gold-monetisation-scheme/articleshowprint/67458326.cms
; https://www.financialexpress.com/market/commodities/gold-monetisation-
scheme-rbi-amends-eligibility-criteria-for-deposits-check-details/1438819/
Q22) With reference to the ‘Tax Inspectors Without Borders Programme

(TIWB)’, Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It facilitates the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to developing

country tax administrations using a practical, "learning by doing"
approach.
2. It enables the tax authorities around the world to work together to
prosecute the tax law violations by the trans-national entities.
3. It is a joint initiative of OECD and UNDP.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a joint initiative of

the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) supporting countries in
building tax audit capacity.
The TIWB initiative facilitates the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to
developing country tax administrations using a practical, "learning by doing"
approach.
TIWB Programmes complement the broader efforts of the international

community to strengthen co-operation on tax matters and contribute to the
domestic resource mobilization efforts of developing countries.
The Union Cabinet has recently approved the Signing of Terms of Reference
(TOR) governing the engagement of the designated Indian Expert to provide tax
assistance to Swaziland (now known as Eswatini) under the Tax Inspectors
Without Borders Programme between India and Eswatini.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1559478 ;
http://www.tiwb.org/
Q23) Consider the following statements about the Sino-Indian Digital

Collaboration Plaza (SIDCOP), seen in the news recently.
1. SIDCOP initiative brings together Indian IT companies and Chinese

enterprises on a single AI enabled platform, in order to assist the Chinese
enterprises in operational optimization.
2. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology, India and the Ministry of Industry and Information
Technology of China.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Sino-Indian Digital Collaboration Plaza (SIDCOP) is an

initiative to bring Indian IT companies and Chinese enterprises closer to each
other on a single AI enabled platform.
This is a partnership by the National Association of Software and Services
Companies (NASSCOM) with Municipal Governments of Guiyang and Dalian. A
Joint Venture comprising of one Indian and Chinese company has been tasked
with the running of the platform.
SIDCOP, which is a boundary-less marketplace offers the opportunity for

Chinese enterprises in order to assist them in operational optimization and
adopting industry best practices in business solutions.
The Sino-Indian Digital Collaboration Plaza (SIDCOP) initiative was launched

on 10th January 2019.
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to,
1. Take comprehensive mitigation actions for prevention, control and

abatement of air pollution.
2. Augment the air quality monitoring network across the country.
3. Strengthen the awareness about air pollution and capacity building
activities.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the statements given above is correct
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Overall objective of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
is:
 Comprehensive mitigation actions for prevention, control and abatement

of air pollution
 Augmenting the air quality monitoring network across the country
 Strengthening awareness and capacity building activities.
The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
The approach for NCAP includes collaborative, multi-scale and cross-sectoral
coordination between the relevant central ministries, state governments and
local bodies.
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was recently launched by Union Minister
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in New Delhi.
Q25) The ‘Index of Economic Freedom’ that measures the degree of

economic freedom in the world's nations, is released by which of the
following?
A. World Economic Forum

B. The Heritage Foundation and The Wall Street Journal
C. International Monetary Fund
D. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The Index of Economic Freedom is an annual index and

ranking created in 1995 by The Heritage Foundation and The Wall Street
Journal to measure the degree of economic freedom in the world's nations.
The index for the year 2019 was released recently. 2019 marks the 25 th
anniversary of the annual Index of Economic Freedom.
Source: https://www.heritage.org/international-
economies/commentary/heritage-marks-25-years-the-index-economic-
freedom-2019-index
Q26) Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of
‘Fundamental Rights’ under part III of the constitution.
1. An amendment to a Fundamental Rights under Part III of the

Constitution should be ratified by the Legislatures of one-half of the
States.
2. An amendment to Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution
cannot be challenged in any court of law.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The proviso to Article 368 (power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and procedure thereof) holds that an amendment to a
fundamental right coming under Part III of the Constitution need not be
ratified by the Legislatures of one-half of the States.
However, any such amendments can be challenged in court of law and open for
judicial review.
The issue was recently in news in the context of 103 rd Constitutional

Amendment Act, which provided 10% reservation for Economically Weaker
Sections.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/states-approval-not-
needed-for-quota-bill/article25962800.ece
Q27) 25th edition of ‘Partnership Summit’ was recently held in Mumbai. In

this context consider the following statements.
1. It is a global platform for dialogue, debate, deliberation and engagement
among Indian and global leaders on economic policy and growth trends
in India.
2. The Summit was organized by the Department of Industrial Policy and
Promotion.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Partnership Summit is a global platform for dialogue,

debate, deliberation and engagement among Indian and global leaders on
economic policy and growth trends in India.
2019 edition of the Summit showcased India in the present landscape of an

emerging “New India”, the “New Global Economic Address”.
The Summit was being organized by the Department of Industrial Policy and
Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India, State
Government of Maharashtra and Confederation of Indian Industry.
Union Minister of Commerce & Industry and Civil Aviation, Suresh Prabhu
presided over as Chair of the Summit.
The 25th edition of Partnership Summit 2019 was held recently in Mumbai.
The two-day event was inaugurated by the Vice President of India, M Venkaiah
Naidu.
Q28) In the context of ‘Clean Ganga Fund (CGF)’, consider the following
statements.
1. The Clean Ganga Fund was established as a Trust under the Indian
Trusts Act.
2. Only domestic donors to the CGF are eligible for 100% income tax
exemption under the Income Tax Act.
3. Contributions to CGF come within the purview of CSR activity under the
Companies Act, 2013.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Clean Ganga Fund was established as a Trust under the
Indian Trusts Act, duly approved by the Union Cabinet and with the Union
Finance Minister heading the Board. DG, NMCG acts as the CEO of the Clean
Ganga Fund.
Domestic donors to the CGF are eligible for 100% income tax exemption under
Section 80 G (1) (i) of the Income Tax Act 1961. Contributions to CGF also fall
within the purview of CSR activity as defined in Schedule VII to the Companies
Act, 2013.
Recently, the officials and partners of National Mission for Clean Ganga
(NMCG) came together on one platform, to make personal donations to the
Clean Ganga Fund on a voluntary basis.
Q29) With reference to the Innovators Growth Platform (IGP), sometimes

seen in the news, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The IGP helps investors in start-ups divest their holdings without making
a public offer.
2. IGP is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Innovators Growth Platform (IGP) helps investors in start-
ups divest their holdings without making a public offer. Profitability and other
disclosure requirements are less stringent here, compared to the SME platform
or the main board of exchanges.
It is an initiative of SEBI, started in 2013 as the Institutional Trading Platform

(ITP).
SEBI recently renamed the Institutional Trading Platform (ITP) as Innovators

Growth Platform (IGP). Following a review in 2018, the rules governing ITP were
tweaked. In its new avatar as the Innovators Growth Platform, the participant
base has been considerably widened and some of the difficulties being faced by
companies have been ironed out.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/todays-paper/tp-
opinion/article26009800.ece
Q30) Which of the following statements is/are correct about

‘Commonwealth Secretariat Arbitral Tribunal (CSAT)’, seen in the news
recently?
1. The Tribunal was established in 1995 by a statute agreed by

Commonwealth governments.
2. The Tribunal decides the service disputes between the employees of the
Commonwealth Secretariat and the Commonwealth Secretariat itself.
3. The judgment of the Tribunal is final and binding on the parties.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Commonwealth Secretariat Arbitral Tribunal (CSAT) was

established and operates under a Statute agreed by Commonwealth
governments in 1995.
The tribunal determines applications regarding non-observance of contractual

obligations involving staff members of the Commonwealth Secretariat or
international/intergovernmental Commonwealth body/organisation, and the
Commonwealth Secretariat or Commonwealth international/intergovernmental
bodies.
The Statute of the Tribunal specifically provides in Article IX.2 that: “The
judgment of the Tribunal shall be final and binding on the parties and shall not
be subject to appeal”.
The CSAT has eight members comprising the President and seven other
members. The members are selected by Commonwealth Governments on a
regionally representative basis from among persons of high moral character
who must hold or have held high judicial office in a Commonwealth country or
who are jurisconsults with at least ten years experience. The members are
appointed on a four-year term which may be renewed only once.
Recently, Justice A.K. Sikri, the Supreme Court judge, turned down an offer
from the government to nominate him to the London-based Commonwealth
Secretariat Arbitrary Tribunal (CSAT).
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/justice-sikri-withdraws-
consent-to-govt-offer-to-nominate-him-to-csat/article25986368.ece
Q31) What is the objective of ‘UNNATI’ programme, which was launched

recently?
A. Upgradation and modernization of railway infrastructure
B. Capacity building on Nano-satellite development
C. Upgradation of rural roads to connect households with the rural
agriculture markets
D. Deploying laser-activated fences and technology-enabled barriers along
India’s border
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: UNNATI (Unispace Nanosatellite Assembly & Training) is a

capacity building programme on Nano-satellite development.
It is an initiative by ISRO to commemorate the 50 th anniversary of the first

United Nations conference on the exploration and peaceful uses of outer space
(UNISPACE-50).
The programme was recently inaugurated by the Minister of State for Atomic
Energy and Space in Bengaluru.
Q32) Who among the following are part of the Selection Committee for the
purpose of appointment of Lokpal?
1. Prime Minister
2. Lok Sabha Speaker
3. The Leader of the Opposition in Loksabha
4. Chief Justice of India
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Selection Committee for the purpose of appointment of
Lokpal is headed by the Prime Minister.
The Selection Committee also includes the Lok Sabha Speaker, the Leader of
the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist.
Recently, the Supreme Court has asked the eight-member Search Committee
under the Lokpal Act to recommend a panel of names before the end of
February. The shortlisted name then will be sent to the Selection Committee.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/nudged-into-
action/article26030882.ece
1. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD) is celebrated on 9 th January every year,

since 1950, to commemorate the return of Mahatma Gandhi to India
from South Africa.
2. Theme of Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD) 2019 was ‘Role of Indian
Diaspora in building New India’.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The decision to celebrate Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD) was
taken by the former Indian Prime Minister, late Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
The 1st PBD was celebrated on 9th January, 2003 in New Delhi. January 9 was
chosen as the day to celebrate PBD as it was on this day in 1915 that
Mahatma Gandhi, had returned to India from South Africa.
PBD now celebrated once in every two years, provides a platform to the
overseas Indian community to engage with the government and reconnect with
their roots.
The theme of PBD Convention 2019 is "Role of Indian Diaspora in building New
India".
The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the 15 th Pravasi

Bharatiya Diwas Convention at Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh on 22 January, 2019.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187634
Q34) Consider the following statements about ‘Central Electricity

Regulatory Commission (CERC)’.
1. CERC is a statutory body established under the Electricity Act, 2003.

2. It advises the Central Government on the formulation of National
Electricity Policy and Tariff Policy.
3. CERC regulates the inter-State transmission of electricity and to
determine tariff for such transmission of electricity.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) had

been established by the Government of India under the provisions of the
Electricity Regulatory Commissions (ERC) Act, 1998.
Major functions of CERC under the Act are –
 to regulate the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the

Central Government,
 to regulate the tariff of other generating companies having a composite
scheme for generation and sale of electricity in more than one State,
 To regulate the inter-State transmission of electricity and to determine
tariff for such transmission of electricity, etc.
Under the Act, CERC shall also advise the Central Government on -
 formulation of National Electricity Policy and Tariff Policy;

 promotion of competition, efficiency and economy in activities of
electricity industry;
 promotion of investment in electricity industry; and
 Any other matter referred to the Central Commission by the Government.
Recently, Union Minister of State (IC) for Power and New & Renewable Energy
administered the oath of Office and Secrecy to Shri Indu Shekhar Jha, newly
appointed member of CERC.
Q35) Which of the following statement is/are correct about the ‘Loktak
Lake’, often seen in news.
1. It is designated as wetlands of international importance under the

Ramsar convention.
2. It is the largest freshwater lake in north-eastern India.
3. Keibul Lamjao National Park is an integral part of Loktak Lake.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Loktak Lake in Bishnupur district of Manipur is designated as

wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar convention.
It is the largest freshwater lake in north-eastern India. Every year thousands of

migratory birds flock to the Loktak Lake.
The Keibul Lamjao National Park, the natural habitat of the endangered brow-
antlered deer, is part of Loktak Lake.
The Manipur government’s plan to set up a bird sanctuary at the Loktak Lake
in Bishnupur district has met with stiff opposition from the villagers in nearby
areas.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/protest-
against-proposed-bird-sanctuary-in-manipur/article26055282.ece
Art Forms Corresponding States
1. Hozagiri : Tripura
2. Sirmouri Natti : Rajasthan
3. Chakri : Himachal Pradesh
4. Chandi Shilli : Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Hozagiri is an art form from Tripura, Sirmouri Natti is an art
form from Himachal Pradesh, Chakri is an art form from Rajasthan and
Chandi Shilli is an art form from Sikkim.
These are some of the art forms that were showcased during the recently
concluded Bharat Parv.
The Ministry of Tourism in collaboration with other central Ministries is

organized the 4th edition of ‘Bharat Parv’ event showcasing the spirit of Ek
Bharat Shreshtha Bharat in New Delhi.
Q37) Which of the following statements correctly describes ‘Exercise SEA
VIGIL’, seen in the news recently.
A. A mock anti-piracy operation conducted by Indian and Chinese navies

from Malacca strait to Coast of Somalia.
B. A freedom of navigation operation conducted by the members of
quadrilateral security grouping in South China Sea.
C. The largest coastal defence exercise conducted by the Indian Navy off the
Indian coast.
D. An operation conducted by the US Navy to check the illegal migration by
sea routes.
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Exercise SEA VIGIL is the largest coastal defence exercise off
the Indian coast.
Exercise SEA VIGIL, a first of its kind, was undertaken along the entire 7516.6
km coastline and Exclusive Economic Zone of India and involved all the 13
coastal States and Union Territories along with all maritime stakeholders,
including the fishing and coastal communities.
Exercise SEA VIGIL aimed at comprehensively and holistically validating the

efficacy of the measures taken since '26/11'.
Exercise SEA VIGIL concluded recently.
Q38) With reference to ‘Microsat-R’ satellite launched recently, which of

the following statement is/are correct?
1. It is a micro-satellite developed by a consortium of Indian Higher

educational institution for environmental monitoring.
2. It is a military imaging satellite developed by Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO).
3. The satellite was launched by ISRO through Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle (PSLV).
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Microsat-R is a 740-kg military imaging satellite. Microsat-R

and its payload come assembled from a handful of laboratories of the Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and are meant for military
use.
Microsat-R was put into space by ISRO's PSLV C-44.
It was Indian Space Research Organization’s first mission of 2019.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isros-first-mission-of-
2019-to-put-military-satellite-microsat-r-in-space/article26072511.ece
Q39) Recently the Union government announced comprehensive reforms

for Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS). In this context consider the following
statements.
1. JSS aims to make skilling and entrepreneurship benefits accessible to

the underprivileged and impart vocational skill training to beneficiaries
at their doorstep.
2. Jan Shikshan Sansthan functions under the administrative control of
Ministry of Human Resources Development.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Currently, there are 247 JSSs working across the country.
They work towards making skilling and entrepreneurship benefits accessible to

the underprivileged and are imparting vocational skill training programmes to
beneficiaries at their doorstep.
Formerly under the Ministry of Human Resources Development, Jan

ShikshanSansthan has been transferred to the Ministry of Skill Development &
Entrepreneurship in 2018.
In a bid to boost skill training and entrepreneurship in the remotest corners of

the country, the Union government announced comprehensive reforms for Jan
Shikshan Sansthan (JSS), to further strengthen the skills ecosystem benefiting
those in the underprivileged sections of society.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187742
Q40) Consider the following statements about the mugger crocodile

(Crocodylus palustris).
1. The Mugger crocodiles are native to freshwater habitats from southern

Iran to the Indian subcontinent and Sri Lanka.
2. The species has been listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red
List.
3. In India, it is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The mugger crocodile, also called marsh crocodile or broad-
snouted crocodile, is a species (Crocodylus palustris) native to freshwater
habitats from southern Iran and Pakistan to the Indian subcontinent and Sri
Lanka.
Already extinct in Bhutan and Myanmar, the mugger has been listed as
vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1982. In India, it is protected under
Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Among the six schedules in the
Act, Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide the highest degrees of
protection to listed species, with the most stringent penalties for offenders.
It has come to the centre of renewed attention in Gujarat, where the Forest
Department has started evacuating muggers from two ponds on the Sardar
Sarovar Dam premises on the Narmada, to facilitate a seaplane service at the
Statue of Unity.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/this-word-means-
crocodylus-palustris-5554271/
Q41) Which of the following is/are the likely impact of nitrogen pollution?
1. Loss of biodiversity
2. Pollution of rivers and seas
3. Ozone depletion
A. 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Nitrogen, when released as part of compounds from
agriculture, sewage and biological waste, nitrogen is considered “reactive”, and
it may be polluting and even exert a potent greenhouse gas (heat trapping)
effect.
Other than air pollution, nitrogen is also linked to the loss of biodiversity, the
pollution of rivers and seas, ozone depletion, health, economy, and livelihoods.
Gases such as ammonia (NH3) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) contribute to poor air
quality and can aggravate respiratory and heart conditions, leading to millions
of premature deaths across the world. Nitrate from chemical fertilisers, manure
and industry pollutes the rivers and seas, posing a health risk for humans,
fish, coral and plant life.
Recently, Eighteen research institutions in India – that are part of the South
Asian Nitrogen Hub (SANH) – have secured £20 million (about ₹200 crore) from
the U.K. government to assess and study the quantum and impact of “nitrogen
pollution” in South Asia.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/18-
indian-institutions-to-study-nitrogen-pollution/article26082806.ece
Q42) With reference to the Kyasanur Forest Disease, recently seen in

news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever.

2. KFD is endemic to Karnataka State.
3. Human to human transmission of Kyasanur Forest Disease is possible.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is a viral haemorrhagic disease
endemic to Karnataka. Better known as ‘Monkey Fever’, KFD is primarily
transmitted through ticks — in short, a tick-borne zoonotic disease.
Doctors treat only the symptoms, for KFD has no known cure.
The virus is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected unfed nymphs

(immature stage of tick). Human to human transmission is not known.
Recent deadly outbreak of Kyasanur Forest Disease, or Monkey Fever, in

Karnataka’s Shivamogga district is disrupting normal life and the local
plantation economy.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/kyasanurs-
ticking-time-bomb/article26093497.ece
Q43) In the context of establishing a new High Court of the state, which
of the following statement is correct?
A. The Chief Justice of India after consultation with the four senior most
Judges of the Supreme Court can create a new High court for a state.
B. Governor of the concerned state, in consultation with the Chief Justice of
India and the Chief justice of the High Court which has jurisdiction over
that state, can create new High Court for the state.
C. The President of India, after the authorization by the Parliament, through
a notification can create a new High court for a state.
D. New High Court for a state can be created by a legislation passed by the
State Legislature and assented by the President of India.
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Constitution prescribes a certain procedure to be followed

in establishing or constituting High Courts. The President can notify the
creation of a new high court only after Parliament has authorised him to do so.
Parliament has to fix a date and it can delegate the authority to the President.

The President of India recently notified the bifurcation of common High Court
between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana states. The two separate High Courts
began functioning on January 1, 2019.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/justice-chelameswar-new-
andhra-high-court-violates-rules-5556555/
Q44) What is ‘Zearalenone’, often mentioned in news?
A. It is a plant extract widely used as nutritional supplement.

B. It is a fungal toxin infesting cereals such as wheat, maize and barley.
C. A microorganism used in the synthesis of pesticides.
D. An exotic microorganism that tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area
in which it infects.
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Zearalenone is a fungal toxin infesting cereals such as wheat,

maize and barley. It attacks crops while they are growing, but can also develop
when cereals are stored without being dried fully.
While numerous studies document this toxin in cereals across the world, no
data existed for India until now. Recently, a Journal of Food Science study
detected zearalenone in wheat, rice, corn and oats from markets in Uttar
Pradesh. This can be a public health concern.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/the-lowdown-on-
zearalenone-in-cereals/article26100813.ece
Q45) St. Petersburg declaration of 2010 is related to which of the

following?
A. Doubling the tiger numbers across the Tiger range countries by 2022.
B. Elimination of all forms of discrimination against women and the
children.
C. Limiting the global temperature increase to 1.5℃ above pre-industrial
levels.
D. None of the above
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: During the St. Petersburg declaration in 2010, tiger range
countries had resolved to double tiger numbers across their range by 2022.
The 3rd Stock Taking Conference on Tiger Conservation was inaugurated

recently in New Delhi.
Q46) Recently India agreed to participate in Programme for International

Students Assessment (PISA). In this context consider the following
statements.
1. PISA is a triennial survey aimed at evaluating the education system

worldwide by testing the skills and knowledge of 15-year-old students.
2. Under the programme the students are assessed in reading,
mathematics, science and collaborative problem-solving.
3. PISA is an initiative of Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD).
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: PISA is a triennial international survey (every three years)

which aims to evaluate the education system worldwide by testing the skills
and knowledge of 15-year-old students. It is an initiative of Organisation for
Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Students are assessed in reading, mathematics, science and collaborative

problem-solving.
PISA is a competency-based assessment which unlike content-based
assessment, measures the extent to which students have acquired key
competencies that are essential for full participation in modern societies.
Recently, India and OECD sign agreement to enable India’s participation in

Programme for International Students Assessment (PISA) to be held in 2021.
Participation in PISA allows benchmarking performance against a wide range of
countries.
Q47) The ‘Yellow Vest movement’ and ‘Red Scarves’ march are recently
seen in the news in the context of affairs of,
A. France
B. China
C. United States
D. United Kingdom
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Yellow Vest movement had rocked France for weeks with
angry protests over President Emmanuel Macron’s government.
Recently, thousands of protesters marched through Paris to condemn the

violence of the Yellow Vest movement. They wore red scarves and hence known
as ‘Red Scarves’ march.
Recently, some 10,000 people turned out for the counter-demonstration

against the Yellow Vest demonstrations across France.
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2019/01/27/world/europe/france-red-
scarves-yellow-vest-protests.html
Q48) Consider the following statements about ‘National Statistical
Commission (NSC)’.
1. National Statistical Commission is a statutory body established on 1 st

June, 2005.
2. NSC was established based on the recommendations of the Rangarajan
Commission that reviewed the Indian Statistical System.
3. Chief Statistician of India & Secretary MOSPI is the ex-officio chairperson
of National Statistical Commission.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The National Statistical Commission (NSC) was set up by the
Government of India through a resolution dated 1st June, 2005.
The setting up of the NSC followed the decision of the Cabinet to accept the
recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission, which reviewed the Indian
Statistical System in 2001.
The NSC was constituted with effect from 12th July 2006 with a mandate to
evolve policies, priorities and standards in statistical matters.
The NSC has four Members besides a Chairperson, each having specialization
and experience in specified statistical fields. Chief Statistician of India &
Secretary MOSPI is the Secretary to the NSC, not the chairperson. Chairperson
is appointed by the government.
The two non-government members of the National Statistical Commission

(NSC) recently quit the organisation citing a lack involvement in key decisions
such as the recently-released gross domestic product (GDP) back series, launch
of the new economic census and delay in publishing the employment-
unemployment report for 2016-17 despite its approval.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/2-
more-members-of-nsc-quit-on-feeling-sidelined/printarticle/67748951.cms ;
http://www.mospi.gov.in/national-statistical-commission-0
Q49) The report “The Future of Rail” is published by which of the

following?
A. Ministry of Railways, Government of India

B. International Energy Agency
C. NITI Aayog
D. PricewaterhouseCoopers (PwC)
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The report “The Future of Rail” is published International

Energy Agency (IEA).
“The Future of Rail” the first-of-a-kind report analyses the current and future
importance of rail around the world through the perspective of its energy and
environmental implications. The report reviews the impact of existing plans and
regulations on the future of rail, and explores the key policies that could help
to realize an enhanced future rail.
The report was released recently by the Minister of Railways, Shri Piyush
Goyal.
Q50) In the context of India’s defence affairs, What is ‘Milan’?
A. Anti-Tank Guided Missiles

B. An indigenously developed Battle Tank
C. An aircraft carrier
D. Nuclear powered submarine
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: ‘Milan’ is Anti-Tank Guided Missiles.
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the acquisition of

approximately 5000 Milan Anti Tank Guided Missiles for the Army.
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Clearias Current Affairs Capsule Jan 2019 PDF

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Learning Zone: Financial Stability Report (FSR) is a biannual document

Why is this question important?

RBI recently released its biannual Financial Stability Report (FSR).

Q2) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information

1. CIC is a statutory body constituted under the Right to Information Act,

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Learning Zone: The Central Information Commission has been constituted

The Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the

The decisions of the Commission are final and binding.

Why is this question important?

Activists have slammed the government for a lack of transparency in the

Q3) Consider the following pairs.

Space Missions Targeted object/region

1. New Horizons : Kuiper Belt

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Learning Zone: The New Horizons mission launched by NASA helps to

OSIRIS-Rex spacecraft was launched by NASA to orbit around the asteroid

Why is this question important?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Learning Zone: The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is

Likely benefits of RCEP for India:

Why is this question important?

1. Each AEZ focuses on a particular produce/product located in a

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Why is this question important?

It is an Act designed to counter the encroaching influence and growing threat

Why is this question important?

Q7) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘ecologically

1. ESA are notified by the Union government under the Environment

Why is this question important?

Recently, a parliamentary committee has said that over 56,000 square

Q8) Consider the following statements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why is this question important?

Q9) Consider the following pairs.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Why is this question important?

Q10) Consider the following statements about ‘Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan

1. It aims to create awareness on health issues and influence the health

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Learning Zone: Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan (SNA) aims at dissemination of

Why is this question important?

Q11) Consider the following statements.

1. The Constitution of India prohibits ‘Begar’ and other similar forms of

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Why is this question important?

Recently, an incident of bonded labour reached the national headlines. 52

Q12) Consider the following pairs.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Why is this question important?

These cities were in news recently.

Learning Zone: Polar vortex is described as a whirling cone of low pressure

Why is this question important?

Q14) ‘Climate Change Performance Index’ (CCPI) is released by which of

Learning Zone: The Climate Change Performance Index is published by

It evaluates and compares the climate protection performance of 56 countries