Dento Gulf

DrMatia’s
DENTO-GULF
FOR GULF COUNTRIES
LICENSING EXAMINATIONS
SAUDI ARABIA (SCFHS) SHARJAH (MOH UAE) DUBAI (DHA)
ABU DHABI (HAAD) QATAR (SCH) OMAN (OMSB)

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46 Model Questions Chapters

4 M ock Test tapers
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(3 5 0 0 Q u e s t io n s & A n s w e r s w ith E x p la n a t io n s )
Mahalingam K
PARAS Medical Books
Dr Maha's
DENTO-GULF
FOR GULF COUNTRIES
LICENSING EXAM INATIONS
Chief Editor
Dr K Mahaltngam
BD S (IND) SCFH S, M SD S (KSA), MBA (IND)
Resrdent Dentist, Ministry Of Interior Hospital, Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
General Dentist Licence Holder in India, Saudi Arabia, UAE
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For Guif Countries Licensing Examinations
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“Saraswathi Namasthubhyam,
Varadey Kaamarupinee!
VidhyarambhamKarishyami,
Sidhir bhavathu mey sada\”
(Meaning : Oh ! Goddess Saraswathi, my humble prostrations unto Thee, who are the fulfiller of all my wishes.
I start my studies with the request that thou will bestow Thy blessings on me)
Dedication
Dedicated to my beloved father
Late. Mr. M. Krishnamoorthy
For his unlimited support, wishes, sacrifices, prayers and dreams.

Gave me education, knowledge, strength and will power
Acknowledgements
I am very much pleased to acknowledge my sincere thanks to all my friends, juniors, seniors, collegemates. relatives,
colleagues and all those who helped me in bringing out this book.
I would like to express my sincere thanks to my friend Dr. Raja Murugan, M BBS, MD (Pulmonology), M R CP (UK) M C EM
(UK) Diploma in ICU (Europe), who helped me a lot with his ideas to shape this book, without his guidance and inspiration
this book would not have been possible.
1am very much thankful to my friend and student Dr. Nidhi Dhamija, MDS (Pedodontics and Preventive Dentistry) who
spent her valuable time in verifying all the questions and answers in this book.
My sincere thanks to my mother Mrs. Indirani Krishnamoorthy, whose unlimited sacrifices, support, prayers and
dreams gave me, strength and energy to write this book.
I am also very much thankful to my wife Mrs.Vanltha Mahalingam, MA, DTEd, whose presence makes my life mean
ingful.
Last, but not the least, I am very much thankful to Mr. Hltesh Kothari and Mr. Atuf Kothari of Paras Medical B ooks Pvt.
Ltd. for his helpful and patient collaboration in bringing out my dream in book format.
Dr. K. Mahalingam
rreiao e
t have always believed in sharing thoughts, experiences, discoveries, news etc. In tact, there is something especially
gratifying in sharing knowledge. And because of this l strongly believe that I would now like to share my knowledge about
Gulf countries licensing examination procedures and questions papers I hope this will be very useful tor the people who
are dreaming about working in gulf countries and earn enough wealth.
A s the earning prospective of dentists in gulf countries are much better than in many developing countries, most of the
dentists from these developing countries dream about working in these gulf countries. But most of them have very little idea
about the registration process and licensing exam in each of these countries. This book will give you all the details of all the
registration process and exam details in each medical council in these gulf countries.
At the begining of 2010, I Dr. K. Mahalingam, a general dentist from Tamilnadu, india got selected for resident dentist job
in Ministry of Interior (MOI) Hospitals, Saudi Arabia. The job interview was conducted by MOI delegates in New Delhi. After
coming to Saudi Arabia for the job. I appeared for the S C F H S licensing exam for Saudi Arabia in 1 month's time, But failed
on that occasion. I came very close to passing margin, but I scored 58%. where the passing percentage is 60%.
After the first attempt, where I came very close to passing but was failed, I searched for the guidance from various
sources, but I couldn't find anything significant which will help me passing this exam. There was no book for the exam like
the one, you are reading now. and there was no syllabus mentioned in any of the licensing website. And the exam did carry
with it the awe of 'high failure rate and aura. The exam was indeed one consisting questions you did not know the answer
too,
After I failed Ihe exam I went through the hard phase of my life where I didn't get any guidance which I needed at that time,
l have left with no idea, how to go about in this exam next time. So I studied all the subject books in dentistry from first year
to final year as I had no clue about what they will ask in the exam. With my hard work of another 1 month's period I finally
passed the exam in my very second attempt with good marks of 70%. Where many of my friends couldn't succeed and had
to leave their job and go back to their home country. All their dreams and hopes were shattered because of the exam results.
At that time I have decided that I should help people who are preparing for various gulf countries dental licencing exams
like me. I developed the idea of surveying successful exam candidates from various gulf countries exams to find out exactly
what was asked in all their exams. It started off with me interviewing colleagues, juniors and seniors and their friends,
relatives, etc, through various sources like facebook, e-mail, phone calls, whats app. etc. This lead to the development of
questionnaire to find out what questions they had been given, what were the correct answers, and which part of the syllabus
they should concentrate the most.
The battle to overcome this obstacle has become a four year epic that took over my life, in which I have cleared all the
licensing exams I appeared in other country medical councils like DHA and M OH UAE. I transformed from green and
inexperienced, to complete expert in everything regarding the dental license exam in Gulf.
I asked all my friends and relatives to report on both their pass and previous failed experiences and the questions. I
based the book on the extensive surveys of candidates who sat in the exams in most Gulf Countries, including Saudi Arabia,
U A E, Oman, Qatar, etc., and then told us exactly what questions appeared in it— the length and breath. This information
turned a list of more than 10000 exam questions, from which I realized many of them where repeated in those country
exams. Finally I included all the questions that has emerged in those exams which turned the list into 46 model question
chapters and 4 mock test papers which comprising 3500 questions with answers and explanations and references where
needed.
The real hard phase in this book writing process is finding correct answers for those 3500 questions. It took great
efforts to search correct answers for each and every question. I have spen! all my leisure hours in my hospital library and
went through all the standard textbooks in dentistry in these 4 years of time in search of correct answers. During my vacation
to India every year I spent maximum days in my university library for finding answers. Whenever I was not able to find the
correct answers for some questions, I have discussed each of those questions with the specialists in relevant field to verify
those answers, with minimum of 3 specialists in each field, before coming to final conclusion.
A crucial part of my 4 years journey that formed the seed that eventually grew into the first edition of this book, was the
realization that in fact behind the mystique' the reality was. that most of the questions were indeed appearing in exams with
over and over again l experienced every manifestation of disaster and eventually triumphed.
Making mistakes u p nature or we humans. Sc ir am sas* tru reader; o true dooi fine aru mistake: n a r a tuesc
answers., please inform me will, the quesnoi ana correc; answer, witr urooe reference boot anr oagt number tc m\ mai
id dentoqulffejtniail.com. We will immediately respond tc your mail and verily those answers and correct il with suitable
answers, so that it will greatly help the future aspirants
J-
□r. K. M ahalingam
How to Use This Book?
My advice to all dentists, those who are reading this book is:
During Registration:
1. Which country you would like to search for the job, or job offer you got. Depending upon that, read the registration
process and procedures first.
2. Follow those procedures and book the exam appointment with your nearby testing center.
3. When you are booking the exam appointment, make sure that you have enough time for preparation. I would advice
minimum of 1 month time period before the exam date, to prepare for the exam very well.
4. In H AAD exam the exam date will be fixed by HAAD, and you might not get enough time to prepare for the exam. So plan
your preparation accordingly, before selecting exam date from the H AAD website.
During preparation lor exam:

1. Study very well all those importanted topics mentioned in this book for the exam preparation. It is advisable to study
those topics from the same book/author which you used during your college days. This will help you to recollect those
topics quite faster.
2. After you complete all the important topics, read all the questions and answers in those 46 M O D E L Q U E S TIO N S
chapters. This will help you getting a good idea about the exams in Gulf Countries.
3. Use those four Mock Test Papers for self-conduct exam.
4. Try to complete each mock test papers in 2 hrs time. This will help you prepare for the exam mentally, then verify your
answers with the key answers. Then calculate your percentage score. This will help you in improving your preparation
for the exams.
During examination:
1. Plan your time properly. Allot enough time for reviewing your answers.
2. Always ensure you read the questions carefully and remain calm. Choose the best answers.
3. First answer those questions which you know 100% answers. Skip the difficult questions and keep those for your final
review.
4. "There are NO N EG ATIVE M A R K S in these licence exam s". So make sure you attempt all the questions in the end of
exam
5. Show your special attention to the questions which contains "EXC EP T”.
6. In answers, make sure you observe those options like "all the above, none of the above,”
No matter how much preparation is done before the exam, there will always be unexpected questions. It is important to
remember that these will be unexpected for the majority of candidates not to panic.
W e will be very much thankful if you share your Gulf license exam experiences, question papers, and also your
advices, ideas, opinions with us through e-mail id dentoqulf@Qmall.com. This will help us to improve our service in
future.
All the Very Best For Your Exams & Bright Future
Dr. K. Mahalingam
Contents
Dedication ................................................................................................................................................................................... iv
Acknowledgement....................................................................................................................................................................... v
P re fa c e ...................................*.......................................................................................................................................................w
How to Use This Book .............................................................................................................................................................. vtii
Section - 1: Registration Process in Gulf Countries

1. Registration Process in Kingdom of Saudi A ra bia :.............................................................. 2
The curicullum covered for Saudi licencing exams as follows:
Recommended book references for general dentistry
List of documents required for S C F H S registration
Registrations methods
Exam result of SC FH S:
2. Registration process in U A E ....................................................................................................................................... 11
i. Ministry of Health (MOH)
The curicullum covered for Ministry of Health (MOH)
Register with MOH to get eligibility number:
List of documents required for M OH registration
Registration process for M OH UAE:
Register with prometric centre for exam
Exam result of MOH UAE:
ii. Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
The curicullum covered for Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
Register with Dubai Health Authority (DHA) to get eligibility number:
List of documents required for D HA registration
Registration process of Dubai Health Authority (DHA):
Register with prometric centre for exam
Exam result of Dubai Health Authority (DHA):
iii. Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD)
Register with Health Authority of AbuDhabi (HAAD) to get eligibility number:
List of documents required for HAAD registration:
Registration process for Health Authority of AbuDhabi (HAAD):
Register with Pearson V U E for HAAD exam:
How H AAD exam for dentist is different from other gulf country exam?
3. Registration Process in Sultanate of Om an......................................................... .................................................... 39
The curriculum covered for O M S B exam
Recommend book References for genera! dentistry
List of documents required for O M S B registration
Registration process of O M SB exam:
Exam results of OMSB:
4. Registration Process in State of Qatar..................................................................................................................... 48
Important topics of S C H test
Recommend book for references
List of documents required for Supreme Council of Health (SCH) registration
Registration process for Supreme Council of Health (SCH) registration:
Exam results of Supreme Council of Health (SCH):
Section - II: Model Question P a p e rs.............................................................................................................................. 69

Section - III: Mock Test P a p e rs..................................................................................... .............................................. 519
I
Registration Process
in G ulf Countries
Section t: R e g istra tio n p ro c e ss in Gulf Countries
1. Registration Process in the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
It is the largest Gulf country. Saudi Commission For Health Specialities (SCFHS) is responsible for
evaluating and classifying all health-related degree holders before permitting them to practice in the
Kingdom. Every dentist who likes to work in Saudi Arabia has to get registered under SCFHS.
Saudi Arabia is the only Gulf country where you can give the exam after joining the work in Saudi Arabia,
provided you clear the exam within a year, with maximum of three attempts. Failing to succeed with in
this 3 attempts will make you, not eligible to work in Saudi arabia. In case you fail in first 2 attempts and
succeed in final attempt, you need to succeed one more additional attempt within a year.
SC FH S partnered with Prometric, a reputable U.S. company, with great experience in computer based
test (CBT) test delivery locally, regionally and internationally conducts the licensing exam for dentists.
This exam can be taken in all Prometric test centres across the world.
The Prometric Exam comprises 70 questions with 2 hours duration and you need a minimum of 60%
marks to pass the exam.
SC FH S provides the convenience of viewing the result and the number of answered question immedi
ately.
The curricullum covered for SCFHS exam is as follows:

Contents of SCFHS Test:
Evaluation Item Content Relative Percentage Passing Score
(70 M CQs, 2 hours) Topics:

1. Basics 5% 60%
2. Diagnostic Sciences 7%
3. Operative Dentistry 15%
4. Endodontics 15%
5. Periodontics 10%
6. Oral Surgery 10%
7. Pediatric Dentistry 15%
8. Prosthodontics 15%
9. Orthodontics 4%
10. Others 4%
Total 100%
Dento-Gulf - F o r Gul‘ Countries Ucensrnc Exam inations

Specialty Recomm end book references for general dentistry
Orthodontics 1. An Introduction to Orthodontics, Laura Mitchell, 3rd ed, 2007,

Oxford: Oxford University Press.
2. Contempoary Orthodontics, William R. Proffit, Henry
W. Fields and David M. Sarver, 4th ed, 2006, Saint Louis: Mosby, Inc.
Restorative Dentistry 1. Textbook of Operative Dentistry/L. Baum, Ralph W. Phillips, Melvin

R. Lund. Philadelphia: Saunders, 1995.
2. Fundamentals of Operative Dentistry: A Contemporary Approach,
Third Edition, Summitt, James B. .Robbins, William J. , Hilton,
Thomas J., Schwartz, Richard S. 3rd ed Quintessence Pub. Co
3. Sturdevant’s Art & Science of Operative Dentistry (Hardcover)
Theodore M. Roberson (Editor), Harold 0 . Heymann(Editor), Edward
J. Swift Jr. (Editor), Mosby
Prosthodontics 1. Removable:
a. Complete Dentures Rahn, Hartwell, 5th ed.
b. Boucher's Prosthodontics Treatment for Edentulous Patients lOêd.
2. Fixed:
a. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodotics, Rosensteil, 4th ed.
b. Fundamenals of Fixed Prosthodontics, Shillinburg, 3rd ed
Periodontics 1. Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, Michael G. Newman DDS,

Henry Takei DDS, Fermin A. Carranza Dr. Odont
2. Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry
Dental Materials 1. Philips Science of Dental Materials: Kenneth J, 11th ed.

Anusavice. Publisher: Elsevier Science
2. Restorative Dental Materials - Robert G. Craig, 12th ed:
C V Mosby, Feb. 2006
3. Notes on Dental Materials, E.C. Combe, Kluwer Academic Publishers
4. Applied Dental Materials. McCabe, John F. Walls, Angus W.G:
Blackwell Pub
Pedodontics 1. Pediatric Dentistry: Infancy Through Adolescence, Pinkham, J.R., 4th

Ed, 2005
2. Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, Macdonald, R.E. and Avery
D.R 8th ed, 2005; Mosby Co, Inc
3. Fundamental of Pediatric Dentistry, Mathewson RJ, Primosch RE,
3rd ed,1995.
O entc-G uV - F or G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

i
Section I: R e g istra tio n p ro c e s s in Gull Countries
Endodontics Enaoaontics. ingel, 6tn ea.

2. Pathways oi tne Dental Pulp, Cohen anc Burns, tOtr. ed.
Oral Medicine and 1. Burket’s Oral Medicine, Lynch. Brightman, Greenburg, 11th ed,
Oral Pathology PMPH USA; 2008
2. A Textbook of Oral Pathology, Shafer W., Hine M. and Levy B.
4th ed, W.B Saunders Co., Philadelphia 2009 Edu.Elsevier India,
New Delhi
Oral Surgery 1. Peterson Principle of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Peterson

2. Local Anesthesia in Dentistry
3. Dental Management of Compromised Patient, James.W. little
and Donald A.Falace
List of documents required for SCFHS registration

1. Complete the professional classification and registration form
2. Notarized identification letter showing the date he/she started working and his/her job title, and certi
fying that he/she holds his/her position to date
3. Copy of the professional license
4. A copy of his/her qualifications and the genuine qualifications
5. Internship certificate (if available)
6. Copies of pre-graduation and post-graduation experience
7. Certificate of registration (if available) or board certificate for practitioners who studied in the Philip
pines
8. Basic Life Support Certificate
9. Insurance against medical errors for physicians and dentists (valid for three years)
10. Copy of passport and residency, for non-Saudis
11. Practitioners above 60 years of age must attach a medical report proving their eligibility to practice
(medical examination form link to be added)
12. Two recent personal photos
13. Fees 1500 Saudi Riyals for general dentist
Registration Methods
There are two ways you can get registered with SCFHS.
The first one is after getting a job in Saudi Arabia in private or government sector you need to go to
SC FH S office in person with all the original documents. After verifying all your documents you will be
provided an eligiblity number. Then with that number you have to register with prometric centre for the
licence exam. You must appear for the first attempt of your exam within 3 months of getting the eligibility
number, failing to do that will result in losing one attempt. In case of failure to pass in first attempt, the
second and third attempts can be tried within a total of one year from the eligibility number.
The second and most easiest way for the dentists from their home countries, who wish to work in Saudi
Arabia is writing the S C FH S Exam by registering in Prometric Centre first. After passing you can search for
a job.
D e n tc -C u l‘ - <=o £>ul' Countries u c e n s in c E xam inations

Considering the number of failures in these exams, nowadays, almost all the employers prefer dentists
who have cleared the S C F H S exam. So if you pass the exam first, you will get a upper hand among others,
those who are trying for the same job. I will guide you in the registration process with following steps.
Step 1:
Search “prometric.com“ in google search engine. Among the search results you can find this webpage
https://www.prometric.com/en-us/Pages/home.aspx
In the search column type “Saudi commission” and then click the go button, like mentioned in the
following diagram.
Step 2:
The search result will show you ‘Saudi com m ission fo r health specialties’. Click on that to proceed
further.
D e n to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

Section I: Registration process In Gulf Countries
Step 3:
The second step will lead you to the official welcome page of S C F H S in Prometric. There you have to
click “schedule my test" to proceed further.
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proceeding further. Then select the country you would like to write the exam from.
e Dento-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

1. Registration Process In the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Step 5:
In the privacy policy review page you have to select "I agree” option and proceed further.
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Step 6:
In this page you have to select which speciality exam you are going to write. For all general dentists
should select the option general dentistry for proceeding further.
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Dento-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

Section I: Registration process in Gulf Countries
Step 7:
This page will help you to find the nearest available Prometric Centres for writing the exam. Type the city
you would like to write the exam in that search colum n.
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Step 8:
Once you find the nearest Prometric Center you should click on “schedule an appointment’’ option.
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Step 9:
in this page agree the prometric biometric consent to proceed further.
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Step 10:
In this page first you should select the month you would like to write the exam (mentioned as 1 in the
Figure). Once you select the month then you will get the options to choose the date you like to write the
exam (mentioned as 2 in the Figure), after selecting the date you have to select the available time for your
exam in the Prometric Test Centre (mentioned as 3 in the Figure). After completing all these steps, you
will go to next page
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Step 11:
In this step you need to give your coned personal details.which will be very crucial in future after passing
the exam.
The next step will be the payment You have to do the payment through credit card. Once you complete
the payment successfully then your appointment for the exam will be completed on the day you selected
on step 10.. you will receive a confirmation mail immediately from Prometric for the appointment confir
mation and also a reminder mail one day before your exam date.
Exam result of SCFHS:

After your Computer Based Test (CBT) in Prometric, the result will be declared immediately.
0 D e n to -G u tt — For Guff Countries Licensing Examinations

2. Registration Process in the United Arab Emirates
The United Arab Emirates is classified as one of the fastest growing developing countries in the world. It
is comprised of seven Emirates under one flag with Abu Dhabi as its capital. The constituent emirates are
Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Dubai, Fujairah, Ras al-Khaimah, Sharjah, and Umm al-Quwain.
UAE comprises of three medical councils.

1. Ministry Of Health (MOH) for Sharjah, Ras al-Khaimah, and Umm al-Quwain
2. Dubai Health Authority (DHA) for Dubai, Fujairah
3. Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD) for Abu Dhabi, Ajman
The exams and the registration process for these three medical councils is completely different from
each other. Unlike Saudi Arabia the exams must to be cleared before you get the licence to practice in
UAE. The registration process of each council will be different.
We will see in detail about each council.
MINISTRY OF HEALTH (MOH)

Ministry Of Health (MOH) conducts its own licencing dentist exam for practicing in Sharjah, Ras al-
Khaimah, and Umm al-Quwain province of UAE.
The curriculum covered for Ministry Of Health (MOH) exam for dentists as follows.
Content of MOH UAE test:
Evaluation Item Content Number of questions '
; (70 MCQs/2 holirs) Topics:

i 1. Basics 4-6
|,T 2. Diagnostic Sciences 4-6
j; . - 3, Operative Dentistry 9-11
4. Endodontics S-10
5. Periodontics 5-7
6. Oral Surgery 5-7
7. Pediatric Dentistry 8-10
8. Prosthodontics 8-10
9. Orthodontics 2-4
10.Others 2-5
Total 70
Dento-Gulf — For Gult Countries Licensing Examinations

Section I: Registration process In Gult^Countries
MOH exam contains 2 parts.

a. Register with MOH to get eligibility number
b. Register with Prometric Centre for exam
Register with MOH to get eligibility number:

When you want to write the MOH U AE exam from your home country, you have to apply online and start
the process.
List of documents required for MOH registration

Scanned copy of your current professional license with attestation
Scanned copy of your degree certificate with attestation
Internship certificate with attestation
Scanned copy of pre-graduation and post-graduation experience certificates with attestation
Good standing certificate from the current working country medical council (not more than 3 months old)
Dataflow verification certificate (if it is available) -------
Scanned copy of passport (all pages)
Two recent personal photos
REGISTRATION PROCESS FOR MOH UAE:

I will explain to you the online registration process for MOH U AE in detail in the following steps.
Step 1:
Search “MOH U AE” in google search engine. You will find the webpage http://www.moh.Qov.ae/en/Paaes/
default.aspx. In that page, click that E-servlces
0 Dento-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

Step 2:
In this page click evaluation for physicians and technicians. Then click evaluation system.
Step 3:
This will open the following page, where you have to select the click here to register
Dento-Gul! - For Gulf Countries Licensing E xa m in a tio n s

Step 4:
This will open the following page, where you have to fill your details for the registration process. This is a
very important stage in registering. You will have to give a username and password for the acoount in this
page after filling all the details.
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Then open your account. That page will guide you in uploading all the required documents neededfor the
registration for MOH UAE exam. After uploading all the details you need to submit.
In any case if you fail to upload the document needed during the evaluation process they will ask you to
submit.
In any case if you do not upload the DATAFLOW verification certificate, then you have to pay for the
DATAFLOW certificate verification process. That will take 30- 60 days to complete. Once you get dataflow
verification certificate, your application will be taken for evaluation purpose. Once your evaluation is
successfully completed you will be provided with Ellglblity Number and First 4 Characters of Your
Last Name
REGISTER WITH PROMETRIC CENTRE FOR EXAM

After getting the eligibility number within 90 days you have to appearforthe Prometric Exam. If you have
failed to do so, your eligibility number will be invalid and you have to re-register in MOH UAE once again.
You will get 3 attempts to give the lioense exam in one year period.

@
i. FiepiEiraiioi Process ir. tru Kmaaoiv o'. Saudi Arabif.
Step 1:
Search “prometric.com" in googie search engine. Among the search results you can find this webpage
https://www.prometric.com/en-us/Paqes/home.aspx
In the search column type “ UAE ministry of health" and then click the go button. (Mentioned in tne
following picture)
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Step 2:
The search result will show you ‘UAE ministry of health’ click on that to proceed further’
FOR TEST TAKERS
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Section !; R e g is tra tio n p ro c e s s in Gulf Countries
Step 3:
The second step will lead you to the official welcome page of UAE ministry of health in Prometric There
you have to click “schedule my test” to proceed further.
Step 4:
That will take you to information review page. Then select NEXT for proceed further
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D e n to -G u ll - For G ulf C o u n trie s L lc e n n in c B xa m in a U o n i

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1. R e gistra tion Process in the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Step 5:
In the privacy policy review page, you have to select "I agree" option to proceed further.
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Step 6:
This will take you to Eliglblity information page. There you have to enter your eligibility number and the
first 4 characters of your last name. Then it will take you to the appointment selection
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D e n to -G u ii - po ’ G u l' C o u n trie s L ic e n s in c e x a m in a tio n s

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Section I; R e g istra tio n p ro cess ir. G uli Countries
Step 7;
In this page you nave to select the country' you wisri to write trie exam. After selecting the country vou car
proceed further by clicking the NEXT.
Step 8;
you would like to write the exam in that search column .
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Step 9:
Once you find the nearest Prometric Center you should click on “schedule an appointment” option
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Step 10:
In this page agree the Prometric biometric consent to proceed further.
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Dento-Gutf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

o
Section 1: R e g istra tio n p ro c e s s in Gulf Countries
Step 11:
Figure). Once you select the month then you will get the options to choose the date you like to write the
exam (mentioned as 2 in the Figure), after selecting the date you have to select the available time for your
exam in the Prometric Test Centre (mentioned as 3 in the Figure). After completing all these steps, you
will lead to next page.
NEW APP0IN1MEHT:
The next step will be the payment. You have to do the payment by credit card. Once you complete the
payment successfully, then your appointment for the exam will be completed on the day you have se
lected in Step 10. You will receive a confirmation mail immediately from Prometric for the appointment
confirmation and also a reminder mail one day before your exam date.
Exam Result of MOH UAE:

After your computer based test (CBT) in Prometric, the Prometric Center will give exam completion
certificate. The result will be declared after 3 to 5 days from MOH. You will receive confirmation of your
exam result at your email id. Even you can check your result in your account page in MOH UAE.
DUBAI HEALTH AUTHORITY (DHA)

Dubai Health Authority (DHA) will conduct its own licencing dentist exam practicing in Dubai, Fujairahirah.
Dubai is one of the most wanted city in the world, for dentists from developing countries to work, because
of its western life style of living.
O e n io -G u if - c or Gut- C o un tries L ic e n s in c E xam ina tions

The curriculum covered for Dubai Health Authority (DHA) exam for dentists is as follows
Content of DHA Test:
I Content Number of questions
Topics:
1. Basics 4-6
2. Diagnostic Sciences 4-6
3. Operative 9-11
4. Endodontics 8-10
S, Periodontics 5-7
6, Oral Surgery 5-7
7, Pediatric Dentistry 8-10
8. Prosthodontics 8-10
9. Orthodontics 2-4
10. Others 2-5
Total 70
Dubai Health Authority (DHA) exam contains 2 parts.

a. Register with DHA to get eligibility number
b. Register with Prometric Centre for exam
Register with Dubai Health Authority (DHA) to get eligibility number:

When you want to write Dubai Health Authority (DHA) exam from your home country, you have to apply
online and start the process.
List of documents required for DHA registration

Scanned copy of your current professional license with attestation
Scanned copy of your degree certificate with attestation
Internship certificate with attestation
Scanned copy of pre-graduation and post-graduation experience certificates with attestation
Good standing certificate from the current working country medical council (not more than 3 months old)
Dataflow verification certificate (if it is available)
Scanned copy of passport (all pages)
REGISTRATION PROCESS OF DUBAI HEALTH AUTHORITY (DHA):

I will explain to you the online registration process for Dubai Health Authority (DHA) in detail by the
following steps.
D e n to -G u lf - Fo: Oui* Countries:- L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

0
Section I: Reoistratior process in Gulf Countries
Step T:
Search. “Dubai Health Authority '' in google search engine. Yol wil fine' the: weDDage nttc:/
www.dha.gov.ae/EN/Paaes/aetault.aspx
In that page, click Licensing Services
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In this licensing service page, you have to select the “new user?” option.
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D em c-G al. - E o‘ S u it C o un tries L ic e rts in c E xam ina tions

Step 3:
This will open new user registration page, where you have to give all your details to open your account in
DHA website.
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After opening your account successfully in DHA website you need to login to your account by using your
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Dento-Gutf - For Gulf Countries Licensing examinations

Step 5:
This will open a separate page, there you have to click on the “professional license" option
This will open a separate window.where you have to fill your details for the registration process. This is a
very important stage in registering.
This page will guide you in, uploading all the required documents needed for the registration for DHA
exam. After uploading all the details you need to submit.
In any case if you fail to upload any document needed during the evaluation process, they will ask you to
submit.
In any case if you do not upload the Dataflow verification certificate, then you have to pay for the Dataflow
certificate verification process. That will take 30-60 days to complete. Once you get dataflow verification
certificate, your application will be taken for evaluation purpose. Once your evaluation is successfully
completed you will be provided, with Eligibllty Number and First 4 Characters of Your Last Name
REGISTER WITH PROMETRIC CENTRE FOR EXAM

After getting the eligibility number, within 90 days you have to appear for the prometric exam. If you fail to
do so, your eligibility number will be invalid and you have to re-register in Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
once again.
You will get 3 attempts to give the license exam in one year period.
Step 1:
Search “prometric.com“ in google search engine. Among the search results you can find this webpage
https://www.prometric.com/en-us/Paaes/home.aSDX

1. R e g is t r a t io n P r o c e s s In th e K in g d o m o f S a u d i A ra b ia
Tn the search column type “Dubai Health Authority ” and then click the go button as mentioned in the
following Figure.
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Step 2:
The search result will show you ‘Dubai Health Authority (DHA)”. Click on that to proceed further.
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Step 3:
The second step will lead you to the official welcome page of Dubai Health Authority (DHA)” in Prometric.
There you have to click "schedule my test” to proceed further.
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Step 4:
That will take you to information review page. Then select N EXT to proceed further.
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Dento-Gult - For Gulf C o u n trie s Licensing E xa m in a tio n s

Step 5:
In the privacy policy review page you have to select “ I agree” option to proceed further.
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This will take you to Eliglbllty Information page. There you have to enter your eligibility number and the
first 4 characters of your last name. Then it will take you to the appointment selection
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In this page you have to selectthe country you wish to write the exam. After selecting the country you can
proceed further by clicking the NEXT
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Step 8:
This page will help you to find the nearest available prometric centres for writing the exam. Type the city
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Dento-Gulf - F o r Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

Step 9:
Once you find the nearest prometric center you should click on “schedule an appointment” option.
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In this page click agree the prometrlc biometric consent to proceed further.
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Dento-Gu/f - F o r Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

Step 11:
Picture). Once you select the month then you will get the options to choose the date you like to write the
exam (mentioned as 2 in the picture). After selecting the date you have to select the available time for
your exam in the Prometric test centre (mentioned as 3 in the picture). After completing all these steps,
you will go to next page.
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payment successfully then your appointment for the exam will be completed on the day you have se
Exam Result of Dubai Health Authority (DHA):

After your computer based test (CBT) in Prometric, the Prometric Center will give exam completion
certificate. The result will be declared after 1 to 2 weeks from D H A . You will receive your confirmation of
exam result to your email id. Even you can check your result in your account page in Dubai Health
Authority (DHA)”
HEALTH AUTHORITY OF ABUDHABI (HAAD)

Abudhabi is the capital city of UAE. Abu Dhabi Emirate is one of the largest employers of health profes
sionals in the Middle East with more than 15,500 doctors, nurses and other clinical staff and administra
tion employees in the public sector and 11500 in the private sector.
The health sector of this province is controlled by Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD). It controls the
medical practice and licensing service of dentists in Abu Dhabi, Ajman province of UAE.
Dgnto-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

HAAD has a partnership with Pearson VUE to conduct the dentist licencing exam. It is one of famous
and reputed companies in computer based test. It has test centers in all the countries, and in major
cities. In the process of writing HAAD exam, you have to preregister with HAAD first. Then you have to
book your appointment with Pearson VUE.
Register with Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD) to get eligibility number:
When you want to write Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD) exam from your home country, you
have to apply online and start the process.
List of documents required for HAAD registration:

All documents must be legally translated into English
Required Documents: Special Considerations I
Staff data form Colored copy to be uploaded online

Filled in English or Arabic
Up-to-date resume Colored copy to be uploaded online

The resume should not be older than three months
High school certificate (Not required for Colored copy to be uploaded online
physicians and pharmacist)
University degree + grades transcripts Colored copy to be uploaded online
Internship certificate Colored copy to be uploaded online
Work licence from the home country or the Colored copy to be uploaded online
country in which the dentist worked
Expertise certificate (if available) Colored copy to be uploaded online

The certificate should be valid, official, signed and
stamped by the medical director or the HR. The
expertise period is calculated starting from the date
the work licence was received
Nomination letter issued from the facility in Printed copy

which the health care professional will be
joining
Good conduct certificate from the home Colored copy to be uploaded online
country or other countries of work The certificate should not be older than three months
Passport and residency visa (if available) Colored copy to be uploaded online
Personal photo The photo should have a white background and

issued in no more than six months
Pearson V U E test result (if available) Colored copy to be uploaded online
Report of the Data Flow company Colored copy to be uploaded online

_JS
Section !: Registration process In Gulf Countries
REGISTRATION PROCESS FOR HEALTH AUTHORITY OF ABU DHABI (HAAD):
! will explain you the online registration process for Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD) in detail in
following steps.
Step 1:
Search “Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD)” in google search engine ,you will find the webpage
http://www.haad.ae/haad/
In that page , click that e- Services
Step 2:
In this e-service page . you have select the “healthcare professionals” option. Then you have to select
“e-licensing” option.
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Step 3:
This will open e-licensing system page, there you have tp select the "login to the e-licensing system”
option.
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Step 4:
This will open separate window in your browser. There you have to select the option “new user”.
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Step 5:
In this page you have to give the details to open your account in HAAD
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After opening your account successfully in HAAD website you need to login to your account by using your
username and password.
This page will guide you in uploading all your required documents, where you have to fill your details for
the registration process. This is a very important stage in registering. Once you complete all your re
quired documents, you have to do payment for submitting your application form
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_______________ 1^ Registration Process In the Kingdom ot Saudi Arabia
Once your application is accepted, you will be eligible for writing the exam. Then you have to check the
examination schedule of HAAD for general dentist in this following page, http://www.haad.ae/haad/tabid/
1 qg/Default.aspx
According to the exam dates you prefer to write the exam, you need to do the payment of 100 A ED in
HAAD website for booking the exam in "payment starts” dates. The payment option will be open only in
those particular dates in your account in HAAD. After you book your exam dates with HAAD, you need to
approach pearson VUE website.
Iwill tell you in detail about Pearson VUE registration in following
REGISTER WITH PEARSON VUE FOR HAAD EXAM

Step 1:
Search “Pearson VUE “ in google search engine. Among the search results you can find this webpage
http ://www.êarsonvue.com/
In that page select the “sign in access your account" option to proceed further.
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Dento-Gulf - For Gulf C o u n trie s Licensing Examinations

Step 2:
In this page you need to select “Health Authority of Abu Dhabi (HAAD)” to select your testing program.
PEARSO N
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Step 3:
This will take you to open page, where you have to select “new users please sign up" option to open a
new account in Pearson VUE
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Step 4:
In this page click “agree the policies" to proceed further.
Step 5:
Fill the required field with all the correct information. Then in that you select “ yes my health authority
abudhabi is” option and enter your HAAD referral number. All your details will appear and you have to
make the payment of 94.59 US dollars as your examination fee through credit card. You will receive a
confirmation mail in your mail id.
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During HAAD examination your have to follow the following instructions strictly
• You must bring your original passport (or other original ID such as Emirates ID, Driving License and
Employment Card) and exam ticket to be allowed into the exam hall. Photocopies of the passport and
other IDs are NOT accepted.
• Please ensure to be present at the specified exam venue at least fifteen ( 15) minutes prior to the time
mentioned in the exam ticket. If you are late, you will not be allowed into the exam hall.
• You must NOT contact the examiners or any other members involved in the exam. All communica
tions must be through Health Authority - Abu Dhabi / Examination Section ONLY. Not abiding by this
rule will invalidate your exam.
• Cancellation of exam booking should be made minimum of 72 hours prior to the exam date. If you fail
to do so, you will not be eligible to sit HAAD Licensure exam before 3 months (NOT applicable for
MCQ exams).
• If HAAD - Exam Section representative is not present for the exam, your exam will be invalidated.
• Mobile phones are NOT allowed in the exam venue.
How HAAD exam for dentists is different from other Gulf Country exam?
1. It contains 150 questions, and the exam duration is 3 hours/180 mins.
2. The exam dates for dentist will be scheduled by HAAD. In other Gulf Country exams, candidate can
select the dates according to his own convenience.
3. After completing the HAAD exam in Pearson VUE, the result will appear immediately. But it will show
only either the candidate is PA SS or FAIL. No details of marks or passing percentage will appear.
4. If you pass the written exam in Pearson VUE, then you have to go to Abu Dhabi to attend the oral
exam within 3 days. That dates also will be selected by HAAD.(HAAD has to conduct written CBT
exam and also oral exams).
0 D e n to -G u tf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
3. Registration Process in Sultanate of Oman
The Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB) was established by Sultanate of Oman on April 2, 2006.
The OM SB is an independent body, located in Muscat. The OMSB is tasked with formulating proper
standards and criteria for practicing and developing the health care professions.
The curriculum covered for OMSB exam for dentist is as follows:

Contents of OMSB test:
Content Relative Percentage i
Topics:
1. Basics 5%
3. Operative 15%
4. Endodontics 15%
5. Periodontics 10%
6. Oral Surgery 10%
9. Orthodontics 4%
10. Others 4%
Total 100%
Specialty Recommended book references fo r general dentistry jj

Orthodontics An Introduction to Orthodontics, Laura Mitchell, 3rd ed, 2007, Oxford:
Oxford University Press.
Contempoary Orthodontics, William R. Proffit, Henry W. Fields and David M,
Sarver 4th ed. 2006, Saint Louis: Mosby, Inc.
Restorative Textbook of Operative Dentistry/L. Baum, Ralph W. Phillips, Melvin R. Lund.

Dentistry Philadelphia: Saunders, 1995.
Fundamentals of Operative Dentistry: A Contemporary Approach, Summitt,
Jam es B. .Robbins, William J . , Hilton, Thomas J . , Schwartz, Richard S.
3rd ed, Quintessence Pub. Co
Sturdevanfs Art & Science of Operative Dentistry (Hardcover) byTheodore M.
Roberson (Editor), Harold O. Heymann (Editor), Edward J. Swift Jr. (Editor)
P Mosby
__________________________________________________________________
D en to -G u lf - F or G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
S e c t io n 1: R e g is t r a t io n p r o c e s s in G u lf C o u n t r ie s
Prosthodotnics Removable:
Complete Dentures, Rahn, Hartwell, 5th ed.
Boucher's prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients 10th ed.
Fixed:
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodotics, Rosensteil, 4th ed.
Fundamenals of Fixed Prosthodontics, Shillinburg, 3rd ed.
Periodontics Carranza's Clinical Periodontology by Michael G. Newman DDS, Henry Takei

DDS, Fermin A. Carranza Dr. Odont
Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry
Dental Materials Philips Science of Dental Materials: Kenneth J. Anusavice, 11th ed.
P: Elsevier Science
Restorative Dental Materials - 12th Ed. Robert G. Craig Publisher: CV Mosby,
Feb. 2006
Notes on Dental Materials - E.C. Combe Publisher Kluwer Academic
Publishers
Applied Dental Materials. McCabe, John F. Walls Angus W. GPublishers:
Blackwell Pub
Pedodontics Pediatric Dentistry Infancy Through Adolescence Pirikharn, J.R., 4th ed,
2005
Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent: Macdonald, R.E. and Avery, D.R 8th ed,
2005; Mosby Co,Inc
Fundamental of Pediatric Dentistry: Mathewson RJ.Primosch RE, 3rd ed,
1995
Endodontics Endodontics, Ifgel, 6th ed.

Pathways of the Dental Pulp, Cohen and Burns, 10th ed.
Oral Medicine and Burkefs Oral Medicine Lynch, Brightman.Greenburg, 11th ed,
Oral Pathology PM PH USA; 2008
A Textbook of Oral Pathology Shafer W., Hine M. and Levy B.
4th ed, W B Saunders Co., Philadelphia 2009 Edu.Elsevier India, New Delhi
Oral Surgery Peterson Principle of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Peterson

Local Anesthesia in Dentistry
Dental Management of Compromised Patient: James.WJittle and Donald
AFalace

List of documents required for OMSB registration

Complete the Professional Classification and Registration Form
Copy of the professional license
A copy of his/her qualifications and genuine qualifications
Internship certificate
Copies of pre-graduation and post-graduation experience
Certificate of registration
Basic Life Support Certificate
Insurance against medical errors for physicians and dentists
Copy of passport
For practicing in Oman it is a must for every dentist to pass the O MSB Exam. Considering the number of
failures in these exams, nowadays almost all the employers prefer dentist who has cleared the OM SB
exam. So if you pass the exam first, you will have an advantage in the selection process among others,
those who are trying for the same job. I will guide you the registration process by the following steps
REGISTRATION PROCESS OF OMSB EXAM:

Step 1:
Search "prometric.com" in google search engine. Among the search results you can find this webpage
https://www.prometric.com/en-us/Pages/horne.aspx
In the search column type "oman" and then click the go button as mentioned in the following picture.

Step 2:
The search result will show you 'OMAN MEDICAL SPECIALTY BOARD'. Click on that to proceed
further.
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Step 3:
The second step will lead you to the official welcome page of O M SB in prometric. There you have to click
"schedule my test" to proceed further.
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Q r- Dento-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

Step 4:
That will take you schedule /reschedule page. Then select the country you would like to write the exam
from.
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SCHEDULE / RESCHEDULE
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Step 5:
In this page select NO option and proceed further.

Step 10:
In this page agree the prometric biometric consent to proceed further
NEW APPOINTMENT
E d n ss
Step 11:
picture). Once you select the month then you will get the options to choose the date you like to write the
exam (mentioned as 2 in the picture), after selecting the date you have to select the available time for
your exam in the Prometric Test Center (mentioned as 3 in the picture). After completing all these steps,
you will lead to next page
NEWAPPOINTMENT;
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Step 12:
In this step you need to give your correct personal details, which is very crucial in future after passing the
exam.
payment successfully then your appointment for the exam will be completed on the day you have se
Exam results of OMSB:

After your computer based test (CBT) in Prometric, the result will be declared immediately.
4. Registration Process in the State of Qatar
State of Qatar is one of the richest countries in gulf. The Supreme Council of Health (SCH) is the
highest medical council in Qatar to control the registration process of dentists, it has partnered with
Prometric MENA to provide computer based medical licensing examinations to assess the competency
of health practitioners seeking registration and licensure in the State of Qatar. Candidates will be able to
attend for an examination at any of Prometric’s 10000 test centres in 164 countries around the world.
The currlcullum covered for SCH exam for dentists is as follows

Important Topics of SCH test
Content Relative Percentage j
Topics:
1. Basics 5%
3. Operative Dentistry 15%
4. Endodontics 15%
5. Periodontics 10%
6. Oral Surgery 10%
9. Orthodontics 4%
10. Others 4%
Total 100%
I Specialty Recomm ended book for References I
Orthodontics An Introduction to Orthodontics, Laura Mitchell, 3rd ed, 2007, Oxford:

OxfoFd University Press.
Contempoary Orthodontics, William R. Proffit, Henry W. Fields

and David M. Sarver, 4th ed, 2006, Saint Louis: Mosby, Inc.
Restorative Textbook of Operative Dentistry/L. Baum, Ralph W. Phillips, Melvin R. Lund.

Dentistry Philadelphia: Saunders, 1995.
Fundamentals of Operative Dentistry: A Contemporary Approach, Summitt,

James B., Robbins, William J . , Hilton, Thomas J . , Schwartz, Richard S.
3rd ed, Quintessence Pub. Co
D e n to -Q u lt - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Sturdevant's Art & Science of Operative Dentistry (Hardcover) Theodore M.

Roberson (Editor), Harold 0. Heymann(Editor), Edward J. Swift Jr. (Editor)
Mosby
Prosthodotnics Removable:
Complete Dentures, 5th ed, Rahn, Hartwell.
Boucher's Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients, 10th ed.
Fixed:
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodotics, Rosensteil, 4th ed.
Fundamenals of Fixed Prosthodontics, Shillinburg, 3rd ed.
Periodontics Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, Michael G. Newman DDS, Henry Takei DDS,
Fermin A. Carranza Dr. Odont
Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry
Dental Materials Philips Science of Dental Materials: Kenneth J. Anusavice. 11th ed,
Elsevier Science
Restorative Dental Materials, Robert G. Craig, 12th ed, C V Mosby, Feb.

2006
Notes on Dental Materials - E.C. Combe: Kluwer Academic Publishers

4 -Applied Dental Materials. McCabe, John F. Walls, Angus W.G.,
Blackwell Pub
Pedodontics Pediatric Dentistry: Infancy Through Adolescence, Pinkham, J.R., 4th ed, 2005
Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent:Macdonald,R.E.AND Avery, D.R 8th ed,
2005; Mosby Co,Inc
Fundamental of Pediatric Dentistry: Mathewson RJ, Primosch RE, 3rd ed,

1995
Endodontics Endodontics, Ingel, 6th ed.
Pathways of the Dental Pulp, Cohen and Bums, 10th ed.
Oral Medicine and Burkefs Oral Medicine by Lynch, Brightman, Greenburg, 11th ed,
Oral Pathology PMPH USA;200B
A Textbook of Oral Pathology, Shafer W., Hine M. and Levy B. 4th ed,
W.B Saunders Co., Philadelphia 2009 Edu.Elsevier India, New Delhi
Oral Surgery Peterson Principle of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery By Peterson
Local Anesthesia in Dentistry
Dental Management of Compromised Patient: James.W.little and Donald

A. Falace
-D en to -G■u lf -
- For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n sin g E x a m in a tio n s
A -■1
List of documents required for Supreme Council Of Health (SCH) registration

• Curriculum vitae (CV)
• Copy of valid passport + Page of valid residency (if a n y )
• Two recent photos
• Letter from the potential employer in the State of Qatar
• Copy of proof of submission to the verification company
• Original certificate of good standing, must be sent directly from the registration authority of the last 5
years of work experience, to: Registration Section, Medical Licensing, Supreme Council of Health,
P.O.Box: 7744
• Copy of all Academic Certificates
- Bachelor Degree or its equivalent + Official Transcript + Internship
- Master Degree or its equivalent
- Doctoral Degree or its equivalent
• Copy of all work experience certificates
• Copy of valid medical license or registration from home country and medical licenses accompanying
the required years of work experience.
For practicing in Qatar it is a must for every dentist to pass the Supreme Council of Health (SCH)
exam. Considering the number of failures in these exams nowadays almost all the Qatari employers
prefer dentists who has cleared the Supreme Council of Health (SCH) exam. So if you pass the exam
before finding the job, it will help you to get the job easily and quickly.
Registration process for Supreme Council of Health (SCH) registration:

I will guide you the registration process with following steps.
Step 1:
Search “ prom etric.com ” in google search engine. Among the search results you can find this webpage
https://www.prometric.com/en-us/Pages/home.aspx.
In the search column type “qatar” and then click the go button like mention in the following diagram.
Step 2:
The search result will show you “supreme co uncil o f health Qatar testing” click on that to proceed
further
FOR TEST T A K E R S :
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Step 3:
The second step will lead you to the official welcome page of Supreme Council of Health (SCH) in
Prometric. There you have to click “schedule my test" to proceed further.
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Step 4:
That will take you schedule /reschedule page. Then select the country you would like to write the exam
from.
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Step 5:
In this page select N EXT option and proceed further.
PRO M ETRIC
D en to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s

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Step 6:
In this page select NO option and proceed further.
NEW APPOINTMENT:
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In the privacy policy review page you have to select “I agree” option and proceed further.
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The next step will be the payment. You have to do the 200 US dollars payment by credit card. Once you
complete the payment successfully then your appointment for the exam will be completed on the day you
have selected in Step 10. You will receive a confirmation mail immediately from Prometric for the appoint
ment confirmation, and also a reminder mail one day before your exam date.
Exam results of Supreme Council of Health (SCH):

After your Computer Based Test(CBT) in prometric, The result will be declared immediately.
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IMPORTANT TOPICS TO STUDY
Study very well all the important topics mentioned for the dental licence exam preparation. My personal
advice is to study those topics from the same book/author which you used to study during your college
days. This will help you to recollect those topics quite faster.
Anatom y
Suggested textbooks for reference:
• Gray’s Anatomy - Head and Neck
• Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students
• Orban's Oral Histology and Embryology
Key topics to remember

1. Muscles of mastication
2. Muscles of facial expression
3. Bones
a. Mandible
b. Maxilla
c. Zygoma
4. TMJ
5. Foramens
a. Ovale
b. Mylohyoid
c. Rotundum
d. Infraorbial
6. Nerves
a. Facial nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
7. Tongue
8. Salivary glands
9. Maxillary antrum
10. Ligaments
P hysiology
• Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology
• Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology
0 D e n to -G u tf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

1. GIT system
2. Kidney function
3. Nervous system
Dental Materials
m Phillips Science of Dental Materials
• Craig's Restorative Dental Materials

1. GIC cements
2. Composite
3. Amalgam
4. Varnish
5. Impression materials
6. Ceramic
7. Calcium hydroxide
8. H20 2
9. Guttapercha
10. MTA
11. AH26
12. Burs
Em bryology & Oral H istology

• Orban's Oral Histology and Embryology
• Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion

1. Pharyngeal arches
2. Tooth development stages
3. Enamel
4. Dentin
5. Pulp
6. Cementum
7. Periodontal ligament
8. Tooth eruption time periods
Q
Pathology
• Robbin’s Basic Pathology

1. Abcess formations
2. Calcification
3. Tuberculosis
4. AIDS
5. Hepatitis
6. Syphilis
M icrobiology
• Cowan’s Microbiology
• Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology

1. Sterilization
2. Immunoglobulins
3. Streptococcus mutans
4. Streptococcus salivaris
5. Lactobacillus
6. HIV virus
7. E.coli
B iochem istry
• Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry
• Lippincott's Illustrated Reveiws Biochemistry

1. Vitamin K
2. Proteins
3. Minerals
• Sodium
• Potassium
• Fluorine
• Chlorine
4. Energy cycle
5. Aminoacids
6. Normal values of blood and its substances
Pharm acology
• Waller’s Medical Pharmacology and Therapeutics
• K.D.Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology

1. Antibiotics
2. NSAIDs
3. Antifungal
4. Antiviral
5. Disinfection solutions
6. Steroids
7. Cholinergic, anticholinergic drugs
8. Local anesthesia
9. General anesthesia
10. Sedative drugs
General M edicine
• Taylor’s Family Medicine Principles and Practice
• Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine
• Burket's Oral Medicine

1. HIV
2. Syphilis
3. Tuberculosis
4. Hepatitis A, B & C
5. Diabetics
6. Hypertension
7. Hypotension
8. Bleeding disorders
9. Cerebral palsy
10. Sickle cell anemia
11. Blood test
General Surgery
• Kirby's General Surgery Principles and Practice

1. Cardiac problems
2. Vasovagal shock
3. Anaphylaxis
4. Biopsy
O ral Pathology
• Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Oral cyst
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Radicular cyst
c. Periapical cyst
d. Static bone cyst
e. Naso palatine cyst
3. Syndromes
a. Teacher Collin’s syndrome
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Down syndrome
d. Van de woudy syndrome
e. Peterson Kelly syndrome
f. Cliedocranial dysplasia
4. Salivary gland disorders, infections
5. Pleamorphic adenoma
6. Bells palsy
7. Trigeminal neuralgia
8. Tooth development abnormalities
9. Oral lesions
10. Pigmented lesion of oral mucosa
11. Benign oral tumors
12. Premalignant oral lesions
13. Malignant oral tumors
14. Candidiasis
Com m unity D entistry

• Soban Peter's Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry
• Park’s Textbook of preventive and social medicine
• Burt’s Dentistry - Dental Practice and the Community

1. Fluorides
2. Dental ethics
3. Pit and fissure sealents
4. Caries prevention
Prosthodontics
• Winkler's Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontics
• Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics
• Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics
• McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics
• Deepak Naliaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics

1. Complete dentures
a. Impression materials
b. Acrylic
c. Impression making
d. Complete denture fabrication
2. Removable partial dentures
a. RPD types
b. Kennedy's classification
c. Impression materials
d. Parts of RPD
3. Fixed partial Dentures
a. Impression materials
b. Parts of FPD
c. Tooth preparation
d. PFM crown
e. Ceramic crown
f. GO LD crown
g. Laboratory procedures of FPD
h. Ponies
i. Luting cement
4. Surveyor
5. Vineering
6. Complete denture post insertion problem and managements
7. RPD post insertion problem and managements
8. Implant
9. Preprosthetic surgeries
Oral M edicine & Radiology

• White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology
• Goaz and White Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation

1. IOPA
2. O PG
3. RVG
4. X-ray radiation effects
5. Radiological differentiation of oral carcinomas
6. TMJ radiographs
7. Various x-ray techniques
Oral Surgery
• Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
• Laskin's Clinician's Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
• Neelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
• Malamed's Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office
• Malamed's Local Anesthesia
• Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain Control in General Practice

1. LA composition
2. Nerve block Injection techniques
3. Complications
4. Surgical instruments
5. Extraction procedures
6. Impaction surgeries
7. Periapical surgeries
8. Preprosthetic surgeries
9. Oro andral fistula
10. Space infections
11. Lymphatic drainage
12. Fractures and managements
a. Le Forte I, II, III
b. Mandible
0 D e n to -G u tf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
c. Zygoma
d. Condylar
13. Ankylosis of TMJ
14. Suture materials
15.Suture methods
16. Post operative complications and management
17. G rafts
Conservative Dentistry
• Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry
• Ralph’s Textbook of Operative Dentistry

1. GIC restorations
2. Composite restorations
3. Amalgam restorations
4. Temporary restorations
5. Onlay
6. Inlay
7. Rubber dam
8. Restorative instruments
9. Tooth bleeching
10. Luting cements
11. Burs
12. Bases and liners
Endodontics
• Grossman’s Endodontic Practice
• Ingle's Endodontics

1. Pulp pathology and physiology
2. Bacteria in RC
3. Antibiotics used in RCT
4. Endodontic management of trauma in:
a. Primary teeth
b. Permanent teeth
5. RC treatment techniques
6. Various obturation methods
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s 0
7. Post and core

8. Apexification
9. Pulpotomy
10. Retrograde filling
11. MTA
12. Ca(OH)2
13. Fracture root
14.Instrument breakage
O rthodontics
• Proffit's Contemporary Orthodontics
• Bhalaji Orthodontics - the Art and Science

1. Classification of malocclusions
2. Cephalogram studying
3. Growth of mandible and maxilla
4. Growth spurts
5. Bone formation
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
6. Oral habits
7. Habit breaking appliance
8. Removable appliances
Pedodontics
• Pinkham, Pediatric Dentistry
• Shoba Tandon, Textbook of Pedodontics
• Damles’ Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry
• Mcdonald’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent

1. Pulpotomy
2. Patient management
3. Child behavior management
4. Habit breaking appliance
5. Space maintainers
6. Fluorosis
& D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

7. Management of trauma
a. Avulsion
b. Fracture
c. Discolouration
d. Ankylosis of tooth
e. Space loss
Periodontics
• Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology
• Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry

1. Periodontal instruments
2. Periodontal anatomy and structures
3. OHI
4. Periodontal surgeries
5. Calculus
6. Plaque
7. Gingivitis
8. ANUG
9. Periodonititis
10. Implants
11. Bone graft
12. Brushing methods
D en to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s

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68
Model Question Papers
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1
This book contains a total of 3500 questions, which are divided into 46 model questions chapters and 4
mock test papers for the purpose to make it easy for the candidates to study. Each chapter contains 70
questions from diffrent topics to simulate the real exam question papers which is frequently asked In Gulf
Countries licence examination.
I would advice the candidates to read the list of important topics which is given In this book first before
they start reading this questions and answers.
Study all these questions carefully, most of the questions were frequently asked in many of the licence
exams in Gulf Countries.
1. A 4 year old patient visits your hospital after bicycle accident. In the clin ical examination you
found the prim ary tooth intruded in to the perm anent follicle. What is the effect it will cause to
perm anent tooth?
a. Dens in dente b. Dens evangenatus
c. Tumer’s hypoplasia d. Ankylosis
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology 4th, ed, p 55
The traumatized tooth, which is usually a maxillary central incisor, is pushed into the developing tooth
underneath it and consequently affects the formation of enamel.
2. How will you avoid the occlu sal force, which will affect the abutment tooth o f distal extension
RPD?
a. Stress breaker b. Minor connectors
c. Major connectors d. Occlusal rest
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics, p 61
3. Bundles of well formed collagen fibres with a scattering of fibriocytes and a variable vascu
larity are seen in which tumors of gingival?
a. Fibroma. b. Papilloma.
c. Peripheral giant cell granuloma. d. Central giant cell granuloma.
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, p 384
A n s: 1.c, 2.d, 3.a
D e n to -G u lf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations

Paper 1
4. A 55 year o ld patient visits your clin ic with the com plaint in his new com plete denture, which
was done som ew here else. When you have examined, you found that there is an absence o f
overjet in posterior tooth in com plete denture, so the teeth are in edge to edge contact. What
will be the discom fort the patient is going through with that denture?
a. Cheek bite b. Nausea
c. Speech problem d. Swallowing problem
Cheek bit happens in complete denture due to inadequate horizontal overlap.
5. Which o f the follow ing ways create gingival deform ities that require gingivoplasty to elim i
nate the defects?
a. Erosive lichen planus. b. Desquamative gingivitis,
c. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis. d. Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis.
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, p 750, 751
6. Am eloblastom a can occu r from which of the following cysts ?
a. Dentigerous cyst b. Odontogenic keratocyst.
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst. d. Periapical cyst
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, p 5-361
Article: British Dental Journal
Spontaneous regression of bilateral dentigerous cysts associated with impacted mandibular 3rd molar
moiar. Ameloblastomas are often associated with the presence of unerupted teeth. Radiographically,
it appears as a lucency in the bone of varying size and features— sometimes it is a single, well-
demarcated lesion whereas it often demonstrates as a multiloculated "soap bubble" appearance.
Resorption of roots of involved teeth can be seen in some cases, but is not unique to ameloblastoma.
The disease is most often found in the posterior body and angle of the mandible, but can occur
anywhere in either the maxilla or mandible.
Ameloblastoma is often associated with bony-impacted wisdom teeth— one of the many reasons
some dentists recommend having them extracted.
7. Implant is contraindicated in patient with:
a. Smokers b. Diabetic patient
c. HIV patient d. Hepatitis patient
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, p 447
8. Fo r the elucidation of causal factors, what is m ost important?
a. Point prevalence b. Period prevalence
c. Proportional rates d. Incidence
Reference: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p 55
9. Mixed dentition period in children occu r inbetween the eruption o f following teeth:
a. First permanent molar and canine b. First permanent molar and premolar
c. Canine and second permanent molar d. First permanent molar and third molar
Reference: McDonald’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent
A n s: 4.a, 5.d, 6.a, 7.c, 8.d, 9.b
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions

-o
Section II: Model Question Papers
10. C lin ica l feature ofh erp atic type I is:

a Ulcers b. Cold sores
c. Chancre d. Bullous
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology
Cold sores or fever blisters, is an infection of the face or mouth.
11. Proxim al caries occu rs in:
a Contact area b. Gingival
c. Above the contact area d. Below the contact area
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry
12. In periapical root resection surgery, the biocom pactible shape o f root resection is:
a Perpendicular to the long axis of the root, b. Acute angle to the long axis of the root
c. Parellel to the root d. Obtuse angle to the root
Reference: Laskin's Clinician's Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
The angulation should be 0 - 1 0 degree from the long axis of the root.
13. A bou t caries, a ll are true except:
a Lactobacillus is main causative organism in plaque.
b. Smooth surface caries occur due to Streptococcus mutans.
c. Pit and fissure can be protected by using pit and fissure cements.
d. Fluoride helps in reducing caries incidence.
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 95
14. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of:
a. Mandibular nerve b. Posterior mandibular alveolar nerve,
c. Anterior mandibular alveolar nerve d. Maxillary nerve
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students
The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular
nerve, which is itself the third branch (V3) of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).
15. A child with caries in the incisors, we call this caries as:
a. Rampant caries b. Nursing caries
c. Children caries d. Arrested caries
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. p 94
Nursing caries occur in children, who use feeding bottle. The most affected teeth are maxillary inci
sors.
16. Which o f following restoration is m ore likely to cause wear to opposing tooth?
a. Composite b. Gold
c. Porcelain d. Amalgam
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics
A n s: 10.b, 11.d, 12.b, 13.a, 14.a, 15.b, 16.c
0 D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 1
17. Which o f the follow ing antibodies act b y inhibiting cell wall syn th esis?
a. Cefepime b. Amino glycosides
c. Erythromycin d. Doxycycline
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p 5-663
18. In weeping canal we use:
a. Guttapercha b. CaOH
c. Formocresol d. ZnO Eug
Reference: Clinical Endodontics, Tronstad, p 224
Calcium hydroxide in weeping canals
Sometimes a tooth undergoing root canal treatment shows constant clear or reddish exudate asso
ciated with periapical radiolucency. Tooth can be asymptomatic or tender on percussion. When opened
in next appointment, exudate stops but it again reappears in the next appointment. This is known as
“weeping canal”.
In these cases tooth with exudates is not ready for filling, since culture reports normally show nega
tive bacterial growth. So, antibiotics are of no help. For such teeth dry the canals with sterile absorbant
paper points and place calcium hydroxide in canal. It happens because pH of periapical tissues is
acidic in weeping stage which gets converted into basic pH by calcium hydroxide.
19. A ch ild 6 years o ld having thumb su ckin g problem, brought b y h is parents to you, and it
already caused dental problem to that patient. What will you d o?
a. Nothing to do, because its normal b. Psychological treatment
c. Advise the patient d. Early habit breaking appliance
20. What is the forceps that is used to grasp epulis fissuratum during surgical procedure ?
a. Allis forceps. b. Addison forceps
c. Still’s forceps d. Curved hemostat
Allis forceps is used for removal of epulis fissuratum.
Addson forceps is used to hold soft tissue, flaps etc, ruptured cyst during removal of third molar,
curved hemostat for holding needles.
21. Twins cam e to you r clinic during routine examination; you found great change in behavior
between both of them. This is due to:
a. Gender b. Environment
c. Maturation d. None
Reference: Mcdonald's Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent
http://soclal.jrank.org/pages/666/Twin-Studies.html
Human twins are of two basic types: monozygotic (or identical) twins resulting from a single ovum
fertilized by a single sperm, and dizygotic (or fraternal) twins resulting from fertilization of two ova by
two sperms.
A n s: 17.a, 18.b, 19.d, 20.a, 21.b
B e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
It also follows that difference between monozygotic twins result from environmental differences
whereas those between dizygotic twins result from differences in both heredity and environment.
22. Rubber dam application in a patient during endodontic treatment is important, because it will:
a. Improves safety b. Looks scientific
c. Improves suction d. provide sterile field
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p 2220
23. A child with vesicle on the hard palate, with history o f m alaise for 3 days. What is the possible
diagnosis
a Herpes simplex infection. b. Erythematic multiform
c. Apthous ulcer d. Traumatic ulcer
Herpes simplex infection. (Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis) The symptoms can be mild or severe
and may include:
• Not able to chew or swallow
• Sores on the inside of the cheeks or gums
• fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache
• General discomfort, uneasiness, or ill feeling
• Very sore mouth with no desire to eat
• Halitosis (bad breath)
24. When you are doing the preparation of g old crown with excepts o f gingival rescission the
m ost proper way to extent the preparation is:
a. 1 mm under the gingival margin b. Make it on the fifth
c. Make it on the third d. At the gingival
25. Gentotoxicity tests com e under:
a. Primary tests b. Secondary tests
c. Preclinical usage tests d. None of the above
Reference: Phillips, Science of Dental Materials, p 11-174
26. Acceptable am ount o f daily wear of amalgam from the amalgam restoration ingested in the
body is:
a. 1-3 pg /day of mercury b. 10-15 pg /day of mercury
c. 25 pg /day of mercury d. 50 pg /day of mercury
27. Enzym e that regulates the conversion o f ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
a Alcohol dehydrogenase b. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
c. Catalase d. Xanthine oxidase
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, p 27-225
28. After a patient came to you r clinic and gave you the sym ptom s and history and com plaints,
what’s your next ideal step in treatment p ro cess?
a. Clinical examination b. Start endo
c. Restore the teeth d. Take X-ray
A n s: 22.a, 23.a, 24.a, 25.a, 26.a, 27.a, 28.a
D e n lo -G u lf ~ F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 1
29. A patient cam e to you with pain on tooth num ber 15. TN s tooth underwent with R C T 10 days
back, but he still has pain on percussion. What do you su sp ect?
a. Primary apical periodontitis b. Secondary apical periodontitis
c. Over instrumentation d. Over medicate
30. The m uscle responsible for grinning o f face is:
a. Mentalis b. Risorius
c. Zygomaticus major d. Platysma
Reference: Chaurasia-Anatomy for Dental Students, p 171
31. A child, 8 years old, patient with separation, he is unable to name color or h is name. This
stage is likely to be:
a. 3 years old b. 4 years old
c. 10 years old d. 6 years old
32. You extracted a tooth with large amalgam restoration. How do you manage to d isp ose the
extracted tooth?
a. Autoclave and deep buried b. Sharp container
c. Ordinary waste container d. Container designed not to be burned
Container designed not to be burned, because to avoid mercury toxic vapor.
33. A 50 years old b la ck m an visits yo u r clin ic for replacing h is m issing anterior teeth. B u t he
wants to have very white teeth in h is new denture. What sh ou ld you do:
a. Place the white teeth
b. Show the patient the suitable color first, then show him the white one
c. Convince him by showing him other patient's photos
d. Tell him firmly that his teeth color is good
Reference: Complete Dentures, 17th ed, p 73-74
34. Oral lesion s apthous ulcers, herpes labialis, h airy leukoplakia can be seen first in which stage
o f HIV d isease?
a. Initial infection b. Early HIV disease
c. Intermediate HIV disease d. Late HIV disease
Reference: Damles’ Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p 481
35. Cracked tooth syndrom e is best diagnosed by?
a. Radiograph b. Subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion
c. Palpation and vertical percussion d. Pulp testing
Reference: Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry, 8th ed, Oxford p 213
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed, p 260
A n s : 29.b, 30.b, 31 .a, 32.d, 33.c, 34.b, 35.b
36. Hunter Schruger bands are white and dark lines that appear in:
a. Enamel-when viewed in horizontal ground b. Enamel-when viewed in longitudinal ground
c. Dentin-when viewed in horizontal ground d. Dentin-when viewed in longitudinal ground
37. Localized aggressive periodontitis is associated with:
a. A. Actinomycetem comitans b. P. gingivalis
c. Defective neutrophil function d. A and C
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 10th ed, p 129
38. A patient returns to y o u r clin ic one day after the insertion o f com plete denture com plaining o f
dysphasia and ulcers. What is the cause o f dysphasia?
a. Over extended b. Over post dammed
c. Under extended d. Under post dammed
39. A young patient came to your clin ic with sw elling in the m andible 36, 37, 38 area. In clin ical
examination 3rd molar is m issing, in X-ray examination we found radiolucent cover the peri-
coronal part of the 3rd molar. What will be yo u r diagnosis?
a. Dentigerous cyst b. Central hemangioma
c. Periradicular cyst d. Eruption cyst
Dentigerous cysts are often associated with impacted mandibular 3rd molar.
40. A n adult, 20 years m ale cam e to yo u r hospital with soft tissue and dental trauma. He reveals
severe pain in soft tissues with lo s s of epithelial layers and the clin ical examination show s
anterior upper centrals are intruded. What is the diagnosis?
a. Abrasion with luxation b. Erosion with sub luxation
c. Laceration with luxation d. Laceration with sub luxation
41. Flush terminal plane will m ost likely result in:
a. Class I occlusion b. Class II occlusion
c. Class III occlusion d. Any of the above
Reference: Damle's Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p 119
42. A patient com plains from sw elling in subm andibular. Sw elling increases when the patient is
eating and swallowing only. What type o f x-ray is use for diagnosis:
a. Occlusal x-ray b. Panoramic x-ray
c. Sialography d. Intro oral periapical x-ray
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed, p 23
43. Parotid glands d u ct opens inside the mouth, opposite to:
a Maxillary premolar b. Maxillary 1st molar
c. Maxillary 2nd molar d. Mandibular 1st molar
Reference: Chaurasia's Anatomy for Dental Students
A n s: 36.b, 37.d, 38.a, 39.a, 40.c, 41 .a, 42.c, 43.c
Paper 1
44. Stock trays com pared to custom m ade trays in rem ovable partial denture im pression mak
ing:
a. Custom trays less effective than stock trays.
b. Custom trays can record an alginate impression as well as elastomeric impression.
c. Custom trays provide even thickness of impression material.
d. All of the above.
45. Octreotide is a long acting synthetic analogue of:
a. Prolactin b. Growth hormone
c. Somatostatin d. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
Reference: K.D.Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 217
46. Proxy brush will be used in which type o f furcation:
a. I b. D
c. Ill d. IV
47. A patient is diagnosed for ceramom etal full veneer. You have planned to u se epoxy resin for
im pression making. What's the best im pression m aterial to be used in this case?
a. Poly ether b. Poly sulfide
c. Agar agar d. Irreversible hydrocolloid
48. The com position o f the plaque formed on a ll types o f restorative m aterials is sim ilar except:
a. Self curing acrylics b. Silicates
c. Porcelain d. GIC
Reference: Glickman, 10th ed, p 179
49. R C T teeth with very le ss crown support and you want to u se post, for core build up. Which
p ost is the least to cause root fracture?
a. Ready made post b. Casted post
c. Fiber post d. Prefabricated post
Reference: Dental Secrets by Stephen t. Sonis, 9th ed, Prosthodontics
50. A child cam e to you r clin ic after fall down from stairs. During exam ination you have found the
child has tooth which have no m obility but have luxation. B e st treatment is:
a. Acrylic splint b. Flexible fixation
c. Rigid fixation d. no need for treatment
Reference: Handbook of Dental Trauma, 2001, p 71
51. Depending on which o f the following conditions of the root can al treated tooth, will make
you decide to plan for p o st & amalgam core build up?
a. Remaining coronal structure b. Root divergence
c. Presence of wide root d. Others
Reference: Dental Secrets by Stephen t. Sonis, 9th ed, Prosthodontics
A n s: 4 4 .c, 45.c, 46.c, 47,a, 48.b, 49.c, 50.b, 51.a
€ '
52. Z in c polycarboxylate cem ent was the first material to:

a. Mechanically bond to tooth structure.
b. Chemically bond to tooth structure.
c. Have a significantly greater compressive strength as compared to zinc phosphate cement.
d. Have a much lower film thickness as compared to zinc phosphate cement.
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 218
53. The forces occurring through a rem ovable partial denture can be widely distributed and m ini
m ized b y the following m ethods in lower arch RPD construction:
a. Proper location of the occlusal rests. b. Selection of lingual bar major connector,
c. Developing balanced occlusion. d. All of the above.
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p 337
54. The time duration o f etchant o f m ost dentine bonding system s is applied for:
a. 15 seconds b. 30 seconds
c. 40 seconds d. 60 seconds
55. F o r porcelain metal restoration the labial reduction m ust be done in:
a. One plane for aesthetic b. Two plane by following the morphology
c. Parallel to axial wall of the teeth d. All the above
56. The setting time of zin c oxide-eugenol im pression pastes can be accelerated b y the addition
of a sm all amount of:
a. Water b. Glycerin
c. Petrolatum d. Plaster of Paris
Reference: Skinner’s Science of Dental Materials, p 253
57. Single rooted anterior teeth h a s undergone endodontic treatment, and substantial am ount o f
coronal structure is m issing in the tooth. What is the b est way to treat that?
a. Casted post and core b. Preformed post and composite
c. Perform post andamalgam d. Composite post and core
58. What is the pH o f C a (OH)2 ?
a. 5.5 b. 7.5
c. 12.5 d. 19.5
59. Which o f the following facts are presentin hypercem entosis?
a. Occur in Paget disease b. Difficult to extract
c. Bulbous root d. All of the above
A n s: 52.b, 53.d, 54.a, 55.b, 56.a, 57.a, 58.c, 59.d
# D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
i
Paper 1
60. After scalin g and root planing, the healing of periodontal tissues o ccu r by the follow ing pro
cess:
a. Connective tissue attachment
b. Long junctional epithelium
c. New bone and connective tissue formation
d. New attached periodontal ligament fibers
61. A 6 years o ld ch ild cam e to your clin ic with g ro ssly decayed 74 and 84. You have extracted 74
and 84, and the first perm anent m olar was erupted. Which is the best space m aintainer in this
case?
a. Lingual arch b. Bilateral band and loop
c. Bilateral distal shoe d. No need for space maintainer
Reference: Damle’s Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry
62. When using a titled m andibular se co n d m olar a s an FP D abutment, the best m ethod to com
pensate for the tilt is to:
a. Use a nonrigid connector in the bridge
b. Upright the tooth orthodontically
c. Modify the preparation by making a knife-edge finish line on the mesial axial wall
d. Prepare the molar abutment for a mesial half crown
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, p 98
63. What are the follow ing features o f endom ethazone which will be used a s root canal sealer:
a. Dissolves in fluid, so it weakens the root canal filling
b. Very toxic
c. Contains formaldehyde
d. Contains corticosteroids
e. All the above
64. What is the use o f root canal Sealer in endodontics?
a. Fill the voids b. Increase strength of RC filling
c. Disinfect the canal d. Irrigation of canal
Root canal sealer fill the void in between root canal walls and gutta points.
65. Patient cam e to you clin ic with the com plaint o f deep caries in the low er molar. N o sym ptom s
present but X -ray show s there is radiopaque lesion at the apex o f the distal root o f the tooth.
What is your d iag n osis?
a. Condensing osteitis b. Cemental dysplasia
c. Periapical granuloma d. none of the above
Ans: 60.b, 61.b, 62.b, 63.e, 64.a, 65.a

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66. The periodontal tissues com prise, which of the follow ing tissues?
a. Gingiva and the PDL
b. Gingiva, PDL, and alveolar bone
c. Gingiva, PDL, alveolar bone and cementum
d. Gingiva, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and enamel
67. R oot planing treatment o f periodontally involved root surface m ust be:
a. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
b. Remove necrotic cementum.
c. Change the root surface so it becomes biocompatible.
d. A and B are correct.
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology
Changing the root surface of the affected tooth for making it biocompatible is considered as peri
odontal surgery.
68. Intra-epithelial bulla are found in:
a. Pemphigus b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. Bullous lichen planus d. Pemphigoid
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed, p 1127
69. M ost appropriate pontic design is:
a. It should fill the missing teeth area.
b. Greater lingual embrasure.
c. Should contact mucosa but should not irritate it.
d. None of the above.
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed, p 508
70. U nder which o f the follow ing conditions it is m ost im portant to mount a patients casts on the
hinge axis:
a. The patient has a severe class II occlusal relation.
b. Several fixed partial dentures need to be constructed.
c. A change in vertical dimension through restorations is planned.
d. Dentures with high cusp teeth are to be fabricated on a fully adjusted articulator.
Reference: National Board Dental Examination-Dec 1988
Ans: 66.C, 67.d, 68.a, 69.C, 7Û.C

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 2
1. About apicosectom y, what is the right statem ent?

a. Incisor with an adequate R C T and 9 mm lesion.
b. Lateral incisor with good condensing R C T but swelling and pain 14 days after the treatment,
c. The tooth asymptomatic before the obturation.
d. First upper premolar with lesion on the bucal root
2. Epileptic children on m edication can be cla ssified according to Am erican S ociety o f Anesthe
sio lo gists as:
a. ASA I b. A S A II
c. ASA III d. A SA IV
Reference: Damle’s Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p 391
3. Which o f the follow ing types is the highest strength in porcelain?
a. Decor b. Zirconia
c. In Ceram d. Impress
The highest strength in porcelain available is ZR (zirconia) reinforced.
4. Which one of the follow ing instrum ents is used to create palatal posterior seal in cast?
a. Le Cron carver b. Kingly scalper
c. Me Ryan spatula d. Wax knife
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Dentures - Prosthodontics, p 107
5. You have done a immediate denture to a patient 5-10 m onths ago. He returns back to you
with a com plaint o f pain over tissue in the m andibular. What is the diagnosis?
a. Epulis fissuratum b. Gingivalhyperplasia
c. Pyogenic granuloma d. Inflamed gingiva
6. S ch ick intradermal test used to identify the susceptibility of which of the follow ing?
a. Tuberculosis b. Typhoid
c. Diphtheria d. Cholera
7. H ighest average percentage reduction o f dental caries is achieved b y one o f the following
m ethods?
a. Self applied topical fluoride b. School water fluoride
c. Dietary fluoride supplementation d. Professionally applied
Reference: Soban Peter's Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p 290
8. The shape of a ccess opening for the m andibular secon d m olar is:
a. Triangle and the base toward the mesial. b. Triangle and the base toward the buccal,
c. Triangle and the base towardthe lingual. d. Triangle and the base toward the distal.
A n s: 1 .a, 2.b, 3.b, 4.a, 5.a, 6.c, 7.c, 8.a
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9. Which of the following can be used as a base for com posite restoration?
1. Varnish
2. Zinc oxide and eugenol
3. C a (OH)
4. Zinc phosphate cement
a. 1+2 b. 2+3
c. 3+4 d. 2+4
Varnish will prevent composite restoration’s mechanical bond with tooth. ZOE will prevent composite
restoration’s polymerization reaction.
10. Bitew ing x-ray examination m ethod is used to diagnose a ll EX C E P T:
a. Proximal caries b. Secondary caries
c. Plaque and gingival status d. Periapical abscess
11. The technique o f autoclave depends on:
a. Dry heat b. Steam heat
c. Chemicals d. Ultraviolet chamber
In autoclave the steam heat is produced under pressure. This breaks the protein cell membrane of all
microorganisms.
12. A patient com es to your clin ic after failed down from h is bike. C linical examination show s
patient’s tooth has crown fracture under the gingival level, and we want to use the tooth.
What is the treatment?
a. Amalgam post core under the gingival
b. Extrusion orthodontic
c. Restoration under the gingival
d. Extraction of the tooth
Extrusion orthodontic is called ferrule effect. It will help in crown lengthening of the tooth for prosthodontic
management.
13. Which is the com mon disease for the people who work in g la ss factories?
a. Silicosis b. Asepsis
c. Dermatitis d. Melanoma
Reference: http://www.silicosisclaims.com/about.html
14. In the bisecting technique, the film is placed:
a. Parallel to the tooth b. As close aspossible
c. Parallel to the bisector d. Perpendicular to the bisector
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, 5th ed, p 125
15. A cco rd in g to the Kennedy's classification, unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth re
m aining both anterior and posterior to it is:
a Class one b. Class two
c. Class three d. Class four
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics, p21
A n s: 9.C, 10.d, 11.b, 12.b, 13.a, 14.b, 15.c
\
Paper 2
16. A 14 years o ld patient com es to you r clinic with a vu lse d in ciso r tooth. You replant the tooth in
the socket and splint for:
a 1-2 weeks
b. 2 -3 weeks
c. 3—4 weeks
d. 4 -5 weeks
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p 118
17. Which one of the follow ing is correct when you are rem oving lower seco n d m olar o f right
sid e?
a. Occlusal plane perpendicular to floor b. Buccolingual direction to dilate socket
c. Mesial, then lingual to dilate socket d. The tooth position should be above the elbow level.
18. Patients should not be dispatched home im m ediately after procedure under diazepam seda
tion because:
a. Produces convulsions after 30-40 min b. Ataxia and CN S depression
c. Diazepam is redistributed in 30-45 min d. None of the above
19. What is the action o f atropine?
a. Dries secretion such saliva
b. Depresses the pulse rate
c. Causes central nervous system depression
d. All the above
e. None of the above
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology
Atropine dilates the pupils, increases heart rate, and reduces salivation and other secretions.
20. Young female patient visits y o u r clin ic after a m inor accident clin ica l exam ination show s
there is a trauma to upper central. You have decided to extract the tooth. Since the patient is
young and she wants to replace the tooth im m ediately after extraction, best type o f pontic to
be designed for?
a. Ovate b. Egg shaped
c. Hygienic d. Ridge lap
Reference: Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed, p 627
21. On the basis o f ora l and radiographic examination, the alveolar ridge deficiency is classified
into:
a. II Classes b. IV Classes
c. VI Classes d. VIII Classes
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed, p 389
A n s: 16.a, 17.b, 18.c, 19.a, 20.a, 21.b
J
22. If you are taking periapical X-ray for immature tooth, what will be the information you get?
a. Generally conclusive
b. Simply inconclusive
c. Should be compared with contralateral and adjacent tooth
d. None of the above
23. The low speed handpiece is preferably used in the rem oval o f soft caries in children than high
speeding handpiece, because the reason is?
a. Less vibration b. Less pulp exposure
c. Better than high speed d. Children like low speed
24. Osteogenesis during endodontic surgerys aim ed to prevent:
a. Fibroblast growth b. Growth factor
c. Formation of blood d. Formation of osteoblast
25. O f the follow ing in which condition lo ca l anesthesia is ineffectives:
a. Edema b. Localized infection
c. Hematoma d. Anemia
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain Control in General Practice, 7th ed, p 131
26. The working surfaces in operation theatre sh o u ld be disinfected especially for HIV, by using:
a. Savlon b. Gamma radiation
c. Hypochlorite solution d. UV light
27. The least effective m ethod to kill the A ID S virus is through:
a. Sodium hypochlorite solution b. Ultraviolet light
c. Autoclave d. Chimoclave
28. Retro-m olar p ad aid s in stability because:
a. It has soft pad of tissues.
b. It has fibers of muscles.
c. It adds another plane to resist the movement.
d. Raphe is attached there.
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Denture - Prosthodontics, p 90
29. After the usage o f the B P blade and needle tips, both should be disposed by:
a. Discharged paper box b. Designed sharp instrument special container
c. Disinfectant solution d. Yellow container for infectious waste
30. When you are planning to do immediate denture for patient in maxilla and mandible, which is
the ideal way you should follow?
a. Fabricate maxilla immediate denture first.
b. Fabricate mandible immediate denture first.
c. Maxilla and mandible to be fabricated at the same time
d. It doesn’t matter
Ans: 22.c, 23.b, 24.a, 25.b, 26.c, 27,b, 28.c, 29,b, 30.c
Paper 2
31. R isk o f leaving unsupported enam el is highest with which type o f gingival finish line:
a. Shoulder b. Chamfer
c. Shoulder with bevel d. Bevel
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics, p 130
32. A patient presented to yo u having gingival recession in h is canine tooth. He has pain when
you are doing probe gently on the exposed root surface. What is the d iagnosis?
a. Dentin hypersensitivity b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis. d. Apical periodontitis
33. Which o f the following is/are dentin desensitizing agents?
a. Potassium salts b. 33% sodium fluoride solution
c. Strontium salts d. All of the above
34. Follow ing are the finish m argins recom m ended for a ll ceram ic restorations:
a. Shoulder or chamfer b. Shoulder or chisel edge
c. Shoulder or heavy chamfer d. Chamfer or heavy chamfer
Reference: Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p 324
35. A patient cam e to you after a bicycle accident with trauma o f the central incisor. Radiologic
exam ination show s open apex of the tooth, clinical exam ination revealed cut of blood supply
to the tooth. What is your next step?
a. Extraction b. Endontic management
c. Observe over time d. Pulpotomy
36. A ch ild patient cam e to you with gray discoloration o f the deciduous in ciso r a lso on radio-
g rap h ic exam. There is dilation o f follicle of the perm anent successor. What will be your
treatment plan?
a. Extract the deciduous tooth b. Endodontic treatment for infected tooth
c. Observe over time d. none of the above
Endodontic treatment with obturation by Ca(OH)2
37. Valsalva m aneuver will place the soft palate:
a. Laterally b. Interiorly
c. Superiorly d. In compression
Reference: Winkler's Essentials’ of Complete Dentures - Prosthodontics, p 111
38. Calcim hydroxide Ca(OH) used in weeping canal as:
a. As restorative material of the canal b. As a disinfectant of the canal
c. As a irrigation of the canal d. As a sealer of the canal
Reference: Clinical Endodontics Textbook, Tronstad, p 224
A n s: 31 .b, 32.a, 33.d, 34.c, 35.c, 36.b, 37.b, 38.b
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Section II; Modal Question Papers
39. A patient com es to you with the com plaint o f pain in h is one month o ld amalgam restoration.
That pain m ay be due to:
a. Gamma 1 b. Gamma 2
c. Zinc containing alloy d. Improper Hg ratio
Zinc causes delayed expansion in amalgam restoration if the amalgam is contaminated with water
during restorative process.
40. A child 6 years o ld is brought to you by her parents with thumb sucking habit. When you
exam ined the patient, it already caused dental problem in the patient. What you will do:
a. Nothing to do b. Its too late for the treatment
c. Refer to psychologist d. Habit breaking appliance
41. Which o f the follow ing is u se d for conditioning o f resected root end?
a. Citric acid b. EDTA
c. Phosphoric acid d. H20 2
42. In GV b lack formula, the m easurement o f the angle o f the blade to the long axis o f the handle
is:
a. First number b. Second number
c. Third number d. 6th number
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 311
In G V black formula: (In black three number formula) for instrument numbering is,
First number will represent blade width
Second number will represent blade length
Third number will represent blade angle
43. When yo u are doing full arch extraction o f m axillary arch, which o f the following is the cor
rect order?
a. 87654321 b. 87542163
c. 12345678 d. 36124578
87542163 or 87546213 also can be done. To maintain the arch integration and shape, canine should
be extracted last among all the tooth.
44. M echanisam o f action o f antiseptic soap is:
a. Acts on cell membrane b. Acts on nucleas
c. Acts on DNA d. All the above
45. Stom odeum and fore gut are separated by:
a. Oropharyngeal membrane b. Ectodermal cleft
c. Epithelial crest d. Frontal bulge
Stomodeum is separated from the ectoderm (which forms the cranium and brain) the buccopharyngeal
membrane which separates the stomodeum from the end of the pharyngeal gut oropharyngeal mem
brane otherwise called buccopharyngeal membrane
A n s: 39.C, 40.d, 41 ,b, 42.C, 43.b, 44.a, 45.a, 46.a
Paper 2
46. Which o f the following drugs is used to decrease saliva during im pression m aking?
a. Anticholinergic agent b. Cholinergic
c. Antidiabetic d. Anticorticosteroid
47. Intrinsic factor is required fo r the absorption of which o f the follow ing vitamin?
a. Vitamin B,
'1
b. Vitamin
..... B.12
c. Vitamin B2 d. Vitamin B3
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed, p 496
46. Which o f the following teeth is m ost com m only rem oved b y su rg ical m ethod?
a. Canine b. Lower third molar
c. Upper third molar d. Upper second premolar
Reference: Laskin's Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery.
49. Indirect retainer is placed:
a. Near direct retainer b. As far as possible from fulcrum line
c. Near fulcrum line d. Near edentulous area
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy's Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed, p 373
50. A ll o f the follow ing are regard to dentist, who has needle brick o f H BV patient during the
dental procedure, except:
a. Allow wound to bleed don’t scrub b. Wash with water then put plaster
c. Consult immunological unit d. Pressure on the wound to stop bleeding
51. Squam ous ce ll carcinom a is a m alignant from of:
a. Skin. b. Mucous membrane,
c. Gland tissue. d. Mucous epithelial membrane.
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2008) p 452
Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology
Squamous cell carcinoma is a malignant lesion which arises from epithelial tissue. Mucous epithelial
membrane is a oral epithelial membrane.
52. The m ost dangerous o f all Clostridial m yonecrotic infection is:
a. Anaerobic myositis b. Fascitis with myonecrosis & abscess formation
c. Post operative colonic infection d. Puerperal sepsis
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed, p 255
53. Father o f a 12 year old child patient asked you about, the age for the amalgam restoration,
which you have done on his child. What will you tell him ?
a. 2 years b. 9 years
c. 2 decades d. All life long
A n s: 47.b, 48.b, 49.b, 50.d, 51 .d, 52.a, 53.c
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54. After a motor bike accident the patient has unilateral fracture of left condyle. Which of the
following clinical features patient will show while mouth opening?
a. Deviate to the left side b. Deviate to the right side
c. No deviation d. Patient cants open mouth
Reference: Laskin’s Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery.
During mouth opening the mandible will deviate to the same side of the condylar fracture.
55. A 4 year old child patient come to you to restore his lower first molar, but the tooth has
destruction of 3 to 4 surfaces. What is the best restoration you can give?
a. Preformed crown b. Full porcelain crown
c. Full metal crown d. Extraction
Reference: Mcdonald’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent
Preformed stainless-steel crown is ideal for primary molar tooth.
56. Ag-Cu eutectic alloy has a characteristic property of that of a fusion temperature of:
a. The resultant alloy is greater.
b. The resultant alloy is lesser.
c. The resultant alloy varies with the content of Ag and Cu.
Reference: Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 11th ed, p 131
57. Shade Selection of tooth depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Take shade before extraction.
b. Look at yellow board before selecting shade.
c. Selection of shade depends by order on— value chrome, hue.
d. Not more than 5 seconds taken to select shade
58. A 50 years old patient, a chronic smoker, presents with a history of hemoptysis. He was
having truncal obesity and hypertension. He had an elevated ACTH level which was not sup-
pressible with high dose dexamethasone. What would be the most probable diagnosis?
a. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia b. Adrenal adenoma
c. Pituitary tumor d. Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed, p 2136
59. Tooth discoloration from amalgam filling can be prevented by the following step:
a. Cavity varnish b. Proper triturating
c. Thick base application d, Proper finishing
60. Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called:
a. Proteomics b. Genomics
c. Glycemics d. Nucelomics
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, p 27-28
Ans: 54.a, 55.a, 56.b, 57.b, 58.d, 59.a, 6 Q.a
Paper 2
61. An old patient having a complete denture comes to your clinic. He complains of gagging
whenever he wears the denture. But for last 5 years he is wearing the denture. He feels the
same gagging in the first few days of the denture 5 years before, and it disappears after that.
What is the cause:
a. Extend of the upper denture b. The patient hashigh gagging reflex
c. Patient has some systemic problem d. Its psychologicalproblem
62. Arrange the steps of following materials in amalagam restoration:
1. Varnish 2. Ca (oH)
3. Amalgam. 4. Bases
a. 2-4-1-3 b. 4-1-2-3
c. 2-1-4-3 d. 1-4-2-3
1 Ca (oH) -> 2 bases -> 3 varnish -> 4 amalgam.
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry.
63. Construction of rigid palatal strap major connector is done by which of the following materi
als?
a. Co-Cr b. Gold
c. Wrought wire d. Stainless steal
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics
Co-Cr = Cobalt Chromium
64. Which of the following gingival conditions occur in young adults who has poor oral hygiene?
a. ANUG b. AHGS
c. Apthous ulcer d. gingivitis
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology.
65. When you are doing CPR for a patient, the compression relaxation cycle of external cardiac
compression should be repeated at what rate?
a. Twice per second. b. 60 times per minute,
c. 76 times per minute. d. 100 times per minute.
Reference: AH A Guidelines 2010 (American Heart Association)
66. Which of the following condition needs prophylactic antibiotic coverage?
a. Local anesthesia b. Suture removal
c. Routine tooth brushing d. Orthodontic band
Reference: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 10th ed, p 381
67. Progression of initial caries convert into cavitation. This process takes 18 months, but this is
based on the activity of following microorganism
a. Streptococcus mutans b. Lactobacilli,
c. Staphylococcus d. Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: 61 .c, 62.a, 63.a, 64.a, 65.d, 66.d, 67.b

0
Streptococcus mutans initiates caries but Lactobacilli progress caries to cavitation

68. Why the caries progression in children is more rapid than adults?
a. Difference in pH. b. Because of open apex
c. Children has less immunology d. Generalized dentine sclerosis by age
Generalized dentine sclerosis by age. = (physiological dentin sclerosis) Increasing organic content
of tubular dentine by age.
69. Parents came with their twins to your clinic for a routine examination; you found great change
in the behavior between the boy and the girl. This is due to:
a. Hereditary. b. Environment,
c. Maturation d. Learning
1. A+B 2. B+C
3. B+D 4. A+B+C
Reference: Dentistry for Child and Adolescent
Reference: http://social.jrank.0 rg/pages/6 6 6 /Twin-Studies.html
Dizygotic (or fraternal) twins behavior change, resulting from differences in both heredity and envi
ronment factors
70. Instrument used to handle the needle is:
a. Curved hemostat b. Adson forceps
c. Allies forceps d. Russian forceps
Ans: 68 .d, 69.1,70.a

D e n to -G u if - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 3
Irrigation solution for RCT that causes protein coagulation is:

a. Iodine potassium b. Saline
c. Distilled water d. None of the above
2 . Guiding planes are:
a. Located adjacent to edentulous area, b. Located far anterior to the edentulous area,
c. Helps in the stability of the denture. d. Provides a different path of insertion and removal
3. How to use Miswak and tooth brush?
a. Toothbrush after meals and Miswak at prayer time and when out of home
b. Toothbrush and Miswak must be used together
c. Miswak must be used and toothbrush is not
d. Miswak only enough
4. Which muscle forms the oral diaphragm?
a. Tongue b. Geniohyoid muscle
c. Digastric muscle d. Mylohyoid muscle
5. What is the function of occlusal rest ?
a. To resist lateral chewing movement b. To resist vertical forces
c. Stability d. Retention
When you decided to do post and core preparation for the RCT tooth. The core must be:
a. Extend to contrabevel b. Extend to full length tooth preparation
c. Take same shapeof natural tooth d. Take shapeof preparation abutment
Select the appropriate choice:
1. a & d 2. a & b
3. a & c 4. a, b & c
7. What is the ideal way to place RD in patient mouth?
a. 4 Jaw contacts to teeth b. Only 4 contacts 2 lingual & 2 buccal surface
c. Only 4 contacts 2 mesial & 2 distal surface
8. Which of the following is a feature of chronic suppurative periodontitis?
a. Patient complains from moderate pain b. Fistula with drain
c. Pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion d. None of the above
Ans: 1.d, 2.a, 3.a, 4.d, 5.b, 6. 3, 7.b, B.b

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s Q
9. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of:

a. External carotid artery b. Internal carotid artery
c. Deep thoracic artery d. Thyrocervical trunk
Reference: Chaurasia, Anatomy for Dental Students, p 278
10. Clinical feature of acute periodontal abscess is:
a. Fistula present b. Swelling enlargement in tooth site
c. Variable in pain d. Establishing I & D
11. Masseter muscle extends from lower border of zygomatic arch to lateral border of ramus and
angle of mandible:
a. True b. False
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students.
12. Main arterial supply to face is facial artery and superficial temporal artery
a. True b. False
13. After heavy force application, pain is normally felt after:
a 3 to 5 seconds. b. 30 to 40 seconds,
c. 1 to 2 minutes. d. 4 to 5 minutes.
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics - the Art and Science.
14. How will you replace the lost part of maxilla or mandible with the facial structures by:
a Intra-oral restorations
b. Extra-oral restorations
c. Combined intra-oral and extra-oral Prosthetic Restorations.
d. All.
15. Enamel spindles are:
a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ b. Enamel rods change their direction,
c. Enamel rods get crowded d. None of the above
16. More than 90% of the growth of the brain or cranial vault is achieved by:
a. 12 years of life b. 5 years of life
c. 18 years of life d. 21 years of life
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics - the Art and Science, p 10
17. Visible light test is used for detection of:
a. Cracked tooth b. Proximal caries
c. Secondary caries d. Occlusal caries
Reference: Pickard’s Manual of Operative Dentistry 8th ed, Oxford, p 213
Ans: 9.d, 10.b, 11.a, 12.a, 13.a, 14.c, I5.a, 16.b, 17.a
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s Licensing Examinations
Paper 3
Visible light test is otherwise called transillumination test it will be best test for the detection of cracked
tooth.
18. Some bones are formed by endochondral ossification like long bones, flat bones by intramem-
branous ossification and some bones by endochondral and intramembranous ossification:
a. True b. False
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics.
19. Membrane fluidity is increased by:
a. Stearic acid b. Palmitic acid
c. Cholesterol d. Linoleic acid
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th ed, p 428
20. For production of vaccines, the preferred route of inoculation of embryonated egg is:
a. CAM b. Amniotic cavity
c. Allantoic cavity d. Yolk sac
21. Muscles of facial expression are all innervated by facial nerve:
a. True b. False
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery.
22. Which of the following is true regarding permeability of dentin
a. Bacterial products go through it b. Decrease by smear layer
c. Allow bacteria to go in d. Increase by smear layer
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry2000
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2005)
23. What is the curing time of dentin conditioning agent?
a. 10 sec b. 15 sec
c. 30 sec d. 60 sec
Reference: Sturdevanfs Art and Science of Operative Dentistry (2000).
24. When you are checking the FPD crown in patient tooth, you found crown with open margin
present. It can be due to which of the following reasons?
a. Putting die spacer on finishing line
b. Waxing not covering all crown prep
c. Over contouring of crown prevent seating during insertion
d. All of the above
Reference: Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics
25. Which of the following dentist must do?
a. Treat patient medically
b. Prescribe medicine to patient according to medical problem
Ans: 18.a, 19.d, 20.C, 21 .a, 22.b, 23.b, 24.d, 25.c
o
c. Do clinical examination take medical history and evaluate the medical state
26. What is the following feature of reparative dentin?
a. Secondary dentin
b. Formed as dentine bridge above the pulp
c. Highly tubular dentin and it is defective form of primary dentin
d. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 4th ed, p 24
27. Micro abscess on vital pulp: Start necrosis of small part and sequelae of destruction cycle
and full repair.
a. True b. False
28. The example of smallest virus is:
a Papovavirus b. Parvovirus
c. Picornavirus d. Poxvirus
29. Amalgam tattoo is an oral pigmentation lesion:
a. True b. False
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology
30. After a minor head injury the young patient was unable to close his left eye and had drooling
of saliva from left angle of mouth. He is suffering from:
a. 7th nerve injury
b. 5th nerve injury
c. 3rd nerve injury
d. Combined 7th and 3rd nerve injury
31. Cementum contains cells like bone and it is yellow in color in vital, extracted or avulsed tooth
but in non vital tooth, its color is dark:
a True b. False
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion.
32. The factors that influence the induction of cleft palate:
a Hereditary b. Environmental
c. A and B d. None
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology's, 4th ed, p 10
The etiology of cleft-lip and cleft palate involves both hereditary and environmental factors.
Ans: 26.d, 27.b, 28.b, 29.a, 30.c, 31 .a, 32.C

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33. The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:

a Sarcoma b. Fibroma
c. Papilloma d. Lipoma
Reference: Dental Decks 2nd ed, p 1030-1039
34. Which are the following appliances used for immobilization of fragments of broken parts of
jaw bones in their original position until repair takes place?
a. Splints b. Stents
c. Obturators d. Speech aids
35. Clinical features of minimal change glomerulonephritis are all except:
a. Hypertension b. Edema
c. Selective proteinuria d. Fever
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed.
36. Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is mesially located:
a. True b. False
Reference: Endodontics: Problem Solving in Clinical Practice, 2002; Ingle’s Endodontics.
37. Presence of radio opacity at the apex of a tooth which has chronic pulpitis is?
c. Periapical granuloma d. Cementoma
Condensing osteitis is otherwise called focal sclerosing osteomyelitis.
38. If any extra canal present in mandibular incisor, then it will be normally in:
a. Lingual b. Distal
c. Mesial d. Buccal
Reference: “Endodontics, Problem Solving in Clinical Practice, 2002”
39. How will you differentiate acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst?
a. Vitality test b. Radiograph
c. Clinical examination d. None of the above
In acute periapical cyst the tooth involved will be non vital and in acute periodontal cyst the tooth
involved will be vital.
40. The most common cause of endodontic pathosis is bacteria:
a. True b. False
Reference: Ingle’s Endodontics
Ans: 33.b, 34.a, 35.d, 36.a, 37.a, 38.a, 39.a, 40.a

o
41. Palatal canal of upper first molar is curved in which following direction?
a. Buccally b. Palatally
c. Distally d. Mesially
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion
42. What is the composition of dentin in tooth?
a. 60-65% organic by weight b. 35% water by weight
c. 43% in organic by weight d. 65% in organicby weight
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion
Mature dentin composition is 45% inorganic(70% inorganic by volume) 55% organic organic compo
nent of dentin is 33% collagens, non collagenous proteins and lipids(20% organic by volume), 22%
water (12% water by volume).
43. The primary direction for spread of infection in the mandible is by sub mental lymph node
a. True b. False
44. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by:
a. Passive diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Active transport d. Pinocytosis
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 12
45. 7 Days after amalgam restoration a patient comes complaining of pain during placing spoon
on the restored tooth. This is due to:
a. Irreversible pulpitis b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Broken amalgam d. Galvanic action
46. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:
a. Short duration of retraction of gingival margin during preparation of finishing line
b. Retraction of gingival margin during taking final impression to take all details of unprepared finish
line
c. Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival margin
d. Retraction of gingival margin can be done by many ways one of them is retraction cord
Select the appropriate choice

1. a+b+c 2. a+d
3. b+c+d 4. a+b+d
47. DNA only infects humans but RNA does not infect humans
a. True b. False
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology
48. Hardness of the materials is influenced by all of the following, except:
a. Strength b. Proportional limit
c. Ductility d. None of the above
Ans: 41.a, 42.c, 43.a, 44.a, 45.d, 46.4, 47.b, 48.d

Paper 3
Reference: Skinner’s Science of Dental Materials, 10th ed, p 69

49. Artificial teeth best to be selected by:
a Preextraction cord b. Post extraction cord
c. Both d. None of the above
Reference: Dental Decks 2nd ed, P. 408
Deepak Nallaswamy's Textbook of Prosthodontics
50. How will you prevent future gingival recession when you give full gold crown to the patient?
a. Make the tooth form good at gingival one third
b. Make the tooth form good at gingival one fifth
c. Make the tooth form good at gingival one half
d. Make the tooth form good at gingival level
51. Subgingival scaling and root planing is done by which of the following instruments?
a. Gracey curette b. Hoe
c. Chisel d. Hatchet
52. A 7 year old pedo patient lost his 75. What kind of space maintainer you will provide?
a. Band and loop b. Nance appliance
c. Crown and loop d. Distal shoe
Reference: Damles' Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry
53. The length of sprue former depends primarily on the:
a. Length of casting ring b. Thickness of sprue former
c. Thickness of wax pattern d. Angle at which it is attached to the pattern
54. What kinds of radiographs which we do not use for TMJ movements?
a. Transcranial b. Computerized tomography
c. Conventional tomography d. Arthrography
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, 5th ed.
55. The aim of conditioning/etching agent on dentin before GIC is to remove smear layer
a. True b. False
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, (2000)
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed.
56. Band and loop space maintainers is most suitable for the maintenance of space after prema
ture loss of:
a Single primary molar b. Two primary molars
c. A canine and a lateral incisor d. All of the above
A n s:49.a, 50.b, 51.a, 52.a, 53.a, 54.a, 55.a, 56.a

m
Section II: Modal Question Papers
Reference: Damles’ Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry

57. Fixed partial prosthesis is more successful in:
a. Single tooth missing b. Multiple teeth missing
c. In maxillary tooth d. In mandibular tooth
58. Which is the best pontic?
a. Ridge lap b. Hygienic
c. Ovale d. Modified ridge lap
Reference: RosenstiePs Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed, p 627
59. Patient feels pain of short duration after Class II restoration. Diagnosis is:
a. Hyperemia b. Irreversible pulpitis
' c. Periodontitis d. Gingival irritation
60. Radiotherapy increases caries by decreasing salivary secretion:
a. True b. False
61. The barriers in communication like difficulties in hearing, seeing, or understanding and self-
expression is:
a. Physiological barriers b. Psychological barriers
c. Environmental barriers d. Cultural barriers
62. Dental plaque is composed mainly of:
a. Bacteria b. Inorganic material
c. Food d. All the above
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, p 179
63. Which type of composite is used for restoring posterior teeth?
a. Microfilled + fine filler b. Macrofilled + fine filler
c. Hybrid + rough filler d. All the above
64. Vitamin deficiency that causes fatty liver includes all except:
a. Vitamin E b. Pyridoxine
c. Retinoic acid d. Pantothenic acid
Reference: Satyanarayana's Biochemistry, p 334
65. Light curing time for simple shallow class III composite:
a. 10 sec b. 15 sec
c. 20 sec d. 25 sec
Ans: 57.a, 58.b, 59.a, 60.a, 61 .a, 62.a, 63.c, 64.c, 65.b
Paper 3
66. How will you check the bite of retainer by using which one of the following?
a. ZnO eugenal paste b. Impression compound
c. Wax d. Alginate
67. The existence of an intra-oral transmission of bacteria from one arch to another is called as:
a. Translocation b. Cross infection
c. Both of the above d. Transmission
Reference: Glickman Clinical Periodontology, 10th ed, p 151
68. Which of the following about “enamel” is true?
a. Repair by ameloblasts b. Permeability reduce with age
c. Permeability increase with age d. Permeable to certain ions
69. Palate consists of which of the following bones?
a. Palatine and sphenoid bone b. Palatine and maxillary bone
c. Palatine and zygomatic bone d. Palatine and nasal bone
70. A ll of the following may be done to arrest intraoperative hemorrhage except:
a Ligation of cut arteries and veins b. Pressure application with help of sterile gauge
c. Bone compression to arrest bleeding d. Infiltration of area with lignocaine
Reference: Malamed’s Local Anesthesia, p 36
Ans: 66.a, 67.C, 68.d, 69.b, 70.d

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1. To enhance the strength of properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is important to:
a. Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure.
b. Build up thick layer of porcelain.
c. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compen
sated by the metal substructure.
d. Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure.
e. a and b are correct. f. a and c are correct. g. b and d are correct.
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics, 3rd ed, p 457
Sharp angles and undercuts should be avoided.
Thin porcelain with uniform thickness supported by rigid thickness is the strongest. Porcelain should
be kept at a minimum thickness that is still compatible with good esthetic deficiencies of the tooth
preparation, should be coping in those areas.
2. Which of the fibers only present in cementum?
a. Oblique fibers b. Sharpeys fibers
c. Transeptal fibers d. PDL fibers
Reference: Orban’s Oral Histology and Embryology, p 149
Sharpey’s fibers are also present in bone.
3. A diabetic patient came to clinic with pain, swelling and enlarged mandible. On radiographic
examination it showed moth eaten appearance, your diagnosis is:
a. Acute osteomyelitis b. Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
c. Diffuse sclerosing d. Condensing osteomyelitis
Reference: Dental Decks 2nd ed, (2007-08), p 170
Osteomyelitis: Radiographically the “moth-eaten” appearance is quite characteristic
4. Which of the following has radiographic diagnosis of bone destructive in the mandible with
out evidence of bone formation:
a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteosarcoma
c. Fibro-osseous lesion d. Fracture e.Osteoradionecrosis
Reference: Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, p 115
5. Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolu-
cency?
a. Lateral periodontal cyst b. Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c. Primordial cyst d. Ameloblastoma
e. Osteomylitis of the mandible.
Reference: White and Pharaoh, Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, 4th ed, p 386 -389.
Ans: 1 .f, 2.c, 3.a, 4.b, 5.d
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6. The rationale for pit-and-fissure sealants in caries prevention is that they:

a Increase the tooth resistance to dental caries.
b. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and the oral environment.
c. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
d. None of the above answers is correct.
Pit and fissure sealants (sealants) have been described as materials which are applied in order to
obliterate the fissures and remove the sheltered environment in which caries may thrive. Initially
developed to prevent caries, their use has been developed further and they now have a place in the
treatment of caries.
7. A 60-year-old man has been treated for a T2N0M0 squamous cell carcinoma by radical radio
therapy. He has a history of chronic alcoholism and was a heavy smoker. Six years after
treatment, he develops a painful ulcer in the alveolar mucosa in the treated area following
minor trauma. His pain worsens and the bone became progressively exposed. He is treated
by a partial mandibular resection with graft. The diagnosis is:
a. Acute osteomylitis b. Gerre’s osteomylitis
c. Osteoradionecrosis d. Chronic osteomylitis
8. Saliva contains which of the following Ig?
a. IgA b. Ig G
c. IgM d. IgE
Reference: Harrison’s Principle of Internal Medicine.
ft Body of mandible is developed from:
a. Maxillary process b. Mandibular process
c. Hyoid process d. Median nasal process
10. A patient came to your clinic with severe pain. On x-ray the right side of the mandible has a
radiolucency with a radiopaque border that resembles the sunshine rays. Your diagnosis is:
a Ossifying fibroma b. Osteosarcoma,
c. Acute osteomyelitis d. Chronic osteomyelitis
Cortical integrity, periosteal reaction and soft tissue
Slow-growing lesions often cause expansion with cortical blowing, while cortical destruction denotes
aggressive inflammatory or neoplastic lesions. Presence of periosteal reaction and soft tissue is
also suggestive of an inflammatory or malignant aetiology. Some types of periosteal reactions are
quite specific, like the sunburst type in osteosarcoma.
Periapical and occlusal radiography and orthopantomography revealed diffuse bone destruction on
the left side of the mandible due to the presence of a lesion of variable appearance, presenting dense
radiopaque, mixed and completely radiolucent areas. The lesion was extensive and poorly delimited,
with the periosteum showing the classical “sun ray” reaction on occlusal and periapical radiographs
Ans: 6.b, 7.c, 8.a, 9.b, 10.b

11. A patient is suffering from pain in the area of the mandibular molars with paresthesia in the
lower lip. By clinical and radiographic examination your diagnosis is:
a. Acute osteomyelitis b. Chronic osteomyelities
c. Condensing osteomylities d. Necrotizing osteomylities
Reference: Dental Secrets, Stephen T.sonis-page 95
Oral paresthesia may be caused by manipulation or inflammation of a nerve or tissues around a
nerve, direct damage to a nerve or tissues around a nerve, impinging on or invading a nerve, primary
neural tumor, and central nervous system tumor.
12. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points?
a. Boiling b. Autoclave
c. Chemical solutions d. Dry heat sterilization
Reference: Textbook of Endodontics, 4th ed p 126-128
The primary GP point selected should be sterilized with NaOCI or H20 2 or chlorhexidine
13. Mandibular nerve comes through:
a. Foramen rotundum b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen spinosum d. Infra oribal foramen
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol III, p 152
14. A young patient comes to your clinic with pain in his tooth. On your clinical examination you
found that tooth shows no response to heat, cold or electric pulp test and no swelling present
but TOP positive. What will be your diagnosis?
c. Acute apical periodontitis d. Acute suppurative periodontitis
15. Which of the following is produced by secondary odontoblasts in response to irritants?
a. Primary dentin b. Secondary dentin
c. Tertiary dentin d. Sclerotic dentin
Reference: Sturdevanfs Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 4th ed, p 24
16. Measurement of vertical height during complete denture construction in edentulous patient
is done by:
a. Bolley's guage b. Willey’s guage
c. Robinson guage d. Vincent gauge
17. A patient visits your clinic for regular dental checkup. While doing the radiological examina
tion of a patient, you found there is a ’ U ‘shaped radiolucency over maxillary first molar tooth.
What will be your diagnosis?
a. Zygoma b. Zygomatic process
c. Maxially antrum d. Periapical cyst
U shape radiolucency will be maxillary antrum, u shape radio-opacity will be zygomatic process
Ans: 11.a, 12.c, 13.b, 14.c, 15.c, 16.b, 17.C

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18. Mercury scraps can be stored in:

a. Developer solution b. Fixer solution
c. Water d. HCI
19. Diamond abrasive having particle size of 60 to 74 micrometer is classified as:
a. Medium b. Fine
c. Extrafine d. Coarse
20. Nader’s probe is used for:
a Furcation involvement b. Pocket depth
c. Gingival attachment level d. Gingiva bleeding score
21. A 40 year old male has undergone extraction of 26 and return to clinic after one week with
painless ulcer in his palate related to extraction wound. What will be your diagnosis?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Saialodinitis with infection
c. Necrotizing sialometaplasia d. Rupture of cyst of minor saliavary gland
e. Acetenomyceds
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, p 344
(Necrotizing sialometaplasia (also spelled necrotising sialometaplasia) is a benign ulcerative lesion
found mostly on the posterior hard palate. It is due to a necrosis of minor salivary glands due
to trauma (often palatal infiltrations of local anesthetic or trauma during intubation).
Often painless, condition is self-limiting and should resolve in 6-10 weeks.
22. What is the dosage of steriod in treatment of pemphigus
a) 1 mg/kg body weight b) 10-20 mg/kg body weight
c) 50-100 mg/kg body weight d) 1 g/kg body weight
Reference: Tyldesley’s Oral Medicine, 5th ed, p 132
Very high dosages are used initially to suppress bulla formation (of the order of 1 mg/kg prednisolone
daily), but this may often be slowly reduced to a maintenance dose of 15 mg daily or thereabouts.
23. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Mild hyperglycemia
c. Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent
d. Antidepressant therapy
e. All of the above
A faint may mimic far more serious conditions, most of which can be excluded by a familiarity with the
patient’s PMH. These include strokes, corticosteroid insufficiency, drug reactions and interactions,
epileptic fit, heart block, hypoglycemia, and Ml
24. In recent years caries is reduced in developed countries mainly due to:
a. Water fluoridation b. Fluoride toothpaste
Ans: 18.b, 19.b, 20.a, 21 .c, 22.a

c. Dental health education programs d. Individualized oral hygiene care

Reference: Dental Deck 2nd ed. (2007-08) p 1664
25. Which are the ways in which the proximal contacts can be checked?
a. Use a pencil b. Use a shim stock
c. Use a silicone checker d. Use a dental floss
e. Only b & d
Reference: Journal of Oral Rehabilitationvolume, 14 Issue 1, Pages 91-94
A total of 969 proximal contacts in forty volunteer subjects was examined for proximal contact
integrity with shim stock. It passed uninhibited through 88% of the contacts. Neither sex nor age
affected the evaluation; however, shim stock was more likely to pass through contacts with enamel
surfaces than those which were restored.
26. A patient is taking warfarin. What test you would advise him before a surgical procedure?
a. PTT b. P T & IN R
c. C B C d. R BS
The INR is a test of blood clotting, which is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy,
27. The usual, first clinical sign of mild lidocaine toxicity is:
a. Lethargy b. Nervousness
c. Convulsions d. Tachycardia
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, April-1986
28. Thyroid levels in body are controlled by:
a. Anterior pituitary b. Posterior pituitary
c. Thyroid d. Parathyroid
29. A child patient is brought to clinic after accident. In clinical and radiological examination you
found the primary tooth intruded in to the permanent follicle. What will be the effect it causes
to permanent tooth?
a. Dens in dente b. Dens evangenatus
c. Turner's hypoplasia d. Dentinogenesis imperfect
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology’s, 4th ed, p 55
30. A 4 year old child patient, visiting your dental office with some dental problem. The patient
needs inferior alveolar nerve block for dental procedures.
a. You should give 30 -50% nitrous oxide
b. You should give nirous oxide before the inferior alveolar block by LA
c. Nitrous oxide should not be given to child patient
d. There is no use of nitrous oxide in dental office
For younger children who are afraid of needles, this option should be used in conjunction with nitrous
oxide and/or oral conscious sedation. Young children are often unpredictable and can become
Ans: 23.a, 24.a, 25.e, 26.b, 27.b, 28.a, 29.c, 30.b

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 4
restless and fearful without warning. For a variety of reasons, some children may become frightened
(i.e., noise from the dental drill (tooth whistle) or from the strange sensation of their numb tooth, teeth
or tongue). For this reason, we recommend at least nitrous oxide’ and in some instances conscious
oral sedation, for children under 5 who require local anesthesia to fix their teeth.
31. Carbide burs are better than diamond burs in cutting:
a. Enamel b. Dentin
c. Caries d. Bone
The difference between carbide burs and diamond burs are; a) Tungsten carbide steel burs are good
for cutting, cutting bones (surgical), metal crowns etc. b) Diamond burs as diamond powder, good as
grinder, as well as cutting zirconia or metal crowns, Diamond burs will safely accomplish this and
are unlikely to cause enamel fracture.
32. Antiseptic efforts of soap will be:
a. Killing the microorganism b. Removing the organism from the surface
c. Prevent its growth d. ALL —
Antiseptic soap, sometimes called antibacterial soap or anti-fungal soap, is regular soap in liquid or
solid form that contains some kind of ingredient that reduces the chance of infection when applied to
the skin. These products also have antimicrobial properties, meaning they kill or inhibit the growth of
microbes like bacteria, virus, or fungi. Alcohol, triclosan. and tetrasodium EDTAare three antiseptics
commonly used in soap, and they are all examples of antibacterial antiseptics, meaning they are
proven to be effective against bacteria.
33. Functional unit of neves system is:
a. Axon b. Neuron
c. Dentrite d. Nerve ending
34. The uses of vitamin K in our body:
a. Blood coagulation b. Bone metabolism
c. Vascular biology d. All the above
Vitamin K plays key role in the regulation of three physiological processes:

Blood coagulation: Prothrombin (factor II), factors VII, IX, and X, and proteins C, S, and Z
Bone metabolism: Osteocalcin, also called bone Gla protein (BGP), matrix Gla protein (MGP), periostin,
and the recently discovered Gla-rich protein (GRP)
Vascular biology: Growth arrest-specific protein 6 (Gas6)
Unknown function: Proline-rich g-carboxy glutamyl proteins (PRGPs) 1 and 2, and transmembrane
g-carboxy glutamyl proteins (TMGs) 3 and 4
Like other lipid-soluble vitamins (A, D, E), vitamin K is stored in the fat tissue of the human body.
35. Disto lingual extension of mandibular impression will be decided by which muscle?
a. Protruding movement of the tongue activates the superior constrictor muscle which molds the
disto lingual border of the denture.
b. Protruding movement of the tongue activates the mylohyoid muscle which molds the disto lingual
border of the denture.
Ans: 31 .d, 32.d, 33.b, 34. d, 35.a

c. Intruding movement of the tongue activates the superior constrictor muscle which molds the disto
lingual border of the denture.
d. Intruding movement of tongue activates the mylohyoid muscle which molds the disto lingual bor
der of the denture.
Distolingual vestibule:
The lateral throat form is bounded anteriorly by mylohyoid muscle, laterally by pear shaped pad,
posterolaterally by superior constrictor, posteromedially by palatoglossus and medially by tongue.
The so called S curve of the lingual flange of the mandibular denture results from stronger intrinsic
and extrinsic tongue muscles,which usually place the retromylohyoid borders more laterally and
towards the retromylohyoid fossa, as they oppose weaker superior constrictor muscle.
36. Ligaments of TMJ are:
a. Lateral ligament b. Sphenomandibular ligament
c. Stylomandibular ligament d. All the above
37. Lumbar puncture for CSF done in:
a. Between 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebra b. Between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebra
c. Between 4th and 5th lumbar vertebra d. Between 6th and 7th lumbar vertebra
38. Internal resorption of tooth. Which of the following is true?
a. In x-rays it looks moth eaten appearance b. RCT will control it
c. Initiated with infection d. Initiated with trauma
1. A & B 2. B & C
3. B & D 4. A & D
RCT will control it.

Initiated with trauma.
Internal resorption: The cause can sometimes be attributed to trauma to the tooth, but other times
there is unknown etiology. If the condition is discovered prior to perforation of the crown or root has
occurred, endodontic therapy (root canal therapy) may be carried out with the expectation of a fairly
high success rate.
39. LA of inferior alveolar block has to be injected in:
a. Pterygomandibular space b. Phenopharengel space
c. Submandibular space d. Sublingual space
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain control in General Practice.
Inferior alveolar nerve block or IANB - The nerve is approached from the opposite side of the mouth
over the contralateral premolars. After piercing the mandibular tissue on the medial border of the
mandibular ramus within the ptergomandibular space and then contacting medial surface of the
alveolar bone as well as being lateral to the pterygomandibular fold and the sphenomandibular liga
ment, the injection is given
Ans: 36.d, 37.b, 38.3, 39.a

Paper 4
40. Changing of more specialized cells to less specialized cells is called:

a. Metaplasia b. Dysplasia
c. Hyperplasia d. Desmoplasia
Anaplasia (structural differentation loss within cell or group of cells)

Aplasia (organ or part of organ missing)
Hypoplasia (below-average number of cells, especially when inadequate)
Hyperplasia (proliferation of cells)
Neoplasia (abnormal proliferation)
Dysplasia (change in cell or tissue)
Metaplasia (conversion in cell type) — metaplasia, in which cells of one mature, differentiated type
are replaced by cells of another mature, differentiated type.
Prosoplasia (development of new cell function)
Desmoplasia (connective tissue growth)
41. A patient comes to your clinic with dental problem in the clinical examination you found that
the patient has all his teeth present and darkin color, generalized occlusal attrition also present.
Early diagnosis will be:
a. Amelogenisis imperfecta b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Tetracycline discoloration d. Trauma
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology
Amelogenesis Imperfecta
Amelogenesis Imperfecta have teeth with abnormal color: yellow, brown or grey; this disorder can
afflict any number of teeth of both dentitions. The teeth have a higher risk for dental cavities and are
hypersensitive to temperature changes as well as rapid attrition, excessive calculus deposition, and
gingival hyperplasia.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta (Dl) is a genetic disorder of tooth development. This condition is a type of
dentin dysplasia that causes teeth to be discolored (most often a blue-gray or yellow-brown color)
and translucent giving teeth an opalescent sheen. Teeth are also weaker than normal, making them
prone to rapid wear, breakage, and loss
42. A 1 year old child comes to your dental hospital along with parents. The child has upper
central incisor in his mouth. When will be the root formation complete for that tooth?
a. After 6 months b. After 9 months
c. After 18 months d. After 3 months
Human tooth development timeline:

The following Tables present the development timeline of human teeth. Times for the initial calcifica
tion of primary teeth are for weeks in utero. Abbreviations: wk = weeks; mo = months; yr= years.
Ans: 40.a, 41 .a, 42.a

Section II: Model Question Pepers
Maxillary (upper) teeth
Primary teeth Central incisor Lateral incisor Canine First molar Second molar
Initial calcification 14 wk I.U. 16 wk I.U. 17 wk LU. 15.5 wkl.U. 19 wkl.U.
Crown completed 1.5 mon 2.5 mon 9 mon 6 mon 11 mon
Root completed 1.5 yr 2 yr 3.25 yr 2.5 yr 3yr
Mandibular (lower) teeth
Initial calcification 14 wk I.U. 16 wkl.U. 17 wkl.U. 15.5 wkl.U. 18 wkl.U.
Crown completed 2.5 mon 3 mon 9 mon 5.5 mon 10 mon
Root completed 1.5ty.r 1.5 yr 3.25 yr 2.5 yr 3 yr
M axillary (upper) teeth
Permanent Central Lateral Canine First Second Firs! Second Third

teeth incisor incisor premolar premolar molar molar molar
Initial 3-4 mon 10-12 man 4-5 mon 1.5-1.75 yr 2-2.25 yr at birth 2,5-3 yr 7-9 yr
calcification
Crown 4-5 yr 4-5 yr 6-7 yr 5-6 yr 6-7 yr 2.5-3 yr 7-8 yr 12-16 yr

completed
Root 10 yr 11 yr 13-15 yr 12-13 yr 12-14 yr 9-10 yr 14—1B ÿr 18-25 yr

completed
M andibular (lower) teeth
Initial 3-4 mon 3-4 mon 4-5 mon 1.5-2 yr 2 25-2.5 yr at birth 2.5-3 yr 8-1Dyr
calcification
Crown 4-5 yr 4-5 yr 6 -7 y r 5-6 yr 6-7 yr 2.5-3 yr 743 y r 12-16 yr

completed
Root 9 yr 10yr 12-14 yr 12-13 y r 13—14 yr 9-1 O y r 14-15 yr 1B-25yr

completed
i____________
!
f Paper 4
43. The drug which induces gingival enlargement, all EXCEPT:

a. Phenatoin, b. Nefidipaine,
c. Calcium channel blockers d. Mefenamic acid
i
The drugs which cause gingival over growth are:

Anticonvulsants:
Phenytoin, phénobarbital, lamotrigine, valproate, vigabatrin, ethosuximide, topiramate and primidone
Calcium channel blockers:
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and verapamil.
The dihydropyridine derivative isradipidine can replace nifedipine and does not induce gingival over
growth. cyclosporine, an immunosuppresant.
Of all cases of gingival overgrowth about 50% are attributed to phenytoin, 30% to cyclosporins and
the remaining 10-20% to calcium channel blockers.
44. Tetracycline will be impaired with which drug?
a. Chlorampenicol b. Penicillin
c. Heparin d. Sulfonamide
I
The absorption of tetracycline from the gastrointestinal tract is impaired by the concomitant adminis
tration of di and trivalent cations, such as iron, calcium, aluminium, magnesium, bismuth and zinc
salts of medicinal products containing these cations and tetracycline should be maximally separated
by at least two to three hours.
The following should be avoided when taking tetracycline: antacids, bismuth containing ulcer-healing
drugs, drugs such as Quinapril tablets, which contain magnesium carbonate and didanosine, which
contains calcium and magnesium excipients.
Absorption of tetracycline is impaired by food, milk, and milk products.

Since tetracycline has been shown to depress plasma prothrombin activity, patients who are on
anticoagulant therapy may require a downward adjustment of their anticoagulant dosage. Tetracy
cline may prolong the action of coumarin anticoagulants.
• Plasma-atovaquone concentration is reduced by tetracycline.
• There is a possible increased risk of benign intracranial hypertension with tetracyclines and retinoids
(acitretin, isotretinoin, tretinoin). Concomitant use should be avoided.
• Antidiarrheal preparations such as kaolin-pectin and bismuth subsalicylate hinder absorption of
tetracyclines.
• Combination of tetracyclines with diuretics may be detrimental to renal function and may aggra
vate nephrotoxicity by volume depletion.
• Since bacteriostatic drugs may interfere with the bactericidal action of penicillin, it is advisable to
avoid giving tetracycline in conjunction with penicillin.
• A few cases of pregnancy or breakthrough bleeding have been attributed to the concurrent use of
tetracycline with oral contraceptives and alternative contraceptive advice should be sought where
necessary.
Ans: 43.d, 44.b

56. The best finished composite surface is achieved by:

a. 12 fluted bur b. Diamond bur
c. Matrix band with no additional finish d. None of the above
12-fluted tungsten carbide finishing bur
57. In class V composite restorations a layer of bonding agent is applied:
a. Following removal of cement then cured, b. Following removal of cement and not cured,
c. Cured then remove cement. d. None of the above
58. The palatine tonsil receives its arterial supply from all of the following except:
a. Facial b. Ascending palatine
c. Sphenopalatine d. Dorsal lingual
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, p 325
59. Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration may be due to:
1. No enough bulk of dentine 2. Corrosion
3. Over carving 4. Improper manipulation of amalgam
a. 1+2 b. 3+4
c. 2+3+4 d. All the above
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000 p 157
60. When you are placing pins in amalagam restoration the length of pins must be equal in both
tooth and restoration by a depth of:
a 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
61. Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam:
a. Increase retention b. Increase resistance
c. Increase strength d. 1+2
62. Cardiovascular medications cause increase inn saliva secretion.
a. True b. False
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontoiogy’s, p 285
Cardiovascular medications (calcium channel blockers) may reduce salivary flow.
63. RCT contraindicated in:
a. Vertical fracture of root b. Diabetic patient
c. Unrestored teeth d. Periodontally involved teeth
Ans: 56.a, 57.a, 58.c, 59.d, 60.b, 61 .d, 62.b, 63.a

Paper 4
64. Which of the following can be use under composite restoration?

a. Ca (0H)2 b. ZO E
c. Reinforced ZO E d. Varnish
65. Gutta percha contain mainly:
a Gutta percha b. Zinc oxide
c. Zinc phosphate d. Wax
Reference: Ingle’s Endodontics, p 372
66. One of anatomical land mark is:
a. Ala tragus line b. Ala orbital
c. Frank Fort plane d. Sagittal line
67.12.5 is the pH of:
a. Ca (OH)2 b. GIC
c. Zinc phosphate d. Phenol
68. McArdie’s disease is due to the deficiency of:
a Glucose 1 phosphate. b. Glucose 1,6 diphosphate
c. Glucose 6 phosphate d. Myophosphorylases.
69. Hyperemia results in:
a. Trauma from occlusion b. Pain of short duration
c. Radiographic changes d. All of short duration
70. Dimensional stability of elastomeric impression material can be given in descending order
as:
a. Polysulfide > polyether > condensation silicone > addition silicone
b. Polyether > condensation silicone > polysulfide > addition silicone
c. Addition silicone > polyether > polysulfide > condensation silicone
d. Addition silicone > condensation silicone > polysulfide > polyether
Ans: 64.a, 65.b, 66.a, 67.a, 68.d, 69.b, 70.C

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 5
1. Which are the following are extra-oral prosthetic restorations?

a. Radiumshield b. Ear plugs for hearing
c. Replace missing eye, missingnose or ear d. All
Extraoral prostheses is used to replace missing parts of the face, such as nose, eye, or ear.
2. Extent of temporalis muscle behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone and insert in coro-
noid process:
a. True b. False
3. Sphenooccipital synchondroses carry the growth of anterior half of gonial base of cranium
and upper part of face:
a. Forward and upward direction b. Forward and lateral direction
c. Forward and downward direction d. Only forward direction
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science, p 30, 31
4. The lack of continuity of the roof of the mouth through the whole or part of its length in the
form of fissure extending anteroposteriorly is:
a. Obturator b. Splint
c. Stent d. Congenital cleft palate
Reference: Orban’s Oral Histology and Embryology
Congenital failures in the closure of certain anteroposterior fissures in the roof of the mouth
a. The palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal plate of the palatine bones form the hard
palate.
b. Cleft palate is caused by the failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla and/or the palatine
bones to fuse.
5. Nerve impulse stops when injecting local anesthesia:
a. True b. False
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain Control in General Practice
6. BMP done mainly for:
a Increase the diameter ofrootcanal b. To remove the pulp
c. To place theGP at apex of canal d. All the above
7. A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired opening in the palate is:
a. Stent b. Splint
c. Obturator d. None
Ans: 1 .c, 2.a, 3.d, 4.d, 5.a, 6.c, 7.c, 8.c

Paper 5
8. The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is called:

a. Minor connecter b. Major connecter
c. Rest seat d. None
The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is called the rest seat. Rests are designated
by the surface of the tooth prepared to receive them (occlusal rest, lingual rest, and incisal rest)
9. A 5 year old patient lost his primary first maxillary molar the best retainer is:
a. Band and loop b. Crown and loop
c. Lingual arch d. Nance appliance
10. Balanced instrument is:
a. Blade is perpendicular to long axis of instrument
b. Blade is parallel to long axis of the instrument
c. 3 mm close to shank
d. A+C
11. The part of a removable partial denture is:
a. Rests b. Major connectors
c. Retainers d. All
The components of a removable partial denture are:
Major connector
Minor connector
Rest
Direct retainer
Indirect retainer
Denture base
Artificial tooth replacement
12. You have a patient who is on warfarin treatment and you want to do dental surgery for him.
When you can do?
a. When PTT is 1-1.5 INR on the same day.
b. When PTT is 2-2.5 INR on the same day.
c. When PT is 1-1.5 INR on the same day.
d. When PT is 2-2.5 INR on the same day
13. The rests are classified into:
a. Anterior rests b. Posterior rests
c. A and B d. None
14. The surveyor instrument consists of:
a. Vertical arm b. Cast platform or table
c. Small analysis rod d. All
Ans: 8.c, 9.a, 10.a, 11.d, 12.c, 13.c, 14.d
i

Parts of Surveyor:
surveying platform
cast holder /surveying table
vertical arm
horizontal arm
surveying arm
surveying tools (analyzing rod carbon markers undercut gauges)
15. The primary guiding surface that determines the path of insertion for the partial denture is:
a. The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous areas.
b. The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous areas.
c. A+B
d. None
16. In allergic reaction which of the following Ig will be present?
a. IgA b. Ig G
c. IgM d. IgE
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine
17. Streptococci is detected by which of the following biochemical tests?
a. Catalase test b. Carbohydrate fermentation test
c. Gram stain d. None of the above
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology
18. The one who is supposed to give the correct design of the removable partial denture:
a. Prosthodontist b. Technician
c. Assistant d. None
The dentist is responsible for the design of the partial denture framework from the beginning to finish.
19. To fabricate a removable partial casting requires making a second cast of high-heat invest
ment material. This cast is called:
a. Study cast b. Master cast
c. Refractory cast d. All
20. Aldosterone antagonists are not useful in the treatment of:
a. Hypertension b. CH F
c. Gynaecomastia d. Hirsutism
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p 535
21. Kennedy divided all partial edentulous arches into:
a. Two main types b. Three main types
c. Four main types d. Five main types
Reference : McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics, p 21
Kennedy divided all partially edentulous arches into four main types.
Ans: 15.b, 16.d, 17.a, 18.a, 19.c, 20.c, 21 .c

22. Which of the following lasers is used in endodontic treatment procedure?
a. C 0 2 b. Nd (VAG).
c. Lead d. Argon
Reference: Http: //http//www.biolase.com/clinicalarticles/Chen_DT_reprint1 .pdf Http: //http//
www.healthmantra.com/REVIEWS/lasers&Endo.htm
C 0 2 laser is used in periapical surgeries, new advances in Nd(YAG) laser for intracanal uses.
Both can be used in endodontics.
23. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in:
a. Dilutional thrombocytopenia b. Immunogenic thrombocytopenia
c. Aplastic anemia d. DIC
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, p 675
24. The procedure that follows the ftasking procedure is called:
a. Polishing b. Deflasking
c. Packing d. Curing theacrylic
25. Teeth selection in setting up teeth is based of these factors:
a. Shade of the teeth b. Size and shape of the teeth
c. Angle of the teeth d. A and B
e. All the above
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics
26. Which of the following is the treatment for pericoronitis?
a. Mouthwash and irrigation. b. Extraction of the opposing tooth,
c. Surgical removal of the causative tooth. d. All the above.
Reference: Laskin’s Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 50
27. We should select the shade for a composite resin utilizing a:
a. Bright light b. Dry shade guide
c. Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam d. None of the above are corrects
28. Which of the following factors is important in fluoride use in systemic fluoride supplement
administered to a child?
a. Age and weight of child.
b. Average temperature of the region where the child resides and the age of the child.
c. Weight of the child and fluoride level of the drinking water where the child resides.
d. Age of the child and the fluoride content of the drinking water where the child resides.
Reference: Soban Peter’s Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p 346
Ans: 22.b, 23.b, 24.c, 25.d, 26.d, 27.d, 28.d

29. Proximal retentive grooves in class II restoration should be placed in:

a. Always cut in the axiobuccal and axiolingual line angles.
b. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration.
c. Axiopulpal and axiogingival.
30. Best provisional coverage for anterior teeth is:
a. Tooth colored polycarbonate b. Stainless steel crown
c. Zinc oxide eugenol d. None of the above
Prefabricated crowns - Anterior crown forms can be tooth coloured, usually polycarbonate or trans
parent cellulose acetate.
31. All the following are irrigations, except:
a. Sodium hypochlorite b. Saline
c. RC prep d. Hydrogen peroxide
RC prep, an effective lubricating and cleaning agent for root canals (chelator)
32. Composite restoration can be done after completion of bleaching by:
a. One week b. Tow weeks
c. Three weeks d. Tow months
Any bonding procedure should be delayed at least 1 week after the completion of bleaching.
Treating the bleached dentin surfaces with sodium ascorbate as an alternative to delaying bonding
when a restoration must be completed immediately after bleaching.
33. GP contains:
a. Zinc oxide more G P b. G P more than zinc oxide
c. Calcium sulfate d. GP and Ca(OH)2
G P contains: ZO E & barium sulfate inorganic 75%
Gutta percha transpolyisoprene organic 23%
34. Pharmacogenetics is associated with:
a. Variability of enzyme action b. Individual variability in oral absorption
c. Environmental influence d. Different MOA in different individuals
35. Best matrix for mild II restoration is:

a. Tofilmire matrix b. Celluloid strip
c. Copper bond d. Stainless steel band
36. 4th Canal in upper first molar is found:
a. Lingual to MBC b. Buccal to MBC
c. Distal to MBC d. Misiolingual
Reference: Ingle’s Endodontics.
Ans: 29.a, 30.a, 31 .c, 32.a, 33.a, 34.c, 35.a, 36.a
37. To get file size 24, the following length should be cut from file size 20:
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p, 770
Grossman's Endodontic Practice
38. Which of the following is the best radiographic technique to identify a suspected horizontal
root fracture in a maxillary anterior central incisor?
a. Multiple Water’s projections
b. Multiple angulated periapical radiographs in addition to a normal, parallel angulated, Periapical
radiograph
c. A panoramic radiograph.
d. A reverse Towne’s projection
Grossman’s Endodontic Practice
39. The narrowest canal found in a three root maxillary first molar is the:
a. Mesio-buccal canal b. Disto-buccal canal
c. Palatal canal d. Disto-palatal canal
e. Mesio-palatal canal
Reference: Ingle's Endodontics
40. The following canals may be found in an upper molar:
1. Mesio-buccal 2. Disto-buccal
3. Mesio-palatal 4. Disto-lingual. F
5. Palatal
a. 1+2+4. b. 1+2+4+5.
c. 2+3+4+5. d. 1+2+3+5.
41. Regarding the use of pins, all of the following statements are true except:
a. Use one pin per missing axial line angle, cusp, or marginal ridge, up to a maximum of four.
b. Use large diameter pins whenever possible
c. Use the minimum number of pins compatible with adequate retention (pins weaken amalgam).
d. Pins are bent to make them parallel or to increase their retentiveness.
42. A child patient with swelling in the buccal and palatal maxillary anterior area few days ago, in
the pathology of the lesion there is a giant cell. What is the diagnosis:
a. Giant cell granuloma b. Hemaginoma
c. Nasopalatine cyst d. Squamous cell carcinoma
Ans: 37.b, 38.b, 39.a, 40.d, 41.d, 42.a

43. The best time to treat the pregnant female is:

a. First trimester b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester d. Fourth trimester
44. First evidence of calcification of primary anterior teeth begins approximately between:
a. 14 to 17 weeks in utero b. 9 to 12 weeks in utero
c. 6 to 9 weeks in utero d. 17 to 20 weeks in utero
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, 5th ed, p 53
45. Modify the ridge stability by:
a Preprosthetic surgery a. Oral muscular excerise
b. Implants c. None of the above
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics
46. Patient on warfarin treatment and you want to do surgery. What will be the ideal PT and INR
ratio to proceed further?
a. When PT is 3-3.5 INR on the same day. b. When PT is 4-4.5 INR on the same day.
c. When PT is 1-1.5 INR on the same day. d. When PT is 2-2.5 INR on the same day.
47. Which one of the following is the most common cause for ‘Restrictive cardiomyopathy’?
a. Alcohol b. Hemochromatosis
c. Amyloidosis d. Sarcoidosis
Reference: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th ed, p 1412
48. You want to make amalgam restoration with pin; the 2 mm pin is in the dentine, how much it
should be in amalgam restoration
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 5 mm d. 4 mm
49. All these are right ways to handle the instrument except:
a. Modified pen handle b. Inverted pen
c. Pen handle d. Palm and thumb
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 4th ed, p 315
There are four grasps used with the hand instruments:
Modified pen.
Inverted pen.
Palm and thumb.
Modified palm and thumb
50. Which of the following posts will least cause root fracture?
a. Readymade post b. Casted post
Ans: 43.b, 44.a, 45.a, 46.C, 47.C, 48.b, 49.C, 5Q.c

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Paper 5
51. Labial reduction for anterior tooth PFM crown restoration must be:
a. One plane b. Two plane by follow the morphology
c. 0.8 mm in all surface d. Parallel to axial wall of the teeth
Reference: Rosenstiei’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p 741
52. What is the best restoration to the anterior teeth with RCT and minimal tooth structure loss?
a. Retained post metal ceramic b. Retained post Jacket crown
c. Composite d. Amalagam
53. Bilateral orchitis which lead to testicular atrophy, sterility or low sperm counts is due to
infection with:
a. Measles virus b. Mumps virus
c. Rubella virus d. Herpes virus
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiologyh, 7th ed, p 513
54. A 6 year old child with bilateral loss of lower deciduous molars. The patient’s anterior teeth is
not erupted yet. The space maintainer for choice is:
c. Bilateral band and loop with distal shoe d.Removable partial denture
55. What is the least reliable way to do pulp test?
a. Cold test b. Hot test
c. Electric test d. Stimulation the dentine
56. Tetanic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber results from a cumulative increase in the intra
cellular concentration of which of the following?
a. Na+ b. K+
c. ATP d. Ca+t
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11th ed,p 81
57. When preparing class II cavity you found that there is no gingival seat for the restoration
material. What is your management?
a. Make seat with GIC b. Make seat with flowable composite
c. Make seat withamalgam d. Make the axis wall in the root
58. Root perforation In mid root level is treated by:
a. MTA b. Ca (OH)2
c. Root canal with G P d. GIC
Some of the most investigated materials for perforation repair include amalgam, calcium hydroxide,
IRM, Super EBA, gutta-percha, MTA, other materials tried for repair include dentin chips, hydroxyapa
tite, glass ionomer cements and plaster of Paris.
Ans: 51 .b, 52.c, 53.b, 54.a, 55.d, 56.d, 57.d, 58.a

59. The easiest endodontic retreatment is:

a. Over obturation with GP b. Under obturation with G P
c. Weeping canals d. Obturated with silver cone
60. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is:
a. Cholecystokinin b. Gastrin
c. Bile acid d. Bile salt
61. Which of the following are used in HBV disinfection
1. lodophores, hypochlorite. 2. 100% ethyl alcohol.
3. Formaldehyde + gas. 4. Dettol
a. 1+2+3. b. 1+2.
c. 2+3. d. 2+3+4
62. A patient came to you with coloration bluish and black in the gingival margins. He said that
he has gasteriointensinal problem. This is caused because of:
a Mercury b. Lead
c. Bismuth d. Arsenal
All of these elements can cause discoloration.
Overexposure to bismuth can result in the formation of a black deposit on the gingiva, known as a
bismuth line.
Bismuth poisoning exists and mostly affects the kidney, liver, and bladder. Skin and respiratory irrita
tion can also follow exposure to respective organs.
63. How can you repair fractured rest in removable partial denture?
a. Spot welding b. Electric soldering
c. Industrial brazing d. None of the above
By embedding an 18 gauge wrought wire (PGP) into the denture base of the RPD.
Or a new clasp assembly is made and soldered to the denture framework.
64. Mandibular foramen is located:
a. At the same occlusal line in adult b. Above occlusal line in children
c. Below occlusal line in old d. Below the occlusal line in child
In the child the mandibular foramen is below the occlusal plane, while in the adult it is above it.
65. The tissue response to oral hygiene instruction is detected by:
a. Probe pocket depth b. Less bleeding
c. Gingiva! condour d. Stripping of gingiva
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology
Ans: 59.b, 60,d, 61.a, 62.c, 63.b, 64.d, 65.b

[4
Probing to elicit bleeding (which is the single most useful indicator of disease activity), measuring
pocket depth attachment levels, and detecting subgingival caiculus.
66. Which of the following is false?
a. Gingival and palatal cyst of newborn is derived from dental lamina
b. Epstein's pearl are found along the mid palatine suture
c. Bohn’s nodules are found along the mid palatine suture
d. Palatal cyst of newborn persists into adult life.
Reference: Burket's Oral Medicine, 10th ed, p 114
67. All these are right ways to grasp the hand instruments?
a. Modified pen handle b. Inverted pen
c. Palm and thumb d. All the above
68. Turner’s hypoplasia is a term given to describe enamel hypoplasia due to:
a. Congenital syphilis b. Local infection
c. Rh hemolytic disease d. Fluoride
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 4th ed, p 55
69. Treatment dosage of pemphigus vulgaris is:
a. 1-2 g/kg prednisone daily b. 1 mg/kg prednisone daily
c. 10 mg hydrocortisone d. 50- 100 mg hydrocortisone
70. Patient has severe throbbing pain with the tooth which does not respond to heat or cold test
or pulp vitality test, no radiographic alterations but there is pain during tooth percussion.
a. Reversible pulpitis b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Acute periodontitis d. Suppurative periodontal
Ans: 66.c, 67.d, 68.b, 69.d, 70.C

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 6
1. What should be the ideal distance between two implants?

a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 320
3 mm between outer edge of Implant.
2. Cementum is formed from:
a. Cementoblasts b. Fibroblasts
c. Cementlcles d. Odentoblast
3. Which of the following teeth have convexity in buccal and lingual surfaces:
a. Upper premolars. b. Lower incisor
c. Lower canine d. Upper canine
4. Following may not be an oral manifestation of peptic ulcer:
a Anemia b. Dental erosions
c. Vascular malformations of the lips d. None of the above
5. The depth of cavity preparation for composite restoration in posterior tooth:
a. Limited to enamel b. 0.5 mm in dentin
c. Depends on caries extension d. Depends on tooth discoloration
e. 0.2 mm in dentin
6. Fluoride reduces caries activity by:
a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate storage
b. Enhances the precipitation of Insoluble fluoroapltlte Into the tooth structure.
c. Fluoride enhances remlnerallzation of the noncavltated carious lesions.
d. B & C
e. All of the above.
7. Following is not a feature of Ascher's syndrome:
a. Double lip b. Blepharochalasls
c. Thyroiditis d. None of the above
Ans: 1.c, 2.a, 3.a, 4.d, 5.c, 6.e, 7.c
Paper 6
8. Which of the following factors that make impaction surgery of tooth is more difficult?
a. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots.
b. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and curved roots.
c. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical rooths
d. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow periodontal ligament and divergent curved roots.
e. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second molar and inferior alveolar nerve
Reference: Dental Decks 2nd ed (2007-08), p 1846
9. Which scalpel blade below is universally used for oral surgical procedures?
a. Number 2blade b. Number 10 blade
c. Number 12blade d. Number 15 blade
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
10. False regarding mucocele is:
a Mucous retention cyst are common on palate and floor of mouth
b. Discrete painless smooth surfaced swelling
c. Superficial lesions frequently have a characteristic blue hue
d. Treatment is surgical removal with sparing the minor salivary gland
11. Moon face appearance is not present in:
a. Le Fort I b. Le Fort II
c. Le Fort III d. Zygomatic complex
12. Which of the following radiograph shows condylar head orientation and facial symmetry?
a. Submentovertex b. Reverse town
c. Orthopantomography d. Transorbital
Reference: “US Army Medical Course, Dental Radiography, p 376”
Reverse town will show fracture of condyle, condylar head orientation and facial symmetry.
13. Fluoride decreases dental caries by the remineralization of enamel:
a. True b. False
14. Zinc phosphate cement and poly carboxyIate cement both have:
a. Silica quartz particles b. Polyarcyilic acid
c. Zinc oxide particles d. Phosphoric acid
Composition polycarboxylate cement powder is similar to zinc phosphate with zinc oxide as the main
component.
15. Which of the following about “epithelial cells” are true?
a. Rest of malassez decrease with age.
b. Rest of malassez increase with age
c. Hertwig sheath entirely disappear after dentinogenesis
d. Epithelial remnants could proliferate to periapical granuloma
Ans: 8.d, 9.d, 10.d, 11.d, 12.b, 13.a, 14.c, 15.d

D e n to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
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16. Parotid duct opens opposite to 2nd mandibular molars:

a. True b. False
Reference: Laskin’s Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
17. Alpha rays are made up of:
a. 1 proton b. 2 protons
c. 4 protons d. 2 protons + 2 neutrons
Reference: Umarji’s Concise Oral Radiology
18. GIC compared to composite:

a. Increase linear coefficient of thermal expansion
b. Polymerization shrinkage c. More wear resistant
d. Less soluble e. Stiff
GICs exhibit significantly less polymerization shrinkage than do composites.
19. The most likely cause of syncope following injection of local anesthetic agent with vasocon
strictor is:
a. Cerebral hypoxia b. Bradycardia
c. Allergic reaction to local anesthetic agent d. Allergic reaction to vasoconstrictor
Reference: Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, p 129
20. A patient visits your clinic with severe pain in his lower left mandibular molar. Clinical exami
nation shows positive pulp test and percussion test, but no radiographic abnormality. Upper
right side he had recent FPD. What will be your diagnosis?
a. Chronic apical periodontits b. Actué apical periodontitis
c. Apical abcess d. None of the above.
21. A 6 years old child lost his upper right 1st primary molar. What will be your management?
a. Lingual bar b. Crown and loop
c. Band and loop d. FPD
22. A ll of the following are features of Le Fort - III fracture except:
a. Bilateral subconjunctival hemorrhage and circumorbital ecchymosis
b. Mobility at frontozygomatic suture
c. Mobility at frontonasal suture
d. Mobility at infraorbital margin
Reference: Karl’s Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Vol 2, p 57
23. Barbed broach in endodontics is used for pulp extirpation in relatively straight canals
a. True b. False
Reference: Grossman’s Endodontic Practice
Ans: 16. b, 17.d, 18.b, 19.a, 20.b, 21.c, 22.d, 23.a

Paper 6
24. The part of a removable partial denture that contacts a tooth it affords primarily vertical sup-
port is called:
a. Minor connecter b. Major connecter
c. Rest d. None
Any unit of a partial denture that rests upon a tooth surface to provide vertical support to the denture
is called a rest.
25. Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied by:
a. Mental nerve b. Inferior dental nerve
c. Buccal nerve d. Facial nerve
26. Skin grafts are frequently used in vestibuloplasty procedures to prevent relapse. They do so
by:
a. Causing inhibiting effect on fibroblasts present in the connective tissue
b. Forming a barrier thus preventing reattachment of muscles to periosteum
c. Promoting osteogenesis to maintain the newly achieved sulcus depth
d. All of the above
Reference: Laskin’s Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Vol 2, p 336
27. Which of the following 2 statements Is true or false?
I. RCT abutment of FPD has higher risk for fracture.
II. Abutment which has R C T in cantilever FPD have higher susceptibility to fracture,
a. Both are true b. I is true, II is false
c. II is true, I is false d. Both are false
28. Upper anterior teeth palatal mucosa supplied by:
a Nasopalatine nerve b. Anterior palatine nerve
c. Both d. Post superior alveolar nerve
Anterior palatine nerve or greater palatine nerve supply hard palate.
Nasopalatine nerve supplies palatal structures around the upper anterior teeth.
29. Ungual nerve of mandible branch of trigeminal is:
a. Sensory b. Motor
c. Psychomotor d. Sensory and motor
30. All of the following about bone loss in completely edentulous patient are true except:
a Most of the bone loss occurs in first year of denture wearing
b. Bone loss is more in mandible than in maxilla
c. Direction of bone resorption in maxilla is similar to that in mandible
d. Extraction of teeth done at different time with long time gap will exhibit irregular bony ridge pattern
Ans: 24.c, 25.a, 26.b, 27.a, 28.a, 29.a, 30.C

Reference: Neelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 382
31. Which of the following is correct about dentine permeability
a. Coronal dentin lessthan rootdentin. b. Permeability increase toward DEJ.
c. Permeability increase toward DCJ. d. Permeability decrease toward DEJ
Permeability of the root is 10 to 20 times less than coronal dentin.
32. Which material has best biocompatibility intra orally:
a. Cobalt chromium b. Titanium
c. Nickle chromium d. Gold
e. Palladium
33. Indirect retainers mostly needed which of the following type RPD?
a. Class VI b. Class I
c. Class III d. Class III with modification
34. True statement about cytokines are:
a. Include interleukins b. Produced only in sepsis
c. Highly specific action d. IL-2 type of pro-inflammatory cytokines
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology's, 7th ed, p 202
35. Porcelain teeth in complete denture opposing natural teeth are not preferred due to:
a. Increase occlusal load on natural teeth b. Wear of natural teeth
c. Clicking during mastication d. Esthetic consideration
36. The least effective method to kill the HIV is through:
a. NaOCI b. Autoclave
c. Chemoclave d. Ultraviolet chamber
37. Child’s personality is controlled by_ in oral stage of Freud’s psychoanalytical theory:
a. Id b. Ego
c. Supergo d. Id and ego
Reference: Damles' Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p 10
38. When you are restoring lost tooth of the patient, which of the following is least important?
a. Esthetic b. Patient demand
c. Function d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability
39. Enamel tufts are:
Reference: Wheeler's Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion
Ans: 31 .b, 32.b, 33.b, 34.a, 35.b, 36.d, 37.a, 38.b, 39.c
Paper 6
40. Mandible is the first bone calcified in the skull, but clavicle starts developing within same
embryological time:
a. True b. False
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics
41. Secondary amyloidosis is seen in:
a. Osteoarthritis b. TB hip joint
c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. All
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology’s, 7th ed, p 260
42. The status of the pocket formation around the ankylosed teeth is:
a Faster than normal b. Slower than normal
c. True periodontal pocket will not form d. Both at same rate
43. What is the voltage frequency range for electro surgery in dental?
a. 1.5 -7 .5 million cycle per seconds. b. 7 .5 - 1 0 million cycle per seconds,
c. 10 — 25 million cycle per seconds. d. 30 million cycle per seconds.
44. One of the main causes of malocclusion:
a. Ugly duckling stage b. Premature loss of primary teeth
c. Caries d. Poor oral hygiene
45. Stage one B disease of squamous cell carcinoma:
a. T1 NO MO b. T3 NO MO
c. T 2 N O M O d. T 4 N O M O
46. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
a. Latanoprost b. Timolol
c. Brimonidine d. Dorzolamide
47. The majority of intraoral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:
a. Poorly differentiated b. Well moderately differentiated
c. Spindle cell in type d. Carcinoma in situ
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p 452-453
48. In endodontics, File #4Q means:
a. 0.40 is the diameter at d1 b. 0.40 is from d1 to d16
c. 0.40 is the diameter at d16 d. None of the above
Ans: 40.a, 41 .c, 42.c, 43.a, 44.b, 45.c, 46.c, 47.b, 48.a

49. The difference between cellulitis and abscess:
a. Cellulitis acute stage with diffuse swelling no pus
b. Cellulitis chronic stage with diffuse swelling no pus
c. Cellulitis acute stage with diffuse swelling and contain pus
d. Cellulitis chronic stage with diffuse swelling and contain pus
50. A 60 years old patient need to make complete denture. He comes to your clinic. During clini
cal examination you found the patient has thick labial frenum with wide base. What kind of
surgery you need to do?
a. Vestibuloplasty b. z-plasty
c. Subperiostum incision d. Deep mucoperiosteum incision
Reference: "Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 173"
Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics
51. Walking non vital bleaching contains which of the following?
a. H20 2 with calcium hydroxide b. Hydrogen peroxide with sodium perborate
c. Superexol with sodiumperborate d. Superexol with calcium hydroxide
Walking bleach technique: This technique calls for a thick paste of hydrogen peroxide, sodium perbo
rate, or a combination of the two to be placed in the coronal portion of the nonvital tooth.
52. Local contraindication of extraction:
a. Patient recently recived radiotheraby b. Tooth in the malignant tumor
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
53. The use of salivary acquired pellicle?
a. Proteinaceous structures layer to protect tooth surface
b. Protects enamel from erosion
c. Aids in remineralization
d. All the above
54. Which of the following impression materials used for making preliminary impressions for
study casts is:
a. Agar agar b. Silicon
c. Alginate d. None
55. Cracked enamel is best diagnosed in clinic by:
a Methylene blue dye b. Fiber-optic light
c. A+B d. None of the above
Reference: Pickard’s Manual of Operative Dentistry, 8th ed, Oxford, p 213
Ans: 49.a, 50.a, 51 .b, 52.c, 53.d, 54.c, 55.c

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Paper 6
The use of a fiber-optic light to transilluminate a fracture line and staining the fracture with a dye, such
as methylene blue, are valuable aids.
56. Which one of the following was the most frequent reason for replacement of a molar restora
tion with larger restoration?
a. New carles b. Recurrent carles
c. Faulty restoration d. All of the above
57. After you did RCT to your patient, he comes back to the clinic after few days with severe pain
on biting. You did x-ray and It revealed that the RCT filling is very good, but you saw radio
paque, thin film like spot on the lateral border of the root. What Is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Accessory canal b. Vertical root canal fracture
c. Lateral canal d. Periapical pathology
58. Which of the following is the best method for the detection of cracked teeth?
a. Horizontal percussion b. Vertical percussion
c. Electric pulp test d. Transillumination test
59. Tooth brushing and dental floss help in community prevention of periodontal disease:
a. True b. False
Reference: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine
60. If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics:
a. A constant amount of drug will be eliminated per unit time.
b. Its clearance value will remain constant.
c. Its half life will Increase with dose.
d. It will be completely eliminated from the body In 2 X half life period.
Reference: K.D. Tripathl’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 27, 28
61. A patient suffering from a cracked enamel, his chief complaint is pain on:
a. Hot stimuli b. Cold stimuli
c. A & B d. Electric test
62. Compomer has same fluoride a s Gl
a. True b. False
GIC releases more fluoride than compomer.
63. The indications for perioradicular surgery include all of the following except:
a Procedural accidents during previous non-surglcal endodontic treatment.
b. Irretrievable separated files In the canal.
c. Failed non-surgical endodontic treatment and persisting radlolucency.
d. Treatment of a non restorable tooth.
Ans: 56.d, 57.b, 58.d, 59.a, 60.b, 61.c, 62.b, 63.d

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64. A patient comes complaining of severe pain on biting, related to a certain tooth. Upon exami
nation no pulpal or periodontal findings, and pulpal vitality is positive. Your diagnosis:
a. Cracked tooth syndrome b. Acute apical periodontitis
c. Chronic apical periodontitis d. Periapical abcess
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p 260
65. Teritary dentine occur due to:
a. Occlusal trauma b. Recurrent caries
c. Attrition dentine d. All of the above
66. How much subgingivally do you go with the band in class II restorations?
a. 0.5-1 mm b. 1-2 mm
c. 2 -3 mm d. 3-4 mm
67. A female patient came to your clinic with dry lips and mouth and bilateral submandibular
edema and ocular dryness. Diagnosis is:
a. Polymorphecadenoma b. Sialadenitis
c. Sjogren's syndrome d. Measles
Symptom of Sjogren’s syndrome is a generalized dryness, typically including xerostomia (dry mouth)
and keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes), part of what are known as sicca symptoms.
68. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration, except:
a. Moisture contamination of porcelain b. Excessive firing temperature
c. Excessive condensation of the porcelain d. Inadequate condensation of porcelain
69. A patient who had a class IIamalgam restoration, next day he returns complaining of discom
fort at the site of the restoration, radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present. This is
due to:
a. Lack of matrix usage b. No burnishing for amalgam
c. Improper finishing d. Lack of polishing of amalagam
70. Which grasp used with hand instruments allows for the greatest intricacy or delicacy of touch ?
a. The modified pen grasp b. The inverted pen grasp
c. The palm and thumb grasp d. The modified palm and thumb grasp
Ans: 64.a, 65.d, 66.a, 67.c, 68.c, 69.a, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 7
1. Patient non-cooperation can result in fault of operation. Technical faults ONLY are related to
patient factor:
a True b. False
Reference: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine
2. Chisels are used primarily to cut:
a. Cementum b. Dentin
c. Enamel d. Amalgam
3. Bone graft material from one site to another site in the same person is called:
a Allograft b. Autograft
c. Alloplast d. Xenograft
4. Amalgam is used in extensive cavities:
a. When the cusp is supported by dentine and proper retentive preparation
b. When cusps lost and thin supported wall
c. When one cusp is lost and need to apply restoration to replace it
d. When all four cusps lost and need to replace
5. Oral adverse effects may result from all the following drugs used for peptic ulcer treatment
except:
a. Proton pump inhibitors b. Clarithromycin
c. Ranitidine d. Sucralfate
Reference: Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry, 5th ed, p 106
6. Rebasing of Complete Denture mean:
a. Addition or change in the fitting surface b. Increasing the vertical dimension
c. Change all the fitting surface d. None of the above
7. When you do class I preparation of posterior tooth for composite rstoration: which of the
following you should follow?
a. Remove caries only b. Extend 2 mm in dentin
c. Prepare proper class I cavity d. Remove only enamel
8. Color stability is better in which of the following?
a. Porcelain b. Composite
c. GIC d. zinc phosphate
Ans: 1 .b, 2.c, 3.b, 4.b, 5.b, 6.c, 7.a, 8.a
D e n to -G u lf fo r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
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9. Paresthesia of lower lip after surgical removal of lower 8 is due to irritation o f inferior alveolar
artery
a. True b. False
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and maxillofacial surgery
10. When all the teeth are missing EXCEPT the 2 canines, according to Kennedy classification:
a. Class I modification 2 b. Class I modification 1
c. Class II d. Class III
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontlcs, p 21
11. Where does the breakdown of Iidocaine occur:
a. Kidneys b. Liver
c. Plasma membrane d. Lungs
Reference: Monhelm’s Local Anesthesia and Pain Control In General Practice
Lidocaine is amino amide type local anesthesia
Amide type local anesthesia = Liver
Ester type local anesthesia = Plasma + liver
12. Best stress transfer under amalgam restoration:
a. With thin base layer b. With thick base layer
c. If put on sound dentin d. Apply varnish
13. Child has bruxism to be treated with sedative:
a. Cusp capping b. Vinyl plastic bite guard
c. Occlusal splint d. Full crown
Reference: Mcdonald’s "Dentistry for Child and Adolescent, p 646"
A vinyl plastic bite guard that covers the occlusal surfaces of all teeth plus 2 mm of the buccal and
lingual surfaces can be worn at night to prevent continuing abrasion. The occlusal surface of the bite
guard should be flat to avoid occlusal interference.
14. After you did upper and lower complete denture for old patient, he comes back to the clinic
next day complaining of discomfort with the denture. After you recheck, no pain, good occlu
sion, good pronunciations. But you notice beginning of inflammation in the gum and outer
margins of the lips. This is due to which of the following?
a. Xerostomia b. Vit-B deficiency
c. Vitamin K deficiency d. Diabetes
15. Amalgam restoration and there is also gold restoration in the mouth. What should the dentist
do? '
a. Change restoration b. Apply separating medium
c. Walt for somedays d. Apply varnish
16. An 8 year old child, suffered a trauma at the TMJ region as infant. Complaining now from
limitation in movement of the mandible. Diagnosis is:
a Sub luxation b. Ankylosis
c. Trismus d. Muscular contraction
Reference: Neellma Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed, p 207
Ans: 9.b, 10.b, 11.b, 12.b, 13.b, 14.a, 15.c, 16.b

Paper 7
17. Nightguard vital bleaching contains following materials:

a. 35-50% hydrogen peroxide b. 5-22% carbamide peroxide
c. 35-50% carbamide peroxide d. 5-22% hydrogen peroxide
18. We redo high copper amalgam restoration when we have:
a. Amalgam with proximal marginal defect b. Amalgam with high points
c. 5 year old amalgam restoration d. None of the above
19. The best matrix for class II amalgam restoration in a second maxillary premolar is:
a Tofflemire matrix b. Celluloid strip
c. Premolar band d. All the above
Reference: Summery of Operative Dentistry, p 220
20. Which of the following methods is used to remove overextended GP?
a. Ultrasonic vibrating b. Dissolving agent
c. Rotary or round bur d. Surgery
21. The most successful technique used with children:
a. TSD b. Hand over mouth
c. Punishment d. Physical restrain
TSD - Tell Show Do
22. Mandibular 1st permanent molar look in morphology as:
a. Primary 1stmand molar b. Primary 2nd mand molar
c. Primary 1st maxmolar d. Primary 2nd maxmolar
23. Sterilization mean killing:
a. Bacteria and virus b. Bacteria, virus, fungus and protozoa,
c. Bacteria and fungus d. Virus and fungus
24. In prevention of dental caries, the promotion of a healthy diet is:
a. Low effective measure b. Moderately effective measure
c. High effective measure d. Mandatory measure
25. Self cured acrylic resins differ from heat cured acrylic resins, in that they:
a. Have a high molecular weight b. Have a higher residual monomer content
c. Are less porous d. Have a greater transverse strength
Reference: Skinner’s Science of Dental Materials, 11 th ed, p 736
Ans: 17.b, 18.a, 19.a, 20.c, 21 .a, 22.b, 23.b, 24.c, 25.b
26. The aim of treatment maintenance is:

a Prevent secondary infection b. Check tissue response,
c. Remove infection d. All the above
27. Hypercementosis and ankylosis is seen in:
a. Paget disease b. Monocytic fibrous dysplasia
c. Hyperparathirodism d. Trauma
28. Irrigation solution for RCT, when there is infection and draining from the canal is:
a Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine potassium
c. Sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium.
Reference: Pocket Atlas of Endodontics, p 154"
29. White lesion bilaterally on cheek and other members in the family has it:
a Leukoplakia b. White sponge nevus
c. Frictional keratosis d. Leukodema
Reference: Goaz White Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, p 116
Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p 1336; Burket, Oral medicine.
30. A patient made for himself a complete denture. After a few days he comes to you complain
ing from pain and white spots on the residual ridge and you do relief in that area and give him
ointment. After a few days he comes again complaining the same but in another area. The
main cause is:
a Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar ridge.
b. Rough tissue contacting surface of denture
c. Increase vertical dimension
d. Absence of balancing occlusion
31. A child patient visits your clinic for oral surgical procedure. While history taking you came to
know the child had a previous history of minor trauma with excessive bleeding, when you do
test. The result showing prolong CT & BT & increased capillary fragility and tournique test is
positive. What is the diagnosis?
a. Hemophelia B b. Thrombocytopenia,
c. Vit. K deficiency d. HemopheliaA
32. The optimal interpin distance depends on the size of the pin to be used. The minimal interpin
distance is______for the Minikin pin and_____for the Minim pin:
a. 0.5 mm, 2 mm b. 1.0 mm, 3 mm
c. 3 mm, 5 mm d. 5 mm, 7 mm
Ans: 26.a, 27.a, 28.c, 29.b, 30.a, 31 .b, 32.c

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 7
33. Head and neck nevi with multi lesion is:

a. Peterson Kelly syndrome b. Van der woody syndrome
c. Eagle syndrome d. Albright syndrome
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology
34. Which of these is not likely to occur In the absence of a good coronal flare?
a. Zip perforation b. Elbow
c. Wall grooving d. Apical over-instrumentation
35. After you inject L.A for 2nd max molar, the patients face becomes colorless with external
swelling. Its due to:
a. Facial artery b. Plexus vein,
c. Posterior alveolar Nerve d. Maxillary artery
Reference: Laskin's Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
Handbook Local Anasthesia, p 168
Hematoma: This is commonly produced by inserting the needle too far posteriorly into the pterygoid
plexus of veins. Additionly, the maxillary artery may be perforated.
36. Glenoid fossa is found in:
a. Orbital cavity b. Nasal cavity
c. Middle cranial fossa d. Temporal bone.
Reference: Henry Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body, p 82
The glenoid fossa = the mandibular fossa.
The mandibular fossa: A depression in the temporal bone that articulates with the condyle of the
mandible and is divided into two parts by a slit.
37. Endocrine and exocrine gland is:
a. Pancreas b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid gland d. Salivary gland
e. Sweat gland
Reference: Wikipedia
The pancreas is a gland organ in the digestive and endocrine system of vertebrate. It is both an
endocrine gland producing several important hormones, including insulin, glucagon, and somatosta
tin, as well as an exocrine gland, secreting pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes that pass
to the small intestine. These enzymes help to further breakdown the carbohydrates, protein, and fat
in the chyme.
38. During post removal, the first thing to do is:
a. Remove the old G.P
b. Remove all the old restoration & undermined enamel & caries.
c. Insertion of post immediately
d. All the above
Ans: 33.d, 34.d, 35.b, 36.d, 37.a, 38.b

52. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol
as a function of the:
a Concentration of the fillers and plasticizers
b. Percentage of composition by weight of water
c. Concentration of potassium sulfate
d. Temperature
53. Incipient caries in the old patients is mostly due to:
a. Smoking b. Saliva
c. Xerostomia d. Oral habits
54. The best definition to odontoblast:
a. It is subjacent to predentine, odontoblastic process.
b. It is the cells which produce enamel.
c. It is the cells which produce centum.
d. It is the cells which produce pulp tissues.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulp (tooth)
Odontoblastic layer; outermost layer which contains odontoblasts and lies next to the predentin and
mature dentin.
55. Patency filling in endodontics is:
a. Push the file apically to remove any block at the apex
b. Rotate the file circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals.
c. Rotary files circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals.
d. File with bleaching agent.
56. Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone insert in coronoid pro
cess:
a. True b. False
57. The most commonly used irrigant in endodo itics, sodium hypochlorite (NaOCI) is used in
the concentration of:
a 1% b. 2 .6 %
c. 5.25% d. All of the above
58. Use of Gracey 13/14 instrument:
a. Posterior mesial b. Posterior distal
c. Anteriormesial d. Anterior distal
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periodonta curette
Ans: 52.d, 53.c, 54.a, 55.a, 56.a, 57.d, 58.b

B e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Paper 7
59. Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin therapy is:

a Most common on lingual surface b. Most common In older patients
c. Strongly related to phenytoin dosage d. Strongly related to poor oral hygiene
60. When a long span FPD is fabricated, the:
a. Pontlcs and connectors should be made as bulky as possible
b. Pontics should be made thin and the connectors bulky
c. Pontlcs should be made bulky and the connectors thin
d. Pontics and connectors should be made as thin as possible
Reference: Shillingburg's Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics, p 90
61. In recording mandible-maxilla relation, the best material used without producing pressure is:
a Wax b. Compound
c. Bite registration paste d: Impression material —
Zinc oxide eugenol paste is used as bite registration paste
62. Why the moist heat sterilization is better than dry heat sterilization
a. Can be used with heat sensitive instruments
b. Makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
c. Needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane
d. Needs less time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane.
63. Last sensation disappear after LA administration:
a. Pain b. Deep pressure,
c. Temperature d. Touch
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain control in General Practice, 7th ed, p 133
http://www.scribd.eom/doc/17106080/Local-Anesthetics
Both sensory and motor nerves are equally sensitive.
Order of pain blockade is pain, temperature, touch, deep pressure sense.
Applied to tongue - bitter taste is lost first, followed by sweet and sour, and salty taste is lost last of all.
64. The following factors affect the health:
1. Hereditary 2. Environement
3. Social and economic factors 4. Family welfare
a. 1+2 b. 1+2+4
c. 1+2+3 d. All of the above.
Ans: 59.d, 60.a, 61 .c, 62.d, 63.b, 64.d

9. Which cytochrome is responsible for drug metabolism?

a. P-450 b. C-3b
c. C-3a d. C-2a
Reference: K.D. Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p 21 Q.No. 47
10. The most common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
a Osteochondrosarcoma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Leiomyosarcoma d. Chondrosarcoma
11. A patient came with fracture because of blow in the right side of his face. He has ecchymosis
around the orbit in the right side only and subjunctional bleeding in the maxillary buccal
vestible, with limited mouth open what is ur diagnosis?
a. Le Fort 1 b. Le Fort 2
c. Le Fort 3 d. Zygomatic fracture
Zygoma fracture: clinical flattening of the cheekbone prominence, paraesthesia in distribution area of
infraorbital nerve, diplopia, restricted eye movements, subconjunctival hemorrhage - limited lateral
excursions of mandibular movements palpable step In Infraorbital bony margin.
12. Fordyce’s granules occurs mostly In the:
a. Tongue b. Palate and bilaterally symmetric
c. Palate d. Buccal mucosa and bilaterally symmetric
Reference: Goaz White’s Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, p 225
13. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly patient for construction of lower denture easily,
displaceable tissue Is seen in the crest of ridge. Management is:
a. Minor surgery is needed.
b. Inform the patient that retention of denture will decrease.
c. Special Impression technique Is required.
d. Denture construction Is not possible
Reference: Winkler's Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics
14. Wave length of C02 laser is:
a 488 nm b. 532 nm
c. 1060nm d. 10600nm
Reference: Dhlngra’s Ear Nose and Throat, p 315
15. Fluorides are most anticaries effective when
a Incorporated in the tooth enamel
b. Present In the blood stream
c. Present in the plaque and tissue fluids bathing the newly erupted tooth.
Ans: 9.a, 10.b, 11 .d, 12.d, 13.c, 14.d, 15.a

Paper B
d. Present in the ingested foods

e. Present on the intraoral mucous membranes
16. Fluoride is not taken up systemically from which of the following sources:
a. Water b. Food
c. Dentifrices d. Topical applications of fluoride
17. Hyponatremia may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
a. Glucocorticoid deficiency b. SIADH
c. Diabetes insipidus d. Hypothyroidism
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine.
18. Type I diabetes mellitus can be characterized as:
a. Non-lnsulin-dependent b. Adult-onset
c. Ketosis-prone diabetes d. Accompanied by normal cell activity
Ketosis-prone diabetes - severe diabetes mellitus with an early onset
19. Which of the following statements is true for the reported relationship of periodontal disease
and diabetes mellitus?
a. The reported incidence of periodontal disease In the diabetes Is less than that for nondlabetlc
b. Patients with history of diabetes of less than 10 years have more periodontal disease destruction
than those with history of longer than 10 years.
c. The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the advancing age of the diabetic.
d. The prevalence of periodontal disease Increases with the better metabolic coronal of the diabetic
state.
20. The most common method for strengthening glass is by:
a Ion exchange b. Thermal tempering
c. Dispersion strengthening d. Transformation toughening
21. The spontaneous production of an electric current resulting from two dissimilar metals in
the oral cavity is called:
a Nuclear reaction b. Galvanic action
c. Precipitation reaction d. Thermodynamics
e. Fission
Ans: 16.d, 17.c, 18.c, 19.c, 20.b, 21 .b

22. The first step in diagnostic workup is obtaining the:

a. Medical history b. Present complaint
c. Biographical data d. Restorative history
e. Traumatic history
23. In permanent dentition, centers of formation for each tooth are:
a. Two or more b. Three or more
c. Four or more d. Five or more
Reference: Wheeler's Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, p 42
24. The basic difference between K files and reamers is:
a The number of spirals or flutes per unit length.
b. The geometric cross section
c. The depth of flutes.
d. The direction of the spirals.
25. In case of traumatic intrusion of young permanent incisor; the treatment of choice is:
a Surgical repositioning of intruded tooth and splinting.
b. To wait for re-eruption of the intruded tooth
c. Slow orthodontic extrusion using light force
d. Only antibiotic prescription and wait for eruption
26. Best treatment of choice for carious exposure of a primary molar in a 3 year old child who
complain of toothache during and after food taking:
a. Direct pulp capping with CaOH b. Direct pulp capping with ZO E paste
c. Formocresol pulpotomy d. CaOH pulpotomy
27. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action for denture adhesive is not
correct?
a. It depends in part on physical force and viscosity.
b. Carboxyl group provides bio adhesion.
c. Greater water solubility increases duration of adhesion.
d. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion.
28. What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped cervical erosion lesion to be restored with
glass ionomer cement?
a. Cervical groove, incisal groove
b. Cervical groove, incisal bevel
c. 4 Retention points, 90 degree margin
d. No mechanical preparation is necessary
Ans: 22.b, 23.c, 24.b, 25.b, 26.c, 27.a, 28.d

29. Which implant type is most commonly used?
a. Endosteal implant b. Subperiosteal implant
c. Transosteal implant d. Epithelial implant
Reference: Skinner's Science of Dental Materials, p 761
30. One week after filling of class II restoration, the patient presents with a complain of tender
ness on mastication and bleeding from the gingival. The dentist should initially:
a Check the occlusion.
b. Check the contract area.
c. Consider the probability of hyperemia.
d. Explain to the patient that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue and prescribe an anal
gesic and warm oral rinse.
31. What’s the best implant type allowing osseointegration:
a. Subperiosteal implant
b. Transosteal implant
c. Root-form endosseous implant
d. Epithelial implant
32. It is recommended to avoid an intraligamental injection when the planned dental treatment
is:
a. Pulp extirpation b. Pulpotomy
c. Full crown preparation d. a and b
33. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of autoclaving endodontics instruments?
a. It can dull the sharp edges of instruments
b. All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by it.
c. Compared to other technique it takes too long to sterilize.
Reference: Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis
34. The root canal treated teeth has the best prognosis when the root canal is instrumented and
obturated:
a. To the radiograph apex. b. 1 mm beyond the radiograph apex,
c. 1-2 mm short of the radiograph apex. d. 3-4 mm short of the radiograph apex.
35. Which of the following streptococcus strain is not cariogenic?
a. Streptococcus mitior b. Streptococcus milleri
c. Streptococcus oralis d. Streptococcus lactis
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology’s, p 575
Ans: 29.a, 30.b, 31.c, 32.b, 33.a, 34.c, 35.d

36. Which of the following would be clinically unacceptable as a primary of isolating a tooth for
sealant placement?
a. Cotton roll b. Rubber dam
c. Vaccum ejector moisture control system d. None of the above
37. Which one of the following is least likely to contribute to oral bad breath:
a. Periodontal disease b. Denture
c. Faulty restoration d. Carious lesions
38. Each of the following Is correct EXCEPT:
a. Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria in origin.
b. Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common.
c. Self-perceptions of bad breath appear to be unreliable.
d. Fear of having bad breath may be a severe problem for some people.
39. Which one of the following Is not a characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity?
a. It is one of the most successfully treated chronic dental problems.
b. Its prevalence range from 8 to 30%.
c. The majority of the patients who experience it are from 20 to 40 years of age.
d. One source of the irritation that leads to hypersensitivity is improper tooth brushing.
40. Hypersensitivity is due to:
a. Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules
b. Obliterated dentinal tubule
c. Exposed root surface
d. Fracture enamel
41. Specific gravity of enamel is:
a. 1.9. b. 2.2
c. 2.5. d. 2.8.
42. Patient with severe pain in lower left mandibular molar, examination positive pulp test, per
cussion test, no radiographic abnormality:
a Chronic apical periodontits b. Acute apical periodontitis
c. Apical abcess d. None of the above
43. Intraorally, the best biocompatible metals is:
a. Cobalt chromium b. Nickle chromium
c. Gold d. Titanium
44. Which constitutes major energy reserves In muscles?
a. Creatine phosphate b. ATP.
c. GTP d. None of the above
Ans: 36.d, 37.b, 38.c, 39.a, 40.a, 41.d, 42.b, 43.d, 44.a
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lt C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper B
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, p 573

45. Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from:
a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue
c. Bone tissue d. Blood
46. Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma in the body:
a. Postero-lateral border of tongue b. Floor of the mouth
c. Buccal mucosa d. Lip
e. Skin
47. Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma:
a. Postero-lateral border of tongue b. Floor of the mouth
c. Buccal mucosa d. Lip
e. Skin
Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed, p 71-72
Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, p 35
The floor of the mouth is the most common sites of intraoral cancer.
48. The majority of introral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:
a Poorly differentiated b. Well moderately differentiated
c. Spindle cell in type d. Carcinoma in situation
49. Early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity present as:
a. Vesicle b. Sessile mass
c. A red plaque d. An ulcer
e. A white cauliflower like lesion f. c + d
Reference: Burket, Oral Medicine - A white" cauliflower like lesion" S C P p 553
Clinical appearance: Most often seen as a painless ulcer, although may present as a swelling, an
area of leukoplakia, erythroleukoplakia or erythroplakia (A reddened patch), or as malignant change of
long-standing benign tumors or rarely in cyst linings. Pain is usually a late feature when the lesion
becomes superinfected or during eating of spicy foods. Referred otalgia is a common manifestation
of pain from oral cancer. The ulcer is described as firm with raised edges, with an indurated, in
flamed, granular base and is fixed to surrounding tissues.
Squamous cell papillomas may present as exophytic pedunculated papules with a cauliflower-like
appearance.
Ans: 45.a, 46.b, 47.b, 48.b, 49.f

59. Contraindication for endo treatment, all EXCEPT:

a Non strategic tooth a. Non restorabie teeth
b. Vertical fracture teeth c. Tooth with large periapical lesion
Reference: Grossman's Endodontic Practice
60. First choice of drug for petitmal epilepsy is:
a Carbamazepine b. Clonozepam
c. Valproic acid. d. Primidone.
Reference: Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry, p 301
61. Artificial teeth of complete denture should be placed
a. Over the crest of ridge b. Buccal to crest of ridge
c. Lingual to crest of ridge d. On the buccal shelf area in molar region
62. A patient is having a nodule like lesion on palate who is wearing complete denture. Complete
denture needs to be replaced as it is not fitting well. What do you do?
a. Remove the nodular like lesion surgically,
b. Use the old denture and put soft tissue liner to complete denture.
c. Rebasing the complete denture
63. Supragingival and subgingival calculus:
a. Supragingival is more mineralized.
b. Subgingival calculus is mineralized after absorption of calcium from GCF.
c. Subgingival is easy to detach
d. Supragingival is difficult to detach
64. Most common disease in human mouth is:
a. Gingivitis b. Periodontitis
c. Gingival hyperplasia d. Apthous ulcer
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology
65. The teeth has No response to heat, cold or electric pulp test and no swelling present but TOP
positive:
c. Acute apical periodontitis d. Acute suppurative periodontitis
66. Pre curving of dental files is done by:
a. Bare hands b. Piler
c. Tweezer d. Gauze sponge
Ans: 59.c, 6Q.c, 61 .a, 62.a, 63.b, 64.a, 65.c, 66.d

Paper B
67. Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for white sponge nevus?
a. Cheek chewing b. Leukoplakia
c. Leukoderma d. Chemical burns
Reference: Goaz White’s Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, p 116
68. Protocol for disinfection:
a. Inspection, cleaning, sterilization, storage
b. Initial inspection, cleaning, inspection, sterilization, storage
c. Cleaning, sterilization, storage
d. Sterilization, storage
69. How to confirm, two canals in a same root?
a. 2 files in canal and radiograph b. Location of tooth and root
c. Clinical examination d. Pulp test
70. Extreme bone fragility is characteristic feature of:
a. Type II Ol b. Type III Ol
c. Type IV Ol d. Type I Ol
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology’s, p 957
Ans: 67.d, 68.b, 69.a, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 9
1. When we take an x-ray of a pregnant lady, we use all of these methods EXCEPT:
a. Digital x-ray b. High sensitive film
c. Paralleling tech 16 inch d. Bisecting angle 8 inch
e. Lead apron with thyroid collar
Reference: White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology, 5th ed, p 89
The 8 inch technique exposes more tissues by producing divergent beam.
2. When we take IOPA x-ray we should stand:
a. 6 feet away in 90-135 angle b. 3 feet away in 90-135 angle
c. Its not necessary d. Parellal to X-ray
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, 5th ed.
3. Proximal caries should be opened when:
a. Confined within enamel b. Pass DE junction
c. Dentin laterally d. All of the above
4. Hyperplasia of cementum is characterized by;
a. Decrease in numberof Sharpe’s fibres b. Increase in number of Sharpe's fibres
c. Total lack of fibres d. None of the above
Reference: Orban’s Oral Histology and Embryology, 149
5. In a study, it should:
a. Protect you against role of the statistician b. Protect you against legal risks
c. Protect against physical risk d. All the above
6. Ethics of the study include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Privacy of all subjects.
b. Informed consent may be required or not.
c. Object if the subject refuses to take part in the study
7. Which of the following does not get hydrolyzed by alpha amylase?
a. Starch b. Glycogen
c. Cellulose d. Dextrin
Reference: Satyanarayana’s Biochemistry, p 22
In clinical research:
a No difference between blind & double blind b. If there’s need of intervention
c. All the above d. None of the above
Cause of angular cheilitis:
a Loss of vertical dimension b. Increase in vertical dimension
c. Autoimmune factors d. Poor oral hygiene
Ans: 1.d, 2.a, 3.b, 4.a, 5.b, 6.c, 7.c, 8.b, 9.a
Paper 9
10. Ugly duckling stage:

a. 6-9 years old b. 9-11 years old.
c. 13-15 years old. d. 7-9 years old.
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science, p 48
11. Eruption of primary dentition starts from:
a. 6-7 months b. 1 year
c. 9 months d. 3 months
12. Component of gutta percha:
a. 70% Gp & 30% ZO E b. 90% Gp & 10% ZO E
c. 50% Gp & 50% ZO E d. 20% Gp & 70% ZOE.
Reference: Ingle's Endodontics, p 372
ZO E & barium sulfate inorganic 75%
Gutta percha transpolyisoprene organic 23%
13. All are irrigation for canals EXCEPT:
a Saline b. Hydrogen beroxide
c. NaoCI d. RC prep
e. EDTA
14. Which of the following primary tooth does not resemble any other tooth in primary for per
manent dentition?
a. Primary maxillarysecond molar b. Primary mandibular 1st molar
c. Primary mandibular 2ndmolar d. All of the above
Reference: Wheeler's Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, 5th ed, p 91
15. For post preparation we should leave GP of:
a. 10 mm b. 5 mm
c. 2 mm d. 15 mm
16. Proximal caries confined within enamel:
a. Prevention. b. Observation
c. Restore with G I d. Root canal
17. A disadvantage for a given individual that limits or prevents the fulfillment of a role that is
normal for that individual is known as:
a. Morbidity b. Impairment
c. Disability d. Handicap
Ans: 10.b, 11.a, 12.d, 13.d, 14.b, 15.b, 16.a, 17.d

18. In community diagnosis and treatment program:

a. Water flouridation b. Diagnose, prevent, treat,
c. PersonalOHI d. All the above
Reference: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine
19. Pass through parotid gland:
a. Facial nerve b. Facial arteries
c. External carotid veins d. Mandibular nerve
Structures which pass through the parotid gland:
The facial nerve and its branches run through the gland superficial to the retromandibular vein
The external carotid artery, which gives off its two terminal branches, the maxillary artery and the
superficial temporal artery, inside the gland
The retromandibular vein
20. Porcelain shrinkage after firing:
a. 1-5% b. 5-10%
c. 10-20% d. 20-25%
At a firing temperature of 1400° C, they shrink by 30-40% percent.
21. The cement under MOD amalgam have this character
a. High modulus of elasticity
b. Low modulus of elasticity
c. The high modulus of elasticity prevent of bonding and decrease tensile strength
d. Both a & c
22. Examination of patient’s health by the dentist:
a To know the patient’s health. b. To know what medications to give,
c. To know general health data d. All of the above.
23. Which factor can be included in all the 3 factors of epidemiological triad, i.e., host, agent and
environment?
a. Fluoride b. Socio-economic status
c. Urbanization d. Nutrition
Reference: Hiremath's Textbook of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p 122
24. Most frequent cause of fainting in dental office:
a Vaso-vagal shock b. Diabetes
c. Fear d. Local anesthesia
Reference: Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office
Ans: 18.b, 19.a, 20.d, 21 .a, 22.d, 23.d, 24.a

Paper 9
25. Most frequent cause for the loss of consciousness is:

a Syncope b. C 0 2
c. Hyper oxygen d. Local anesthesia
26. Most common cyst oral cavity:
a Radicular cyst b. Peridontal cyst
c. Dentigerous cyst d. Naso palatine cyst
27. Osteomyelitis — most in:
a. Maxilla b. Mandible
c. Skull bones d. Skeletal bones
28. Factors delay healing of wound:
a. Infection b. Torn wound edges
c. Strain d. All of the above
29. In Pathfinder survey which of the following age groups are chosen by the W.H.O.?
a. 6,12,15, 35-44, 65-74 years b. 5,12,15,35-44,65-74 years
c. 6,12, 15, 30-40,60-70 years d. 5,12,15,30-40,60-70 years
30. Factor interferes with healing:
a Poor suturing b. Infection
c. Mobilization of wound edges d. All the above
31. Dry socket happens after:
a 24 h b. 3-5 days
c. 1 week d. 2 weeks
32. A ll the following are examples of diseases causing aplastic anemia, EXCEPT:
a. PNH b. Hepatitis
c. Pregnancy d. Cold hemoglobinuria
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed, p 618
33. Aphthous ulcers occur in:
a. Small size b. In mucosa lining
c. Leave scars d. Occur in childrens
Ans: 25.a, 26.a, 27.b, 28.d, 29.b, 30.d, 31 .b, 32.d, 33.b
34. The important factor that affects reimplantation of avulsed tooth is:
a Contaminated roots b. Time since the avulsion
c. Skill of dentist d. Patient age
35. Pancreatic cholera is characterized by all except:
a Hypochlorhydria b. Hypokalemia
c. Glucose intolerance d. Hypocalcemia
36. Nicotine stomatitis:

a Palatal hyperplasia b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Prickle cell like shape d. Basal cell lesion
37. Dentinogenisis imperfecta have all EXCEPT:
a Broken enamel b. Blue sclera
c. Broken bone d. Supernumerary teeth
Dentinogenesis imperfecta, type I includes the 14 symptoms listed below:
Bluish-grayteeth- Amber-colored teeth - Bulbous teeth crowns
Absent - toothcanals-pulp chambersroots
Too small-canals tooth-pulpchambersroots
Enamel separation (dentin) from the ivory
Misaligned-recurring dental teeth abscess - Brittle bones - Blue sclera
38. Generalized gray discoloration in a 28 year old patient’s teeth, with blue sclera and an en
larged pulp chamber and short roots, and multiple fractures in enamel. The diagnosis is:
a Dentinogenesis Imperfecta b. Amelogenesis Imperfecta
c. Ghost tooth d. None of the above
39. The unheated catalyst used in Mclntosh-Fildes jar is:
a. Pallidinised asbestos b. Pallidinised alumina
c. None of these d. Both of these
40. X-ray shows large pulp chamber, thin dentine layer andenamel:
a. Dentogerous imperfecta b. Dentinal dysplasia,
c. Amelogenesis Imperfecta d. None of the above
Ans: 34.b, 35.d, 36.c, 37.d, 38.a, 39.b, 40.a
w D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
^-aoe f
Reference: OKforo nandoool o; Ciinica. Dentistry. 4tr ec.. p 73

Shafer’s Textbook of Ora! Pathology
41. Most important sigr. oi fracture of mandible:
a. Nose bleeding b. Malocclusion
c. Parasthesia d. Difficult mouth opening
Laskin’s Clinician's Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
42. An increase in shear stress in a blood vessel results in which of the following changes?
a. Decreased endothelin production b. Increased nitric oxide release,
c. Increased renin production d. Decreased prostacyclin production.
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11 th ed, p 199
43. Hairy tongue is elongation of:
a Fungiform papillae. b. Filiform papillae,
c. Circumvalate papillae d. Minor salivary glands
A commonly observed condition of defective desquamation of the filiform papillae.
44. What supply the gingival buccal tissue of premolars, canines and incisors?
a. Long buccal b. Inferior alveolar nerve
c. Superior alveolar nerve d. Lingual nerve
Mental nerve (branch of inferior alveolar) supply buccal gingivae of the mandibular anterior teeth and
the premolars.
45. Drainage o f tip o f the tongue:
a. Sub lingual lymph nodes b. Submandibular lymph nodes
c. Submental lymph nodes d. Parotid lymph nodes
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students. Vol III, p 252
Drainage of tongue
Deep cervical nodes: Drains median part of anterior two-thirds;
Retropharyngeal: Drains posterior third;
Submandibular: Drains lateral part of anterior two-thirds;
Submental: Drains tip of tongue (through tongue muscles and mylohyoid).
46. Cementum in cervical 2/3 have:
a. Acellular intrinsic fiber b. Acellular extrinsic fiber
c. Cellular mixed fibers d. Intermediate cementum
Reference: Orban's Ora' Histology and Embryology
Acellular intrinsic fiber present in coronal cementum
Acellular extrinsic fiber cervical 2/3 of root
Cellular mixed fibers present in apical area of root
Intermediate cementum Dresenf near CEJ o* root
A n s : * i .b. 42.b. 43,fc, 44.b. 4 5 .o 40.b

se ttlo r I! IViods; Ouesuor ^npe';
47. in amaigan pir. restoration trie pins are inserted into:

a. Enamel b. Dentin
c - DEJ d. All
Reference: Sturdevant s An and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 773
Should be atleast 2 mm depth in dentin, 0,5 mm iron DEJ. 2 mm thickness of amalgam above it.
48. After etching of enamel, and bond it with 5th generation to the strength of:
a. 5-10 Mp b. 25 Mp
c. 30 Mp d. 100 Mp
49. If epinephrine 1: WO 000 in 2% xylocaln e , what is the amount of LA in mg?
a. 2 Mg b. 1.8 mg
c. 36 mg d. 0.36 mg
50. Ergotoxicosis is caused by:
a. Aspergillus flavus b. Claviceps purpurea
c. T. schoenieinni d. Cladosporium
51. Composite restoration that was matching in shade, after one week it became much light in
shade. The reason could be:
a. Light started photo initation b. Absorption of water
c. Shade selected after rubber dam d. Its usual in composite restoration
52. Disadvantages of digital x-ray EXCEPT:
a Large disk space storage b. Clarity and resolution
c. Expensive d. Minimum x-ray exposure
White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, 5th ed.
53. Properties of ideal endo obturation material are all EXCEPT:
a. Biocompatible b. Antibiotic action
c. Easy to remove during reRCT d. Radiolucent
54. Reverse T3 is:
a Synthetic derivative. b. Isomerization product of T3 and active
c. isomerization product of T3 and inactive. d. Reverse of T3.
Reference Ganong s Review of Medical Physiology. 22nd ed, p 317
55. Patient has hyperventilation in clinic. Most common cause:
a. Reduced of CO b. Increase CO,
c. Anxiety d. Increased 0 ,
Ans: 47.b. 4B.b, 49.c, 50.b. 51 .c. 52.b. 53.d. 54.c. 55.c
Y Pentc-C’ iir '.n i' C 'v n T ’ i+t- Lisf-nsfit- exam ination?

Paper 9
56. Very important part in endo treatment:

a. Complete debridement of the canal b. Obturation of canal
c. Access opening d. Pulp extrlpltation
57. Perio endo lesion the primary treatment should start with
a. Endo treatment. b. Deep scaling and root planning,
c. Periodontal surgery d. All the above
58. A 3 year old child with vesiculobuilous eruptions on the face and hands, discoloration of
teeth which exhibit red fluorescence under UV light is suffering from:
a. Erythroblastosis fetalis b. Progeria
c. Congenital porphyria d. Congenital copper Intoxication
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathologys, 4th ed, p 628
59. Provisional luting cement:
a. Prevents restoration from dislodgement. b. Sealing
c. Provides thermal insulation for tooth d. All the above
60. Contraindication to extraction:
a. Cardiac patient b. Recent dialysis
c. Hypertension d. Previous recent radio therapy.
Also, coagulopathy; uncontrolled diabetic; hematologic malignancy; leukemia; uncontrolled cardiac
disease.
61. Base of the flap should be wide for:
a Healing b. Better blood supply to the wound,
c. For better suture placement d. Nothing relevent
62. Supra gingival calculus all true EXCEPT:
a. Hard and rough b. Easy to detach
c. Yellowish in colour d. All the above
Supra gingival calculus less harder, clay in nature, white or yellowish in color its component mostly
from saliva. Sub gingival calculus hard, dark in color(green on black), most of its component from
cervical fluid, difficult to detect.
63. Thickness of luting cement:
a. 100 micrometer b. 40 micro meter
c. 400 micrometer d. 1 mm
Best thickness 15-25 micro meter
Ans: 56.a, 57.a, 58.c, 59.a, 60.d, 61 .b, 62.a, 63.b

D e n to -C u lf - F or G u li C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
Secnas I. irtooe « u e s ii-
64. Formacresol used in:

a, Full concentration b 5th concentratior
c. One fifth concentration c hat coricehr min
65. Decreased hypothalamic function causes oep~essec ievets r a/ o tne tobowmc normone*
except:
a. Growth hormone b. Prolactin
c. TSH d. ACTH
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology. 22nd ed. p 248
66. Zinc phosphate cement:
a. Mechanical attachment b. Chemical attachment
c. Mechano-chemical attachment d. All the above
67. Gingival bleeding may be seen in all of the following except:
a Wiskott Aldrich syndrome b. May Hegglin anomaly
c. Bernard Soulier syndrome d. All of the above
Reference: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 10th ed. p 461
68. Weight loss may be seen in all of the following except:
a. Uremia b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Adrenal insufficiency d. Insulinoma
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed. p 2227
69. Pontic design of an FPD:
a Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth
b. Smaller than missing buccolingually .
c. Wider buccolingually
Reference: Shillingburg's Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics. p 90
70. The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber is primarily dependent on the concentration
gradient of which ion?
a. K4 b. Na1
c. Ca44 d. Cl
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Phvsioiogv ' ' tin ed. p 60
Ans: 64.c, 65.b 66.a GCc. 6£.d of .:

i y
1 . A 25 year old patient comes to the clinic after he has an accident. X-ray revealed bilateral
fracture of the condoyle, but his mandible movements are normal. What will be your man
agement?
a. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation
b. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks
cr Inter mandibular fixation ^ ...
d. No treatment is performed only anti-inflammatory drugs and observation
Observation If there is change in occlusion: Perform open reduction and bone plating of one side only
If no changes: Conservative treatment, including close observation, soft diet, physiotherapy, and
functional appliances, is advised in most cases.
Unilateral condylar fractures without displacement, are generally treated conservatively using arch
bars and intermaxillary fixation.
2. A 6 years old patient received trauma in his maxillary primary incisor, the tooth is intruded.
The permanent incisors are expected to have:
a. Yellowish discoloration b. Displacement
c. Malformation d. Cracks In enamel
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology’s, 4th ed, p 55
Yellowish or whitish discoloration with hypoplasia. Turner’s hypoplasia
Reference: Atlas of Oral Medicine, p 151
Enamel hypoplasia: Trauma or infections of developing teeth.
3. What is the best media for keep avulsion tooth:
a. In water, same temperature of room b. In milk, same temperature of room
c. In cold water d. In cold milk
Reference: http://www.dentistrv.com/conditions/dental-emeraencv/dental-care-for-traumatic-dental-
injuries
If circumstances such as contaminated wounds, extensive injuries, or multiple tooth loss preclude
re-implantation of the tooth, transport it to the dental office in a container of milk, preferably cool
temperature. The patient’s own saliva or water are secondary choices.
Reference: htip:/.''www.sbtd.ora.br/io'jrnal/2009/artiaos/BJDT-v1 n2a07.PDF
Eagle’s medium was less effective than milk attributed to the low temperature (4?C) of storage at the
study. This low temperature may have induced aggregation and thus lowered the cell’s functional
capacity needed to evaluate the effectiveness of this medium at higher temperatures.
Reference: Pediatric critical care medicine basic science and clinical evidence
Cold milk aids in keeping the PDL fibers healthy during transport.
.'J .
Zc-'jr.rn*: Lfaen&inc Examination*

Settlor 1!. Ntode; Questior Paper;
4. A child patient with the blood report of prolong PT and slightly increase in clotiing time and
increase capillary fragility and Tournique test is positive. The diagnosis is:
a Hemophelia B b. HemopheliaA
c. Thrombocytopenia d. Vit. K deficiency
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, p 274
5. A Patient needs complete denture. When you did the examination you noticed the maxillary
tuberosity will be interfere with denture:
a. Need 12 No. blade to be extention b. Partial thickness flap extend
c. Buccal & palatal suture under tension d. None of the above
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, (2004) p 169
Tuberosity reduction:
Excesses in the maxillary tuberosity may consist of soft tissue, bone, or both. Sounding, which is
performed with a needle, can differentiate between the causes with a local anesthetic needle or by
panoramic radiograph. Bony irregularities may be identified, and variations in anatomy as well as the
level of the maxillary sinuses can be ascertained. Excesses in the area of the maxillary tuberosity
may encroach on the interarch space and decrease the overall freeway space needed for proper
prosthetic function. Access to the tuberosity area can be obtained easily using a crestal incision
beginning in the area of the posterior tuberosity and progressing forward to the edge of the defect
using a No. 12 scalpel blade. Periosteal dissection then ensues exposing the underlying bony anatomy.
Excesses in bony anatomy are removed using a side-cutting rongeur.
6. Histopathologically, of early verrucous carcinomas:
a. Have characteristic microscopic features.
b. Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
c. Can be confused with lichen planus
d. Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation, 3rd ed, p 170-171,
7. For recording of vertical dimention we use:
a. Willis Gauge b. Caliper
c. Face bow d. Ruler
Reference: Questions and Answers for Dental Nurses
Resting face height is assessed using:
A Willis gauge, to measure nose and the underside distance of the chin. Is only accurate to ±1 mm.
Spring dividers, to measure the distance of patient’s nose. This method is less popular with patients
and is C/l for bearded gentlemen (or ladies!).
The patient's appearance and speech - Willis gauge is used to record the occlusal face height of
the the patient.
8. What is the name of bur used in proximal surface of iaminate veneer?
a. Radial b. Diamond
c. Fissure d. Titanium
Reference: http://www.brasselerusa.com/documents/Nixon Porcelain%20Veneer%20il.pdf
The facial depth cuts are removed with the 850-014 diamond bur, and the long axis of the diamond
bur is “rolled" into the proximal.
Ans: 4.c, 5.a, 6.a, 7.a. 8.b

D em o-C tul' - * o C u t' C o u n trie s U se n e tn g Exam inations-
P a p e r 10
9. What is the name of bur used in facial surface of veneer?

a. Radial b. Diamond
http://www.brasselerusa.com/products/displav-cfm?zoom=diamonds&id=38
Round-end diamonds create chamfer margin and facial reduction for direct and indirect veneer res
torations
10. A patient feels severe pain in upper mouth. Pain is radiated to eye and ear. After you have
checked with no caries when you apply pressure on maxillary premolar, he feels pain. In IOPA
x-ray no changes seen. What is your dignosis?
a. Acute apical periodontits b. Maxilary sinusitis
c. Canine space infection d. Dentoalveolar infection
11. A patient is having unilateral pain on one side of his face. Pain started after a touching the
face. The diagnosis is? _ . .
a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Bell’s palsy
c. Myofacial pain d. None of the above
12. In pacifier habit patient what will you see in his mouth?
a. Open bite b. Cross bite
c. Deep bite d. Scissor bite
Reference: Dentistry for Child and Adolescent
Children who were pacifier users were significantly more likely to show open bite, posterior crossbite
increased overjet, and alteration in cheek mobility than habit-free children action during sucking,
which leads to gingival injury recession, and loss of alveolar bone.
13. What type pontic design would you give to a patient with a high esthetic demand when pre
paring teeth number 9 -11 for a F P D:
a Ridge lap b. An ovate pontic
c. Modified ridge lap pontic d. Hygiene pontic
Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p 483
14. Skeletal bone of skull develops from:
a. Neurocranium ossification b. Intramembranous ossification
c. Endochondral ossification d. All the above
Introduction to Orthodontics, Laura Mitchel, 3rd ed, p 33
The developing human clinical embrylogy, 7th ed
Intramembranous: Seen during embryonic development direct transformation of mesenchymal cell
to osteoblast. Occur in facial bone, clavira, mandible, clavicle.
Ans: 9.b, 10.b, 11.a, 12.a, 13.c, 14.d

D e n to -G u tf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
. I
a & s tio r 1. (O o e e ^ u iè s . i D ' '■ n it . ; .

1
Endochondral is seen in long bone of limb and trie crania, base.
Ossification takes place in hyaline cartlige.
15. The wavelength of ultraviolet radiation is:
a. 150-180 nm b. 240-280 nrn
c. 300-360 nm d. 180-240 nm
15. A patient has taken heparins. He should be done surgery' after: 1
a. 1 hr b. 2 hr
c. 4 hr d. 6 hr
17. Phenotoin should not be given along with:
a. Tetracycline
c. Pencillin
b. Metronidazole
d. All of the above
n
18. The tendency for turbulent flow is greatest in which of the following? n
a. Arterioles b. Capillaries
c. Small arterioles d. Aorta
Reference: Guyton and Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11th ed, p 166
19. A pregnant 25 years patient, bleeding on probing, location on papilla of anterior area of the
maxilla, Isolated:
n
a. Giant cell granuloma b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Gingival hyperplasia d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p 4 14
20. Shick test, which is true?
a. Test positive patient susceptible to infection b. Test negative patient immune to infection
a. a+b are true b. a only true
c. b only true d. Both are wrong
21. Highly esthetic porcelain is:
a. Dicor b. In ceram
c. Impress d. Zirconium
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics. p 435
In-Ceram has been used to fabricate fixed partial dentures, but the manufacture- recommends only
short-span (three-unit) anterior restorations.
Alumina-reinforced ceramic systems (In-Cerami significantly improve tne light re fle cto r character
istics of crowns when compared to conventional meia-ceramic restorations. riOv.-s-'er. opacue alu
minum oxide diminishes translucency when compared to leuciie-'ehfonoed system s jfCtotsc lp S-
Empress). To improve light transmission and reflection ir single anterior crovn s where m axim um
strength is not required, a magnesium aluminous spinel may be utilized. The traosiiiuminatinj aual-
ties seem to be similar tc those of natural teeth.
j
Ans: 15.b, 1S.d. 17.b. 18.d 19.b, 2C>.a: 21 .b
I
Paper 10
22. Amalgam pain after restoration is due to:

a. Phase 2 gamma b. Phase 1 gamma
c. Zinc containing alloy d. Admix alloy
Setting converts zinc to zinc oxide and produces H2 gas that could expand amalgam excessively,
resulting in patient pain. But this Is true only when there Is moisture contamination.
23. The use of intensifying screen results in:
a. Greater clarity Ina radiograph b. Recording the minutedetails
c. Reduction of dose to thepatients d. Reduction of the speed of the film
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, p 75
24. Gold standard test of syphilis:
a. TPI b. Wasserman test
c. Lepronln test d. Schultz-Charlton test
25. Silane coupling agent:
a. Used with porcelain to enhance wetablllty of bonding
b. Used with tooth and porcelain
c. Used to increase the strength of porcelain
d. All the above
Remove inlay and clean with alcohol. For porcelain only, place layer of silane coupling agent on fitting
surface.
Etch enamel and dentine (total etch concept). Wash and remove excess moisture, but do not dry.
Silane acts as an adhesive between the Inert filler and the organic matrix
26. A patient complaining from pain in the floor of the mouth. Your diagnosis is related to sali
vary gland. Which x-ray will help you?
a. Panoramic b. Occlusal
c. Sialograph d. Occiplto mental
Reference: Dental Secrets, Stephen T. sonis, p 107
Because the salivary glands consist of soft tissue, they cannot be seen on radiographs, unless special
steps are taken to make them visible. In a technique called sialography diagnosis can be made.
27. Which condition is an apical lesion that develops acute exacerbation of chronic apical ab
scess?
a. Granuloma b. Phoenix abscess,
c. Cyst d. Non of above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed„ p 332
Ans: 22.c, 23.c, 24.b. 25.a, 26.c, 27.b

L
D e n to -G u r - p o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
Dilute sodium hypochlorite is generally considered to be the best irrigant as it is bacteriocidal and
dissolves organic debris.
57. A 20 years old patient has avulsed tooth for 60 minimum. The management to return vascu
larity of the tooth is:
a Scrap the surface of the root
b. Place the tooth In sodium sulfide of 10%
c. Place it in sodium chloride then sodium sulfide.
d. Wash it In running water
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/763291-treatment i
Avoid handling root surface. If tooth Is contaminated, hold crown and agitate gently in saline,
if extraoral time Is longer than 60 minutes, soak the tooth in citric acid and fluoride to make the root as
resistant to resorption as possible. Consult a dentist.
58. The protrusive condylar guidance should be set on the articulator at:
a. 40 degrees. b. 50 degrees
c. 60 degrees d. 70 degrees
59. Deoxy form of hemoglobin is called as:
a. R form b. T form
c. C form d. Lform
Reference: Lippincott's Illustrated Reveiws Biochemistry, p 28
60. The lateral condylar posts should be set on the articulator at:
a. Zero degree b. 20 degrees
c. 40 degrees d. None
61. The incisal guide should be set on the articulator at:
a. Zero degree b. 20 degrees
c. 40 degrees d. None
62. Which of the following substances elicits the sensation of bitter taste?
a. Aldehydes b. Alkaloids
c. Amino acids d. Hydrogen Ions
63. Infra orbital nerve comes through
a Foramen rotundum b. Foramen ovale
Reference: Laskin's Clinician's Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
64. The primary goal of anterior tooth selection is:
a. To provide good functional requirements, b. To satisfy aesthetic requirements,
c. To let the patient feel comfortable. d. None.
Ans: 57.c, 58.d, 59.b, 60.a, 61 .a, 62.b, 63.d, 64.b

Paper 10
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontlcs

65. The primary goal of posterior tooth selection is:
a To provide good functional requirements, b. To satisfy aesthetic requirements,
c. To satisfy sychological requirements. d. None.
Reference: Winkler's Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontics
66. Indirect pulp capping is done in:
a Primary molar b. Premolar and molar
c. Incisors d. All the above I
Reference: Pinkham Pediatric Dentistry, 5th ed, chapter 22
Recommended If no signs and symptoms In the pulp.
67. Minimal facial reduction when preparing for veneers:
a. 0.3 mm b. 03-0.5 mm
c. 1-1.5 mm d. 1.5-2mm
Reference: “Operative Dentistry: A Practical Guide to Recent Innovations, p 83”
The facial enamel Is usually reduced by 0.3-0.5 mm, but where the underlying tooth Is severely
discolored, reduction should be 0.7 mm.
68. Cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed by:
a. Radiograph
b. Subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion
c. Palpation and vertical percussion
d. Pulp testing
69. First endocrine gland to appear in fetus is:
a Thyroid b. Pancreas
c. Pituitary d. None of the above
70. For maintaining parallelism between the object and film, film is placed at a distance to avoid
distortion. What should be done?
a. Increased target to object distance b. Decreased target to object distance
c. Both of the above d. None of the above
Ans: 65.a, 66.d, 67.b, 68.b, 69.a, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1 1
For the preparation of the rest seat the marginal ridge of a molar tooth is reduced by 2 mm to
achieve the correct depth of the rest seat. The marginal ridge is then rounded in order to:
a. Reduce the chances of fracture of the metal seat
b. Decrease food impaction
c. For the better distribution of the vertical load
d. Better class retention
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontlcs, p 61
2. Intrinsic muscles of the tongue are derived from:
a. Cervical somites b. Occipital somites
c. Pharyngeal arch mesoderm d. Head and neck mesenchyme
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, p 274
3. Removal of undermined enamel in class II cavity is done by:
a. Chisel b. Angle former
c. Excavator d. Hoe
4. To plan the line-angles in the proximal cavity in a class II you use:
a. Straight chisel b. Biangled chisel
c. Enamel hatchet d. Excavator
5. The pathway of pain and temperature is carried by:
a. Corticospinal cord. b. Corticocerebral tract.
c. Lateral spino thalamic tract. d. Ventral spinothalamic tract.
Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed, p 138
6. Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles retentive grooves and preparation
of cavity walls in the cavity is:
a Angle former. b. Chisel
c. File d. Enamel hatched
7. What is the cavo-surface angle of preparation for amalgam restoration?
a. 30 degrees b. 60 degrees
8. What high energy phosphate compound is formed in the citric acid cycle through substrate
level phosphorylation?
a. ATP b. TTP
c. ITP d. GTP
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th ed, p 146
Ans: 1 .a, 2.b, 3.a, 4.b, 5.c, 6.a, 7.c, 8.d

Paper 11
21. A 16 year old female having carious lesion on her molar tooth. Radiographic examination
shows a presence of well circumscribed radio opaque lesion in that. What is the diagnosis?
a. Periapical granuloma b. Condensing ostitis
c. Periapical cyst d. Cementblastoma
22. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
a Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.
b. It is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.
c. High dimensional changes.
d. a, b and c.
e. a and c.
f. a and b.
g. b only.
Research has shown that freshly packed amalgam restorations leak but that this leakage tends to
decrease as fillings age. Cavity varnishes and liners reduce initial leakage of the material.
Form the disadvantages, amalgam Is more technique sensitive if bonded.
During electrochemical corrosion of low-copper amalgams, The Sn-Hg phase Is - oxidized Into Sn-0
and/or Sn-O-CI. The oxychloride species Is soluble. The oxide precipitates as crystals and tends to
fill up the spaces occupied by the original Sn-Hg phase. Along the margins of the amalgam, Sn-0
helps seal the space against microleakage
During setting, most amalgams undergo very little dimensional change.
The dimensional change during the setting of amalgam Is one of Its most - characteristic properties.
Modern amalgams mixed with mechanical amalgamators usually have negative dimensional changes.
The only exception to this statement is the excessive delayed dimensional change resulting from
contamination of a zinc-containing alloy with water during trituration or condensation.
23. When polishing the amalgam restoration:
a Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
b. Wait 24 hours
c. a and b
d. bonly.
e. a only.
Polishing procedure by using a coarse, rubber abrasive point at low speed or “stall out" speed and
air-water spray for 2 reasons:
1- the danger of the point disintegrating at high speeds.
2- the danger of elevating the temperature of the restoration and the tooth.
Alternative to rubber abrasive points polishing may be accomplished using a rubber cup with flour of
pumice, followed by a high luster agent, such as precipitated chalk.
Ans: 21.b, 22.f, 23.c

37. RCT is contraindicated in:

a. Vertical fracture of root b. Diabetic Pt.
c. Horizondal fracture of teeth d. Cardiac patient
38. What can we use under composite restoration?
a. Ca (OH) b. ZO E
c. ZINC phosphate cement. d. Varnish
39. Post fracture decrease with:
a. Prefabricated post b. Ready made post
c. Casted post d. Metal post
40. Teeth with RCT and you want to use post. Which post is the least cause to fracture:
41. Pain of short duration is:
a. Hyperemia b. Apical periodontitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis d. Dentinal sensitivity
42. Mandibular foramen in 3 year old children is:
a At level of occlusal plane b. Above the level of occlusal plane
c. Anterior the level of occlusal plane d. Below the level of occlusal plane
The mandibular foramen was located 4.12 mm below the occlusal plane at the age of 3. It subse
quently moved upward with age. By the age of 9, It had reached approximately the same level as the
occlusal plane. The foramen continued tomove upward to 4.16 mm above the occlusal plane in the
adult group
43. Pulpities in decidous teeth in radiograph is related to:
a. Furcation area b. Apex of root
c. Lateral to root d. All the above
44. In deciduous tooth the first radiographic changes will be seen in:
a Bifurcation area b. Apical area
c. External root resoptlon d. None of the above
45. “Eruption hematoma” can be treated by:
a No treatment b. Immediate incision
c. Complete uncoverage d. Observe for one week then incise
Eruption cysts and eruption hematomas are usually asymptomatic and resolve with eruption of the
tooth. The lesions should not be incised as this may increase the potential for infection.
Ans: 37.a, 38.a, 39.c, 40.c, 41 .a, 42.d, 43.a, 44.c, 45.a
> D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

Paper 11
46. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:

a. 2% copper b. 4% copper
c. 10% copper d. 13% copper
47. Cervical enamel projections are most likely to be found in:
a. Buccal surface of maxillary first molar b. Buccal surface of mandibular 3rd molar
c. Buccal surface maxillary 2nd molar d. Buccal surface of mandibular 2nd molar.
48. Inorganic material in bone compromise:
a 65% b. 25%
c. 10% d. 95%
49. With children rubber dam is not used with:
a. Hyperactive patient b. Obstructive nose
c. Patient with fixed orthoappliance d. Mildly handicapped and uncooperative
50. Which one of the following muscle relaxants has the maximum duration of action?
a. Atracurium b. Vecuronium
c. Rocuronium d. Doxacurium
51. The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is:
a Excisional biopsy b. Incisional biopsy
c. Aspiration through needle d. Punch biopsy
52. Formocresol when used should be:
a. Full saturated b. Half saturated
c. Fifth saturated d. None of the above
Pediatric dentistry, infancy through adolescence, pinkham, 3rd ed, p 348
53. A 10 years old child presents with bilateral swelling of submandibular area. What could be the
disease?
a. Fibrous dysphasia b. Cherubism
c. Polymorphic adenoma
54. All of these are ways to give local anesthesia with less pain:
a. Give it slowly b. The needle size over 25 gauge
c. Topical anesthesia d. All the above
Ans: 46.d, 47.c, 48.a, 49.b, 50.d, 51 .a, 52.c, 53.b, 54.d
1
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1 2
1. Floss is used to:

a. Remove interproximal plaque. b. Remove overhangs
c. Stimulate gingival d. Remove calculus.
2. Time of PTT is:
a. 11-15 sec b. 25-40 sec
c. 1 min d. 15 min
3. ‘Slim disease’ refers to:
a. Tubeculosis b. AIDS
c. Hepatitis d. Amoebiasis
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed, p 597
4. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:
a. Short duration of retraction of gingival margin during preparation of finishing line. (8 min)
b. Retraction of gingival margin during taking final impression to take all details of unprepared finish
line.
c. Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival margin.
d. Retraction of gingival margin can be done by many ways, one of them is retraction cord,
i. a, b and c. ii. b, c and d. iii. a, b and d.
5. Lateral canal is detected by:
a PA radiograph b. Tactile sensation
c. By clinical examination d. None of the above
6. Incipient caries is diagnosed by:
a. Fiberoptic light b. Tactile examination
c. X-ray film d. Dye
7. Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (HCG):
a. Acts on the uterus to maintain integrity of endometrium in early pregnancy.
b. Production is greatest in the last three months of pregnancy
c. Can be identified in the urine of pregnant women by an immunological technique.
d. Is a steroid hormone.
8. Mental foramen appear in radiograph as radiolucent round area at the area of
a. Mandibular premolars b. Mandibular incisors
c. Maxillary canine d. Mandibular molars
Ans: 1.a, 2.b, 3.b, 4.iii, 5.a, 6.a, 7.c, 8.a

Paper 12
9. Patient with denture has swallowing problem and sore throat. The problem is:
a. Over extension at posterior distal palatal end
b. Over extension of lingual pouch
c. Over extension at hamular notch
10. Disinfection of GP is done by:
a. Autoclave b. Dry heat
c. Sodium hypochlorite d. Glass bead sterilization
11. Normal serum calcium, phosphorus and alkaline phosphatase are seen in:
a. Cherublsm b. Caffey’s disease
c. Paget's disease d. Fibrous dysplasia
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathologys, 4th ed, p 701
12. To detect interproximal caries in primary teeth, the best film is:
a. Periapical b. Bitewing
c. Occlusal d. O PG
13. A patient with missing lower right 1st molar for a long time. You will find:
a. Mesial drifting of lower right 2nd molar
b. Intrusion of upper right 1st molar
c. Over eruption of lower right 2nd molar
14. Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by all except:
a. Intruded easily orthodontically b. Crowning
c. Adjustment of occlusion d. All the above
15. Instrument is broken during RCT, the best prognosis if broken at:
a. Apical 1/3 b. Middle 1/3
c. Cervical 1/3 d. None of the above
16. Which of the following local anesthetic agents should be avoided in pts with chronic heart
failure?
a. Lidocaine b. Tetracaine
c. Bupivacaine d. Propoxycaine
Reference: Scully's Medical Problems in Dentistry, 5th ed, p 66
17. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam resto?
Ans: 9.a, 10.c, 11.a, 12.b, 13.a, 14.a, 15.a, 16.c, 17.c
18. When do you do amalgam finishing?

a. Immediately b. 24 hours later
19. When polishing amalgam:
a. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
b. Wait for 24 hours
c. All of the bove
20. The roof of mandibular fossa consists of:
a. Thin compact bone b. Spongy bone
c. Cancellous bone d. Thick compact bone
21. Hand over mouth technique is used in the management of which child?
a. Mentally retarded b. Positive resistance
c. Uncooperative d. Child less than 2 years
Reference: Damle's Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry
22. Caries susceptibility of teeth which lost pits and fissure sealant is:
a. The same with non sealed teeth b. Higher than non sealed teeth
c. Lower than non sealed teeth d. None of the above
23. A healthy 25-year-old medical student participates in a 10 km run to benefit a heart associa
tion. Which of the following muscles are used during expiration?
a. Diaphragm and externalintercostals. b. Diaphragm and internal intercostals
c. Diaphragm only. d. Internal intercostals and rectus abdominis.
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11th ed, p 471
24. Firm, fixed neck nodes are mostly detected in association with:
a. An ameloblastoma b. A basal cell carcinoma
c. An odontogenic fibroma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
25. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:
a. No. 330 tungsten carbide bur b. Mounted stone
c. 12 Fluted carbide bur d. Coarse diamond point
Reference: http://www.apad.ee/e-iournal/issue2007/daniel.pdf
The 12-fluted carbide burs (#7901, #7804 ET series) have traditionally been used to perform gross
finishing of resin composites.
Ans: 18.a, 19.c, 20.a, 21.e, 22.c, 23.d, 24.d, 25.c

D e n to -G u lt - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 12
26. The minimum thickness of cement bases in amalgam restoration is:

a. 0.5 mm b. 0.75 mm
c. 1 mm d. 2 mm
A minimum thickness should be 0.75 mm is needed to achieve thermal insulation.
27. 'Lava flowing around boulders’ is characteristic appearance:
a. Radiographic feature of type I dentin dysplasia.
b. Radiographic feature of type II dentin dysplasia.
c. Histologic feature of type I dentin dysplasia.
d. Histologic feature of type II dentin dysplasia.
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, p 79
28. Which of the following is/are pseudocysts of the jaws?
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst b. Traumatic bone cyst
c. Static bone cyst d. All of the above
29. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to
the concentration are:
a. Greater b. Less
c. The same d. All the above
30. Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radio opaque areas in the canine-premolar re
gion of the mandible is:
a. Hematoma b. Remaining roots
c. Tours mandibularis d. Internal oplique ridge
31. Dental carries is an endemic disease means that the disease:
a. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
b. Is habitually present in human population
c. Affect large number of countries simultaneously
d. Exhibit a seasonal pattern
32. Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a. Proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b. Associated pathology
c. All of the above
Reference: White and Pharroh, 5th ed, p 91
Ans: 26.d, 27.c, 28.d, 29.c, 30.c, 31 .b, 32.c

33. Acute periapical abcess is associated with:

a. Swelling b. Widening of PDL
c. Pus discharge d. All the above
34. Minimum distance between the outer surfaces of two adjacent implants should be:
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 320
35. Blood supply of the palate is from:
a. Greater palatine artery
b. Lesser palatine artery
c. Facial artery
d. Long sphenopalatine artery
e. Anatomising braches from all of the above
f. Except c
Branches of the facial artery in the neck: ascending palatine will supply soft palate,
branches of the maxillary artery:
The third pari of maxillary artery gives branches which correspond to the branches of the maxillary
nerve and the branches of the spheno-palatine ganglion.
Branches of the sheno-palatine ganglion:
Greater palatine will supply hard palate. Lesser palatine will supply soft palate. Long spheno-palatine
will supply anterior pari of hard palate.
The blood supply of the palate is provided anteriorly through the incisor foramen and posteriorly
through the great palatine foramen where the great palatine artery emerges. The blood supply of the
palate is from ascending branches of the facial artery as well as from the branch of the maxillary
artery, The palatine vessels and nerves pass through the palatine canal.
The greater palatine artery was the main vessel to supply the hard palate and the ascending palatine
artery provided the principal supply of soft palate. The branches of greater palatine artery formed
abundant anastomoses with the neighbor vessels
36. Gap between true end of casting ring and wax pattern should be:
a. 'A inch b. % inch
c. 3/8 inch d. One inch
Reference: Skinner's Science of Dental Materials, 10th ed, p 497
37. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points?
c. Chemical solutions d. Dry heat sterilization
Ans: 33.a, 34.c, 35.e, 36.a, 37.c

Paper 12
38. The treatment of choice for recurrent pericoronitis involving partially impacted mandibular
third molar is:
a Operculectomy b. Antibiotic therapy
c. Removal of third molar d. Warm saline rinses
39. The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy:
a Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
b. No response to percussion and palpation test
c. Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals
40. Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of:
a Lingual nerve b. Hypoglossal nerve
c. Chorda tympani nerve d. Glossopharengeal nerve
For the anterior. 2/3 lingual nerve
For the sensation of tongue chorda tympani nerve.
For the posterior 1/3 both taste & sensation by glossopharngeal nerve
41. When you give inferior dental block torpedo patient the angulations for the needle:
a. 7 mm below the occlusal plane b. 5 mm below the occlusal plane
c. 7 mm above the occlusal plane d. At the occlusal plane
42. Best treatment for a conscious patient with partial airway obstruction who is breathing ad
equately and is capable of forceful coughing:
a. The patient should be kept in supine position.
b. Use finger sweep
c. Perform heimieich maneuver
d. The patient should be left alone
Reference: Malamed's Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, p 183
43. Main use of dental fioss:
a. Remove calculus b. Remove over hang
c. Remove bacterial plaque d. Remove food debris
44. The following are types of hematoma except:
a. Cementoblastoma b. Compound odontoma
c. Complex odontoma d. All the above
Ans: 38.c, 39.a, 40.a, 41 .d, 42.d, 43.c, 44.a

45. Ranula is associated with which salivary gland:

a. Submandibular gland b. Sublingual gland
c. Minor salivary gland d. Parotid gland
46. Treatment of choice for palatal hyperplasia occurring due to denture irritation is:
a. Discontinuation of dentures b. Radical excision
c. Supraperiosteal dissection d. No treatment
Reference: Neellma Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 356
47. Which of the following substances enhances the sensitivity of pain receptors but does not
directly excite them?
a. Bradykinin b. Serotonin
c. Histamine d. Prostaglandins
48. Space between 52, 53 is called:
a. Bolton space b. Freeway space
c. Leeway space d. Primate space
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics the Art and Science, p 41
49. Hypercoagulability due to defective factor V gene is called:
a. Lisbon mutation b. Leiden mutation
c. Antiphospholipid syndrome d. Inducible thrombocytopenia syndrome
Reference: Robbln’s Basic Pathology, 7th ed, p 131, 132
50. Clostridium botulinum is:
a. Gram-positive cocci. b. Gram-negative cocci
c. Gram-positive bacilli d. Gram-negative bacilli
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Panlker’s Textbook of Microbiology, p 263
51. Cell that can give more than one type:
a. Fibroblast b. Ameloblast
c. Odontoblast d. Mesenchymal cell
52. Infants must be weaned at the age of:
a. 10 to 12 months b. 12 to 14 months
c. 14 to 16 months d. 16 to 18 months
53. Odontogenic Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because:
a. Marrow spaces are wide b. Affect growth centre
c. Hypo calcification In enamel d. Immunity Is less
Ans: 45.b, 46.c, 47.d, 48.d, 49.b, 50.c, 51 .d, 52.b, 53.a
D e n to -G u lf - F or G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 12
54. Odontogenic infection can cause least complication:

a Pulmonary abscess b. Peritonitis
c. Prosthetic valve Infection d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
55. The submandibular salivary gland usually affected by:
a. Infected sialoadenitis b. Viral sialoadenitis
c. Sialolithiasis d. Adenomas
Sialolithiasis - The most common cause of salivary gland pathology
56. Aplastic anemia may be caused due to:
a Deficiency of iron in nutrition, b. Exposure to drugs and chemical substances,
c. Hereditary. d. Deficient folic acid.
57. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
a Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
b. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
c. Lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts
d. Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges.
58. Polyether impression materials:
a. Are less stable dimensionally than poly sulfide rubbe
b. Are less stiff than poly sulfide rubber
c. Can absorb water and swell if stored in water
d. All the above
59. Gingivectomy is not contraindicated in:
a. Suprabony pockets b. Infrabony pockets
c. Pockets extending beyond MG J d. Any of the above
Reference: Glickman’s Periodontology, 9th ed, p 749
60. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:
a. Abutment teeth are not carious
b. An abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound
c. There is considerable resorption of the residual ridges
d. Crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
61. For the ceramometal restorations, the type of finish line is:
a. Chamfer b. Beveled shoulder
c. Feather edge d. Shoulder
Reference: Rosenstiel's Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p 324
Ans: 54.d, 55.c, 56.b, 57.c, 58.c, 59.a, 60.c, 61 .a
D e n to -G v i' - r o t S liI ' C o u n trie s L ic e n s in c E xa m in a tio n s
62. Adjustment of contact point:

a. Pincile b. Shim stock
c. Siloicon spray indicator d. Dental floss
e. Non of the above
Reference: Journal of Oral Rehabilitation, volume 14 Issue 1, p 91-94
63. Pralidoxime acts by:
a Reactivating cholinesterase enzyme b. Promoting synthesis of cholinesterase
c. Promoting synthesis of acetylcholine d. Direct action on cholinergic receptors.
Reference: K.D. Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 92
64. Orthognathic ridge relationshipfclass II) present several problems which should be taken
into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all EX
CEPT:
a Require minimum interocclusal distance
b. Have a great range of jaw movement
c. Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
d. All the above
65. Planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:
a. 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact
b. Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of anterior teeth
for incision
c. All the above
66. The posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following functions:
a It reduces patient discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the
posterior end of the denture base
b. Retention of the maxillary denture
c. It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during process
ing
d. A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
e. a and b
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p 107
67. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular removable partial den
ture, a patient complained of a sensitive abutment tooth, clinical examination reveals sensi
tivity to percussion of the tooth. The most likely cause is:
a. Defective occlusion
b. Exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats
Ans: 62.b, 63.a, 64.a, 65.a, 66.e, 67.a

r
Paper 12
c. Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration

d. All the above
68. Restoration in the abutment tooth to enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restora
tion, it is important to:
a Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure
b. Build up thick layer of porcelain
c. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compen
sated by the metal substructure
d. Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure
e. 1 & 2 are correct
f. 1 & 3 are correct
g. 2 and 4 are correct
69. The finish line of the core should be:
a. At the finish line of the final restoration b. At contra bevel
c. At gingival level d. Tapered with prepared tooth shape
70. Which of the following is the most vascular and innervated structure of TMJ?
a. Anterior band of disc b. Posterior band of disc
c. Thinnest central portion of disc d. Posterior attachment of disc
Reference: Burkefs Oral Medicine, 10th ed, p 274
71. Mucocele is more commonly found on:
a. Upper lip b. Lower lip
c. Tongue d. Cheek
Umarji's Concise Oral Radiology, p 161
Ans: 68.f, 69.b, 70.d, 71 .b

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1 3
1. Laser used in endodontic is

a. C 0 2 b. Nd(YAG)
2. Which of the following statements concerning the neuronal membrane at rest is correct?
a. The concentration of chloride is greatest inside the cell.
b. If the resting potential is moved to a more negative value, the cell becomes more excitable.
c. The sodium pump moves sodium in and potassium out of the cell.
d. The concentration gradient for potassium is such that It tends to move out of the cell.
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11 th ed, p 565
3. A 25 years old patient with avulsed incisors 21. How long it should splint?
a. 1-2 days b. 1-2 week
c. 1-2 months d. 3-4 months
4. Inadequate condensation of porcelain will cause:
a. Porosity b. white patches
c. Light shade d. Brittleness
Condensation of porcelain slurry by hand can cause porosity.
5. 30 Degree flexion of head during maxillary impression makes the soft palate:
a. Move more b. Depress maximum
c. Elevate slightly d. Elevate maximum
Reference: Winkler's Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p 118
6. Overhanging amalgam restoration is due to
a Lack of matrix usage b. Lack of burnishing
c. Lack of polishing d. All the above
7. The renal blood flow (in ml/mt) is:
a 250 b. 800
c. 1260 d. 1500
Ans: 1 .c, 2.d, 3.b, 4.a, 5.b, 6.a, 7.c
Paper 13
8. A patient who wasn’t anesthetized well in his 1st visit, next day he returns with a limited
mouth opening (trismus). He must be anesthized. What’s the technique to be used for infe
rior alveolar nerve block?
a. William’s technique b. Bercher’s technique
c. Akinosi technique d. All the above
Reference: Malamed’s Local Anesthesia
The technique used to administer a block with trismus or limited mouth opening is akinosi closed
mouth technique.
ft At which of the following locations on a mandibular molar do you complete the excavation of
caries first?
a. Axial walls b. Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns
c. Peripheral caries d. All of the above are correct
In deep carious lesion all peripheral caries is removed, some of the soft dentin in the floor of the cavity
can be left and indirect pulp capping is performed.
1. Remove all peripheral caries
2. Remove caries in the axial wall (DEJ)
3. Leave soft dentin in the floor of the cavity
4. Indirect pulp capping
10. CMCP contains phenol in concentration:
a. 0.5% b. 35 % c. 65 % d. 5 %
11. Regarding secondary hypothyroidism, all are true except:
a. Caused by hypothalamic or pituitary dysfunction
b. Serum T3 & T4 levels are low
c. Serum TSH is raised
d. Symptomatic patients are managed with daily oral thyroxine sodium
Reference: Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry, 5th ed, p 98
12. What is the disadvantage of McSpadden technique:
a. Obturation bythermocompaction b. Requires much practice to perfect,
c. Expensive d. Cause fracture
13. Thermo mechical technique of RC obturation is:
a. Thermafil b. Obtura
c. Ultrafil d. McSpadden
Endodontic Obturation Materials
14. Fractured tooth to alveolar crest. What’s the best way to produce ferrule effect?
a. Restore with amalgam core sub-gingivaly. b. Crown lengthening
c. Extrusion with orthodontics d. All the above
Extrusion with orthodontics: Using brackets (may cause movement of other abutment teeth) or utiliz
ing an anchorage wire boded to adjacent teeth.
Restore with amalgam core sub-gingivaly will violate biological width.
Crown lengthening will provide unesthetic results.
Ans: 8.c, 9.c, 10.b, 11.c, 12.b, 13.d, 14.c

Dento-Gulf - F o r Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations
15. At what temperature guita percha reaches the alpha temp?

a. 42-48°c b. 50-60°C
c. 70-80°C d. 100°C
16. PDL is formed from:
a. Dental papilla b. Dental sac
c. Epltheilal remanents d. All the above
17. During clinical examination the patient had pain when the exposed root dentine is touched.
This is due to:
a. Reversible pulpitis b. Dentine hypersensitivity
c. Irreversible pulpitis d. Periapical periodontitis
18. Temporary paralysis of soft palate may be a feature of:
a. Herpangina b. Diphtheria
c. Scarlet fever d. Rubella
19. The patient has dull pain and swelling and the PA shows apical radiolucency. Your diagnosis
will be:
a. Acute periodontalabscess b. Chronic periodontal abscess with swelling
c. Acute periodontitis d. Chronic periodontitis
It's usually asymptomatic except when there's occasional closure of the sinus pathway, swelling, PA
radiolucency, sinus tract.
20. All these show honey combed bone radiographically, EXCEPT:
a. Ameloblastoma b. Odontogenic myxoma cyst
c. Odontogenic keratocyst d. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
Reference: White and Pharaoh, Oral Radiology. Principles and Interpretation, 4th ed, p 386-389,
http://www.head-face-med.eom/content/1 /1/3
Unilocular radiolucent lesion may have some flakes of calcifications
21. Flouride amount in water should be:
a. 0.2-0.5 mg/liter b. 1-5mg/liter
c. 1-2 mg/liter d. 0.1-0.2 mg/liter
The exact is 0.7 to 1.2 mg/l with max of 1.5
Fluoride amount in water should be best maintained at 1 ppm (1mg/L). In hot climate communities
this amount should be reduced because of the increase in consumption of water.
Ans: 15.a, 16.b, 17.b, 18.b, 19.b, 20.d, 21 .c

Paper 13
22. The most superior way to test the vitality of the tooth is with:
a. Ice pack b. Chloro ethyl
c. Endo special ice d. Cold water spray
Reference: httD://www.realworldendo.com/ena/lib diagnosis procedures.html
Once we have determined that a particular tooth is indeed percussive, the next step is to determine
the pulp status of that tooth (vital or non-vital). Without question, the method most commonly em
ployed by endodontists is the thermal test. When doing a cold Ice, (an refrigerant)be sprayed on
cotton pellet and then placed on a dry tooth. This test, along with the percussion test are the two most
important tests in diagnosis. If the patient feels nothing and there is no response from the tooth, we
must assume this tooth to be necrotic (non vital).
23. A compound fracture is characterized by:
a. Many small fragments b. A star shaped appearance
c. An incomplete break in the bone d. Commuication with oral cavity
“Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 409"
In common with all fractures they can be grouped into simple (closed linear fracture), compound
(open to mouth or skin.
24. Electric pulp tester on the adults is not accurate because:
a. Late appearance of fibers A b. Late appearance of fibers C
c. Early appearance of fibers A d. Early appearance of fibers C
Reference: Pathway of Pulp, 6th ed, p 314
The relatively late appearance of A fibers in the pulp helps to explain why the electric pulp test tends
to be unreliable in young teeth.
25. A patient had a class II amalgam restoration. Next day he returns complaining of discomfort
at the site of the restoration, radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present. This is
due to:
c. Insufficient d. Carving
26. Contents of the anesthesia carpule:
a. Lidocaine + epinephrine + Ringer’s liquid
b. Lidocaine + epinephrine + distilled water
c. Lidocaine + epinephrine only
d. Anesthetic agent, vasoconstrictor, preservative, sodium chloride, distilled water
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Paincontrol in General Practice
"Hand Book of Local Anesthesia" p 92
Local anesthetic drug -vasopressor -Ringer’s liquid (nacl) distilled water - preservative substance
(methylparaben)preservative for vasopressor
Ans: 22.c, 23.d, 24.a, 25.a, 26.d

Dento-Guif - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations
27. Which of the following methods is least accurate in determining the site of new bone deposi
tion?
a. Implants b. Radiographs
c. Alizarin stains d. Tetracycline stains
Reference: National Board Dental Examination-March-1980
28. Dentist provided bleaching which also known as home bleaching contain
a 35-50% Hydrogen peroxide b. 5-22% Carbamide peroxide
c. 5-22% Hydrogen peroxide d. 35-50% Carbamide peroxide
A solution of 10%> carbamide peroxide in a soft splint has been advocated for home bleaching.
29. What is ferrule effect?
a. Restore with amalgam core sub-gingivaly. b. Crown lengthening
c. Extrusion with orthodontics d. None of the above
http: //www.dental-update.co.uk/articles/35/3504222.pdf
"If the fracture is subgingival, remove the coronal segment and perform appropriate pulp therapy,
then reposition the remaining tooth structure coronally either orthodontically or surgically”.
Both crown lengthening and orthodontic extrusion may allow for an increased ferrule, but they add
additional cost, discomfort and length of treatment times for the patient. Crown lengthening increases
the crown to root ratio.
30. A 65 years old black man wants to have very white teeth in his new denture. What should the
dentist do?
a. Put the white teeth
b. Show the patient the suitable color first then show him the white one.
c. Convince him by showing him other patients photos.
d. Tell him firmly that his teeth color are good.
e. Do not show white teeth
Reference: Complete Denture, 17th ed, p 73-74
Often a short informative talk using some of the tooth manufacturer's (or preferably your own) "be
fore and after” photos can be very effective in motivating patients to accept a more natural tooth
selection.
31. The way to remove mucocel is:
a. Radiation b. Excision
c. Chemotherapy d. Caterization
Reference: Neelima Anil malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed., P. 524
Mucocele
Infrequently, a mucocele goes away without treatment. But if some mucoceles remain untreated,
they can scar over. Your dentist should examine any swelling in your mouth.
Ans: 27.b, 28.b, 29.c, 30.c, 31.b

Dento-Gulf - F o r Gulf C o u n trie s U s e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 13
A mucocele usually Is removed by surgery. The dentist may use a scalpel or a laser to remove the
mucocele. Afterward, the tissue will be sent to a laboratory for evaluation. There Is a chance that after
the mucocele Is removed another one may develop.
Some doctors use corticosteroid injections before trying surgery. These sometimes bring down the
swelling. If these work, you may not need surgery.
32. An 8 years old come with fractured maxillary incisor tooth with incipient exposed pulp after
30 min of the trauma. What's the suitable treatment?
a. Pulpatomy b. Direct pulp capping
c. Pulpectomy d. Apexification
33. A patient with factor XI is less 50%. What's the diagnosis?
a. Hemophilia A. b. Hemophilia B
c. Thrombocytopenia d. None of the above
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine
34. Impacted supernumerary and permanent teeth with osteoma of jaws is a feature of:
a. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome b. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
c. Gardner's syndrome d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
35. Avulsed tooth is washed with tap water, it should be replaced again:
a. Immediately b. After 20 min
c. After 2 hours d. After 5 hours
36. A patient with complete denture pronouncing F a s a V:
a Anterior teeth are upwardfrom lip line. b. Thick palatal denture base
c. Anterior teeth has deep bite d. All the above
Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far from superiorly and anteriorly
might result in difficulty in pronouncing F and V sounds.
37. A patient with knife ridge in lower arch should be treated with:
a. Relining soft material b. Wide coverage of denture base area
If you are fibrating mandibular complete denture for with a patient with knife-edge ridge, you need
maximal extension of the denture to help distribute the forces of occlusion over a large area.
Ans: 32.b, 33.b, 34.c, 35.a, 36.a, 37.c

38. Surgical removal of the primary incisor in child patient will be done in which of the following
conditions?
a. Primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisor
b. External root resorption
c. Internal root resorption
d. All the above
Reference: Dental Decks, p 1626
If the Intruded Incisor Is contanting the permenant tooth bud, the primary tooth should be extracted.
39. Tongue is developed from:
a. Mandibular arch b. Tuberculum Impar.
c. 1st branchial arch d. A+B
Reference: Anatomy of the Human Body, Henry Gray, p 27
The mandibular arch lies between the first branchial groove and the stomodeum; from it are devel
oped the lower lip, the mandible, the muscles of mastication, and the anterior part of the tongue.
The ventral ends of the second and third arches unite with those of the opposite side, and form a
transverse band, from which the body of the hyoid bone and the posterior part of the tongue are
developed.
During the third week there appears, immediately behind the ventral ends of the two halves of the
mandibular arch, a rounded swelling named the tuberculum impar, which was described by His as
undergoing enlargement to form the buccal part of the tongue. More recent researches, however,
show that this part of the tongue is mainly, If not entirely, developed from a pair of lateral swellings
which rise from the inner surface of the mandibular arch and meet in the middle line.
40. During R C T what is the most surface o f distal root oflower molar will have tendency of perfo
ration:
a. Medial surface b. Distal surface
c. Buccal surface d. Lingual surface
41. Remanents of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath remain as:
a. Cell rest of serus b. Cell rest of malassez
c. Odontoblast d. Ameloblast
Reference: Oral Pathology, 4th ed., J. V. Soames
http://obm.quintessenz.de/index.php?doc=html&abstfactlD=9559
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epitheiial cell rests of Malassez
Ans: 38.a, 39.d, 40.a, 41 .b

D e n to -G u lf - F o r Gulf Countries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 13
42. An acceptable theory for dental pain:

a Hydrodynamic b. Fluid movement
c. Direct transduction d. All the above
The most accepted theory to explain the unusual sensitivity and response of exposed root surfaces
to various stimuli is the hydrodynamic theory.
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000, p 257
Most authorities agree that the hydrodynamic theory “best explains dentin hypersensitivity. The equiva
lency of various hydrodynamic stimuli has been evaluated from measurements of the fluid move
ment induced in vitro and relating this to the hydraulic conductance of the same dentin specimen.’"
43. A patient has a gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene. What is the treatment for this?
a. Reassure the patient that it will disappear by itself.
b. To buy a new brush.
c. To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately
d. All the above
44. You make ledge in the canal. You want to correct this. What is the most common complica-
tion that can occur in this step:
a. Creation false canal b. Apical zip
c. Stripping d. Perforation
Acute abscess is:
a Cavity lined by epithelium b. Cavity containing blood cells
c. Cavity containing pus cells d. Cavity containing fluid
Reference: Pathway of the Pulp, 9th ed, p 54
Reference: Master Dentistry- Oral and Maxillofacial, Surgery, Radiology, Pathology and Oral medi
cine.
An abscess is a pathological cavity filled with pus and lined by a pyogenic membrane epithelium.
46. Meeting point ofsagital and lambdoid suture is:
a. Bregma b. Lambda
c. Obelion d. Asterion
47. After completion of orthodontic treatment, patient came complaining of pain in his anterior
tooth. Radiograph shows absorption in the middle third of the root of upper anterior tooth.
What is the treatment?
a. Do RCT in a single visit b. Apply caoh at the site of resorption,
c. Extract the tooth and reimplant it d. Extract the tooth and do implantation
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, Part 2, p 236
Ans: 42.a, 43.c, 44.d, 45.c, 46.b, 47.b

Bowl-shaped area of resorpation involving cementument dentin characterize external Inflamatory

root resorption. This type of external resorption is rapidly progressive and will continue if treatement
is not instituted. The process can be arrested by immediate root canal treatment with calcium hy
droxide paste. Remember the etiology of external resorption: excessive orthodontic forces, periradicular
inflammation, dental trauma, impacted teeth.
48. A patient has a central incisor with severe resorption and who’s going through an ortho
treatment that is going to make him extract the premolars. Which of the following won’t be
present in the treatment plan?
a. RPD b. Implant of incisors
c. Maryland bridge d. Implant of the premolars
49. Mandible is the second bone to ossify in the body:
a. True b. False
50. The etiology of external resorption is:
a Excessive orthodontic forces b. Periradicular inflammation,
c. Dental trauma d. Impacted teeth
e. All the above
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, Part 2, p 236
51. The change observed in the arch length of a child between 3 to 18 years is:
a. 4 mm b. 11 mm
c. 17 mm d. 34 mm
Reference: Bishara’s Textbook of Orthodontics, p 62
52. Which of the following is the use of occlusal splint device:
a. Alter muscle of mastication b. Occlusal plane CR/CO
c. Used during increase vertical dimension d. ALL
53. What kind of suture is used under the immediate denture:
a. Horizontal matters suture b. Vertical matters suture
c. Interrupted suture d. Continuous locked suture
54. A 18 year old girl had an accident. Her maxillary central incisors intruded, she has pain in her
lip with superficial wound. What is the diagnosis of this?
a. Subluxation b. Laceration
c. Luxation d. Abrasion
Handbook of Dental Trauma 2001, p 73
Intrusive luxations, or intrusions, result from an axial force applied to the incisal edge of the tooth that
results in the tooth being driven into the socket.
Ans: 48.d, 49.a, 5G.e, 51.a, 52.c, 53.d, 54.c

f
Paper 13
55. Schick test is an intradermal test for determination o f susceptibility to:

a. Diphtheria. b. TB
c. Allergy d. HBC
Reference: Schick test - definition of Schick test in the medical dictionary - by the Free Online Medi
cal Dictionary, Thesaurus and Encyclopedia.
56. The life of amalgam restoration is:
a. 1-2 years b. 5-9 years
c. 10-15 years d. All life
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000, p 766
Complex amalgam restoration with pins: Smales reported that 72% of amalgam restorations sur
vived for 15 years, including those with cusp coverage.
57. First branchial arch artery is:
a. Mandibular artery b. Maxillary artery
c. Carotid artery d. All the above
58. How will you prevent gingival injury while placing the margin of the retainer?
a. Above gingival crest b. At the level of gingival crest
c. Apical to gingival crest 1m m d. Apical to gingival crest 0.5 mm
Reference: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 3rd ed, p 132
Preservation of the Periodontium
Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p 458-466
Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, P 219
It is better for gingival health to place a crown margin supragingivally, 1-2 mm above the gingival
crest, or equigingivally at the gingival crest. Such positioning is quite often not possible because of
esthetic or caries considerations. Subsequently, the margin must be placed subgingivally. Margin
ends slightly below the gingival crest, in the middle of the sulcular depth, or at the base of the sulcus.
In preparing a subgingival margin. The major concern is not to extend the preparation into the attach
ment apparatus. If the margin of the subsequent crown is extended into the attachment apparatus, a
constant gingival irritant has been constructed. Therefore, for clinical simplicity, when a margin is to
be placed subgingivally. It is desirable to end the tooth preparation slightly below the gingival crest.
59. In a class I situation, class I lever arm effect can be minimized by following designs, except
one:
a. RPI
b. Mesial rest, wrought-wire retention arm, proximal plate
c. Distal rest, cast retention arm, reciprocal arm
d. Mesial rest, cast occlusal retention arm, proximal plate
Ans: 55.a, 56.c, 57.b, 58.a, 59.c

4
60. Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of:

a Two maxillary arches b. Maxillary arches and nasal arch
c. Two nasal arches d. Maxillary arches and palatal arches
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology’s, 4th ed, p 10
61. An 8 year old child has calculus and gingival recession related to upper molar. What is the
reason for this condition?
a. Periodontitis b. Viral infection
c. Local aggressive periodontitis d. Gingivitis
62. A 25 year old patient came for routine check up. But his radiographic examination shows
between the two lower molar lesion diameter about 2 mm. It extend laterally with irregular
shape. What is the diagnosis?
a. Dentigerous cyst b. Apical cyst
c. Radicular cyst d. Static bone cyst
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral pathology, 5th ed, p 361
63. When extracting all the teeth in one arch. Which is the correct order?
a. 87654321 b. 12345678
c. 87542163 d. 36124578
Reference: Dentoglst MCQs In Dentistry
Archer suggest that the first maxillary molar and canine are key pillars of maxilla and most firm teeth
of the arch. Once their adjacent teeth are removed they can be easily luxated and extracted rathar
than when these are tried to be removed first.
64. How can you alter the sitting time for alginate?
a. Alter ratio powder water b. Alter water ratio
c. We can't alter it d. By accelerated addition
The best method to control the gelation time (setting time) Is altering the temperature of the water
used in the mix.
Changing the water/powder ratio also alters the gelation time, but these methods also impair certain
properties of the material. Too little or too much water will weaken the gel. Undermixing may prevent
the chemical action from occuring evenly; overmixing may break up the gel.
65. For a patient who is on a corticosteroid therapy, upon oral surgery, the patient is given:
a. 50-100 mg hydrocortisone b. 400-600 mg prednisolone
c. 100-200 mg prednisolone d. 100-200 mg hydrocortisone.
Ans: 60.b, 61 .c, 62.c, 63.c, 64.a, 65.d

Paper 13
66. A patient with lupus erythematous and under cortisone, he needs a surgical extraction o f a
tooth. What should the surgeon instruct the patient?
a. Take half of the cortisone dose at the day of operation.
b. Double the cortisone dose at the day of operation.
c. Take half of the cortisone dose day before and on the day of operation and day after
d. Double the cortisone dose day before and on the day of operation and day after.
Instruct patient to double the dose of steroids the morning of surgery up to 200 mg. If taking greater
than 100 mg, then give only an additional 100 mg.
For multiple extractions or extensive mucogingival surgery, the dose of corticosteroids should be
doubled on the day of surgery. If the patient is treated in the operating room under general anesthesia,
stress level doses of cortisone, 100 mg intravenously or intramuscularly, should be given preopera-
tively.
67. The correct dose of corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris patient is:
a 1-2 g/kg/daily hydrocortisone b. 50-100 mg hydrocortisone
c. 1-2 mg hydrocortisone d. 10 mg hydrocortisone
Very high dosages are used initially to suppress bulla formation (of the order of 1 mg/kg prednisolone
daily), but this may often be slowly reduced to a maintenance dose of 15 mg daily or thereabouts.
68. In cantilevers prosthesis, we consider all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Small in all diameters b. High yield strength
c. Minimal contact d. Small occlusogingival length
69. Which is the first bone ossify in the body?
c. Clavicle d. Hyoid
70. The wire that is most suitable for making final tooth movements:
a. Nitinol b. Stainless steel
c. Gold d. Beta titanium
Reference: Proffit's Contemporary Orthodontics, p 331
Ans: 66.b, 67.b, 68.d, 69.c, 70.d

Dento-GuSf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1 4
1. Marginal deterioration of Ag restoration may be due to:

a. No enough bulk b. Corrosion over carving
c. No dentin d. Improper manipulation
e. b, c, d f. All of above
These objectives help to conserve the dentinal support and strength of the tooth, and they aid in
establishing an enamel cavosurface angle as close as possible to 90 degrees. They also help to
minimize marginal deterioration of the restoration by locating the margins away from enamel eminen-
cies, where occlusal forces may be concentrated.
2. The base cement of amalgam should have:
a. Low modulus of elasticity
b. The high modulus of elasticity prevent of bonding and decrease tensile strength.
c. High modulus of elasticity
d. Both b & c
Reference: “Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 479
Stiffness, flexibility
3. Contraindication to extraction:
a. Previous recent radio therapy b. Hematologic malignancy
c. Coagulopathy d. Uncontrolled diabetic.
e. All the above
Leukemia; uncontrolled cardiac disease also contraindication to extraction.
4. When do we do incision and drainage?
a. Indurated diffuse swelling. b. Submucosal abscess
c. Sinus tract d. Chronic apical periodontitis
5. Precipitation of asthma attacks and cardiovascular episodes in children are seen with:
a Rofecoxib b. Pacimol
c. Nimesulide d. Meloxicam
6. Which of the following is correct for a young pregnant lady, who needs oral surgery?
a. Needs under GA b. Needs steroid cover
c. Needs prophylactic cover d. None of the above
Ans: 1.f, 2.c, 3.e, 4.b, 5.a, 6.c

Paper 14
7. Radiographic evaluation in extraction EXCEPT:

a Relationship of associated vital structures.
b. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition.
c. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility.
d. All of the above
e. a & b
8. Adult dose 500 mg b.d. for cephalosporin for severe soft tissue infection. Calculate the dose
for child of age 7:
a 150 mg b.d. b. 175 mg b.d.
c. 200 mg b.d. d. 225 mg b.d.
9. Root most commonly pushed in maxillary sinus:
a. Buccal of 7 b. Palatal of 6
c. Palatal of 7 d. Buccal of 6
e. Distal of 6 & 7
10. Buccal branch of trigeminal is:
a Sensory b. Motor
c. Psychomotor d. Sensory and motor
11. Which of the following is buccal branch of facial?
a. Sensory b. Sensory and motor
c. Mixed d. None of the above
Reference: Buccal nerve - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
12. Premealoblast are the:
a. Round cells of the outer enamel epithelium
b. Tall epithelium cells of the inner enamel epithelium
c. Palisaded cells of cervical loop
13. In 6 weeks intra uterine life the development starts. The oral epithelium is stratified squa
mous epithelium will be thickened and give dental lamina:
a. True b. False
14. What is the immediate treatment of traumatized teeth with open apex?
a. Extraction b. Observe over time
c. Endo d. None of the above
15. If severe bony undercut exits, best treatment is:
a Remove both undercut so that no undercut exists.
b. Remove undercut on one side.
c. Nothing but do only alveolar ridge contouring.
Ans: 7.c, 8.b, 9.b, 10.a, 11.d, 12.c, 13.a, 14.b, 15.a
16. Best treatment for weeping canal is:

a G P filling b. Antibiotic coverage
c. CaOH d. Pulp extripation
Reference: Clinical Endodontics Textbook Tronstad, p 224
17. Due to capillary action the dentinal tubule fluid theoretically moves at the rate of:
a 2-3 mm/sec
b. 1-2 mm sec
c. 4 mm/sec
d. 5 mm/sec
18. Caries detection dye composed mainly of:
a Acid fuschin b. Basic fuchsin
c. Propylene glycol d. b + c
Reference: Paediatric Dentistry, 3rd ed, p 165
“Dental Pulp, 2002”
“Operative Dentistry” propylene glycol
19. A patient with complete denture came to your clinic. He has complaint about his dry mouth.
Which of the following medicines is useful for treatment?
a. Anti diabetic medicine b. Anti cholinergic
c. Salivary subsitutes d. None of the above
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p 2012-2192
20. The longest acting, most potent and most toxic LA is:
a Lidocaine b. Dibucaine
c. Bupivacaine d. Tetracaine
21. Drug used to decrease saliva during impression taking is:
a Anticholinergic b. Cholinergic
c. Antidiabetic d. Anticorticosteroid
Scopolamine, atropine and benztropine are anticolinergic drugs. They decrease the flow of saliva.
Cholinesterase inhibition is associated with a variety of acute symptoms such as nausea, vomiting,
blurred vision, stomach cramps, and rapid heart rate.
22. What is the treatment for a patient with systemic candidasis, who is on a long term antibi
otic?
a. Amphotrecin B b. Fluconazol
c. Nystatin d. None of the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed, p 438-439
Fluconazole 50 mg od is the systemic drug of choice.
Ans: 16.c, 17.b, 18.d, 19.d, 20.b, 21 .a, 22.b

h Paper 14
23. Candida infection is a frequent cause of:

a Burning mouth b. Bleeding gums
c. Bad breath d. Dental carles
24. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from:
a. Improper cavity preparation b. Faulty manipulation
Reference: "Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials: Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd ed"
“Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000", p 168
Clinical failure Is the point at which the restoration Is no longer serviceable or at which time the
restoration poses other severe risks if it is not replaced. Amalgam restoration-related failures include:
(1) Bulk fracture of the restoration
(2) Corrosion and excessive marginal fracture
(3) Sensitivity or pain
(4) Secondary carles
(5) Fracture of tooth structure forming the restorative tooth preparation walls
25. Necrotizing sialometaplasia occur in which of the following locations?
a. Lesion at junction between hard and soft palate
b. In submandibular salivary gland
c. Junction beteen attached and non attached gingival
d. Buccal mucosa
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, p 344
26. Sharp pain is due to which type of fibers?
a. A fibers b. B fibers
c. C fibers d. D fibers
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion
A-delta fibers -small, myelinated fibers that transmit sharp pain
C-flbers -sm all unmyelinated nerve fibers that transmit dull or aching pain.
27. A ll of these are ways to give L.A with less pain EXCEPT:
a Give it slowly b. Stretch the muscle
c. Topical anesthesia d. The needle size over than 25 gauge
Reference: Malamed’s Local Anasthesia
Patients can’t differentiate between 23 -2 5 -2 7 and 30 gauge needles.
28. What is the least favorable treatment for mesia tilted lower molar with missing adjacent tooth?
a. Non rigid connector b. Proximal half crown
c. Uprighting of molar by orthodontics d. Telescope crown
Reference: Shillinberg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, p 98
Ans: 23.a, 24.c, 25.a, 26.a, 27.b, 28.c

D e n to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
29. Autoclaving technique depends on:

a. Dry heat b. Moist heat
c. Chemicals d. Vacuum
Autoclave: Steam and pressure until it’s heated
30. The following are indications of outpatient general anesthesia, EXCEPT:
a A S A categories 1 & 2 b. The very young child
c. Cost increase d. Patient admitted and discharge the same day
Reference: -http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.QQv/pmc/articles/PMC2149014/pdf/anesthproQ00222-Q007.Ddf
http://www.bcm.edU/oto/arand/121996.html
Although age can no longer be considered a contraindication to outpatient anesthesia and surgery,
anesthetic-related morbidity and mortality remain higher.
31. The fracture of amalgam restoration at isthmus portion, is due to:
a. High occlusalcontact b. Shallow preparation of isthumus
c. Wide preparationatisthmus. d. Constricted isthmus
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed, (2005)
Isthmus joins the occlusal key with the interproximal box. It is the part of the filling most prone to
fracture.
32. The best way to remove silver point
a. Steiglitz pliers b. Ultrasonic tips
c. H files d. Hatchet
Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002 -page 142
Cement can be removed carefully from around the point using a Piezon ultrasonic unit and CT4 tip or
sealer tip. Great care must be taken not to sever the point and damage the coronal end. The point is
withdrawn using Stieglitz forceps or small-ended artery forceps.
33. How can we differentiate between the upper right and left canine?
a. The functional cusp tip is inclined distally
b. The functional cusp tip is inclined mesially
c. Cervical line on lingual surface is inclined distally
- We can differentiate between the upper mesial and distal canine by the functional cusp tip is
inclined distally if bisectioning crown
- The cervical line on lingual surface is inclined mesially
- Root curved mesially
Ans: 29.b, 30.d, 31 .c, 32.a, 33.a

!
r
Paper 14
34. Which o f the following is the submandibular abscess:

a. Intraorally through the mylohyoidmuscles, b. Extraorally under the chin.
c. Extraorally at the most purulent site. d. Extraorally at the lower border of the mandible.
Reference: “Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Jonathan Pedlar, p 96"
Below lower border of mandible by atleast 1 cm to avoid Injury to marginal mandibular nerve, sub
mandibular gland, facial artery and lingual nerve.
35. Scale to measure marginal deterioration is:
a. Mahler scale b. Color analogues scale
c. Perio scale d. All the above
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 158“
Progression of the events to deeper or more extensive ditching has been used as visible clinical
evidence of conventional amalgam deterioration and was the basis of the Mahler scale.
36. What is the time duration for complete remineralization of an accidentally etched enamel
surface of tooth in oral cavity?
a. After hours b. After weeks
c. After months d. None of the above
Remineralization of etched enamel occurs from the saliva, and after 24 hr it is indistinguishable from
untreated enamel.
37. Antibiotics are mostly used in cases of:
a Acute localized lesion b. Diffuse, highly progressing lesion,
Reference: Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
38. The number one indication for the use of direct filling gold is:
a. The large class IIlesion b. The small initial class II lesion
c. The small class IIlesion d. The large class III lesion
39. Ester type of local anesthesia is secreted by:
a. Liver only b. Kidney
c. Lung d. All the above
Reference: Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
Cholinesterase is produced by the liver; by breaking ester linkages it inactivates drugs such as suc-
cinylcholine and ester-type local anesthetics. The hepatic microsomal enzyme system converts lipid
soluble drugs into more water soluble ones that can be excreted by the kidney.
40. Where does the breakdown of ester type LA occurs:
a. Kidneys b. Liver
c. Lung d. Plasma and liver
Ans: 34.d, 35.a, 36.a, 37.b, 38.b, 39.b, 40.d

D e n to -G u if - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
41. An 18 year old girl with occlusal wear in her tooth. What is the best treatment?
a. Orthodontic correction b. Restoration
c. Teeth capping d. Full Crown
Reference: Mcdonald’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, p 646"
42. A patient with leukemia, absolute neutrophilic count is 1700. What oral surgeon should do?
a. Postpone another day b. Work with prophylactic antibiotic
c. Platelets transfusion d. Do nothing
Reference: NIDCR Recommendation
Absolute neutrophil count is sufficient to recommend oral treatment. Postpone oral surgery or other
oral invasive procedures if platelet count is less than 75,000/mm3 or abnormal clotting factors are
present. Absolute neutrophil count is less than 1,000/mm3 (or consider prophylactic antibiotics).
43. For cavity class II amalgam restoration in a second maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be
used is:
a. Celluloid strips b. Tofflemire matrix
c. Gold matrix d. Mylar matrix
Types of matrices
Metal - firm, used for amalgam restorations.
Mylar - easily mouldable and can light-cure through; used for resin composite.
Plastic - rigid, can light-cure through; used in Class V cavities.
Difficult cases - In deep subgingival cavities use of special matrices such as tofflemire or automatrix
or copper bands, often achieve better contact points and marginal adaptation.
Occasionally electrosurgery is required to permit matrix adaptation.
44. Which component of gypsum-bonded investment provides the thermal expansion for the
investment?
a. The binder b. The refractory filler
c. Modifiers d. None of the above
45. Most important sealer criteria to be success:
a. High viscosity b. High retention
c. High strength d. High resilience
e. c + d
46. Which of the following is the reason for discoloration of RC treated tooth?
a. Hemorrhage after trauma b. Incomplete remove GP from the pulp chamber
c. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue d. All the above
Reference: Pocket Atlas of Endodontics, p 178
Ans: 41 .c, 42.d, 43.b, 44.b, 45.e, 46.d

D e n to -G u lt - F o' G ut' C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 14
In order to prevent discoloration of the tooth crown bv components of the root canal filling materiai. a
heated instrument must be used to sever the filling material 2 mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
Reference: Pocket Atlas of Endodontics, p 88
It must be sufficiently extended meslally and distally so that the pulp horns can be completely ac
cessed and all necrotic tissue removed. Tissues that are left behind can lead later on to discoloration
of the clinical crown.
Blood recomposesand Hb gets converted to hemosiderin which enters the dentinal tubules and causes
the typical black discoloration after trauma. Similarly, after a root canal, if the biomech is not done well
and insufficient usage of irrigants like hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide, the same flows into the
tubules and a tooth which looked normal suddenly looks black after root canal.
The access cavity is positioned too far to the gingival with no incisal extension. This can lead to bur
and file breakage, coronal discoloration because the pulp horns remain.
47. Dental wax patterns (i.e., inlays, onlays crowns) should be invested as soon as possible after
fabrication to minimize change in the shape caused by:
a. Reduced flow b. Drying out of the wax
c. Relaxation of internal stress d. All of the above
46. Accidental exposure of pulp during removing of moist carious dentin. Which is the best treat
ment among the following?
a. Do direct pulp caping b. Do indirect pulp caplng
c. Prepare for endodontic treatment d. Extraction
Reference: “Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, p 167’
There is general agreement that carious exposure of a mature permanent tooth generally requires
endodontic therapy. Carious exposure generally Implies bacterial Invasion of the pulp, with toxic prod
ucts Involving much of the pulp.
However, partial pulpotomy and pulp capping of a carious exposure in a tooth with an Immature apex
have a higher chance of working.
Reference: "Dental Pulp, 2002, p 335”
Cavity cleansing, disinfection, and hemorrage control
A clinical review failed to support direct pulpcapping or pulpotomy procedures in teeth when a me
chanical exposure pushes infected carious operative debris into the subjacent pulp. Because of the
stigma of long-term failures, our profession generally selects traditional endodontic treatment. Only
in the treatment of pulp exposures in fractured young anterior teeth with open apices does the litera
ture discuss pulpotomy or direct pulp-capping with Ca(OH)2.
Ans: 47.c, 48.c

49. Which of the following is true about acute abscess?

a. Cavity lined by epithelium b. Cavity containing blood cells
c. Cavity containing fluid d. None of the above
50. A patient with a history of subacute bacterial endocarditis is a medical problem in a surgery.
It is because of the possibility of:
a Bacteremia b. Septicemia
c. Hypertension d. Mitral stenosis
e. Auricular fibrillation
1. a, b and c. 2. a, b and d.
3. a, d and e. 4. b, c and e.
5. c, d and e.
51. A tooth slooth is used to detect:
a. Caries b. Fractured teeth
c. PA area d. Color
52. Aplastic anemia is caused by:
a Tetracycline b. Penicillin
c. Erythromycin d. Sulfonamide
Aplastic anemia is also sometimes associated with exposure to toxins such as benzene, or with the
use of certain drugs, including chloramphenicol, carbamazepine. felbamate. phenvtoin. quinine, and
phenylbutazone. Many drugs are associated with aplasia mainly according to case reports but at a
very low probability. As an example, chloramphenicol treatment is followed by aplasia in less than 1 in
40,000 treatment courses, and carbamazepine aplasia is even more rare.
53. The distinguishing feature of masticatory space infection is:
a Pain b. Dysphagia
c. Trismus d. Swellings
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 599
54. How will you treat dental hyper sensitivity tooth?
a. Sedative medication b. Restoration by adhesion
c. Amalgam d. Hard tooth brush
55. The main mechanism of action by which calcium is able to focus a dentinal barrier is:
a. Stimulation b. Irritation
c. Inflammation d. None of the above
Ans: 49.d, 50.2, 51 .b, 52.d, 53.c, 54.b, 55.d

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C ountries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
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56. Myelinated nerve fibers have all of the following properties except:
a. Conduction is slower in myelinated than In non myelinated fibers.
b. Current discharges at nodes of Ranvier.
c. Outer layer Is of lipids.
d. Depolarisation occurs only at nodes of Ranvier.
Reference: Monhelm's Local Anesthesia and Paincontrol in General Practice, 7th ed, p 132
57. Which of the following regarding thyroglossal duct cysts is true?
a. Called lympho-epithelial cysts.
b. Found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyroglossal duct.
c. Found in the posterior tongue
d. Clinically present in the lateral neck tissue
Reference: Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed, p 316
Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed, p 357
58. Toothgerm of primary teeth arise from:
a. Dental lamina b. Dental follicle
c. Enamel organ d. Epithelial cell of Malassez
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dental lamina
The dental lamina is a band of epithelial tissue seen In histologic sections of a developing tooth. The
dental lamina Is the first evidence of tooth development and begins at the sixth week In utero or three
weeks after the rupture of the buccopharyngeal membrane.
59. A defect in the epithelial root sheath a failure in the induction of dentinogenesis, or the pres
ence of small blood vessel produces a:
a. An extra root b. HB2
c. Accessory canal d. A shortened root
60. Which of the following will give rise to apical periodontal cyst?
a. Hertwig sheath b. Epithelial cell rest of malassez.
c. Infected periodontal tissues d. None of the above
Reference: Oral Pathology, 4th ed.
http://obm.ouintessenz.de/index.php?doc=html&abstractlD=9558
http://en.wikipedia.ora/wiki/Epithelial cell rests of Malassez
Apical periodontal cyst= periapical cyst = radicular cyst: these Inflammatory cysts derive their epithe
lial lining from the proliferation of small odontogenic epithelial residues (rests of Malassez) within the
PDL
In dentistry, the epithelial cell rests of Malassez or epithelial rests of Malassez (frequently abbreviated
as ERM) are part of the periodontal ligament cells around a tooth. They are discrete clusters of
residual cells from Hertwlg's epithelial root sheath (HERS) that didn't completely disappear. It Is
considered that these cell rests proliferate to form epithelial lining of various odontogenic cysts such
Ans: 56.a, 57.b, 58.a, 59.c, 60.b

as radicular cyst under the influence of various stimuli. They are named after Louis-Charles Malassez
(1842-1909) who described them. Some rests become calcified in the periodontal ligament
(cementicles).
61. Orgin of primary malignant melanoma in oral cavity is:
a. Nevus cells in the connectivetissue b. Without the surface epithelium,
c. Within the surface epithelium d. Langerhans cells within epithelium.
62. The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in:
a. Homogenous leukoplakia b. Erythroplakia
c. Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis d. Speckled leukoplakia
Erythroplakia. The lesion is a precancer, i.e. it carries a higher than normal risk of malignant transfor
mation
63. Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through:
a. Superior orbital fissure b. Inferior orbital fissure
c. Jugular foramen d. Foramen rotundum
e. Foramen ovale
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy hor Dental Students, Vol-lll, p 152
The ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular branches leave the skull through three separate foramina:
the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale. The mnemonic standing
room only can be used to remember that V1 passes through the superior orbital fissure, V2 through
the foramen rotundum, and V 3 through the foramen ovale.
64. Down syndrome child will be having
a Above 80% IQ level b. Braqeo cephalic skull
c. Congenital heart disease d. b + c
(Down syndrome have Intellectual disability In the mild (IQ 50-70) to moderate (IQ 35-50) range)
65.3rd Generation of apex locator: ( Endex )
a. Use with all patient b. Need more research
c. Increase chair time d. Decrease radiographic film need
66. A 30 year old patient came to your clinic with the complaint of pain related swelling on max
illary central incisor area. The clinical examination shows the tooth is vital and there is pain
on percussion. What is your diagnosis?
a. Incisive canal cyst b. Periapical cyst
c. Anuyrsmal bone cyst d. Periodontal cyst
Ans: 61 .a. 62.b, 63.e, 64.d. 65.d, 66.a

For Guff C uu/ttriet Liu en s i n o E x a m in a tio n s
67. Posterior vibrating line is at the junction of:
a. Levator palatini and tensor palatini
b. Levator palatini and muscular portion of soft palate
c. Aponeurosis of levator palatini and muscular portion of soft palate
d. Aponeurosis of tensor palatini and muscular portion of soft palate
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontlcs, p 111
68. A patient came to the clinic and you reveled under medical history that he had chronic renal
failure; he used to do hemidialysis. The treatment should be:
a. Before one day of dialysis b. On the day of dialysis
c. After one day of dialysis d. After one week of dialysis
Reference: Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonls, p 54
69. Location to give inferior alveolar nerve block, the landmarks are:
a. Pterygomandibular raphy. (Flod) b. Cronold notch
c. Inner and external oblique ridge d. All of the above
Reference: Malamed’s Local Anesthesia
70. In systemic LA toxicity there is:
a Post depression convulsion b. Post convulsion depression
c. Convulsions d. Hypertension
Reference: Monheim's Local Anesthesia and Palncontrol In General Practice, 7th ed, p 129,214
Ans: 67.d, 68.c, 69.d, 70.b

MODEL QUESTION
MODEL -1 5
1. A child with mental disorder suffers from orofacial trauma, brought to the hospital by his
parents. The child is panic stricken and irritable. The treatment should do under:
a Local anesthesia b. General anesthesia
c. Gas sedation d. Intravenous sedation
2. The best impression technique for recording loose maxillary anterior hyperplastic tissue in
an edentulous patient involves:
a. Registering the tissue in its passive position
b. Using high fusing modeling compound
c. Closed mouth technique
d. Maximum pressure
Reference: Winkler's Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p 62
3. Least heat generated in:
a Diamond bur b. Steel bur
c. Carbide bur d. Titaniumbur
4. A patient needs complete denture. You take impression with irreversible hydrocolloid and
poured it after more than 15 min. late. The cast appears sort and chalky. The reason is:
a. Dehydration of the impression.
b. Expansion of the impression.
c. Immerse the impression in a chemical solution.
d. All the above
Irreversible hydrocolloids = Alginate, a disinfectant as sodium hypochlorite or dettol can affect the
surface details of the alginate if the timing was not correct (more than 10 min's)
5. The restoration which combines esthetics and strength is the:
a. All ceramic crown b. Resin veneered metal crown
c. Adhesive retained bridge d. Porcelain fused to metal crown
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics. p 142
6. What amount of reduction should be there for functional cusp, when preparing for amalgam
onlay?
a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm d. 2.5 mm
Porcelain and Gold Onlay 1.5 mm, amalgam onlay: 2.5-3 mm
Ans: 1.b. 2.a. 3.c. 4.c. 5.d, 6.d, 7.a

De m o-G u!- - r o ' G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
y Paper 15
What’s the first (early) sign of syncope?

a. Paleness b. Nose bleeding
c. Increase heart rate d. Sweating
8. Maximum dose of xylocaine without adrenaline that can be given in 60 kg adults is:
a 500 mg b. 300 mg
c. 400 mg d. 600 mg
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Paincontrol in General Practice, 7th ed, p 111
Application of rubber dam in the endodontic:
a Necessary b. Patient comfort
c. Established rule d. Extra cost
10. What is the bonding strength of 5th generation enamel bonding agent?
a 10 Mp b. 25 Mp
c. 30 Mp d. 40 Mp
11. A patient with a limited mouth opening. What's the LA technique to be used?
a. Bircher’s technique b. Gow-Gates technique
c. William’s technique d. None of the above
Gow-Gates technique - Vazirani-Akinosi technique: a closed-mouth injection technique
12. In hypertension patient the history is important to detect severity:
a. True. b. False.
13. Cranial nerve, which emerges from dorsal surface of brain, is:
a. „. b. IV.
c. VI. d. All of the above.
Reference: Gray’s Anatomy, p 803
14. Patient complaining of xerostomia, frequent going to the toilet at night:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes incipedus
c. URTI d. None of the above
15. How will you check TMJ movement?
a. MRI b. Traditional tomography
c. Arthrography d. Computerized tomography
16. At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest:
a. D EJ b. Center of enamel prisms
c. Edge of enamel prisms d. Facial enamel
17. How will you treat the missing lower six molar and tilted lower seven molar abutment?
a. Up righting of molar by orthodontics b. Proximal half crown
c. Telescope crown d. Non rigid connector
Reference: Shillinberg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, p 98
Ans: 8.b, 9.c, 10.b, 11.b, 12.a, 13.b, 14.a, 15.c, 16.c, 17.a
Section II; Model Question Papers
18. Which of the following decreases the risk of ventricular fibrillation?

a. Dilated heart.
b. Increased ventricular refractory period.
c. Exposure of the heart to 60 cycle alternating current.
d. Administration of epinephrine.
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, p 153,154
19. How will you take out the broken periodontal instrument ( tips) from the gingival:
a. Ultrasonic tips b. H files
c. Barbed broaches d. None of the above
Schwartz Periotriever is the specific instrument used for taking out of broken perio instruments from
the gingiva.
20. To fasten zinc oxide cement, you should add:
a. Zinc sulfide b. Zinc acetate
c. Bariumsulfide d. Bariumchloride
21. Laser core can be used in curing of composite:
a. ND(YAG). b. HeNe.
c. Argon laser d. C O a
22. Which of the amino acids has uncharged polar side chain?
a. Alanine b. Leucine
c. Proline d. Serine
Reference: Lippincott's Illustrated Reveiws Biochemistry, p 3
23. Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark lines that appear in:
a. Enamel when viewed in horizontal ground, b. Enamel when viewed in longitudinal ground,
c. Dentin when viewed in horizontal ground. d. Dentin when viewed in longitudinal ground.
24. Xylitol is sugar substitute which helps to:
a. Decrease caries b. Increase caries
c. Increase taste sensation d. Decrease taste sensation
25. Test used to detect HIV is:
a Elisa b. Western blot assay
c. Indirect Immunofluoresence Assay d. None of the above
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, p 584
26. Best treatment for tooth with necrotic pulp and open root apex:
a Calcium hydroxide b. Calcific barrier
c. Apexfication with gutta d. Gutta percha filling
Reference: Clinical Endodontics Textbook, Tronstad, p 224
Ans: 18.b. 19.d, 20.b, 21 .c, 22.d, 23.b, 24.a, 25.a, 26.a
Paper 15
27. A patient suffering from cracked enamel and his chief complaint is pain on:
a. Hot stimuli b. Cold stimuli
c. a & b d. Electric test
Reference: Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry, 8th ed, Oxford, p 213
28. Which surface of the tooth is affected most by caries?
a. Proximal surface b. Root surface
c. Pit and fissure d. All the above
29. Tracing of GP is used for:
a. Source of periapical pathosis b. Acute periapical periodontitis
c. Periodontal abscess d. None
30. Dental student using thermoplasticized GP. What is the main problem he may face?
a. Extrusion of G.P from the canal
b. Inability to fill the proper length
c. Failure to use master cone at proper length
d. All of the above
31. What are the disadvantages of McSpadden technique in obturation?
a. Increase time b. Increase steps
c. Difficult in curved canals d. All the above
Disadvantage’s of McSpadden Tech:
Use of speed higher than recommended, it will cause poor seal.
Extrusion of the filling material.
Fracture of thermocompactor.
Gouging of the canal wall.
Inability to use the technique in curved canals.
Heat generation may lead to PDL damage, resorption and ankylosis..
Voids in final filling
And
If the file is turning in reverse, it can screw itself into the canal and periapical tissues.
Endodontic obturation
32. Mechanochemical preparation during RCT—main aim is:
a. Widening of the apex
b. Removal of infected pulp
c. Master cone reaches the radiographic apex
d. Proper debridement of the apical part of the canal
33. The cusp-fossa occlusal arrangement is preferred to the cusp-marginal ridge arrangement for:
a. Single restorations b. Short span bridges
c. Full mouth reconstruction d. All restorations
Ans: 27.c, 28.c, 29.a, 30.b, 31.c, 32.d, 33.c

D e n to -G u lf - F or G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g E xam ina tions
Section II: Model Question Papers.
Reference: Rosenstiels Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p 571

34. Unmounted sharpening instruments are better than mounted because:
a. Have finer grains b. Easier to sterilize
c. Don't alter the bevel of the instrument d. Less particles of the instruments are removed
Reference: “Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials: Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd ed”
35. Typically rapid palatal expansion is done with a Jackscrew that is activated at the rate of:
a. 1 to 2 mm / week b. 1 to 2 mm / day
c. 0.5 to 1 mm / week d. 0.5 to 1 mm / day
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics. The Art and Science, p 25
36. Oral surgeon puts his finger on the nose of the patient and the patient is asked to blow. This
is done to check:
a. Anterior extension of posterior palatal seal
b. Lateral extension of posterior palatal seal
c. Posterior extension of posterior palatal seal
d. Glandular opening
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p 107
37. Patient has inflammation under denture. Which is the best technique to make impression?
a. Take it immediately to prevent future deterioration.
b. Reline the denture by soft material and wait until tissue healed.
c. Advice not to remove denture tonight.
d. a + b.
e. All the above.
38. Tek-Scan system:
a. Is used for qualitative analysis of occlusion b. Used for quantitative analysis of occlusion
c. Uses ultrasonic methods d. Both ’b’ and ‘c’ are true
Reference: Dawson's Functional Occlusion, p 592
39. A patient came after complete denture insertion complaining of dysphasia and ulcers in his
mouth. What is the cause of dysphasia?
a. Over extended b. Under extended
c. Over post dammed d. Under post dammed
40. Soft palate falls abruptly, facilitates recording post dam. Falls gradually, makes recording
post dam difficult:
a Two statements true b. Two false
c. First true, second false d. First false, second true
Ans: 34.d. 35.d, 36.c, 37.b, 38.b, 39.c, 40.b

D e n to -G u lf - Pc: G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 15
41. In which o f the following, the center o f mandible and facial midline coincide in rest position?
a. Laterognathy b. True cross bite
c. Laterocclusion d. None of the above
Reference: Gurkeerat Singh’s Textbook of Orthodontics, p 70
42. A patient with complete denture comes to your clinic, complaints about his dry mouth. The
proper medicine is:
a Anti diabetic medicine b. Cholinergic
c. Anticholinergic d. Salivary subsitutes
43. Patient has anaphylactic shock after taking penicillin. You have to give him:
a. 0.5 mg epinephrine of 1/10000 intra venous
b. Adrenaline 1/1000 intra muscular
c. 200 mg hydrocortisone intravenous
Anaphylaxis is always an emergency. It requires an immediate injection of 0.1 to 0.5 ml of epinephrine
1:1,000 aqueous solution, repeated every 5 to 20 minutes as necessary. If the patient is in the early
stages of anaphylaxis and hasn’t yet lost consciousness and is still normotensive, give epinephrine
I.M. or subcutaneously (S.C.) helping it move into the circulation faster by massaging the injection
site. For severe reactions, when the patient has lost consciousness and is hypotensive, give epi
nephrine I.V.
44. Vertebral artery is the branch of:
a. Thyrocervical trunk b. First branch of the subclavian artery
c. Second branch of the subclavian artery d. Inferior thyroid artery
Reference : G ray's Anatomy, 928
45. Isolated periodontal pocket is in:
a. Vertical root fracture b. Palato gingival groove
c. Endo origin lesion d. All
46. Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in contact with polymethyl
methacrylate and not inhibit the polymerize of resin:
a ZoE b. Gl
c. Zn phosphate cement d. Varnish
e. b + c
47. After eating a meal containing a large amount of fat, which of the following changes tends to
cause a feeling of satiety?
a. Increased levels of neuropeptide Y. b. Increased secretion of ghrelin by the stomach,
c. Increased release of cholecystokinin. d. Decreased secretion of leptin.
Ans: 41 .c, 42.b, 43.b, 44.b, 45.d, 46.e, 47.c

Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, p 868-870

48. What medical condition can prevent the dentist from practicing dentistry?
a. Diabetes b. Hypertension
c. Influenza d. Headache
49. What is the time between the first onset of HIV virus and the appearance of the symptoms?
a. 1-5 years b. 10 years
c. 11-15 years d. No specific time
Reference: Guyton and Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology, p 447
50. How will you open an incision in a periapical abscess in a lower first molar?
a. The most bottom of the abscess. b. Upper margin of the abcess
c. The most necrotic part of the abscess. d. Extra oral.
51. Ethics in research includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. Protection of rights to privacy
b. Protection against legal risks
c. Protection against the role of the statistician
d. Protection against physical risks.
52. In 6 weeks intrauterine life the development (of dental lamina) starts. The oral epithelium
(stratified squamous epithelium) will be thickened and gives dental lamina:
a. True. b. False.
53. Okazaki fragments are:
a Short stretches of continuous DNA b. Short stretches of discontinuous DNA
c. Long stretches of continuous DNA d. Long stretches of discontinuous DNA
Reference: Lippincott’s Illustrated Reveiws Biochemistry, p 399
54. Which is contraindicated to general anesthesia?
a. Patient with an advanced medical condition like cardiac.
b. Down’s syndrome patient.
c. Child with multiple carious lesion in most of his dentition.
d. Child who needs dental care, but who's uncooperative, fearful.
55. Radiolucent area is cover the pericoronal part of the mandibular 3rd molar is:
a Dentigerous cyst b. Central hemangioma
c. Radicular cyst d. Eruption cyst
56. Fever blisters is the other name of:
a Canker sores b. Cold sores
c. Aphthous ulcers d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology, p 580
Ans;48.c, 49.b, 50,c, 51.c, 52.a, 53.b, 54.a, 55.a, 56.b

Demto-Gulf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 15
57. A young patient came without any complaint during routine x-ray. There appears between the
two lower molars a lesion of diameter about 2 mm and extend laterally with irregular shape.
What’s the type of cyst:
a. Dentigerous cyst b. Apical cyst
c. Radicular cyst d. Median nasal cyst
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of oOral Pathology, 5th ed, p 361
58. You should treatANUG (acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis) until the disease is completely
removed. Otherwise, it will change to necrotic ulcerative periodontitis:
a. Both sentences are true. b. Both sentences are false,
c. 1st true, 2nd false. d. 1st false, 2nd true.
Reference: Burket- Oral Medicine, p 63
The patient must be made aware that, unless the local etiologic factors of the disease are removed,
ANUG may return or become chronic and lead to periodontal disease of necrotic ulcerative gingivitis
NUG
59. Success of pit and fissure sealants is affected mainly by:
a. Increased time of etching. b. Contamination by oral saliva
c. Salivary flow rate. d. Proper fissure sealant.
60. Riga-Fede disease occur in infant patient’s:
a. Tongue b. Palate
c. Buccal mucosa d. Salivary gland
Reference: Mosby Medical Dictionary
61. Plaque bacillus is:
a Aerobic b. Anaerobic
c. Aerobic and facultatively anaerobic d. Anaerobic and facultatively aerobic
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, p 324
62. Which of the following is continuous condensation technique in RCT obturation?
a. Ultrafill b. System B
c. Obtura I d. Obtura II
63. The diuretic group that does not require access to the tubular lumen to induce diuresis is:
a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor b. Na-CI symport inhibitor
c. Mineralocortocoid antagonist d. Na-K symport inhibitor
64. The x-ray shows scattered radiopaque lines in the mandible. The diagnosis will be:
a. Paget disease b. Garres syndrome
c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Osteosarcoma
Ans: 57.c, 58.a, 59.b, 60.a, 61 .c, 62.b, 63.c, 64.c

D e nto-G utf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
65. A patient came to you after trauma to 4 incisor teeth and they do not respond to electric pulp
testing. IOPA x-ray of these tooth appears normal. What do you do?
a. Pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy
c. Extraction d. No need for treatment
Do not do anything. Put the patient on recall appointment.
66. A child has avulsed tooth and has come to your clinic within 1 hour of avulsion. What are the
chances of replantation to succeed?
a. 20% b. 40%
c. 507o d. 80%)
67. You are doing a complete denture fabrication. During acrylization which portion of denture
would you most likely to have porosity?
a. Thinnest portion b. Thickest portion
c. At the edge of denture d. Tissue surface of denture
68. Material of choice for perforation during RCT in molar tooth?
a. Zinc oxide b. Calcium hydroxide
c. MTA d. EDTA
69. Space maintainer for bilateral loss of mandibular molar in six year old child:
a. Lingual archspace maintainer b. distal shoe
c. Band and loop d. RPD
70. Following can be caused by nitrous oxide sedation except:
a Diffusion hypoxia
b. Spontaneous abortion on long-term use.
c. Bone marrow depression after prolonged use
d. Increases cardiac output and produce cardiac arythmias
Ans: 65.d, 66.d, 67.b, 68.c, 69.a, 70.d

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf Countries L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1 6
1. Waves and waves of condensation method is used in:

a. Obtura I b. Obturall
c. Ultrafill d. System B
2. An abnormal response to heat thermal pulp test indicates:
a. Pulpal and periapical disorder b. Vital pulp
c. Non vital pulp d. None of the above
Heat test is not a test of pulp vitality, it wil show the presence of pulpal and periapical disorder.
3. Doing cantilevers, we consider all of the following:
a Small in all diameters b. High yield strength
c. Minimal contact d. All the above
4. Secondary dentine can form in following conditions except?
a. Occlusal trauma b. Tooth fracture
c. Recurrent caries d. Attrition of tooth
5. In working as a team, the position of the chair side assistant should be:
a. Adjacent to the handpieces
b. At the same height as the dentist.
c. Higher then the dentist.
d. Varied, depending upon where the dentist is working.
Reference: National Board Dental Examination - Dec. 1979
6. In restoring lost tooth, which is least important?
a. Esthetic b. Patient demand
c. Function d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability
7. Acyclovir dose for treatments of herpes simplex:
a. 200 mg / 5 times a day b. 200 mg / 4 times a day
c. 400 mg / 4 times a day d. 800 mg / 4 times a day
In case of immunodeficiency double the dose to 800 mg.
8. Endemic dental fluorosis occurs at what concentration of fluoride in the drinking water sup
ply:
a. 1 ppm b. 3 ppm
c. 5 ppm d. 7 ppm
Ans: 1 .d, 2.a, 3.d, 4.b, 5.c, 6.b, 7.c, 8.b

D e n io -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
9. Exposure needed when grid is used:

a. Lesser than without grid. b. Slightly more than without grid,
c. Approximately double than without grid. d. No effect on exposure required.
10. We can use under the composite restoration:
1. Varnish 2. Zinc oxide and eugenol
3. Ca (OH)2 4. Zinc phosphate cement
a. 1+2 b. 2+3
c. 3+4 d. 2+4
11. A ll of the following structures are related to cavernous sinus except:
a. Optic nerve b. IVth cranial nerve
c. Vlth cranial nerve d. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
Reference: Chaurasia's Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol-lll, p 94
12. The most desirable finished surface composite resin can be provided by:
a White stones b. Hand instruments
c. Carbide finishing burs d. Diamond finish burs
e. Celluloid matrix band
13. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a. Cavernous branch b. Inferior hypophyseal
c. Meningeal d. Ophthalmic
Reference: Chaurasia Anatomy for Dental Students, p 450
14. The secretomotor fiber to the parotid gland passes through:
a. Otic ganglion b. Sphenopalatine ganglion
c. Geniculate ganglion d. Lesser ganglion
15. Indirect composite inlay overcomes the direct composite by:
1. Insusffition polymerization 2. Good contact proximaly
3. Gingival seal 4. Good retention
a. 1-2-4 b. 1-2-3
c. 4-3
16. Pulmonary fibrosis is the most common complication after treatment with:
a. 6-mercaptopurine b. Vincristine
c. Bleomycin d. Adriamycine
17. A restoration of anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge and small M & D caries is done
by:
a. Ceramo-metal crown b. Composite
c. Laminated veneer d. None of the above
Ans: 9.c, 10.iii, 11.a. 12.a, 13.d, 14.a, 15.b, 16.c, 17.a
D e n tc -G u lf - ~ o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
Paper 16
18. Amount of reduction of functional cusp when preparing for onlay:

a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm d. 2.5 mm
Porcelain / Gold Onlay : 1.5 mm, Amalgam Onlay : 2.5-3 mm
19. Group A nerve fibers are most susceptible to:
a. Pressure b. Hypoxia
c. Local anesthetics d. Temperature
20. Verrucous carcinoma is:
a. Malignant b. IMon-malignant
c. Hayperplastic d. None of the above
Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed, p 170-171
21. Geographic tongue is seen in patient with:
a. Diabetes b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Pemphigus d. Psoriasis
22. What is the concept of pro-taper system?
a. Step down technique b. Step back technique
c. Crown down technique d. Crown back technique
23. Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesn’t cause fluorosis because:
a. It’s not the same fluoride that causes fluorosis.
b. Teeth already calcified
c. Calcium in the mouth counter
d. Saliva washes it out
Fluorosis can happen only during the time that the enamel is forming on the teeth. Since all the tooth
enamel (except for the wisdom teeth) forms before the age of six, only children six and under are
susceptible to getting fluorosis.Fluorosis does not happen to any portion of the teeth that have al
ready erupted.
24. Cause of angular chelitis:
a. Loss vertical dimension patient have complete denture saliva
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. a + b
Ans: 18.b, 19.a, 20.a, 21.d, 22.c, 23.b, 24.c

Section It: Model Question Papers
41. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous patient, the physiologi
cal rest dimension:
a. Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion.
b. May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced.
c. Is of little importance as it is subject to variations.
d. Must always be bigger than vertical dimension of occlusion.
42. Alginates are:
a. Sollution b. Hydrocolloid
c. Gel d. Colloid
43. Generally for the average size wax pattern, sprue formers are smaller in diameter than ap
proximately:
a 1.25 mm are contraindicated b. 1.5 mm are contraindicated
c. 1.75 mm are contraindicated d. 2.0 mm are contraindicated
44. The specimen tested for antemortem diagnosis of rabies is:
a. Cornea b. Brain
c. C S F d. None of these
45. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restorations is:
a. Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus.
b. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth.
c. Lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts.
d. Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and marginal ridges.
46. Polyether impression materials has which of the following?
a. Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber.
b. Are less stable stiff than polysulfide rubber.
c. Can absorb water and swell if stored in water
d. All the above
47. 'Mitten hands’ and 'sock test’ are seen in:
a. Reiter’s syndrome b. Bechet’s syndrome
c. Apert syndrome d. Marfan syndrome
Ans: 41 .d, 42.b, 43.b, 44.a, 45.c, 46.c, 47.c

D e n to -G u lf - r o - G u ll C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 16
48. Which o f the following is contraindicated for anterior FPD

a. There is considerable resorption of the residual ridge.
b. Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
c. Abutment teeth are no carious.
d. An abutment tooth is inclined 15 but is otherwise sound.
49. Which of the following is accutrate in impression taking in onlay cavity is:
a Polyvinyl siloxane
b. Impression compound
c. Condensation type silicones
d. Polysulfides
50. Cholagogues are the substances, which cause:
a. Contraction of the gall bladder b. Increase concentration of bile
c. Increase secretion of bile d. Favour acidification of bile
51. Patients on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotics after oral surgical procedures
because:
a. The patient is more susceptible to infection.
b. Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids.
c. Antibiotics inhibit herksheimer reaction.
d. Antibiotics protect the patient fromsteroid depletion.
52. The postoperative complication after removal of third molar impaction is:
a. Secondary hemorrhage b. Swelling
c. Pain d. Alveolar osteitis
e. All the above
53. Radiographic examination is useful in the demonstration of following in impacted teeth:
a. Proximity of roots to adjacent anatomical structures
b. Shape of roots of impacted tooth
c. Associated pathology
d. b and c
e. All the above
Reference: White and Pharroh, 5th ed, p 91
54. If the child has premature loss of a single primary molar, which space maintainers you will
use?
a. Band and loop space maintainers
b. Distal shoe space maintainers
c. Lingual arch space maintainers
d. R PD
Reference: Damle's Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry.
Ans: 48.a, 49.a, 50.a, 51.a, 52.e, 53.e, 54.a

55. Which of the following regarding lupus erythematosus is false?

a. Shows hyperkeratosis with keratotic plug
b. Shows band like leukocytic inflammatory infiltrate
c. Shows pronounced vasculitis in both superficial and deep connective tissue
d. Direct immunofluoroscence shows deposition of immunoglobulin C3 in a granular band involving
basement membrane
56. Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on:
a. A good medical and dental history b. Proper clinical examination
c. Results of pulp vitality tests d. A periapical radiographs
e. All the above
57. Bleeding of the socket following tooth extraction:
1. Is always a capillary bleeding in nature. 2. Takes not less than half day in normal individual.
3. Is always favorable if it is primary type. 4. Can be due to the presence of a nutrient vessel.
a. 1 and 2 are correct, b. 1 ,2 and 3 are correct,

c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. d. All are correct.
58. Following is not a feature of Vander Woude’s syndrome:
a. Commissural pits b. Lip pits
c. Cleft lip d. Cleft palate
59. In persons with normal healthy gingiva, the proper device for cleaning interproximal surfaces
is the:
a Dental floss b. Interproximal brush
c. Powered (electric) toothbrush d. Hand toothbrush
e. Water irrigation device
60. The best method for plaque control is:
a. Through mechanical tooth cleaning b. By the use of chemical agents once/day
c. By the use of effective water rinse d. None of the above
61. In caries prevention, the pit-and-fissure sealants are:
a. Increase the tooth resistance to dental caries.
b. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
c. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and the oral environment.
d. None of the above answers is correct.
Ans: 55.b. 56.e, 57.c, 58.a, 59.a, 60.a, 61 .c

D e n to -G u lf - For G u l! C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam inations
Paper 16
62. Abrasion of enamel and root surfaces may result from which of the following EXCEPT?
a. A hard toothbrush b. Tooth abrasive toothpaste or powder
c. Vigorous use of the toothbrush d. Dental caries
63. What is a Pier abutment?
a. Single tooth utilized to hold one pontic. b. A tooth that supports a removal partial denture,
c. A and B d. All the above
e. None of the above.
Pier abutments. - are abutment teeth where an edentulous space lies on each side.
64. The proximal contacts can be checked by:
a. Use of pencil b. Use of shimstock
c. Use of silicone fit checker d. All the above
Reference: Journal of Oral Rehabilitation, volume 14, Issue 1, p 91-94
65. Chances of leukoplakia to progress to squamous cell carcinoma is:
a. 5 to 10% b. 3 to 25%
c. 10 to 25% d. 25 to 40%
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology, p 583
66. Oral lesions of lichen planus usually appear as:
a. White streaks b. Red plaques
c. Small, shallow ulcers d. Papillary projections
e. Bullae
67. The oral lesions of the lichen planus:
a. Are usually painful.
b. Rarely appear before lesion else where on the body.
c. May be part of a syndrome in which lesions also appear on the skin, conjunctiva and genitalia.
d. Often appear in nervous, high-strung individuals.
e. Heal with scarring.
68. Deficiency of collagen processing enzymes causes:
a. Type I osteogenesis imperfecta b. Type II osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Emphysema d. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
Ans: 62.d, 63.e, 64.b, 65.b, 66.a, 67.d, 68.d

b e c tio r l! P/iqob C luestior t'aoers
69. All the following are oral features oi acquiree immunodeficiency synarome ,A O S ; except:
a. Candidiasis b. Erythema multiform
c. Hairy leukoplakia d. Rapidly progressing periodontitis
e, Kaposi's sarcoma
Dhingra s Ear Nose and Throat, p 327
70. Treatment of internal resorption involves:
a. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process.
b. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed area for better access.
c. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill the irregularities in the resorbed area.
d. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
e. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to remove inflammatory tissue.
Ans: 69.b. 7Q.a

Oemc‘-G u!' - ~er C-.wt C o u n i-ie i . <:;enr<nc E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER -
1. A displaced, unfavorable fracture in the mandibular angle region is a potentially difficult frac
ture to treat because of:
a. Injury to neurovascular bundle
b. Malocclusion secondary to the injury
c. Distraction of the fractured segments by muscle pull.
d. The density of bone in this region of mandible.
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, Mar-1983
2. The most superior Cold test for pulp:
a. Ethyl chloride b. Ice block
c. Cold spray d. All the above
Because it’s localized to one tooth only
Ice block. = Co2 ice stick - frozen C 0 2 - dry ice - C 0 2 snow
Ethyl chloride taken in cotton pellets and saturated with it
Cold spray is a refrigerant spray containing tetrafluoroethane. It is the most popular method.
3. Which of the following impression materials give unpleasant taste to patient?
a. Polyether b. Polysulphide
c. Polyvinyl siloxane d. Alginate
Reference: http://che1 .If1 .cuni.cz/html/lmpression matehals.pdf
Polysulfide will give bad merchapten smell.
4. Dry socket appears after extraction:
a. 24 hours b. 2 -3 days
c. 1 week d. 2-3 weeks
Reference : Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed„ p 408-409
5. The arachinoid villi responsible for cerebrospinal fluid absorption protrude mainly in the:
a. Superior sagittal sinus b. Inferior sagittal sinus
c. Straight sinus d. Transverse sinus
Reference: Chaurasia-Anaiomy for Dental Students, p 206, 398
6. The infection will spread cervical in infection from:
a. Lower incisors b. Lower premolars
c. Lower 2nd and3rd molars d. Upper incisors
Ans: 1.c, 2.b, 3.b, 4.b, 5.a, 6.c, 7.b

Dentc-Gul1 - po' (Sul* Count'ier Licensing Exemfnstient
Section II: Mode! Question Papers
7. The firs: cervical vertebra is axis:

a. True b. False
8. When using fluoride supplement for the systemic water fluoridation, which is the most im
portant factor to be taken into consideration:
a. Mean climatic temperature.
b. Number of topical fluoride treatments to be given.
c. Amount of supplemental fluoride given by the physician and the dentist.
d. Mean age of the child.
ft In maxillary upper first molar, fourth canal is in the:
a. Mesiobuccal root b. Distobuccal
c. Mesio lingual d. Palatal
10. Osteoradionecrosis mostly affects in:
a. Mandible b. Maxilla
c. No difference d. None of the above
11. Broad and short type of face is known as:
a. Mesoprosopic b. Euryprosopic
c. Leptoprosopic d. None of the above
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics. The Art and Science, 3rd ed, p 121
12. In inflamed mucosa due to wearing denture when to do new denture?
a. Immediately b. After week
c. After a month
d. Apply tissue conditioning material to allow tissues to heal, then take impression.
13. Which of the following does not participate in the coagulation process?
a. Thrombin b. Vitamin K
c. Plasmin d. Fibrin
14. Dentinogenesis imperfecta has all EXCEPT:
a. Easily fractured bone b. Supernumerary teeth
c. Easily fractured enamel d. Blue sclera
15. Retention of amalgam depends on:
a. Amalgam bond b. Convergence of walls oclusally
c. Divergence of walls occlusally d. Retentive pins
16. The molecular weight of the protein can be determined by:
a Native polyacrylamide gel elctrophoresis (PAGE)
d. Sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS-PAGE)
c. Isoelectric focusing
d. Ion exchange chromatography
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry. 27th ed. p 23,24,25
Ans: B.a, 9.a, 10.a, 11.b, 12.d, 13.c, 14.b, 15.b, 16.b
D e n ln -G u lf - p o ’’ G u lf C o un tries L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 17
17. A 16 year old student came to clinic with severe pain, inter dental papilla is inflamed. What is
the diagnosis:
a. Gingivitis b. ANUG
c. Periodontitis d. AHGS
18. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF):
a. 1.23% b. 2%
c. 2.23 d. 3%
19. Modulus of elasticity means:
a. Rigidity or stiffness of the material
b. Ability to be stretched with permanent deformation
c. Ductility of a material
d. Melleability of the material
20. A patient has a complete denture, came to your clinic, has no complaint while talking, chew
ing. But when you examine him, you see the upper lip is too long, and deficient in the margin
at the lip. What will be the reason?
a. Deficiency in the vertical dimensional b. Anterior upper teeth are short
c. Deficient in vitB d. All the above
21. A female patient came to your clinic for endodontic treatment in her central insicor, has com
posite restorations in the mesial and distal walls, and has attrition in the insicial edge also.
What is the best restoration you can provide?
a. Jacket crown b. Full crown
c. Metal crown d. Composite
22. The test useful for identifying human strains of tubercle bacilli is:
a Aryl sulphatase test b. Niacin test
c. Neutral red test d. None of the above
23. Reparative dentin occurs due to:
c. Attrition dentine d. All of the above
24. A 25 year patient came to you after a football accident with fratured tooth. After examination
you found fractured tooth at alveolar crest level. What’s the best way to treat?
a. Restore with amalgam subgingivally b. Crown lengthening
c. Extrusion with orthodontics d. Wait for the tooth to erupt
Ans: 17.b, 18.a, 19.a, 20.b, 21.b, 22.b, 23.d, 24.c

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g E xam ina tions
b ez:icr ’ r-ra .. I!
25. Tne mosi commor. fissure aonormaiiij

a. Cleft patale b. Cleft lip
c. Cleft lip and palate c None of the above
Reference- Shafer's Textbook of Ora Pathology's 4tr eS p 1C
26. Vibrating line between:
a. Hard and soft palate b. Movable and immovable tissues of soft palate
c. Posterior border ofhard palate d. Anterior border of soft paiate
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials' of Complete Denture Prosthodontics. p 111
Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics. p 22
27. When restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth with amalgam, the normal physiologic symp
tom after that is:
a Cold sensitivity b. Heat sensitivity
c. Bite sensitivity d. Air sensitivity
28. Cavity class II restoration with composite resin, all cavosurface angles should be:
a. Well rounded b. Right angles
c. Acute angles d. Obtuse angles
All internal line angles should be rounded for composite restoration.
All internal line angles should be right angles for in amalgam restorations.
29. Which drug is not acetylated?
a. IIMH b. Dapsone
c. Hydralazine d. Metoclopromide
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 5th ed. p 22
30. Which of the following is moisture sensitive?
a. Glass inomer b. Polycarboxylate
c. Zinc phosphate d. ZnO eugenol
31. Cyst in mandible shows radiographic features of:
a. Radiolucent with bone resorption b. Radiolucent with bone expansion
c. Radioopeque with bone resorption d. Radioopeque with bone expansion
Reference: Master Dentistry- Oral and Maxiliotacial. Surgery. Radilolgy. Pathology and Oral Medi
cine. p 149
32. Few days after endodontic treatment, patient is complaining of pair, with percussion. What
do you suspect?
a. A pical periodontitis o. S e co n d a n apica periodontitis
c. O ve r instrumentation c O ve- m edication
P a p e r 17
33. Crown and root perforation can be best treated by which o f the following?
a. GIC b. MTA
c. Refilling d. None
34. Vertical angulation for a bitewing radiograph is:
a 5 degree downwards b. 5 degree upwards
c. 10 degree downwards d. 10 degree upwards
35. Removing of dentine in dangerous zone to cementium is:
a. Perforation b. Ledge
c. Stripping d. Zipping
36. Which palatal form is more retentive and offers better stability to complete denture:
a. V shaped b. Wide palate
c. U shaped d. Flat palate
37. In an inferior alveolar nerve block given to a child, the position of the needle as compared to
that in an adult is more:
a. Superior b. Inferior
c. Buccal d. Lingual
Reference: Shoba Tandon Textbook of Pedodontics, 2nd ed, p 532
38. Which intracanal medicament causes protein coagulation?
a. NaOCI b. Ca(OH)2
c. Formocresol d. All the above
39. To prevent gingival injury place the margin of the pontic:
a. At the level of gingival crest b. Above gingival crest
c. Apical to gingival crest 1 mm d. Apical to gingival crest 0.5 mm
Reference : Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p 458-466
40. Arrange the steps of cleft palate management:
1. Measures to adjust speech 2. Establish way for nursing and feeding
3. Cosmetic closure 4. Prevent collapse of two halves
a. 2-4-1-3 b. 3-2-4-1
c. 4-2-1-3 d. 1-2-3-4
41. Person who is unable to differentiate the colors, and can tell his name, or address. He is
acting like:
a. 3 years old b. 5 years old
c. 8 years old d. 10 years old
Ans: 33.b, 34.c, 35.c, 36.b. 37.b, 38.c, 39.b, 40.a, 41 .b

D ento-G ul? - - o r O u t: C ountries ijr.-e n s im E xa m in a tio n s
S e c t io n tl: M o d e l Q u e s t io n P a p e rs
41 Corticosteroids are useful in the treatment of TMJ arthritis because they have:
a. An analgesic effect b. An anti inflammatory effect
c. Inhibitory effect on synovial membranes d. Analgesic and anti inflammatory effect
43. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded patient:
a. Neutral sodium fluoride b. Stannous fluoride
c. Acidulated fluoride d. Calcium fluoride
44. A 8 year old patient had trauma to 11. He was presented to you after 30 minute of injury. He
had crown fracture with incipient pulp exposure. What do you do?
a. Direct pulp capping b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulpctomy d. Observe
Direct pulp capping can be done up to 24 hours
45. The role of good sterilization:
a Washing, drying, inspection, bagging, autoclave, storage.
b. Inspection, autoclave, drying, storage.
c. Autoclave, drying, storage.
d. Autoclave is enough.
46. The predominant cell type in gingival (crevicular) fluid is the:
a. Mast cell b. Plasma cell
c. Macrophage d. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
47. In a curved root you bend a file by:
a. Putting gauze on the file & bending it by hand b. Bending the file by pliers
c. By bare figure d. By twister
48. Modification spaces are:
a. Spaces other than the original class b. Spaces posterior to all tooth
c. Spaces anterior to all tooth d. Additional space in class IV
49. Tongue is developed from:
a. Mandibular arch & tuburclum impar b. Second branchial arch
50. Treacher Collins syndrome has this characteristic feature:
a. No ear loss b. Upward of eye
c. Prognthesia of mandible d. Malar bone not well formed or absence
Ans: 42.b, 43.a, 44.a, 45.a, 46.d, 47.a, 48.a, 49.a, 50.d
D e n to -G u lf - F or G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 17
51. On a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades indicates:

a. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surface.
b. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surface.
c. More efficient cutting and a smoother surface.
d. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface
52. At which temperature gutta percha reaches alpha phase:
a. 42-49° C b. 50-60° C
c. 70-80°C d. 100°C
53. Fluoride amount in water should be:
a. 0.2-0.5 mg/liter b. 1-5 mg/liter
c. 0.7 -1.2 mg/liter d. 0.2 mg/liter
54. Majority of oral micro organisms are:
a. Strict anaerobes b. Gram positive bacilli
c. Spirochetes d. Facultative anaerobes
55. Dentinal Hypersensitivity is due to:
a. Fractured root
b. Exposed roots
c. Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules
d. Caries
56. After finish class V glass ionomer cement, we do finishing with:
a. Pumis slurry b. Aluminum-oxide paste
c. Polishing bur d. All the above
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art & Science of Operative Dentistry
57. Stained margin in old composite restoration is due to:
a. Secondary caries b. Hydraulic destruction on bond
c. Polymerization shrinkage d. Fracture of composite
58. Tubular maximum for kidney in practice is actually less than the calculated value because:
a. Different nephrons have different lengths
b. Depend on GFR
c. Depends on renal blood flow
d. Depends on blood pressure
Ans: 51.a, 52.a, 53.c, 54.d, 55.c, 56.b, 57.c, 58.a

D e n to -G u lf F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g tx a m in a tio n s
1
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 1 8
1. In Ellis classification of injured teeth, a class IV represents:

a. Non vital tooth b. Avulsed tooth
c. Fracture involving only the enamel d. Fracture of crown en mass
Alveolar osteitis occur in extraction site after:
a. 1 day b. 2 days
c. 1 week d. 1 month
3. Sterptococcus mutans cause caries and this disease is:
a. Epidemic b. Endemic
c. Isolated d. All the above
4. Best Root Canal Material for primary central incisor:
a. Idoform b. Guttapercha
c. Formacresol d. Calcium hyroxide
5. Jug Handle radiograph is ideal to view:
a. Zygonia b. Zygomatic arch
c. Condyles of mandible d. Nasal bones
6. Accidentally etched enamel surface of adjacent tooth will be remineralized in:
a. Never occur b. After hours
c. After weeks d. After months
7. Most used scalpel in oral surgery:
a. Bard Parker blade #15 b. Bard Parker blade #20
c. Bard Parker blade #12 d. Bard Parker blade #16
8. Why do we use acrylic more than complete metal palate in complete denture:
a Can’t do relining for the metal b. Stronger than metal
c. Causes no irritation d. All the above
9. Jasper jumper is a:
a. Flexible fixed functional appliance b. Rigid fixed functional appliance
c. Fixed functional appliance d. None of the above
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science, 3ed ed. p 361
Ans: 1.a. 2.b, 3.a, 4.c, 5.b, 6.b. 7,a. 8.a. 9.a
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10. Relining of denture:

a. Remove all or part of fitting surface of the denture and add acrylic
b. Add acrylic to the base of the denture to increase vertical dimension
c. a+b
A relining involves the addition of a material to the fitting surface of a denture base.
11. Which of the following is rebasing?
a. Change all the fitting surface
b. Addition or change in the fitting suiface
c. Increasing the vertical dimension
d. Rebasing is replacement of most or all of the denture base
A rebase involves the removal and replacement of virtually all the denture base, namely the fitting and
polished surface of the denture.
12. Gutta percha can be effectively sterilized by:
a. Hot salt sterilizer b. Autoclaving
c. Chemical solutions d. Dry heat
Reference: Grossman’s Endodontic Practice, 11th ed, p 140
13. Oral cavity with the presence of only 2 canines. According to Kennedy classification it is
called?
a. Class I modification b. Class II modification
c. Class III modification d. Class I modification I
14. Pontics are classified according to their surface toward the gingiva, and the ridge of the
missing tooth:
a. Both statmentsare true b. Both are false,
c. 2nd is false 1stis true d. 1st false, 2nd true
15. Bone graft material from another species is called:
a. Allograft b. Autograft
c. Xenograft d. Heterograft
Hetero graft is a bone graft from different species.
16. Which of the following will transfer occlusal stress under amalgam?
a. With thin base layer b. Sound dentin
c. With thick base layer d. None of the above
Ans: 10.b, 11.a, 12.c, 13.a, 14.c, 15.d, 16.c

S e c iio r. Ir Wiooe C iuestiori Papen.
17. The local drug delivery system Atrodox' contains:

a. Metronidazole b. Penicillin
c. Minocycline d. Doxycycline
Reference: Carranza s Clinical Periodontology. 10th ed, p 808
IS. Alkaptonuria is due to the defective amino acid metabolism of:
a. Tyrosine b. Arginine
c. Leucine d. Isoleucine
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, p 255
19. Acidulated phosphate fluoride:
a 1% fluoride ions b. 1.23%
c. 2% d. 2.23%
e. 3%
20. A child patient came to your clinic with vesicle on its hard palate and also having the history
of malaise for 3 days. What is the reason?
a. Erythema multiforme b. AIMUG
c. H. simplex d. Apthous ulcer
21. A 5 years old patient had extraction of the lower primary molar. He had fracture of the apex of
the tooth. What is the best treatment:
a Aggressive remove b. Visualization & remove
c. Visualization & leave d. To prevent injury to tooth bud
22. A ll of the following are true about resistance form, EXCEPT:
a Flat pulpal floor
b. Rounded internal line angle
c. Inclusions of weak tooth within restoration
d. Extension upto 1 mm in dentin
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry. 5th ed. p 306
23. A 7 year old boy came to the clinic with the right maxillary central incisor with large pulp
exposure. What will you do?
a. Pulpectomy with Ca(OH)., b. Pulptomy with Ca(OH)2
c. Direct pulp capping d. Leave it
e. Partial pulpotomy
24. Which of the following are properties of wax?
a. Expansion b. Contraction
c. Vaporization d. None of the above
A ns: *7.d. IE.a. 19.t 20.c 21.c 22.d. 23.b. 2Ad

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25. An old patient came to replace all old amalgam filling, he had severe occlusal attriation. The
best replacement is:
a. Composite b. Amalgam
c. Cast metal restoration d. Full crowns
26. ‘Lost salt technique' is used to fabricate:
a. Maryland bridge b. Rochette bridge
c. Cantilever bridge d. Virginia bridges
Reference: Deepak IMallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed, p 619
27. A teenager boy with occlusal wear, the best treatment is:
a. Remove the occlusal b. Teeth capping
c. Restoration d. Full crown
28. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except:
a Henoch Schonlein purpura b. TTP
c. DIC d. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
Reference: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th ed
29. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is most commonly found in:
a. Anterior mandible b. Posterior maxilla
c. Anterior maxilla d. Ramus of mandible
30. Avulsed tooth should be:
a. Splint (7-14) days b. Splint (15- 25) days
c. Splint for 30 days d. Splint for 60 days
If closed apex and stored in suitable medium such as Hank’s solution, then 7-10 days.
31. Proxy brush with which type of furcation:
a. Furcation Grade 1 b. Furcation Grade 2
c. Furcation Grade 3 d. Furcation Grade 4
32. Which of the following instruments is used for making grooves in the wax?
a. Spoon excavator b. Carver
c. Spatula d. Wax knife
33. In order to produce tooth movement, the duration threshold (minimum time) for the wear of
removable orthodontic appliance is:
a. 1-2 hrs per day b. 2-4 hrs per day
c. 4-6 hrs per day d. 7-8 hrs per day
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, p 305
Ans: 25.d, 26.d, 27.b, 28.d, 29.c. 30.a. 31 .c. 32.b 33.c
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34. Treatment of choice in hairy cell leukemia is:

a. Steroid b. Cladribine
c Splenectomy d. Pentostatin
Reference: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine. 16th ed. p 589
35. The color of normal gingiva in interplay between
a. Keratin b. Blood vessels
c. Melanin d. Epithelial thickness
e. All the above
36. Generalised lymphadenopathy is seen in:
a. Infection b. Lymphocytic leukemia
c. HIV d. Perncious anemia
1. a+b 2. a+b+c.
3. Only d 4. b+d
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology, 7th ed, p 256
Leukemia + Infections present, HIV not present.
37. While excavating soft dentin, you have exposed the pulp. Treatment is?
a. Direct pulpcapping b. R C T
c. Pulpotomy d. Other
38. Adding of surfactant to irrigation solution during RCT to increase wet ability of canal walls is
by:
a. Lowering surface tension b. Increasing surface tension
c. Passing through dentinal tubules. d. None of the above
39. Patient has bad oral hygine and missing the right and left lateral insicor. What is the treat
ment?
a. Implant b. R P D
c . Conventional FPD d. Maryland bridge
Indication for Maryland bridge:
• Small occlusal forces
• Intermediate restoration
• Missing lateral incisors
• Virgin’ abutment teeth
• Favorable occlusal scheme (deep overbite unfavourable, Class 111 occlusion favourable)
• Splinting teeth
40. Bonding agent for enamel we use:
a. Unfilled resin b. Primer & adhesive bonding agent
c. Resin dissolve in acetone or alcohol d. Primer with resin modified glass ionomer
Ans:34,b. 35.e 36.1. 37.a, 38.a. 39,d, 40.a

Dentc-Cvl? - Par Cut: C-ovnirier Licensing Examinations
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41. High copper amalgam restoration refilling can be done only in:
a. Open margin less than 0.5 mm b. Proximal marginal defect
42. For removal of a root tip from the maxillary antrum, one should block the:
a. Infraorbital nerve b. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
c. Posterior superior alveolar nerve d. Second division of trigeminal nerve
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, Dec-1979
43. Cast with positive bubble is because of:
a Air trapped in mixing stone b. Voids in impression when taken by the dentist
c. Using warm water when mixing stone d. Plaster is too thick when pouring
e. All the above
44. Non absorbable suture:
a. Catgut b. Vicryl
c. Silk d. None of the above
45. Most important criteria for full ceramic FPD:
a. Highcompressive strength b. High tensile strength
Reference: Restorative Dental Materials, 2002, p 5
Because ceramics are stronger in compression than in tension, this property is used to advantage to
provide increased resistance to shattering.
46. Balance occlusion should be utilized in natural dentition and all or some of the teeth may
contact in both sides regardless where mandible moves:
a. 1st true & 2nd false. b. 1st false & 2nd true
c. Both false d. Both true
47. Balance occlusion in complete denture helps in:
a. Retention b. Esthetic
c. Stability d. Phonetics
48. Reciprocal arm in RPD help to resist the force applied by which parts:
a Retentive arm b. Guide plane
c. Occusal rest d. Major connector
49. Patient comes with pain tooth, when drinking hot tea. Pain is continuous for 10 minutes.
Diagnosis is:
c. Dentinal hypersensitivity d. Periodontitis
Ans: 41 .b, 42.d, 43.e, 44.c, 45.a, 46.d, 47.c, 48.a, 49.a
Section I!: Model Question Papers
50. Thickness of amalgam restoration in cusp tip area is:

a 0.5 mm b. 1-1.5 mm
c. 1.5-2 mm d. 2-3 mm
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, (2007-08) p 2170
51. Pulp with age:
a. Reduce collagen fiber b. Increase volume
c. Increase cellular in pulp d. Decrease pulp chamber size
Specific changes occur in dental pulp with age. Cell death results in a decreased number of cells.
The surviving fibroblasts respond by producing more fibrous matrix (increased type I over type II
collagen) but less ground substance that contains less water. So with age the pulp becomes less
cellular (b) more fibrous overall reduction in volume due to the continued deposition of dentin (sec-
ondary/reactive).
52. Over extended GP should be removed using;
a Ultrasonic vibrating b. Dissolving agent
c. Rotary or round bur d. Surgery
e. All the above
53. When the posterior teeth are infected which lymph nodes become infected?
a. Submandibular b. Submaxillary
c. Submental d. Sublingual
54. Which of the following organisams are killed during the process of sterilization?
a. Bacteria and virus b. Bacteria, virus, fungus and protozoa
c. Bacteria and fungus d. Bacteria only
55. Which pontic has a concave fitting surface?
a. Ridge - lap b. Hygienic
c. Saddle d. Bullet-shaped
Reference: Rosenstiel's Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed, p 627
56. Material which is used for f¡asking complete denture:
a. Plaster b. Stone refractory
57. Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following, EXCEPT:
a. Radiolucent in radiograph
b. Not irritate the surrounding tissue
c. Easily removable when retreatment is necessary
d. Stable and less dimensional change after insertion
Ans: 50.c, 51.d, 52.e, 53.b, 54.b, 55.c, 56.c, 57.a

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58. A patient came to your clinic with dull pain in the #6, no response to the pulp tester. In radio
graphs it shows 3 mm of radiolucency at the apex of the root. Diagnosis is:
a Chronic apical periodontitis b. Acute apical periodontitis
c. Acute periodontitis with abscess d. Pulipitis
59. The best method for core build up is:
a Amalgam b. Reinforced glass ionomer
c. Composite d. Cast metal
Shillingburg's Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics-page 185
http://dfd.atauni.edu.tr/UploadsCild/files/2007-1/2007 1 4%20.pdf
Light-cure composite resin (President) and amalgam (Cavex avalloy) were statistically different than
the other materials tested They are stronger than compomer followed by resin modified glass ionomer
and conventional glass ionomer core materials.
60. Most comon site which drain pus is:
a Mandibular central incisors b. Mandibular canines
c. Mandibular first molar d. Maxillary canine
Mandibular first molar is most common site with vestibular space infection or abscess and thinnest
overlying buccal bone.
61. The nasopalatine bone forms a triangle, will be parallel to imaginary lines extended between
cemento-enamel junctions of adjacent teeth:
a. True b. False
62. Undercut at the point of origin of a clasp can be approached by:
a. Embrasure clasp b. Back action clasp
c. Hair pin clasp d. Half and half clasp
63. Treatment of cervical caries in old patients with a temporary restoration is best done by:
a. Glass ionomer b. Composite restoration
c. Amalgam d. All the above
64. Follow up of RCT after 3 years, RC failed best treatment is to:
a. Extraction ofthe tooth b. Redo the RCT
c. Apicectomy d. All the above
65. Needle aspiration of a central bone lesion is used to:
a. Feel for root surfaces
b. Rule out a vascular lesion
c. Determine the thickness of the buccal cortical plate
d. All of the above
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, July-1981
A n s:58.a, 59.a, 60.c, 61 .a, 62.c, 63.a, 64.b, 65.b

Section It Mcme: Question Papers.
66. Difference between action of DEC and ivermectin in a case of scrotal filariasis is.
a. D EC acts more effectively on microfilaria than ivermectin
b. DEC acts only on microfilaria and ivermectin acts only on adults
c. DEC acts on both microfilaria and adults while ivermectin acts only on adults
d. D EC acts on adults and ivermectin acts only on microfilaria
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 5th ed, p 763
67. An abscess is a pathological cavity filled with pus and lined by:
a. A pyogenic membrane b. Epithelium
Reference: Master Dentistry- Oral and Maxillofacial, Surgery, Radilolgy, Pathology and Oral Medicine
68. Mandibular fracture — other complications:
a. Nasal bleeding
b. Exophthalmos
c. Numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution
69. Hypercementosis and ankylosis is seen in:
a. Monocytic fibrous dysplasia b. Hyperparathyrodism
c. Down syndrome d. None of the above
70. A dentist performing services for children should expect some youngsters to get frightened
of dental procedures. The best way to help the patient to overcome his fear is to:
a Ignore the fear b. Identify the fear
c. Shift the patient’s attention d. Ridicule the child for being frightened
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, Apr-1985
Ans: 66.d, 67.c. 68.d, 69.d, 70.b

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MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 1 9
1. Picture of the tooth shows divergence of the mesial and distal:

a. Not correct, itshould be convergence b. Equal to1.6mm
c. More than 1.6mm d. Less than 1.6 mm
2. Thickness of amalgam in complex amalgam restoration in cusp tip area is:
a 0.5 mm b. 1-1.5 mm
c. 1.5-2 mm d. 2-3 mm
Working cusp reduction for amalgam 2.5-3 mm.
3. The part of a removable partial denture is:
a Rests b. Crown
c. Labial bow d. All
4. For resin composite restoration in a second maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be used:
a. Tofflemire matrix b. Mylar matrix
c. Gold matrix d. Celluloid strips
Types of matrices
Metal— Firm, used for amalgam restorations.
Mylar— Easily mouldable and can light-cure through; used for resin composite.
Plastic— Rigid, can light-cure through; used in Class V cavities.
Difficult cases— In deep subgingival cavities use of special matrices such as tofflemire or automatrix
or copper bands often achieve better contact points and marginal adaptation. Occasionally electro
surgery required to permit matrix adaptation.
5. Of the following characteristics, which is unlikely to be associated with the process of facili
tated diffusion of drugs?
a. The transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug concentrations.
b. The process is selective for certain ionic or structural configurations of the drug.
c. If two compounds are transported by the same mechanism, one will competitively inhibit the
transport of the other.
d. The drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient and the process requires cel
lular energy.
Ans: 1.c, 2.d, 3.a, 4.b, 5.d

D e n to -G u lf - - o r G u lf C o u n trie s L m s n s in o E xa m in a tio n s
Section It. Modei Question Papers
6. Absorbable suture:
a. Nylan b. Vicryl
c. Silk d. None of the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry. 4th ed., p 392
Dental Decks. 2nd ed., p 1774
7. A ll are the symptoms of chronic pericoronitis, EXCEPT?
a. Grossly decayed tooth b. Difficult mouth opening
c. Pain d. Halitosis
8. Best core material receiving a crown on molar:
a. Amalgam b. Reinforced glass ionomer.
c. Composite d. Compomer
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p 288-289
9. All are decreased in infiltrative lung disease, EXCEPT:
a. Vital capacity b. Alveolar arterial difference in P a 0 2
c. Total lung capacity d. Lung compliance
10. When removing moist carious dentin which exposes the pulp, dentist should:
a. D P C b. SDPC
c. R C T d. Extraction
Reference: “Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, p 167"
"Dental Pulp, 2002, p 335"
11. Junction between 2 neurons are called:
a. Synapse b. Nerve ending
c. Axon d. Dentrite
12. The retainer of rubber dam:
a. Four points of contact two buccaily and two lingually without rocking.
b. Four points of contact two buccaily and two lingually above the height of contour
c. Four points of contact two mesially and two distally
d. Zero points
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed., p 2220
Elastomeric cord for retaining a dental dam, cord dispenser and related combinations and methods
- Patent 5104317.
Dental dam retainer clamp is that the four prongs must contact the tooth, if they do not, the clamp
may need to be ground. A properly selected retainer should contact the tooth in four areas-two on the
facial surface and two on the lingual surface. This four- point contact prevents rocking or tilting of the
retainer.
13. Dentin contains which type of collagen fibers?
a. Type l b. Type II
c. Type III d. Type IV
Ans: 6.b, 7.a, 8,a, 9.a. 10.c, 11.a, 12.a, 13,a
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14. Forceps to hold flap when suturing:
a. Adson’s forceps b. Russian forceps
c. Allis forceps d. Stills forceps
Reference: Textbook of Oral Surgery, p 46
Surgical forceps is used for suturing the wound, firmly grasping the tissues while the needle is passed.
There are two types of forceps: the long standard surgical forceps, used in posterior areas, and the
small, narrow Adsonforceps.used in anterior areas.
15. Causes of ITP is:
a. Vasculitis b. Antibody to vascular epithelium
c. Antibody to platelets d. Antibody to clotting factors
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology’s, 7th ed, p 651
16. After usage of sharp scalpels, needles, what’s the best management:
a. Throw in a special container of sharp instrument
b. Sterilize and reuse
c. Through in ordinary plastic waste basket
17. Maxilla during growth:
a. Increase in height by continous growth of alveolar bone
b. Increase in width by mid palatine suture
c. Increase in depth occurs by apposition at anterior surface and tuberosity
d. All the above
18. Sharping of hand instrument in mounted air driven is better than unmounted, due to:
a. Fine grains b. Sterilization
c. Ability to curve instrument d. All the above
Reference: Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials: Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd ed
The mounted-stone technique.
This technique is especially useful in sharpening instruments with curved or irregularly shaped nibs.
Equipment consists of mandrel-mounted stones, a straight handpiece, lubricant, two-inch by two-
inch gauge, and again, the instrument to be sharpened. Mounted stones are made of two materials,
Arkansas stones and ruby stones (sometimes called sandstones). Ruby stones are primarily com
posed of aluminum oxide. The ruby stone is comparatively coarse, has a rapid cutting ability, and is
used for sharpening instruments that are dull. Mounted stones are cylindrical in shape and appear in
several sizes. They have a fine grit and are used with the straight handpiece. The stones permit rapid
sharpening, but without extreme care, will remove too much metal and may overheat the instrument.
Overheating the instrument will destroy the temper, thereby causing the instrument to no longer hold
a sharp edge.
Ans: 14.a, 15.c, 16.a, 17.d, 18.a

D ento-G uF - F or G u lf Countries- L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
19. About CSF. which of the following is true

a. Contain glucose b. Total quantity is 150 ml
c. Contain chloride d. a+b
e. a+b+c
20. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of:
a. Weakly basic drugs b. Weakly acidic drugs
c. Strong electrolytes d. Non polar drugs
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 13,26
21. A patient came to the clinic complaining of pain related to swelling on maxillary central inci
sor area with vital to under percussion. What is the cause?
a. Periapical cyst b. Nasopalatine cyst
c. Globulomaxillary cyst d. Aneurysmalbone cyst
22. The percentage of simple caries located in the outer wall of the dentin which is left without
cavitations is around:
a. 20% b. 50%
c. 60% d. 65%
Reference: Art & Science of Restorative Dentistry, p 102
Approximately 60% of teeth with radiographic proximal lesions in the outer half of dentin are likely to
be noncavitated.
23. Paranasal sinus are except:
a Frontal b. Maxillary
c. Ethmoidal d. Sphenoidal
24. A patient came with pain in his tooth. When you start RCT in that tooth, there is infection and
draining from the root canal. Which of the following materials you will use for irrigation?
a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine potassium
c. Sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium.
d. Saline
Reference: “Pocket Atlas of Endodontics, p 154”
25. Sensory supply of soft palate is:
a Lesser palatine nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. PSA nerve d. a+b
26. Trigeminal neuralgia treated by carbomizapine, the max. dose per day divided in doses is:
a. 200 mg b. 500 mg
c. 1000 mg d. 1200 mg
Ans: 19.e. 20.b. 21 ,b. 22.c, 23.e. 24.c, 25.d. 26.d

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Paper 19
Reference: carbamazepine dosage, drugs.com

Usual adult dose for trigeminal neuralgia
Initial dose: 100 mg orally, twice a day (immediate or extended release) or 50 mg orally, 4 times a day
(suspension).
May increase by up to 200 mg/day using increments of 100 mg every 12 hours (immediate or ex
tended release), or 50 mg four times a day. (suspension), only as needed to achieve freedom from
pain. Do not exceed 1200 mg/ day.
Maintenance dose: 400 to 800 mg/day.
Some patients may be maintained on as little as 200 mg/day while others may require as much as
1200 mg/day. At least once every 3 months throughout the treatment period, attempts should be
made to reduce the dose to the minimum effective level or to discontinue the drug
27. The organism that is not found in mouth newborn of:
a. Streptococcus mutants b. Streptococcus salivaris
c. E.coli d. Skin bacteria
Reference: Http://jdr.sagepub.com/content/49/2/415.full.pdf
28. For a newly erupted tooth, the most common bacteria found around the tooth is:
a Streptococcus mutans. b. Streptococcus salivaris
c. E.coli d. Skin bacteria
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed ., p 774
29. What is the use of microscope?
a. To see metaobolic cell b. To see live cells
c. To see dead cells d. All the above
30. In primary tooth for restoration before placing the filling you place:
a. Base b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Varnish d. All the above
31. White lesion bilaterally on cheek, but it appear in other members in the family. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Leukoplakia b. Candidiasis
c. White sponge nevus d. Frictional keratosis
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed., p 1336
“Burket- Oral Medicine”
32. During final inlay cementation which of the following you will do?
a. Polishing b. Remove occlusal interferences
c. Lowering occlusal surface d. Burnishing of peripheries of restoration
Reference: “Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry, 8th ed, Oxford, p 186"
It is easier to remove excess cement before it finally sets. Once the cement is hard the rubber dam
is removed and the occlusion checked with articulating paper and adjusted with fine diamond burs.
Ans: 27.a, 28.a, 29.b, 30.c, 31 .c, 32.d

D e n tc -G u l' - Bo y Guf-- C o u n v ie - _ ¡certaine Exam inations-
Section ll; Modei Question Papers
33. A patient with renal dialysis, the best time of dental tx is:
a. 1 day before dialysis b. 1 day after dialysis,
c. 1 week after dialysis d. 1 week before dialysis
Reference: Dental Secrets. Stephen T. Sonis p 54
Patients typically receive dialysis 3 times/week. Dental treatment for a patient on dialysis should be
done on the day between dialysis appointments to avoid bleeding difficulties.
34. What is the best view to diagnose condylar fracture:
a. Occiptomenatal b. Reverse towne
c. Lateral oblique 30 degree d. O PG
Reverse Towne for fracture of condylar neck and ramus areas
Reverse Townes position, beam 30° up to horizontal. Used for condyles.
35. In periodontal surgery the electro surgery rate is:
a. 1.5-7.5 million cycle per seconds b. 7.5-10 million cycle per seconds
c. 10-25 million cycle per seconds d. 30 million cycle per seconds
Reference: Caranza Periodontology, p 582
36. What do we use as temporary filling material in anterior teeth when aesthetic is important?
a. Composite b. Glass ionomer cement
c. Zinc oxide eugenol d. Calcium hydroxide
37. The maximum dose of X-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique:
a. 100 milli roentgens per week b. 10 roentgens per week
c. 100 roentgens per week d. 300 roentgens per week
Person who works near radiation can be exposed in one year to a maximum dose of 5 Rem (0.1 Rem
per week).
38. Smear layer composed of:
a Dentine debris b. Inorganic particles
c. Bacteria d. All the above
The smear layer is a film of microcrystalline debris that remains on dentin after it is cut with rotary
instruments.
After removing the organic and inorganic debris of the smear layer by etching.
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry. 2000
The composition of the smear layer is basically hydroxyapatite and altered denatured collagen.
The smear layer consists of an amorphous layer of organic and inorganic debris, produced by cutting
dentine.
Ans: 33.b, 34.b, 35.a. 36.b, 37.a, 38.a
Dentp-Gu!1 - F o ‘ G u t' i.'oan M et ^ i-e n s m c z z e m in s lio n t
Paper 19
39. Potassium nitrate, strontium chloride all are dentin desensitizing agents that work by:
a Neural blocking b. Tubular occlusion
c. Tubular necrosis d. Both a + b
40. According to the Kennedy’s classification, unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth re
maining both anterior and posterior is:
a Class one b. Class two
41. Brain infarct is not seen in:
a. TB b. Cryptococcus
c. Aspergillosis d. Toxoplasmosis
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology’s, 7th ed, p 1371
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
43. The following canals may be found in an upper molar:
a. Mesio-buccal b. Disto-buccal
c. Mesio-palatal d. Palatal
e. All the above
44. A patient needs fixed bridge. After you select the shade in his mouth, during FPD cementa
tion you found the color of bridge has changed to cloudy milky. What is the cause?
a. Excessive fired b. Reduced fired
c. Excessive moisture d. Increased porosity
When porcelain is fired too many times it may be devitrified. This appears as a milky state and make
glazing very difficult.
45. Which of the following factors interfere very much with wound healing:
a. Suture b. Diet
c. Infection d. All the above
Healing occurs more rapidly with a lower risk of infection.
46. The primary role of the anterior teeth on a denture is:
a. Esthetics b. Phonetics
c. Stability d. All the above
Ans: 39.a, 40.c, 41 .b, 42.b, 43.e, 44.a, 45,c, 46.a

D ento-G ulf - For G ulf Countries: Lioensinc- Bxs-.ninationr
Section II; Model C iu e s tiD r. Papers
47. When resection of the tip of root in apecosectomy the cut should be:
a. Perpendicular to the long axis of tooth b. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
c. Acute angle d. Obtuse angle
48. inter incisal angle in primary teeth is:
49. Which of the following is/ are used for ridge augmentation?
a. Tantalum gauge filled with bone chips b. Hydroxyl apatite
c. Acrylic implants d. All of the above
Reference: IMeelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed, p 395
50. When we should treat proximal caries?
a. Confined within enamel b. Dentine lateraly
c. Pass DE junction d. All of the above
51. What are all the features of nicotine stomatitis?
a. Appears in the hard palate b. It is a white lesion
c. It is premalignant lesion d. All the above
Nicotine stomatitis:
An oral pathological condition that appears in the hard palate of the mouth as a white lesion. It is not
considered to be premalignant and results from tobacco smoking (especially pipes or cigars, found
in men over 45 years of age. It is characterized as a “fissured” or “dried mud” appearance from
excess keratin production by cells. The palate may appear gray or white and contain many papules
that are slightly elevated with red in their center. Furthermore, the teeth may be stained brown or
black.
52. Coronal cementum contains which of the following?
a. Acellular intrinsic fiber b. Acellular extrinsic fiber
c. Cellular mixed fibers d. Intermediate cementum
53. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I is associated with:
a. CD-15 b. CD-18
c. Cathepsin C d. Catalase enzyme
Reference: Glickman. 10th ed. p 197
54. A ll relate to retention of maxillary complete denture, except:
a. Tongue movement b. Type of saliva
c. Balanced occlusion d. Posterior palatal seal
Ans: 47.c, 48.b. 49.d. 50.c. 51.d, 52.a. 53.b, 54.a

jF - G u l‘ C o un tries ^ tc e n s n c E xa m in a tio n e
Paper 20
12. Parotid duct opens opposite in 2nd Mandibular molars:

a. True b. False
13. The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:
a. Fibroma b. Papilloma
c. Lipoma d. None of the above
Fibroma: Reactive, the most common tumor seen in oral cavity.
14. PMN cells predominant in which of the following conditions?
a. Acute inflammation b. Chronic inflammation
c. Allery condition d. All the above
15. The bony enlargement of the maxillary tuberosity usually occurs in :
a. Upward direction b. Anterior direction
c. Mesial direction d. Downward and lateral direction
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed, p 387
16. What is the diagnosis of tooth with chronic pulpitis and radiopacity at the apex of a tooth?
c. Pulpolyp d. Perapical granuloma
17. Extra canal in mandibular incisor will be present usually in:
a. Distal b. Lingual
c. Mesial d. Buccal
Reference: “Endodontics Problem Solving in Clinical Practice, 2002”
18. The access opening in lower incisor:
a. Round b. Oval
c. Triangular d. Square
19. If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into maxillary sinus:
a. Leave it andinform the patient b. Remove it as soon as possible
c. Follow the patient for 3 months d. None ofthe above
20. A child came to the clinic with amalgam restoration fracture at isthmus portion. TNs fracture
due to:
a. Wide preparation at isthmus b. High occlusal
c. Sshallow preparation d. Constricted isthmus
A n s:, 12.b, 13.a, 14.a, 15.d, 16.a, 17.b, 18.b, 19.b,20.a

D e n to -G u t 1 - Fo: G u lf C ountries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Section IS: Model Questior Papers
21. Dental caries:

a Is a transmissible disease
b. Is world wide in distribution but uneven in intensity
c. Can be prevented
d. All of the above
Dental caries is a transmissible and multi-factorial disease.
"It suggests an impact on populations of entire countries, continents, or much of the world. The term
therefore impiies two elements: global distribution and severe consequence. Dental caries is a dis
ease that usually can be successfully prevented or controlled.
22. The 1st cervical vertebrae is:
a. Atlas b. Axis
c. Prominens d. Longus colli
23. Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary molar is:
a. Replace and suture b. Remove and suture with primary heal
c. Replace andsuture intra alveolar by wire d. Remove and leave toheal
If the tuberosity is fractured but intact, it should be manually repositioned and stabilized by sutures.
24. Microbial virulent produced by root bacteria is collagenase from spirochete:
a. True b. False
25. Bacteria in endodontic pathosis mostly is:
a. Porphyromonas endodontalis obligate anarobe
b. Streptococcus mutans
c. Streptococcus anaerobius
d. All the above
26. Masseter muscle extends from lower of border zygomatic arch to lateral border of ramus and
angel mandible.
a True b. False
27. Mandible formed before frontal bone:
a. True b. False
28. Maxilla is formed:
a. Before mandible b. Same with mandible
c. Slightly after mandible d. None of the above
Ans: 21 .d. 22.a, 23.a, 24.a, 25.a, 26.a, 27.b, 28.c

r-en-.c-úui.- - P o ' S u l'' C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
P a p e r 20
29. What mixture of different size particles allows advantages of higher filler levels and good
finishing?
a. Micro filled resin based composites b. Foldable resin based composites
c. Packable resin based composites d. Hybrid resin based composites
30. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with:
a. Erythema multiforme b. Pemphigoid
c. Psoriasis d. Impetigo
31. The steady state ratio of NADP+/ NADP in the cytosol of hepatocytes is:
a 0.1 b. 0.5
c. 1.6 d. 2.2
32. Steven Johnson syndrome involves:
a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
33. The patient is unable to raise his eyebrows, hold eyelids closed, symmetrically smile or evert
his lower lip. This may indicate:
a. Trigeminal nerve problem b. Facial nerve problem
c. Oculomotor nerve problem d. Trochlear nerve problem
e. All of the above
34. During artificial teeth selection which of the following should be followed?
a. Post extraction cord b. Pre extraction cord
35. In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession:
a. Make the tooth form good at gingival one third
b. Make the tooth form good at gingival one fifth
c. Make the tooth form good at gingival one half
36. The best finishing of class IV composite resin restoration can be done by which of the follow
ing?
a. Mounted stone b. Coarse diamond point
c. 12-fluted carbide bur d. No. 330 tungsten carbide bur
Ans: 29.d, 30.c, 31 .a, 32.c, 33.b, 34.b, 35.a, 36.c

Reference: http://www.apad.ee/e-iournal/issue2007/daniei.pdf
37. The most common reason for angina is
a Stress b. Renal disease
c. Hypoglycemia d. None of the above
38. The normal response of a vital pulp to the thermal testing is:
a. No response
b. Lingering painful response
c. Hypersensitive painful response
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed
39. First organ to be formed during development of face is:
a Nose b. Eye
c. Ear d. Mandible
Reference: Bishara’s Textbook of Orthodontics, p 17
40. Recurrent ulcers occurring on gingiva and palate are most probably:
a Aphthous ulcers b. Herpes simplex
c. Koplik spots d. Lesions of Bechet's syndrome
41. Asymptomatic tooth has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and circumscribed radiolu-
cency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis:
a Acute apical pulpitis b. Chronic apical pulpitis
c. Acute apical periodontitis d. Chronic apical periodontitis
42. A dental arch with all molars and incisors missing would be classified as Kennedy:
a. Class II modification 6 b. Class IV modification 1
c. Class I modification 1 d. Class IV modification 2
Reference : McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics, p 21
43. Reduction of mandibular fracture is defined as:
a. Nonalignment and separation of the fracture segment
b. Realignment of fracture segments
c. Holding of the fracture segments in place
d. Screw and bone places
e. Internal fixation
44. In a patient having dense bones, penetration is best achieved:
a. Exposure time should be reduced b. Exposure time should be increased
c. Voltage should be increased d. Miliamperage increased
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, 5th ed. p 13,14
Ans: 3 7.d, 38.d, 39.d, 40.b. 41 .d, 42.c, 43.c, 44.a
frsntc-C-iUf - F û ‘ Out; Count.-ief .ic e n s in c e x a m in a tio n s

P a p e r 20
45. The incidence of nerve damage after third molar surgery is estimated to be:
a. 5% or less b. 10% to 15%
c. 15% to 20% d. 20% to 25%
46. The least likely mechanism for the nerve damage is:
a. Direct needle trauma b. Intraneural haematoma formation
c. Local anesthetic toxicity d. Stretching and binding of the nerve
47. Cytological smear showing multinucleated giant cells, syncytium and ballooning degenera
tion of the nucleus in a characteristic of:
a. Herpes simplex virus infection b. Erythema multiforme
c. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis d. Coxsackie virus infection
46. Chlorhexidine is used as mouthwash in the concentration of:
a. 0.1-0.27o b. 1-2%
c. 5-10% d. 20%
49. Traumatically fractured crown of central incisor in an 8-years-old child with pulp exposure
(more than 1 mm) half hour ago, medical history is non-contributory and the tooth is not
displaced. What is your management:
a. Endodontics-pulpectomy and obturation b. Direct pulpcap with Ca(OH)2 and composite
c. Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy d. Total extirpation of pulp and Ca(OH)2
50. The function of the periodontal ligament include:
a. Mechanical function b. Formative function
c. Nutritive function d. Sensory function
e. All of the above
Reference: Clinical Periodontology, 9th ed, p 39
51. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:
a. O sm osis b. Active transport
c. Filtration d. Diffusion
Osmosis:
Osmosis is the net movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane driven by a differ
ence in solute concentrations on the two sides of the membrane.
52. Which of the following cell types can give a birth to more than one type?
a. Odontoblast b. Mesenchymal cell
c. Fibroblast d. Ameloblast
Mesenchymal cell: An undifferentiated cell found in mesenchyme and capable of differentiating into
various specialized connective tissues.
Ans: 45.a, 46.c, 47.a, 48.a, 49.c, 50.e, 51.a, 52.b

D e n to -G u lf - F o G u l f C o u n trie t L ic e n s in g Exam ination.}
53. High rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to:
a. Change direction of forces occuring here b. Long canine root
c. Lower border is thin in this area d. Alveolus is thin in this area
Reference: Surgery: Basic Science and Clinical Evidence, Jeffrey A. Norton, p 2013
The mental foramen, and the long roots of the canine teeth as well as impacted 3rd molars create
points of weakness that are particularly prone to fracture.
54. The common disease affecting the submandibular salivary gland is:
a Salivary calculi b. Pleomorphic adenomas
c. Viral sialoadenitis d. Infected sialoadenitis
55. Benefits of opaque porcelain layer:
a Bonding the metal structure, b. Initiating the color
c. a & b. d. none of the above
56. Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig’s angina?
a. Submandibular + masticatory spaces b. Sublingual+lateral phrangeal space
c. Sub mandibular +sublingual space d. Submandibular+sublingual+submental
Ludwig angina remains a potentially lethal disease, rapidly spreading bilateral cellulitis of the sub-
mental, sublingual, and submandibular spaces.
57. Neoplasm that spreads by lymphatic from the angle of the mouth reach the:
a. Preauricular lymph nodes b. Mental lymph nodes
c. Submandibular lymph nodes d. Pterygoid plexus
e. Jugulo-digastric nodes
Cancer Medicine
A standard rule of thumb is that the lymphatic drainage for any particular region is predicted by the
arterial supply of that region. The lip, cheek, and anterior gingiva drain to submandibular and submen
tal lymph node groups. In addition, the cheek and upper lip also drain to inferior parotid nodes.
58. The best tissue tolerated material for crown and bridge:
a. Highly polished porcelain b. Highly polished acrylic
c. Highly glazed porcelain d. Highly polished metal
59. What are the significant complications of untreated odontogenic infection?
a. Tooth loss
b. Spread to the cavernous sinus and brain
c. Spread to the neck with large vein complications
d. Spread to potential fascial spaces with compromise of the airway
e. Septic shock
Ans: 53.b, 54.a. 55.c. 56.d, 57.c, 58.c, 59.d

D e nto-G utf - ~c~ G v i: C o un tries L ic e n s in g e x a m in a tio n s
Paper 20
60. The activity of the following enzyme is affected by biotin deficiency:

a. Transketolase b. Dehydrogenase
c. Oxidase d. Carboxylase
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th ed. p 502
61. Cavernous sinus thrombosis not manifested as:
a. Infra orbital syndrome b. Syncope due to atrial obliteration
c. Eye exophthalmos d. All the above
Reference: MCQs in Dentistry, Cawson, p 131
Cavernous sinus thrombosis: May follow infection from the ptvroaid venous plexus.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Patients present with proptosis (eye exophthalmos), orbital swelling, neurologic signs, and fever.
62. After you inject local anasthesia in maxillary 2nd molar, patient’s face becomes colorless and
there is an external swelling. This is due to:
a. Plexus vein b. Posterior alveolar Nerve
c. Facial artery d. None of the above
Reference: Hand Book Local Anasthesia, p 168
63. Pass throw parotid gland:
a. Facial nerve b. Facial arteries,
c. External carotid veins d. All the above
64. The major excitatory neurotransmitter is CNS is:
a. G AB A b. Glutamate
c. Aspartate d. 5- HT
65. Blood supply of the palate is from, EXCEPT:
a Greater palatine artery b. Mandibular artery
c. Maxillary artery d. Facial artery
66. Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that:
a. Dissolve in fluid so it weakens the root canal filling
b. Very toxic contain formaldehyde
c. Contains corticosteroids
d. All the above
67. Loss of sensation in the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue is related to paralysis of:
a. Lingual nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Chorda tympani nerve
Ans: 60.d, 61 .b, 62.a, 63.a, 64.b, 65.b, 66.d, 67.b

D en to -G u lf - ~or G ull C o u n trie s L ic e n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
I
68. The total tubular surface area near the DEJ is____ __ %whereas rear the pulp is_
a. 10%, 90% b. 90%, 10%
c. 1%. 45% d. 45%, 1%
69. Lingula is the site of attachment of:
a. Stylomandibular ligament b. Sphenomandibular ligament
c. Temporomandibular ligament d. None of the above
Reference: Chaurasia's Anatomy for Dental Students, p 154
70. Spiral organ is the organ of:
a Hearing b. Balance
c. Taste d. Smell
Ans: 68.b, 69.b, 70.a

fjjgigj' Dento-Gul' - F or C-uif Countries L ic e n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 21
1. Stensen’s duct is opposite to:

a. Maxilary premolar b. Maxilary 1st molar
c. Maxilary 2nd molar d. Mandibular 1st molar
The parotid duct, also known as Stensen’s duct, is the route that saliva takes from the parotid gland
into the mouth.
It passes through the buccal fat, buccopharyngeal fascia, and buccinator muscle then opens into the
vestibule of the mouth next to the maxillary second molar tooth. The buccinator acts as a valve that
prevents inflation of the duct during blowing. Running along with the duct superiorly is the transverse
facial artery and upper buccal nerve; running along with the duct interiorly is the lower buccal nerve.
2. The accesses opening for a maxillary premoiar is most frequently:
a Oval b. Square
c. Triangular d. None of the above
3. During maxillary 3rd molar extraction the tuberosity fractured. It was firmly attached to the
tooth and cannot be separated. What is the management:
a. Remove it with the tooth
b. Splint the tooth to the 2nd molar then re-extracted after 6 weeks
c. Remove and suture with primary heal
d. Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire
4. Couple of force is:
a. Two equal perpendicular forces
b. Two equal parallel forces acting in same direction
c. Two non equal perpendicular forces acting in opposite direction
d. Two equal parallel forces acting in opposite direction
5. Which of the following drugs is completely effective in eliminating angina episode?
a. Propranolol b. Nifedipine
c. Diltiazem d. None of the above
6. The normal response of a vital pulp to the electric pulp testing is:
a No response b. Higher than that of the control teeth
c. Lower than that of the control teeth d. In a range similar to that of the control teeth
Ans: 1 .c. 2.a, 3.b, 4.d, 5.d, 6.d

O e n tc -ù u !: - r o i O ui: Ocmnirms L ic e n s in c Z is m irta ito n s
Section II. Model Question Papers
7. Bennet angle is the angle formed during lateral movement, by the path of the advancing
condyle and the:
a. Horizontal plane b. Lateral plane
c. Anterior plane d. Sagittal plane
8. A patient with severe periradicular pain has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and cir
cumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis is:
a. Acute apical periodontitis
b. Chronic apical periodontitis
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis
d. Abscess
9. Which of the following is most common malignant bone tumor in jaws?
a. Leiomyosarcoma b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Osteochondrosarcoma d. Osteosarcoma
Reference: “Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation’’
10. Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is called:
a. Internal fixation b. An open reduction
c. Displacement d. External fixation
11. Most common tumor which metastatize to jaws is from:
a. Breast b. Prostate
c. Lung d. Renal
12. Which is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?
a. Pleomorphic adenoma b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
c. Warthin’s tumor d. Muco epidermoid carcinoma
Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the major and minor salivary glands.
13. Which of the following x-ray techniques is NOT used for TMJ movements?
a. Computerized tomograph b. Conventional tomograph
c. Transcranial d. Arthrography
14. If a person has been exercising for 1 hour, which of the following organs experiences the
smallest decrease in blood flow?
a. Brain b. Intestines
c. Kidneys d. Non-exercising skeletal muscles
Reference: Guyton and Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology, p 248
15. Percentage of epinephrine present in gingival retraction cord is:
a. 80% b. 8%
c. 18% d. 28%
Reference: Rosenstiel's Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed, p 436
Ans: 7.d, 8.c, 9.d, 10.e. 11.a, 12.a, 13.c, 14.a, 15.b
D sn tc’-C utf - G u lf Z o u n tr ie ; U c e n s m c E xam ina tions
Paper 21
16. First radiographic changes in primary tooth will be seen in:

a. Apical area b. Bifurcation area
c. External root resorption d. All the above
17. Organic material in bone compromise:
a. 65% b. 35%
c. 10% d. 95%
18. A patient with a complaint from pain in 45 which had gold onlay. The pain could be due to:
a. Chemicals from cement b. High thermal conductivity of gold
c. Related to periodontal ligament d. Cracked tooth or fractured surface
Gold has high thermal conductivity.
19. For onlay preparation, reduction of non functioning cusp should be:
a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
20. Class II composite resin is lined by:
a. Gl. b. Reinforced ZO E
c. Calcium hydroxide d. All the above
21. A ll are single bone in the skull, EXCEPT:
a Lacrimal b. Occipital
c. Sphenoid d. Parietal
22. For which retainer is the tooth preparation most conservative?
a. Resin bonded retainer b. Pin ledge retainer
c. Telescopic retainer d. 3/4 Retainer
23. A ll of the following are oral features of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) EX
CEPT:
a Hairy leukoplakia b. Rapidly progressing periodontitis
c. Candidiasis d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
e. Non of the above
Reference: Dhingra’s Ear Nose and Throat, p 327
24. Hairy trichoglossia may be caused by:
a. H20 2 mouth wash b. Systemic steroid
c. Heavy smokers d. Broad spectrum antibiotic
e. All of the above
Ans: 16.c, 17.b. 18.b, 19.a, 2Q.a. 21 .a, 22.a, 23.e, 24.e
D en to -Q u lf - For G ut" Countries L ic e n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
O-
25. What is the name of first pharyngeal “brancheal” arches?

a. Maxillary b. Mandibular
c. Hyoid d. Axis
Reference: Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body
26. Stomodeum and fugi separated by:
a. Pharyngeal arch b. Ectodermal cleft
c. Buccopharyngeal membrane d. None of the above
27. During intra uterine life, embryo become fetus in:
a. 1st week b. 1st month
c. 2nd month d. 3rd month
28. In fixed prosthodontic treatment planning, complex decisions as to the best tooth prepara
tion-path of withdrawal combination, can be greatly simplified by:
a. Full mouth radiographs
b. Diagnostic cast tooth preparation and waxing
c. Articulating the casts in a fully adjustable articulator
d. Accurately registering centric relation
29. Primary teeth’s tooth germs arise from:
a. Dental follicle b. Epithelial cells of malassez
c. Enamel organ d. Dental lamina
30. Donavan’s technique is used to view:
a. Impacted canine in mesiodistal plane. b. Impacted canine in buccolingual plane,
c. Impacted third molar in buccolingual plane, d. Impacted third molar in mesiodistal plane
Reference: Umarji’s Concise Oral Radiology, p 81
31. Pits and fissure sealants are indicated in:
a. Deep pits and fissure, b. Newly erupted teeth,
c. a and b d. None of the above
32. Leeway space in maxilla and mandible is:
a 0.9 and 1.7 mm respectively b. 1.7 and 0.9 mm respectively
c. 0.9 and 1.7 cm respectively d. 1.7 and 0.9 cm respectively
33. Suture commonly used in oral cavity:
a. Black silk b. Catgut
c. Chromic d. Nylon
Reference: Http://www.bethesda.med.navy.mil/careers°/o5 Cpostaraduate dental school%
Ans: 25.b, 26.c, 27.d, 28.b, 29.d, 30.c, 31 .c, 32.a, 33.a
p e n t e -G ul' - Cut- Countries L icen sin g Exam ina tions
P a p e r 21
34. If the tooth has combined endo perio problem:

a. Start with endodontic treatment b. Start with periodontic treatment
c. Both together d. Extraction of tooth
35. Tooth fracture during extraction may be occur due to:
a. None vital tooth b. Diabetic PT
c. Improper holding by forceps d. A and C
36. Percolation is typified by:
a Ceramics b. GIC
c. Composites d. Amalgam
37. Caries consist of:
a. Bacteria b. Fluid
c. Epithelial cells d. All the above
38. The most prevalent primary molar relationship is:
a Flush terminal plane b. Mesial step terminal plane
c. Distal step terminal plane d. All the above
39. Many parts of bones are originally cartilaginous that are replaced by bone:
a. True b. False.
40. Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth:
a MB root appear mesial to P if cone is directed M to D.
b. MB root appear distal to P if cone is directed M to D.
c. DB root appear mesial to P if cone is directed M to D.
d. DB root appear distal to B if cone is directed M to D.
SLO B technique = Same Ungual Opposite Buccal
41. Digoxin is used in CHF due to:
a. HOCM b. High output failure
c. AF with high ventricular rate d. All
42. Occlusal plane should be:
a. Parallel to interpupillary line
b. Parallel to ala tragus line
c. At least tongue is just above occlusal plane
d. All of the above
Ans: 34.a, 35.d, 36.d, 37.a, 38.a, 39.a, 40.b, 41.c, 42.d
Dento-Gulf ~ For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations
Section IL Model Question Papers
43. Radiographic radiolucency in the interradicular area:

a. Invasion of furcation b. Periodontal abcess
c. Periodontitis d. Periodontal cyst
Reference: Oral Radiology, 5th ed, p 321
Clinical Outline of Oral Pathology.
44. Mental foramen appears in between:
a. Mandibular canine and premolar b. Mandibular molars
c. Mandibular incisors d. None of the above
45. A female patient comes to your clinic with swelling in left of mandible, and it’s slowly increas
ing in size since past few months. X-ray examination shows there is a radio opaque sur
rounded by radiolucent band. What is your diagnosis?
a. Osteoma b. Ossifying fibroma
c, Cementoblastoma d. Osteosarcoma
46. Radiolucent area covering the pericornal part of the mandibular 3rd molar is:
a. Dentigerous cyst b. Globulomaxillary cyst
c. Nasopalatine cyst d. Central
47. Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolu
cency?
a. Ameloblastoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c. Primordial cyst d. Lateral periodontal cyst
Reference: White and Pharaoh, Oral Radiology. Principles and Interpretation, 4th ed, p 386-389
48. Intraosseous cyst in radiograph appears:
1. Multiradiolucent may a not expand to cortical bone.
2. Radiopaque may or not expand to cortical bone.
3. Multiradiolucent may with resoption of cortical bone.
4. Radiopaque may with resoption of cortical bone.
a. 1 + 3 b. 1 + 4
c. 2 + 4 d. 3 + 4
Central intraosseous ameloblastomas may perforate bone and present a similar pattern.
49. A patient comes for check up, no complaining. After radiograph you see a well circumscribed
radiolucent area related to mandibular molar and the periphery was radiopaque, which is not
well defined border. The diagnosis is:
a. Simple bone cyst b. Periapical abcess
c. Periodontal cyst d. Periapical granuloma
Ans: 43,d. 44.d, 45.c, 46.a. 47.a, 48.a, 49.a

D e n to-G u K - For G u!' C o u n trie s L ic e n p in c E xam ina tions
P a p e r 21
59.____is not a cyclin dependent kinase (CPK) inhibitor:

a p21 b. p27
c. p53 d. p57
60. Complete blood count “CBC” is a laboratory test important in dentistry:
a True b. False
61. What type of autoclave is used?
a Hot oven autoclave b. Class b autoclave
c. Class s autoclave d. Class d autoclave
62. Precipitation of asthma attacks and cardiovascular episodes in children are seen with:
a. Rofecoxib b. Pacimol
c. Nimesulide d. Meloxicam
63. Which one of the following is a major disadvantage of autoclaving endodontics instruments?
a. It can dull the sharp edges.
b. All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by it.
c. Compared to other techniques it takes too long to sterilize.
64. Mandibular foramen in 2 year old children is:
a At level ofocclusal plane b. Above the level of occlusalplane
c. Anterior the level ofocclusal plane d. Below the level of occlusalplane
Reference: Paediatric Dentistry, 3rd ed., p 98
In children, the mandibular foramen is low in relation to the occlusal plane.
65. The %of triclosan mouth rinse used against the antisulphur volatile compounds are used in:
a 0.15% b. 0.2%
c. 0.02% d. 157o
66. Most tooth surface affected by caries:
a Pit and fissure b. Root surface
c. Proximal surface d. Smooth surface
Ans: 59.c, 60.a, 61 .b, 62.a, 63.a, 64.d, 65.a, 66.a

Dento-Culf - For Qul( Countries Licensing E xam ina tions
20. To record the occlusal plane In order to

a. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied
by an artificial teeth.
b. To determine vertical and horizontal level of the teeth.
c. a and b
d. None
21. You need____ to get the teeth shade:
a. Shade guide b. Incisal guide
c. Acrylic teeth d. Porcelain teeth
22. A child aged 6- 16 year old consume drinking water with the fluoride concentration of more
than 0.6 ppm. The fluoride supplement dosage should be:
a. 0 mg b. 0.25 mg
c. 0.50 mg d. 1 mg
Reference: Hiremath’s Textbook of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p 356
23. When the occlusal surfaces of the right and left posterior teeth are on the same level It is
called?
a. Vertical plane b. Horizontal plane
c. Compensating curve d. All
24. The relation involves the movement of the mandibular to the side, either right or left in which
the act of mastication is to be accomplished. Therefore the side to which the mandible moves
is called:
a. Balancing side b. Working side
c. Compensating side d. All
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics
25. The preferable length of the handle of the custom tray:
a. 10 mm b. 15 mm
c. 20 mm d. 25 mm
26. Fluoride action on carbohydrates in reducing caries is by:
a. Inhibiting enolase b. Inhibiting fructose
c. Inhibiting sucrose d. Inhibiting glycolase
27. Suitable for treatment of bacterial meningitis caused by H. influenzae:
a. Cefotaxime b. Cephalexin
c. Cephalothin d. Cefadroxil
Reference: K.D. Tripathi s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 664
Ans: 20.c, 21 .a, 22.a, 23.b, 24.b, 25.b, 26.a, 27.a

Dento-Gulf - F c- C u !l 0entr.tr ies Licensing zn s rri.-.s tio n s
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Paper 22
28. The rests are classified into:

a. Occlusal rests b. Lingual rests
c. Incisal rest d. All the above
29. Which o f the following are parts o f surveyor?
a. Vertical arm b. Cast platform or table
c. Small analysis rod d. All
30. We should select the shade for a composite resin utilizing a:
a. Dry shade guide b. Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam
c. Bright light d. In natural light
31. Which is true about opening of jaw?
a. Lateral pterygoid muscle contracts b. Movement in vertical axis
c. Articular disc moves backwards d. Head of the mandible moves forwards
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol-lll, p 145
32. Retentive grooves:
a. Always axiobuccal and axiolingual b. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration
c. Is axiopulpal and axiogingival d. 1 and 2 both true
33. Low glucose in pleural effusion is seen in all except:
a. Dressier syndrome b. Empyema
c. Malignant pleural effusion d. Rheumatoid arthritis
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
35. Best finishing of composite done by:
a. Carbide bur b. Diamond bur
c. Mounted stone d. Best retained under matrix band
12 bladed (fluted) carbide bur.
36. If class II restored composite and you want to cover it with bond, then?
a. Pull bond then remove excess composite then cure.
b. Remove excess then apply bond and light cure.
c. Apply bond then cure then remove the excess.
Ans: 28.d, 29.d, 30.d, 31 .a, 32.d, 33.a, 34.b, 35.a, 36.b
D e nto-G ulf - F o r G ulf Countries Lice n sin g Exam inations
37. Wires also called shape memory wires are:

a. Stainless steel round wire b. Multiflex round wires
c. Nickel titanium wires d. Stainless steel edgewise wire
38. Very small access opening in maxillary central incisor will lead to:
a. Most conservative to tooth b. Insufficient removal of necrotic pulp
c. Excellent obturation d. Good accessibility for instrument
39. Clamp of rubber dam must touch tooth:
a. Adapted well to all tooth surface b. Touch 4 points engaging mesial + distal
c. Touch 4 points in buccal + lingual d. On occlusal
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed (2007-08) p 2220
To remain stable, a rubber dam clamp must contact the anchor tooth gingival to the height of contour.
All four points must be sharp.
All four points must contact the tooth.
The bow must be directed to the distal side of the tooth.
40. Which of the following will cause inability for proper movement and position control?
a. Cerebral palsy b. Down syndrome
c. Epilepsy d. Bell's palsy
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2008) p 52-53
41. The differentiating feature between ectopic ACTH secretion and Cushing syndrome is:
a. Hypokalemic alkalosis b. Clinical features of Cushing syndrome
c. Hyperpigmentation d. Hypertension
Reference: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th ed, p 2134
42. Which of the following is related to polysulfide impression material?
a. Can be poured within 2 hours b. Must wail till next day before pouring
c. Need tray and water cooling d. None of the above
43. Best x-ray view to detect proximal caries in the tooth:
a. Periapical b. Bite wing
c. Occlusal d. None of the above
44. Stuart's medium is an example of:
a. Transport medium b. Enriched medium
c. Enrichment medium d. Selective medium
Ans: 37.c, 38.b, 39.c, 40.a, 41 .a, 42.d, 43.b, 44.a

O e n to -C v U - F o r Gulf Countries Licensing E ire m in ztio n s
Paper 22
45. Mandible is the first bone to be calcified in the skull:

a. True b. False
46. Supra erupted tooth can be treated by:
a. Ortho intrusion b. Extraction
c. Crowning after endo d. Ali the above
47. Which of the following should be checked first when a casting that fits on its die cannot be
seated on the tooth in the mouth?
a. The occlusal contacts b. The taper of the preparation
c. The proximal contacts d. The impression used to pour the cast
48. Following test is useful to differentiate pathogenic Cryptococci from non pathogenic ones:
a. Morphology on culture b. India ink preparation
c. Ability to hydrolyse urea d. Can not be differentiated
49. How will you construct a complete denture for a old patient who has easily displaceable
tissue in the crest of ridge of lower arch?
a. Minor surgery b. Special impression technique
c. Retention of denture will decrease d. All the above
50. Class IIIjaw relation in edentulous patient:
a. It will affect size of maxillary teeth
b. Affect retention of lower denture
c. Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture
d. All the above
51. In recording jaw relation, best to use is:
a Occlusal rim without record base b. Occlusal rim with base wax
c. Occlusal rim with metal frame d. None of the above
52. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connecter depends on:
a. Height of lingual attachment b. Mandibular tori
c. Periodontal condition of remaining teeth d. All the above
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics
53. The pleural pressure of the normal 56-year-old woman is approximately -5 cm H20 during
resting conditions immediately before inspiration (i.e. at functional residual capacity). What
is the pleural pressure during inspiration?
a. 1 cm H20 b. +4 cm H20
c. -3 cm HzO d. -7 cm H?0
Ans: 45.a, 46.c, 47.c, 48.c, 49.b, 50.d, 51.b, 52.d, 53.d
D ento-G uff - F o r G u ff C o u rttrfe z * L ic e n s in g E x a m in a t io n s
(
_U
1. Seventh, ninth and tenth cranial nerves end in:
a. Nucleus tractus solitarius b. Nucleus ambigus
c. Dorsal nucleus of vagus d. Long tract of V nerve
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students — III, p 335
2. Infection of which tooth has more chances of traveling to clavicles?
a. Mandibular incisors b. Maxillary canine
c. Maxillary premolar d. Maxillary 1st molar and 2nd molar teeth
3. What does A signify in the diagram?
Goldstandard
Test Result
Diagnostic A B
Test
C D
a. True positive cases b. True negative cases

c. False positive cases d. False negative cases
A worked example
Condition (as determined bv “Gold standard")
Positive Negative
Test outcome Positive True Positive False Positive Positive predictive value
(Tvpe I error. P-value)
1
Negative False Negative True Negative Neaative predictive value
(Tvdg II error)
X Sensitivity X Specificity
Ans: 1.a, 2.c, 3.a,

0 - Dento-Gulf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g Examinations
Paper 23
4. Dental ethics comprises of:

a. Behavior with colleagues b. Professionalism
c. Behavior with patient d. All the above
5. A patient is having galvanic action on teeth due to amalgam filling, you will:
a Put a varnish b. Extract the tooth
c. Replace the filling d. Put a separating medium
6. Which of the following cast analysis is the most accurate?
a. Moyer's b. Stanely-Kerber
c. Tanaka-Johnston d. Kerby.
7. For light cure system which light can be used?
a. Helium neon b. Argon
c. Barium light d. None of the above
Argon lasers also have the ability to cure composite resin, a feature shared by none of the other
lasers.
8. What is the basis for the current endotherapy of periapical lesion?
a. Due to rich collateral circulation system the periapical area usually heals despite the condition of
the root canal.
b. If the source of periapical irritation is removed the potential for periapical healing is good.
c. Strong intra canal medications are required to sterilize the canal and the periapical area to pro
mote healing.
d. Periapical lesions especially apical cyst must be Rx by surgical intervention.
9. The Bennett movement exerts its greatest influence in:
a. Lateral movement b. Protrusive movement
c. Opening movement d. Closing movement
10. A patient has white streaks and ulcers intraorally. Histology shows osteoclastic activity and
saw rete tooth appearance. The patient has rheumatic fever and hepatitis history before.
Lesion is:
a. Lincinoid reaction b. Apthous ulcers
c. Lichen plannus d. Leukoplakia
Reference: Wikipedia
11. Which wax is used for inlay casting?
a. Paraffin b. Carnauba
c. Bee wax d. Sticky wax
Paraffin wax is used in 60%, Carnauba wax is used in 25%
12. Reason to refresh the saliva ejectors to eradicate:
a. Pseudomonas aerigonesa b. Spirochetes
c. Actiomyces d. E.coli
The high volume suction line deposits on the inner wall of the evacuation line are mainly composed
of heterogeneous microcolonies (arrows) composed principally of bacteria and extensive polysac
charide material and tissue debris. The majority of recovered bacteria are Pseudomonas species
and staphylococci. The presence of recognizable cells and tissue elements in these biofilms shows
Ans: 4.d, 5.c, 6.b, 7.b, 8.b, 9.a, 10.a, 11.a, 12.a
I
Section I!: Model Question Papers
that human material can persist in these systems for an extended period of time and can even be
trapped within biofilms. Since some bloodborne pathogens can survive for a longtime in the environ
ment, these systems must be cleaned and disinfected after each patient is dischanged.
13. Sedation with laughing gas will interfere with:
a. Vit.A b. Vit. B12
c. Vit. B.
D
d. Vit. D
14. Teeth that have lost pits and fissures. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have
not been sealed:
a. Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
b. Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth.
c. The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
Reference: Primary Preventive Dentistry, 6th ed. (2004).
Teeth that have been sealed and then have lost the sealant have had fewer lesions than control
teeth.This is possibly due to the presence of tags that are retained in the enamel after the bulk of the
sealant has been sheared from the tooth surface. When the resin sealant flows over the prepared
surface, it penetrates the finger-like depressions created by the etching solution. These projections
of resin into the etched areas are called tags.
15. The deficiency of enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase inhibits the synthesis of:
a Vitamin B b. Vitamin C
c. Biotin d. None
Reference: Satyanarayana's Bbiochemistry, p 131
16. The teeth materials are:
a Acrylic teeth b. Porcelain teeth
c. a and b d. None
17. When the mandible moves to the working side, the opposite side cusp to cusp contacts in
order to balance stresses of mastication. This relation is called:
a Working relation b. Balancing relation
c. Occlusal relation d. None
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics, 3rd ed.
18. Scattered radiopaque line in the mandible is the radiographical feature of?
a. Garres syndrome b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Paget disease d. Osteosarcoma
Reference: Master Dentistry - Oral and Maxillofacial, Surgery, Radilolgy, Pathology and Oral Medi
cine.
19. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:
a. To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical dimension, tentative centric relation, face low transfer, place
ment of the teeth.
Ans: 13.b, 14.b, 15.b, 16.c. 17.b, 18.c, 19.a

D e m o -S u l! - F or G u ll C o u n t-ie s L ic e n sin g e x a m in a tio n s
1.
Paper 23
b. To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance.

c. To obtain the lateral condylar posts and incisal guide.
20. Most convenient and effective form of sterilization of dental instruments:
c. Hot air oven d. Chemiclave
21. Which nerve passes through Menke’s cave?
a. Abducent b. Facial
c. Trigeminal d. Trochlear
22. HBV can be transmitted by transplacental:
a. True b. False
23. A steep incisal guidance in complete denture:
a. Will require steep cusps for posterior teeth
b. A shallow compensatory curve
c. Is good for occlusal balance in complete denture
d. May be compensated by increasing the overbite
24. Destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell membrane:
a. True b. False
25. Selection of shade for composite is done:
a. Low light b. Bright light
c. Yellow light d. Naturallight
26. Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone insert in mastoid process:
a. True b. False
27. While performing cranial nerve examination you notice that the patient is unable to raise his
eyebrows, hold eyelids closed, symmetrically smile or evert Ns lower lip. TNs may indicate:
a. Trigeminal nerve problem b. Oculomotor nerve problem
c. Trochlear nerve problem d. None of the above
28. Vitality tests determine only:
a. Efferent nerve supply b. Blood supply
c. Afferent nerve supply d. CNS
29. Dental floss help in community prevention of dental caries:
a. True b. False
Dental floss prevents periodontal disease.
Ans: 20.b, 21.c, 22.a, 23.a, 24.a, 25.d, 26.b, 27.d, 28.c, 29.b
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g Examinations:
30. The respiratory enzymes in bacteria are present in:

a Ribosome b. Chondroids
c. Volutin granules d. Cytoplasm
31. Reparative dentine:
a. Same like secondary dentine. b. Happen as site of irritation,
c. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability, d. Highly tubular dentine
Reparative dentin: Dentin formed in response to injury by either primary or secondary odontoblasts
(repairing odontoblasts). Equivalent terms commonly used are irregular secondarydentin, irritation
dentin and tertiary dentin.
32. Nikel titanium wire fractured due which of the following property?
a. Rigidity b. Toughnes
c. Shape memory d. Axial fatigue
IMi-Ti fracture is due to dynamic and cyclic fatigue.
33. A temporary form representing the base of a denture which is used for making maxillo-
manibular (jaw) relative record for arranging teeth or for trail insertion in the mouth is:
1. Bite rims 2. Custom tray
3. Set up 4. Base plate
a. 1 + 2 b. 2 + 4
c. 3 + 4 d. 2 + 3
34. What is the thickness of layer of prism less enamel found in primary teeth?
a. 30 micrometer b. 50 micrometer
c. 75 micrometer d. 100 micrometer
35. The defect of open margin in prepared crown can be due to:
a Putting die space on finishing line.
b. Waxing not covering all crown prep.
c. Over contouring of crown prevent seating during insertion.
36. To design a lingual bar we should determine
a. The inferior border of lingual sulcus b. Superior border of lingual sulcus
c. All of the above d. None of the above
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics. p 337
Ans: 30.b, 31 .b, 32.d, 33.b, 34.a, 35.d. 36.c

P e n u -G -JM - & v l! Cojnirier- L io en sin c E xa m in a tio n s
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Pape- 2Í
37. Which of the following non odontogenic lesions is similar to endooontic lesion?
a. Ossifying fibroma b. dentigeaus cyst
c. Ameloblastoma d. None of the above
Reference: White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology, 4th ed. p 451
38. The main function of hyaluronic acid is:
a. To provide an endoskeletal structure b. Transparency of cornea
c. Serves as an anticoagulant d. Serves as lubricant and shock absorber
39. A patient has denture. After 5 years he complains of ulcer and inflammation in lower buccal
vestibule. What is the diagnosis?
a. Hypertrophic frenum b. Epulis fissuratum
c. Pagets disease d. All the above
40. In processing an acrylic denture in a water bath, a proper heating cycle is desired because of
the possibility of:
a Warpage
b. Shrinkage of the denture
c. Porosity due to boiling of the monomer
d. Crazing of the denture base around necks of the teeth
41. Fluoride decrease dental caries by remineralization of enamel:
a. True b. False
42. Properties of elastomeric materials polyvinyl siloxanes compared with polysulfide:
a Can be poured morethan once b. Can be poured after 7 days
c. Less dimensionalstability d. a and b
Reference: The Dental Assistant, p 372
43. Hand over mouth technique is used in the management of which child:
c. Uncooperative d. Hysterical
Hand over mouth exercise is a technique for managing unsuitable behaviour that cannot be modified
by the more straightforward techniques. It is often used with inhalation sedation (conscious seda
tion).
Indications:
A healthy child who is able to understand and co-operate, but who exhibits obstreperous or hysterical
avoidance behaviors.
Ans: 37.d, 38.d, 39.b, 40.c, 41 .a, 42.d, 43.d

D e n w -G u l:' - - o r G u n C o u s i r íes lic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Section II: Model Question Paper:
44. Radiotherapy increases caries by increasing salivary secration:

a. True b. False
45. The tetanus toxin acts:
a. Presynaptically b. Postsynaptically
c. Pre and post synaptically d. None of these
46. Porcelain jacket crowns are often contraindicated when:
a. Teeth are hypoplastic.
b. There is excessive horizontal overlap
c. Decay is extensive and pulp is still vital.
d. There is excessive vertical overlap with little or no horizontal overlap
47. The best prognosis of RCT will be achived by:
a. Obtuaration at radiograph apex
b. Obtuaration at 1 mm beyond the radiograph apex.
c. Obtuaration at 1-2 mm short of the radiograph apex.
d. Obtuaration at 3-4 mm short of the radiograph apex.
Reference: Clinical Endodontics Tronstad
48. Which of the following is primary for isolating a tooth for restoration?
a. Cotton roll b. Rubber dam
c. Vac-ejector moisture control system d. All the above
49. Which of the following teeth would be missing in a Kennedy Class II modification dental arch
(third molars are missing)?
a. Left first and second molars and right lateral incisor and first molar
b. All molars and both central incisors
c. Both second molars and left first pre-molar
d. Left first molar and right first and second molars
50. When using the buccal object rule in horizontal angulation, the lingual object in relation to the
buccal object is:
a. Move away from the x-ray tube head.
b. Move with the x-ray tube head.
c. Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray tube head.
d. Move in a superior direction from the x-ray tube head.
Reference: White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology. 5th ed, p 90
Ans: 44.b. 45.a. 46.d. 47.c. 48.d, 49.d, 50.b

DemO'C-u!; - P o • Q ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
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The Buccal Object Rule is a method for determining the relative location of objects hidden in the oral
region. The rule is: When two different radiographs are made of a pair of objects, the image of the
buccal object moves, relative to the image of the lingual object, in the same direction that the x-ray
beam is directed.
SLO B technique — same lingual, opposite buccal.
51. Cementum on the root end will:
a. Become thinned and almost nonexistent, b. Become thicker and irregular
c. Render apex to locater useless. d. Often not be seen on the radiograph,
e. Indicate pathosis.
52. Sensitivity to palpation and percussion indicates:
c. Neurotic pulp d. Hyperplastic pulpitis
e. Inflammation of the periradicular tissues
53. The etiological agent of farmer’s lung is:
a Thermophlic actinomycetes b. Aspergillus
c. Mucor d. None of these
54. Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching agent because:
a. It bleaches effectively at natural pH.
b. It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide.
c. Protection for sensitive tissues can be incorporated into the hydrogen gel.
55. Which statement concerning sensitive teeth is false:
a. Small dentin exposure can result in sensitivity.
b. The extent of dental hard tissue loss always correlates with sensitivity.
c. A wide variety of clinical condition can cause teeth to become sensitive.
d. Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute to clinical sensitivity problems.
56. A ll are the uses of standard deviation, except:
a Indicates whether the variation of difference of an individual from the mean is by chance or real.
b. Helps in finding the standard error
c. Helps in finding suitable sample size
d. To compare variability of one character in two different groups
Reference: Mahajan and Gupta's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p 67,74
Ans: 51 .b, 52.e, 53.a, 54.d, 55.b, 56.d

Section II Mode1 Question Paoerr
57. Smallest branch of external carotid artery is:

a. Occipital artery b. Superficial temporal artery
c. Posterior auricular artery d. Supra orbital artery
Reference: Gray's Anatomy, p 829
58. What is the difference between a lateral radicular cyst and a lateral periodontal cyst?
a. A lateral radicuiar cyst is an inflammatory
b. Lateral periodontal cyst is an developmental
c. Lateral periodontal cyst derived from rests of dental lamina.
d. A lateral radicular cyst derived from rests of rests of Malassez.
e. ALL the above
A lateral radicular cyst is an inflammatory cyst in which the epithelium is derived from rests of Malassez
(like a periapical or apical radicular cyst). It is in a lateral rather than an apical location because the
inflammatory stimulus is emanating from a lateral canal. The associated tooth is'afways nonvital.
The lateral periondontal cyst is a developmental cyst in which the epithelium probably is derived from
rests of dental lamina. It is usually located between the mandibular premolars, which are vital.
59. The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma.
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
Pleomorphic adenomas (benign mixed tumors) are the most common benign SGTs, comprising
85% of all salivary gland neoplasms.
Adenoid cystic carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of all minor salivary glands.
60. The pH of fully set zinc phosphate:
a. 3 to 4 b. 4 to 5
c. 6 to 7 d. 7 to 8
61. Which of the following is principle of elevator in tooth extraction?
a. Wheel and axle b. Wedging
c. Lever d. All the above
Reference: Textbook for General and Oral Surgery, p 193
62. DOTS therapy is used for the treatment of:
a Typhoid b. Malaria
c. Tuberculosis d. Hepatitis
Reference: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p 336
Ans: 57.c, 58.e. 59.c. 60.c. 61 .d. 62.c

Paper 23
63. Major connectors of a maxillary RPD may be beaded to:

a. Produce a stronger framework b. Aid in retention of RPD
c. Hold acrylic resin to the metal d. Produce positive contact with the tissue
Reference: Deepak Naliaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed, p 329
64. In distal extension denture base, when there is no modification area exists on opposite side
of the arch, a ___________ clasp is suitable at that side:
a. Ring clasp b. Reverse ring clasp
c. Back action clasp d. Embrasure clasp
65. When do we give antibiotic:
a. Widespread, rapid infection b. Compromised host defence
c. Allergic reaction d. a & b
66. A mandibular “primate” space is usually found in the primary dentition between:
a. Central incisors b. Central and lateral incisors
c. Lateral incisors and canine d. Canine and first molar
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, p 76-77
67. Lingual plate:
a. Shallow sulcus b. Mobile anterior teeth
c. Deep sulcus d. a + b
e. All of above
Reference: Deepak IMallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed, p 338
68. Contraindication for endodontic treatment:
a. Non strategic tooth b. Non restorable teeth
c. Vertical fracture teeth d. All the above
69. A 55 year old patient with narrow frenum with wide base wants complete denture. What kind
of operation you suggest for him ?
a. Vestibuloplasty b. Deep mucoperiosteum incision
c. Alveoplasty d. z-plasty
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 173
Z-plasty are effective for narrow frenum attachments. Vestibuloplasty is often indicated for frenum
attachments with a wide base.
70. Enzyme of glycogen metabolism in which pyridoxal phosphate is a component:
a. Liver phosphorylase b. Muscle phosphoiylase
c. Liver glucose-6-phosphatase d. Kidney glucose-6- phosphatase
Ans: 63.d, 64.d, 65.d, 66.d, 67.d, 68.d, 69.d, 70.b

D e n to -G u lf - F o r GuH C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 24
1. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of the area of distribution of the:

a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Middle cerebral artery
c. Posterior cerebral artery d. Anterior communicating artery
2. Vagal stimulation cause the following except:
a Increase inintestinal secretion b. Constriction of intestinal musculature
c. Relaxation of bronchialmusculature d. Fall in blood pressure
3. Radiographic diagnosis of a well-defined, unilocular radiolucent, area between vital man
dibular bicuspias is more likely to be:
a. Residual cyst b. The mental foramen
c. A radicular cyst d. Osteoporosis
4. The vertical height of the maxillary occlusion rim from the reflection of the cast is:
a. 12 mm b. 22 mm
c. 32 mm d. 42 mm
5. The drug of choice for the treatment of MRSA is:
a Clindamycin b. Amikacin
c. Vancomycin d. Erythromycin
6. Generally posterior teeth are classified into:
a. Anatomy teeth b. Non-anatomy teeth
c. a and b d. None
7. In order to distribute the primary forces of mastication, to fall within the base of the denture,
the mandibular teeth are set:
a. On the bucal edgeof the ridge b. On the lingual edge of the ridge
c. On the crestof the ridge d. All
8. A 10 year old child patient has fractured his incisor while playing which has led to 0.5 mm
exposure of pulp with fractured fragment of tooth in his hand. What will you do?
a. Extraction
b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulpectomy
d. Pulp capping and attach the fractured tooth fragment to the tooth.
Ans: 1.b. 2.b, 3.b, 4.b, 5.c, 6.c, 7.c, 8.d

D e n to -G u T - * or Gun' C o u n trie s L ic e n s m c E xa m in a tio n s
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9. A veneer is planned and you want to give shoulder finish line which bur would you use?
a. End cutting bur b. Crosscut fissure
c. Straight fissure d. Tapering fissure
10. Which of the following increases the hearts tendency to fibrillate following myocardial inf
arction?
a. Decreased irritability of the cardiac muscle
b. Current of injury
c. Decreased sympathetic stimulation
d. Decreased ventricular volume
11. The wavelength of ultraviolet light in composite curing is:
a. 200-250 nm b. 450-500 nm
c. 500-550 nm d. Above 650 nm
The blue wavelength of 488 nm is used mainly for composite curing.
12. Autoclave relative to 100° F in dry air oven:
a. The same time b. Slightly higher time
c. Considerable higher time d. Less time
13. A removable partial denture patient, Class II Kennedy classification. The last tooth on the left
side is the 2nd premolar. Which of the following clasps you will use for this premolar?
a. Gingivally approaching clasp b. Ring clasp
c. Circlet clasp d. None of the above
14. Gingival retraction cord isolation uses principal of:
a. Mechanical retraction b. Chemical
c. Mechanochemical d. None of the above
15. Tooth bud characteristically displaced anteriorly in:
a. Fibrous dysplasia b. Cherubism
c. Florid osseous dysplasia d. Ossifying fibroma
Reference: Umarji's Concise Oral Radiology, p 264
16. Which of the following does not have natriuretic actions?
a. Aldosterone b. Natriuretic peptide
c. Angiotensin d. Prednisolone
17. Which of the following cements contains fluoride:
a Glass ionomer b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol d. Polycarboxylate cement
18. The most common complication after extraction for diabetic patient is:
a Infection b. Severe bleeding
c. Edema d. All ofthe above
Ans: 9.a, 10.b, 11.b, 12.d, 13.c, 14.c, 15.b, 16.a, 17.a, 18.d
D e n to -C u lf - F or G u lf C o u n trie s Lioensinc; E xa m in a tio n »
ófcctior l: iwiode Giuestior ^ aperí
19. Formation of latral periodontal cyst due to:

a. Nasolacrimal cyst b. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
c. Epithelial rest of maLassaz d. The epithelial rests or glands of serrus
20. A patient with elevated RBCs. deep purplish red oral mucous membrane and cyanosis with
reduced hemoglobin > 5 gm/dl could be diagnosed as:
a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Polycythemia vera
c. Pernicious anemia d. Apparent polycythemia
21. The following structures open into the middel meatus:
1. Nasolacrimal duct 2. Posteror ethmoidal sinus
3. Maxillary sinus 4. Sphenoid sinus
5. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
a. 1,2 & 4 b. 1 & 2

c. 3 & 5 d. All of the above
22. Mastoid process is part of:
a. Temporal bone b. Parital bone
c. Occiptal bone d. Frontal bone
23. The term acanthosis refers to:
'
a. A decreased production of keratin
b. An increased production of keratin
c. An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone
Acanthosis: Thickening of the epidermis and elongation of the rete ridges due to thickening of the
spinous layer. May be associated with enlargement of retepegs, an abnormal but benign thickening of
the prickle-cell layer of the skin (as in psoriasis)
24. Which of the following is a character of verrucous carcinomas?
a. Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
b. Can be confused with lichen pLanus
c. Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
d. Have characteristic microscopicfeatures
Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed. p 170-171,
25. Booster CTF anc' orai polio is given at:
a. 10 to 16 months b. Birth
Ans: 19.d. 2C.b, 21Ji. 22.a. 23.c. 24.d. 25.C

D e n tt-S u l- - s o ' 0 W C o v n tn e ? U c r n s m f, fcprmr.etionr
■* 1. » u J V 4 '•
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26. Down's syndrome has increased the incidence of:

a ALL b. AML
c. CLL d. CML
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathologys, 4th ed. p 683
27. The major route of spread of inflammation of the buccal surface of the bone is:
a. Directly into the bone
b. Along the muscle fibres
c. Along the epithelium and connective tissue junction
d. Along the perivcascular tissue
28. Examination of patient’s health by the dentist:
- to know the patient’s health
- to know what medications to give
- to know general health data
Above three statements are
a. True
b. False
29. The depth of penetration of the probe in the connective tissue apical to the junctional epithe
lium in pocket is:
a 1 mm b. 0.5 mm
c. 0.9 mm d. 0.3 mm
30. Average time duration for dry socket to appear in extraction socket is?
a. 24 hours b. 3-5 days
c. 1 week d. 2 weeks
31. Most common site for oral granular cell tumors is:
a Palate b. Tongue
c. Gingiva d. Lips
32. Treatment of fungal infections:
a Penicillin b. Metronidazole
c. Tetracycline d. Nystatin
33. All of the following bacteria have the ability to form intracellular apatite crystals except:
a Bacterionema b. Veillonella
c. Denticola d. Diphtheroids
Ans: 26.a, 27.d. 28.a, 29.d, 30.b, 31 ,b, 32.d, 33.c

D e n to -G u lf - F or G u li C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g c rim in a tio n s
34. The most prominent cell inacute inflammation is:

a. Lymphocytes b. Plasma cell
c. Machrophages d. PMN
35. Coronal suture is between:
a. Occipital and temporal b. Frontal and parietal
c. Occipital and tympanic d. None of the above
36. The following is chemically bonded to the tooth:
a. Composite resin b. Dental sealants
c. Glass ionomer cement d. All of the above
37. Most common complete denture post insertion complaint after 24 hrs:
a. Rough
b. Overextension causing laceration
c. Patient not used to new vertical dimension
d. Speech problem
38. Best instrument to locate vibrating line is:
a. T burnisher b. Marker pencil
c. Mouth mirror d. Probe
Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p 22
39. Dental fluorosis:
a. Is indicative of systemic fluorosis b. Can be contracted at any age
c. Becomes less noticeable with age d. Is reversible
e. Is largely preventable
40. Optimal water fluoridation:
a. 1 ppm b. 2 ppm
c. 3 ppm d. 4 ppm
41. Type of professionally applied fluoride for special childrens:
a. Neutral sodium fluoride b. Stannous fluoride
c. Acidulated fluoride solutions d. Varnish fluorid
e. a + b
42. Osteoradionecrosis can be differentiated from osteomyelitis as:
a. Osteoradionecrosis show periosteal reaction
b. Osteoradionecrosis does not show periosteal reaction
c. Cannot be differentiated on basis of periosteal reaction as both show it
Ans: 34.d, 35.b. 36.c. 37.b. 38.a. 39.a. 40.a. 41 .e, 42.b
D sn to -G u lf - G :ilf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
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d. Cannot be differentiated on basis of periostea! reaction, as both do not show it.

43. A tooth very painful to percussion, what is the most probable diagnosis?
c. Acute apical periodontitis d. Chronic periodontitis
44. During post insertion examination of a 3 unit ceramometal fixed partial denture, one of the
retainers showed chipping of porcelain at the ceramometal junction. In order to avoid the
problem the dentist must:
a. Reduce the metal to 0.3 mm
b. Have uniform porcelain thickness
c. Have occlusion on metal
d. Keep porcelain metal junction away from centric contacts
45. Setting expansion of plaster will decrease with:
a. Longer spatulation time
b. Higher W/P ratio
c. Reducing the concentration of accelerators
d. All of the above
46. The occlusal reduction for an all metal veneer crown should:
a. Be as flat as possible to enable an easy fabrication of occlusion anatomy.
b. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance rating from 1 to 1.5 mm with the opposing
dentition.
c. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0.5 mm with the opposing
dentition.
d. Be the last step in the tooth preparation.
47. Which of the following are systemic mycoses?
a. Chromoblastomycosis b. Sporotrichosis
c. Rhinosporidiosis d. Histoplasmosis
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Text book of microbiology-617
48. For removal of palatally impacted maxillary canine, palatal flap:
a Should start with a vertical incision in the midline
b. Should be raised after giving a semilunar incision over the crown of impacted tooth
c. Should be reflected from the necks of teeth
d. Should not be raised
Reference: Laskin’s Clinician’s Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Vol-2, p 73
Ans: 43.c, 44.d, 45.b, 46.b, 47.d, 48.c

D e n to -C u lf - F o r S u l ' C o u n trie s Lic&nsinc- E x a m in a tio n ?
Sectior. II Modei Questiori Papers
49. A patient came to dentist after previous stressful procedure complaining of burning and
discomfort of his lips. On examination you found lesions on the palate. Diagnosis is:
a. Contact dermatitis b. Allergy
c. Aphthous ulcer d. Herpes simplex
50. Which of the following endodontic failures may be retreated only with surgery:
a. Apical fracture of root b. Persistent periapical radiolucency
c. Post and core d. All the above
51. A periodontal probe is helpful to:
a. Check prepared canal length b. Identify the canal orifice
c. Condensation of material in canal d. All the above
52. After inferior alveolar anesthetic nerve block, the patient showed symptoms similar to facial
paralysis. The solution is likely to be deposited in: _. . ,
a. Pterygopalatine fossa b. Parotid gland
c. Submandibular gland d. Submandibular space
Reference: IMeelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 663
53. Post retention depends on:
a. Post length b. Post diameter
c. Post texture d. Core shape
e. Design of the preparation
i. a and b ii. a, b and c

iii. All of the above
This guideline normally places the post approximately two-thirds into the root length. Improper length
allows a potential for root fracture. It is not necessary to construct a post for each canal in a multi
rooted tooth, provided that the dominant root (i.e., palatal root of maxillary molar) is used and proper
length has been established.
54. Hyperemia result in:
a. Trauma of occlusion b. Pain of short duration
c. Radiographic changes d. All of short duration
55. In primary teeth, pulpal infections in radiographs are always seen in:
a Periapical area b. Furcation area
c. Alveolar crest d. At base of developing teeth
56. Not true about apoptosis:
a Migration of leukocytes b. Endproducts are phagocytosed by macrophages
c. Intranuclear fragmentation of DNA. d. Activation of caspasses.
Ans: 49.d, 50.d. 51 .a. 52.b. 53.ii, 54.b. 55.b. 56.a

f
D e n to -G u l* - -'o G ut’ C o u n trie s L ic e n s in r E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 24
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology s. 7th ed, p 30

57. The process of attraction of neutrophils to a site of local tissue injury is called:
a Phagocytosis b. Diapedesis
c. Chemotaxis d. Epistaxis
58. What is the dosage of prednisolone in treatment of pemphigus patient?
a) 10-20 mg/kg body weight b) 50-100 mg/kg body weight
c) 1 mg/kg body weight d) 1 g/kg body weight
Reference: Tyldesley's Oral Medicine, 5th ed, p 132
a. Under light b. After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam
c. Under proper sun light d. None of the above
60. A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth?
a. At the apex b. At the incisal edge
c. At the center of resistance d. At the center of rotation
61. Microbial virulent produced by root canal bacteria is collagenase from spirochetes:
a. True b. False
62. Rampant caries in adult anterior teeth restored by
a. Glass ionomer b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Amalgam d. Calcium hydroxide
63. Endodontic treatment of avulsed teeth with closed apex and with 15 minutes extraoral dry
time of 15 minutes should be done within:
a 7 to 10 days b. 10 to 14 days
c. Immediately extraorally d. Observe for 6 months
64. Most of the dentin bonding material need conditioning time:
a 15 sec b. 30 sec
c. 45 sec d. 60 sec
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000
65. Local anesthetic, which does not cause vasodilation:
a. Lignocaine b. Cocaine
Ans: 57.c, 58.c, 59.c, 60.c, 61 .a, 62.a, 63.b, 64.b, 65.b
D e n to -G u lf - For G u ll C o u n trie r L ic e n s in g E xam iraiiz-.m
Section II. Model Question Papers
66. Cavity varnish should be applied at least in:

a. 1 layer b. 2 layer
c. 3 layer d. 4 layer
(A second application of cavity varnish is placed over the first to thoroughly coat the surfaces of the
dentin and fill any voids from bubbles created when the firstapplication dries).
67. The process of cell engulfing particle is called:
a. Endocytosis b. Exocytosis
c. Phagocytosis d. Pinocytosis
68. Histopathologically, dentigerous cyst lining epithelium may be:
a. Cuboidai in type b. Stratified squamous in type
c. Reduced enamel epithelium d. Ali of the above
69. Obligate periphyte is:
a A. Actinomycetemcomitans b. P. gingivaiis
c. S. Mutans d. T. denticola
70. An 8 year old boy received a traumatic injury to a maxillary central incisor. One day later, the
tooth failed to respond to electric and thermal vitality tests. TNs finding dictates:
a. Puipectomy b. Apexification
c. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy d. Delay for the purpose of re-evaluation
Ans: 66.b. 67.c. 68.b, 69.c, 70.d

Denro-G ui- - r cr G u lf G ou nrrm * L ic e n s in ç E xam inations
After traumatic injury, as time progresses, the chances of successfully maintaining a healthy
pulp:
a. Increases b. First increases than decreases
c. Decreases d. First decreases than increases
Reference: Ingle’s Endodontics, p616
Pit & fissure sealent least effective with:
a. Tweny-four month year b. Primary molar
c. 2nd permanent molar d. Incisors
3. Which disorder is characterized by excessive pain in a skin dermatomal distribution resulting
from a viral infection of a dorsal root ganglion?
a. Tic douloureux b. Lateral medullary syndrome
c. Brown sequard syndrome d. Herpes zoster
Reference: Guyton and Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11th ed, p 605
4. Radiographic diagnosis of bone destructive lesion in the mandible without evidence of bone
formation is:
a Osteomyelitis b. Malignancy
c. Fibro-osseous lesion d. Fracture
e. Osteoradionecrosis
Malignant lesions destroy bone uniformly. In osteomyelitis, areas of radiographically normal-appear
ing bone are frequently seen between the areas of destruction. Sequestra are not present in malig
nant lesions.
5. The anterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim is:
a. 5 mm b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm d. 20 mm
6. The long axis of the maxillary cuspid is inclined slightly to the:
a. Mesial b. Distal
7. Which of the following is not considered to be a slow virus disease?
a. Visna b. Subacute sclerosing pan encephalitis
c. Lassa fever d. Progressive multifocalleukoencephalopathy
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiologyh. 7th ed. p 569
8. The color of curing light used for blood coagulation is:
a. Blue b. Red
c. Green d. Natural light
The green wavelength of 510 nm is mainly for soft tissue procedures and coagulation.
Ans: 1.c, 2.b, 3.d, 4.b, 5.a, 6.b, 7.c, 8.c

Dertto-G ulf - For G u li Coun tries L icen sin g Exam inations
Section II IVioae. Question Papern
9. What is the type of sterilization applied on ligation/fixation wires?

c. Hot air oven d. Chemiciave
side is the isolated 2nd premolar. Which of the following clasp you will use for this premolar?
a. Gingivally approaching ciasp b. Ring clasp
c. Circlet clasp d. Non of the above
If the tooth is isolated then give ring clasp, if not isolated then give circlet clasp.
11. Histopathologically adenoid cystic carcinoma is characterized by islands of:
a Basophilic islands of tumor/cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartilage
b. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a “Swiss cheese" appearance
c. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a “Swiss cheese" appearance and evidence of serous
acini
d. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini
12. Cells of chronic inflammation
a. Lymphocytes b. Monocytes
c. Neutrophils d. None of the above
13. Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion can be stained by:
a Lugol’s iodine b. Crystal violet
c. Methylene blue d. Carbol fuchsin
14. Chemiciave uses a solution of:
a 72% ethanol and 23% formaldehyde b. 72% ethanol and 0.23% formaldehyde
c. 7.2% ethanol and 23% formaldehyde d. 7.2% ethanol and 2.3% formaldehyde
15. Action of histamine:
a. Vasodilatation b. Permeability
c. Chemokinesis d. Broncho spasm
e. All of the above
16. The following site is the common involvement in cases of myositis ossificans:
a. Masseter b. Hyoglossus
c. Stylohyoid d. Lateral pterygoid
Ans: 9.b, 10.b, 11.c, 12.b, 13.a, 14.b. 15.e. 16.a

D e n n -S u U - r-o■ Guli C om uries L is e n s m c E x a m m a tic n s
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17. A patient comes after 24 months of tooth replantation which had ankylosis with no root re
sorption. It is most likely to develop root resorption is:
a. Reduce greatly b. Increase
c. After 2 years d. After 4 years
18. Isolated pocket in:
a. Vertical root fracture b. palato gingival groove
c. Endo origine lesion d. ALL
19. An unclothed person sitting inside at normal room temperature loses most heat by which of
the following mechanisms?
a. Conduction to air b. Convection
c. Evaporation d. Radiation
20. Treacher-Collins syndrome is mainly:
a. Mandibular retrognathia b. Loss of hearing 10% of cases
c. Amndibular prognathia d. None of the above
21. When removing lower molar:
a. Occlusal plane perpendicular to the floor b. Buccolingual direction to dilate socket
c. Mesial then lingual d. All the above
22. Trauma lead to fracture in the root between middle cervical and apical third:
a. Poor prognosis b. Good prognosis
23. Bitewing exam is used to diagnose, EXCEPT:
a. Proximal caries b. Secondary caries
c. Gingival status d. Bone level
e. Periapical abscess
24. Mechanism of autoclave depends on:
a. Dry heat b. Steam heat
c. Chemicals d. Hot water
Mechanism of autoclave:
Autoclave uses saturated steam under pressure.
Saturated steam enters the top of the chamber by a steam pressure control valve. A s the steam
enters, it pushes the air out through a trap in the drain line. Once all the air is evacuated, the trap
closes. Steam continues to fill the autoclave chamber until a preset temperature and pressure is
reached. Common autoclave operating conditions are 121DC and 15 pounds per square inch gauge
pressure (psig) for 15 to 20 min.
Ans: 17.a, 18.d, 19.d, 20.a, 21 .b, 22.b, 23.e, 24.b

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s -0
The sterilization procedure consists of three phases. These are the autoclave heat-up time, the
contact time, and the cool-down time.
For large loads, a rule of thumb is that if a space greaterthan six inches is between each item, the run
time can be set for the weight of the heaviest item; however, if the items are less than six inches
apart, they are considered to be one.
Item weight (Lbs.) Sterilization Time (Min.)
<5 30
5-15 60
>15 90
a. Sterilization times required for given weights of solid materials

25.2nd maxillary premolar contact area:
a. Middle of the middle third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual embrasure.
b. Middle of the middle third with lingual embrasure wider than buccal embrasure.
c. Cervical to the incisal third
26. To minimize gagging and overcome fear in a child when taking alginate impressions, it is
recommended to:
a Rinse the child's mouth with water
b. Secure the maxillary impression first
c. Secure the mandibular impression first
d. None of the above procedures is particularly helpful
Reference: National Board Dental Examination-July-1981
27. Isolation period of chicken pox should be:
a. After appear of rash by week b. Until vesicle become crusted,
c. Until carter stage is last d. First 3 weeks
It's most contagious one day before the onset of rash and until all vesicles have crusted.
28. To drain submandibular abscess:
a. Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles b. Extraorally at the lower border of the mandible,
c. Extraorally under the chin. d. Extraorally at the most purulent site.
Reference: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Jonathan Pedlar, p 96
Ans: 25.b, 26.c, 27.b. 28.b

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Paper 25
29. Which would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with reverse transcriptase?
a. A complementary strand of RIMA must be synthesized
b. Double stranded RNA must be synthesized.
c. A complementary strand of DIMA must be synthesized from a RNA template
d. A complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from a DNA template
30. Implant contraindicated in which of the following patients?
a. HIV b. Severe bruxisum
c. Uncontrol diabetic patient d. All the above
(is a significant relative contraindication. There must be sufficient alveolar bone above the mandibular
canal and mental foramen to protect nerves. Implants are contraindicated for some patients who
take intravenous bisphosphonates. Bruxism (tooth clenching or grinding) is another consideration
which may reduce the prognosis).
31. The tip of size 20 endo file is:
a 0.02 mm b. 0.2 mm
c. 0.4 mm d. 0.04 mm
32. The catecholamines secreted by adrenal medulla:
a. Increases the blood glucose level by favoring glycogenolysis in blood and muscle cells.
b. Decrease the level of free fatty acids and ketone bodies.
c. Increases the splanchnic blood flow.
d. Are under the control of parasympathetic nerves.
33. The most common injury in a child is:
a Tooth fracture
b. Toot fracture
c. Intrusion of the tooth inside the socket well
d. All the above
34. Which of the following steroids can be administered by inhalation?
a. Betamethasone b. Prednisolone
c. Baclomethasone d. Hydrocortisone
Ans: 29.c, 30.d, 31 .b, 32.a, 33.a, 34.c

35. In post and core, it is important to:

a. End the core at the cervical finish line
b. The core take the same shape of a natural tooth
c. The core take the same shape of prepared tooth
d. All the above
36. Deficiency of which vitamin does not lead to defects of tooth development?
a. A b. K
c. D d. C
37. Class III crown fracture in child patient. The type of pontic is:
a Ovate b. Egg shaped
c. Hygienic d. Ridge lap
38. Conditioning material of resected root:
a. Citric acid b. Phosphoric acid
c. H20 2 d. EDTA
39. Hematoma immediately following posterior superior alveolar nerve block anesthesia occurs
due to damage to:
a. Internal maxillary artery b. Maxillary vein
c. Pterygopalatine artery d. Pterygoid venous plexus
Reference: Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia, p 295
40. Root canal irrigant used to kill E. feacalis:
a. NaOH b. MTA
c. Saline d. None of the above
41. The most common form of radiation used in radiotherapy in head and neck cancer is:
a Photon beams b. Electron beams
c. Particle beams d. Both b and c
Reference: Dhingra’s Ear Nose and Throat, p 319
42. Programmed cell death is also called as:
a. Apoptosis b. Necrosis
c. Degeneration d. Calcification
43. What is die ditching?
a. Carving coronal to finish line b. Mark finish line with pen
c. Carving apical to finish line d. Mark finish line with carver
Ans: 35.c, 36.b, 37.a, 38.d, 39.a, 40.b, 41 .a, 42.a, 43.c
D e n to -G u l' - cor G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
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44. Autoclave relative to to hot air oven:

a. The same time b. Less time
c. More time d. Considerable higher time
45. Cyst in x-ray appears as:
a. Radiolucent with bone expansion b. Radiolucent with bone resorption
c. Only radiolucent d. All the above
cine, p 149"
Cyst growth
Several mechanisms are described for cyst growth, including:
Epithelial proliferation
Internal hydraulic pressure
Bone resorption
46. The temperature of melting gutta percha is:
a. 40-50°C b. 50-60°C
c. 70-160°C d. None of the above
47. A patient came to the clinic complaining from soreness in the tongue, sore throat. The diag
nosis is:
a. Burning mouth syndrome b. Geographical tongue
c. Fissure tongue d. None of the above
48. Bleeding in thrombocytopenia does not occur until the platelet count falls below:
a. 70,000/mm3 b. 50,000 / mm3
c. 40,000 /mm3 d. 10,0000 / mm3
49. The most common professional use of flouride in peado is:
a Acidulated phosphate flouride (APF) b. NaF2
c. Strancium fluoride d. All the above
50. The relationship of mandible to the maxilla when the teeth are in maximum occlusal contact
irrespective of the position of alignment of the condyle disc assemblies is known as:
a. Centric occlusion b. Centric relation
c. Plane of occlusion d. Curve of spee
51. Wax properties are:
a. Expansion b. Internal stress
c. External stress d. Construction
Ans: 44.b, 45.b, 46.c, 47.a, 48.b, 49.a, 50.a, 51.b

52. The principal fiber which prevents the extrusion of the tooth and lateral tooth movement:
a. Horizontal fiber b. Alveolar crest groove
c. Transseptal fiber d. Apical group
53. Nitrous oxide is affect the following:
a. Calcium b. Vitamin B 12
c. Phosphorus d. R B C
a. Before preparation
b. We must rest the eye by looking to a yellow color
c. We must look to the tooth only after preparation
55. Apart from its use in TB and leprosy rifampicin is a first line for the following infective dis
ease:
a. Toxoplasmosis b. Brucellosis
c. Donovanosis d. Leishmaniasis
56. Discharged BP blades after oral surgery is done by:
a. Discharged paper basket b. Designed sharp instrument container
c. Disinfectant in autoclave then throw d. Put it in multifoil
57. What is the time period for the first onset of HIV virus and the appearance of acute symp
toms?
c. No specific time is known d. Above 10 years
58. Which of the following is the best core material in the anterior teeth?
a. Composite b. GIC
c. Amalgam d. All the above
(Casted Post and Core is better than composite)
59. Class IV cavity:
a. Occurs on the proximal surface not involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth.
b. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth.
c. Occurs on proximal surface involving the occlusal edge of posterior teeth.
d. Involves the buccal surface of anterior and posterior teeth.
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p 281,283
Ans: 52.b, 53.b, 54.a, 55.b, 56.b, 57.b, 58.a, 59.b

Paper 25
60. Amalgam restoration with post and core in the posterior teeth is decided by:
a. Canal curvature b. Canal length and diameter
c. Amount of crown destruction d. All the above
61. What is the use of allis foreceps?
a. Helps in flap surgery b. Suturing the tissues
c. Remove epulis fissuratum d. Third molar surgery
62. If a zinc phosphate cement base is used when restoring a tooth, when should the varnish be
applied?
a. Prior to placement of the base
b. After placement of the base
c. Makes no difference when the varnish is applied
d. Varnish should not be used in conjunction with zinc phosphate cement.
63. What’s the reason o f the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of the bridge/crown:
a. Internal pressure b. External pressure
c. Vapourization d. Wax left off the die
64. For continous evacuation of pus in a mandibular space infection, the incision and drainage
will be done in:
a. The most necrotic part of the abscess b. The most bottom of the abscess
c. Intra oral d. All the above
65. Whafs the best implant type allowing osseointegration:
a. Transosteal implant b. Subperosteal implant
c. Root-form endosseous implant d. All the above
66. Patient suffering from a submandibular gland abscess. Dentist made a stab incision and is
fixing a rubber drain to evacuate the pus. The drain is sutured to:
a. Intra-oral b. From angle of the mandible
c. Between myloid muscle d. All the above
67. Which of the following will be mixed in walking non vital bleaching?
a. H20 2 with phosphate b. Superexol with sodium perborate
c. Superexol with calicium hydroxide d. H20 2 with sodium perborate
68. Contraindication of extraction:
a. Patient recent recive radiotheraby b. Tooth in the malignant tumor
c. Recent history of Ml d. All the Above
Ans: 60.c, 61.c, 62.a, 63.d, 64.b, 65.c, 66.b, 67.d, 68.d
69. Which of the following are features of acquired pellicle, EXCEPT:

a. Structures layer to protect tooth b. Aid in remineralization
c. Made of glycoprotein d. Forms immediately after tooth brushing
70. The appropriate force level for tipping a single rooted tooth lies between:
a. 10 and 12 gm b. 20 and 50 gm
c. 60 and 80 gm d. 90 and 110 gm
Ans: 69.b, 70.b

D e n to -G u tf - ~or G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
1. Pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissure:
a. In primary teeth b. In permanent teeth
c. a & b
2. The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray EXCEPT:
a. Ameloblastoma b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst d. Myxoma
Reference: White and Pharaoh, Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, 4th ed, p 386-389
Brown - Aneurismal bone cyst - central giant cell reparative granuloma
Cherubism -Odontogenic myxoma/myxofibroma - tumor of hyperparathyroidism
Hypopharynx abscess hemorrhagic simple bone cyst - Solitary bone cyst, traumatic bone cyst,
bone cavity, unicameral bone cyst bone cyst, hemorrhagic cyst, idiopathic
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma - fibrous dysplasia
3. The posterior width of the maxillary occlusion:
a. 8-10 mm b. 8-15 mm
c. 10-15 mm d. 15-20 mm
4. T h e----------- of the maxillary first bicuspid is raised approximately 1/2 mm of the occlusal
plane:
a. Buccal cusp b. Lingual cusp
c. Mesial surface d. All
5. Why the moisture heat sterilization is better than hot air oven?
a. Makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
b. Needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane
c. Needs less time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane
d. All the above
6. Mammelons are present in:
a. Primary upper central incisor b. Primary upper lateral incisor
c. Primary lower central incisor d. None of the above
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, 5th ed, p 105, 171
7. Fluoride reduces caries activity by:
a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate storage
b. Enhances the precipitation of insoluble fluoroapitite into the tooth structure
c. Fluoride enhances remineralization of the noncavitated carious lesions.
d. All of the above e. b & c
Ans: 1.c, 2.c, 3.a, 4.a, 5.c, 6.d, 7.e
D e n to -G u it - r o r G u lf Countries- L ic e n s in g E xam inations
l
8. Trauma caused fracture of the root at junction between middle cervical and apical third:
a. Do endo for coronal part only b. RCT for both
c. Leave d. Extraction
9. Nitrous oxide effect to:
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B 12 d. Vitamin K
Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed, p 496
10. Immunoglobulins are tumor markers for:
a Prostate cancer b. Ovarian cancer
c. Choriocarcinoma d. Multiple myeloma
11. What is the use of Addison forceps?
1. Helps in flap surgery 2. Third molar surgery
3. Suturing the tissues 4. Remove epulis fissuratum
a. 1 + 2 b. 2 + 3
c. 1 + 4 d. 3 +4
12. Impression material that causes bad taste to patient:
a. Poly sulfide b. Polyether
c. Additionalsilicon d. Alginate
Reference: http://che1 .If1 .cuni.cz/html/lmpression materials.pdf
13. Tooth with root and bone resorption requires RCT. Terminate RCT at:
a. Radiographic apex b. 0.5-1 mm short of radiographic apex
c. 1-1.5 mm short of radiographic apex d. 2 mm short of radiographic apex
Reference: Endodontics, 5th ed, p 515
Weine’s recommendations for determining with root/bone resorption.
If no root or bone resorption is evident, preparation should terminate 1 mm from the apical foramen.
If bone resorption is apparent but there is no root resorption, shorten the length by 1.5 mm.
If both root and bone resorption are apparent, shorten the length by 2.0 mm.
Reference: Color Atlas of Endodontics, p 54
Some researchers suggest calculating the working length 1 mm short of the radiographic apex with
normal apical anatomy, 1.5 mm short with bone but no root resorption, and 2 mm short with bone and
root resorption.
Ans: 8.a, 9.c, 10.d, 11.a, 12.a, 13.d

D e n to -G u lf - F or G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Paper 26
14. In 7th week intra uterine life the oral epithelium is stratified squamous epithelium will thick
ened and give dental lamina:
a. True b. False
15. RCT is contraindicated in:
a. Vertical fracture of root b. Unrestored teeth
c. Periodontally involved teeth d. All the above
16. What can we use under composite restoration?
a. CaO H b. ZO E
c. Reinforced ZO E d. Zinc phosphate
17. In gamma 2 amalgam, the amount of Cu is:
a. 13.1 b. 21.5
c. 16.2 d. 30.5
18. A frequency polygon showing the trend of an event occurring over a period of time rising,
falling or showing fluctuations is:
a. Line graph b. Frequency curve
c. Ogive d. Scatter diagram
Reference: Mahajan and Gupta’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p 25,27,32
19. Which of the following methods will be used in oral cavity for biopsy?
a. Excisional biopsy b. Incisional biopsy
c. Aspiration through needle d. Punch biopsy
20. Irrigation solutions are used in endodontics to:
a. Lubricate the canals b. Flushes the debris
c. Bactericidal effect d. All the above
21. Fracture of upper central incisor in 8 year old child results in pulp exposure. How will you
manage this case?
a. Apexification b. Apexogenisis
c. R C T d. Extraction
22. A 20 years old adult presents with severe hypoplastic anemia. What is the most effective
treatment?
a. Alpha interferon b. IL-2
c. ATG therapy d. Bone marrow transplantation
Ans: 14.b, 15.d, 16.a, 17.a, 18.a, 19.a, 20.d, 21.b, 22.d
D ento-G uH — For Gulf Countries l. icensinc E xsminations
23. During examination first lower premolar shows gingival recession buccally. What are the
possible reasons?
a. Frenum attachment b. Patient is right hand brusher
c. Inadequate gingiva d. All the above
24. The labial bow in an activator is constructed with a:
a. 0.6 mm b. 0.5 mm
c. 0.7 mm d. 0.8 mm and slightly heavier
25. Thickness of metal frame in PFM crown should be:
a. 0.3-0.5 mm b. 0.05-0.15 mm
c. 0.5-1.5 mm d. 2-2.5 mm
26. When should a child be first exposed for using toothbrush:
a. 6 -9 months b. 1 year
c. 2 years d. Primary school year
27. Hypercalcemia is not seen in:
a. Lithium therapy b. Chronc renal failure
c. Multiple myeloma d. Vitamin A deficiency
28. Early loss of posterior teeth in child patient will cause:
a. Affects phonetics b. Affects aesthetics
c. Causes space loss d. a + b
e. All of the above
29. The reason for immunodeficiency may be:
a. Congenital b. Acquired
c. Both d. None
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiologyh, 7th ed, p 152
30. In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:
a. Vfe intercuspal distance b. 1/3 intercuspal distance
c. % intercuspal distance d. None of theabove
31. Which of the following are suitable for polyvinyl siloxane impression material?
a. Can be poured more than once b. Can be poured after 7 days
c. Less dimensional stability d. a + b
Ans: 23.d, 24.d, 25.a. 26.a, 27.d, 28.c, 29.c, 30.b, 31.d
L/e n 'c-G i)lf - - or Guit C o un tries L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Paper 26
32. HOME is used in management of which kind of the following child?

c. Uncooperative d. None of the above
Reference: Damles' Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry
HOME = Hand over mouth excercise is used in hysterical child.
33. Which of the following statements concerning erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of
the new born) is true?
a. It occurs when an Rh-positive mother has an Rh-negative child.
b. It is prevented by giving the mother a blood transfusion
c. A complete blood transfusion of the first child after birth will prevent the disease.
d. The father of the child has to be Rh-positive.
34. Space loss occurs in:
a. Proximal caries b. Early extraction
c. Ankylosis d. All of the above
35. trituration period of amalgam is:
a. 1 min b. 3 min
c. 5 min d. 10 min
36. Estrogen acts on:
a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria
c. Cell membrane d. Cytoplasmic receptor
37. Which of the following are characteristic of apthous ulcer:
a. Is more characteristic in histology b. Leaves a scar
c. Is less responsive to stress d. Occurs in the lining mucosa
38. Common feature of buccal bifurcation cyst is delay in eruption of:
a Maxillary premolars b. Maxillary molars
c. Mandibular premolars d. Mandibular molars
39. Main function of posterior palatal seal in the denture is to:
a. Maintain contact with the soft tissues
b. Maintain contact with the soft palate
c. Maintain contact with posterior part of the soft palate
d. Maintain contact with anterior part of the soft palate
Ans: 32.d, 33.d, 34.d, 35.b, 36.a, 37.d, 38.d, 39.d

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
40. The antibiotic of choice in endodontics is:

c. Tetracycline d. All the above
41. Tooth fracture during extraction may occur due to:
a. Nonvital tooth b. Excessive pressure
c. Improper holding by forceps d. All the above
42. AH26 is used as:
a. The root canal sealer b. RC irrigant
c. Restorative material d. RC preparation
43. Most common cause of fractures of facial skeleton is:
a. Assault b. Pathology
c. Road traffic accident d. Occupational
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 300___
44. Dentinogenesis imperfecta patient can suffer from the following?
a. Fracture bone b. Fracture enamel
c. Blue sclera d. All the above
45. Hairy leukoplakia may be caused by all, EXCEPT:
a Broad spectrum antibiotic b. Cholerexidine mouthwash
c. Systemic steroids d. Heavy smokers
Reference: Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, 2nd ed
46. In distal extension partial denture during relining occlusal rest was not seated. What will you
do in this case?
a. Remove impression and repeat it b. Continue and seat it after relining
c. Use impression compound d. None of the above
47. Appropriate time of disinfection with gluteraldehyde:
a 6 hours b. 24 hours
c. 20 minutes d. 10 minutes
48. Polyether is:
a. Less stable than polysulfide b. Less stiff than polysulfide
c. Hydrophilic d. Can be poured many times
49. Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following:
a. Biocompatible
b. Radioopaque
Ans: 40.b, 41.d, 42.a, 43.c, 44.d, 45.b, 46.a 47.c, 48.c, 49.d
Paper 26

d. All the above
50. RCT will be considered failure in which of the following conditions?
a. Size of the pathological lesion remain same after 6 months
b. Pain at percussion and palpation
c. Presence of acute inflammatory cells
d. All the above
51. The commonest hepatotropic virus progressing to chronicity is:
a HEV b. HAV
c. HBV d. HCV
Reference: Harrison’s Principle of Internal Medicine, p 1849
52. Ester type of local anesthesia metabolized by:
a. Liver only b. Kidney
c. Lung d. Plasma
53. Long term doxycycline treatment was given to a 7Vz years old child. Which teeth are likely to
be affected by staining
a Molars b. Premolar
c. Molars& premolars d. None
54. Effect of long term antibiotic treatment in a child patient will lead to:
a. Apthous ulcers b. Candidiasis
c. Leukoplakia d. Gingival hypertrophy
55. The Florida PASHA probe has been developed specially for:
a CEJ b. Clinical attachment loss
c. Both d. Distance of pocket from C E J to crown tip
56. An 8 year old child has a sinus opposite molar tooth which is asymptomatic otherwise. What
is your treatment plan?
a. Extraction b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulpectomy with GP d. Pulpectomy and fill with calcium hydroxide
Reference: Clinical Endodontics, Tronstad, p 224
57. A child has flush terminal plane malocclusion with upper lateral incisiors tilted. What is the
treatment plan
a Fixed orthodontic treatment b. Removable orthodontic appliance
c. Extraction of tilted lateralincisors d. Don’t do anything
Ans: 50.d, 51.d, 52.d, 53.d, 54.b, 55.c, 56.d, 57.d

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
Section It: Mode! Question Papers
58. A child patient who is obviously anxious while entering into dental clinic. What behavior
modification strategy should be adopted by dentist?
a. HOME b. Promote a dialogue between child and dentist
c. TSD d. Physical restrains
(HOME = Hand over mouth exercise; TSD= Tell show do)
59. Children should not be told that fillings are not going to hurt at all, because:
a. It leads to create fear b. It leads to mistrust between child and dentist
c. It will make the child un co operative d. All the above
60. Which is contraindicated in gingivoplasty?
a. Periodontal knife b. Rotary coarse diamond burs
c. Electrodes d. None of the above
61. In primary teeth you don’t do direct pulp capping because of:
a. External resorption may occur b. Internal resorption may occur
c. Ankylosis of tooth will occur d. It will affect the permanent tooth formation
62. Clonidine is a:
a. Alpha-1 selective agonist, b. Alpha-2 agonist,
c. Alpha-1 selective antagonist. d. Alpha-2 selective antagonist.
Reference: K.D. Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 509-15
63. An 8 year old child has got caries of lower left second molar and X-ray shows irreversible
pulpitis. What is your treatment plan?
a. Extract the tooth
b. Pulpectomy
c. Extract the tooth and give space maintainer
d. Root canal treatment and zinc oxide eugenol filling
64. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is most commonly seen in the age group of:
c. All age groups are equally affected d. None of the above
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is most commonly in 15-20 years.
65. What is the difference between subluxation and concussion?
a. Concussion has got a line of bleeding and no mobility or displacement of teeth.
b. Concussion has mobility and displacement of teeth and no bleeding.
c. Subluxation has got no mobility of teeth
d. Subluxation has mobility of teeth.
Ans: 58.b. 59.b, 60.d. 61 .b. 62.b, 63,d, 64.d. 65.d

i/ e n t e S v I i - Fot O u li Z a u tn r o r L ic e n s in c Z z s tri-.e s io n r
(concussion - injury of supporting tissues without loosening or displacement but marked reaction to
percussion.
Subluxation - abnormal loosening but without displacement of teeth)
66. Rigid splinting of tooth is not advised in the treatment of luxated tooth to prevent:
a. Calcium metamorphosis, b. Ankylosis
c. Root resorption d. Pulp necrosis
67. Penicillin interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis by:
a Inhibiting synthesis of N-acetyl muramic acid pentapeptide
b. Inhibiting conjugation between N-acetyl muramic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine
c. Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases which crosslink the peptidoglycan residues.
d. Counterfeiting for D-alanine in the bacterial cell wall
68. A child with a fever of 102 degrees F and vesicles in the oral cavity is probably suffering from:
a. Herpes implex type -1 b. Juvenile periodontitis
c. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis d. Neutropenia
69. You give functional cusp bevel in crown preparation of a tooth which needs metal crown. If
you don’t give functional cusp bevel on a tooth what will happen
a. Perforation of crown in post cementation finishing and polishing procedures.
b. Fracture of crown due to high occlusal forces
c. Crown cementation will fail
d. All the above
70. Main etiology of class III malocclusions is:
a. Hereditary b. Abnormal muscle forces
c. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth d. Abnormal frenal attachments
Ans: 66.b, 67.c, 68.c, 69.a, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 27
1. The anterior height of the mandibular occlusion rim is:

a. 6 mm b. 16 mm
c. 26 mm d. 36 mm
2. All of the following statements concerning direct gold are true except:
a It is the most nearly permanent of all restorative materials.
b. It provides good adaptation to the cavity walls.
c. Its coefficient of thermal expansion is close to that of tooth structure.
d. It will corrode.
3. The long axis of the maxillary first molar is inclined to:
a. Buccal b. Mesial
c. Distal d. Lingual
4. Which are the following appliances used for immobilization of fracture mandible?
a. Stents b. Obturators
c. Splints d. Speech aids
5. Which of the following branches of trigeminal nerve passes between two heads of lateral
pterygoid muscle?
a. Long buccal nerve b. Pterygopalatine nerve
c. Nerve to lateral pterygoid d. Inferior alveolar nerve
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 631
6. In black classification “instrument formula 3” is for?
a. Width of the bladein mm b. Height of the blade in mm
c. Length of the blade d. Angulation of the blades
7. The impression material of choice when we want to take impression for epoxy resin pin is:
a. Polysulfide b. Polyether
8. Tooth with root resorption requires RCT. Terminate RCT at:
a Radiographic apex b. 0.5-1 mm short of radiographic apex
c. 1-1.5 mm short of radiographic apex d. 2 mm short of radiographic apex
Reference: Ingle's Endodontics 5th ed. p 515
9. Apexogenisis can be done in which of the following conditions?
a. Accidental exposure of pulp with open apex
b. Caries exposure of pulp with open apex
c. Fracture of tooth in root apex
d. All the above
Ans: 1.b, 2.d, 3.b, 4.c, 5.a, 6.d, 7.b. 8.c, 9.a
,-i - L ic e n s t n c e x a m i n a t i o n s
P a p e r 27
10. Best way to remove calculus in a patient who has got 5 mm pocket is:
a Scaling b. Curretage
c. Surgically by flap elevation and scaling d. Root planing
11. What will happen if you increase focal spot and image distance?
a. Image will be dull b. Image will be sharper
c. No effect in image
12. Which of the following will occur as first symptom in hypovolumic shock?
a. Vomiting b. Nausea
c. Mental confusion d. Pain
13. Primary role of T lymphocyte is:
a. Antibody formation b. Delayed hypersensitivity
c. Complement production d. All of the above
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th ed, p 196
14. Fat soluble vitamin helps in:
a. Vitamin A helps in protection of mucosa
b. Vitamin D helps in intestinal absorption of calcium
c. Vitamin A helps in protection of retina/cornea
d. All the above
15. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include:
a. Shaking movements of hand and body
b. Elevated body temperature
c. Intolerance to cold
d. All the above
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Paincontrol in General Practice, 7th ed, p 206
16. Why do you do arch length anylysis in mixed dentition?
a. To know there is enough space for eruption of premolar
b. To know there is enough space for eruption of canine
c. To know there is enough space for eruption of premolars and molars
d. To know if there is enough space for eruption of canine and premolars
17. Endocarditis prophylaxis is not recommended for following condition:
a. Isolated seundum atrial septal defect b. Mitral valve prolase without regurgitation
c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. All of the above
Ans: 10.b, 11.b, 12.c, 13.b, 14.d, 15.b, 16.d, 17.d

D en to -G u lf - For G ulf C o u n tries L ic e n s in g E xam inations:
I
S e c t io n II: M o d e l Q u e stio n P a p e rs
18. Which of the following is correct regarding the fluoride absorption in enamel?
a. Fluoride ion is smaller than hydroxyl ion in matrix
b. One is negatively charged and one is positively charged
c. All of the above
19. Submandibular abscess drainage will be done in which of the following?
a. Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles
b. Extraorally under the chin
c. Extraorally at the most purulent site
20. The anterior tooth preparation, most conservative of tooth structure is for the:
a. Three-quarter crown b. All ceramic crown
c. Porcelain fused to metal crown d. Pin modified three-quarter crown
21. To remove a broken periodontal instrument from the gingival sulcus:
a. Schwartz Periotriever b. Tissue forcepts
c. Still's forceps d. Addison’s forceps
22. Xylitol effect:
a Increase caries incidence b. Reduce caries incidence
c. Reduce plaque index d. Increase plaque index
23. Probably the most efficient and least traumatic instruments for correcting overhanging or
over-contoured proximal alloy and resin restorations are the motor driven diamond files of:
a. The perioscopy system b, The EVA system
c. The ultrasonic system d. The sonic system
24. Type of inlay casting wax:
a. Paraffin wax b. Carnauba wax
25. The smallest diameter in the root canal system:
a. Canal orifice b. Pulp chamber
c. Apical construction d. Access opening
26. Among the following least anaphylaxis is seen with:
a. Streptokinase b. Urokinase
c. Anisolated streptokinase d. P A
Ans: 18.c, 19.d, 20.d, 21 .a, 22.b, 23.b, 24.a, 25.c, 26.d
- Por Gulf C o u n tn s i Licensing Examinations
P a p e r 27
27. A patient taking steroid drugs before extraction of impacted third molar. Dentist must admin
istered to avoid adrenal crisis by:
a Administer supplemental hydrocortisone IV or IM
b. Administer prophylactic antibiotic IM
c. Administer LA double dose
d. All the above
28. A 4 years old fraternal twins came for routine dental check-up. You notice complete differ
ence in the behavior? What is the reason?
a. Gender b. Maturation
c. Environments d. None of the above
http://sociaLjrank.org/pages/666/Twin-Studies.html
29. The following antibiotic is a first line treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in
AIDS patients:
a Cindamycin b. Clarithromycin
c. Roxithromyxcin d. Erythromycin
30. Your dental patient suffers from tubularculosis lung. What you have to do?
a. Treat patient wearing dental mask
b. Postpone dental treatment
c. Treat patient and take all the protection measures
d. Avoid surgical procedures
31. Type of porcelain you select for maximum esthetic result in anterior FPD
a In-cream
b. IPS empress
c. Zirconia
d. Polishing glass ionomer restoration
32. Which of the following statements best describes pulpal A-delta fibers when compared to C
fibers?
a. Larger unmyelinated nerve fibers with slower conduction velocities.
b. Larger myelinated nerve fibers with faster conduction velocities.
c. Smaller myelinated nerve fibers with slower conduction velocities.
d. Smaller unmyelinated nerve fibers with faster conduction velocities.
33. Principle of dental elevator is:
a Wheel and axis b. Wedging
c. Lever d. All the above
Ans: 27.a, 28.c, 29.d, 30.c, 31 .a, 32.b, 33.d

Seclior ll Model Ciuestior “ aperj
34. CMCP contains camphor in concentration of:

a 0.5% b. 35%
c. 65% d. 5%
(CMCP = Camphorated mono chlorophenol)
35. Octreotide is a long acting synthetic analogue of:
a. Prolactin b. Growth hormone
c. Somatostatin d. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
36. Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages:
a. Efficient polymerization b. Good contact proximally
c. Gingival seal d. All the above
37. Which of the following is absent in CREST syndrome?
a. Calcinosis cutis b. Raynaud's phenomenon
c. Telangiactasia d. Endocrine disorders
38. Amount of reduction needed for laminates is usually:
a. 1 mm b. 0.7 mm
c. 0.9 mm d. 0.5 mm
39. Studies have shown that incipient carious lesions________ after sealant placement:
a. Progressively get bigger
b. Are arrested
c. Spread rapidly into the interproximal areas
d. Remain the same
40. Healing by secondary intention causes:
a. There is space between the edges filled by fibrous tissue
b. Leading to scar formation
c. a and b
41. Contraindication of gingivectomy
a. Periodontal abscess b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Poor oral hygiene d. All the above
Reference: Glickman, 9th ed. p 749
Ans: 34.c. 35,c. 36.d. 37.d. 36.d. 39.b. 40.c, 4 1.a
D e n to -G u lf ~ F o - G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x c m in a iio n s
P a p e r 27
42. Which of the following are true about enamel tufts, EXCEPT:
a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DCJ b. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ
c. Enamel rods change their direction. d. All the above
43. The post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a Secondary hemorrhage b. Swelling
c. Pain d. Alveolar osteitis
e. All of the above
44. Essential properties of a class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold include all of the follow
ing except:
a Rounded internal line and point angles.
b. Small retentive undercuts placed in the axio occlusal and axio gingival line angles.
c. Mesial and distal walls that flair and meet the cavosurface at a 90 degree angle.
d. An axial wall that is convex and follows the external contour of the tooth 5 mm into dentin.
45. The best pontic material in contact with ridge tissue is:
a. Glazed porcelain b. Polished nickel-chromium alloy
c. Highly polished resin d. Unglazed porcelain
46. Surgery for ridges aim to:
a. Vertical dimension b. Speech
c. Modify ridge for stability d. All the above
47. A 8 year old child came with 1 year old fractured central incisor. How will you manage this
case?
a. R C T b. Direct pulp capping
c. Indirect pulp capping d. Apexification
48. All are names of waxes that can be used in Fluid Wax technique of posterior palatal seal
placement, EXCEPT:
a. Korecta wax no. 4 b. Iowa wax
c. H-L physiologic paste d. Microcrystalline wax
49. Rubber dam is not used in:
a. Children with fixed orthodontic appliance, b. Children with nasal obstruction problem,
c. Children with latex allergy d. All the above
50. The injection level of inferior alveolar nerve block anesthesia in children:
a. 5 mm below the occlusal plane b. 7 mm. below the occlusal plane
c. 5 mm above the occlusal plane d. 7 mm. below the occlusal plane
Ans: 42.d, 43.e, 44.a, 45.a, 46.c, 47.d, 48.d, 49.d, 50.a
D e n to -G u lf ~ F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
S e c tio n II: M o d e l Q u e s tio n P a p e r s
51. The best method for core build up in posterior tooth is:
c. Compomer d. Glass ionomer
52. Which of the following occlusal planes in children may cause class II malocclusion?
a. Flush terminal b. Distal step
c. Mesial step
53. Primary incisor starts erupting on:
a. 9 months b. Atbirth
c. 6-7 months d. 12 months
54. When surveying casts, the correct procedure is to first:
a. Use an arbitrary tilt to create undercuts.
b. Locate undercuts with casts placed on a horizontal plane.
c. Adjust the tilt to permit the establishment of guiding planes.
d. Establish an anterior tilt for maxillary cast and a posterior tilt for mandibular cast.
55. Receiving the impression after removal from the mouth directly:
a It must be disinfectedimmediately. b. It must be poured immediately,
c. It must be mounted immediately. d. It must be left for minutes.
56. To get clearance from the frenum areas, what should be the space in special impression
trays in complete denture construction:
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
57. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:
a To obtain the centric occlusion
b. To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance.
c. To obtain the lateral condylar posts and incisal guide.
d. None.
58. Sliding teeth along an arch wire would require at least a clearance of:
a. 0.001" b. 0.002“
c. 0.003 “ d. 0.004 “
Ans: 51 .b, 52.c, 53.c, 54.c, 55.a, 56.b, 57.d, 58.b

D e n to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s Licensing Examinations
P a p e r 27
59. Epoxy resin is not compatible with:

c. Addition silicone d. Condensation silicone
60. A child patient takes oral sedation before appointment and presents with physical volt. What
should the dentist do:
a. Conscious sedation b. Redo sedation
c. Tie with bamboos board d. Tie in unite with bandage
Conscious sedation = Inhaled sedation = Nitrous oxide sedation
61. Which of the following is true about herpex ulcers?
a. Leave scars b. Children
c. Smaller in size d. All the above
62. A 50 year old patient visits your dental office with the complaint of smoking stains on his
teeth. He wants to remove that, but during examination you find there is a white color slightly
elevated papules in his palate. What is the diagnosis?
a. Nicotine stomatitis b. Candidiasis
c. White sponge nevus d. Leukoplakia
63. Which are the signs of dentinogenisis imperfecta?
a. Blue sclera b. Broken bone
c. Supernumerary teeth d. a + b
e. All the above
64. What supplies the gingival buccal tissue of canines in lower arch?
a. Long buccal b. Mental nerve
c. Inferior alveolar nerve d. Superior alveolar nerve
65. Glucose-6- phosphate inhibits enzyme:
a. Glucokinase b. Aconitase
c. Hexokinase d. Isomerase

66. Advantage of digital x-ray are:
a. Large disk space Storage b. Clarity and resolution
c. Expensive d None of the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed.. p 22-23
Clarity and resolution are one of the main advantages of digital x-ray.
Ans: 59.a, 60.a, 61.d, 62.a, 63.d, 64.b, 65.c, 66.b

S e c t io n II: M o d e l Q u e s tio n P a p e r s
67. Which of the following are related to retention of maxillary complete denture?
a. Tooth placed in neutral zone b. Type of saliva
c. Thickness of denture d. All the above
68. Which of the following is most difficult to extract?
a. Maxillary 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots
b. Mandibular 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots
c. Maxillary 3rd molar with mesioangular with divergent curve roots
d. Mandibular 3rd molar with mesioangular divergent curve roots
69. Which of the following is a contraindication to extraction?
a. Cardiac patient b. Previous recent radio therapy
c. Diabetic patient d. Pregnancy
70. Muscles of mastication develop from mesoderm of:
a 1st pharyngeal pouch b. 2nd pharyngeal pouch
c. 3rd pharyngeal pouch d. 4th pharyngeal pouch
Ans: 67.d, 68.c, 69.b, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 28
i
1. Type of occlusal scheme usually present in normal natural dentition is:
a Cusp to single marginal ridge b. Cusp to fossa
c. Cusp to marginal ridges d. None of the above
2. The posterior height of mandibular occlusion rim is:
a. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of retro molar pad
b. Equal to the point representing i/2 of the height of the frenum areas.
c. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the alveolar ridge.
d. None.
3. All maxillary posterior teeth touch the occlusal plane, EXCEPT:
a First bicuspid b. Second bicuspid
- c. First molar d. Second molar^
4. Prolactin secretion will be inhibited by:
a Haloperldol b. GABA
c. Neurophysln d. Dopamine
Reference: K.D. Trlpathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 217
5. Bitewing exam is used to diagnose:
a. Proximal carles b. Secondary carles
c. Gingival status d. Bone level
e. All the above
6. Apexification can be done in which of the following conditions?
a. Accidental exposure of pulp with open apex
b. Carles exposure of pulp with open apex
c. Fracture of tooth in root apex
d. All the above
7. Which of the following are contraindication for gingivectomy?
a. Periodontal abscess b. Last trimaster in pregnancy
c. Uncontrolled diabetic d. All the above
8. The goal of making the peripheries of the custom tray under extended to all border and clear
ance from the frenum areas:
a. To give enough space for the used impression materials to allow border molding
b. To give enough space for the die spacer.
c. To give enough space for the cementation materials.
d. None.
Ans: 1.c, 2.a, 3.d, 4.d, 5.e, 6.b, 7,d, 8.a

Dento-Gulf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
9. Lewis triple response is mediated by:

a. Histamine b. Axon reflex
c. Injury to endothelium d. None of the above
10. The occlusal reduction required for an anterior PFM (porcelain fused to metal) crown should
be:
a. 0.75 mm b. 3.0 mm
c. 1.0 mm d. 2.0 mm
11. Disadvantage of digital x-ray:
a. Large disk space storage
b. Expensive
c. Sensor head is not flexible to cover palate
d. All the above
12. Which of the following is true about subgingival calculus?
a. Hard and rough b. Easy to detect
c. Has component of saliva d. All the above
13. Both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin are increased in which type of jaundice?
a. Prehepatic jaundice b. Hepatocellular jaundice
c. Posthepatic jaundice d. Hemolytic jaundice
14. The percentage of simple caries located within the outer wall of the dentin?
a. 10% b. 30%
c. 60% d. 90%
Reference source: Art & Science of Restorative Dentistry, p 102
15. Tissue pressure of pulp is approximately:
a 14 mmH20 b. 20 mmH20/15 mmHg
c. 25 mmH20/18 mmHg d. None
16. After final inlay cementation and before complete setting of cement we should:
a. Remove occlusal interferences
b. Burnishing of peripheries of restoration for more adaptation
c. Lowering occlusal surface
d. All the above
Ans: 9.a, 10.d, 11.d, 12.a, 13.b, 14.c, 15.c, 16.b

Paper 2B
17. Which of the following are characters of herbes ulcer is:

a More characteristic in histology b. Leaves scar
c. Less response to stress d. All the above
18. Ackerman tumor is:
a. Malignant b. Benign
c. Premalignant d. None of the above
Reference: Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed, p 170-171
Ackerman tumor known as verrucous carcinoma.
19. Scatlopped border above inferior alveolar canal between roots of mandibular molars. This
lesion is:
a. Solitary cyst b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Traumatic bone cyst d. Periapical cyst
Reference: Oral Radiology, 5th ed, p 321
This is the radiographic finding for the trumatic bone cyst. Radiographically, these lesions tend to
appear as smoothly outlined radiolucencies that scallop around the roots of the teeth. They do not
displace teeth or resorb roots, and the lamina dura is left intact. They may range from very small (<1
cm) to very large (involving most of the mandible). They tend to occur above the inferior alveolar
canal.
20. Which cyst is not radiolucent?
a. Globulomaxillary cyst b. Follicular cyst
c. Nasopalatine cyst d. All the above
21. Y- axis is used to analyze:
a. Maxillary growth, b. Mandibular growth,
c. Both 1 and 2. d. To design appliance.
Reference: Gurkeerat Singh's Textbook of Orthodontics, p 102
22. The x-ray shows scattered radiopaque line in the mandible jaw. The diagnosis will be?
cine.
23. Under normal conditions, saliva contains a high concentration of which of the following ions?
a. Potassium b. Chloride
c. Sodium d. Calcium
Ans: 17.d, 18.a, 19.c, 20.b, 21 .b, 22.a, 23.a

D e n to -G u tf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
24. During filing of RCT by Ni/Ti, it gets fractured due the property of:
a Rigidity b. Axial fatigue
c. Torque d. Toughness
25. When esthetic is important, posterior class I composite is done in:
a Subgingival box b. Bad oral hygiene
c. Contact free area d. Class I without central contact
e. c + d
26. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes:
a. Nasolabial cyst b. Nasopalatine cyst
c. Mid alveolar cyst d. Palatine cyst
27. How will you manage amalgam waste in your clinic?
a. Dark container with fixer solution b. Sharp container
c. Ordinary waste container d. Office container
28. DNA only infects humans but RNA doesn’t infect humans:
a. True b. False
(Both can infect humans, Example: Influenza, hepatitis C, SARS)
29. Subgingival scaling and root planning is done by:
a. Hoe b. Chisel
c. Gracey curette d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008) p 234
(hoe, chisel = supragingival)
30. Compomer release fluoride as Gl:
a. True b. False
(Gl has a continuous release of fluoride because it reabsorbs it from the saliva but compomer has a
limited release of fluoride).
31. Radiotherapy increases caries by decreasing salivary secration:
a. True b. False
32. Composite for anterior teeth teeth:
a Microfilled + fine filler b. Macroflled + rough filler
c. Hybrid + rough filler d. All the above
Reference: Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory, Practice, and Cases. 3rd ed., (2009)
Microfilled composites were used when esthetics are the dominant concern.
Ans: 24.b, 25.e, 26.a, 27.a, 28.b, 29.c, 30.b, 31 .a, 32.a
D e n to -G u lf - For G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 2B
33. Stensen duct opens opposite in:

a Mandibular 2nd molars b. Maxillary second molar
c. Maxillay first molar d. Mandibular first molar
34. During placement of amalgam pins, the number of pins per cusp is:
a 1 pin b. 2 pins
c. 3 pins d. 4 pins
(One pin per cusp, one pin per surface, one pin per line angle)
35. Over erupting tooth can be treated by:
a. RCT and crown b. Ortho intrusion
c. Extraction d. Trimming
36. Maxillary nerve has________ branches:
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
Reference: Gray's Anatomy, p 819
37. Which of the following degrees of inclination could be used as abutment?
38. Intercellular movement of PMN leukocytes is called migration:
a. True b. False
(The migration is also called chemotaxis.)
39. Flux used in dental ceramics is:
a Alumina b. Silica
c. Kaolin d. Boric oxides
40. How many canals can be present in mandibular second molars:
a 1,2, 3 a 4 b. 2, 3 or 4
c. 3 or 4 d. 3.
41. Main advantage of arcon system:
a. Easy to maintain
b. Easy to operate
c. It is very useful in complete denture construction
d. A constant relationship always exists between maxillary occlusal plane and condylar guides
Ans: 33.b, 34.a, 35.a, 36.b, 37.a, 38.a, 39.d, 40.c, 41 .d

42. Which one of the following is true?

a. Agar has nutrient properties
b. Chocolate medium is a selective medium.
c. Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media.
d. Nutrient broth is basal medium.
43. The most common immediate treatment reported for fractured teeth was:
a. 25% b. 50%
c. 82% d. 95%
44. Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia:
a. Ameloblastoma b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Fibrosarcoma d. All of the above
Reference : Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology’s 5th ed., p 361
45. Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder typically characterized by each of the follow
ing?
a. Burning pain in multiple oral sites. b. Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain,
c. Persistent altered taste perception d. All the above
*6. All of the following antibiotics act on cell wall except:
a. Ampicillin b. Bacitracin
c. Cycloserine d. Griseofulvin
Reference: K.D. Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p 628
47. The mechanism of action for denture adhesive is:
a. Carboxyl group provide bio adhesion.
b. Greater water solubility increase duration of adhesion.
c. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion.
d. All the above
48. Which mandibular tooth is generally not suitable for a three-quarter preparation?
a. First molar b. Second premolar
c. Second molar d. First premolar
49. Which of the following has highest coefficient of thermal expansion?
a. Type II glass ionomer b. Tooth enamel
c. Pure gold d. Amalgam
Reference: Skinner's Science of Dental Materials, p 55
Ans: 42.d, 43.a, 44.a, 45.d, 46.d, 47.d, 48.d, 49.d

Paper 28
50. Diphtheria toxins act by:

a Inhibiting acetylcholines release b. Inhibiting glucose transport
c. Increasing levels of cAMP d. Inhibiting protein synthesis
51. Which one of the following is likely to cause oral bad breath?
a. Periodontal disease b. Faulty restoration
c. Carious lesions d. All the above
52. Which one of the following sentences is a characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity?
a. Its prevalence range from 8 to 30%.
b. The majority of the patients who experience it are from 20 to 40 years of age.
c. One source of the irritation that leads to hypersensitivity is improper toothbrushing.
d. All the above
53. If the initial working length film shows the tip of a file to be greater than 1 mm from the ideal
location, the clinician should:
a. Correct the length and begin instrumentation.
b. Move the file to 1 mm short of the ideal length and expose a film.
c. Interpolate the variance, correct the position of the stop to this distance, and expose the film.
d. Confirm the working length with an apex locator.
e. Position the file at the root apex and expose a film.
54. Complement deposition in kidney, skin, joints and choroid plexus is seen in:
a. Systemic lupuserythematosus b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Good pasteur’s syndrome d. Scleroderma
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology, 8th ed, p 142,144
55. Which of the following endodontic failure may be retreated only with surgery?
a. Missed major canal b. Persistent inter appointment pain
c. Post and core d. Short canal filling
56. What is the estimated incubation period of HIV infection?
a. 4 weeks b. 6 months
c. 3 years d. 6 years
e. 10 years
57. Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching agent because, EXCEPT:
a. It bleaches effectively at natural pH.
b. It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide.
c. Protection for sensitive tissues can be incorporated into the hydrogen gel.
Ans: 50.d, 51 .d, 52.d, 53.d, 54.a, 55.c, 56.e, 57.d

D e n to -G u if - F o r G u ll C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
58. A ll of the following nerves are somatic efferents except:

a Trochlear b. Facial
c. Abducens d. Occulomotor
Reference: Chaurasla's Anatomy for Dental Students, p 419
59. The most common cause o f the angina is:
a. Stress
b. Renal disease
c. Arteriosclerotic plaques of the coronary vessels
d. Hypoglycemia
e. Hypertension
60. Which of the following is the cause of immediat type allergic reaction to latex products?
a. Accelerator b. Antioxidants
c. Latex protein d. Nickel
61. Which of the following a precursor of heme synthesis?
c. Histidine d. Glycine
62. The type of cement which gives retention to crown:
a. Zn phosphate b. Zn polycarpoxylate
c. Resin d. Resin modified glass ionomer
63. A 20 year old patient came to your clinic with generalized gray discoloration, blue sclera,
enlarged pulp chambers and short roots, and multiple fractures in enamel. What will be your
diagnosis?
a. Dentinal dysplasia b. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta,
c. Amelogenesis Imperfecta d. None of the above
64. What supplies the gingival buccal tissue of lower incisors?
a. Long buccal b. Inferior alveolar nerve
c. Superior alveolar nerve d. Lingual nerve
65. Tobacco should be considered a risk factor when planning treatment for patient who require:
a Implants b. Periodontal surgery
c. Oral surgery d. Esthetic treatment
e. All of the above
66. The substance that is present in both serum and plasma is:
a Fibrinogen b. Factor VII
c. Factor V d. Factor 11
Ans: 58.b, 59.c, 60.c, 61.d, 62.c, 63.b, 64.b, 65.e, 66.b
Paper 2B
67. Darner’s disease is associated with:

a Pernicious anemia.
b. Rickets with involvement of teeth and bones.
c. Vitamin A deficiency and involvement of oral epithelium and skin.
d. Diffuse tender ulceration on the palate predominantly.
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed, p 1116-1118
68. Which of the following Is true about CPR?
a. Is best performed in the dental chair.
b. Should be performed on all patients experiencing chest pain.
c. Is more efficient when using a full mask, delivering 100% oxygen, than with the mouth to mouth
technique
d. Is beyond the medico legal responsibility of the practicing dentist.
CPR - Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
69. Regarding sensitive teeth which of the following is true?
a. Small dentin exposure can result in sensitivity
b. Many conditions can cause sensitive teeth
c. Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute to clinical sensitivity problems.
d. All the above
70. Medial wall of orbit contains:
a. Lacrimal b. Sphenoid
c. Frontal d. Ethmoid
e. All the above
Ans: 67.c, 68.c, 69.d, 70.e

I
1. To record the vertical dimension in order to:
a. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied
by an artificial teeth.
b. To determine vertical and horizontal level of the teeth.
c. a and b.
d. None.
2. The distance between the lingual surfaces of the maxillary anterior teeth and the labial sur
faces of the mandibular anterior teeth is:
a. Vertical overlap b. Horizontal overlap
c. Occlusal plane d. All
3. Aphthous ulcer, compared with herbes ulcer is:
a More characteristic in histology b. Leaves scar
c. Less response to stress d. Occur in lining mucosa
4. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after an attack of URTI; likely renal pathology
is:
a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Minimal change disease
c. IgA nephropathy d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
5. Which one of the following sentences is correct?
a. Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria In origin.
b. Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common.
c. Fear of having bad breath may be a severe problem for some people.
d. All the above
6. Which of the following endodontics failures may be treated nonsurgically?
a. Post filling that has removed
b. Severe apical perforation
c. Very narrow canal with a periapical lesion and the apex can not be reached
7. Which of the following drugs is completely effective in eliminating angina episode:
a. Propranolol b. Nifedipine
c. Diltiazem d. Transdermal nitroglycerin
8. The most common location of percutaneous injury among dentist is:
a. Hand b. Face
c. Elbow d. Arm
Ans: 1.a, 2.b, 3.d, 4.c, 5.d, 6.a, 7.d, 8.a, 9.d
Paper 29
9. Droplet nuclei containing mycobacterium tuberculosis:

a. Do not cause infection b. Settle out of room air quickly
c. Do not spread widely in the building d. Remain airborn for prolonged period
10. The most common form of oral ulcerative disease is:
a Traumatic ulcer b. Herpatic ulcer
c. Pempigus d. None of the above
11. Tobacco should be considered a risk factor when planning for following treatments EXCEPT:
a. Implants b. Periodontal surgery
c. Caries removal and restoration d. Oral surgery
e. Esthetic treatment
12. Transverse fracture of developing teeth in the mixed dentition can be managed by:
a Forced eruption
b. Extraction and placement of a removable partial denture
c. Placement of single tooth
d. All of the above
13. Apexification is procedure that:
a. Finds the most apical stop of the guttpercha in RCT.
b. Induce the formation of a mineral barrier in the apical region of incompletely root.
c. Is new in the endodontic field. Involves the surgical removal of the apical region of the root and
placement of a retrograde filling material
(Use mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) as an artificial root-end barrier)
14. The preferred material used in apexification is:
a. Zinc phosphate cement b. MTA
c. Zinc polycarboxylate cement d. Calcium hydroxide
15. The greater proportion of the dose of a drug administered orally will be absorbed in the small
intestine. However, on the assumption that passive transport of the non ionized form of a
drug determines its rate of absorption, which of the following compounds will be absorbed
to the least extent in the stomach?
a. Ampicillin (pKa = 2.5) b. Aspirin (pKa= 3.0)
c. Warfarin (pKa = 5.0) d. Propranolol (pka= 9.4)
16. in passive agglutination tests following can be used as a carrier particle for coating of antigen
or antibody:
a. Eryhrocytes b. Latex
c. Bantonite d. All of these
Ans: 10.d, 11.c, 12.a, 13.b, 14.b, 15.d, 16.d
17. What’s the most common feature to be found in tailor’s teeth?

a. Abrasion b. Erosion
c. Attrition d. Abfarcation
18. Contra indication of implant
a. Bruxism b. Malignancy
c. Radiation therapy d. All the above
19. Minimum film thickness is the important property of:
a. Silicates b. Glass ionomers
c. Zinc phosphate d. ZO E
20. Dentine hypersensitivity is best relieved or controlled by:
a. Using efficient cooling system
b. Blacking exposed tubules on the dentin surface
c. Opening tubules to permit release of intrapulpal pressure
d. Applying anti-inflammatory agent to exposed dentin
21. HSV1 infection is more dangerous in children than in adults because:
a. Immature calcification b. Wide bone marrow spaces
c. Less immunity d. All the above
22. The most common disease of the submandibular salivary gland is:
a. Salivary stones b. Pleomorphic adenomas
c. Viral sialoadenitis d. Sialoadenitis
23. Neoplasm in angle of the mouth can spread through:
a Submandibular lymph nodes b. Mental lymph nodes
c. Pterygoid plexus d. Jugulo-dlgastrlc nodes
24. Prevalence refers to:
a. Cumulative effects of disease
b. Number of new cases detected
c. Rate of disease transmission
d. Proportion of population affected by a disease.
25. What is the amount of xylocain in mg, in 1.8 ml of LA?
a. 2 mg/ml b. 20 mg/ml
c. 1.8 mg/ml d. 3.6 mg
Ans: 17.a, 18.d, 19.c, 20.b, 21 .b, 22.a, 23.a, 24.d, 25.d
Dento-Gulf - F o r Gulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 29
26. Everything about case control study is true, except:

a Can have only one outcome
b. Substantial biases can occur
c. Relatively less costly and no dropouts.
d. Development of disease in exposed and nonexposed compared.
27. The scientific evidence in dictating that oral lichen planus is a “premalignant Lesion” is:
a. Very strong b. Non-existent
c. Moderately strong d. Weak
28. If a manufacturer wants to test fluoride toothpaste with a stronger formulation than that is
standard, then the standard fluoride toothpaste is called as:
a. Positive control b. Negative control
c. Passive control _ d. Active control
Reference: Burt’s Dentistry Dental Practice and the Community, p 179
29. Cavernous sinus thrombosis patients present with:
a. Proptosis b. Orbital swelling
c. Neurologic signs d. Fever
e. All the above
30. How to reduce the composite polymerization shrinkage?
a. Restore layer by layer b. Use curing light for less time
c. Use curing light for long time d. Use high intensity curing light
31. The packing and sorting of protein is the function of:
a Endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria d. Nucleus
R eference; http://en.wikipedia.ora/wiki/Golai apparatus#Function of a aolai body
32. Dentigerous cyst was lined by:

a. Cuboidal in type b. Stratified squamous in type
c. Reduced enamelepithelium d. All of the above
33. O f all the impressions material, the most commonly used is:
a. Alginates b. Agar- agar
c. Impression plaster d. Impression compound
Ans: 26.d, 27.d, 28.a, 29.e, 30.a, 31 .b, 32.b, 33.a

34. Foramen ovale is in the following bone:

a. Temporal b. Occipital
c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid
The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the fora
men rotundum.
35. Which of the following is best finishing b urin composite restoration?
a. Diamond bur b. Mounted stone
c. Carbide bur d. None of the above
36. Immunofluoroscense is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution in:
a. Lichen planus b. Pemphigus
c. Pemphigoid d. Lupus erythematosus
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathologys, 4th ed, p 813, 844 - -
37. Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration due to all, EXCEPT?
a. No enough bulk of dentine b. Corrosion
c. Over carving d. Under carving
e. Improper manipulation of amalgam
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000, p 157
Amalgams that are corroded or have inadequate bulk to distribute stresses may fracture. At margins,
where amalgams are thinner, extrusion may have occurred, and corrosion may have compromised
the integrity of the amalgam. Fracture is even more likely.
38. Which of the following will have taste receptors?
a. Filliform b. Fungiform
c. Circumvalate d. All the above
39. Odontogenic tumors:
a. Arise from dental tissue b. Can turn malignant but rarely
c. Have specific radiographic features d. All the above
40. The bacteria observed as a causative organism in case of recurrent aphthous ulcers is:
a. Streptococcus sanguis b. Streptococcus mutans
c. Borrelia vincenti d. Staphylococci albus
41. Muscle that forms floor of the mouth:
a. Mylohyoid b. Genioglosses
c. Palatoglossus d. Phrengeo glossus
Ans: 34.c, 35.c, 36.c, 37.d, 38.d, 39.d, 40.a, 41 .a

Paper 29
42. Which causes gingival enlargement?

a. Cyclosporines b. Calcium channel blocker
c. Oral contraceptive d. Phenytoin
e. All the above
43. Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of primary herpetic gingi
vostomatitis?
a. Acyclovir b. Ziduvidine
c. Kenalog in orabase d. All of the above
44. Epithelial cells in tooth development:
a. Proliferate to periapical granuloma b. Entirely disappear after dentinogenesis
c. Rest of malassez decrease with age d. Rest of malassez increase with age
45. Long tooth crown is managed by all of the following except:
a Easily intruded orthodontically b. RCT and crown
c. Crown trimming d. ALLtheabove
46. Pulp testing a tooth with porcelain fused to metal crown is done by which of the following
ways?
a. Cold test b. Hot test
c. Cold and hot d. Cold with rubber dam
47. Overlapping of proximal structures in a periapical radiograph is due to:
a. Incorrect horizontal angulation
b. Incorrect vertical angulation
c. Incorrect vertical angulation but correct horizontal angulation
d. Improper orientation of film
48. Decarbazine has been used for:
a. Non squamous carcinoma b. Squamous carcinoma
c. Melanoma d. Both 1 and 2
Reference: Dhingra's Ear Nose and Throat, p 323
49. Hot oven relative to autoclave:
c. Considerable higher time d. Lower time
(Hot dry oven: 160°C in 2 hours, 200°C in 1 hour.
Autoclave: 127°C in 15-25 minutes, 134°C 3-5 minutes)
Ans: 42.e, 43.a, 44.c, 45.a, 46.d, 47.a, 48.c, 49.c

50. A ll of the following are disadvantages of halothane anesthesia except:

a Has poor analgesic properties.
b. Hepatic dysfunction has been reported.
c. Induces bronchoconstriction, contraindicated in asthmatic patients.
d. Sensitizes heart tissues to adrenaline increasing risk of arrhythmia.
51. Color of normal gingiva in interplay between:
a. Keratin and melanin only
b. Blood vessels and epithelial thickness
c. Keratin, blood vessels, melanin and epithelial thickness
d. Presence of minor salivary glands
52. Torus palatinus commonly occurs in:
a. Anterolateral part of hard palate b. Posterolateral part of hard palate - .
c. On the midline of the hard palate d. None of the above
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed, p 387
53. A patient came to your clinic with severe pain. There is a J-shaped lesion along the root of
RCT tooth in x-ray. What is the diagnosis?
a. Periodontal pocket b. Vertical fracture
c. Lateral canal d. Secondary periodontitis
54. A 7 year old boy came to the clinic with the fracture of the right maxillary central incisor with
large pulp exposure:
a. Pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2 b. Pulptomy with Ca(OH)2
c. Direct pulp capping d. Leave it
(Pulpotomy/ Apexogenesis: In case of healthy pulp tissue small exposure. Pulpectomy: in case of
infected pulp / Large exposure. Apexification: in case of open apex with infected / dead pulp.)
55. An old patient came to replace all old amalgam filling. He had severe occlusal attriation. The
best replacement is:
c. Cast metal restoration d. Full crowns
56. Inferior alveolar nerve block is absolutely contraindicated in patients suffering from one of
the following diseases:
a. Thrombocytopenia b. Hemophilia
c. Hypoprothrombinemia d. Von Willebrand’s disease
Ans: 50.c, 51.c, 52.c, 53.b, 54.a, 55.d, 56.b

Paper 29
57. Difference between Gracey curette and universal curette:

a. Cross section in Gracey is semicircular and in universal is triangular.
b. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has two cutting edges.
c. Gracey has a certain site to work on per instrument, while universal can be applied any where in
the dentition
d. Gracey has offset of 60°, while universal has offset of 90°
e. All of the above.
f. b, c, d
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periodontal curette
(But text books say the angle of gracey is 70 degrees not 60)
58. Mobility of the midface bilateral in frontozygomatic suture:
a. Le Fort III fracture b. Le Fort II fracture
c. Le Fort I fracture d. Zygoma fracture
59. When blocking a nerve containing both motor and sensory fibers, the last functional property
to be lost Is:
a Temperature b. Pain,
c. Proprioception d. Touch
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain Control in General Practice, 7th ed, p 133
60. Rampant caries in adult restore by:
a. Composite b. GIC
c. Amalgam d. Calcium hyroxide
61. Best provisional restoration coverage for anterior teeth is:
a. Tooth colored poly carbonate crown b. Metal crown
c. Acrylic temporary crown d. Ceramic crown
62. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?
a. Xerostomia
b. Air chamber in the midpalate
c. Increased salivary film thickness
d. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
63. A patient came with small trauma of the lower lip and discoloration of his tooth. What is the
name of this condition?
a. Abrasion and Subluxation b. Abrasion and Luxation
c. Laceration and Subluxation d. Laceration and Luxation
64. Metastases from the floor of the mouth are found most commonly in the:
a. Submaxillary lymph node b. Submandibular lymph node
c. Lingual lymph node d. Mental lymph node
Ans: 57.f, 58.a, 59.c, 60.b, 61.a, 62.d, 63.c, 64.a

Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, p 158

65. Treatment of herpangina requires:
a. Oral steroids b. Topical steroids
c. Antioixidants d. No treatment Is required
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology’s
66. To distinguish periapical and periodontal abscess we use:
a. X-ray examination b. Clinical examination
c. Vitality of the pulp d. All the above
67. Dentinal tubules getting blocked by the ppt of hydroxyapatite and white lockite crystals within
the tubules is known as:
a. Dentinal sclerosis b. Pathologic sclerosis
c. Diffuse sclerosis d. Diffuse
68. Radiopacity attached to root of vital non-carlous mandibular molar. wWhatis the diagnosis?
a. Ossifying fibroma. b. Hypercementosis.
c. Periapical cemental dysplasia. d. ossifying cementoma
69. Complete denture poorly fit and inadequate interocclusal relation:
a. Relining b. Rebasing
c. New denture d. None of the above
70. Compared to the preparation for a metal-ceramic crown, the preparation for an all-ceramic
crown requires more reduction on all of the following tooth surfaces, EXCEPT:
a Facial b. Lingual
c. Proximal d. None of the above
Ans: 65.d, 66.c, 67.a, 68.c, 69.c, 70.a

D ento-G utf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 30
1. Cholesterol crystals are found in:

a. Radicular cyst b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Dentigerous cyst d. All the above
2. The distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth is:
a Horizontal overlap b. Vertical overlap
c. Occlusal plane d. All
3. Intermaxillary suture is:
a. Plane suture b. Squamous suture
c. Serrate suture d. Dentate suture
Reference: Zargar's Anatomy for Dental Students, p 39
4. A 45-year-old female being treated for a chronic UTI develops acute alcohol intolerance. Which
of the following agents could have caused this intolerance?
a. Cefaperazone b. Amoxicillin
c. Sulfamethaoxazole-trimethoprim d. Norfloxacin
5. Which root of mandibular 1st molar may show figure 8 shape?
a. Mesial root b. Distal root
c. Both 1 and 2 d. None of the above
6. Which of the following statements about denture adhesive is correct?
a. Carboxyl group provide bio adhesion.
b. Greater water solubility increases duration of adhesion.
c. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion.
d. All the above
7. What is the name of second pharyngeal “brancheal” arches?
a. Maxillary b. Mandibular
c. Hyoid d. None of the above
Anatomy of the Human Body”
The first arch Is named the mandibular, and the second Is hyoid; the others have no distinctive
names. In each arch a cartilaginous bar, consisting of right and left halves, is
developed, and with each of these there Is one of the primitive aortic arches.
Ans: 1 .d, 2.b, 3.a, 4.a, 5.a, 6.d, 7.c, 8.a
8. Which of the following need pit and fissure sealants, as indicated to prevent dental caries In
a. Medically compromised children
b. Physically or mentally disabled
c. Children with extensive caries in their primary teeth should have all permanent molars
d. All the above
9. An 8 year old patient, all first molars carious and suspected pit and fissure areas of the sec
ond molars. Treatment plan is:
a. Restore all first molars and observe second molars.
b. Restore all first molars and topical fluoride on second molars.
c. Restore all first molars and seal pits and fissuresof second molars.
d. Restore first and second molars with composite.
e. Restore first and second molars with amalgam.
Any child with occlusal caries in one first permanent molar should have the fissures of the sound first
permanent molars sealed. Occlusal caries affecting one or more first permanent molars indicates a
need to seal the second permanent molars as soon as they have erupted sufficiently.
10. All of the following undergo hepatic metabolism before excretion except:
a Phenytoln b. Diazepam
c. Penicillin G d. Cimetidine
Reference: K.D. Tripathl’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p 363
11. Alpha feto protein is a marker for:
a Mitochondria b. Golgi apparatus
c. Tumor marker d. None
12. Procedure done before applying pit and fissure sealant:
a Acid etch by phosphoric acid b. Acid itch by polyacrylic acid
c. Place rubber dam d. All the above
13. Syphilis first appearance:
a Multiple vesicle b. Erythematous reaction
c. Ulcer d. Bullae
Ulcerative STDs that cause sores, ulcers, or breaks In the skin or mucous membranes, such as
syphilis, disrupt barriers that provide protection against infections.
14. Tooth fracture during extraction may be occur due to which of the following, except?
a Non vital tooth b. Diabetic patient
c. Improper holding by forceps d. a and c
Ans: 9.c, 10.c, 11.c, 12.a, 13.c, 14.b
Paper 30
15. Amount of reduction in PFM crown:

a. 1.5-2 b. 1.7-2
c. 2-5
The necessary thickness of the metal is 0.5 mm, where as the minimal ceramic thickness is 1.0-1.5
mm.
16. When you punish a child for bad behavior this is called:
a Positive reinforcement. b. Negative reinforcement
c. Learning d. Punishment
Reference: Mcdonald’sDentistry for the Child and Adolescent
17. After taking alginate impression:
a. Pour the cast immediatly
b. Wash with water and spray with sodium hydrochloride for 10 sec
c. Same but wait 5-10 min and then put in sealed plastic bag
d. None all the above
18. The time limit to file a complaint under CPA for a patient is:
a Immediately within 1 month from the date of injury
b. Within 6 months from the date of injury
c. Within 12 months from the date of injury
d. Within 24 months from the date of injury
Reference: Hiremath's Textbook of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p 280
19. Radiographic radioulucency in the interradicular area:
a Invasion of furcation b. Periodontal abcess
c. Periodontal cyst d. Periodontitis
20. The overall blackness or darkness of a film is termed as:
a. Contrast b. Density
c. Overexposure d. Polychromatic
21. A child 12 years old with swelling in the mandibular premolars area, first premolar clinically
missing. In X-ray examination we found radiolucent cover the pericoronal part of the im
pacted premolar. What is that?
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Lateral periodontal cyst
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
d. Primordial cyst
22. In radiographs, which disease cause multiple radiolucencies?
a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Ricket disease d. Odontogenic keratocyst
e. a + d
Ans: 15.a, 16.b, 17.c, 18.d, 19.c, 20.b, 21.a, 22.e
23. All are operating ancillaries, EXCEPT:

a School dental nurse b. Dental therapist
c. Dental hygienist d. Dental surgery assistant
24. Ecchymosis of orbit is the sign of which of the following fractures?
c. TMJ fracture d. Zygomatic fracture
25. Width of attached gingival on facial aspect of mandibular incisor region is:
a 3.1 to 3.5 mm b. 3.3 to 3.9 mm
c. 3.6 to 4.1 mm d. 3.9 to 4.3 mm
26. In primary teeth, the occlusal scheme that leads is to class IIImalocclusion is?
a. Flush terminal b. Mesial step
c. Distal step
27. The chemical component which is absent in bacterial cytoplasmic membrane except myco
plasma is:
a. Glucan b. Mannan
c. Teichoic acid d. Sterol
28. Best pontic is:
a Ridge lap b. Hygiene
c. Saddle d. Modified ridge lap
29. What will be the reason for the pain after class II restoration in young patient?
a. Periodontitis b. Hyperemia
c. Irreversible pulpitis d. Periapical abcess
30. Check the bite of retainer by:
a Wax b. ZOE paste
c. Impression compound d. Articulating paper
31. A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:
a Tuberculosis b. Malignancy
c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Pulmonary infarction
Reference: Harrison’s Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th ed, p 1566
Ans: 23.d, 24.d, 25.b, 26.c, 27.d, 28.b, 29.b, 30.b, 31 .b

D e n to -G u if — F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
Paper 30
32. Patients of heart failure are best treated in:

a. Early morning b. Late morning
c. Afternoon d. Early evening
33. Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is located:
a. Buccaly b. Mesially
c. Distally d. Lingually
34. Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst are differentiated by?
a. Vitality test b. Radiograph
c. Clinical examination d. All the above
Reference: Rosensteil, p 20
Periodontal cyst appears the same as the gingival cvst of the adult.
35. If tooth or root is pushed into maxillary sinus, during surgical extraction, whtch of the follow
ing surgery you will do to remove the root?
a. Willis technique b. Caldwel luc
c. Sinus floor lift d. All the above
36. Gracey curette 11/12 is used for:
a Mesial posterior b. Distal posterior
c. Buccal posterior d. Anterior
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.Qra/wiki/Periodonta! curette
Gracey Curettes 1/2, 3/4,5/6 are used on the anterior sextants of teeth. 7/8 and 9/10 are used on the
buccal and lingual portions of posterior teeth. 11/12 and 15/16 are used on the mesial portions of
posterior teeth. 13/14 and 17/18 are used on the distal portions of posterior teeth.
37. The second cervical vertebrae is:
a Atlas b. Axis
c. Maxillary d. Hyoid
38. The only pharyngeal muscle innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve is the:
a. Stylopharyngeus b. Palatopharyngeus
c. Superior constrictor d. Middle constrictor
Reference: Chaurasia's Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol-lll, p 181,182
39. Anterior pituitary hyperfunction may lead to:
a Class III malocclusion b. Class II malocclusion
c. Class I malocclusion d. 2 or 3
Reference: Scully's Medical Problems in Dentistry, p 96
Ans: 32.b, 33.b, 34.a, 35.b, 36.a, 37.b, 38.a, 39.a

D ento-G uU - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
40. A 21 years old patient who has iron deficiency anemia, difficulty in swallowing. With examina
tion of barium sulphate, you found?
a. Plummer vinson syndrome b. Albright syndrome
c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Buring mouth syndrome
Plummer-Vinson syndrome: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia". 2011.
41. The cause of fracture in amalgam class II restoration is:
a Thin thickness at the marginal ridge b. Wide flared cavity
c. Deep cavity d. All the above
42. On blood clotting heparin acts for:
a. 4 to 6 hours b. 2.8 to 12 hours
c. 3.12 to 16 hours d. 4.16 to 24 hours
43. Broken instrument during RCT. Best prognosis if broken at:
a. Apical 1/3 b. Middle 2/3
c. Cervical 3/3 d. All the above
(In this question prognosis means retrieval of the broken instrument)
44. Weightlessness in space travel cause:
a. Difficulty in deglutition b. Decreased motility of colon
c. Arterial hypotension d. Demineralization of bone
45. Pulp stone can be the following EXCEPT:
a. Present freely in the pulp
b. Cause discomfort and pain to the patient
c. In radiographs,Small spheroidal radioopaque
d. False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin
46. In onlay, stopping of cusp is 1.5-2 mm:
a. True b. False
47. Biotin is essential for:
a. Translation b. Carboxylation
c. Hydroxylation d. Transamination
48. African jaw lymphoma is another name of:
a Nodular lymphoma b. Primary lymphatic lymphoma
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. Hodgkin's lymphoma
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology’s, p 255
Ans: 40.a, 41 .a, 42.a, 43.c, 44.d, 45.b, 46.a, 47.b, 48.c
Paper 30
49. Granuloma is pathological feature of all, EXCEPT:

a. Giant cell arteritis b. Microscopic polyangitis
c. Wegner's granulomatosis d. Churg strauss disease
50. The fundamental rule in endodontic emergencies is:
a. Give antibiotic b. Control pain by inflammatory non steroid,
c. Diagnosis is certain d. All the above
51. Patient comes with bristle even on mucous membrane, Nikolsky’s sign is positive. What will
be your diagnosis?
a. Pemphigus vulgaris b. Bullos pemphigoid
c. Lichen planus d. None of the above
Reference: Emergency Medicine Manual. McGraw Hill. 2004.
52. Post graduate students use MTA. The prognosis depends on:
a. Prevent immediate suture b. Disturbance during closure of wound,
c. Using a flab d. All the above
53. Macrophages are found in:
a. Phase of scar formation b. Phase of repair
c. Late phase of inflammation d. Early phase of inflammation
Reference: Taylor's Family Medicine: Principles and Practice, 3rd ed, p 41
54. Among the reasons that molar teeth are more difficult to treat endodontically than anterior
teeth:
a. Molar have more complex canal configuration
b. Molar tend to have greater canal curvature
c. a and b
55. A patient with cleft lip and cleft palate with missing of teeth. TNs is present with:
a. Treacher Collins syndrome b. Van Der woude syndrome
c. Ectodermal dysplasia d. All the above
56. A patient has a palatal torus on hard and soft palate. The major connector of choice is:
a. Anteroposterior palatal strap b. U shaped
c. Posterior palatal strap d. H shaped
57. Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between Streptococcus?
a. Fermentation test b. Catalase test
c. Amylase test d. Sugar test
>lns;49.b, 50.c, 51 .a, 52.b, 53.d, 54.c, 55.b, 56.b, 57.a

Fermentation = differential between types of streptococi

Catalase = streptococi activity
58. A 55 year old patient needs multiple extractions. After extraction what will you do first:
a. Suturing b. Primary closure should be obtained
c. Alveoplasty should be done in all cases d. All the above
59. Formation of granulation tissue is due to:
a. Thrombosed vessels b. Budding of new capillaries
c. Mucosal proliferation d. Infiltration of cells
60. A patient with complete denture complains from tightness of denture in morning, then be
come good. This is due to:
a. Relief denture b. Lack of check elasticity
c. Poor post dam d. Overextension
Because there may be pressure points or areas that the tissues will try to adjust to it throughout the
day.
61. Which cells are infected by HIV most often?
a. CD 4 T-lymphocytes b. Null cells
c. CD8 T-lymphocytes d. B-cells
62. Wickham’s striae present in which of the following?
a. Pemphegus b. Bullas pemphogoid
c. Lichen planus d. Apthous ulcer
63. Which of the following results may be expected following surgery when both buccal and
lingual cortical plates have been lost?
a. Ankloyosis b. Osteocementosis
c. Normal bone regeneration d. Scar tissue formation
64. Collagen fibrils’ found in intertubular dentin are of:
a Type III b. Type I
c. Type II d. Type IV
65. Occlusal splint device:
a Increase vertical dimension b. Decrease vertical dimension
c. Reduce muscle activity d. All
66. Lingual bar contraindication:
a Short lingual sulcus b. Long lingual sulcus
c. Too crowded lower anterior teeth d. None of the above
Ans: 58.c, 59.b, 60.a, 61 .a, 62.c, 63.d, 64.b, 65.a, 66.a
Paper 30
67. The Ideal crown-to-root ratio of a tooth be utilized as a bridge abutment is:
a. 3:1 b. 2:1
c. 1:2 d. 1:1
Minimum acceptable crown : root ratio 1:1, but ideal is 1:2
68. What type pontic design would you prefer in a patient with a high esthetic demand?
a. Ridge lap b. Saddle pontic
c. An ovate pontic d. Modified ridge lap pontic
69. Phoenix abscess is a acute exacerbation of which of the following?
a. Chronic apicalabscess b. Chronic periodontitis
c. Chronic pulpitis d. None of above
70. A highly ionized drug:
a Is excreted mainly bythe kidney b. Can cross the placenta easily
c. Is well absorbed from theIntestine d. Accumulates In the lipids
Reference: K.D. Trlpathl's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 14,18,26
Ans: 67.c, 68.d, 69.a, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER 31
1. A patient presents with slightly painful white lesions of oral mucosa which when wiped off
shows the red surface underneath. The patient is on penicillin therapy for last 12 weeks. The
most likely diagnosis of lesion is:
a Actinomycosis b. Candidiasis
c. Lichen planus d. Leukoplakia
2. Which one of the following acts to increase the release of Ca~ from endoplasmic reticulum?
a. Inositol triphosphate b. Parathyroid hormone

c. 1, 25-dihydroxycholcalciferol d. Diacyl glycerol
3. Pulp stone can be the following:
a Present freely in the pulp
b. In radiographs,Small spheroidal radioopaque
c. False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin
d. All the above
‘Suck back’ porosity is due to:
a. Attached impurities on undersurface of casting
b. Hotspot
c. No rapid cooling
d. Inadequate melting temperature
Gracey curette 5/6 is used for:
a Mesial posterior b. Distal posterior
c. Buccal posterior d. Anterior
6. The optic foramen canal is a part of:
a. Frontal bone b. Sphenoid bone
c. Esthmoid bone d. Temporal
The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal. The superior surface of the sphenoid bone.
7. The average distance between the lingual surface of the maxillary anterior teeth and the buc
cal surface of the mandibular anterior teeth is:
a. 1/2 mm b. 1 mm
c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
Ans: 1.b, 2.a, 3.d, 4.b, 5.d, 6.b, 7.c

I
Paper 31
8. Which of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal and greater wing of sphe
noid bone?
a. Pterion b. Lambda
c. Vertex d. Inion
Reference: Chaurasia-Anatomy for Dental Students, p 133
9. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is to maintain:
a. The occlusal plane b. Vertical dimension
c. Tentative centric relation d. Face low transfer
e. Placement of the teeth f. All the above
10. The component that sensitizes bacteria and viruses to UV radiations:
a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates
c. Inorganic salts d. Nucleic acids
11. Occipito mastoid suture is between:
a. Occipital and temporal bone b. Frontal and parietal bone
c. Occipital and parietal bone d. Occipital and tympanic bone
12. The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray:
c. Myxoma d. All the above
Reference: White and Pharaoh, Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, 4th ed, p 386-389
13. The most used technique with children:
a. TSD b. Hand over mouth
c. Positive reinforcement d. Punishment
14. Chronic pericoronitis:
a. Difficult mouth opening b. Halitosis
c. Pain d. All of the above.
15. What is the basis for the current endodontic therapy of periapical lesion?
a. Due to reach collateral circulation system, the periapical area usually heals despite the condition
of the root canal.
b. If the pulpal source of periapical irritation is removed, the potential for complete periapical healing
is present.
c. Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilize the canal and the periapical area to pro
mote healing.
d. Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst must be treated by surgical intervention.
16. Acute periapical abscess is characterized by:
a. Varying degree of pain
b. Varying degree of swelling
c. Some time not shown on the radiograph
d. All the above
Ans: 8.a, 9.f, 10.d, 11.a, 12.d, 13.a, 14.d, 15.b, 16.d
17. The primary mechanism of action of fluoride on topical applications is:

a Conversions of hydroxyapatite by replacing the OH ions
b. Inhibition of plaque bacteria
c. Increases anaerobic bacteria
d. Improves the tooth morphology
18. The occlusal reduction for all metal veneer crowns should be:
a. Be as flat as possible to enable easy fabrication of occlusal anatomy.
b. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance ranging froml to 1.5 mm with the opposing
dentition.
c. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0.5 mm with the opposing
dentition.
d. Be the last step in tooth preparation.
19. Heparin is the commonly used aricoagulant in cardiac surgery. All the following are true
about heparin except:
a. Weakest acid found in living beings.
b. Most commercial preparations of heparin now utilize pig Intestinal slimes.
c. Act via antithrombin activation
d. Produce thrombocytoplnea.
Reference: K.D. Trlpathl’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p 561,562
20. Which of the following burs would you prefer to use for preparation a slot for the retention of
an extensive amalgam restoration on the maxillary molar?
a. Number 5 round bur b. Number 58 fissure bur
c. Number 558 fissure bur d. Number 35 inverted cone bur
21. Which of the following material has been shown to stimulate reparative dentine formation
most effectively when applied to the pulpal wall of a very deep cavity?
a. Copallte varnish b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Zinc phosphate cement d. Glass inomer cement
22. Histamine headache/ histamine cephalgia is nothing but:
a. Hunter's syndrome b. Horton’s syndrome
c. Eagle’s syndrome d. Moblus syndrome
23. When the x-ray tube is operated above 50 KUP, the x-ray source skin distance must not be
less than:
a. 4 Inches b. 7 Inches
c. 12 Inches d. 16 Inches
Ans: 17.a, 18.b, 19.a, 20.d, 21 .b, 22.b, 23.b
£
Paper 31
24. In arthography which view is made?

a. Transcranial b. Transorbital
c. Transpharyngeal d. None of the above
25. The process of positioning or arranging teeth on the denture base is termed as:
a. Casting b. Investing
c. Setting up d. Flasking
26. ‘Cambium layer’ is seen in:
a. Botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma b. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
27. Important functions must be considered when arranging anterior teeth:
a. Aesthetics b. Incision
c. Phonetics d. All
28. Which is surface of the central incisor that contacts the median line:
a. Distal b. Mesial
29. The disadvantage of three fourth crown:
a. Compromised esthetics b. More tooth reduction
c. Inadequate retention d. Biomechanical compatibility
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontlcs, 1st ed, p 599
30. The mandibular posterior tooth that has no contact with any maxillary teeth during the bal
ancing occlusion is:
a. First bicuspid b. Second bicuspid
c. First m ola r— d. Second molar
31. A patient presented to you complaining of pain and tensed muscle at TMJ area. When he
opens his mouth it deviates to the right side, but the patient does not complain of clicking.
What is the diagnosis:
a. Internal derangement with reduction
b. Internal derangement without reduction
c. Reumatoid arthritis
This Is due to anterior disc displacement TMJ without reduction.
A displaced disc without reduction will result in mandibular deviation to the affected side.
A n s:24.a, 25.c, 26.a, 27.d, 28.b, 29.c, 30.a, 31 .b

D e n to 'G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
32. Dental floss is used to prevent:

a. Discolouration of teeth b. Sensitivity in teeth
c. Caries in teeth d. Interproximal plaque formation
33. Discoloration of the tooth under big amalgam restoration can be preventeded by:
a Using cavity varnish b. Using correct alloy: mercury ratio
c. Using zinc phosphate cement base d. Washing the prepared cavity with NaCI
34. Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder typically characterized by each of the follow
ing EXCEPT:
a. Accompanied by mucosal lesion b. Burning pain in multiple oral sites
c. Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain d. Persistent altered taste perception
It is a chronic orofacial pain, unaccompanied by mucosal lesions or other evident clinical signs upon
examination.
35. A dental assistant holds the hand instrument to be transferred to the dentist between the:
a. Thumb and palm b. Thumb and forefinger
c. Small finger and palm d. Small finger and ring finger
36. The choice of local anesthesia depends on:
a. Diameter of the nerve b. Structure of the bone
c. Number of branches d. Type of L.A agent chemistry.
Chemical structure of local anesthesia will decide what type of LA we want to give to patient.
37. Choice of local anesthesia technique is influenced by:
a. Chemical composition of anesthesia b. The location of the nerve
c. Bone structure d. All the above
Bone structure of maxilla and mandible will decide the technique of LA adminstration.
38. In porcelain we should do good condensation, why?
a. To get proper shade b. Reduce porosity
c. Increase the strength d. Increase its properties
39. Cusp that causes food impaction is called:
a. Plunger cusp b. Talon cusp
c. Plumber cusp d. Traumatic cusp
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 10th ed, p 178
40. Third heart sound is seen in all, EXCEPT:
a. Athletes b. Mitral stenosis
c. Constrictive pericarditis d. LVF
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed
Ans: 32.d, 33.a, 34.a, 35.b, 36.d, 37.c, 38.b, 39.a, 40.a
Paper 31
41. Hypercementum:
a. Occur in Pa jet’s disease b. Difficult to extract
c. Bulbous root d. Easy to manage by elevator
e. a and b f. a and d
g. All the above
Hypercementosls increases the difficulty of tooth removal.
Dental Secrets, Stephen T. Sonis, p 113
If hypercementosis Is present, the periodontal ligament space Is visible around the added cementum;
that is, the cementum Is contained within and Is surrounded by the periodontal ligament space.
42. Zinc If added to amalgam:
a. Increases moisture sensitivity and cause expansion
b. Increase marginal integrity and longevity than zinc free amalgam
c. a + b.
Reference: Sturdevanfs Art and Science of Operative Dentistry Dentistry, p 155
Fundmental of Operative Dentistry, p 341
Zinc added o amalgam to enhance mechanical proprieties, reduce marginal fracture and prolong
service of Rx. Zinc tend to oxide preferentially forming a zinc oxide that cover surface of alloy and
suppress oxidation of other elements
Side effect of zinc is moisture contamination in low copper amalgam
43. Distal surface for first upper premolar,contact with the neighbor teeth :
a. In the middle with buccal vastness wider than lingual
b. In the middle with lingual vastness wider than buccaly
c. Mesial contact in the middle third
d. Contact more cervical but still in middle third
e. The crown is little narrower in lingual than buccal
Reference: Wheeler's Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, 6th ed
44. WNch of the following canals in # 14 is most difficult to locate:
a. Palatal b. Distobuccal
c. Mesiobuccal d. All of above
45. Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth that touches the lingual surface of the maxillary
anterior teeth in normal centric relation?
a. Central incisor b. Lateral incisor
c. Cuspid d. None.
Ans: 41.e, 42.c, 43.a, 44.c, 45.d

For CD (artificial teeth) no contact should be between anterior teeth.

Natural dentition - All anterior teeth contact the lingual surface of opposing anterior teeth.
46. The width of the lower teeth is:
a. of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship.
b. 1/3 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship.
c. 3/4 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship
d. None
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, 6th ed
Mand Cl considerably narrower than max Cl on average only 5\8 or 62% as wide.
47. A child with mental disorder sufferring from orofacial trauma was brought to the hospital by
his parents. The child is in panic and irritable. The treatment should done under:
a Local anesthesia b. General anesthesia
c. Gas sedation d. Intravenous sedation
48. Fracture before 1 year of upper central incisor reach the pulp in 8 year old child. How will you
manage this case?
a. R C T b. Apexification
c. Direct pulp capping d. Indirect pulp capping
49. A student, comes to clinic with severe pain. Clinical examination shows interdental papilla is
inflamed. That student has exams after 2 days. He is a heavy smoker, and has poor nutrition
also. What will be your diagnosis?
a. Gingivitis b. ANUG
c. Periodontitis d. AHGS
50. Ideally, what control tooth/ teeth should be utilized when testing a suspected pulpally in
volved tooth:
a. Adjacent teeth only b. Opposing teeth and adjacent teeth
c. Contralateral tooth and opposing teeth d. Adjacent teeth and contralateral tooth
Reference: National Board Dental Examination-Dec 1978
51. A 10 years old patient comes with necrotic pulp in upper central with root apex. Not close, yet
best treatment is:
a Calcium hydroxide-calcific barrier b. Apexfication with gutta percha filling
c. Gutta percha filling-calcific barrier d. Extraction
52. A child with 10 years age came with trauma on the center incisor from ayear ago, and have
discoloring on it . On the examination, no vitality in this tooth, and in the x-ray there is frac
ture from the edge of the incisal to the pulp, and wide open apex. The best treatment is:
a. Calcification b. RCT with gutta percha
c. Extraction d. Capping
Ans: 46.d, 47.b, 48.b, 49.b, 50.d, 51 .a, 52.a
D en to-G uff - F or G ulf C o u n tries L ic e n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
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Paper 31
53. After falling from school steps, the child has tooth which have no mobility but have contu
sion. Best treatment is:
a. Acrylic splint b. Non rigid fixation
c. Rigid fixation d. No treatment
If lateral luxation and no mobility, reestablish previous - occlusion, then apply non rigid fixation with an
adjacent tooth.
If luxation as in contusion no, treatment. Only if primary, consider intrusive luxation and pressure over
the tooth bud of the permanent.
54. A patient comes with tooth trauma. He brought the fracture segment of the tooth along with
him. On examination you found that the pulp is not exposed and only you can see dentine.
How do you manage this?
a. To get rid of the fragment & fill with composite
b. To reattach the fragment with composite and later cover with veneer
c. Fill with GIC
d. No treatment needed
55. In classical Begg mechanotherapy, bite opening is primarily effected in:
a. Stage I b. Stage 11
c. Stage III d. Stage IV
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics the Art and Science, 3rd ed, p 322
56. A 28 years male with soft tissue and dental trauma reveals severe pain in soft tissues with
loss of epithelial layers and anterior upper centrals are intruded. The diagnosis is:
a. Abrasion with luxation b. Errosion with sub luxation
c. Ulceration with luxation d. Ulceration with subluxation
57. In puperty, Albright precocious syndrome is suspected If the following features are present:
a. Eagle syndromeautonomous b. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
c. Unilateral Cafe-au-lait spots d. All the above
Eagle syndrome is a rare condition where an elongated temporal styloid process (more than 30 mm)
is in conflict with the adjacent anatomical structures. Can present with unilateral sore throat, dysph
agia, tinnitus, unilateral facial and neck pain, and otalgia.
58. Complete denture in centric occlusion is normal but in eccentric occlusion of the lower ante
rior teeth and upper anterior are interfere with. The contact:
a Reduction of mandibular incisor
b. Reduction of maxillary incisor
c. Reduction of lingual inclination of maxillary incisior
d. Palatal surface of maxillary teeth
e. Reduction of labio incisal of lower anterior
Reference: Deepak Nailaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p 759
Ans: 53.d, 54.b, 55.a, 56.c, 57.d, 58.e

59. Histopathologically, early verrcus carcinoma has characteristic microscopic features:

a. Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
b. Can be confused with lichen planus
c. Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
d. It could be similar to papilloma
It is characterized by wide and elongated rete ridges that appear to push into underlying C T (bulbous
rete ridges).
60. Effect o f pacifier and digit sucking:
a. Anterior open bite flaring maxillary incisors
b. Retruded and crowded mandibular incisors
c. Posterior cross bite, anterior displaced maxilla, and retruded mandible
d. All the above
61. What is the test name for detecting the virulent of bacteria spirochete?
a. Hemolysis b. Catalase
c. Amylase d. Fermentation
62. Unit of radioactivity is:
a. Curie b. Candle
c. Lux d. Roentgen
63. Class II amalgam restoration with deep caries, the patient comes with localized pain related
to it after 3 months due to:
a Undetected pulp horn exposure
b. Over occlusion
c. Moisture contamination during the restoration
d. All the above
64. Dylantin should not be given with:
a. Azoles b. Metronidazole
c. a + b d. None of the above
65. The basic function of anterior teeth is:
a. Aesthetic b. Incision
c. Phonetic d. All of the above
66. A patient on antibiotic therapy for scarlet fever develops white plaques on his oral mucosa
which when scraped with tongue blade leaves a painful bleeding surface. Most probable
diagnosis is:
a. Blastomycosis b. Candidiasis
c. Herpes simplex infection d. Syphilis
Ans: 59.c, 60.d, 61.b, 62.a, 63.c, 64.c, 65.d, 66.b

Dento-Gulf - F o r Gulf Countries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 31
67. Paralysis is because o f damage to motor neural pathways leading to:

a. Upper motor neuron b. Lower motor neuron
c. Either 1 or 2 d. Both 1 and 2
Reference: Zargar’s Anatomy for Dental Students, p 27
68. Tooth with full ceramic crown need RCT. You did the RCT through the crown. What is the best
restoration to maintain the resistance of the crown?
a. Amalgam b. Composite
c. GIC d. Zinc phosphate
Amalgam for anterior and posterior PFM
Composite for tooth-colored crown
69. Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through:
a. Foramen rotundum b. Inferior orbital fissure
c. Foramen ovale d. Superior orbital fissure
70. ‘Hydrocar is a type______ gypsum product?
a. Type II b. Type III
c. Type IV d. Type V
Ans: 67.c, 68.b, 69.d, 70.b

D e n to -G u tf - F or G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
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MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 32
1. in case of multiple teeth extraction, which teeth have to be extracted, last?

a. Maxillary incisors b. Mandibular incisors
c. Maxillary canines d. Mandibular canines
Reference: NeellmaAnil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 118
2. The lining of blood vessels in brain is by:
a Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes
c. Ependymal cells d. None
3. Provisional cement — main advantage is:
a Prevent leakage and caries b. Prevent dlslodgement of the restoration
4. A patient with sialolithiasis. We want to take x-ray with ordinary film in order show the stone.
We should:
a. Take x-ray in the same way as usual b. Increase the intensity of x-ray
c. Decrease the Intensity of the xray d. None of the above
5. Which material undergoes hysteriasis?
a. Irreversible hydrocolloid b. Reversible hydrocolloid
c. Impression plaster d. Metallic oxide paste
6. The process of annealing gold foil is more commonly referred to as:
a. Pickling b. Tempering
c. Compacting d. Degassing
7. Anterior vibrating line is recorded when patient says ‘ah’ in:
a. Short, vigorousbursts b. Long, vigorous bursts
c. Short, unexaggerated manner d. Long, unexaggerated manner
8. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to:
a. Pleomorphlsm
b. Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
c. Penicillin analogue production
d. Lack of nucleic acid In the cell wall
Ans: 1.d, 2.b, 3.a, 4.a, 5.b, 6.d, 7.a, 8.b

Paper 32
ft A patient came to you with severe pain and symptoms of acute apical abcess. The most
important aspect of treating this patient is:
a. Prescribing antibiotics b. Releif of pain
c. Drainage of pus by incision d. Removal of necrotic debris from root canal
10. Gingival retraction cord:
a. Gingival retraction cord is placed for 5 min
b. It give mechano chemical retraction
c. Used to record accurate impression details
d. All the above
11. In FPD, the pain normally occurs in abutment tooth because of:
a. Hypersensitivity b. Trauma from occlusion
c. Galvanic current d. All the above
12. Edema is caused by which organisam?
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus mutans
c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Lactobacillus
13. Which of the following statements is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome?
a. Mainly affects young females
b. Is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits as grinding and clenching.
c. Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition.
d. The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic.
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed, p 1022,1023
14. Maxillo facial accident patient transferd in which postion?
a. Lateral position b. Supine position
c. Inclined position d. Declined position
15. Bennett angle is:
a. The angle between sagittal condylar path and Frankfurt plane.
b. The angle which the path of balancing side condyle makes with the sagittal plane during lateral
excursion.
c. Measured by using a face bow.
16. What is C factor?
a. Ratio of bonded to unbounded prepared tooth surface
b. Ratio of unbonded to bounded prepared tooth surface
c. a + b
17. Patient had pulp capping two months back but no radiographic changes are observed after 2
months. Reason could be:
a) Apical periodontitis b) Secondary apical periodontitis
c) Pulpitis d) Periodontal abcess
Ans: 9.d, 10.d, 11.b, 12.a, 13.d, 14.a, 15.b, 16.a, 17.c
18. Which of the following is the feature of hyperplastic candidosis?

a. Caused by Candida b. Can lead to carcinoma
c. Appears as white patches d. All the above
Chronic hyperplastic candidosis/candidiasis (CHC; syn. candidal leukoplakia) is a variant of oral
candidosis that typically presents as a white patch on the commissures of the oral mucosa. The
major étiologie agent of the disease Is the oral fungal pathogen Candida, predominantly belonging
to Candida albicans, although other systemic co-factors, such as vitamin deficiency and generalized
Immune suppression, may play a contributory role. Clinically, the lesions are symptomless and re
gress after appropriate antifungal therapy and correction of underlying nutritional or other deficien
cies. If the lesions are untreated, a minor proportion may demonstrate dysplasia and develop Into
carcinoma. This review outlines the demographic features, etiopathogenesis, immunological fea
tures, hlstopathology, and the role of Candida in the disease process. In the final part of the review,
newer molecular biological aspects of the disease are considered together with the management
protocols that are currently available, and directions for future research.
19. Implant is contraindicated in which patient?
a. Uncontrolled type II diabetes b. Controlled diabetics
c. Patient with cardiac problem d. More than 3 tooth missing
All kinds of dental surgical procedures are contraindicated for uncontrolled diabetes.
20. In HIV patient, the implant will be a failure, why?
a. Patient Immune level is low b. More chance of infection
c. Bone healing will be less d. None of the above
21. The drug which induces gingival enlargement except:
a Phenatoin b. Nefidipaine
c. Mafenamic acid d. Cyclosporine
Anticonvulsants, such as phenytoin, phénobarbital, lamotrigine, valproate, vigabatrin, ethosuximide,
topiramate and primidone calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, amlodlplne, and verapamil.
The dihydropyrldlne derivative Isradlpldlne can replace nifedipine and does not induce gingival over
growth. cyclosporine, an Immunosuppresant.
Of all cases of DIGO, about 50% are attributed to phenytoin, 30% to cyclosporins and the remaining
10-20%) to calcium channel blockers.
22. Penicillin allergy patient— which is the drug
a. Erythromycin b. Azithromycin
c. Clarithromycin d. All the above
23. In orthodontics, the buccal canine retractor is an examble for intra oral intra arch anchorage:
a. True b. False
Reference: Bhalajl Orthodontics the Art and Science, p 208
Ans: 18.d, 19.a, 20.a, 21 .c, 22.d, 23.b

P a p e r 32
(It’s a examble for active appliance, not for anchorage. Anchorage can be given by clasps, labial
bows and base plate)
24. Primary dentist can treat all except:
a. Minor tooth movement b. Multiple complex malocclusion
c. Removable appliance d. Don’t remember
25. The external shape of an initial class V carious lesion in enamel is related to the:
a. Lines of Retzius b. Contour of the gingival
c. Number of enamel tufts d. Enamel lamella in the lesion
26. If laryngospam occurs at the time of GA, than patient should be ventilated with:
a. 70% oxygen b. 80% oxygen
c. 90% oxygen d. 100% oxygen
27. An early sign of oxygen want is:
a. Constricted pupils b. Bradycardia
c. Tachycardia d. Cyanosis
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, Apr/dec, 1979
28. Most common skin cancer
a Sqamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. None of the above
29. Class II amalgam restoration failure will be prevented by:
a. Axial line angle will be round/beveled b. Removal of unsupported enamel in cavosurface
c. Dough tail d. All the above
30. Breakdown of periodontal fibers in periodontitis is due to bacterial enzyme:
a. Collagenase b. Hyaluronidase
c. Coagulase d. None of the above
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 10th ed, p 233
31. Measuring mandibular rest position the head should be in poistion:
a. Head upright position without any support b. Head with mandibular support
c. Lying position d. None of the above
32. Poly ether impression material is most preffered by many dentist, reason?
a. Dimensionally stable b. Most accurate impression
c. High stiffness d. All the above
Ans: 24.b, 25.b, 26.d, 27.c, 28.b. 29.d, 30.a, 31 .a, 32.b
33. The density or the overall darkening of a radiograph depends on all except:
a. Thickness of the object b. Quality and quantity of x-rays
c. Cone angulation d. Velocity of electrons emitted from the cathode
34. Modified ridge lap pontic is better than ridge lap pontic in:
a. Gingival contact b. Aesthetics
c. Self cleaning d. a + b
35. Reciprocal arm of cast partial denture:
a. Resists lateral movement of the prosthesis
b. Resists potential orthodontic movement of the abutment
c. Counteracts the force produce by clasp
d. All the above
Reciprocal Arm - Functions:
- Resists lateral movement of the prosthesis
- Resists potential orthodontic movement of the abutment tooth generated by the retentive arm
during placement and removal of the RPD.
36. Indirect retainer of distal extension RPD. Role in RPD?
a. Provide retension b. Prevent displacement form rotational force
c. Work opposite side of fulcrum line d. All the above
Indirect Retainer
(Class I and II RPD ’s only)
Definition: “The component of a removable partial denture that assists the direct retainer(s) in pre
venting displacement of the distal extension denture base by functioning through lever action on the
side opposite of the fulcrum line when the denture base moves away from the tissues in pure rotation
around the fulcrum line."
Indirect Retainer
Effectiveness and Placement:
Usually it is a rest seat placed anterior the the fulcrum line on the side opposite the extension base.
Theoretically, the further anterior the rest seat is placed the more effective it is. The rest seat is
usually located on a canine or first premolar mesial fossae.)
37. Wide pulp chamber is present in:
a Dentinogensis imperfect b. Reginal odonto dysplasia
c. Amelgeneis imperfect d. Dentinal dysplasia
Ans: 33.c, 34.d, 35.d, 36.d, 37.a

P a p e r 32
38. The patients with class II division I malocclusion have:

a. Hypertonic lower lip b. Hypotonic lower lip
c. Hypertonic upper lip d. Hypotonic upper lip
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics the Art and Science, 3rd ed, p 71
39. A child with absence of primary and permanent teeth, and no history of extraction:
a. Achondroplasia b. Dentinogenis imperfect
c. Paget disease d. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
40. Acroparesthesia is also called as:
a. Anesthesia b. Hyperesthesia
c. Paraesthesia d. Coma
Reference: Zargar's Anatomy for Dental Students, p 13
41. Spheno mandibular ligament:
a. Attached with spina angularis b. Attached with lingula
c. Attached with anterior border of ramus d. a + b
The sphenomandibular ligament (internal lateral ligament) is a flat, thin band which is attached supe
riorly to the spina angularis (spine) of the sphenoid bone, and, becoming broader as it descends, is
fixed to the lingula of the mandibular foramen.
42. The distension movement of the mandible in an inferior direction is limited by:
a. Spheno mandibular ligament b. Stylo mandibular ligament
c. Coracoclavicular ligament d. Mylohyoid
The function of the sphenomandibular ligament is to limit distension of the mandible in an inferior
direction.
43. Action of LA in nerve ending:
a Stop transporting sodium from extra nervous layer to intra nervous
b. Stop sodium transport form intra nervous from extra nervous layer
c. Stop calcuim transport form intra nervous from extra nervous layer
d. Stop potasium transport form intra nervous from extra nervous layer
44. Epstein barr virus in:
a. Burkit lymphoma b. Hodgkin's lymphoma
c. Infectious mono neucliolis d. All the above
(It is best known as the cause of infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever). It is also associated with
particular forms of cancer, such as Hodgkin's lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carci
noma, and conditions associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) such as hairy leuko
plakia and central nervous system lymphomas. There is evidence that infection with the virus is
associated with a higher risk of certain autoimmune diseases, especially dermatomyositis, systemic
lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and multiple sclerosis)
Ans: 38.d, 39.d, 40.c, 41 .d, 42.a, 43.a, 44.d

45. The stock tray with handle solder at 175 degree will be best sterilized by:
a. Autoclave b. Heat sterilization
c. Chemical sterilization d. Ultraviolet chamber
46. A radiograph shows a accerssory canal in middle third of the upper central incisor with peri
apical transluceny in the accessory canal. RCT has been done and obturated, but there is no
material in that accessory canal. What will you do?
a. Redo RCT and do special tech to fill the accessory canal
b. Surgically resect the root at the accesory canal level
c. Surgically clean the root surface
d. Wait and observe for next 6 to 12 months
47. At the cervical cross-section the maxillary first premolar has which characteristic shape:
a. Horseshoe shaped b. Dumb bell shape
c. Kidney shape d. Oval shape
48. Before cementing the PFM crown with GIC the dentin of the abutment tooth will be:
a. Etched with phosphoric acid
b. Etched and dentin bonding has applied
c. No need for any dentin treatment in GIC
d. Resin GIC and resin resoration in PFM and full ceramic crown cementation..
49. Which one of the following is not indicated for pedo patient?
a. Resin-bonded partial dentures b. Osseointegrated implants
c. Traditional fixed partial dentures d. Removable partial dentures
50. Insulin, epinephrine, glucagons collectively influence:
a Glyconeogenesis b. Glycerophosphate shuttle
c. Glycolysis d. Glycogenolysis and glycogenesis
51. Dentigerous cyst will prevent eruption of teeth by:
a. Apply negative pressure on the tooth b. Push the tooth towards the bone
c. Affect the blood supply of the tooth d. All the above
52. Which of the following is the feature of internal resorption?
a. RCT will control it b. Initiated with trauma
c. Unknown etiology d. All of the above
(Internal resorption: The cause can sometimes be attributed to trauma to the tooth, but other times
there is known etiology. If the condition is discovered prior to perforation of the crown or root has
occurred, endodontic therapy (root canal therapy) may be carried out with the expectation of a fairly
high success rate.)
Ans: 45.a, 46.d, 47.c, 48.b, 49.b, 5Q.d, 51.b, 52.d

Paper 32
53. All the permanent teeth have a tendency to erupt occlusaly and:
a. Buccally b. Mesially
c. Distally d. Lingually
(The upper permanent molars develop in the maxillary tuberosity with their occlusal surfaces facing
distally and bucally as well as occlusally.)
54. A patient with diuretics medication for his cardiac problem. What will be his cardiac prob
lem?
a. Congestive heart failure b. Ml
c. Valvular diease d. Hypertension
55. Trimus is present due to the infection of pharengeal space. TNs will irritate the muscle?
a. Medial pterycoid b. Lateral pterycoid
c. Masseter d. Posterior pherengeal
56. Shuttle responsible for transport of NADH from cytosol to mitochondria:
a. Glycerol- phosphate shuttle b. Malate aspartate shuttle
57. Which vitamin will be the reason for collegen fibre production?
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin A
58. TMJ articulating surface is covered with:
a. Hyaline cartilage b. Elastic cartilage
c. Fibrous cartilage d. All the above
(The articular surfaces of the TMJ are covered by fibrocartilage rather than hyaline cartilage as in a
typical synovial joint).
59. Bone graft from different animal is called?
a. Xenograft b. Allograft
c. Autograft d. hetero graft
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.orQ/wiki/Xenograft
Xenograft bone substitute has its origin from another animal.
60. Chlorexidine mechanism of action against the micro organism:
a Membrane disruption b. Protein coagulation
c. Cell wall destruction d. None of the above
Chlorexidine - it has both bactericidal and bacteriostatic mechanisms of action, the mechanism of
action being membrane disruption.
Ans: 53.a, 54.a, 55.a, 56.c, 57.a, 58.c, 59.a, 60.a

61. Use of tripod in surveyor:

a. Identify the undercut and insertion path for RPD
b. Design the FPD
c. Select the major connector
d. Helps to create balanced occlusion
62. Facebow transfer is used for:
a. Occlusal plane b. Vertical height
c. Overjet d. Balanced occlusion
63. Hypovolemic shock— first symptom will be:
a. Tachycardia b. Vasoconstriction
c. Hypotension d. Bradycardia
64. Coolent used for minor surgeries involving bone cutting with burs:
a. Saline used as coolent and irrigant
b. Water areosal is enough in minor surgeries
c. NaOCI used as coolent
d. No need for coolent in minor surgeries
65. To compare observations made at two different sites in the same body, the test of signifi
cance used is:
a. Paired Y test b. Unpaired *t’ test
c. Chi-Square test d. ANOVA
Reference: Mahajan and Gupta’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p 127,147
66. Non keratized epthiliem is present in:
a Sulcular epthelium b. Gingival epithelium
c. Attached epithelium d. All the above
67. Water content of dentin:

a. 5% b. 10%
c. 25% d. 40%
(By weight, 70% of dentin consists of the mineral hydroxylapatite, 20% is organic material, and 10%
is water).
68. Maxillary first premolar have two roots:
a. 40% of it will have bifurcated in the middle of the root
b. 80%> of the tooth have single canal
c. 30%> has only single canal
d. 10%> has bifurcated root
A single canal was found in 17.1 %>of the maxillary first premolars, two canals in 80.4%> and 3 canals
in 2.5%o. 55.8%o had a single root, 41.7% two roots and 2.5%> three roots.
Ans: 61 .a, 62.a, 63.a, 64.a, 65.a, 66.a, 67.b, 68.a

Paper 32
69. Which of the following teeth have bifurcated root most probably:
a. Mandibular lateral incisor b. Maxillary lateral incisor
c. Mandibular canine d. Maxillary canine
70. Most common cause of cerebrovascular accident is:
a. Embolism b. Arterial thrombosis
c. Venous thrombosis d. Hemorrhage
Ans: 69.d, 70.a

D e n to -G u if - F or G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
1. In bisecting angle technique why is the long cone used?
a. Make the image sharper b. Make the image larger
c. Reduce x-ray exposure d. Easy to operate
The target-film distance is 8 inches. The resulting image x-ray is somewhat larger using the short
cone (8 inch) rather than using a long cone(16 inch).
2. Modified Widman flap was used in:
a. To expose root surface b. To treat osseous defect
c. Root planing d. All the above
(Modified Widaman flap attempting to debrid the exposed roots and osseous defects with hand and
ultrasonic instruments, the flaps repositioned and sutured using 4-0 silk sutures.)
3. Nitrous oxide affects which of the following?
a. VitA b. V itB 6
c. Vit B12 d. Vit C
4. Nanofillers in composites range in size from um.
a. 0.005 to 0.020 b. 0.5 to 0.7
c. 0.05 to 0.20 d. 0.01 to 0.1
5. Water irrigators are used for:
a Plaque removes b. Remove debris betweenteeth
c. Stain removal d. Remove excess restorative material
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p -226
6. Which is the complication of posterior superior alveolar nerve block technique?
a. Hematoma b. Trimus
c. Post operative pain d. All the above
7. Which of the following best describes the anesthetic effects of a posterior superior alveolar
nerve block?
a. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary second and third molar.
b. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary first molar
c. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary first and second premolars.
d. Pulpal anesthesia of the second premolar.
Ans: 1.a, 2.d, 3.c, 4.a, 5.b, 6.a, 7.a
]
Paper 33
8. For the best prognosis of avulsed tooth:

a. Reposition it and splint rigidly
b. Reposition and splint flexibly
c. Radiographic follow up and figure of eight wiring
d. Alveolar wiring
9. Which of the following is true about autoclave?
a. Autoclave prevents rusting of instruments
b. Autoclave is a cold temperature treatment
c. In autoclave heat is superheated
d. Autoclave took long duration
10. A patient has numerous sebaceous cysts over scalp and neck, he has many supernumery
teeth impacted in the jaws. Diagnosis is:
a. Gardner’s syndrome b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Cliedocranial dysplasia d. Osteopetrosis
11. Which has maximum nicotinic effect?
a. Bethanechol b. Carbachol
c. Pilocarpine d. Methacoline
12. After accident, medial displacement of coronoid takes place. It can be viewed best by:
a. Occipitomental b. Oblique 30 degree
c. PAview d. Reverse towne
13. Bone healing is done after extraction:
a. By fibrous tissue b. By growth factor accumulation
c. By osteogenesis d. Epithelial proliferation
Current perspective on residual ridge remodelling, beginning with the cascade of inflammatory reac
tions that is activated immediately after tooth extraction. The socket fills with blood from the severed
vessels, which contain proteins and damaged cells. These cells initiate a series of events that will
lead to the formation of a fibrin network, which, along with platelets, forms a “blood clot” or “coagu-
lum” within the first 24 hours. Acting as a physical matrix, the coagulum directs the movement of
cells, including mesenchymal cells, as well as growth factors. Neutrophils and later macrophages
enter the wound site and digest bacteria and tissue debris to sterilize the wound. They release growth
factors and cytokines that will induce and amplify the migration of mesenchymal cells and their syn
thetic activity within the coagulum.
Within a few days, the blood clot begins to break down (fibrinolysis). The proliferation of mesenchy
mal cells leads to gradual replacement of the coagulum by granulation tissue (2-4 days). By the end
of 1 week, a vascular network is formed and by 2 weeks the marginal portion of the extraction socket
is covered with young connective tissue rich in vessels and inflammatory cells. By 4 -6 weeks, most
Ans: 8.b, 9.c, 10.c, 11.b, 12.c, 13.b

D e n tO 'G u lf - F or G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
parts of the alveolus are filled with woven bone, while the soft tissue becomes keratinized. At 4-6
months, the mineral tissue within the original socket is reinforced with layers of lamellar bone that is
deposited on the previously formed woven bone. Although bone deposition in the socket will continue
for several months, it will not reach the coronal bone level of the neighbouring teeth.
14. Tug back of gutta percha is due to:
a. Tensile strength b. Retention in apical1/3rd
c. Condensation d. Elasticity
15. An edentulous patient class II Kennedy classification, 2nd premolar used as abutment. When
surveying we found mesial undercut. What is the proper clasp used:
a Wrought wire with round cross section
b. Wrought wire with half round cross section
c. Cast clasp with round cross section
d. Cast clasp with half cross section “R PC
16. A child with traumatized lip, no tooth mobility. What will you do first?
a. Radiograph to check if there is foreign body
b. Refer to the physician for sensitivity test
c. Prescribe antibiotic and anti inflammatory medicines
d. All the above
17. The pattern of bone in trauma from occlusion is:
a Bizzare pattern of bone loss b. Horizontal bone loss
c. Vertical bone loss d. Combined bone loss
18. After patient with hepatitis-B has left the dental chair the assistant asks you how to disinfect
the dental unit. What will you suggest?
a. Iodine b. 100%dettol
c. Hypochloride d. All the above
19. Which of the following is most cariogenic?
a. Cheese b. Caramels
c. Cold drinks d. Peanut butter
20. In which tooth the contact is at the incisal edge?
a. Lower anterior teeth b. Upper anterior teeth
c. Lower molars d. Upper molar
Ans: 14.b, 15.d, 16.a, 17.c, 18.c, 19.b, 20.a

Paper 33
21. Preparation of gold crown with excepts of gingival rescission, the most proper to extent the
preparation:
a. 1 mm under the gingival margin b. Make it on the fifth
22. Decreased effect of local anesthesia in inflammation is due to:
a. Presence of infection b. Decrease in tissue pH
c. Increased blood supply d. Presence of inflammatory cells
Reference: Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia, p 19
23. The vertical fracture of the tooth is detected by:
a. Periodontal pocket b. Radiographically,
c. Vertical percussion d. All the above
24. Tooth number 26, had a root canal treatment for two years. Upon x-ray you found radiolu-
cency with bone resorption along one of the roots:
a. Ca (OH)2 b. Resection of the whole root
c. Redo RCT d. Periodontal curettage
25. Pacifier habit will cause:
a. Crowding of tooth
b. Classlll malocclusion
c. Anterior open bite with posterior cross bite
d. Skeletal malocclusion
26. Gene inhibiting apoptosis is:
a. Bcl-2 b. p53
c. Ras d. n-myc
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th ed, p 29
27. A patient has fracture of tooth. You have decided to do PFM, the plan decided is use of cham
fer finish line. What is the best instrument to finish the chamfer?
a. Cross cut bur b. Tapered round end diamond bur
c. Tapering fissure d. Round bur
28. Options available to replace missing anterior teeth in child are the following EXCEPT:
a. Resin-bonded partial dentures b. Traditional fixed partial dentures
c. Removable partial dentures d. Osseointegrated implants
Osseointegrated implants are contraindicated in children.
29. Internal resorption — which is true?
a. In x-ray, looks like moth eaten appearance b. RCT will control it
c. Initiated with infection d. All the above
Ans: 21 .d, 22.b, 23.a, 24.b, 25.c, 26.a, 27.b, 28.d, 29.b
30. Graft best suited for augmentation of atrophied mandible is:

a. Autogenous iliac crest b. Autogenous rib
c. Freeze dried bone graft d. Alloplast
Reference: Laskin’s Clinician's Handbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed. p 316
31. A 10 years old patient has a white yellowish tooth. With radiographic examination, big pulp
chamber, thin dentine and enamel give appearance of ghost teeth. Diagnosis is:
a. Dentinogenesis imperfect b. Amelogenesis imperfect
c. Odontodysplasia d. None of the above
32. In a patient after ortho treatment, on x-ray there’s resorption in the middle of the root. What
will you do?
a. Fill the resorp onwith Ca(OH)2 b. Extract and reimplant
c. Extract and do implant d. Extraction
33. A ll are participating in the determination of the posterior extension of the maxillary denture
except:
a Hamular notch b. Fovae palatine
c. Vibrating line d. Retromolar (pads) areas
34. Class II Kennedy with good teeth support bone structure with palatal tori extending to the
soft palate. The major connector should be:
a. Horse shoe shape b. V shaped,
c. Wide palate d. Palatal plate
35. What is the step done before applying sealant?
a. Fluoride. b. Etching
c. Cleaning tooth surface d. Polishing
36. A patient present in the OPD with history of road traffic accident. He had bilateral subcon
junctival hemorrhage, increased intercanthal distance. On intraoral examination, maxilla was
mobile and the mobility was felt at frontonasal suture and bilateral infraorbital margin. The
most likely diagnosis for the patient is:
a Le Fort - 1fracture b. Le Fort - II fracture
c. Le Fort - III fracture d. Le Fort - IV fracture
Reference: Karl's Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 55
37. The success of fissure sealant depends more on:
a. Isolating the tooth from the saliva b. Itching of tooth surface
c. Curing of sealents d. All the above
Ans: 30.b, 31 .c, 32.a, 33.d, 34.a, 35.b, 36.b, 37.a

Paper 33
38. The imagining technique used for salivary gland is:

a Sialography b. MRI
c. C T d. O PG
39. A patient came and asked for fissure sealant for his lower molar. The dentist found that it has
class I cavity but not deep. The decision is:
a Preventive class I after removing caries. b. Restore the cavity
c. Apply fissure sealent d. Restore with calcium hyroxide
40. Which of the following fractures is most likely to cause paresthesia of infra-orbital nerve?
a. Le Fort-1 fracture b. Le Fort-11 fracture
c. Le Fort-Ill fracture d. Isolated zygomatic arch fracture
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p 329
41. Upper central with class II fracture not involving the pulp and the patient still has the fragment:
a. Class IV composite filling b. Rebonding the broken fragment
c. No treatment needed d. Shaping and polishing of fracture site
42. Wetting the root canal surface with EDTA:
a. Increase pH b. Increase surface tension
c. Decrease surface tension d. Decrease pH
43. Which of the following canals in upper left first molar is most difficult to locate:
a. Palatal b. Distobuccal
c. MB canal d. All of above
44. Most common malignancy of jaw bone is:
a Multiple myeloma b. Osteiod osteoma
c. Osteogenic sarcoma d. Osteochondroma
45. Hot oven relative to autoclave:
c. Considerable higher time d. Lower time
46. Which of the following is single bone in the skull?
a. lacrimal b. Parietal
c. Sphenoid d. Maxilla
47. In cavity preparation class II, the (isthmus) cavity width is:
a. 1/2 intercuspal distance b. 1/3 intercuspal distance
c. 1/4 intercuspal distance d. 3/4 intercuspal distance
Ans: 38.a, 39.a, 40.b, 41 .b, 42.c, 43.c, 44.c, 45.c, 46.c, 47.b
48. Dentinogenesis imperfecta type I patient can suffer from the following except:
a. Fracture bone b. Fracture enamel
c. Blue sclera d. Paget disease
e. Supernumerary teeth
49. For therapeutic x-rays, required potential difference in kVp is:
a 20 to 50 KV b. 500 to 100 KV
c. 200 to 500 KV d. 2 to 20 MeV
Reference: Umarjl’s Concise Oral Radiology, p 2
50. A patient lost tooth number 36. What is your clinical finding?
a. Mesial tilting of 37 b. Intrusion of 26
c. Distal tilting of 35 d. All the above
51. Osteogensis during endodontic surgery is aimed to prevent:
a. Growth factor b. Formation of clot
c. Fibrous In growth d. All the above
52. The first stage in using triglycerides for energy is hydrolysis of the triglycerides to which of
the following substances?
a. Acetyl coenzyme A b. Cholesterol
c. Glycerol -3-phosphate d. Glycerol and fatty acids
53. Retention of amalgam restoration depends on:
a. Amalgam bond b. Convergency of walls oclusally
c. Divergency of walls oclusally d. Retentive pins
54. Local contraindication of extraction EXCEPT:
a. Recent historyof radlotheraphy b. Tooth in the malignant tumor
c. Severe alveloar bone loss d. All the above
55. Most impacted tooth is:
a. Maxillary 2 b. Maxillary 8
c. Mandibular8 d. Maxillary 3
56. A child comes to you with grey discoloration of the deciduous incisor, also on radiographic
exam. There is dilation of follicle of the permenant successor. What will you do?
a. Extract the decldous tooth b. Start endo
c. Observe over time d. Start orthodontic treatment
57. Pepsinogen is activated by:
a. Enteroklnase b. Low pH
c. Trypsin d. Chymotrypsln
Ans: 48.d, 49.c, 50.a, 51.c, 52.d, 53.b, 54.c, 55.c, 56.a, 57.b
D e n lo -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
Paper 33

58. GIC compared to composite:
a. Increased linear COF, of thermal expansion
b. More wear resistant
c. Less soluble
d. Stiffer
e. Less polymerization shrinkage
59. Indirect retainers mostly needed:
a. Class IV b. Class I
c. Class III d. Class III with modification
60. You have given sedation to child for treatment but child is showing signs of physical restrain.
What would you do?
a. Increase the dose of sedation b. Tie child with bandage to chair
c. Use Papoose board d. Postpone the treatment
In case of management of handicapped child restraining devices, bite props and Pappose boards all
are used.
61. A child is having multiple carious lesions and has been drinking a lot of juices. What is your
diagnosis?
a. Early childhood caries (ECC) b. Arrested caries
c. Rampant caries d. All the above
62. Lyme disease is caused by:
a. Borrelia recurrentis b. Borrelia burgdor feri
c. Borrelia vincenti d. None of these
63. Pit and fissure sealers act by:
a Sealers are antibiotic
b. Bacteria and caries is sealed off from their nutrient supply
c. They provide remineralization
d. All the above
64. Posterior palatal seal function:
a. It reduces patient discomfort when contact occurs between dorsum of the tongue and posterior of
the denture base.
b. Retention of maxillary denture
c. Compensate for change in dimension after curing
d. a + b
Ans: 58.e, 59.b, 60.C, 61 .a, 62.b, 63.b, 64.d

65. You put a post in tooth to increase the height of the tooth?
a. You are increasing the resistance form of tooth
b. You are increasing retention form of tooth
c. Both
66. A patient with 5 year old denture comes to you with abundant debris on denture. What would
you prescribe for treatment?
a. Antibiotics b. Topical antifungal
c. Systemic antifungal d. Corticosteroid
67. The only thrombolytic agent approved for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke is:
a. Tissue plasminogen activator b. Streptokinase
c. Urokinase d. Pro-urokinase
68. A patient is hepatitis positive and your assistant does not know how to activate the surgery.
He asks you what the disinfecting solutions that should be used:
a. Idophores b. Sodium hypochlorite and iodoform
c. Ethylene oxide d. Formalin
e. Alcohol
69. Wicham’s straie are seen in:
a. Lichens planus b. Pemphigus
c. Apthous ulcer d. Gingivitis
70. Gold standard in hepatitis:
a HBsAg assay b. ELISA
c. DOTS d. Schick
Ans: 65.b, 66.b, 67.a, 68.b, 69.a, 70.a

D e n tO 'G u lf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 34
1. The following medical conditions may precipitate syncope:

1. Hypoglycemia
2. Mild hyperglycemia
3. Anti hypertensive drugs with gang ionic blocking agent
4. Antidepressant therapy
a. 1 only is correct. b. 1 and 2 are correct,
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
2. Which is first line antitubercular drug?
a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol d. Thiacetazone
3. Anti Rh antibodies are:
a. IgA b. IgG
c. IgM d. IgE
Reference: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine
4. A patient presented to you with complain of click during open and close. There is no facial
asymmetry except when opening. What is the diagnosis?
a. Internal derangement with reduction b. Internal derangement without reduction
c. Reumatoid arthritis d. MFDS
5. A child has a habit of finger sucking and starts to show orodental changes. The child needs:
a. Early appliance b. Psychological therapy
6. Premaxilla maxillary cyst is the same as:
a. Globulomaxillary cyst b. Median mandibular cyst
c. Nasoalveolar cyst d. Nasopalatine duct cyst
7. During endo the patient is complaining of pain with percussion, no fluid extrusion. What do
you suspect?
a. Apical periodontitis b. Secondary apical periodontitis
c. Over instrumentation d. Over medication
Pain following instrumentation: This is usually due to instruments or irrigants, or to debris being
forced into the apical tissues.
Reference: “Pathway of the Pulp, 9th ed, 1st part, p 217"
Ans: 1.a, 2.c, 3.b, 4.a, 5.a, 6.a, 7.c
Postoperative discomfort generally Is greater when this area (apical constriction) is violated by in
struments or filling materials, and the healing process may be compromised.
8. Cantilever design should have which of the following features?
a. Small in all direction b. High yield strength material
c. Under occlusal d. All the above
9. Posterior palatal seal is recorded when the head is bent at:
10. Dentine permeability increases:
a. Coronal less than root dentine b. Permeablity increase toward DEJ
c. Permeablity increase toward BCJ d. None of the above
11. A ll are tools of dental public health, EXCEPT:
a. Epidemiology b. Biostatistics
c. Administration d. Ethics
12. After completion of orthodontic treatment the patient came complaining of pain in 11. Tooth
radiograph shows resorption in the middle third of the root of 11. What is the proper
managment?
a. Apply CaOH at the siteof resorption b. Do R.C T in a single visit
c. Extract the tooth &reimplant it d. Extract the tooth & do implantation
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, (2007-08) part 2, p 236
13. A patient presented after insertion of complete denture complaining of dysphagia and ulcers.
What is the cause of dysphagia?
a. Over extended b. Over post dammed
c. Under extended d. Under post dammed
14. If the oral tissues are inflamed and traumatized, impression for making a new denture:
a. Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration.
b. The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted, and tissue condition material is applied, and
periodically replaced until the tissue are recovered, then making impression take place.
c. The patient is cautioned to remove the denture out at night.
d. a & b are correct.
e. All of the above are correct.
15. Upon opening an incision in a periapical abscess in a lower 1st molar, you open:
a. The most bottom of the abscess b. The most necrotic part of the abscess
c. Extra oral
Ans: 8.d, 9.a, 10.b, 11.d, 12.a, 13.a, 14.b, 15.b

D e rtto -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 34
16. An overload of the mucosa will occur if the:

a. Teeth used for replacement are non anatomic.
b. Bases covering the area are too small in outline.
c. Bases covering the area are too large in outline.
d. Bases covering the area are overextended distally.
Reference: National Board Dental Examination-July-1978
17. What’s the technique of endo filling, where we use continuous condensation?
a. Ultrafill b. Obtura I
c. Obtura II d. System-B
18. A patient has anaphylactic shock after taking pencillin. You have to give him:
a. Epinephrin I.V b. Adrenalin I.M
c. Cortizone I.M d. Saline I.V
19. Not removing calculus leads to periodontal disease due to:
a. Calculus is the first antigen b. It accumulate more plaque to its surface
c. It release calcium d. All the above
20. The minimum acceptable crown: root ratio for a fixed bridge abutment is:
a. 3:2 b. 1:1
c. 2:3 d. 2:1
21. Treacher Collins syndrome have characterstic feature:
a Prognathesia of mandible b. No ear loss.
c. Upward slenting of eye d. Zygomatic arch malformed
22. Tooth with a fracture between the apical and the middle third. What’s your management?
a. RCT for the coronal part only b. RCT for both
c. Splint the two parts together d. Extraction
If there is no separation cap between the fracture parts then RCT for coronal part and regular followup
is the treatment.
If there is a separation between the fracture segments or periapical infection, then exraction is the
treatment.
23. A young female patient came with a tooth which had gone root canal treatment two years
before. Upon x-ray examination you found a radiolucency along one of the roots. What is
your management?
a. Ca(OH)2 b. Resection of the whole root
c. Redo RCT d. Periodontal currettage
Ans: 16.b, 17.d, 18.a, 19.b, 20.b, 21.d, 22.a, 23.c

24. The carbon dioxide lazers used in dentistry have wavelength:

a. 1064 nm b. 10,600 nm
c. 1064 Â d. 10,600 Â
25. The main link between the pulp and the the periodontium is:
a. Apical foramen b. Dentinal tubules
c. Accessory canals d. PDL
26. Which root of the maxillary teeth is closestto the maxillary sinus:
a. First maxillary premolar b. Maxillary 2nd premolar
c. Maxillary canine d. 1st maxillary molar
27. Which of the following is correct regardingbuccal branch of trigeminal nerve?
a. Motor b. Psychomotor
c. Sensory and motor d. None of the above
28. Treatment of mucocele on lower lip:
a Incision b. Excision
c. Excision with adjacent glands d. Biopsy
NeelimaAnil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed, p 524
29. The principal action of an indirect retainer is to:
a Stabilize against lateral movement.
b. Prevent setting of the major connector.
c. Minimize movement of the base away from supporting tissue.
d. Restrict tissueward movement of the distal extension base.
30. The most common fissural abnormality is:
a Cleft palate b. Cleft lip
c. Cleft lip & palate d. None of the above
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology's, 4th ed, p 10
31. Which of the following is the most complicated fissural abnormality?
a. Cleft palate b. Cleft lip
c. Cleft lip & palate d. None of the above
32. When taking x-ray in upper premolar to locate buccal root using mesial shift, it will appear:
a. Distal b. Buccal
c. Lingual d. Mesial
Ans: 24.b, 25.a, 26,d, 27.d, 28.c, 29.c, 30.c, 31 .c, 32.a
Paper 34
33. Shy and submissive child is the result of parents who are:
a Over indulgent b. Over protective
c. Un affectionate d. Empathetic
34. The infection will spread cervicaly in infection from:
c. Lower 2nd and 3rd molars d. Upper incsisors
35. Implant is contraindicated in which of the following?
a. 20 year old patient with missing 21
b. 5 year old patient with missing 62
c. 50 year old diepetlc patient with missing 36
d. 55 year old cardiac patient with missing 45, 46
36. Pletoric individual will have:
a. Tall and thin physique b. Short and obese physique
c. Average physique d. None of the above
Reference: Bhalajl Orthodontics: The Art and Science, 3rd ed, p 120
37. Face muscles are not working in the side of the face after inferior nerve block injection. You
have injected In:
a. Infra orbital nerve b. Facial nerve branches In parotid capsule
c. Pherengeal plexus d. PSA nerve
38. Elek’s test for toxigenicity testing in diphtheria bacilli is an example of:
a Oudlne procedure b. Oakley-Fulthorpe procedure
c. Radiolmmuno diffusion d. Ouchterlony procedure
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Panlker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed, p 97
39. How will you take the broken instrument during periodontal surgical procedure?
a. Twizzer b. Needle holder
c. Schwartz player d. Ultrasonic Intrument
40. The age of the child used in the determination of child mortality rate is:
a 1 to 5 years b. 1 to 4 years
c. 5 to 8 years d. 0 to 1 years
Reference: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th ed, p 23
41. Which of the following is true?
- Soft palate falls abrubtly facilitates recording post dam.
- Soft palate falls gradually makes recording post dam difficult.
a. Both the statements true b. Both the statements false
c. First true, second false d. First false second true
Ans: 33.b, 34.c, 35.b, 36.b, 37.b, 38.d, 39.c, 40.b, 41 .b

42. Breakpoint chlorination means:

a. Start of chlorination process. b. End of chlorination process.
c. When residual chlorine starts appearing. d. After partial saturation of water with chlorine.
Reference: Soban Peter’s Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 3rd ed, p 744
43. Diagnostic finding of unilateral condylar fracture is:
a. Anterior open bite
b. Posterior open bite on the ipsilateral side
c. Posterior open bite on the contralateral side
44. A patient came after a few days from insertion of complete denture. There is no complain,
except the sound, specially letter ‘F ’ he says it like ‘V’. The reason is:
a. The anterior upper teeth are. upward from the lip line
b. Anterior upper teeth are downward from the lip line
c. The anterior upper teeth forward from the lip line
45. A 4 year child comes to restore his lower, first molar with destruction in 3 to 4 surfaces. The
best restoration is:
a Amalgam b. Full porcelain crown
46. A 10 years old child with congenital heart disease came for extraction of his lower 1st molar.
The antibiotic for choice for prevention of infective endocarditis is:
a Ampicillin 30 mg /kg orally 1 hour before procedure
b. Cephalixine 50 mg/kg orally 1 hour before procedure
c. Clindamycin 20 mg/kg orally 1 hour before procedure
d. Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg orally 1 hour before procedure
47. Which is contraindicated to the general anesthia:
a. Patient with an advanced medical condition like cardiac
b. Down's syndrome patient
c. Child with multiple carious lesions in most of his dentition
d. Child who needs dental care, but who’s uncooperative, fearful...etc.
48. Currently the only effective preventive measure for periodontal disease (apart from limited
use of antiseptic solutions) is:
a Regular & rough removal of dental plaque b. Salt fluoridation
c. Dental health education d. All the above
Ans: 42.c, 43.c, 44.a, 45.c, 46.d, 47.a, 48.a

Paper 34
49. To detect the occlusal plane which of the following is used?

a. Frankfort plan b. Ala-tragus line
c. Sagital plane d. All the above
50. What kind of periodontal probe is used in the furcation area?
a. W HO b. Nabers probe
c. U N C15 d. Michigan
51. Which of the following are properties of RC filling material?
a. Radio opague in radiograph
b. Not irritate the surrounding tissue
d. Stable and less dimensional change after insertion
e. All the above
52. Ammonia is detoxified in brain chiefly as:
a. Urea b. Uric acid
c. Creatinine d. Glutamine
53. In endodontics, after completing the examination of the tooth, the next step is:
a. Start local anesthesia b. Excavate the dentin
c. Testing the tooth with the pulp tester
54. The best restoration for the maxillary central incisor that has received root canal treatment
through a conservative accsess opening would be:
a. Post retained metal crow b. Post retained porcelain jacket crown
c. Composite resin d. Amalgam
55. In post and core, it is important to:
1. End the core at contra bevel to produce ferrule effect
2. End the core at the cervical finish line
3. The core take the same shape of a natural toorh
4. The core take the same shape of prepared tooth
a 1 only 2. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 3 4. 1 & 4
56. The renal clearance of:
a. Creatinine indicates glomerular filtration rate.
b. Inulin is lower than that of urea.
c. Chloride ibcreases after an injection of aldosterone.
d. PAH continuous to rise as the plasma concentration of PAHrises.
Ans: 49.b, 50.b, 51.e, 52.d, 53.c, 54.c, 55.d, 56.d

#i
57. Most common site of pus drain in mouth:

a. Mandibular centralincisors b. Mandibular canines
c. Mandibular first molar d. Mandibular premolar
58. The best material used to record maxilla mandible relationship without pressure is:
a. Eugenol paste b. Impression Compound
c. Wax sheet d. Alginate
59. In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community based pre
ventive programs would be greater for:
a. Dental caries b. Periodontal disease
c. Dentofacial anomalies d. Dental fluorosis
60. Waldeyer’s lymphatic chain is formed by all except:
a. Palatine tonsil b. Pharyngeal tonsil
c. Tubal tonsils d. Post auricular nodes
61. The retainer of rubber dam should contact tooth by:
a. 4 points of contact 2 mesially and 2 distally
b. 4 points of contact 2 buccally and 2 lingually
c. 2 points contact buccal and lingual
d. 2 point contact mesial and distal
62. Frequently the surface of a gold casting is dark due to the formation of a surface oxide film.
This surface film is removed by:
a. Quenching b. Age hardening
c. Pickling d. Fusion
63. In growth, cartilages may give rise to bones:
a. True b. False
64. In the pulp
a. Cell rich zone inner most pulp layer which contain fibroblast
b. Cell free zone rich with capilleres and nerve networks
c. Odontoblastic layer which contain odontoblast
d. All of the above
Pulpal core, which is in the center of the pulp chamber with many cells and an extensive vascular
supply; except for its location. It is very similar to the cell-rich zone.
Cell rich zone; which contains fibroblasts and undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
Cell free zone (zone of Weil) which is rich in both capillaries and nerve networks.
Odontoblastic layer; outermost layer which contains odontoblasts and lies next to the predentin and
mature dentin.
Ans: 57.c, 58.a, 59.a, 60.d, 61 .b, 62.c, 63.a, 64.d

Paper 34
65. Instrument used to remove dark color in dentin:

a. Round stone bur with low speed b. Round diamond bur with low speed
c. Round stone bur with high speed d. Round diamond bur with high speed
66. The test for testing the bur where all the blades of the burs pass through a single point:
a. Run out b. Concentricity
c. Run out and concentricity d. None of above
Reference: http://www.ada.org/sections/scienceandresearch/pdfs/0607 carbide testmethods. pdf
Run-Out:
A dynamic test measuring the accuracy with which the neck passes through a single point when the
instrument is rotated. When compared with “concentricity," it is the more significant term clinically
because it is the factor that determines the minimum diameter of the hole that can be drilled by a
given bur (i.e., the trueness of the bur).
67. The percentage of teeth which show proximal radiolucency extended to half dentine, thick
ness but without cavitation:
a. 10% b. 20%
c. 30% d. 40%
68. Which of the following is a floating fracture of middle third of facial skeleton?
a. Pyramidal fracture b. Transverse fracture
c. Suprazygomatic fracture d. Le Fort I fracture
69. Of the following, which is the best projection to study the fracture of zygomatic arch?
a. Lateral oblique view b. PA coldweli view
c. Submentovertex view d. Lateral cephalometric view
70. X-rays are produced in:
a. Anode b. Cathode
c. Glass wall d. Molybdenum focusing cusp
Ans: 65.b, 66.a, 67.d, 68.d, 69.c, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 35
1. Hepatitis patient has received needle prick. What will you do?
a. Wash and scrub,
b. Wash under running water and put a waterproof bandage,
c. Blood testing for virus
d. Apply pressure on wound to stop bleeding
2. Bacteria develop tetracycline resistance by the following mechanism except:
a. Losing tetracycline concentrating mechanisms
b. Elaborating tetracycline-inactivating enzymes.
c. Synthesizing a protection protein which interferes with the binding of tetracycline to target site
d. Actively pumping out tetracycline that has entered the cell.
Reference : K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed. P. 372
3. A patient had pulp capping two months back, returned with pain, but no radiographic changes
are observed after 2 months. Reason could be:
c. Pulpitis d. Periapical abcess
4. Maximum nicotinic effect is seen with:
a. Methacholine b. Carbachol
c. Bethanechol d. Same with all
Reference : K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, P. 80
5. When taking x-ray using bisecting angle technique, you should use:
a. Long cone
b. Keep x-rays parallel to film
c. Keep x-ray parallel to buccal surface of the tooth.
Reference : White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology, 5th ed., P. 89
6. Following is the contraindication for lingual bar, EXCEPT:
a Short lingual sulcus b. Tongue tie
c. Lingual torus d. Long lingual sulcus
Reference : Deepak Nallaswamy’s, Textbook of Prosthodontics, P. 337
7. A patient came to dentist with severe pain on endodontically treated lower molar tooth.
Radiographic freatures show ’’testy cement” on the lateral side of the root and perfectly
obturated root canal. What will be your diagnosis?
a. Accessory canals b. Perforation
c. Vertical fracture d. Apical periodontitis
Ans: 1 .d, 2.c, 3.c, 4.b, 5.a, 6.d, 7.c

Dento-Guif - For G u lf Countries Licensing E x a m in a tio n s
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8. Custom tray is preferred than stock tray in bilateral distal RPD for impression making because:
a Thickness of the impression material will evenly spread by custom tray
b. Custom tray alginate and elastomeric material can be used
c. Less expensive
d. All the above
9. A) Interdental bone is perpendicular to the imaginary line drawn at C EJ of adjacent tooth.
B) If the C E J of the adjacent tooth is variable than the interdental bone will be angulated
towards the line.
a. A & B both are correct b. Both are wrong
c. A only correct d. B only correct
10. Which of the following is the most commonly used bleaching agent for endodontically treated
teeth?
a. Ether b. Superoxol
c. Chloroform d. Sodium hypochlorite
Reference : Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2008), p. 316-317
11. Milky or cloudy appearance seen in PFM crown is due to:
a. Over furnace b. Under furnace
c. Moisture present in porcelain layer d. Opaque layer scattered in porcelain layer
12. After 1 year of endodontic treatment the radiolucency remain same at periapical area:
a. Re RCT b. Periapical surgery
c. Enucleation and marsupilizatlon d. No treatment need
Re R C T is the first choice of treatment. If it’s a cyst — the enucleation and marsuplization. If it is
granuloma then periapical surgery Is needed with apexectomy and retrograde filling.
13. Products of microorganism, which is responsible for endodontic pathology is:
a Dentin from bacteroids b. Collagenase by spirochets and bacteria
c. Fungus d. All the above
14. Endodontically treated right maxillary central incisor, in a accident more than half of its
crown was fractured.the first step for post and crown preparation is
a. Removal of GP with hot plunger
b. Prepare the remaining tooth
c. Widening the RC by gates glidden
d. Removing the unsupported enamel and carious structure
15. Which disease shows a strong familial tendency?
a Proclined maxillary Incisors b. Deep bite
c. Open bite d. Cross-bite of incisors.
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics -127
Ans: 8.a, 9.a, 10.b, 11.a, 12.a, 13.b, 14.d, 15.c

16. It has been proved that following is more conductive in caries in adult:
a. Saliva b. Xerostomia
c. Plague d. Calculus
17. Internal resorption in maxillary central incisor can be treated with
a Ca(OH)2 b. Gutta percha single sitting
c. ZOE d. Silver cone
18. A ir powder polishing system (Prophy-jet) uses air powered slurry of warm water and sodium
bicarbonate. It can be used safely on:
a. Amalgam restorations b. Titanium implant surfaces
c. Composite resins d. IMon-metallic materials
Reference : Glickman, 9 ed., p. 581
19. Broken NiTi file during BMP irt 25 which property of NiTi is responsible for the breakage of
the NiTi files? _
a. Rigidity & memory b. Superflexiblity & memory
c. Antifatique d. Torsion
Reference : Proffit's Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 329
Cyclic fatique and torsional stress are the reasons for the NiTi files breakage
20. A 45 year old patient is having chronic renal failure. He is undergoing regular hemodialasis.
Extraction of his tooth has to be done:
a. One day before hemodialasis b. On the day of hemodialasis
c. One day after hemodialasis d. One week after hemodialasis
21. A 40 year old patient want to change all his old restorations. But all his posterior teeth are
severely attrited. The treatment has to done by:
a Amalgam restorations b. Full crown
c. Cast metal restoration d. Composite
22. Treatment of choice in dry socket:
a. Placement of suture to approximate flaps.
b. Curettage to remove granulation tissue.
c. Systemic antibiotics.
d. Use of warm saline mouthrinse or dilute solution of hydrogen peroxide.
Reference : Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2008), p 408-409
: - > Damles' Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p 422
23. Abdominal secretions has reduced by:
a Anticholenergic drugs b. Cholinergic drugs
c. Calcium channel blockers d. All the above
Reference : Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, p 285
Ans: 16.b, 17.b, 18.b, 19.d, 20.c, 21 .b, 22.d, 23.a

D e n to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
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24. A 5 year old child having severe plague and attachment loss in his lower second primary
molar. The diagnosis is:
a Periodontitis b. Localized aggressive periodontitis
c. Periodontosis d. None of the above
25. Sugar activity test, the incidence of caries activity will reduce by:
a Glucose b. Manittol
c. Xylitol d. Lactose
26. Neurotransmitter which controls secretion of prolactin:
a. Serotonin b. G ABA
c. Somatostatin d. Dopamine
Reference : Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed., p. 423
27. Patient having submandibular swelling. Size of swelling increases during food intake. Prob
able diagnostic readiographic view is:
a PA view b. Occlusal radiography
c. Fluoroscopy d. Silography
28. A patient is undergoing long term steroid therapy. He has to go for extraction of his teeth to
avoid the adrenal crisis. Following drug has to be given:
a. Hydrocortisone sodium b. Hydrocortisone succinate
c. Dexamethasone(IV) d. Prednisolone
29. Chickenpox patient has to be isolated:
a. For 10 days b. Till the lesion subside
c. Till the catra stage subside d. After the fever subside
30. Which of the following pressures is normally negative in a muscle capillary bed in the lower
extremities?
a. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure b. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
c. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure d. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure
Reference : Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, 11th ed., p. 187
31. Bluish black pigmentation on oral mucosa:
a. Arsenic poisoning b. Mercury poisoning
c. Lead poisoning d. Bismuth poisoning
32. A patient comes with a complaint of discomfort after 3 days of CD delivary. Clinical examina
tion shows angular chelitis, glossitis with no problem, with swallowing, eating and speaking.
He is having full mouth opening. The probable diagnosis is:
a Xerostomia b. Scleroderma
c. Vitamin B deficiency d. OSMF
Ans: 24.b, 25.c, 26.d, 27.b, 28.b, 29.c, 30.c, 31 .d, 32.c
33. Radial walker test is:

a For disinfectant b. For antibiotics
c. For dry heat sterilization d. For moist heat sterilization
34. The secondary immune response is effectively produced by:
a. Plasma cells b. Memory cells
c. Dendritic cells d. Null cells
Reference : Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiologyh, 7th ed., p. 135
35. Parents of 1 week old infant concerned with the presence of mandibular incisors which are
highly mobile and mother is not having problem in nursing. Your concern of treatment is:
a No extraction because it will shedding by its own
b. No extraction because no problem with nursing
c. Immediate extraction because there is a chances of teeth inhalation into lungs
d. Extraction because of it is supernumery teeth
36. Drooping of the corners of the mouth in a CD wearing person is due to:
a. Decrease VD b. Increase freeway space
c. Improper lip support from incisors d. All the above
37. An acrylic substitute for the loss of soft tissue in soft palate is called:
a Obturator b. Artificial velum
c. Mould d. Model
38. Type II examination as given by ADA is used in:
a. Intensive clinical studies b. Clinical trials
c. Epidemiological surveys d.Inspection of schoolchildren
Reference: Soban Peter’s Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p. 623
39. An acrylic substitute for the hard palate is called:
a. Obturator b. Artificial velum
c. Mould d. Model
40. Prevention of migraine the following drugs are used except:
a. Ergotamine b. NSAIDs
c. Propanolol d. Succinyl choline
Preventive drugs for migraine is propanalol and amitriptyline.
41. To control the migraine attack which of the following drugswill be given:
a. Propanalol b. Ergotamine
c. NSAIDs d. Paracetamol
Drug of choice for migraine is ergotamine.
Ans: 33.a, 34.b, 35.c, 36.d, 37.b, 38.b, 39.a, 40.d, 41.b
Paper 35
42. During root paining and curettage an instrument is broken down at furcation level in bone.
The instrument used to retrieve that broken instrument is:
a Ultrasonic tips b. H files
c. Schwartz periotriever d. Barbed broaches
43. Incidence of secondary caries is decreased after placement of GIC over amalgam restoration.
Even after the loss of restoration still incidence of secondary caries is on decline. What would
be the reason?
a. Sudden fluoride release b. Enamel has exposed to fluorine already
c. Due to corrosive product d. All the above
44. The key enzyme that converts trypsinogen to trypsin:
a. Secretin b. Chymotrypsin
c. Elastase d. Enteropeptidase
Reference: Satyanarayana’s Biochemistry, p. 168
45. Vitality test does give correct results in primary teeth, because:
a. Delayed release of A fibers b. Delayed release of C fibers
c. Early release of A fibers d. Early release of C fibers
Reference: Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 20
46. How electric pulp works?
a. By measuring blood flow b. By pulp volume calculation
c. By calculating nerve emerging d. By A delta fibers
47. Which of the following regarding mandibular nerve is correct?
a. Branch of facial nerve b. Purely motor
c. Passes through foramen ovale d. Related to sphenopalatine ganglion
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol. Ill, p. 152
48. Which of the following will not respond to electric pulp test?
a. A delta fiber b. C fibers
c. Blood supply of pulp d. None of the above
49. A patient taking 10 mg prednisolone daily. The line of treatment for extraction of lower molar is?
a. Double the dose one day before the extraction
b. Double the dose on the day of extraction
c. Double the dose one day after the extraction
d. Double the dose one day before, on the day and one day after the extraction
50. Xylithol chewing gum used for:
a. Reduce caries b. TMJ problem
c. Increase salivary secretion d. All the above
Ans: 42.c, 43.b, 44.d, 45.a, 46.d, 47.c, 48.b, 49.b, 50.a
4
51. The direct bonded orthodontic stainless steel brackets derive retention with composite be
cause of:
a. The mechanical interlock with mesh at the bracket base.
b. The chemical interlock of composite with bracket base.
c. Both mechanical and chemical interlock of composite with the bracket base
d. Biological interlock between the tooth surface and bracket.
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 397
52. Labial reduction of the anterior teeth has been covered by full metal ceramic crown. What are
the possibile changes?
1. Occlusal disturbance 2. Increase resistance
3. Alter the contour of tooth 4. Alter the look of the tooth
a. 1+2 b. 2+3
c. 1+3+4 d. All the above
53. What would be the reason for rapid regeneration in newly erupted teeth after trauma with
open apex?
a. High Hb level in pulp compare to adult b. More dentine thickness
c. During trauma nerve not damage d. All the above
54. A patient with immediate CD has a good bilateral occlusion at the time of insersior, on the
next morning not able to insert on the edentulous arch. What would be the cause?
a. Improper P P S b. Buccal flange over extended
c. After surgical swelling and edema d. All the above
55, The following dimension of the face at birth is close to the adult size:
a. Width b. Depth
c. Height d. All of the above
Reference: Prof fit's Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 100
56. A child patient with missing upper anterior teeth (Cl & LI) has to undergo premolar extraction
for ortho treatment. What would be the treatment sequence?
a. First FPD then ortho treatment b. Bridge with composite resin
c. First ortho then acrylic plate d. None of the above
57. Moist heat sterilization compared to dry heat sterilization works mainly on:
a. Kills bacteria by dissolving of cell wall b. Coagulation and dénaturation of protein
c. Corrosion products d. Protein degeneration and oxidative damage
58. The main function of cavity liners is to:
a. Act as thermal insulators.
b. Provide a barrier against chemical irritation.
c. Produce a structural form for the cavity preparation.
Ans: 51.a, 52.d, 53.a, 54.c, 55.a, 56.c, 57.b, 58.b

D ento-G uif - For G ulf C o u n tries L ic e n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
m
Paper 35
d. Resist forces applied during condensation of the restorative material.

Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry p. 173
59. Patient having MTA on anterior teeth for good prognosis?
a. Proper wound closure
b. Precarious during flap surgery
c. Proper R/F followup
d. Antibiotic coverage
60. To check the proper occlusion with less pressure which material is use?
a. Impression compound b. Wax
c. ZO E d. None of the above
61. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates:
a. Degree of translucency b. Degree of saturation of hue
c. Combined effect of hue and value d. All of the above
Reference: Skinner’s Science of Dental Materials, p. 704
62. Tooth with periapical granuloma after extraction pear shaped hard tissue found on bifurca
tion area. This is due to:
a Apical granuloma b. Hypercementosis
c. Dentigerous cyst d. Enamel pearl
63. Patient having cleft palate, cleft lip, lip pit, hypodontic tooth. What is the diagnosis?
a. Osteogenisis imperfect b. Stills syndrome
c. Van der woude syndrome d. Down syndrome
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 4th ed., p. 10
http://en.wikipedia.ora/wikiA/an der Woude syndrome
64. After extraction of lower third molar, which suture forceps is used for suturing?
a. Hemostat curved forceps b. Russian forceps
c. Killner’s forceps d. Addsons's forceps
65. Excision of margins of necrotic bone overlying a focus of osteomyelitis is called as:
a. Sequestrectomy b. Trephination
c. Saucerization d. Decortication
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p. 650
66. Effects of pacifier is:
a. Delayed eruption of incisors b. Protrusion of incisors
c. Upper arch narrows d. Posterior cross bite
e. All the above
Ans: 59.a, 60.c, 61 .b, 62.d, 63.c, 64.a, 65.c, 66.e

67. A 2 year old child with anterior decayed tooth came to the dental clinic for resoration. Prob
able reason for caries is?
a. Nursing caries b. Bottle caries
c. Rampant caries d. Childhood caries
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2008), p. 94
68. An old age patient with thick flabby tissue in his buccal shelf region. It is disturbing denture
making. The treatment should be:
a. Z incision b. V-Y plasty incision
c. Double incision d. Only upper mucosal layer
69. Class III amalgam restoration in canine, which of the following matrix band will be useful?
a. Mylar strip b. Copper band
c. Toffermair band d. S shape band
70. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal will usually result in:
a. Unseating of the denture b. A tingling sensation
c. Greater retention d. Increased gagging
Reference: Winkler's Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p. 120.
Ans: 67.a, 68.d, 69.d, 70.a

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 36
1. Porcelain fuse to gold. What should be done to prevent fracture of the restoration?
a. Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure.
b. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness
c. Any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal substructure.
d. All the above
2. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins does not affect on tooth development?
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin K
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed., p. 875, 878, 884, 885
3. LA cross the nerve membrane by what means?
a. Sodium channels b. Potassium channels
c. Calcium channels d. None of the above
4. Patient was given gold onlay but he returned back with the pain. Reason could be:
a. High thermal conductivity of gold b. Sensitivity from the luting cement
c. Unknown pulp exposure d. None of the above
5. In Bon will’s equilateral triangle, the apex of triangle is located at:
a. The anterior part of incisive papilla. b. At the prominent part of the chin.
c. At the anteriormost part of upperincisor. d. At the anteriormost part oflower central incisor
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed., p. 154
6. Retention grooves in crown wax pattern can be given with:
a) Spoon excavator b) Wax carver
c) Wax knife d) Spatula
7. Nerve sheath is interrupted in:
a. Neyropraxia b. Axonotmesis
c. Neurotmesis d. All of the above
8. Which of the following are true regarding alginates?
a. Solution b. Gel
c. Colloid d. None of the above
Reference: Skinner's Science of Dental Materials, 10th ed., p. 113
Ans: 1.d, 2.d, 3.a, 4.a, 5.d, 6.a, 7.c, 8.d, 9.b
9. Enamel pearl is present in tooth near:

a. Apex of the root b. Furcation area
c. Later border of root d. Near cervical line
10, Ni-ti wire has which of the following specific character:
a. Flexibility b. High strength
c. Shape memory d. All the above
Reference source: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 329
11. Development of maxillary process and medial frontal process in medial elongation of central
portion:
a. True b. False
12. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
a. Elevated serum ach receptor binding antibodies
b. Repetitive nerve stimulation test
c. Positive adrophonium test
d. Measurement of jitter by single fiber electromyography
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., p. 2519
13. Avulsed teeth with replantation, dentist evaluate prognosis with:
a. Flexible wire b. Ridge wire
c. In follow-up PD wire d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed,. (2008), p. 118
14. Food low cariogenic affect, the following should be characteristic:
a. Low buffering capacity b. pH low than 3
c. Contain mineral d. All the above
Reference: http\//«ww.foodproductdesign.corn/ai1icles/2009/1 Q/dentist-approved-foods.aspx
15. The palatal root of maxially first molar will be:
a. Concave and flattened in mesiodistal length
b. Concave palataly
c. Close to mesial root
d. Concave buccaly
16. Caries activity tests as a method of prevention for dental caries falls under which level of
prevention?
a. Primordial prevention b. Primary prevention
c. Secondary prevention d. Tertiary prevention
Reference: Soban Peter's Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, p. 262
17. High copper amalgam Is used to:
a. Eliminate gamma 2 b. Eliminate gamma 1
c. Eliminate late expansion d. None of the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed,. (2008), p. 664
Ans: 10.c, 11.a, 12.c, 13.a, 14.c, 15.d, 16.b, 17.a

'V-Vi-*-V
Paper 36
18. There is distal buldging present in primary second lower molar which is preventing the erup
tion of mandibular first molar. What’s your treatment plan?
a. Extraction of primary second molar
b. Extraction of permanent first molar
c. Slicing of distal buldge and guide the molar eruption
19. Salivary alpha amylase becomes inactive in the stomach primarily due to:
a. Inactivation by low pH b. Degradation by gastric pepsin
c. Inhibition by Cl d. Inhibition by peptides
20. The reason for gingival enlargement during pregnancy is:
a. Estrogen b. Progestron
c. a+b d. None of the above
21. Food is accumulating in the vestibule, means which muscle is paralysed? *
a. Buccinators b. Masseter
c. Orbicularis oris d. Lateral ptyergoid
When buccinator is paralyzed, as in Bell palsy, food accumulates in the oral vestibule.
22. The most sensitive, specific and gold standard test for diagnosis in all stages of HIV infection
is:
a. Polymerase chain reaction b. ELISA
c. Virus isolation d. None of the above
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed., p. 591
23. Absence of teeth will affect the growth of:
a. Mandible b. Maxilla
c. Alvelorbone d. All the above
24. To evaluate whether age plays an important role to influence periodontal disease. The test of
significance used is:
a. Paired ‘t’ test b. Unpaired't' test
c. Chi-Square test d. ANOVA
Reference: Mahajan and Gupta’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p. 153,168
25. The micro mechanical bond of GIC will be modified by:
a. Itching with phosphoric acid
b. Wil be increase by cleaning the itching surface with cholerexidne antiseptic
c. Apply cholerexidne with dentine bonding agent.
d. All the above
Ans: 18.c, 19.a, 20.c, 21.a, 22.a, 23.c, 24.d, 25.a

26. The main reason for vertical fracture of the RCT tooth:
a. Occlusal trauma b. Condensation force during GP obturation
c. Cast and post cementation d. All the above
27. The components of under-five clinics are:
a. Care in illness, adequate nutrition, family planning, mental health.
b. Care in illness, adequate nutrition, family planning, immunization
c. Care in illness, adequate nutrition, family planning, detection of communicable diseases
d. Care in illness, adequate nutrition, mental health, immunization.
Reference: Park’s Textbook of preventive and Social Medicine, p. 408
28. Gingival finish line depends on:
a. Remaining tooth structure b. Periodontal condition of the tooth
c. Presence of gingival condition d. All the above
29. Biologically and mechanically acceptable solder joint of FPD is:
a. It is thin occlusogingivally and wide faciolingually.
b. It extends to the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally.
c. It is circular in form and occupies the region of contact area.
d. It extends into the facial margin of the retainer.
Reference : Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 709
30. HbS antigen or antibody means:
a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D
31. Abfraction is:
a. V shaped cervical lesion b. Occurs in C E J
c. Non caries lesion d. All the above
Abfraction or theory of abfraction is a theory explaining the non-carious cervical lesions (NCCL). It
suggests that they are caused by flexural forces, usually from cyclic loading; the enamel, especially
at the cementoenamel j unction (CEJ), undergoes this pattern of destruction by separating the enamel
rods, believed to cause V-shaped depressions on the side under tension and C-shaped depressions
on the side under compression.
32. Anesthesia by infiltration technique will we success in following mandibular tooth:
a. Molar b. Incisor
c. Canine d. Premolar
Supraperiosteal injection (commonly known as local infiltration) is indicated whenever dental proce
dures are confined to a localized area in either the maxilla or mandible. The terminal endings of the
nerves innervating the region are anesthetized. The indications are pulpal anesthesia of all the max
illary teeth (permanent and primary), mandibular anterior teeth (primary and permanent) and man
dibular primary molars when treatment is limited to one or two teeth.
Ans: 26.d, 27.b, 28.a, 29.c, 30.b, 31.d, 32.b

Paper 36
33. What is the treatment for furcation I?

a. Guided tissue regeneration b. Bone osteoplasty
c. Scaling and curettage d. Alveoplasty
(Treatment of grade I furcation involvement usually involved scaling and curettage or by gingivec-
tomy)
Reference: Glickman, 9th ed., p. 749
34. Saliva contains which antigen?
a. IgG b. IgA
c. Ig E d. Ig
35. Collimator is used for?
a. Making x-rays narrow b. Prevent scattering of radiation
c. Prevent secondary radiation d. All the above
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, 5th ed., p. 14
A collimator is a device that narrows a beam of particles or waves. To “narrow” can mean either to
cause the directions of motion to become more aligned in a specific direction (i.e., collimated or
parallel) or to cause the spatial cross section of the beam to become smaller.
36. Which disease is caused during intiation and proliferation phase of tooth development?
a. Amelogenesis imperfecta b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Oligodontia d. Odonto dysplasia
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008), p. 70
37. Sensory nerve supply of pulp consists of A delta fiber and C Fiber. Which of them is faster
conducting myelinated and slower conducting unmyelinated?
1. A delta is faster 2. C Fiber is faster
3. A delta is slower 4. C Fiber is slower
a. 1+2 b. 2+3
c. 1+4. d. 2+4
Reference: Color Atlas of Endodontis by Kishore Gulabivala, 2nd ed., p. 6
A delta is faster conducting myelinated are thought to be responsible for sharp pain.
C fiber is thought to give rise to duller. Throbbing less localized pain
38. What is the type of fracture that causes mobility of the mid face?
a. Le Fort II b. Le Fort III
c. Zygomatic fracture d. Le Fort I
m
Ans: 33.c, 34.b, 35.d, 36.c, 37.c, 38.b
39, A ll of these are landmarks that indicate post palatal seal except:
a. Fovea palatine b. Hamular notch
c. Vibrating line d. Retromolar pad
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p. 90
40. The major connection (communication) between the pulp and the periodontal is through:
a. Apical foramen b. Lateral accessory canal
c. Dentinal tubes d. Periodontal ligaments
41. Purpose of subgingival scaling is:
a. To remove calculus b. To remove nicotine cementum
c. To make root surface biocompatible d. a and b only
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, p. 172
42. Fracture of maxillary tuberosity is treated by:
a. Replaced b. Removed
c. Alveoplasty d. No treatment
43. A patient with complete denture came complaining discomfort during swallowing and a sore
throat. What is the cause?
a. Overextension of denture b. Denture pressing on hamular notch
c. Underextension of denture d. None of the above
44. Which statement best describes plaque?
a. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and cannot be rinsed off the teeth
b. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off the teeth
c. It is a soft film composed mainly of bacteria and can berinsedoff the teeth
d. It is a soft film composed mainly of bacteria and can not berinsedoff the teeth
45. Antigen trapping and processing is function of:
a. Melanocytes b. Langerhans cells
c. Merkel cells d. Lymphocytes
Reference: Tenceat, p. 327
46. Selection of type of major connecter in partial denture is determined:
a. During examination b. During diagnosis and treatment planning
c. During bite registration.
47. What shape is the access cavity for upper incisors?
a. Triangular b. Ovoid
c. Round d. Oblong
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed., (2007-08), p. 152
Ans: 39.d, 40.a, 41 .a, 42.a, 43.a, 44.d, 45.b, 46.b, 47.a
Dento~G ulf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 36
46. Following is not an adverse effect of Ibuprofen?

a. Hematemesis b. Renal impairment
c. Agranulocytosis d. Gastrointestinal disturbances
Reference: Damle’s Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p. 406
49. It is better to reduce any occlusal deformities in the existing dentition before the fabrication
of a FPD as:
a. To prevent trauma to rest of the dentition.
b. To decrease the amount of adjustment required at the post insertion phase.
c. To prevent the duplication of the deflective occlusal contact in the new restoration.
d. To maintain a more accurate anatomical occlusal surface in the new restoration.
Reference: Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics p. 157
50. Reliability of measurements reflect that property of the measurements which:
a. Measures what is intended to be measured. —
b. Produces repeatedly the same results under a variety of conditions.
c. Detects reasonably small shifts, either direction, in group condition.
d. All the above.
51. Recent years, there has been evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the caries attack
has been diminishing in the more economically developed countries, mainly because of the
widespread use of:
a. Artificial water fluoridation b. Fluoride toothbrush
c. Dental health education programs d. a and c.
Reference: Soban Peter’s Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry p. 346
52. The ability of the ankylosed teeth and periodontium to adapt to altered force levels or direc
tion of force is:
a. Greater than normal teeth b. Lower than normal teeth
c. It does not changed remains the same. d. It depends upon the severity of force.
53. In terms of caries prevention, the most effective method and the most cost effective methods:
a. Community based programs b. Privately based programs
c. Individually based programs d. School based programs.
54. Epidemiology can be defined as:
a. A study of superficial areas of the skin
b. The study of the distribution and determinants of diseases frequency in man
c. Study of biological animals
d. Study of diseases in research laboratory
Ans: 48.b, 49.c, 50.b, 51 .d, 52.b, 53.a, 54.b

D e n to -G u ff - F o r G u ff C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
_
Section li: Model Question Papers
55. In pathfinder survey what are the age groups?

c. 15 years d. 35-44 years
e. 65-74 years f. All the above
Pathfinder survey: 5 years for primary dentition, other age groups are for permanent dentition
Reference: Extracts of the Fourth edition of "Oral Health Surveys - Basic Methods", Geneva 1997. This
extract concerns: Pathfinder Methodology. Pages 5 - 9.
56. Which anti HIV drug does not cause peripheral neuropathy?
a. Lamivudine b. Stavudine
c. Didanosine d. Zalcitabine
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed., p. 725
57. During perio surgery for a patient with chronic periodontitis we found carter. How will you
remove that carter?
a Osteotomy b. Osteoplasty
c. Gingivectomy d. Alveoplasty
58. Given sufficient time the degree of ethanol alcohol disinfection is:
a. 50% b. 60 %
c. 70% d. 80%
Reference: http://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/disinfection_sterilization/6_0disinfection.html
59. Fixed appliance for deciduous teeth is indicated for:
a. Space maintance b. Correction of malocclusion
c. Habit breaking d. All the above
60. The pedo patient behavior after 1st visit is affected by which environmental factor:
a Behavior shaping b. At home
c. The doctor & nurse showing great care d. Learning
61. The cement material with uniform film thickness:
a. Zinc oxide eugenol b. Resin
62. If a canal is prepared to a 5% taper, why not use a 5% master cone instead of the standard
2 %?
a. Cold lateral condensation would be very difficult
b. Sealant would be expressed through the apex
c. It would be too rigid to negotiate curved canals
d. They are very expensive
Ans: 55.f, 56.a, 57.a, 58.c, 59.a, 60.c, 61 .b, 62.a

Paper 36
63. An 8 year old patient swollowed 10 ml of 10% fluoride. What the immediate action?
a. Ingest milk b. Hospitalization
c. Nothing to worry d. Consult physician
Reference : Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008), P. 33
64. Decrease the polymerization shrinkage of composite by:
a Incremental placement with increase time of curing
b. Incremental placement with decrease time of curing
c. Incremental placement with high intensity light cure
d. Incremental placement with low intensity light cure
65. During mentoplasty doctor should take care for injury of what nerve?
a. Mental nerve b. Lingual nerve
c. Inferior alveolar nerve d. Facial nerve
66. What is the blade width of cutting instruments with the following formula: 10-85-8-14?
a. 10 mm b. 1.0 mm
c. 0.85 mm d. 0.80 mm
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p. 311
67. Wall defect in perio. What is the best graft to treat this defect?
a. Cortical freeze dried bone allograft b. Cancellous freeze dried bone allograft
c. All are the same d. None of the above
68. Test for determinig the efficiency of sterilizing agent is:
a. Fungi b. Virus
c. Bacteria d. Bacterial spores
69. Sterilization means killing of:
a. Virus b. Fungi
c. Bacteria d. Virus, fungi, bacteria, bacteria spores
e. Virus, fungi, bacteria
70. The sequence of completion of facial growth by planes of space is:
a. Depth, width, height b. Height, depth, width
c. Width, depth, height d. Depth, height, width
Reference: Proffit's Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 100
Ans: 63.a, 64.a, 65.a, 66.a, 67.a, 68.d, 69.d, 70.c

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER-3 7
1. What is the best instrument used for removing unsupported enamel at the gingival wall of
class II cavity preparation for amalgam restoration?
a. Chisel b. Hatchet
c. Gingival marginal trimmer d. Hoe
Reference: Shillingburg's Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 130
2. During the impression making after tooth preparation for FPD, the gingival retraction is
done for:
1. To temporarily expose the finish margin of the preparation.
2. To accurately record the finish margin and a portion of uncut tooth surface to the margin in the final
impression.
3. Even in the presence of gingival inflammation.
4. By various methods but the most common one is the retraction cord.
a. 1 + 2 b. 2 + 3
c. 1 + 2 + 4
3. The polishing agent which can be used to polish amalgam restrations:
a. Garnate b. Emery
c. Si lex d. Alumina
Reference. Siutdevani's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry
4. Which of the following is a non-absorbable suture?
a. Nylon b. Plain catgut
c. Chromic catgut d. All the above
Dental Decks, 2nd ed., (2007-08), p. 1774
5. A patient returns one week after scaling and prophylaxis, hard black deposits of calculus are
noted near the gingival margin. This indicates that:
a. The patient is a heavy tea drinker.
b. Shrinkage occurred after instrumentation.
c. Home care is poor and new calculus formed.
d. After scaling blood clotted on the tooth surface.
Ans: 1.c, 2.c, 3.c, 4.a, 5.b

Paper 37
6. The primary indication for precision attachment of RPD when the abutment teeth are well
supported is:
a When the patient is esthetically concerned.
b. Abutment teeth require restoration.
c. No posterior abutment teeth are present.
d. When teeth are present on both the ends of the edentulous area.
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontlcs, p. 81
7. The first step in the alteration of the abutment teeth contour in the natural tooth preparation
for the RPD is:
a. Preparation of the occlusal rest seat.
b. Disking of the proximal surfaces, parallel to the path of insertion.
c. Cutting a retentive undercut on the facial surface if needed.
d. Decreasing the height of contour to the gingival one third on the abutment tooth.
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontlcs, p. 287
8. Most acceptable material for retrograde filling is: . _
a. Silver amalgam b. Zinc free silver amalgam
c. Silver glass ionomer cement d. MTA
Reference: Ingle’s Endodontics, p. 278
9. The best time to do dental surgical procedures for the pregnant lady is:
a. First to third month b. Second fifth month
c. Forth to sixth month d. Seventh to ninth month
10. What is the diagnosis of the child with clinical features of anodontia and loss of body hair?
a. Down’s syndrome b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Dentinal dysplasia d. Diabetes
11. The period of infancy usually refers to:
a. First 2 years after birth b. First 1 year after birth
c. First 6 months after birth d. First 18 mon
12. Which of the following materials is used for cavity etching before applying GIC restoration?
a. Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds b. Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds.
c. Phosphoric acid 10 seconds d. Phosphoric acid 60 seconds.
13. Psoriasis is associated with:
a. Geographic tongue b. Benign median rhomboid glossitis
c. Lupus erythematosus d. Lupus vulgaris
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed., p. 1109
14. What is Hunter-Schreger band?
15. The aim of preprosthetic surgery for ridges is to increase:
a. Vertical dimension b. Speech
c. Modify ridge for stability d. Esthetic appearance
Ans: 6.d, 7.b, 8.d, 9.c, 10.b, 11.b, 12.a, 13.a, 14.b, 15.c
16. Difference between fluoride gel and varnish:

a Gel given by tray where as varnish cannot.
b. Gel application is not for office use.
c. More number of applications can be done by varnish.
d. Gel penetrates the interproximal surface better, while varnish cannot.
17. Which of the following microorganisms particularly associated with the initiation of the cari
ous process:
a. Streptococcusmutans b. Streptococcus salivary
c. Lacto bacillus d. Staphylococcus
18. A rigid part of the partial denture casting that unites the rests and another part of the prosthe
sis to the opposite side of the arch is called:
a Minor connecter b. Major connector
c. Retainer d. Rest
Major connector - It is defined as, “A part of a removable partial denture which connects the compo
nents on one side of the arch to the components on the opposite side of the arch”
19. An adult patient comes to your dental office with pain on the upper right area, and the patient
cannot tell the tooth which causes the pain. What is the least reliable way to do test pulp?
a. Cold test b. Hottest
c. Electric test d. Stimulation the dentine
20. You want to make amalgam restoration with pin; the ideal depth of the pin that should go into
the dentine is:
a. 1 mm b. 2-3 mm
c. 5 mm d. Should be in the enamel.
21. Facial skeleton is formed from:
a. Neurocraniumossification b. Endochondral ossification
c. Intramembranous ossification d. All the above
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed., (2007-08), p. 287
Endochondral ossification: Short bone and long bone. Ethmoid, sphenoid and temporal bone.
Intramembranous ossification: Flat bones, maxilla and mandible
22. Guiding planes of partial denture are:
a Located adjacent to the edentulous area
b. Located far anterior to the edentulous area
c. Helps in the stability of the denture
d. Provides a different path of insertion and removal
Ans: 16.a, 17.a, 18.b, 19.d,20.b, 21.d, 22.a

Paper 37
23. A child 3 years old came to clinic after falling on his chin. You found that the primary incisor
intruded the follicle for the permanent incisor. What you will do?
a. Surgical removal of the follicle b. Leave it
c. Surgically removal of the primary incisor d. None of the above
24. A young female patient wants highly esthetic, porcelain crown for her anterior maxillary teeth,
which has been RC treated. Which of the following ceramics you will choose?
a. Decor b. Zirconia
c. In ceram d. Impress
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 436
25. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of chlorhexidine mouthwash?
a. Staining of the teeth b. Burning sensation,
c. Altered taste d. Cause allergy
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. p. 36,448
26. After you have completed the bleaching of a tooth, you want to restore the tooth with com
posite resin, you don’t want to compromise the bonding. So you decide to
a. Wait for 24 hours b. Wait for a week
c. Wait for one month d. Choose a different material
Reference: Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials. Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd ed., 2009
Esthetic restoration of teeth should be delayed for 2 weeks after the completion of tooth whitening.
27. Rubber dam is important because it:
c. Improves suction d. provides sterile field
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed., p. 2220
28. After a minor accident a 7 year old boy came to the clinic with fracture of the right maxillary
central incisor with large pulp exposure. What is the treatment plan ?
a. Pulpectomy with Ca (OH)2. b. Direct pulp capping
c. Leave it d. Extraction
A 7 year old patient will be having incomplete central incisor, so pulpectomy with Ca (OH)2 will help to
maintain the apexogenisis of the tooth.
29. Maxillary sinus reaches its normal adult size by the age of:
c. 18 years d. 21 years
30. If the patient is taking heparins. you should perform the surgery after:
a. 1 hr b. 2 hr
c. 4 hr d. 6 hr
Ans: 23.c, 24.c, 25.a, 26.b, 27.a, 28.a, 29.b, 30.d

31. Force required for headgear to restrain maxillary growth is:

a 50 to 100 gm per side b. 150 to 200 gm per side
c. 250 to 500gm per side d. 750 to 1000 gm per side
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics - The Art and Science, p. 369
32. Streptococcus mutans cause caries and this disease is:
a Epidemic. b. Endemic,
c. Isolated d. None of the above
33. How will you determine the occlusal plane during complete denture construction by which
following landmark?
a. Frankfort plan b. Ala tragus line
c. Sagittal plane d. Inter pupillary line
Ala tragus line otherwise its called camper's line
34. Pain of short duration started by hot and cold stimuli. It is most probably due to:
a. Irreversible pulpitis b. Pulp necrosis
c. Dentin hypersensitivity d. Chronic pulpitis
35. A high tracing device is used for:
a. Extra oral graphic tracings b. Intra oral graphic tracings
c. Cephalometric tracings d. Determining focal forms
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p. 148,150
36. The first bone formed in response to orthodontic loading is:
a. Bundle bone b. Composite bone
c. Lamellar bone d. Woven bone
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics - The Art and Science, p. 190
37. The power toothbrush invented in:
a. 1929 b. 1939
c. 1929 d. 1959
38. A 30 years old patient came to the clinic with brownish discoloration of all his teeth. In clinical
examination you found its all intrinsic discoloration and tooth looks yellowish in U/V light.
What will be the most likely cause for this?
a. Flourosis b. Tetracycline discoloration
c. Amelogensis imperfect d. Dentogensis imperfectea
39. Which of the following cavity bases are moisture sensitive?
a. Zinc polycarboxylate b. Zinc phosphate
c. Gl cement d. ZnO eugenol
e. a & c
Ans: 31.c, 32.b, 33.b, 34.c, 35.a, 36.a, 37,b, 38.b, 39.c
Paper 37
40. Best position for apically displaced flap is:

a At the alveolar crest b. At 2 mm apical toalveolar crest
c. At 1 mm apicalto alveolar crest d. At 1 mm coronalto alveolar crest.
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Perlodontology, p. 851-858
41. What is the minimal facial reduction you will do, when you are preparing for veneers?
a 0.3 mm b. 0.3-0.5 mm
c. 1-1.5 mm d. 1.5-2 mm
42. Squamous cell carcinoma is multifactorial:
a True b. False
43. The most important microorganism in dental caries is:
a Streptococcus mutans b. Streptococcus sallvarlus
c. Fusobacterlum spirochetes d. Mucobacterlum
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p. 95
44. Emergency endodontic treatment should not be started before
a. Establishing a treatment plan b. Clinical examination
c. Check restorabllity of the tooth d. Establishing diagnosis
45. When will you select the type of major connector in partial denture construction?
a. During examination b. During diagnosis and treatment planning
c. During bite registration d. During trial denture
46. After placing a free gingival graft, the graft epithelium undergoes which of the following
alterations:
a. Dysplasia b. Degeneration
c. Proliferation d. Orthokeratinization
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, p. 856
47. White polycarbonate crowns are temporary crowns used for anterior teeth:
a. True b. False
48. For etching 15 sec for composite use:
a. 37% phosphoric acid b. 15% nitric acid
c. 3% sulfuric acid d. None of the above
49. Polysulfide impression material:
a. Should be poured within 1 hour b. Can be poured after 24 hours
c. Can be poured after 6-8 hours d. Can be poured after 3 days
Ans: 40.b, 41 .b, 42.a, 43.a, 44.d, 45.b, 46.b, 47.a, 48.a, 49.a
50. Repeated topical applications of fluoride agent will not produce tooth mottling because:
a. The fluoride concentration of the solution is weak.
b. The applied fluoride is neutralized by calcium in saliva.
c. It is not fluoride that produces the mottling seen in fluorosis.
d. The tooth is already calcified and cannot be altered in this fashion.
Reference: Soban Peter’s Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry p. 339
51. While doing the extraction of upper posterior tooth, the root is pushed inside the maxillay
sinus. What will you do?
a. Leave it and inform the patient b. Remove it as soon as possible
c. Follow the patient for 3 months d. None of the above
52. Differences between ANUG and AHGS is:
a. ANUG occurs in dental papillae while AH G S presents with diffuse erythematous inflamed gingivae
b. ANUG occurs during young adult and AHGS in children
c. All of the above
53. The intrapleural pressure is negative both during inspiration and expiration because:
a. Intrapulmonary pressure is always negative.
b. Thoracic cage and lungs are elastic structure.
c. Transpulmonary pressure determines the negativity.
d. Surfactant prevents the lungs to collapse.
Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed., p. 650
54. Difference between Gracey and Universal curettes:
1. Section of Gracey is semicircular and universal is triangular
2. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has 2 cutting edges
3. Gracey used for cutting in specific areas while universal is in any area
4. Universal 90 not offset, Gracey 60 offset
Select the appropriate combination
a. 1 + 2 b. 2 + 4
c. 1 + 2 + 3 d. 2 + 3 +4
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periodontal curette
55. A person drinking fluoridated water, using tooth paste with fluoride, rinsing with fluoride
mouthwash, then there is no need to put pit and fissure sealant in his permanent molars:
a. True b. False
Ans: 50.d, 51 .b, 52.c, 53.b, 54.iv, 55.b

Paper 37
56. Angles between adhesive and adherent is zero degree, it indicates:

a. Complete wetting of surfaces.
b. Rough surfaces between adhesive and adherent.
c. Adherent and adhesive molecules are tangent to each other.
d. Irregularities present between adherent surfaces.
Reference: Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 11th ed, p. 38
57. Radio opacity attached to root of mandibular molar
a. Ossifying fibroma b. Hypercementosis
c. Periapical cemental dysplasia d. Cementoma
58. Which of the following will cause the fracture of occlusal rest?
a. Shallow preparation in marginal ridge b. Acute angulation of rest
c. Extension of rest to central fossa d. Improper centric relation
Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics, p. 61
59. FPD bridge returns to the dentist from the lab with different degree of color, although the
shade is the same. The probable cause is:
a Thin metal framework b. Different thickness of porcelain
c. Thick opaquer d. Inadequate firing of porcelain
60. When you are checking the complete denture in patient’s mouth, it is poorly fit and inad
equate interocclusal relation then what will you do?
a. Relining b. Rebasing
c. New denture d. None of the above
61. All the following are true regarding Hemophilus influenzae, except:
a It can be a part of the normal flora in same person.
b. The serotyping is based on the bacterial outer membrane proteins.
c. It requires hemin and NAD for growth in culture medium.
d. Type B is responsible for invasive diseases.
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology 7th ed., p. 333,335
62. Stage of delirium is achieved in ______ of general anesthesia:
a Stage I b. Stage II
c. Stage III d. Stage IV
Reference: Damles' Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p. 391
63. Polishing bur for composite have:
a. Less than 6 blades b. 6-7 blades
c. 10-12 blades d. More than 12 blades.
Ans: 56. a, 57.c, 58.d, 59.b, 60.c, 61 .b, 62.b, 63.d

64. Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be minimized by:
a. Slowly injection b. Talking to the child during injection
c. Using long needle d. 1+2.
65. Large anterior fontanelles, open sutures, slanting eyes, decreased sexual development, mac-
roglossia and enamel hypoplasia are seen in:
a. Craniofacial dysostosis b. Down syndrome
c. Treacher Collin’s syndrome d. Marians syndrome
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed., p. 998,999
66. According to the Kennedy’s classification, the bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to
the remaining natural teeth is:
a. Class one b. Class two
67. Mucus retention cyst can be treated by:
a Excision b. Cauterization
c. Incision d. Marsupialization
Mucus retention cyst otherwise called ranula
68. Commonest cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
a. Trauma b. Development disturbances
c. Infections d. Atrophy
Reference: IMeelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of C il and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed., p. 207
69. The 4th canal of maxillary first molar is found in:
a. MB root b. DB root
c. Palatal root d. None of the above
70. Which of the following agent causes interstitial nephritis?
a. Ampicillin b. Amoxicillin
c. Methicillin d. Cloxacillin
Reference: K.D.Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed., p. 659
Ans: 64.d, 65.b, 66.a, 67.d, 68.a, 69.a, 70.c

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 38
1. Lingual plate is indicated when:

a. There is need for addition of one or more anterior teeth
b. Deep lingual sulcus
c. Good ridge support
d. Narrow lingual sulcus
2. Which of the following is used to detect the inter proximal caries of anterior teeth?
a. Periapical X-ray film b. Bitewing X-ray film
c. Occlusal X-ray film d. None of the above
3. Mandibular foramen in young children is:
a. At level of occlusal plane b. Above the level of occlusal plane
c. Anterior to the level of occlusal plane d. Below the level of occlusal plane
4. All of the following about Down’s syndrome are true, except:
a PD L degeneration takes place.
b. Tooth never exfoliates though there is advanced PDL loss.
c. Deep periodontal pockets associated with a substantial plaque.
d. Acute necrotizing lesions are a frequent finding.
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, p. 406,407
5. When we do endodontic treatment in children the rubber dam must be used because the
rubber dam will help in:
a. For Increase visibility and accessibility.
b. To protect patient against swallowing and foreign material.
c. For sterile field.
...riamel concavities
d. a + b
d) Ankylosis
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd r
. li is
é I : seen m:
6. In primary teeth, pathr’ b) Occlusal trauma

a. Periapical area ,es d) All of the above
c. Alveolar cre^
Reference
Azns: 18.a, 19.c, 20.d, 21.c, 22.b, 23.c, 24.c, 25.d

D en to -G u lf - For Gulf Countries L ic e n s in g Exeminations
7. Incisal liability in the upper jaw is:

a 1.7 mm b. 6 mm
c. 0.9 mm d. 7.6 mm
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics, The Art and Science, p. 44
8. Eruption cyst can be treated by:
a. No treatment is needed b. Immediate incision
c. Complete uncoverage d. Observe for one week then incise
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p. 68
9. After trauma a tooth becomes yellowish in color. This is due to:
a. Necrotic pulp b. Irreversible pulpits
c. Pulp is partially or completely obliterated d. Hemorrhage in pulp
Reference: Endo Principles and Practice of Endodontics Walton, p. 45
Yellowish discoloration of the crown is often a manifestation of calcific metamorphosis.
10. Step deformity of mandibular body fracture may be due to:
a. Forward pull of lateral pterygiod muscle. b. Upward pull of masseter and temporails.
c. Inwardpull of medialpterygiodmuscle. d. Downward pull of geniohyoid and mylohoid.
11. In gamma 2 amalgam, the amount of copper is:
a. 13.1 b. 21.5.
c. 16.2 d. 18.3
12. Transitional dentition is characterized by:
a Distoangular axial inclination of maxillary incisors.
b. Distoangular axial inclination of mandibular incisors.
c. Mandibular lateral incisors erupting lingual to central incisors.
d. Maxillary lateral incisors erupting lingual to central incisors.
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science, p. 48
13. Inorganic material in bone comprises:
a 65% b. 25%
c. 10% d. 95%
14. Facial nerve supply — which of the following muscles?
a. Masseter muscle b. Temporalis muscle
r RimHnator muscle d. Mylohyoid muscle
dral ossification
b. False
->es:
•’ rostomia
Ans: 64.d, 65.b, 66.a, 67.d, 68.a, 69.a, 70.c

Paper 3B
18. During preparation for cast gold restoration the cusp that is weekend by the cavity prepara
tion must be:
a. Reduced and covered by cast restoration.
b. Strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core.
c. Beveled to reduced forces.
19. Which of the following is easy to do re RCT?
a. Over obturated RCT b. Obturated with silver cone
c. Under obturated RCT d. RCT with broken instrument in canal
20. Epliptic patients should not take this drug:
a. Aspirin b. Paracetamol
c. Pencillin d. Metronidazole
Drugs used in dentistry that can increase anticonvulsant activity, leading to overdose -> aspirin and
other NSAIDs
Drug problems in epilepsy drugs that can be epileptogenic and therefore are contraindicated
alcohol —» chlorpromazine -> enflurane - » flumazenil —>fluoxetine ketamine —>lidocaine (large
doses) metronidazole
21. Primary tooth with destruction of 3 to 4 surfaces. The best restoration is:
a. Amalgam b. Full porcelain crown
22. If the patient who is on NSAIDs consumes alcohol than there is:
a. Increase risk of bleeding. b. Increase risk of ulceration,
c. Decrease effect of NSAIDs. d. Increase risk of hypotension.
Reference: Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, p. 34
23. On trauma to a primary tooth, it is depressed into socket and on radiograph, it is pushed into
permanent tooth follicle. Treatment of choice is:
a) Wait for the tooth to erupt b) Suture the wound
c) Forcefully extraction of the tooth d) Orthodontically extrude
24. Trauma to primary tooth close to the permanent tooth may cause:
a) Dilaceration b) Enamel concavities
c) Turner’s hypoplasia d) Ankylosis
25. Tertiary dentine deposition is seen in:
a) Severe attrition b) Occlusal trauma
c) Recurrent carries d) All of the above
Ans: 18.a, 19.c, 20.d, 21.c, 22.b, 23.c, 24.c, 25.d

Dento-Gul1 - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
26. The correct comparison of amount of tooth reduction for metal ceramic crown and porcelain
jacket crown is related to:
a. The facial tooth reduction is more in metal ceramic.
b. The incisal reduction is the same for both.
c. There is more lingual reduction in metal ceramic.
d. There is less lingual reduction in metal ceramic.
Reference: RosenstiePs Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 216
27. A 55 year old male has mucocutaneous lesion. On immunostaining it shows auto antibodies:
a) Pemphigus bullous b) Pemphigus vulgaris
c) Apthous ulcers d) Lichen planus
28. Trauma to primary tooth will cause:
a) Fracture of tooth b) Fracture of root
c) Intrusion d) Cannot remember this point
29. On radiograph proximal radio luceny on outer aspect of dentine does indicate caries cTmically
or approximate 60% of teeth with radiographic proximal lesion in outer half of dentin are
likely to be non cavitated:
a) 10 percent cases b) 30 percent cases
c) 90 percent cases d) 50 percent case
30. A patient has dull pain and discomfort in right preauricular area on opening the mouth. On
opening the mouth, mandible deviates to the right with limited lateral movements and no
crepitus or popping sound is heard. Reason could be :
a) Osteoarthiritis
b) MPDS
c) Articular derangement with reduction
d) Articular derangement without reduction
31. Partsch II operation is:
a Marsupialization b. Enucleation.
c. Combined 1 and 2 d. Marsupialization by opening into nose or antrum
Reference: IMeelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p. 463
32. What are compomers?

a) Composite andceramics b) Resin with flouride releasing glass
c) GIC d) Composite with micro fillers
33. What is the most easiest way to prevent caries?
a) Diet control b) Water flouridation
c) Mouthwash d) Pit and fissure sealent
Ans: 26.a, 27.b, 28.a, 29.b, 30.d, 31 .c, 32.b, 33.b

Paper 3B
34. Complications of PSA nerve block

a) Hematoma b) injury to pterygoid plexus
c) Parasthesia of palate d) a+b
35. Ester group is not found in which LA?
a. IMovocaine b. Orocaine
c. Duocaine d. Carbocaine
Reference : Monheim's local anesthesia and paincontrol in general practice-125
36. Vitamin that also acts as hormone:
a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B, d. Vitamin C
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, p, 484
37. A patient has bad oral hygiene and missing right and left lateral insicors. What will be your
treatment plan?
a. Implant b. RPD
c. Conventional FPD d. Maryland bridge
38. All these are contraindicated to RCT, except:
a. Non restorable tooth b. Vertical root fracture
c. Tooth with insufficient tooth support d. Patient who has diabetes
39. If there is mass within the submandibular gland then:
a. Whole gland should be removed.
b. Mass with some unaffected margin should be removed.
c. Only mass should be removed.
d. No need to remove. It can cure by radiation.
Reference: Goaz White's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, p. 530
40. A child 3 years old came to clinic after falling on his chin. You found that the primary incisor
entered the follicle for the permanent incisor. What you will do
a Surgical removal of the follicle b. Surgicall removal of the primary incisor,
c. Leave it d. Antibiotic coverage
41. Instrument which we use to make groove in the wax is:
a. Wax carver b. Wax knife
c. Kingsley carver d. Spatula
42. Force transmitted from the teeth in one arch to the teeth in opposing arch is termed as:
a. Intramaxillary encourage b. Intramaxiflary traction
c. Intermaxillary traction d. Intermaxillary encourages
Reference: Bhalaji, Orthodontics The Art and Science, p. 207
Ans: 34.d, 35.d, 36.a, 37.b, 38.d, 39.a, 40.b, 41 .a, 42.a
43. Which of the following imaging methods show disk position and morphology of TMJ bone:
a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. CT
c. Arthrography d. Plain radiograph
e. Plain tomography
44. Which of the following is true of paralleling cone technique?
a. The radiopacity of the zygoma is superimposed on the roots of third molars.
b. Easy to place with the film holder.
c. Less of gag reflex.
d. No need to sterilize the film holder.
45. A completely edentulous patient, the dentist delivers a denture in the 1st day normally, 2nd
day the patient returns unable to wear the denture again. The cause is:
a. Lack of skill of the patient
b. Lack of frenum areas relieve of the complete denture.
c. Improper occlusion
d. Poor denture stabilty
46. The part of a removable denture that forms a structure of metal struts that engages and
unites the metal casting with the resin forming the denture base is called:
a Minor connecter b. Major connecter
c. Denture base connector d. Retainer
side is the 2nd premolar which has a distal caries. Whafs the type of the clasp you will use for
tNs premolar:
a Gingivally approaching clasp. b. Ring clasp
c. Adams clasp d. Full clasp
Reference: McCracken Removable partial Prosthodontics, p. 104
48. One of the following has no effect on the life span of handpiece:
a. Low air in the compressor b. Trauma to the head of the hand piece
c. Pressure during operating handpiece d. Non application of lubricant oil
49. What is the advantage of wrought wire in RPD over cast wire?
a. Less irritation to the abutment b. More esthetic
c. Easy to manipulate d. Less expensive
50. Why do we use acrylic more than complete metal palate in complete denture?
a. Less expensive than metal b. Stronger than metal
c. Cant do relining in the metal. d. Easy to manipulate
Ans: 43.a, 44.b, 45.b, 46.c, 47.a, 48.a, 49.a, 50.c

Paper 3B
51. Which of the following is correct about breakdown of hemoglobin (Hb)?

a. Hb Heme Bilirubin Urobilinogen
b. Heme Hb Biliverdin Bilirubin Urobilinogen
c. Hb Heme Biliverdin Bilirubin Urobilinogen
d. Hb Heme Bilirubin Urobilinogen Biliverdin
Reference: Harper's Illustrated biochemistry, p. 278
52. Purulent exudation from gingival sulci is an indication of:
a Deep pockets
b. Severe periodontal attachment loss
c. Nature of inflammatory changes in the pocket wall
d. Shallow pockets
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 10th ed, p. 442
53. Stimulus response theory is also known as:
a. Physical restraint b. Aversive conditioning
c. Behavior shaping d. TLC.
54. Labial reduction for porcelain metal restoration must be:
a. 1 plane for aesthetic b. 2 plane by follow the morphology
c. 1 mm tooth surfacereduction d. None of the above
55. A ll of the following are true about heparin except:
a. Weakest acid found in living things b. Act via antithrombin activation
c. Produce thrombocytopenia d. All of the above
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p. 561
56. The most rapid growth in humans occurs during:
a Prenatal period b. 6 to 12 months after birth
c. 3 to 5 years of life d. 6 to 12 years old
Reference: McDonald’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, p. 626
57. One day after filling of class II restoration, the patient presents with a complain of tenderness
on mastication and bleeding from the gingival. The dentist should initially:
a. Check the occlusion.
b. Check the contract area.
c. Consider the probability of hyperemia.
d. Explain to the patient that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue and prescribe an anal
gesic and warm oral rinse.
Ans: 51 .c, 52.c, 53.c, 54.b, 55.a, 56.a, 57.d

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s Licensing Examinations
J
58. Balanced occlusion refers to:

a The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric jaw positions.
b. The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in eccentric jaw positions.
c. The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw
positions.
59. The non-rigid connectors are used in the construction of FPD when the span is:
a. Short, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction in anterior region.
b. Short, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction in posterior region.
c. Long, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction in anterior region.
d. Long, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction in posterior region.
Reference: Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 708, 709
60. The indication for the use of lingual plate major connector include:
a. For the purpose of retention.
b. When the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus.
c. To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth.
61. Components of removable partial dentures are:
a Major and minor connectors b. Direct and indirect retainers
c. Denture base d. All of the above
62. Instructing the patient to say ‘ah’ with short vigourous bursts will help in visualizing:
a. Soft palate b. Posterior vibrating line
c. Anterior vibrating line d. Junction of hard and soft palate
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy's Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed., p. 52,53
63. Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the root canal is attributed mainly to:
a. Proper antibiotic thereby
b. Effective use of medicament
c. Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the canal
64. Over spatulation of plaster of Paris results in:
a. Increased strength of set material
b. Decrease in strength of set material
c. Not resulted to strength of material
d. Results in decrease of setting material
Reference: Skinner's Science of Dental Materials, 10th ed, p. 193
Ans: 58.c, 59.c, 60.d, 61 .d, 62.c, 63.c, 64.b

65. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class IIamalgam cavity should be removed using:
a. Straight chisel b. Hatchet
c. Gingival curette d. GMT
66. ‘Herald spot' is a characteristic feature of:
a. Measles b. Erythema multiforme
c. Vitamin A deficient children d. Pityriasis rosea
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed, p. 1110
67. To provide maximum strength of amalgam restoration the cavo-surface angles should place
all EXCEPT:
a. Approach 75 with outer surface b. Approach 90 with outer surface
c. Be supported by sound dentine d. Be located in area free of occlusal stress
68. The first macroscopic indication of morphologic development of primary incisors occurs
approximately at:
a. 11 weeks in utero b. 14 weeks in utero
c. 16 weeks in utero d. 6 weeks in utero
69. The minimally acceptable restoration for an endodontically treated maxillary first premolar
is:
a. An onlay b. MOD amalgam
c. A full cast crown d. An occlusal amalgam
70. Letterer-Siwe disease is a disturbance and:
a. Protein metabolism b. Lipid metabolism,
c. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism. d. Carbohydrate metabolism.
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 5th ed, p. 871,872
Ans: 65.d, 66.d, 67.a, 68.a, 69.a, 70.b

V
MODEL QUESTION
^PAPER - 39
Calculus Induce further periodontal lesion due to:

a. Directly stimulates inflammation
b. More plaque adhere to it
c. Calcium deposition will cause gingival irritation
d. All the above
2. Which of the follow ing is not true about topical fluoride application?
a. Varnishes have greater depth of penetration and greater surface concentration of fluoride
b. Patient asked to take liquid and semisolid food only for 18 hrs.
c. Oral prophylaxis is mandatory before topical fluoride application
d. No significant difference was found in remineralisation after duraphat containing 2.3% & 1.1%
fluoride was used.
3. To prevent perio problem m ost effective m ethod is:
a Community program b. Removal of plaque
c. Patient education d. Water fluoridation
4. Early lo ss o f anterior tooth in children will cause:
a. Affect phonetic b. Affect esthetics
c. Cause space loss d. a and b
e. All the above
5. Different m icrostructures has been described for gold foil, mat g o ld and powered gold. It has
been demonstrated at the m icroscopic level that the:
a. Void space remains in any compacted gold.
b. Gold foil is more porous than any other form of gold.
c. Crystalline gold can be packed densely more readily than gold foil.
d. Proper compaction can remove all voids from commercially available direct filling gold.
Pulpotom y was done in relation to right m andibular molar of a child one day before. Patient
com es back with u lcers on right lower lip. What could be the reason ?
a. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis b. Masticatory trauma
c. HSV d. Cant remember
A n s: 1.b, 2.c, 3.b, 4.d, 5.a, 6.b
0 D ento-G ulf - For G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n sin g E xa m in a tio n s

Paper 39
7. Light m eal should be avoided for h rs before procedure in general anesthesia in chil-
dren:
a. 2 hrs b. 4 hrs
c. 5 hrs d. 6 hrs
Reference: Damle's Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p. 392
8. Which o f the follow ing antigens o f hepatitis B virus is associated with envelop?
a. HBeAg b. HBeAg
c. HBsAg d. All of the above
9. A picocectom y is done in:
a. Single cone obturation of maxillary Cl and 9 mm radiolucency at apex postoperatively which was
absent earlier
b. Premolar, first root has radiolucency 2x3 mm but the other root is fine.
c. Lateral Incisor which is densely packed and root canal treated.
d. Periapical radiolucency in lower first molar after RCT
10. Which radiographic projection is m ost useful in exam ining stone o f a subm andibular duct?
a. Cross sectional occlusal b. O PG
c. Lateral oblique d. PA view of mandible
Reference: White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology, 5th ed., p. 91
11. Which o f the follow ing is a com m on cause o f pain during R C T ?
a. Pulp remnants b. Debris packed in canal
c. Filing materials d. None of the above
12. M ercury scra p s can be stored in:
a. Developer b. Fixer
c. Water d. HCI
13. Reparative dentine is best described:
a. At surface of pulp due to irritational response
b. It is stimulated my CaOH
c. Reduced dentinal hypersensitivity
14. Initial lesion of acquired syp h ilis is:
a. Ulcer b. Vesicles
c. Chancre d. Punched out leasion
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2008) p. 434
15. Patient com plains o f tight denture which was otherwise perfect when delivered. Radiographi
cally h is bones show ing cotton wool appearance. What will be the diagnosis?
a. Paget disease b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Maxillary tori d. Osteosarcoma
16. Autogenous rib graft for ridge augmentation is usually harvested from:
a. First rib b. Second and fourth rib
c. Sixth and ninth rib d. Eleventh and twelth rib
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 1st ed., p. 395
A n s: 7.d, 8.c, 9.a, 10.a, 11.a, 12.b, 13.a, 14.c, 15.a, 16.c
33. In enam el caries p a ssin g h a lf o f enamel:

a. Leave it b. Restoration
c. Preventive d. Temporary restoration
If there is no cavitations, the best preventive measurement
34. B iological depth:
a. Crestal bone to gingival sulcus b. Gingival sulcus to gingival margin
c. Gingival margin to crestal bone d. All the above
Its physiologic dimension of epithelium and connective tissue attachment (sulcus + epithelium+ con
nective tissue) = 2.04 mm
35. R igid palatal strap m ajor connector. The material o f construction is:
a. Co-Cr b. Au-Ti
c. Cu d. Wrought wire
36. The u se o f low sp eed handpiece in rem oval o f soft caries in children, because of:
a. Less vibration b. Less pulp exposure
c. Better than high speed d. More removal of caries
37. Which of the follow ing applies to AID S patient?
a. They are able to generate a normal antibody response.
b. They have increased helper T cells.
c. They have increased secretion of interleukins.
d. They have decreased helper T cells.
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, p. 447
38. A 14 years old patient with avulsed in ciso rs 11 and 21. We can use a sp lin t for:
a 1 0 - 1 5 days b. 20 - 25 days
c. 3 0 - 3 5 days d. 40 - 45 days
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008) p. 118
39. Primary anterior teeth intruded after a traumatic injury m ay often be erupt within:
a. 3 to 4 weeks b. 8 to 12 weeks
c. 6 to 8 weeks d. 7 to 10 days
40. The com pression / relaxation cycle o f external cardiac com pression should be repeated:
a. 2 times / second b. 60 times / minute
c. 76 times / second d. 100 times / minute.
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2005)
Dental Decks, 2nd ed., p. 1790
A n s: 33.b, 34.a, 35.a, 36.b, 37.d, 38.a, 39.a, 40.d
Paper 39
Circulation feel for a carotid pulse. If it is present, provide 10 breaths per minute, checking the pulse
for 10 sec every 10 breaths. If no pulse commences chest compression, at the middle of the lower
half of the sternum, depressing 4%, 5 cm 100 times per minute.
41. One o f the prim ary considerations in the treatment o f fractures o f the jaw is:
a. To obtain and maintain proper occlusion b. Test teeth mobility
c. Vitality d. Embedded foreign bodies
42. Prevalence o f a disease is:
a. Rate b. Ratio
c. Proportion d. Deviation
Reference: Soban Peter’s Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 3rd ed, p. 87
43. Which statement is true?
a. Catabolism is a convergent process. b. 'Anabdlism is a divergent process,
c. Both are true. d. Both are false.
Reference: Lippincott’s Illustrated Reveiws Biochemistry, p. 91
44. The matrix band sh o u ld be above the adjacent tooth occlu sal surface by:
a. 1-2 mm b. 2-3 mm
c. 2.5-3.5 mm d. Below to it
Reference: Textbook of Operative Dentistry- with MCQs, p. 139
Matrix band should extend 2 mm above the marginal ridge height and 1 mm below gingival margin of
the cavity.
The matrix ban should not extend more than 2 mm beyond the occluso-gingival height of the crown of
the tooth. This facitilates vision and speed up working.
Thickness of band is 0.05 mm = 0.002 inch
Concepts in nonsurgical periodontal therapy-page 100
For adequate closure of the margin, a minimum 0.5 mm of matrix band beyond the margin is neces
sary.
45. Patient wears com plete denture for 10 years and now he has can cer in the floor o f the mouth.
What is the first question that the dentist should ask?
a. Does your denture is ill fitted? b. Do you smoke?.
c. Do you take Alcohol? d. Does your denture impinge the oral mucosa. ?
Reference: Screening Oral Cancer - Prepared by University of Missouri-Kansas City School of
Dentistry
80% of the cancer of the floor of the mouth is caused by smoking.
Ulceration on floor of mouth in edentulous patient, initially misinterpreted as denture irritation.
A n s: 41 .a, 42.c, 43.c, 44.a, 45.b
46. The best method for tooth brush is B a ss m ethod because:

a. It enter to interproximal area.
b. Can be used by patient with gingival recession and it rotainary advice to all types of patients.
c. The both sentences are correct.
d. a is correct, b is wrong
47. B a ss brushing has the advantage, a s the bristles enter in the cervical area, and it is recom
m ended fo r a ll patients:
a. Both statementsare true. b. Both statements are false
c. First is true, secondis wrong d. First is wrong, second is true
Bass method advantages:
It concentrates the cleaning action on the cervical and interproximal portions of the teeth.
The Bass technique is efficient and can be recommended for any patient with or without periodontal
involvement.
48. Patient com es to you with edem atous gingiva, inflamed, lo ss o f gingival contour andrecession.
What is the best tooth brushing technique?
a. Modified bass b. Modified Stillman
c. Charter d. Scrub
The brushing technique which is recommended after periodontal surgery is Charter
The brushing technique which is recommended for areas with progression gingival recession is
modified Stilman.
49. Stylom adibular ligament:
a. From lateral surface of styloid process to posterior border of ramus of mandible
b. Separate parotid and submandibular gland
c. attached with lingula of mandible
d. a + b
50. The best method to protect teeth that underwent bicuspidization procedure from fracture?
a. Full crown b. Splint with composite
c. Orthodontic splint d. All the above
51. A patient who sustaind a subcondyler fracture on the left side would be:
a. Unable deviate to the left side. b. Unable deviate to the right side
c. No deviation d. Unable to open mouth
A patient who sustaind a subcondyler fracture on the left side would be unable to deviete the mandible
to the right.
A n s: 46.c, 47.a, 48.b, 49.d, 50.a, 51 .b
Paper 39
52. Isolated pocket can be seen in:

a. Vertical root fracture b. Palato gingival groove
c. Endo origine lesion d. All.
Reference: http://www.mmcpub.eom/pdf/1998ppa/19...av10n3p369.pdf
Vertical root fractures: Clinical and radiographic diagnosis, Cohen et al. 134 (4): 434 The Journal of
the American Dental Association
53. Sensory nerve o f face is:
a Facial nerve b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Ophthamagic nerve d. All the above
54. Ugly duckling stage of dentition in children is corrected by the eruption o f which tooth?
a. Central incisor b. Lateral incisor
c. Canine d. Second molar
Reference: Bhalaji orthodontics: The Art and Science p. 48
55. A three year o ld child, has anodontia. What would yo u do:
a. Full denture b. Implant
c. Space maitainer d. No intervention
Reference: Paediatric dentistry - 3rd ed., (2005), p. 294
In cases of anodontia, full dentures are required. These can be provided, albeit with likely limited
success, from about 3 years of age, with the possibility of implant support for prostheses provided in
adulthood.
56. Oral scre e n s are used for a ll o f the follow ing purposes, except:
a Tongue thrusting
b. Mouth breathing
c. Lip biting
d. Retraction of upper protruded teeth
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics, The Art and Science, p. 336
57. A patient presents with deffieciency at the m alar bone and he has open bite but norm al m en
tal abilities;
a Treacher Cholins Syndrome b. Cleidocrenial dyspasia
c. Eagle syndrome d. Albright syndrome
58. Which type o f burs is the least in heat generation:
a. Diamond b. Carbide
c. Titanium d. All the above
Reference: Dental Secrets Stephen T. sonis, p. 200
More heat generated in diamond burs
A n s : 52.d, 53.b, 54.c, 55.a, 56.a, 57.a, 58.b
59. Com posite restoration follow-up after 2 years. It show ed stained m argin. T N s is due to:
a Stress from polymerization shrinkage b. Hydraulic destruction on bond
c. Secondary caries d. All the above
60. Which is true regarding regulation o f glycogen synthesis and degradation?
a. Glycogen synthase is allosterically controlled.
b. Pathways of glycogen synthesis is allosterically controlled.
c. Pathways of glycogen degradation is allosterically controlled.
d. Glycogen phosphorylation is hormonally regulated.
Reference: Lippincott's Illustrated Reveiws Biochemistry, p. 129
61. The ratio o f skeletal: dental expansion obtained finally after rapid palatal expansion is:
a. 4:1 b. 3:1
c. 2:1 d. 1:1
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics. The Art and Science
62. A p ica l periodontal cyst m ost com m only involves:
a. Maxillary anteriors b. Maxillary posteriors
c. Mandibular anteriors d. Mandibular posteriors
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology p. 678
63. The m ost rigid palatal m ajor connector is:
a. AP-palatal bar b. Palatal plate
c. Palatal bar d. Horse shoe shaped palatal bar
Reference: Deepak IMallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed., p. 331, 332
64. A fter cryosurgery necrotic slough falls off in:
a. 3 to 5 days. b. 1 to 2 weeks
c. 2 to 4 weeks d. 3 to 6 weeks
Reference: Dhingra’s Ear Nose and Throat, p. 317
65. What is the benefit o f rinsing the mouth with water?
a. Plaque removal b. Calculus removal
c. Washing the food debris d. Stains removal
66. A central m olecule that has a various m etabolic fates - glycolysis, glycogenecic, gluconeo-
genesis, and pentose phosphate pathway:
a. Glucose-6-phosphate b. Fructose-6-phosphate
c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate d. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
A n s: 59.a, 60.a, 61.d, 62.a, 63,a, 64.d, 65.c, 66.a

Paper 39
67. Provisional restoration fo r m etal ceram ic abutm ent is:

a. Aluminum sheet b. Stainless steal crown
c. ZNo d. Tooth colored polycarbonate crown
68. A m ong the following which extra oral radiograph best demonstrate the subcondylar fracture:
a. Town projection b. AP mandible
c. Submento vertex d. Occipitomental
69. The sw ollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is:
a Anitshowcell b. Tzankcell
c. Ghost cell d. Prickle cell
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, p. 1128
70. Aggravation of sym ptom s o f angina in a patient when given nitrates is seen in:
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Mitral regurgitation
c. Single left coronary artery stenosis d. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., p. 1411
A n s: 67.d, 68.a, 69.b, 70.d
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 4 0
1. Upon giving a lower m andible anesthesia, you notice the patient’s eye, cheek corner o f the lip
are uncontrolled. What’s the reason?
a. Parasthesia of the facial nerve b. Parasthesia of the buccal nerve
c. Parasthesia of the mandibular nerve d. Parasthesia of the orbital nerve
While giving a lower mandible anesthesia, parasthesia of the facial nerve occurs if you are injecting
the LA solution near a branch of facial nerve in parotid capsule
2. Where does the breakdown o f amide type LA occu rs?
a. Kidneys b. Liver
c. Lungs d. GIT
3. Epstein pearls are cysts that arise from:
a. Squamous tissue of the mucosa b. Connective tissue of the mucosa
c. Rests of Malassez d. Dental lamina
4. What is the main function of Trays holes?
a. Fixing the Impression material
b. For air relase
c. To maintain the even thickness of impression material
5. What is the norm al prothrom bin time?
a. 11 - 15 sec b. 2 5 - 4 0 sec.
c. 1 min. d. 15 min.
6. A s a m anifestation of AIDS; K aposi’s sarcom a m ost com m only occu rs at:
a. Tongue b. Lips
c. Palate d. Cheek
7. Using fluoride toothpaste for children le ss than 3 years is:
a. Recommended
b. Toxic
c. Limited
d. Not useful
A n s: 1.a, 2.b, 3.d, 4.a, 5.a, 6.c
Paper 40
8. To detect the caries we use:

a. Acid red dye b. O P G
c. Mouth mirror d. All the above
Acid red dye 1% or propylene glycol, basic fuschin are used for caries detection.
9. Fo r best results in C la ss III m alocclusion correction, orthopedic appliance should be worn
atleast:
a. 12 to 16 hours per day b. 8 to 10 hours per day
c. 5 to 8 hours per day d. Throughout the night
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science, p. 376
10. ‘Onion sk in ’ appearance o f radiographs is seen in:
a. Fibrous dysplasia b. Osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma d. Chondrosarcoma
11. Antibiotic o f choice in a patient who is resistant to penicillin:
a. Erythromycin b. Clindamycin
c. Metronidazole d. All the above
12. A 30 degree flexion o f head during m axillary im pression m akes the soft palate:
a. Move more b. Depress maximum
Reference: Winkler’s Essentials’ of Complete Denture Prosthodontics, p. 118
13. Gonion, pogonion are cephalom etric landm arks all fall on:
a. Cheeck bone b. Chin
c. Mandible d. Base of skull
14. Necrotizing sialom etaplasia m ost com m only affects:
a. Parotid gland b. Submandibular gland
c. Submaxillary gland d. Minor salivary gland
Reference: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology's, p. 344
15. C la ss 5 amalgam tooth preparation in canine. What would determine the m esial and distal
extent of cavity preparation?
a. Extend of caries b. Direction of the enamel rods
16. Which o f the follow ing is not a type o f cerebral p a lsy?
a. Spasticity b. Autism
c. Ataxia d. Athetosis
Reference: Shoba Tandon Textbook of Pedodontics, 2nd ed., p. 635
17. Hydroxyl ion is replaced easily with fluoride ion and is easily absorbed in tooth matrix be
cause:
a. Fluoride ion is smaller than hydroxyl ion in matrix.
b. One is negatively charged and one is positively charged.
A n s: 7.a, 8.a, 9.a, 10.c, 11.a, 12.b, 13.b, 14.d, 15.c, 16.b, 17.c
C. a & b.
18. While drilling a pin hole in vital tooth you perforated pulp accidently. What will you do?
a. Coat the tip of pin with calcium hydroxide and put the pin.
b. Proceed with pin placement in usual manner.
c. Fill the drilled hole with calcium hydroxide and then put the pin.
d. Root canal treatment
Reference: Clinical Endodontics Textbook, Tronstad, p. 224
19. A ch ild patient who dem onstrates resistance in the dental office is usually m anifesting:
a Anger b. Anxiety
c. Immaturity d. Inborn fear
Reference: National Board Dental Examination Apr. 1979
20. You noticed internal resorption on IOPA x-ray on a tooth which is otherwise asym ptom atic.
What should be your treatment plan?
a. Pulpectomy b. Pulpotomy
c. Extract the tooth d. RCT with calcium hydroxide filling
Reference: Clinical Endodontics, Tronstad, p. 224
21. Nausea is a com plaint that a new denture wearer m ight encounter. It m ay result from:
a. Thick posterior border b. Denture under extended
c. Denture slightly over extended d. All the above
22. Which o f the following is called room temperature vulcanizations rubber (RTV)?
a. Condensation silicon b. Polysulfides
c. Polyether d. Methacrylate
23. F o ra bitewing x-ray, angulation o f cone sh o u ld be:
a. 10 degree above horizontal b. 15 degree below horizontal
c. 10 degree below horizontal d. 15 degree above horizontal
24. Which cranial nerve that petrous part o f temporal bone houses:
a. Trigeminal nerve b. Facial nerve
c. Vagus nerve d. Vestibalcochealer nerve
25. Ligam ents associated with TMJ:
a. Tempromandibular b. Sphenomandibular
c. Stylomandibular d. All of the above
A ns: 18.c, 19.b, 20.d, 21 .a, 22.a, 23.c, 24.b, 25.d
Paper 40
The lateral temporamandibular ligament: limits the movement of the mandible in a posterior direction.
The sphenomandibular ligament lies on the medial side of the joint.
The stylomandibular ligament lies behind and medial to the joint.
26. Cholesterol crystals are found in:
a. Keratocyst b. Periodontal cyst
c. Naso palatine cyst d. All the above
Cholesterol crystals are found in many odontogenic cysts including radicularcysts, dentigerous
cysts,and odontogenic keratocysts.
27. Lining epithelium o f dentigerous cyst is:
a. Stratified squamous in type b. Reduced enamel epithelium
c. Cuboidal in type d. ALL of the above
28. Increase o f width in cementum with increasing age is greater:
a Apically and lingually b. Apically and facially
c. Coronally and lingually d. Coronally and facially
29. Which o f the follow ing is a benign epithelial neoplasm ?
a. Rhabdomyoma b. Fibroma
c. Lipoma d. Granular cell tumor
e. Keratoacanthoma
30. R isk o f vertical root fracture is a disadvantage of:
a. Vertical condensation b. Lateral condensation
c. Compaction method d. Sectional method
Reference: Grossman’s Endodontic Practice, 11th ed, p. 247
31. Unilateral sw elling with slow ly progressing lesion on the le ftsid e o f the mandible. This could
be:
a. Osteoma b. Cementob lastoma
c. Ossifying fibroma d. O steosarcom a
Reference: Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation, 3rd ed., p. 357
The ossifying fibroma is a slow growing, expansile lesion that is usually a symptomatic.
32. A p ical periodontal cy st arises from:
a. Hertwig sheath b. Epithelial cell rest of Malassez
c. Epithelial cell rest of serrus d. Dental lamina
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral pathology, 4th ed.
http://obm.quintessenz.de/index.php?doc=htm!&abstractlD=9558
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epithelial_cell_rests_of_Malassez
A n s: 26.a, 27.a, 28.a, 29.e, 30.a, 31.c, 32.b
33. H ypoglossal nerve d o e s not supply:

a Genioglossus b. Palatoglossus
c. Styloglossus d. Hyoglossus
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vo. Ill, p. 189
34. Which is the m ost likely cause o f periodontal cyst?
a. Cell rest of Malassez b. Cell rest of serruss
c. Cell of Hertwig sheet d. None of the above
Lateral and apical periodontal cysts are caused by epithelial cell rests of Malassez.
35. During im pression taking, which o f the follow ing drugs is used, for not to increase saliva is:
a. Antidiabetic b. Anticorticosteroid
c. Cholinergic d. Anticholinergic
36. Which o f the following is not increased during m enstruation?
a. Exudate from inflamed gingival b. Crevicular fluid of normal gingival
c. Salivary bacteria! count d. All are increased
37. Patient on long term antibiotic cam e with system ic Candida:
a. Amphotrecin B b. Fluconazol
c. Nystatin d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p. 438-439
38. Which o f the following carbohydrates are the m ost caries potentiating when plaque is present?
a. Monosaccharides b. Disaccharides
c. Polysaccharides d. Quaternary sacchrides
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, July-1979
39. D ull pain in tooth is due to which type of fibers?
a. A fibers b. B fibers
c. C fibers d. D fibers
40. H istological criteria u sed to distinguish gingivitis from periodontitis is:
a Occlusal trauma b. Howship's lacunae
c. Bone resorption d. Endosteal proliferation
41. A patient who has un-m odified cla ss II Kennedy classification, with goo d periodontal condition
and no carious lesio n s the best clasp to use on the other side is:
a Circlet ’’rigid" clasp b. Ring clasp
c. Embrasure clasp d. Full clasp
A n s: 33.b, 34.a, 35.d, 36.b, 37.b, 38.b, 39.a, 40.b, 41 .a

Paper 40
42. True statement am ong the follow ing is:

a Bladder emptying cannot occur if volum ed 00 ml.
b. Bladder muscle contains intrafusal fibers.
c. Pressure increases in bladder vary linearly with time.
d. One liter of fluid intake results in complete excretion in 1 hour.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed,, p. 726
43. M O D amalgam restoration with deep proxim al m esial box, patient com es with pain related to
it after one month due to:
a. Pulp involvement b. Supra occlusion
c. Open contact d. Gingival recession
Delayed expansion of zinc containing amalgam will cause supraocclusion.
44. Reduction in tooth for amalgam restoration sh ou ld be:
a. 1-1.5 mm b. 1.5-2 mm
c. 2-3 mm d. 3-5 mm
45. Which m uscle helps to position the lip when drinking from a cu p ?
a. Depressor anguli oris b. Depressor labii inferioris
c. Mentalis d. Risorius
Reference: Gray’s Anatomy, p. 813
46. HIV can be transmitted by transplacenta:
a. True b. False
47. In sickle cell anemia, 0 2 is decreased in oral m ucosa:
a. True b. False
48. Which base is not found in D N A?
a. Adenine b. Guanine
c. Cytosine d. Uracil
49. P lacing cast under tap water is to be avoided as:
a. H20 interferes with hygroscopic expansion.
b. H20 inhibits polymerization of dental resin.
c. H20 interferes with crystallization of dehydrate.
d. Gypsum is slightly soluble in water and the surface of the cast will be eroded.
Reference: Skinner’s Science of Dental Materials, 10th ed., p. 206
A n s: 42.a, 43.b, 44.b, 45.c, 46.a, 47.a, 48.d, 49.d
50. Im m unofluorescence test and biology are used to diagnose pem phigus:
a. True b. False
51. In an inflam matory response, m acrophages are usually derived from:
a. Monocytes b. Reticuloendothelial cells
c. Neutrophils d. Lymphocytes
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th ed., p. 79
52. After RCT, fo r insertion of p ost dowel:
a. Post applied under pressure
b. Post should be lose
c. Insert it without pressure but with retention
53. Selection o f shade for com posite is done:
a. Under light.
b. After seeing yellow colour
c. After drying tooth and isolation without rubber dam
54. The proxim al groove o f a 3/4 crown preparation should:
a. Have a gingival seat that merges smoothly with the finish line
b. Be at least 6 mm in length
c. Be V-shaped
d. Terminate 0.5 mm occlusal to the gingival finish line
55. M ost com m on problem after placem ent o f amalgam restoration is pain due to:
a. Hot b. Cold
c. Occlusal pressure d. Galvanic shock
56. Calicum hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it:
a. Stimulates formation of secondry dentin b. Not irritant to the pulp
c. For thermal isolation d. Antibacterial effect
57. The powder fo r G l cement contains:
a. S i0 2, Al20 3, CaFI b. S i0 2, ZnO, barium sulphate
c. S i0 2, ZnO, Aluminum phosphate d. None of the above
GIC powder: Silica 41.9% - Alumina 28.6% - Calcium fluoride 15.77o - Sodium fluoride 9.3% - Alu
minium phosphate 3.8% - Aluminium fluoride 1.6%
Ans: 50.a, 51 .a, 52.c, 53.d, 54.d, 55.b, 56.a, 57.a
Paper 40
58. The body secret antibody against antigen using which cells:
a. T lymphocyte b. B lymphocyte
Reference: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th ed., p. 196
59. In diabetic patient, periodontium is affected b y which cells:
a. Neutrophils b. PMNS
c. Macrophages d. All the above
Acute infection neutrophils will react, in chronic infection macrophages will react.
60. When the orthodontist rem oves orthodontic brackets, he noticed white decalcified lesion
around the bracket. What should he do:
a. Microabration and application of pumice, then fluoride application.
b. Composite resin
c. Leave and observe
61. A patient presented with bicycle accident. You su spect presence o f bilateral condylar fracture.
What is the best view to diagnose cond. fracture?
a. Occiptomental b. Reverse towne projection
c. Lateral oblique 30 degree d. O PG
62. Patient with system ic candidiasis, best treated by:
a. Amphotericin B b. Flucanzol.
c. Nystatin d. All the above
63. Distortion o f im ages is m ore in:
a. Parallel or long cone technique, b. Bisecting angle or short cone technique,
c. Both of the above. d. None of the above.
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology 5th ed., p. 89, 90
64. A patient Is on 10 m g corticosteroids (prednisolone) for months, needs dental extraction. You
will:
a. Give antibiotics.
b. Double doze the day of extraction.
c. Double doze one day before, the same day, and day after surgery.
d. Take no action.
65. A patient cam e to com plain o f fracture at the metal porcelain interface. This m ay be due to:
a. Failure to condition the tooth before application of opaque.
b. Thick body porcelain.
c. Centric contact made at metal porcelain interface.
A n s: 58.b, 59.C, 60.a, 61.b, 62.a, 63.b, 64.b, 65.C
d. All the above

Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p. 692.
66. What is the cause o f ridge augmentation?
a. To increase the ridge height and width.
b. Protection of neurovascular bundles.
c. Restoration of proper maxillomandibular arch relationship.
Reference: IMeelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed., p. 391
67. A patient came with distal root having periapical radioluscency denoting the need for endo,
but patient is financially restrained and wants to extract the tooth. What should you d o?
a. Tell him to go to another dentist.
b. Follow the patient and extract the tooth.
c. Explain benefit of do nothing, endo and extraction.
d. Explain the patient benefits of do endo, as saving of the tooth then if he restrains, write that in his
chart (record) and extract the tooth.
68. A patient h a s m axillary posterior partial denture with porcelain teeth He then lo st the m an
dibular posterior teeth. Now what type o f teeth are used for m andibular partial denture:
a. Porcelain b. Acrylic
c. Metal d. All the above
69. Orthodontically treatment tooth having resorption in the canal what to do:
a. Repeated dressing with calcium hydroxide
b. Single visit endo
c. Extraction
Reference: Clinical Endodontics Textbook, Tronstad, p. 224
70. Which o f the follow ing acts a s a cro ss linking agent in polysulfides?
a. Dibutylpthalate b. Lead dioxide
c. Oleic acid d. Stearic acid
A n s: 66.d, 67.d, 68.a, 69.a, 70.b
D en to -G u lf - For G ulf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x e m ln a tio n s

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 4 1
1. Trauma caused fracture o f the root at junction between m iddle and cervical third:
a. Do endo for coronal part only, b. Do endo for the both coronal and apical
c. Splint together. d. Extraction
2. Confirm ative occlusion refers to:
a. Occlusion of restoration at centric relation
b. Occlusion of restoration at Intercuspal position
c. Occlusion at Centric slide
d. All of the above
3. W hich of the follow ing is responsible to cause m yocardial depression?
a. Isoflurane b. Halothane
c. Desflurane d. Sevoflurane
Reference: K.D.Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Ppharmacology, 5th ed., p. 339
4. A patient 6 ye a rs old com es to yo u r clin ic one day after he had bicycle accident, with sw elling
at h is low er lip. C linical exam ination show s, teeth did not hurt. What you will do?
a. X-ray b. Endo for lower incisors
c. Pulpotomy d. Observe over period of time
5. During endospace preparation what is the m ost com mon surface of distal root of lower mo
la r that will have tendency o f perforation:
a. M surface b. D surface
c. B surface d. L surface
6. Autoclave relative to 100 degree temperature, in the dry oven:
c. Considerable higher time d. Less time
7. A lateral slid in g flap is placed over a route surface that h as been denoted for 6 years. Which of
the follow ing tissue relationships is m ost likely to occur?
a. Periodontal fibres inserted into dentin.
b. Periodontal fibres inserted into new cementum.
c. Epithelium adjacent to previously denoted root surface.
d. Coadaptation of old fibres.
Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, p. 967, 773
Ans: 1.d, 2.b, 3.b, 4.a, 5.a, 6.d, 7.c
8. M unsell system is used to:

a. Define and measure color qualitatively
b. Define and measure physical properties of gold alloys.
c. Evaluate brittleness of different alloys.
d. Measures different color quantitatively.
Reference: Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 11th ed., p. 49
9. A patient com es with sinus, you make tracing and take radiograph. The G P appears in lateral
surface of the root:
a Gingival abscess b. Periodontal abscess
c. Periodontitis d. Lateral accessory canal
10. A tailor is presented to your dental office. W hat’s the m ost com mon feature to be found in his
teeth upon exam ination?
a. Attrition b. Abrasion
c. Erosion d. Abfarcation
11. Arecanut chewing is etiological factor in:
a. Leukoedema b. Oral submucous fibrosis
c. Eryhtema multiforme d. Oral lichen planus
12. What is AH-26
a. Epoxy resin b. Composite material
c. Polishing bur d. None of the above
13. Immature pulp is not suitable for pulp testing because?
a. Chance of pulp damage b. Chance of false negative
c. Chance of severe pain d. All the above
14. Reaction to cold thermal pulp test indicates?
a. Vital pulp b. Non vital pulp
c. Apical pathology d. None of the above
15. Drooping corners o f lip s is due to:
a. Increased vertical dimensions b. Decreased vertical dimensions
c. Deep bite in denture d. Open bite in denture
16. D eficiency o f which vitamin is not known in newborn?
a. C b. D
c. E d. K
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, p. 486
17. Which takes longer time in sterilization?
a. Dry heat b. Moist heat
c. Chemiclave d. None of the above
18. A patient com es with severe pain in relation to 46 which had amalgam restoration done.
C lin ical examination reveals cast metal restoration on opposite tooth. What should be the
treatm ent?
a. Varnish on amalgam b. Protective coating
c. Change the restoration d. Extraction of 46
A n s: 8.d, 9.d, 10.b, 11.b, 12.b, 13.b, 14.a, 15,b, 16.c, 17.a, 18.c
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u l' C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

Paper 41
19. UMN lesion is characterized by:

a. Weakness and spasticity b. Fasciculations
c. Rigidity d. Localized muscle atrophy
Reference: Harrison’s Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., p. 134
20. Which o f the follow ing statements is true regarding dental calcu lu s?
a. It is composed entirely of inorganic material.
b. It is dense in nature and has a rough surface.
c. It is mineralized dental plaque.
d. All the above.
e. b and c only
f. None of the above.
21. A patient with sim ple herpes is treated by acyclovir.The dose sh o u ld be given is:
a 400 mg/ three times per day b. 600 mg/three times per day
c. 200 mg/ five times per day d. 800 mg/ three times per day
22. One o f the prim e considerations in the treatment o f fractures o f the jaw is:
a. To obtain and maintain proper occlusion
b. Test teeth mobility
c. Vitality
d. Embedded foreign bodies
23. Weakly acid ic drugs:
a. Are bound primarily to alpha acid glycoprotein h plasma
b. Are excreted faster in alkaline urine
c. Are highly ionized in the gastric juice
d. Do not cross blood brain barrier
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed., p. 18, 26
24. A 60 years old patient wants com plete denture, but he h as thick labial frenum with wide base.
What operation you will do ?
a. Vestibuloplasty b. Z-plasty
c. Subperiostumincision d. Deep mucoperiostumincision
Reference: Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 2nd ed., p. 173
25. The ideal o cclu sa l clearance for a com plete cast crown is:
a. 0.5 mm b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm d. 2.5 mm
A n s: 19.a, 20.e, 21.d, 22.a, 23.b, 24.a, 25.b
26. Am algam restoration and there is also g old restoration, result in galvanic action to manage:
a. Wait b. Change restoration
c. Varnish d. Separating medium
27. A child at dentition age is suffering from:
a. Diarrhea b. Sleep disorders
c. Increased salivation d. All the above
28. The outline form o f upper m axillary m olar a c c e s s opening is triangular, The base o f this
triangle is directed toward:
a. Buccal b. Palatal
c. Mesial d. Distal
29. A child suffering from a trauma resulting in a com plete avulsion. The time for more su cce ss
fu l replantation is ?
a. Immediate b. After 1 hr
c. After 2 hrs d. After 24 hour
The most important factor for healing is immediate (<5 min), replantation will give good prognosis.
30. Degree o f saturation o f particular hue is known as:
a. Color b. Value
c. Chroma d. None of the above
31. Liqu ids that show higher viscosity a s shear rate increases are know n as:
a. Pseudoplastic b. Dilatant
c. Thixotropic d. Newtonian
32. Tooth with ankylosis:
a No PDL b. Caused by trauma
c. Extracted surgically d. All of the above
33. A cute periapical a b sce ss is associated with:
a Swelling b. Widening of PDL
34. How can you prevent dental hypersensitivity?
a. Restoration by adhesion b. Controlled by alcohol
c. Put sedative medication d. Proper oral hygiene
35. Sprue should be preferably made of:
a Hollow acrylic b. Hollow metal
c. Solid metal d. Solid acrylic
Reference: Skinner’s Science of Dental Materials 10th ed., p. 497
A n s: 26.b, 27.c, 28.a, 29.a, 30.c, 31 .b, 32.d, 33.a, 34.a, 35.b
Paper 41
36. The m o st frequent cause o f pulpal inflam mation is:

a Trauma b. Bacteria
c. Chemicals d. Iatrogenic
Reference: National Board Dental Examination, Dec. 1978
37. The follow ing are types o f hamartoma except:
a Cementoblastoma b. Compound odontoma
c. Complex odontoma d. All the above
38. C ross-over desig n s can be conducted in a ll situations, except:
a For caries prevention trials
b. For periodontal diseases trials
c. For short term trials
d. Trials that may not produce a rapid change in the disease prevalence
Reference: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p. 77
39. The highest point o f the concavity behind the occipital condyles is:
a Botton point b. Glabella
c. Basion d. Prosthion
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics the Art and Science, 3rd ed., p. 147
40. A p la stic anem ia is caused by:
a Tetracycline b. Penicillin
c. Erythromycin d. Sulfonamide
Aplastic Anemia
Roughly half of all aplastic anemias occur as a result of drugs (such antibiotics as chloramphenicol,
sulfonamides, phenylbutazone [butazolidin], and such anticonvulsant agents as mephenytoin)
Also: chloramphenicol, phenylbutazone [butazolidin], and such anticonvulsant agents as mephenytoin.
41. LA m echanism o f action is:
a Increase the threshold b. Decrease the threshold
c. Same threshold d. increase threshold only in amide type
42. A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called:
a Bulla b. Macule
c. Papule d. Nodule
Reference: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 10th ed., p. 50
43. Growth spurts will be m easured in the case when hand wrist radiographs are not available.
a Lateral cephalogram b. Posterior anterior view
c. O P G d. IOPA
A n s: 36.b, 37.a, 38.a, 39.a, 40.d, 41 .a, 42.a, 43.a

44. In a young pulp one o f the following is true:

a. Repairing capabilities are less due to open apex
b. More acellular
c. High vascularity
d. High calcium and phosphorus content
ÔüTTOjnp'errrrarrepfftteefbws., Mature teeth

Young permanent teeth Mature teeth
• Primary dentine is present which is
• Secondary dentine present. Sclerotic and
composed of mantle and circumpulpal
reparative dentine may also be present
dentine
• Young pulp has high number of • Decreased number of unifferentiated cells
undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the pulp
• High cellular content • Low vascularity
• Low calcium and phophorus contents • High calcium and phosphorus content
45. U se of placebo is not p ossible in all these conditions , except:

a. Water fluoridation b. Atraumatic restorative treatment
c. Health education d. Fissure sealant
Reference: Burt’s Dentistry Dental Practice and the Community, p. 179
46. Lingual arch is com pared to lingual bar:
a. Flexible b. More strength
c. a+b d. None of the above
47. The superior m ost border o f the lingual arch sh ou ld be aw ay from the gingival margin by?
a. 4 mm b. 7 mm
c. 11 mm d. At cingulam level
48. What will be effect o f a cid itching in prepared dentinal surface o f the tooth?
a. To remove smear layer b. To remove bacteria
c. To sterilize the area d. All the above
49. Coxsackie virus causes:
a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Lymphoma
c. Herpangina d. Herpes
50. Retentive arm o f RPD will be designed always:
a. In undercuts b. In middle 1/3rd of adjacent tooth
c. In cervical 1/3rd of adjacent tooth d. None of the above
A n s: 44.c, 45.b, 46.a, 47.a, 48.a, 49.c, 50.a
Paper 41
51. Fu ll ceram ic crown fractures o ccu r in:

a. Complex b. Vertical
c. Cervical level d. Gingival level
52. When you take x-ray in upper prem olar to locate lingual root using m esial shift, it will appear
as:
a. Distal b. Buccal
c. Lingual d. Mesial
SLO B method = Same Lingual Opposite Buccal
53. A patient co m es to clinic after ch eck u p y o u see, supernum erary teeth and m issing clavicle
bone. What is the diagnosis:
a. Paget’s disease b. Treacher Collins syndrome
c. Down syndrome d. Cledoocranial dysplasia
54. The bisecting angle technique is u sed to make:
a. Bitewing radiographs
b. Periapical radiographs
c. True occlusal radiographs of the mandible
55. G enetic influences on p h ysical growth o f a child are:
a Apparent from examination of the parents
b. Apparent from examination of the siblings
c. Easily isolated by examination of the child
d. Not necessarily apparent from examination of the parents or the siblings.
Reference: National Board Dental Examination - Apr 1985
56. The m aximum dose o f lignocaine without adrenaline that can be admitted to a patient is:
a 4 mg / kg body wt. b. 5 mg / kg body wt.
c. 7 mg / kg body wt. d. 9 mg / kg body wt.
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Paincontrol in General Practice, 7th ed., p. 148
57. A patient cam e to your clin ic with severe pain; on x-ray the right side of the m andible has
radiolucency with a radiopaque border that resem bles the sunshine rays. Your diag n osis is:
a Ossifying fibroma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Acute osteomylitis d. Chronic osteomylitis
58. Which o f the following conditions is highly indicated for the short therapy o f D O TS and is
directly observed once in the clin ic?
a. Tuberculosis b. HIV
c. H1N1 d.Mental llness
A n s : 51.c, 52.d, 53.d, 54.b, 55.d, 56.a, 57.b, 58.a

WHO (http://www.who.int/tb/dots/en/)
59. Bregm a is a junction of:
a. Nasal and frontal bones b. Coronal and sagital sutures
c. Sagital and lamboid sutures d. Occipital, and parietal bone
Reference: Zargar’s Anatomy for Dental Students, p. 74
60. The follow ing factors affect the health:
a. Hereditary b. Environment
c. Social and economic factors. d. All
61. After delivery o f a com plete denture, the patient returned com plaining o f h is phonetics and
pronunciation. Upon examination yo u notice the upper lip is not properly supported:
a. Decreased vertical dimension
b. Increased vertical dimension
c. Malposition of the anterior teeth
d. Deficiency in vitamin B
62. Lingual concavities o f the m axillary anterior teeth are determ ined by:
a. Molar guidance b. Mandibular movement, only
c. Condylar inclination, mainly d. Tooth guidance, mainly
Reference: Rosenstiel's Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, p. 580
63. Which o f the follow ing instrum ents should be used to plane the facio - proxim al cavosurface
margin of a standard C la s s II preparation on a m andibular m olar?
a. Straight chisel b. Binanagle chisel
c. Enamel hatchet d. Bibeveled hatchet
64. The root m ost likely to be pushed into the m axillary sin u s during a tooth extraction is:
a. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar
b. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar
c. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
d. Mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar
65. Energy absorbed b y material before it fractures is called:
a Ultimate strength b. Elastic limit
c. Toughness d. Brittleness
66. Which tooth requires sp ecial attention when preparing the occlu sal aspect for cla ss II cast
metal restoration?
a. Lower 2nd molar b. Lower 1st premolar
c. Lower 2nd premolar d. Upper 1st molar
Because lower 1st premolar anatomy is unique.
A n s: 59.b, 60.d, 61 .c, 62.d, 63.c, 64.c, 65.c, 66.b
Paper 41
67. Which ce ll type produces antibodies against antigen?

a. Macrophage b. B-lymphocyte
c. T-lymphocyte d. NK-cell
68. Dentin perm eability:
a. Decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
b. Increases when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion.
c. Increases with smear layer.
d. Bacterial toxins can pass through before the actual penetration of bacteria.
Dentin permeability:
Increases with the increase of cavity preparation.
Decreases when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion decrease„with s^near layer.
69. In order to decrease the gastric secretion:
a. Histamine A antigen equivalent b. Histamine B antigen equivalent
c. Anticholenergic d. Adrenal steroids
70. Alveolectom y is one o f the com m only u sed procedures. It is:
a. Closure of an orantral fistula
b. Removal of alveolar bone
c. Reconstruction of mucoperiosteum and alveolar bone
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 1st ed., p. 385
A n s : 67.b, 68.d, 69.c, 70.b
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER- 4 2
1. A patient with renal transplantation cam e with white elevated lesion on tongue, no history o f
sm oking o r tobacco chewing. D iagnosis is:
a Candidiasis b. Iatrogenic lesion
c. Hyperkeratosis d. Uremic stomatitis
Reference: Pocket Atlas of Oral Diseases
Uremic Stomatitis: - -
Definition: Uremic stomatitis is a rare disorder that may occur in patients with acute or chronic renal
failure -n o smoking
2. While you were preparing a canal you did a ledge, then you used EDTA with the file. This may
lead to:
a. Perforation. b. Correction of ledge
c. False canal d. Fracture of root
3. The nitrate which does not undergo first p a ss m etabolism is:
a Isosorbide mononitrate b. Nitroglycerine
c. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate d. Isosorbide dinitrate
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed., p. 25, 49
4. A 7 years patient com es with untreated trauma to tooth that became yellow in colour. What
you should tell the parents?
a Pulp is dead b. Pulp become calcified
c. The tooth will absorb normally
i. a and b ii. a and c

iii. b and c iv. all of the above
Tooth in this age still not complete root formation, yellowish color indicates calcification.
5. The infection will spread cervically from:
c. Lower 2nd and 3rd molars d. Upper incsisors
(Sublingual submandibular space infections )
6. Antibiotic prophylaxis to minimize risk o f bacterial endocarditis is needed during:
a. Placement of orthodontic bands
b. Use of retraction cords during prosthodontic procedures
c. Local anesthetic injections (non intraligamentary)
d. Post operative suture removal
Reference: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 10th ed., p. 381
A n s: 1.d, 2.a, 3.a, 4.i, 5.c, 6.a
Paper 42
7. T Lib é ro n s scle ro sis is seen in:

a Vascular fibroma b. Leprosy
c. Tuberclosis d. Bone disorders
8. A ll o f the follow ing about Stafne’s cy st are true except:
a Depression on lingual posterior surface of mandible
b. Usually located above inferior mandibular canal
c. Radiograph shows unilocular well circumscribed radiolucency
d. Usually located between first molar and angle of mandible
Reference: Burket's Oral Medicine, 10th ed., p. 244
9. Pulpal edema
a. Has no effect on vascular system
b. Fluid is compressed in the vessels limiting the intercellular pressure
c. Interstitial pressure increased due to increased vascularity
d. Cause necrosis of the pulp tissues
10. Developm ent o f dentition starts a s early as:
a. 21 days b. 25 days
c. 26 days d. 28 days
11. The favored relationship in case o f fabrication of a lower cla ss I RPD, opposing a natural
dentition in prognathism :
a. Working side b. Balancing side
12. M aster cone d oesn ’t reach the apex:
a. Ledge formation b. Residual remenants
Reference: Endodontics: Problem solving in clinical practice, (2002), p. 135
Master cone will not fit to length:
• Dentine chips packed into the apical extent of the root canal preparation will lead to a decrease in
working length, and consequently the master cone will appear to be short. This can be avoided by
using copious amounts of irrigant during preparation.
* A ledge in the root canal wall can prevent correct placement of the cone. If the cone hits an
obstruction during placement then the end may appear crinkled. It may be possible to remove or
smoothen a ledge by refining the preparation with a greater taper instrument.
If the canal is insufficiently tapered, binding against the canal walls coronally or in the mid-third. The
completed root canal preparation should follow a gradual taper along its entire length. Further prepa
ration may be required with Gates-Glidden burs, orifice shapers or a greater taper instrument.
A n s: 7.a, 8.b, 9.c, 10.d, 11.b, 12.c

13. A child patient with oblitration in the central perm enant incisor. What will you do?
a. R CT b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulpectomy d. Careful monitoring
14. The divergence should be m esio distally for an amalgam restoration only. It should be con
vergent if the rem aining proxim al m arginal ridge:
a. Equal to 1.6 mm b. More than 1.6 mm
c. Less than 1.6 mm d. Not correct, it should be convergence
15. A patient with radiopacity in the periapical area o f a 1st m andibular m olar with a wide carious
lesion and a bad periodontal condition is:
a Periapical abcess b. Condensing osteosis
c. Hypercementosis d. Ankylosis
16. In m axillary arch, the primate space is found:
a Distal to deciduous canine.
b. Distal to maxillary lateral incisor.
c. Mesial to maxillary deciduous lateral incisor.
d. Distal to deciduous first molar.
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science p. 41
17. Which is not seen in osteoradionecrosis?
a. Hypovascularity b. Hypoxia
c. Hypercellularity d. All are seen
Reference: Umarji's Concise Oral Radiology, p. 42
18. Bronchial asthma epinephrine concentration subcutaneously
a. 1/100 b. 1/1000
c. 1/10000 d. 1/100000
If the reaction is immediate (less than 1 hour) and limited to the skin, 50 mg of diphenhydramine
should be given immediately either intravenously or intramuscularly. The patient should be monitored
and emergency services contacted to transport the patient to the emergency department. If other
symptoms of allergic reaction occur, such as conjunctivitis, rhinitis, bronchial constriction, or an-
gioedema, 0.3 cc of aqueous 1/1000 epinephrine should be given by subcutaneous or intramuscular
injection. The patient should be monitored until emergency services arrive. If the patient becomes
hypotensive, an intravenous line should be started with either Ringer’s lactate or 5% dextrose/water.
19. M alignancies associated with HIV:
a Kaposi sarcoma b. NHL
c. Primary hepatitis B infection d. All
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology, 7th ed., p. 256
A n s : 13.d, 14.b, 15.b, 16.b, 17.c, 18.b, 19.d

Paper 42
20. B e st m aterial for m ajor connector

a. Gold wrought wire b. Chrome cobalt
c. Gold d. Palladium
e. Titanium
21. The su perior border o f lingual b a r m ajor connector should be located below the gingival
margin by a minimum of:
a 2 mm b. 4 mm
c. 5 mm d. 1 mm
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy's, Textbook of Prosthodontics, p. 337
22. During 3/4 crow n preparation on prem olar, bu r used to a d d retentive grooves is
a. Diamond end cutting b. Radial fissure
c. Straight fissure d. Round
23. O n a central in ciso r receiving a full ceram ic restoration during finishing o f the shoulderJinish
line subgingivally:
a. Radial fissure b. Straight fissure
c. Diamond end cutting d. Round
24. A cavosurface bevel is used when preparing a tooth for a cast g old inlay o r onlay. What is the
principal reason for its use?
a. To allow room for the cement.
b. To improve the marginal adaptation.
c. To compensate for shrinkage of the casting gold alloy.
d. To provide resistance form to the preparation.
25. Inferior orbital fissure located:
a. Lateral wall of theorbit b. Floor of the orbit
c. Medial wall of orbit d. Roof of orbit
e. a + b
26. In 6 week intra-uterine life, the developm ent starts, the oral epithelium is stratified squam ous
epithelium will be thickened and give dental lamina
a. True b. False
27. Functional cu sp bevel is given for:
a Marginal integrity b. Structural durability
c. Retention and resistance form d. To improve the geometry of tooth surface
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p. 576, 577
4 n s; 20.b, 21.b, 22.b, 23.c, 24.b, 25.e, 26.a, 27.b

28. Incisive fossa is found below the:

a. Incisors b. Canines
c. Premolars d. Molars
Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion, p. 389
29. S low grow ing cyst at the site o f 26,27,28 and 28 is m issing:
a. Dentigerouscyst b. Periapicalcyst
c. Radicular cyst d. Static bone cyst
30. When sharpening instrum ents, unmounted stone has an advantage over m ounted stone:
a. Doesn't change the shape of the cutting edge
b. Easier to sterilize
c. Eats less of the blade
d. All the above
Remember: We use water with synthetic stones, and oil with natural stones..
31. Sw elling in the side o f the face after inferior nerve block injection, So you have injected in:
a. Facial artery's branches in parotid gland b. Mandibular artery
c. Maxillary artery d. None of the above
32. A patient wants to extract h is tooth but the diagnosis is RCT. He ca n ’t afford the RCT. What’s
y o u r action:
a. Ask him to go to another dentist
b. Give the advantage of keeping his tooth and how important it is and record his decision in his chart
treat him as he wishes
c. Extract exactly
d. Do RCT only
33. Function of sodium phosphate in alginate im pression material is:
a. Reactor b. Accelarator
c. Soluble alginate d. None of the above
34. Which o f the following is m ost firm?
a. Ranula b. Angioma
c. Lipoma d. All are equally firm
Reference: NeelimaAnil Malik's Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial surgery, p. 525
35. Posterior boundary o f sublingual space is:
a Mylohyoid muscle b. Hyoid bone
c. Genioglossus muscle d. Geniohyoid muscle
Reference: Neelima Anil Malik’s Text book of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p. 614
A n s: 28.a, 29. a, 30.d, 31 .a, 32.b, 33.d, 34.c, 35.b
Ok
ive the answwer q, 29?
P a p e r 42
36. How will you differentiate between acute herpetic gingivitis and AN U G ?
a. By location of lesions b. Pain
c. Fever d. Lymphadenopathy
ANUG will be in interdental gingival and lining mucosa, AH G S will be in palatal mucosa.
37. Am eloblastom a can develop from:
a. Residual cyst b. Lateral periodontal cyst
c. Apical cyst d. Dentigerous cyst
38. Hepatitis B patient is com m unicating disease:
a. Before the appearance of symptoms b. After appearance of symptoms
c. During symptomatic phase d. All the above
39. Shortening o f image o ccu rs when centraf ray fs:
a. Perpendicular to film but not to object.
b. Directed at angle more positive than perpendicular to bisector.
c. Both of the above.
Reference: White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology, 5th ed., p. 89,87
40. H ypovolum ic sh ock sym ptom s:
a. Mental confusion b. Nausea
c. Vomiting d. Pain
41. A patient has had an angina attack before undergoing a dental procedure. What is the reason
for attack of angina?
a. Fear b. Patient was in fasting
c. Patient had heavy breakfast d. All the above
42. E la stic properties developed in elastom ers is the result of:
a. Completion of setting b. Lengthening of chain
c. Cross linking of chains d. Shortening chain length
43. Fat soluble vitamin helps in, a ll except:
a. Vitamin A helps in protection of mucosa
b. Vitamin K helps in synthesis of plasminogen
c. Vitamin D helps in intestinal absorption of calcium
d. Vitamin A helps in protection of retina/cornea
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology 22nd ed., p. 496
A n s: 36.a, 37.d, 38.a, 39.c, 40.a, 41 .a, 42.c, 43.b
D en to -G u lf - For G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n sin g E x e m ln a tio n s

S e c t io n II: M o d e l Q u e s t io n P a p e rs
44. Fluoride use for children:

a Fluroide thio sulphate b. Acidulated phosph.fluoride
c. Stannous fluoride d. Na2F
45. Strain that occurs when the material is stressed to its proportional limit:
a. Resilience b. Flexibility
c. Modulus of elasticity d. Toughness
46. In pin retained amalgam restoration we put the pin very close to line angle, because this area:
a. Less material of restoration need b. Intiate dentin caries
c. Need more pressure d. Needs less condensation of material
47. In FPD you use GIC for cementation. What is best to do?
a. Remove smear layer by acid to increase adhesion
b. Don't varnish because it affect adhesion . ,
c. Mixed slowly on small area until become creamy
d. Remove excess when it in dough stage
e. All the above
Reference: Sturdevant’sArt and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed.
48. The cause of black cast which prevents pickling is due to:
a Over heat b. Contaminate with gas
c. Incomplee casting d. None of the above
49. Which of the following root fractures have excellent prognosis?
a. Apical third b. Middle third
c. Coronal third d. None
50. Following are the examples of defective viruses EXCEPT:
a. Rous sarcoma virus b. Hepatitis D virus
c. Adeno associated virus d. Hepatitis C virus
51. Immature tooth has less sensation of cold, hot due to:
a. Short root b. Incomplete innervations
c. Wide pulp chamber d. All the above
52. A child has tooth which has no mobility but has luxation. Best treatment is:
a Acrylic splint b. Non rigid fixation,
c. Rigid fixation d. None of the above
Ans: 44.d, 45.b, 46.d, 47.e, 48.b, 49.a, 50.d, 51.b, 52.b
Pa p e r 42
Reference: Handbook of Dental Trauma, (2001) p. 71

Luxation with immobilization treatment:
Non-rigid 'physiological’ splinting should be applied for a period of no more than two weeks. The
various splinting methods are discussed.
53. A patient comes with tooth trauma and he brought the fractured segment and on examina
tion you found that the pulp is not exposed and only you can see dentine. How do you man
age?
a. To get rid of the fragment & fill with composite
b. To reattach the fragment with composite and latter cover with veneer
c. Indirect pulp capping
54. Instrument used for scratching stone cast to make postdam:
a. Le cron carver b. Spatula
c. Wax knife d. None of the above
e. Indirect pulp capping
55. Granulomatous inflammatory reaction is caused by all, except:
a M. tuberculosis b. M. leprae
c. Yersinia pestis d. Mycoplasma
Reference: Taylor's Family Medicine Principles and Practice, 3rd ed., p. 77
56. The image showing disk position and morphology and TMJ bone:
a. MRI. b. CT
c. Arthrography d. Plain radiograph
e. Plain tomography
Dental secrets by Stephen T. Sonis, p. 107
MRI is better at imaging the soft tissue of the disk, but CT is better for almost all other investiagions of
theTMJ.
57. To check a perforation in the desk of the TMJ we need:
a. Cranial imagery b. Arthrography
c. Traditional tomography d. Computerized tomography
Arthrography = CT after injection of a high contrast fluid)
58. Which of the following regarding enamel is true?
a. Repair by ameloblasts b. Permeability reduces with age
c. Permeability increases with age d. Permeable to some ions
Ans: 53.b, 54.a, 55.c, 56.a, 57.b, 58.d

59. Which of the following chemical mediators of inflammation is an example of a C-X-C or alpha
chemokine?
a. lipoxin LXA-4. b. Interleukin IL-8.
c. Interleukin- IL-6. d. Monocyte chemo-attractant protein M CP-1.
60. A pedo patient has trauma in 11. Half an hour ago, there was a slight apical exposure. Radio-
graphic examination shows there is open apex. What is the treatment?
a. Pulpotomy with formacresol b. Apexification
c. D P C d. Extraction
(DPC = Direct pulp capping).
61. Injection of dextrose solution without salt will lead to:
a. Hypotonic expansion b. Hypertonic expansion
c. Isotonic expansion - d. Isotonic contraction
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed., p. 6
62. A patient came with pain, awakened her from sleep at 2 A.M. and could’nt sleep later: What is
the diagnosis?
c. Periodontal pain d. Periapical abcess
63. Caries progresses in children more than adult due to:
a. Difference in pH
b. Generalized dentin sclerosing by age
c. Increasing in organic content of tubular dentin by age
d. All the above
64. Discarded medicine is collected in following colored bag:
a. Yellow b. Red
c. Blue d. Black
Reference: Damle's Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p. 201
65. Which of the following cement is contain fluoride:
a. Glass ionomer b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol d. Polycarboxylate cement
66. Okazaki fragments are required for:
a. DIMA synthesis b. tRIMA synthesis,
c. RIMA synthesis d. Protein synthesis
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, p. 330
Ans: 59.b, 60.c, 61 .a, 62.b, 63.b, 64.c, 65.a, 66.a

Dento~G ulf - For G u lf Countries Licensing Examinations
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67. All of the following drugs in an emergency kit are considered essential except:
a. Epinephrine b. Analgesic
c. Antihistamine d. Anticonvulsant
Reference: Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, p. 58
68. Which of the following is correct about ‘internal resorption?
a. Painful b. Seldom differentiated from external resorption
c. Can occur in primary teeth d. No treatment
69. Collagen may be synthesized by all except:
a Chondroblast b. Osteoblast
c. Odontoblast d. None of the above

70. Lack of leukocyte adhesion molecules (LAM) is associated with:
a. Delayed closure of umbilical cord b. Normal chemotaxis
c. Complement opsonizing d. Neutropenia
Reference: Robbin’s Basic Pathology 7th ed., p. 83
Ans: 67.b, 68.b, 69.d, 70.d

MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 43
1. Which of the following tooth contact areas is in incisal / occlusal third?

a. Mandibular incisors b. Mandibular molars
c. Maxillary molars d. Maxillary incisors
2. Repair is also defined as:
a. Wear and tear process, b. Healing by scar,
c. Reconstruction of periodontium d. b+c
Reference: Glickman, 10 th ed., p. 632
3. In Hratnup's disease_____is excreted in the urine:
a. Ornithine b. Glutamine
c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, p. 258
4. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
a Visible light b. Ultrasonic light
c. Fibre optic trans-illumination d. Digital fibre optic trans-illumination
5. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is:
a. Upper third b. Middle third
c. Lower third d. Gastro esophageal junction
Reference: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., p. 524
6. One of the following is true regarding vomiting:
a. Chest held is mid aspiration b. Glottis opened
c. Intra abdominal pressure decreased d. Abdominal muscle relaxed
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed., p. 232
7. Periodontal ligament fiber in the middle third of the root is:
a. Oblique. b. Horizontal.
c. Transeptal d. Sharpe y’s .
Reference: Orban’s Oral Histology and Embryology, p. 149
8. After insertion of complete denture, patient came complaining from pain in TMJ and tender
ness of muscle with difficulty in swallowing. This could be due to:
a. High vertical dimension b. Low vertical dimension
c. Thick denture base d. Over extended denture base
Ans: t.a, 2.d, 3.c, 4.d, 5.b, 6.a, 7.a, 8.a
> D e n lo -C u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions

P a p e r 43
9. The best pulpal protection under composite restorations would be:

a. Calcium hydroxide paste b. Polycarboxylate cernent
c. ZO E cement d. Cavity varnish and zinc phosphate cernent.
Reference: National Board Dental Examination - March 1982
10. Which of the following is related to denticles?
a. Causes discomfort and pain, b. Free in pulp chamber,
c. All the above d. None of the above.
A pulp stone(denticles) may be free in the pulp chamber or it may be attached to the dentinal wall.
11. The amount of facial reduction in PPM crown:
a. 1.3 mm b. 1.7 mm
c. 0.8 mm d. 2.2 mm
12. How can you test crack tooth?
a. X-ray b. Electric test
c. Ethylene dye test. d. Percussion test
13. Which of the following is the effect of anticholergic drugs:
a Dries secretion such saliva
b. Depresses the pulse rate.
c. Cause central nervous system depression
d. Kills bacteria
14. Excessive occlusal force within physiological limits will:
a Increase the width of PDL. b. Decrease the width of the PDL.
c. Width will remain the same. d. Cause trauma from occlusion.
Reference: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 10th ed., p. 469
15. Tug back refers to:
a. Retention of G P inside the canal. b. Fluibilty of G P
c. Inability of GP reaching apex d. None of the above
16. The dentist new to clinical practice using thermoplastized G.P. Which is the main problem he
may face?
a. Extrusion of G.P. from the canal
b. Inability to fill the proper
c. Failure to use maser cone at proper length ledge
It is difficult to control the apical extent of the root filling and in addition some contraction of the GP
occurs on cooling.
Useful for irregular canal defects.
17. Method to diagnose caries, which medicine is used?
a Basic fuschin b. Acid fuschin
Ans: 9.a, 10.b, 11 .a, 12.c, 13.a, 14.a, 15.a, 16.a, 17.a
S e c t io n II: M o d e l Q u e s tio n P a p e rs
18. Which of the following treatment procedures is indicated for a patient with age related gingi
val recession?
a. Flap operation b. Gingival graft
c. Gingivoplasty d. None of the above
Reference: National Board Dental Examination - July 1981
19. A patient is having pulp hyperemia. What findings are likely to be seen?
1. Pain of short duration 2. Sensitivity to cold
3. No radiological findings 4. Condition is reversible
a. 1,2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1 ,3 ,4 d. 3 ,4
20. A patient is having old crown which was placed on vital tooth, now it is having of long dura
tion. What diagnostic test you would perform?
a. Electric pulp testing b. Cold test on rubber dam application
c. Hot and cold test d. Radiograph
21. Outline cavity of R.C.T preparation should be:
a. Converging outwards b. Diverging outwards
c. Parallel d. It doesn’t matter
22. Tooth with apical swelling and dull pain of long duration with periapical radiolucent lesion of
3 cm. What is your diagnosis?
a. Chronic apical periodontitis with associated swelling
b. Acute apical periodontitis with associated swelling
c. Chronic pulpitis with associated swelling
23. True about von Magnus phenomenon:
a. It is a normal replication cycle.
b. Virus yield has low haemagglutinin titre
c. Virus yield has high infectivity
d. Virus yield has high haemagglutinin titre but low infectivity
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed., p. 438
24. An 18 year old complains of pain and bad breath and gingival bleeding. This happened over
the weekend while studying for her final exam. Her oral hygiene is overall good. What is the
condition?
a. ANUG b. Periodontitis
c. Periodontosis d. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. p. 222
Ans: 18.d, 19.i, 20.c, 21 .b, 22.a, 23.d, 24.a

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25. If the grading of malocclusion is classified as “mild, moderate and severe” the scale of mea
surement used is:
a. Interval b. Nominal
c. Ordinal d. Ratio
Reference: Burt’s Dentistry Dental Practice and the Community, p. 173
26. Overhanging margin should be reduced. Which of the following is true?
a. It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation.
b. It tears gingival fibers leading to attachment level.
c. It stimulates inflammatory reaction directly.
d. Its removal permits more effective plaque control.
e. a, d
27. The mother has sickle cell disease, father is normal, chances of children having sickle cell
disease and sickle cell trait respectively are:
a 50 and T00% ' ' b. 25 and 25%.
c. 50 and 50% d. 10 and 50%
28. Which of the following is true about sphenomandibular ligament?
a. It is medial to insertion of needle for infra alveolar nerve block.
b. It is lateral to insertion of needle for infra alveolar nerve block.
c. It is above the insertion of needle for infra alveolar nerve block.
d. It is below the insertion of needle for infra alveolar nerve block.
29. A 6 year old child living in area where fluoride in water is 0.2 mg/L What dose of fluoride
tablets should be given to patient?
a. 0.25 mg daily b. 0.5 mg daily
c. 1 mg daily d. 2 mg daily
Age interval Domestic water fluoride concentration
Less than 0.3 mg/l more than 0.3 - 0.5 mg/l
6 months to less than 4 years 0.25 0
4 to 8 Years 0.5 0.25
8 years + 1 0.5
30. A child with hypo plastic enamel and dentin. What treatment would you suggest?
a. Porcelain crown for teeth b. Acrylic crown
c. Metal crown d. Zinc polycarbonate crown
Ans: 25.c, 26.e, 27.b, 28.a, 29.b, 30.a

S e c tio n II: M odel Q u e s t io n P a p e rs
31. Diffusion of dmgs across the cell membrane:

a. Is dependent upon metabolic activity of the cell
b. Is competitively inhibited by the chemically related drugs
c. Is affected by the extent of ionization of drug molecules
d. Exhibits saturation kinetics
32. A child patient has trauma to primary tooth and it has turned yellow. Tooth is asymptomatic
and there are no periapical radiolucency on X-ray. What would be your treatment?
a. Extract the tooth b. Pulpotomy
c. Start pulpectomy d. Don’t do anything
Just wait till radiographs show periapical findings.
33. You plan to make U crown on a tooth. Which bur you would use to give proximal grooves?
a. Torpedo b. Cross cut fissure
c. Long needle diamond d. All the above
34. Function of occlusal rest in RPD?
a. Prevent occlusal forces directed vertically along the long axis of tooth.
b. Prevent horizontal forces
c. Retention
d. Indirect retension
35. The most important factor, which governs diffusion of drugs across capillaries other than
those in the brain, is:
a Blood flow through the capillary b. Lipid solubility of the drug
c. pKa value of the drug d. pH of the medium
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p. 12
36. A patient is having Plummer Vinson syndrome with esophageal web, has following
sym ptom s:
a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Inability to swallow
c. Boat shape nail bed d. All the above
37. Which drug is not used in migranous neuralgia?
a. NSAIDs b. Ethropine
c. Antibiotic d. All the above
38. Repeated infections
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hepatitis
c. TB d. Flu
Ans: 31.c, 32.d, 33.a, 34.a, 35.a, 36.d, 37.b, 38.a

P a p e r 43
39. To localize a supernumerary or an impacted tooth and determine its exact relationship to the
other teeth, which of the following radiographs would be most effective?
a. A periapical and an occlusal view.
b. An occlusal view using a high angle.
c. A panoramic radiograph.
d. Two or more periapical views at different angles and an occlusal view.
40. Edentulous patient with class II Kenndy classification 2nd premolar used as abutment when
we surving we found mesial under cut. What is the proper clasp that can be use in this case?
a. Wrought wirewith round cross section b. Wrought wire with half round cross section
c. Cast claspwith roundcross section d. Cast clasp with half cross section
41. H. pylori is known to cause all of the following except:
a. Gastric ulcer b. Duodenal ulcer
c. Gastric lymphoma d. Fundal atrophic gastritis
Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., p. 1309
42. A 45-year-old man inhales as much air as possible and then expires with a maximum effort
until no more air can be expired. What is the forced vital capacity of this man?
a. 2.5 liters b. 3.5 liters
c. 4.5 liters d. 5.5 liters
43. Low cariogenic food should be having following characteristic:
a Low buffering capacity b . pH low than 3
c. Contains mineral d. Sticky consistency
High Cariogenicity Low
Cariogenicity
High fermentable carbohydrate content Relatively high protein
(starch, sugars, or a mixture) Moderate amounts of fat
Sticky consistency Minimal amounts of carbohydrate
Breaks into small particles in the mouth High concentration of calcium and phosphorus
Causes pH to fall below 5.5 pH greater than 6

Highly processed Stimulates saliva secretion
44. “Corn cob” appearance is seen in:
a. Supragingival calculus b. Sub gingival calculus
c. Supragingival plaque d. Sub gingival plaque
Reference: Glickman 10th ed., p. 143
Ans: 39.d, 40.d, 41 .d, 42.c, 43.c, 44.c

S e c tio n II: M o d e l Q u e s t io n P a p e r s
45. Thermal pulp test principle of:

a. Blood supply of pulp b. Nerve supply of pulp
c. AO fibers d. All the above
46. Orthognathic ridge relationship (Class II) present several problems which should be taken
into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all:
a. Have a great range of jaw movement b. Require careful occlusion,
c. Usually cuspless teeth are indicated d. All the above
47. All are true about streptokinase and urokinase, except:
a. Infection with streptococcus causes beneficial dual effect.
b. Reduces chances of arterial and venous thrombosis
c. Control is done with thrombin time.
d. Mechanism of action is activation of plasminogen.
48. When the first sign of decidous teeth appears in ectoderm?
a. 27th day of intrauterine life b. 27th week of intrauterine life
c. 7th day of intrauterine life d. 7th week of intrauterine life
Prim ary fbabv) teeth start to form between the sixth and eighth weeks.
Permanent teeth begin to form in the 20th weeks.
Primary Permanent
C.l 7 weeks in utero 5 to 5.25 months in utero
L.I 7 5-5.25
Canine 7.5 5.5-6
First PM Birth
Secd.PM 7.25 to 8
First M 8 3.5 to 4
Seed. M 10 8.5 to 9
Third M 3.5 to 4 years
49. What is the reason for decrease in caries after filling of GIC?
a. Enamel uptake of fluoride b. Dentin uptake of fluoride
c. Antibiotic activity d. All the above
Ans: 45.a, 46.d, 47.a, 48.d, 49.a

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50. Why do you do biomechanical preparation of canal in apical 1/3 of canal?

a. To push irrigating solution through the apex
b. To put gutta-percha in the apical 1/3 of canal
c. To dean beyond the root apex
51. Which statement is not true regarding insulin resistance?
a. Obesity is the most common cause for insulin resistance,
b. Insulin resistance alone will not lead to type 2 diabetes.
c. Insulin resistance increases with weight loss and diminishes with weight gain.
d. All are true
52. How do you treat a mucosele on lip region?
a..Excision ______=... . ___ - b. Cautry _ ______
c. Marsupalisation d. Enucleation
53. You see a radiolucent area in ramus and angle of mandible and lamina dura is intact and teeth
in position. What is your diagnosis?
a. Radiolucent scalloped lesion above the inferior alveolar canal?
b. Traumatic bone cyst
c. Solitry bone cyst
d. Central giant cell granuloma
54. After dental surgery patient is asked to rinse out his mouth for:
a. 2 hours b. 8 hours
c. 16 hours d. 24 hours
Reference: Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry, p. 37
55. A patient's skin is shiny, he is having hypercementosis of tooth. What is the diagnosis?
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Paget’s disease d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p. 73.
56. A patient on a long term steroid therapy (3 years) and you want to perform and extraction?
What dose of medicine you will ask the patient to take?
a. Double dose for 2 days
b. On day of extraction double the dose
c. Half the dose on day of extraction
d. Double dose 2 days before the day of extraction till 2 days after the extraction.
Ans: 50.b, 51.c, 52.a, 53.c, 54.d, 55.c, 56.b

S e c tio n II: M o d e l Q u e s t io n P a p e r s
57. In infants mental foramen is located at:

a. Near lower margin of body of mandible.
b. Near alveolar margin of body of mandible.
c. Midway between upper and lower margin of body of mandible.
d. Either 2 or 3 mandible.
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, p. 1216
58. Polyether impression material has this problem:
a. Low dimensional stability b. Hydrophobic
c. Vaporization of alcohol d. Very stiff
Reference: Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 11th ed., p. 224
Polyether impression material has good dimensional stability, hydrophilic, stiffest of all the impres
sion material.
59. Subgingival crown preparation margins are used in porcelain fused to metal crown prepara
tions to:
a. Give esthetic results in crown b. Prevent gingival recession
c. Prevent fracture of tooth d. All the above
60. Subgingival calculus has higher_____ than supragingival calculus:
a. Hydroxyapetite b. Magnesium whitlockite
c. Brushite d. Octacalcium phosphate
61. Malassaz epithelial cells:
a. Proliferate to periapical granuloma b. Rest of malassez decrease with age.
c. Rest of malassez increase with age d. Become Hertwig sheath
62. Formation of periodontal cyst is due to:
a. Nasolacrimal cyst b. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
c. Epithelial rest of Malassaz d. Peals of serres
Reference: Oral Pathology, 4th ed., University of Newcastle, UK
Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology University of Edinburgh UK
http://obm.quintessenz.de/index.php?doc=html&abstractlD=9558
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epithelial_cell_rests_of_Malassez
63. Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa:
a. Always originates within the surface epithelium.
b. Mostly originates within the surface epithelium.
c. Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue.
d. Always originates from Langerhans cells within epithelium.
Ans: 57.a, 58.d, 59.a, 60.b, 61 .b, 62.c, 63.c

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64. Which of the following is a premalignant disease with great risk?

a. Homogenous leukoplakia b. Erythroplakia
c. Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis d. Speckled leukoplakia
Erythroplakia should be viewed as a more serious lesion because of a significantly higher percentage
of malignancies associated with it.
65. The massetric notch in distobuccal corners of the mandibular denture is due to:
a. Action of buccinators on masseter. b. Action of masseter on buccinators
c. Palatoglossus on buccinators. d. Super constrictor on masseter.
Reference: Deepak IMallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, 1st ed.( p. 56
66. The branches of the external carotid artery do not include:
a. Facial artery b. Lingual artery
c. Maxillary artery d. Inferior thyroid artery
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol. Ill, p. 128 ~~ -
67. Generalized gray discoloration in a enlarged pulp chambers and short roots, i s :
a. Dentinogenesis imperfecta b. Dentine dysplasia
c. Amelogenesis imperfecta d. None of the above
68. Traditional glass ionomer:
a. Mechanical bonding b. Acid-base reaction
c. Mechanical chemical bonding d. None of the above
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p. 2060
69. Secondary dentine is formed after:
c. Severe attrition d. None of the above
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 4th ed. p. 24
Reparative/ Tertiary dentin is formed by replacement odontoblasts(termed secondry odontoblasts) in
response to moderate level irritants, such as attrision, abrasion, erosion, trauma, morderate rate
dentinal caries and some operative procedures.
70. Staphylococcus aureus are killed if exposure to moist heat at 60 degree C for:
a. 20 minutes b. 30 minutes.
c. 50 minutes d. 60 minutes.
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Text book of Microbiology, p. 26
Ans: 64.b, 65.b, 66.d, 67.a, 68.b, 69.d, 70.d

1. Water irrigation is used for:
a. Dilution of bacterial products b. Plaque control
c. Plaque removal d. All the above
2. Uses of incidence rates are all, except:
a. Helps in taking action to control the disease.
b. Gives clues to research into the etiology and pathogenesis of disease.
c. Useful in evaluating the efficacy of preventive and therapeutic measures.
d. Helps in estimating the magnitude of disease or health problems in the community
Reference: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, p. 55-57
3. Differnce in color of PFM crown:
a. Non uniform thickness of porcelain b. Thin metal frame
c. improper tooth preparation d. all the above
4. which of the following are contraindicated to RCT
a. Non restorable tooth b. Vertical root fracture
c. Tooth with insufficient tooth support d. all the above
5. EDTA
a. Remove smear layer.
b. Can act as a lubricant to help the file bypass the ledge
c. Both
6. In G.V. Black classification study what does the number 2 represent in the” instrument
formula?
a. Width b. Length
c. Angulation d. Size
7. An adult had an accident, maxillary central incisors intruded. What is the trauma’s classifica
tion?
a. Luxation. b. Subluxation
c. Laceration d. Abrasion
e. Contusion
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th ed., p. 114
Intrusive luxations, or intrusions, result from an axial force applied to the incisal edge of the tooth that
results in the tooth being driven into the socket.
Ans: 1.a, 2.d, 3.a, 4.d, 5.c, 6.b, 7.a
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8. Patient is diagnosed for ceramometal full veneer. You plan to use epoxy resin. What’s the
best impression material to be used ?
a. Poly ether b. Poly sulfide
Reference: http://che1 .If1 .cuni.cz/html/lmpression_materials.pdf
ft Irrigant that kills e-foecalis:
a. NaOH b. MTAD
c. Saline d. Chlorohexidine
Reference: Pathway to the pulp
New irrigants are being developed in an attempt to address some of the shortcomings of past and
current materials. MTAD is a mixture of a tetracycline isomer (i.e., doxycycline), an acid, and a deter
gent. In an in vitro study, MTAD was found to be an effective solution for killing E. faecalis.
10. Cranial sensory nerve are:

a. I b. 0
c. VIII. d. All the above
11. Principle of elevator use of all the following EXCEPT:
a Wheel and axis b. Wedging the socket wall
c. Wedging d. Lever
Reference: Textbook for General and Oral Surgery, p. 193
Oral Surgery, p. 119-155
Mechanical principles involved in extraction — lever, wedge and wheel and axle
12. The usual cause of contacting or clicking of posterior teeth when a patient speaks is:
a Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion
b. Increased vertical dimension of occlusion
c. Posterior teeth set too far lingually
d. Posterior teeth set too far facially
13. Inferior alveolar nerve block alone can be used in:
a. Pulpotomy of 3rd molar b. Apicoectomy of 3rd molar
c. Extraction of 1st molar d. Root resection of 1 st molar
Reference: Monheim’s Local Anesthesia and Pain Control in General Practice, 7th ed., p. 100
14. Pregnant lady needs oral surgery:
a. UnderGA b. Under steroid cover
c. Second trimester d. Third trimester
Ans: 8.a, 9.b, 10.d, 11.b, 12.b, 13.a, 14.c

S e c tio n II: M o d e l Q u e s t io n P a p e rs
15. Radiographic evaluation in extraction of tooth:

a. Relationship of associated vital structures, b. Root configuration
c. Surrounding bone condition. d. All of the above
16. Tooth with bone resorption requires RCT. Terminate RCT at:
a. Radiographic apex b. 0.5-1 mm short of radiographic apex
c. 0.5-1 mm beyond radiographic apex d. None of the above
Reference: Ingle's Endodontics, 5th ed., p. 515
17. Which are the following features of incipient caries
a. The surface zone is the largest portion with the highest pore volume
b. Tooth preparation and composite is the best treatment.
c. Pulpal reaction is not possible.
d. Caries progress in enamel faster than dentin.
18. When removing a rubber dam, the first step is to:
a. Remove the clamp b. Release the holder
c. Apply a water soluble lubricant d. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 5th ed., p. 479
19. Important factor in long term success of perio treatment:
a. Skill of the operator b. Perio maintenance
20. Which causes gingival enlargement?
a. Cyclosporines b. NSAIDs
c. Penicillin d. Erythromycin
21. Gingival curettage is indicated in the treatment of:
a. Inflamed and edematous gingiva b. Fibrotic gingiva
c. Bleeding gingiva d. None of the above
22. In pedo the use rubber dam is for:
a. Improve visibility and access b. Lowers risk of swallowing
c. Sterile field d. a & b
23. Root most commonly pushed in maxillary sinus:
a. Buccal of 7 b. Palatal of 6
c. Palatal of 7 d. Buccal of 6
e. Distal of 6 & 7
Ans: 15.d, 16.b, 17.e, 18.d, 19.b, 20.a, 21.a, 22.d, 23.b
P a p e r 44
The palatal root of the maxillary first molar is most often dislodged into the maxillary sinus during an
extraction procedure.
24. Study the signs and symptoms:
1. Increasing mobility 2. Pathologic migration
3. Inflamed gingiva. 4. Alveolar bone loss
Which of these are associated with secondary occlusal traumatism?
a. 1,2,3. b. 1,2,4.
c. 1, 3, 4. d. All of the above.
Reference: Glickman, 9th ed. p. 376
25. Fishman’s index is used in relation with:
a. Population b. Hand wrist radiographs
c. Cephalograms d. Periodontal diseases
Reference: Bhalaji Orthodontics: The Art and Science, 3rd ed., p. 168
26. Actinobacillus actinomycetam comitans is:
a. Gram positive aerobe b. Gram negative aerobe
c. Obligate anaerobe d. Fucultative anaerobe
27. Main disadvantage of chlorhexidine:
a. Staining b. Burning sensation
c. Altered taste d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008), p. 36, 448
Chlorohexidine has several disadvantages. One of the most important disadvantages is that if a
patient rinses his mouth with chlorohexidine compositions regularly, his teeth and tongue obtain a
brownish color. This is ofcourse a major disadvantage. Another disadvantage of chlorohexidine is
that it has no significant anti-bacterial effect on gram positive bacteria at relatively low concentra
tions. This means that gram positive bacteria will not be effected by the rinse composition and may
thus still cause periodontitis or produce the volatile sulphur compounds that cause the malodour.
28. Coronary steal phenomenon is caused by:
a. Dipyridamole b. Diltiazem
c. Propranolol d. Verapamil
29. Increased vertical dimension in a denture causes:

a. Inability to swallow b. Drooling of saliva at corners of mouth
c. TM J pain d. All the above
Ans: 24.b, 25.b, 26.d, 27.a, 28.a, 29.d

30. Space closure is least likely to occur following early loss of a:

a. Primary maxillary first molar b. Primary maxillary second molar
c. Primary maxillary centralincisors d. Permanent maxillary central incisor
Reference: National Board Dental Examination - April 1989
31. You put a proximo-occlusal inlay on a teeth and on adjacent there is proximoocclusal amal
gam filling. Patient returns after 1 day with a feeling of tightness and pulpitis. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Tight proximal contact b. High point on inlay
c. Galvanic current d. Irritation from the cement
32. Best diagnostic test for assessment of periodontal disease is
a. Periodontal probe b. X-ray
c. Plaque intex d. All the above
33. Hand Instrument used for removal of subgingival calculus is
a Sickle b. Hoe
c. Currette d. Curved probe
34. Difference between periodontitis and periodontosis
a. Periodontosis is chronic periodontitis
b. Periodontosis is juvenile periodontitis
c. Periodontosis is aggressive form of periodontitis
d. Periodontosis is acute periodontitis
35. Regarding case control, all of the following are true except:
a. Risk factors can be identified. b. It can be used in the study of rare disease,
c. It measures incidence. d. It requires few subjects.
Reference: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th ed., p. 69
36. Localised lesions of bone loss on individual tooth what could be the cause?
a. Periodontitis b. Trauma from occlusion,
c. Localized gingivitis d. Root caries
37. What is infrabony pocket?
a. Attachment of epithelium below the crest of alveolar bone.
b. Attachment of epithelium above the crest of alveolar bone.
c. Attachment of epithelium at the level of crest of alveolar bone.
38. The diagram used to depict quantitative data of continuous type is:
a. Histogram b. Line diagram
c. Component bar diagram d. Pie diagram
Reference: Soban Peter's Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 3rd ed., p. 29
Ans: 30.c, 31.c, 32.a, 33.b, 34.b, 35.c, 36.b, 37.a, 38.a
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39. Most common oral disease in adults:

a. Gingivitis b. Periodontitis
c. Periodontosis d. Caries
40. What is pellicle?
a. A glycoprotein which is made of saliva composed mainly of protein,
b. A glycoprotein made up of salive composed mainly of carbohydrate.
c. a + b
41. Prognosis of a tooth with a broken instrument located 3 mm from the apex is probably best
if the tooth has a:
a. Vital pulp with a periapical lesion. b. Vital pulp without a periapical lesion.
c._ Necrotic pulp with a periapical lesion. d. Necrotic pulp without a periapical lesion.
Reference: National Board Dental Exam ination-April 1989
42. Bruxism patient what do you expect to see?
a. Abraded occlusal surface of molars b. Early morning TMJ tenderness
c. Thickness of lamina dura d. Widened periodontal space
e. All the above
43. Purple colored reamer is numbered:
a. 08 b. 10
c. 15 d. 30
Reference: Grossman’s Endodontic Practice, 11th ed., p. 195
44. What will happen if you decrease object and film distance
a. Minimize elongation of image b. Maximize elongation of image
c. No effect in image d. More exposure
45. A child 5 year old drinks 10 cc of 10% fluoride by mistake. What will you do immediatly?
a. Take him to physician. b. Hospitalization
c. Give him some milkto drink. d. No need to worry nothing will happen.
Lactose in milk react with fluoride and form insoluble fluoride component. This will prevent the
absorption of fluoride in systemic circulation
46. Clear view of mucous retention cyst is seen in:
a. O P G b. Water’s view
c. SM V view d. IOPA
Reference: Umarji's Concise Oral Radiology, p. 253
Ans: 39.a, 40.a, 41.b, 42.e, 43.b, 44.a, 45.c,46.a

S e c tio n II: M o d e l Q u e s tio n P a p e rs
47. Ghost teeth appears in:

a Dentigerous imperfect b. Regional odontodysplasia
c. amelogenisis imperfect d. Paget's disease
48. A patient receiving radiation therapy to oral structures have increased number of following
microorganisms except:
a. Streptococcus mutans b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Lactobacillus d. Candida
49. A patient infected by anthrax. After examination doctor should disinfect with:
a. 12% chlorhexidine b. Antibacterial hand scrub
c. Non antimicrobial soap d. Running water hand wash
50. A patient has frequent infections, has lost weight recently and has frequent urge to urinate.
What’s your diagnosis?
a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Renal disease d. Hypertension
51. Supra gingival calculus — all true EXCEPT:
a. Easy to detach
b. Above the gingival margin
c. Present in buccal side of maxillary 1st molar
d. Present in lingual side lower anterior
e. All the above
52. Foster Miller probe are capable of measuring:
a. Pocket depth b. CEJ junction
c. Both d. None
53. Finishing and polishing of amalgam restoration causes:
a. Increase in tarnish and corrosion resistance.
b. Increase the marginal strength.
c. Decrease in tarnish and corrosion resistance.
d. Increased compressive strength.
Reference: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, p. 685
54. Step wedge test:
a. Used to measure exposure to patient.
b. Used to measure exposure to dental operatory staff.
c. Used to measure quality of developer.
d. Measures the speed of imaging system and image contrast.
Ans: 47.b, 48.b, 49.a, 50.b, 51.e, 52.c, 53.a, 54.d
D e nto-G ulf - F or G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xam ina tions
P a p e r 44

55. The spread of odontogenic infection is based on:
a. Host defense b. Virulent of microorganism
c. No. of bacteria d. All the above
56. Crown and root perforation:
a. Respond to MTA b. Use matrix with hydroxiapatite and seal with G I
c. a + b d. Root canal filling
Reference: Ingle's Endodontics, p. 278
57. Composite restoration that was matching in shade perfectly during the restoration, after one
or 2 weeks it became much lighter in colour. The reason could be?
a. Light started photoinitation
b. Absorption water
c. Shade selected after tooth isolation by rubber dam ——
d. All the above
58. When do we do incision and drainage?
a. Indurated diffuse swelling. b. Sinus tract
c. Chronic apical periodontitis d. None of the above
With a localized, fluctuant, soft-tissue swelling indicating a submucosal abscess, an incision and
drainage procedure should be attempted.
59. A pregnant lady may need which of the following during oral surgery:
a. Needs prophylactic antibiotic. b. Needs under GA
c. Needs steroid cover d. None of the above.
60. Which type of gypsum product has minimum setting time?
a. Plaster impression. b. Plaster model.
c. Dental stone. d. Dental stone, high strength.
61. Right upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve causes:
a. Loss of taste sensation in right upper part of tongue.
b. Loss of corneal reflex right side.
c. Loss of wrinkling forehead left side.
d. Paralysis of lower facial muscle left side.
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol-lll, p. 54
62. The most common form of oral ulcerative disease is:
a. HSV b. Major aphthous ulcer
c. Paget disease d. Minor aphthous ulcer
Ans: 55.d, 56.a, 57.c, 58.d, 59.a, 60.a, 61 .d, 62.d

63. The majority of primary herpetic infections are:

a. Symptomatic, b. Asymptomatic.
c. Proceeded by fever, d. Accompanied by gingival erythema.
e. a, c and d.
64. The function of the posterior teeth is:
a Incise food b. Prevent attrition
c. Grinding the food d. Prevent food impaction
65. Secondary granules in neutrophils is:
a. Lactoferrin b. Proteolytic enzymes
c. Nucleotides d. Catalase
Reference: Taylor’s Family Medicine Principles and Practice, 3rd ed., p. 409
66. When using the buccal object rule in horizontal angulation, the buccal object in relation to the
lingual object: . __
a. Move away from the x-ray tube head.
b. Move with the x-ray tube head.
c. Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray tube head
d. Move in a superior direction from the x-ray tube head.
67. WNch of the following is the longest in the dental arch:
a. Maxillary central incisor. b. Maxillary second premolar,
c. Mandibular canine. d. Maxillary canine
Maxillary canine
The maxillary canine is the tooth located laterally from both maxillary lateral incisors of the mouth but
mesially from both maxillary first premolars. It is the longest tooth in total length, from root to the
incisal edge, in the mouth.
68. Which of the following are oral features of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?
a. Candidiasis b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Rapidly progressing periodontitis d. Kaposi's sarcoma
e. All the above
Guyton and Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology, p. 447
69. In serial arthometry:
a. Transorbital is taken f a 3 times b. Transcranial is taken for 3 times
c. Transpharyngeal is taken for 3 times d. All three are taken for 1 time
Reference: Umarji’s Concise Oral Radiology, p. 98
Ans: 63.b, 64.c, 65.a, 66.a, 67.d, 68.e, 69.b

P a p e r 44
70. Which is true regarding oxytocin?

a. Increased by stress b. Secreted by paraventricular tissue
c. Effective in males d. Important for maintaining pregnancy
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed, p. 243
Ans: 70.b
MODEL QUESTION
PAPER - 45
1. The most common activity associated with percutaneous injury of the dentist is:
a. Suturing b. Anesthesia injection
c. Handpiece dig d. Trimming impressions
2. A patient presented with generalized edema, sweating, flushing, tachycardia and fever after
bee sting. This is:
a. T cell mediated cytotoxicity b. IgE mediated reaction
c. IgG mediated reaction d. IgA mediated hypersensitivity reaction
3. Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is called:
a. Internal fixation b. An open reduction
c. Intermaxillary fixation d. Displacement
e. External fixation
4. The incidence of nerve damage following mandibular third molar surgery is estimated to be:
a. 5% or less b. 10% to 15%
c. 15% to 20% d. 20% to 25%
5. Dicumarol is an antimetabolite of:
a. Heparin b. Vitamin K
c. Prothrombin d. Folic acid
Reference : Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, p. 487
6. Which of the following will cause nerve damage?
a. Direct needle trauma b. Intraneural haematoma formation,
c. Stretching and binding of the nerve d. a + b
7. Speed of film increases with:
a. Increase in size of halide crystals b. Decrease in size of halide crystals
c. Increase kVp d. Increase exposure time
Reference source: Umarji’s Concise Oral Radiology, p. 22
8. Clinical feature of lichen planus is:
a. Red streaks b. Ulcers
c. White streaks d. Bullae
9. Which of these is false regarding cytokines?
a. Mediators of inflammation b. Produced by macrophages
c. Are soluble proteins d. Does not mediate specific reactions
Reference source: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th ed, p. 202
Ans: 1.b, 2.b, 3.c, 4.a, 5.b, 6.b, 7.a, 8.c, 9.d
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P a p e r 45
10. Which of the following syndromes is characterized by multiple large ‘cold staphylococcal
abscesses’?
a. Job’s syndrome b. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
c. Chediak-Higashi syndrome d. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Panlker’s Textbook of Microbiology, p. 157
11. Which of the following are features of ankylosis of tooth?
a. No PD L b. Caused by trauma
c. Extracted surgically d. All of the above
12. A 25 years old pregnant patient has swollen gingiva. It shows bleeding on probing, location
on papilla of anterior area of the maxilla, and is Isolated?
a. Gingival hyperplasia b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Gingival abcess d. All the above
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., p. 414 __
13. The extent to which ionization of a drug takes pace is dependent upon pKa of the drug and
the pH o f the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
a. pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized
b. Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionization
c. Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behavior in various body fluids
d. Phenobarbitone with a pKa of 7.2 is largely ionized at acid pH and will be about 40% non ionized in
plasma
Reference: K.D.Tripathi’s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p. 12
14. Which of the following techniques has different TFD?
a. Maxillary topographic view b. Mandibular topographic view
c. Maxillary true occlusal view d. Mandibular true occlusal view
Reference : Umarji's Concise Oral Radiology, p. 81
15. For onlay preparation, reduction o f functioning cusp should be:
a. 1.5 mm b. 2 mm
c. 1 mm d. 2.5 mm
Functional cusp 1.5 mm, non functional cusp 1 mm
16. When a child must be first exposed to the use of the tooth brush?
a. Of age of 2 years. b. Of age of 4 years.
c. After the eruption of first primary tooth. d. After the eruption of permanent tooth
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed. (2005)
Ans: 10.a, 11.d, 12.b, 13.b^ 14.c, 15.a, 16.c

S e c t io n II: M o d e l Q u e s tio n P a p e rs
National Fluoride Information Centre - Guide to Fluoride: Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is
recommended but under supervision in small pea-sized amount.
Brushing using a fluoride toothpaste should start as soon as the first teeth erupt (about 6 months of
age). Parents should supervise brushing up to at least 7 years of age to avoid over-ingestion of
toothpaste and ensure adequate plaque removal
17. The use of rubber dam in child patient is:
a. Provide dean field b. Improve visibility and access
c. Lowers risk of swallowing d. all the above
Reference: Dental Decks, 2nd ed, p. 2220
18. Hemagglutination test is used for the following except:
a. Detection of influenza virus
b. Quantitation of the antibody to virus
c. Standardization of killed influenza virus vaccine
d. Titration of influenza virus in culture
Reference : Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed., p. 503
19. True statement is:
a. Medial wall of orbit is formed by maxilla, sphenoid, lacrimal and ethmoid bone.
b. Floor of orbit is formed by greater wing of sphenoid bone and orbital process of palatine.
c. Roof of orbit is formed by frontal and zygomatic bone.
20. Factors that make impaction surgery of lower third molar more difficult is?
a. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots
b. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and curved roots
c. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots
d. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow periodontalligament and divergent curved roots
e. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second molar andinferior alveolar nerve
21. Which one of the following conditions would delay a dentist's decision of taking full mouth
x-ray examination?
a. Pregnancy
b. Patient had full mouth examination by x-ray 6 months ago
c. Patient will receive radiotherapy next week
d. Patient had CT examination last week
Ans: 17.d, 18.b, 19.a, 20.a, 21.a

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P a p e r 45
22. The nerve which supplies the tongue and may be anesthetized during inferior alveolar nerve
block injection is:
a. V b. VII
c. IX d. XII
It is lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of fifth cranial (trigeminal) nerve.
23. The first pharyngeal arch will form:
c. Thyroid d. Hyoid
24. In normal kidneys, which of the following is true of the osmolarity of renal tubular fluid that
flows through the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa?
a. Usually isotonic compared to plasma
b. Usually hypotonic compared to plasma
c. Usually hypertonic compared to plasma
d. Hypertonic, compared to plasma, in antidiuresis
Reference: Guyton and Hall’s Textbook of Medical Physiology, p. 355, 356
25. The ossification of maxilla in relation the mandible is:
a. Before the mandible b. Slightly laterthan the mandible
c. At the same time d. None of the above
26. A ll of the following drugs cause gingival enlargement except:
a. Cyclosporine b. Phenytoin
c. Nifedipine d. Aspirin
27. Which is the color of the colonies produced by staphylococcal strains?
a. Golden yellow b. Brownish
c. Grayish d. Greenish blue
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, p. 192
28. Main aim of root planing is to remove:
a. Plaque b. Calculus
c. Necrotic cementum d. All of the above
29. Safe months to treat pregnant ladies
a. 1-3 b. 4-6
c. 7-9 d. 8-10
30. The motor part of facial nerve supply:
a Buccinator muscle b. Mylohyoid muscle
c. Tongue d. Masseter muscle
Ans: 22.a, 23.b, 24.b, 25.b, 26.d, 27.a, 28.d, 29.b, 30.a
Buccinator muscle:
Motor innervation is from the buccal branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Sensory innervation
is supplied by the buccal branch (one of the muscular branches) of mandibular nerve (cranial nerve
V3)
31. The body secret antibody against antigen using which ceils:
a Lymphocytes b. PMN
c. Monocytes d. Neutrophils
32. Which of the following methods is most suitable for functional analysis of postural rest posi
tion in children?
a. Phonetic method b. Commandmethod
c. Non commandmethod d. Combinedmethod
Reference: Gurkeerat Singh’s Textbook of Orthodontics, p. 69
33. Surgical pocket therapy is used to:
a. Expose the roots for scaling and root planning
b. Remove supragingival calculus
c. Remove stains
d. Remove gingivitis
The objective for pocket therapy is :
Increase the accessibility to the root surface making it possible to remove all irritants.
Reduce or eliminate pocket depth, making it possible for the patient to maintain-
the root surface free of plaquereshape soft and hard tissues to attain a harmonious topography
34. Lambdoid suture is between:
a. Occipital and temporalbone b. Frontal and parietal bone
35. Coagulative necrosis is found in:
a. Anemia b. Tuberculosis
c. Sarcoidosis d. Gangrene
36. Space lose occurs in:
a. Proximal caries b. Early extraction
c. Ankylosis d. All of the above
37. Biological zone of healthy gingiva is:
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
Ans: 31.a, 32.d, 33.a, 34.c, 35.d, 36.d, 37.c

P a p e r 45
Biologic zone= 2.73 mm( junctional epithelium 0.97 mm + connective tissue ( attachment 1.07 mm +
gingival sulcus 0.69 mm
38. Amount of G.P. should after post preparation be:
a. 1 mm b. 4-5 mm
c. 10 mm d. None of the above
As a general guide the post should be at least equal to the anticipated crown height, but a minimum
of 4 mm of well-condensed G P should be left. A periodontal probe is helpful to check prepared canal
length
39. This is the number of pharyngeal “brancheal” arches
a. 4 b. 5
c. 6 d. 7
Reference: Anatomy of the Human Body ____ ,
The dorsal ends of these arches are attached to the sides of the head, while the ventral extremities
ultimately meet in the middle line of the neck. In all, six arches make their appearance, but of these
only the first four are visible externally.
40. Hand over mouth exercise is a technique for managing:
a. Unsuitable behavior that cannot be modified by the more straight forward techniques.
b. It is often used with inhalation sedation
c. A healthy child who is able to understand and co-operate, but who exhibits obstreperous or hys
terical avoidance behaviors
d. Special children
41. Uses of pits and fissure sealants are:
a. Deep pits and fissure b. Newly erupted teeth
42. The submental triangle is outlined by the hyoid bone:

a. Superiorly b. Interiorly
c. Laterally d. Midline
43. Rigid fixation in a tooth which have no mobility but have luxation, will cause:
a. Tooth resorption b. Fracture of root
c. Ankylosis d. Periapical abcess
Reference: Handbook of Dental Trauma (2001) p. 71
44. Root fracture decreases when we use:
c. Metal post d. Fiber post
Ans: 38.b, 39.c, 40.c, 41 .c, 42.a, 43.c, 44.d

D e nto-G utf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
45. The aim of biomechanical process during endodontic is to allow:

a G P reach the apex b. Debridement root canal materials
c. Removal of infected pulp tissue d. All the above
46. Most abundant phospholipids in most eukaryotic cells are:
a PS and PI b. PI and PE
c. PS and PC d. P E and PC
47. Tooth with full PFM crown need RCT. You did the RCT through the crown. What is the best
restoration to maintain the resistance of the crown?
c. GIC d. a + b
48. Flush terminal plane will most likely result in:
a. Class I occlusion b. Class II occlusion
c. Class III occlusion d. Any of the above
49. The finish line placed on maxillary central incisor for porcelain laminate veneer preparation
should cover approximately
a One-fourth of the lingual surface and remain 1.0 mm away from centric contacts
a One-third of the lingual surface and remain 1.5 mm away from centric contacts
b. One-fifth of the lingual surface and remain 1.0 mm away from centric contacts
c. One-fourth of the lingual surface and remain 0.5 mm away from centric contacts
50. A patient has a white lesion on lateral of tongue and his cheek. When scrubbed (wiped off) it
leaves eroded, bleeding surface. What is the diagnosis?
a. Candidiasis b. Leukoplakia
c. Frictional keratosis d. White sponge nevus
51. Which of the following is T cell mediated hypersensitivity?
a. Atopy b. Arthus phenomenon
c. Serum sickness d. None of the above
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, p. 159
52. Toothbrushing and dental floss in community prevention of periodontal disease:
a. True b. False
53. A patient was started on ant¡hypertensive medications, developed renal failure. The drug
offended is:
a. Beta blocker b. Alpha blocker,
c. Calcium channelblocker d. ACE inhibitor.
Reference: K.D.Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, p. 450
Ans: 45.b, 46.d, 47.a, 48.a, 49.a, 50.a, 51 .d, 52.a, 53.d
P a p e r 45
54. Tertiary dentin:

a. To protect from bacterial toxins b. Formed as dentine bridge above the pulp
c, It is defective from of 1st dentine d. Sclerosing dentine
55. Oral and perioral cyst are formed from epithelial rest of serrus:
a. True b. False
56. Which of the following medical conditions should prevent the dentist from treating patient
a. Diabetes b. Hepatitis
c. flu d. HIV
57. Which of the following materials is anti hemarrhagic agent?
a. Oxidized cellulose b. Zinc Oxide
c. Atrenaline d. Lactose
58. Preparation of tooth for metal ceramic restoration should be done in:
a. Single plane b. Two planes,
c. Parallel to long axis d. None of the above
59. Preparation for labial surface in one plane in the preparation for metal crown is:
a. More retentive b. Less retentive
c. No retension d. None of the above
Reference: Shillingburg’s Fundamental of Fixed Prosthodontics
Long, parallel axial walls with one path of insertion more retentive.
Preparation for anterior metal ceramic with one plane:
If extension of the gingival plane will cause bad shade match and over contoured.
If extension of the incisal plane will cause over taper and too close to the pulp
Functional cusp bevel in posterior teeth prevent:

Thin casting in the junction between the occlusal and axial reduction
Over contouring will cause deflective occlusal contact.
Over incline axial surface will cause excessive tooth structure reduction and less retention.
60. Killing bacteria is:
a. Bacteriostatic b. Bactericidal
c. Sterilization d. None of the above
61. True statement is:
a. Osteoblasts are mononucleated and osteocytes are multinucleated.
b. Osteoblasts are multinucleated and osteocytes are mononucleated.
c. Both are mononucleated.
d. Both are multinucleated.
Ans: 54.b, 55.a, 56.c, 57.a, 58.b, 59.b, 60.b, 61 .a

D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g E x a m in a tio n s
62. For autoclave sterilization, burrs can be protected by keeping them submerged in:
a 2% sodium nitrite. b. 5.26% sodium hypochlorite,
c. 2% chlorhexidine. d. 10.2%sodium nitrates.
63. Optic nerve coming from which bone:
a. sphenoid bone b. zygomatic
c. palatal
64. Gracey curette 7/8 is used for
a. Mesial posterior b. Distal posterior
c. buccal posterior d. anterior
65. after a minor accident, the Child have tooth which have no mobility but have intrusive lux
ation, best treatment
a. acrylic splint ' b. non rigid fixation
c. rigid fixation d. extraction
66. Which of the following is cause of dental plaque induced gingivitis?
a. Ascorbic acid deficiency. b. Allergy to dental restorative material,
c. Reaction attributable to toothpaste. d. All of the above.
Reference : Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, p. 102
67. The mesial surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts
a. The mesial surface of the central incisor, b. The distal surface of the central incisor,
c. The mesial surface of the cuspid, d. The distal surface of the cuspid.
68. The tip of cusp of the mandibular cuspid is one above the occlusal plane to establish-------
— Of the maxillary anterior
a. Horizontal overlap. b. Occlusal plane,
c. Vertical overlap d. All.
69. While doing posterior excess cavity preparation of molar, the initial outline form should be:
a. Rhomboid. b. Triangular,
c. Oval. d. Either 1 or 2.
Reference: Ingle’s Endodontics, p. 178
70. Growth of middle cranial fossa resulting in displacement of maxillary complex independent
of growth maxilla is:
a. Primary displacement b. Secondary displacement
c. Tertiary displacement. d. None of the above.
Ans: 62.a, 63.a, 64.c, 65.d, 66.a, 67.b, 68.c, 69.d, 70.b
D e nto-G ulf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
MODEL QUESTION
Chapter - 46
1. Teething may cause:

a. Fever b. Diarrhoea
c. Convulsions d. All of the above
Reference source: Damle’s Textbook of Pediatric Dentistry, p. 236
2. A patient with lesion in the posterior of the tongue. We want to take excisional biopsy. How to
pull the tongue forward?
a. Minnesota tongue retractor b. Mirror Handle
c. Towl clip d. None of the above
3. Hypercementosis is not seen with:
a. Excessive orthodontic pressure b. Low-grade periapical infection
c. Absence of antagonist d. Excessive occlusal forces
4. During anesthesia what's true?
a. The needle should be inserted before cartridge
b. The needle cap is inserted before the stopper
c. Excessive force should be applied to allow insertion of the cartridge into the harpon
d. All the above
5. Low doses of aspirin used in myocardial infarction act by:
a. Inhibiting thromboxane synthetase b. Inhibit cyclooxygenase
c. Releasing ED R F d. High protein binding activity
6. In Snyder’s test, the saliva is said to be highly cariogenic, if the color change is observed at:
a. 24 hrs b. 48 hrs
c. 72 hrs d. 96 hrs
7. In a child, maxillary Cl is impacted, and associated with mixed radiolucency. Histologically
some dental hard tissue like features is seen. What could be the diagnosis?
a. Compound odontoma b. Complex odontoma
c. AOT d. C E O T
Reference : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adenomatoid_odontogenic_tumor
8. Two or more parallel vertical surfaces of abutment teeth shaped to direct the prosthesis
during placement and removal are known as:
a. Orientation plane b. Parallel block out
c. Survey lines d. Guiding planes
Reference: Deepak Naliaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p. 321
Ans: 1.d, 2.c, 3.a, 4.c, 5.b, 6.a, 7.c, 8.d

Section il: Model Question Papers
9. Material for perforation in mandibular molar:

a. MTA b. Zinc oxide
c. Calcium hydroxide d. GIC
10. Bio transformation of drugs is primarily directed to:
a. Activate the drug
b. Inactivate the drug
c. Convert the lipid soluble drugs into non lipid soluble metabolites
d. Convert non lipid soluble drugs into the lipid soluble metabolites
Reference: K.D.Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th ed, p. 20
11. Posterior class II amalgam restoration patient came after 3 days complaining that strucking
of floss during dental flossing. On radiographic features showing overhanging restoration.
Probable reason is?
- a. Improper wedge b. Less condensing
c. Improper burnishing in matrix region d. Over condensing
12. ‘Floating tooth syndrome’ is seen in:
a. Paget’s disease b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Cherubism d. Hypoparathyroidism
13. Stotic cyst in lower premolar region, the treatment will be:
a. Surgical removal b. Marsupilization
c. Incision and drainage d. No treatment
14. At what stage is endodontic treatment considered complete?
a. When a temporary restoration is placed and the rubber dam removed.
b. When canals are seared off and plugged.
c. When the coronal restoration is completed
d. When the patient is asymptomatic
15. A 18 year old patient having severe, sharp pain during touching of the cementum, by probing
pain, is present for short duration. What is the diagnosis?
c. Dentinal hypersensitivity d. Periapical abcess
16. Inferior thyroid artery arise from:
a. 1st part of subclavian artery
b. Thyrocervical trunk of 1st part of subclavian artery
c. 3rd part of subclavian artery
d. Internal carotid artery
Reference: Chaurasia’s Anatomy for Dental Students, Vol-lll, p. 174,175
Ans: 9.a, 10.c, 11.a, 12.c, 13.d, 14.c, 15.c, 16.b

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17. Conditioning agent before GIC restoration used is:

a. Phosphoric acid b. Citric acid
c. Poly acyric acid d. EDTA
e. Tannic acid
Reference: Sturdevanfs Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 2000

18. Which of the following is not an indication to use solvent softened custom cones?
a. Tug back” with in 1 mm of working length.
b. Lack of an apical atop.
c. An abnormally large apical portion of the canal.
d. An irregular apical portion of the canal
19. Time for conditioning agent before GIC restoration is:
a. 10 sec b. 15 sec
c. 20 sec d. 1 min
20. Maximum growth spurt is seen in girls at time of:
a. Puberche b. Thelarche
c. Menarche d. Adrenarche
Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd ed.
21. A patient having asymptomatic swelling at the region of premolar in mandible. Radiographic
and histologic features reveals that it is a S cyst of bone. What would be the treatment?
a. Incision and antibiotic coverage b. Curettage of epithelial lining
c. Marsupilization d. No treatment needed
22. When symptoms and clinical tests show the presence of pulpal pathosis in a posterior tooth
and the radiograph shows no decay or restoration in any proximity to the pulp, this is virtu
ally pathognomonic of:
a Condensing osteitis. b. Vertical fracture of the tooth
c. Periodontal abscess d. Secondary occlusal trauma
23. A patient at the age of 11 years, 2nd molar erupting, clinical probe catchs at the pit of molar.
What would be the treatment?
a. Pit and fissure sealent b. Fluoride application
c. Amalgam restoration d. GIC restoration
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008), p. 38-39
Ans: 17.c, 18.a, 19.a, 20.a, 21.b, 22.b, 23.a

24. Tertiary structure of proteins is maintained by all except:

a. H2 bond b. Hydrophobic bond
c. Ionic bond d. Disulphide bond
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, p. 35
25. A patient came for preventive measures to dental clinic with initial dental caries. What you
should do?
a. Amalgam restoration b. Composite restoration
c. Preventiverestoration d. Conservative method
26. A child with hypoplastic enamel and dentin. The treatment is:
c. GIC d. Full crown
27. Vibrating line is present on:
a. Hard palate
b. Junction of hard and soft palate
c. Soft palate
d. Junction of muscularis mucosa and palatine muscle
Reference: Deepak IMallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p. 22
28. Extension for prevention is directly related to:
a. Removal of unsupported enamel on proximal surface of class III cavity.
b. Depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity preparation.
c. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond average depth of pulpal wall.
d. The outline form of cavity preparation.
29. Lingual bar construction for class IRPD, the first step for this?
a. Marking inferior border of major connector in diagnostic cast
b. Marking superior border of major connector in diagnostic cast
c. a + b
d. Both are wrong
Reference: Deepak Nallaswamy’s Textbook of Prosthodontics, p. 337
30. Inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of:
a. Main devision of mandibular nerve b. Anterior devision of mandibular nerve
c. Posterior devision of mandibular nerve d. Branch of ophthalmic nerve
31. Primate spaces are related to the position of diastemas, which are present:
a. Distal to deciduous maxillary canine
b. Mesial to deciduous maxillary canine and distal to deciduous mandibular canine
Ans: 24.b, 25.c, 26.d, 27.c, 28.d, 29.b, 30.c, 31 .b

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c. Mesial to deciduous maxillary canine

d. Mesial to deciduous mandibular canine
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 76-77
32. A 5 year old child has palmerkeratosis on his hand. The diagnosis is?
a. Albright syndrome b. Eagle syndrome
c. Papillon lefevre syndrome d. Peterson Kelly syndrome
Reference: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th ed., (2008) p. 759-760
33. Desensitization to prevent an allergic response can be accomplished by injecting small, re
peated doses of:
a. IgE antibodies b. The allergen
c. Histamine d. IgG antibodies
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 7th ed, p. 165
34. A patient comes with severe pain on tooth number 46, on the same evening after he gets
done his onlay restoration. Clinical examination shows patient having cast metal restoration
on opposite restoration. The line of treatment is?
a. Varnish on onlay b. Preventive coating
c. Change the restoration d. Extraction of 46
35. ‘Torque’ in orthodontics indicates:
a. The change in mesiodistal inclination of teeth.
b. The change in labiolingual (axial) inclination of teeth.
c. The rotation of teeth.
d. All of the above
Reference: Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 406
36. Lactic acidosis is observed in patients with:
a. Inherited deficiency of PDH b. Thiamine deficient alcoholics
c. Both 1 and 2 d. None
Reference: Satyanarayana's Biochemistry, p. 260
37. A patient with complete denture having good retension but having droping angle of mouth
and decrease vermilion border. The reason will be:
a. Increased vertical dimension b. Decrease vertical dimension
c. Forward positioning of upper anterior d. None of the above
38. MTA is used for:
a. Apexification b. Apexogenisis
c. R C T d. Tissue healing
39. Amino acids from which cysteine is formed:
a. Threonine, methionine. b. Serine, methionine.
Ans: 32.C, 33.b, 34.c, 35.b, 36.c, 37.b, 38.a, 39.d

c. Alanine, methionine d. Serine, threonine

40. Perforation in mesio buccal root of molar is treated with:
a. MTA b. ZOE
c. Ca(OH)2 d. GIC
41. Primary electron donor in developing solution is:
a. Sodium hydrozide b. Phenidone
c. Sodium sulphite d. Potassium bromide
Reference: White and Pharoh’s Oral Radiology, p. 97
42. Which of the following instruments is used for disimpacting the maxilla in Le Fort fractures?
a. Waisham's forceps b. Asche’s forceps
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Rowe’s forceps
Reference: IMeelima Anil Malik’s Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, p. 50
43. A pedo patient with physical retardation and negative behavior. The inappropriate thing to do
is:
a. Send him home b. Use mouth prope
c. Belt d. Board
44. Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
a. Heavy and continuous. b. Heavy and intermittent
c. Light and continuous d. Light and intermittent
Reference: Proffit's Contemporary Orthodontics, p. 301
45. Drug given to treat perioral dermatitis is:
a Erythromycin b. Doxycyclin
c. Tetracyclin d. Ciprofloxacillin
Reference: G oaz White’s Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, p. 556
46. Dental x-ray beams are usually collimated to a circle of:
a 5 cm in diameter b. 7 cm in diameter
c. 9 cm in diameter d. 11 cm in diameter
Reference: White and Pharoh's Oral Radiology, p. 14
47. A pedo patient with extremely negative behavior to restrain the extremity:
a. Use mouth prope b. Belt
c. Board d. punishment
48. The design for a maxillary cast RPD framework with a double bar (anteriorly and posteriorly)
type of major connector is indicated when:
a. Maximum palatal support is required. b. High vault type of palate.
c. Acrylic plate for palate is to used. d. Where a single palatal strap connector would flex
Ans: 40.a, 41 .b, 42.a, 43.a, 44.c, 45.c, 46.b, 47.c, 48.d
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Reference: McCracken Removable Partial Prosthodontics, p. 38,39

49. What is the procedure for sterilization in dental office?
a. Auto clave b. Rash sterilization
c. Chemiclave d. All the above
Reference: http://www.ada.org/sections/professionalResources/pdfs/cdc_sterilization.pdf
50. What is most important in dental office?
a. Availability of all treatment b. Quality treatment
c. Infection control d. Good hospitality
51. People conform to certain customary ways not out of fear of being penalized, but because it
is obligatory in the proper situation. This is referred to as:
a. Folkways b. Mores
c. Customs d. Culture
52. A 5 year old child radiograph shows no eveidence of calcification of 2nd premolar. What is the
treatment plan?
a. Its too early to peredict the condition b. Recall after few months for check up
c. Start the treatment immediately d. None of the above
The 2nd premolars are one of the commonly missing tooth. So in any case if there is no evidence of
calcification then we should keep a spacemaintainer for future FPD or implant.
53. Hypoglycemia will cause:
a. Com a b. Seizures
c. Tachycardia d. All the above
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypoglycemia
54. Hyperparathyroidism will cause:
a. Chronic tentany (hypo parathyroidism) b. Phosephate level will increase in kidney
c. Hypercalcimea d. All the above
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperparathyroidism
(Hyperparathyroidism, serum phosphate levels are abnormally low as a result of decreased renal
tubular phosphate reabsorption)
55. The imporant color factor which help in selecting the shade of tooth:
a. Hue b. Chroma
c. Value d. Saturation
56. Pterygomandibular raphe:
a. Anterior border attach with buccinator
b. Posterior border attached with superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
Ans: 49.d, 50.c, 51.a, 52.b, 53.d, 54.c, 55.c, 56.d

c. Should be mesial to the injection site

d. All of the above
57. Steatorrhea is:
a. Abnormal appearance of lipids in feces.
b. Abnormal appearance of proteins in feces.
c. Abnormal appearance of enzymes in feces.
d. Abnormal appearance of blood in feces.
58. Bursa offabricius is a:
a. Endoepithelial organ. b. Mesioepithelial organ,
c. Lymphoepithelial organ. d. Epithelial organ.
Reference: Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, p. 119
59. The easiest endo retreatment in:
a. Over obturation with G P b. Under obturation with GP
c. Weeping canals d. Obturated with silver cone
60. The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture can be detected by the following
EXCEPT:
a Hamular notch b. Fovea palatine
c. Vibrating line d. None of the above
61. Which of the following antigens is T-cell independent?
a. HBs Ag b. Pneumococcal capsule
c. Diphtheria toxin d. Tetanus toxin
62. The best material for direct pulp capping for a primary tooth is:
a. Calcium hydroxide b. ZO E
c. Formecresol d. MTA
Reference: http://www.slideshare.net/SAMOUAWAD/direct-pulp-capping
63. Which of the following is submandibular approach to TMJ?
a. Risdon's approach b. Dingman’s approach
c. Blair’s approach d. Thomas approach
64. The fluoride buried within crystallites at the time of crystal growth is called:
a. Hydration b. Crystallization
c. Accretionlmbibition d. None of the above.
Ans: 57.a, 58.c, 59.b, 60.b, 61.b, 62.d, 63.a, 64.c

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65. Which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct?
a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis
c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
66. Which of the following statements about IFN is not true?
a. It interferes with viral replication b. It is species specific
c. It is produced by T lymphocytes d. It is virus specific
67. Subdural hematoma most commonly results from:
a. Rupture of intracranial aneurysm b. Rupture of cerebral AVM
c. Injury to cortical bridging veins d. Hemophilia
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed, p. 2381
68. Silica (SiOJ in investment material is added for:
a. Strength
b. Regulating the thermal expansion
c. Expansion components for casting shrinkages
d. Contraction
69. Which muscle of pharynx is innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve?
a. Stylopharyngeus b. Salpingopharyngeus
c. Palatopharyngeus d. All of the above
Reference: Gray's Anatomy, p. 948
70. A pure phospholipid bilayer is most permeable to which of the following:
a. Sodium b. Chloride
c. Water d. Oxygen
Reference: Guyton and Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology, p. 47
Ans: 65.a, 66.d, 67.a, 68.b, 69.a, 70.d

518
Mock Test Papers
This mock test papers contain 70 questions in each paper. These questions are randomly selected
from the previous model questions chapters. It has only key answers for all the questions.
I would advice the candidate to complete this test within 2 hours. When you practice mock test,
consider this as you are writing the real licencing exam. This will help you to know your exam prepa
ration standards, where you are standing, and how much you have to improve to achieve the passing
score.
1. Mixed dentition period in children occur inbetween the eruption of following teeth:
a. First permanent molar and canine b. First permanent molar and premolar
c. Canine and second permanent molar d. First permanent molar and third molar
Rubber dam application in patient during endodontic treatment is important, because it will:
c. Improves suction d. Provide sterile feild
Which of the following can be used as a base for composite restoration?
1. Varnish 2. Zinc oxide and eugenol
3. Ca (OH) 4. Zinc phosphate cement
a. 1+2 b. 2+3
c. 3+4 d. 2+4
4. Of the following in which condition local anesthesia is ineffective:
a Edema b. Localized infection
c. Hematoma d. Anemia
5. A patient came to your office suffering from pain in upper second premolar. After x-ray you
found the tooth had a failure in RCT obturated with silver cones. What is the most suitable
method to remove the silver cone?
a. Hatchet b. Steiglitz pliers
c. Ultrasonic tips d. H file
Ans: 1.b, 2.a, 3.c, 4.b,5.b

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6. Which of the following the dentist must do?

a. Treat patient medically
b. Prescribe medicine to patient with medical problem
c. Do clinical examination take medical history and evaluate the medical state
7. Body of mandible developed from:
a. Maxillary process b. Mandibular process
c. Hyoid process d. Median nasal process
8. Which are the ways in which the proximal contacts can be checked?
a. Use a pencil b. Use a shim stock
c. Use a silicone checker d. Use a dental floss
e. Only b & d
9. A 5 years old patient lost his primary first maxillary molar. The best retainer is: .
a. Band and loop b. Crown and loop
c. Lingual arch d. Nance appliance
10. Teeth selection in setting up teeth is based on these factors:
a. Shade of the teeth b. Size and shape of the teeth
c. Angle of the teeth d. a a n d b
e. All the above
11. Cementum is formed from:
a. Cementoblasts b. Fibroblasts
c. Cementicles d. Odentoblast
12. Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied by:
a. Mental nerve b. Inferior dental nerve
c. Buccal nerve d. Facial nerve
13. Color stability is better in which of the following?
a. Porcelain b. Composite
14. In recording mandible-maxilla relation, the best material used without producing pressure is:
a Wax b. Compound
c. Bite registration paste d. Impression material
15. A 33 years old female patient come with slow growing swelling in the angle of the mandible.
Radiograph shows radio-opaque with radio-lucent border diagnosis:
a. Osteoma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Cementaldysplasia d. Cementoblatoma
Ans: 6.c, 7.b, 8.e, 9.a, 10.d, 11.a, 12.a, 13.a, 14.c, 15.d
D e n to -C u lf - F or G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E x a m in a tio n s
Section III: Mock Test Papers
16. ¡ntraorally, the best biocompatible metal:

a. Cobaltchromium b. IMickle chromium
c. Gold d. Titanium
17. Hyperplasia of cementom is characterized by;
a Decrease in number ofSharpe's fibres b. Increase in number of Sharpe’s fibres,
c. Total lack of fibres d. None of the above
18. Drainage of tip of the tongue:
a. Sub lingual lymph nodes b. Submandibular lymph nodes
c. Submental lymph nodes d. Parotid lymph nodes
19. What is the best media for keep avulsion tooth:
a. In water same temperature of room b. In milk same temperature of room
c. In cold water d. In cold milk
20. What is the name of bur used in facial surface of veneer?
a Radial b. Dimond
21. What high energy phosphate compound is formed in the citric acid cycle through substrate
level phosphorylation?
a. ATP b. TTP
c. ITP d. G TP
22. ‘C’ carbohydrate of hemolytic streptococcus:
a. Used for lancefield classification b. Present inside cytoplasm
c. Prevents phagocytosis d. All of the above
23. Floss used to:

a. Remove interproximal plaque b. Remove overhangs
c. Stimulate gingival d. Remove calculus
24. Gingivectomy is not contraindicated in?
a. Suprabony pockets b. Infrabony pockets
c. Pockets extending beyond MGJ d. Any of the above
25. A 30 degree flexion of head during maxillary impression makes the soft palate:
a Move more b. Depress maximum
26. At which of the following locations on a mandibular molar do you complete the excavation of
caries first?
a. Axial walls b. Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns
c. Peripheral caries d. All of the above are correct
Ans: 16.d, 17.a, 18.c, 19.d, 20.b, 21 .d, 22.a, 23.a, 24.a, 25.b, 26.c
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27. The base cement of amalgam should have:

a. Low modulus of elasticity
b. The high modulus of elasticity prevent of bonding and decrease tensile strength.
c. High modulus of elasticity
d. Both b & c
28. Buccal branch of facial is:
a. Sensory b. Motor
c. Mixed d. None of the above
29. Application rubber dam in the endodontic:
a. Necessary b. Patient comfort
c. Established rule d. Extra cost
30. Cranial nerve, which emerges from dorsal surface of brain, is:
a II b. IV
c. VI d. All of the above
31. Treatment of internal resorption involves:
a. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process.
b. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed area for better access.
c. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill the irregularities in the resorbed area.
d. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
e. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to remove inflammatory tissue.
32. The primary structure of protein refers to:
a. Linear structure and order of the amino acids present.
b. Regular conformational forms of a protein.
c. Complete 3-dimensional structure of the polypeptide units of a given protein.
d. Subunit structure of the protein.
33. Impression material cause bad taste to patient:
a. Polysulphide b. Polyether
c. Additional silicon d. Alginate
34. Osteoradionecrosis is more in:
c. No difference d. None of the above
35. The local drug delivery system ‘Atrodox’ contains:
c. Minocycline d. Doxycycline
Ans: 27.c, 28.b, 29.c, 30.b, 31.a, 32.a, 33.a, 34.b, 35.d
36. A patient has bad oral hygeine and missing the right and left lateral insicor. What is the treat
ment?
a Implant b. R PD
c. Conventional FPD d. Maryland bridge
37. For resin composite restoration in a second maxillary premolar. The best matrix to be used is:
38. Chronic pericoronitis:
a. Difficult mouth opening b. Halitosis
c. Pain d. All of the above
39. Baby born without which bacteria:
a. Streptococcus mutans b. Streptococcus salivarus
. c. Staphylococcus d. E.coli
40. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is not manifested as:
a. Infra orbital syndrome b. Syncope due to atrial obliteration
c. Eye exophthalmos d. All the above
41. The accesses opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently:
a Oval b. Square
c. Triangular d. None of the above
42. Couple of force is:
a. Two equal perpendicular forces
b. Two equal parallel forces acting in same direction
c. Two non equal perpendicular forces acting in opposite direction
d. Two equal parallel forces acting in opposite direction
43. To check TMJ range of movement:
a. Cranial imagery b. Arthrography
c. Traditional tomography d. Computerized tomography
44. In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme is:
a. Flush terminal b. Mesial step
c. Distal step d. None of the above
45. Seventh, ninth and tenth cranial nerves end in:
a. Nucleus tractus solitarius b. Nucleus ambigus
c. Dorsal nucleus of vagus d. Long tract of V nerve
46. Which of the following cast analysis is the most accurate?
a. Moyer’s b. Stanely-Kerber
c. Tanaka-Johnston d. Kerby
Ans: 36.d, 37.b, 38.d, 39.a, 40,b, 41.a, 42.d, 43.b, 44.b, 45.a, 46.b
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47. Which of the following increases the heart’s tendency to fibrillate following myocardial inf
arction?
a. Decreased irritability of the cardiac muscle
b. Current of injury
c. Decreased sympathetic stimulation
d. Decreased ventricular volume
48. The most common complication after extraction for diabetic patient is:
a. Infection b. Severe bleeding
c. Edem a d. All of the above
49. Which disorder is characterized by excessive pain in a skin dermatomal distribution resulting
from a viral infection of a dorsal root ganglion?
a. Tic douloureux b. Lateral medullary syndrome
c. Brown Sequard syndrome d. Herpes zoster
side is the 2nd premolar. Which of the following clasps you will use for this premolar?
a. Gingivally approaching clasp b. Ring clasp
c. Circlet clasp d. Non of the above
51. Mammelons are present in:
a. Primary upper central incisor b. Primary upper lateral incisor
c. Primary lower central incisor d. None of the above
52. Immunoglobulins are tumor markers for:
a. Prostate cancer b. Ovarian cancer
c. Choriocarcinoma d. Multiple myeloma
53. Which are the following appliances used for immobilization of fragments of broken parts of
jaw bones in their original position until repair takes place?
a. Splints b. Stents
c. Obturators d. Speech aids
54. The impression material of choice when we want to take impression for epoxy resin pin is:
55. The occlusal reduction required for an anterior PFM (porcelain fused to metal) crown should
be:
a. 0.75 mm b. 3.0 mm
c. 1.0 mm d. 2.0 mm
56. A tailor is presented to your dental office. What’s the most common feature to be found in His
teeth upon examination?
a. Attrition b. Abrasion
c. Erosion d. Abfarcation
Ans: 47.b, 48.d, 49.d, 50.b, 51 .d, 52.d, 53.a, 54.b, 55.d, 56.b
57. Pit & fissure, least effective with:

a. Tweny-four month year b. Primary moiar
c. 2nd molar d. Premolars
58. Pulp stone can be the following:
a. Present freely h the pulp
b. In radiographs, small spheroidal radioopaque
c. False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin
d. All the above
59. Which material undergoes hysteriasis?
a. Irreversible hydrocolloid b. Reversible hydrocolloid
c. Impression plaster d. Metallic oxide paste
60. Nitrous oxide affects which of the following?
a. VitA b. Vit B6
c. Vit B12 d. Vit C
61. Premaxilla maxillary cyst is the same as:
a. Globulomaxillary cyst b. Median mandibular cyst
c. IMasoalveolar cyst d. Nasopalatine duct cyst
62. A patient had pulp capping two months back, returns with pain, but no radiographic changes
are observed after 2 months. Reason could be:
c. Pulpitis d. Periapical abcess
63. Air powder polishing system (Prophy-jet) uses air powered slurry of warm water and sodium
bicarbonate. It can be used safely on:
a. Amalgam restorations b. Titanium implant surfaces
c. Composite resins d. Non-metallic materials
64. Collimator is used for?
a. Making x-rays narrow b. Prevent scattering of radiation
c. Prevent secondary radiation d. All the above
65. What is the diagnosis of the child with clinical features of anodontia and loss of body hair?
a. Down’s syndrome b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Fructose d. Diabetic
66. Which radiographic projection is most useful in examining stone of a submandibular duct?
a. Cross sectional occlusal b. OPG
c. Lateral oblique d. PA view of mandible
67. Which of the following is not a type of cerebral palsy?
a. Spasticity b. Autism
c. Ataxia d. Athetosis
Ans: 57.b, 58.d, 59.b, 60.c, 61 .a, 62.c, 63.b, 64.dr 65.b, 66.a, 67.b
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68. Reaction to cold thermal pulp test indigates?

a. Vital pulp b. Non vital pulp
c. Apical pathology d. None of the above
69. When taking x-ray using bisecting angle technique, you should use:
a. Long cone
b. Keep x-rays parallel to film
c. Keep x-ray parallel to buccal surface of the tooth
d. All the above
70. Lack of leukocyte adhesion molecules (LAM) is associated with:
a Delayed closure of umbilical cord b. Normal chemotaxis
c. Complement opsonizing d. Neutropenia
Ans: 68.a, 69.a, 70.d

D e n to -G u lf — F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2
1. Which of following restorations is more likely to cause wear to opposing tooth?

a. Composite b. Gold
c. Porcelain d. Amalgam
2. When you are doing the preparation of gold crown with excepts of gingival rescission the
most proper way to extent the preparation is:
a. 1 mm under thegingival margin b. Make it on the fifth
3. Which is the common disease for the persons who are working in glass factories?
a. Silicosis b. Asepsis
c. Dermatitis d. Melenoma
4. Retro-molar pad aids in stability because:
a. It has soft pad of tissues.
b. It has fibers of muscles.
c. It adds another plane to resist the movement.
d. Raphe is attached there.
5. Cementum contains cells like bone and it is yellow in color in vital, extracted oravulsed tooth
but in non vital tooth, its color is dark:
a. True b. False
6. Patient feels pain of short duration after Class II restoration. Diagnosis is:
a Hyperemia b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Periodontitis d. Gingival irritation
7. The drug which induces gingival enlargement EXCEPT:
a Phenatoin b. IMefidtpaine
c. Calcium channel blockers d. Mefenamic acid
8. What is bone swagging?
a. Pushing of bone into contact, with the root surface without fracturing the bone at its base.
b. Pushing of bone into contact, with the root surface with fracturing the bone at its base.
c. Removing of bone from the root surface during the periodontal surgery
d. It’s the technique used for Saucerization of bone
9. Treatment dosage of pemphigus vulgaris is:
a 1-2 g/kg prednisone daily b. 1 mg/kg prednisone daily
c. 10 mg hydrocortisone d. 50- 100 mg hydrocortisone
Ans: 1.c, 2.a, 3.a, 4.c, 5.a, 6.a, 7.d, 8.a, 9.b
Paper 2
10. Which of the following are used in HBV disinfection?

1. lodophores, hypochlorite 2. 100% ethyl alcohol
3. Formaldehyde + gas 4. Dettol
a. 1+2+3 b. 1+2
c. 2+3 d. 2+3+4
11. The least effective method to kill the HIV is through:
a. IMaOCI b. Autoclave
c. Chemoclave d. Ultraviolet chamber
12. Secondary amyloidosis is seen in:
a. Osteoarthritis b. TB hip joint
c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. All
13. An 8 years old child, suffered a trauma at the TMJ region as infant. Complaining now from
limitation in movement of the mandible. Diagnosis is:
a. Sut? luxation _ b. Ankylosis
c. Trismus d. Muscular contraction
14. When all the teeth are missing EXCEPT the 2 canines, according to Kennedy classification:
a. Class I modification 2 b. Class I modification 1
c. Class II d. Class III
15. The breakdown product o f ribonucléase action is:
a. Nucleoside 5 phosphates only
b. Nucleoside 3 phosphates only
c. Nucleoside 3 phosphate + oligonucleotides
d. Purine and pyrimidine bases
16. The ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is minimum false
negative result is:
a. Predictivity b. Negativity
c. Sensitivity d. Specificity
17. Very important part in endo treatment:
a. Complete debridement of the canal b. Obturation of canal
c. Access opening d. Pulp extripitation
18. The unheated catalyst used in Mclntosh-Fildes jar is:
a. Pallidinised asbestos b. Pallidinised alumina
c. None of these d. Both of these
19. Highly esthetic porcelain is:
a. Dicor b. In ceram
c. Impress d. Zirconium
20. Silane coupling agent:
a. Used with porcelain to enhance wettability of bonding
b. Used with tooth and porcelain
c. Used to increase the strength of porcelain
d. All the above
Ans: 10.a, 11 .d, 12.c, 13.b, 14.b, 15.c, 16.c, 17.a, 18.b, 19.b, 20.a
21. Silicate cement:

1. First tooth colored restoration 2. It can be used as permanent filling
3. It contains 15 % fluoride
a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 d. 1 only.
22. Which of the following tests is for Sjogren syndrome?
a. Schirmer test b. Frei test
c. Schick test d. Schiller test
23. The common disease affecting the submandibular salivary gland is:
a Sialolithiasis b. pleomorphic adenomas
c. Viral sialoadenitis d. Infected sialoadenitis
24. Best treatment for a conscious patient with partial airway obstruction who is breathing ad
equately and is capable of forceful coughing:
a. The patient should be kept in supine position
b. Use finger sweep
c. Perform heimleich maneuver
d. The patient should be left alone
25. Thermo mechical technique of RC obturation is:
a. Thermafil b. Obtura
c. Ultrafil d. McSpadden
26. Temporary paralysis of soft palate may be a feature of:
a. Herpangina b. Diphtheria
c. Scarlet fever d. Rubella
27. Caries detection dye composed main of:
a. Acid fuschin b. Basic fuchsin
c. Propylene glycol d. b + c
28. The longest acting, most potent and most toxic LA is:
a Lidocaine b. Dibucaine
29. Test used to detect HIV is:
a Elisa b. Western blot Assay
c. Indirect Immunofluoresence Assay d. None of the above
30. Following can be caused by nitrous oxide sedation except:
a. Diffusion hypoxia
b. Spontaneous abortion on long-term use.
c. Bone marrow depression after prolonged use
d. Increases cardiac output & produce cardiac arythmias
Ans: 21 .a, 22.a, 23.a, 24.d, 25.d, 26.b, 27.d, 28.b, 29.a, 30.d
Paper 2
31. An abnormal response to heat thermal pulp test indigates:

a. Pulpal and periapical disorder b. Vital pulp
c. Non vital pulp d. None of the above
32. The Inferior alveolar nerve Is branch of:
a. Mandibular nerve b. Posterior mandibular alveolar nerve
c. Anterior mandibular alveolar nerve d. Maxillary nerve
33. A female needs to do endodontic for central Inslcal, and has media composite restorations in
the mesial and distal walls, and has attrition in the insicial, edge. The best restoration is?
a. Jacket crown b. Full crown
c. Metal crown d. Composite
34. The most common fissure abnormality is:
a. Cleft palate b. Cleft lip
c. Cleft lip and palate d. None of the above
35. Amalgam restoration and there is also gold restoration in the mouth. What should dentist do?
a. Change rest b. Apply separating medium
c. Wait d. Apply varnish
36. Balance occlusion in complete denture help in:
a. Retention b. Esthetic
c. Stability d. Phonetics
37. Dentin contains which type of collagen fibers?
a. Type I b. Type II
c. Type III d. Type IV
38. One of the following is non caloric sweetener:
a. Palatinit b. Sorbitol
c. Matitol d. Sucralose
39. Ungula is the site of attachment of:
a. Stylomandibular ligament b. Sphenomandibular ligament
c. Temporomandibular ligament d. None of the above
40. The major excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS is:
a. G A B A b. Glutamate
c. Aspartate d. 5- HT
41. Bennet angle is the angle formed during lateral movement; by the path of the advancing
condyle and the:
a. Horizontal plane b. Lateral plane
c. Anterior plane d. Sagittal plane
Ans: 31 .a, 32.a, 33.b, 34.c, 35.c, 36.c, 37.a, 38.d, 39.b, 40.b, 41 .d
Section til: Mock Test Papers
42. For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be:

a. 1.5 mm b. 2 mm
c. 1 mm d. 3 mm
43. It is the preferable length of the handle of the custom tray:
a 10 mm b. 15 mm
c. 20 mm d. 25 mm
44. Which is true about opening of jaw?
a. Lateral pterygoid muscle contracts b. Movement in vertical axis
c. Articular disc moves backwards d. Head of the mandible moves forwards
45. Which wax is used for inlay casting?
a. Paraffin b. Carnauba
a. Under light b. After drying tooth
c. Isolation with rubber dam d. None of the above
47. The following structures open into the middelmeatus:
1. Nasolacrimal duct 2. Posteror ethmoidal sinus
3. Maxillary sinus 4. Sphenoid sinus
5. Aanterior ethmoidal sinus
a. 1,2 & 4 2. 1 & 2

c. 3 & 5 4. All of the above
48. The body secret antibody against antigen using which cells?
a. T lymphocyte b. B lymphocyte
c. Macrophages d. monocytes
49. Child has bruxism to be treated with sedative:
a. Cusp capping b. Vinyl plastic bite guard
c. Metal crown d. Ceramic FPD
50. Location to give inferior alveolar nerve block the landmarks are:
a. Ptergomandibular raphae b. Inner and external oblique ridge
c. Cronoid notch d. All of the above
51. A frequency polygon showing the trend of an event occurring over a period of time rising,
falling or showing fluctuations is:
a. Line graph b. Frequency curve
c. Ogive d. Scatter diagram
Ans: 42.a, 43.b, 44.a, 45.a, 46.d, 47.iii, 48.b, 49,b, 50.d, 51.a
Paper 2
52. Thickness of metal frame in PFM crown should be:

a. 0 .3 -0 .5 mm b. 0.05 - 0.15 mm
c. 0.5 - 1.5 mm d. 2-2.5 mm
53. Which of the following will occur as first symptoms in hypovolumic shock?
a. Vomiting b. Nausea
c. Mental confusion d. Pain
54. Among following least anaphylaxis is seen with:
a. Streptokinase b. Urokinase
c. Anisolated streptokinase d. tPA
55. Ackerman tumor is:
a. Malignant b. Benign
c. Premalignant d. None of the above
56. HSV1 infection is more dangerous in children than adult because: ----- -
a. Marrow spaces are wide b. Affect growth centre
c. Hypo calcification in enamel d. All the above
57. After taking alginate impression:
a. Pour the cast immediatly
b. Wash with water and spray with sodium hydrochloride for 10 sec.
c. Same but wait 5-10 min and then put in sealedplastic bag
d. None all the above
58. ‘Suck back' porosity is due to:
a. Attached impurities on undersurface of casting
b. Hot spot
c. No rapid cooling
d. Inadequate melting temperature
59. The density or the overall darkening of a radiograph depends on all except:
a. Thickness of the object b. Quality and quantity of x-rays
c. Cone angulation d. Velocity of electrons emitted from the cathode
60. Complications of PSA nerve block:
a. Hematoma b. Trimus
c. Post operative pain d. All the above
61. An overload of the mucosa will occur if the:
a. Teeth used for replacement are non anatomic.
b. Bases covering the area are too small in outline.
c. Bases covering the area are too large in outline.
d. Bases covering the area are overextended distaliy.
Ans: 52.a, 53.c, 54.d, 55.a, 56.a, 57.c, 58.b, 59.c, 60.a, 61.b
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o u n trie s L ice n sin g E x a m in a tio n s
62. After extraction of lower 8, which suture forceps is used for suturing?
a. Hemostate curved forceps b. Russian forceps
c. Kiliner’s forceps d. Addsons's forceps
63. Sensory nerve supply of pulp consists of A delta fiber and C fiber. Which of them is faster
conducting myelinated and slower conducting unmyelinated?
1. A delta is faster 2. C Fiber is faster
3. A delta is slower 4. C Fiber is slower
a. 1 + 2 b. 2 + 3
c. 1 + 4 d. 2 + 4
64. A 30 years old patient came to the clinic with brownish discoloration of all his teeth. In the
clinical examination you found its all intrinsic discoloration and tooth looks yellowish in UN
light. What will be the most likely cause for this?
a. Flourosis b. Tetracycline discoloration
c. Amelogensis imperfect d. Dentogensis imperfecta
65. A patient has dull pain and discomfort in right preauricular area on opening the mouth. On
opening the mouth, mandible deviates to the right with limited lateral movements and no
crepitus or popping sound is heard. Reason could be:
a. Osteoarthiritis b. MPDS
c. Articular derangementwith reduction d. Articular derangement without reduction
66. Autogenous rib graft for ridge augmentation is usually harvested from:
a. First rib b. Second and fourth rib
c. Sixth and ninth rib d. Eleventh and twelth rib
67. To a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely
distributed and minimized by the following methods:
a. Proper location of the occlusal rests b. Selection of lingual bar major connector
c. Developing balanced occlusion d. All of the above
68. Scrap amalgam keeps under:
a. Radiographic fixer solution b. Developer
c. Water d. Dark room
69. The best pulpal protection under composite restorations would be:
a. Calcium hydroxide paste. b. Polycarboxylate cement,
c. ZO E cement. d. Cavity varnish and zinc phosphate cement.
70. Ghost teeth appears in:
a. Dentigerous imperfect b. Regional odontodysplasia
c. Amelogenisis imperfect d. Paget’s disease
Ans: 62.C, 63.C, 64.b, 65.d, 66.c, 67.a, 68.a, 69.a, 70.b
1. In weeping canal we use:
a. Gutta percha b. CaOH
c. Formocresol d. ZnO Eug
2. A 6 years old child comes to your clinic with grossly decayed 74 and 84. You have extracted
74 and 84, and the first permanent molar was erupted. Which is the best space maintainer in
this case? _ ,
c. Bilateral distal shoe d. No need tor space maintainer
3. According to the Kennedy’s classification, unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth re
maining both anterior and posterior to it is:
a. Class one b. Class two
4. Mechanisam of action of antiseptic soap is:
a. Acts on cell membrane b. Acts on nucleas
c. Acts on DNA d. All the above
5. Hardness of the materials is influenced by all of the following, except:
a. Strength b. Proportional limit
c. Ductility d. None of the above
6. Palatal canal of upper first molar is curved in which following directions?
a. Buccally b. Palatally
c. Distally d. Mesially
7. McArdle’s disease is due to the deficiency of:
a. Glucose 1 phosphate b. Glucose 1, 6 diphosphate
c. Glucose 6 phosphate d. Myophosphorylases
8. Maxillary nerve comes through:
9. Labial reduction for anterior tooth PFM crown restoration must be:
a. One plane b. Two plane by follow the morphology
c. 0.8 mm in all surfaces d. Parallel to axial wall of the teeth
10. Which of the following is treatment of pericoronitis?
a. Mouthwash and irrigation b. Extraction of the opposing tooth
c. Surgical removal of the causative tooth d. All the above
Ans: 1.b, 2b, 3„c, 4.a, 5.d, 6.a,7,d, 8.a, 9.b, 10.d
11. The majority of intraoral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:

a. Poorly differentiated b. Well moderately differentiated
c. Spindle celi in type d. Carcinoma in situ
12. Local contraindication of extraction
a. Patient recently recived radiotheraby b. Tooth in the malignant tumor
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
13. Why the moisture heat sterilization is better than dry heat sterilization?
a. Can be used with heat sensitive instruments
b. Makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
c. Needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane
d. Needs less time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane.
14. Salivary gland tumors usually occur in:
a. First two decades of life. b. Third or forth decade of life.
c.-Forth or fifth decade of life. - — d. Sixth or seventh decade of.Iife.. *
15. A patient is having a nodule like lesion on palate who is wearing complete denture. Complete
denture needs to be replaced as it is not fitting well. What do you do?
a. Remove the nodular like lesion surgically
b. Use the old denture and put soft tissue liner to complete denture
c. Rebasing the complete denture
16. How to confirm, two canals in a same root
a. 2 files in canal and radiograph b. Location of tooth and root
c. Clinical examination d. Puip test
17. Disadvantage of digital x-ray EXCEPT:
a. Large disk space storage b. Clarity and resolution,
c. Expensive d. Minimum x-ray exposure
18. After etching of enamel, and bond it with 5th generation to the strength of:
a. 5-1 OMp b. 25 Mp
c. 30 Mp d. 100 Mp
19. Types of dentine are all, EXCEPT:
a Primary dentine b. Peritubular dentine
c. Intertubular dentine d. Sclerotic dentin
20. A patient comes with caries tooth which has sinus opening. When you make GP tracing and
take radiograph, the GP appears in lateral surface of the root. What is the diagnosis?
a. Periodontal abscess b. Periodontitis
c. Lateral acessory canal d. Vertical fracture
21. Pain of short duration is:
a Hyperemia b. Apical periodontitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis d. Dentinal sensitivity
Ans: 11.b, 12.c, 13.d, 14.d, 15.a, 16.a, 17.b, 18.b, 19.e, 20.c, 21.a
Paper 3
22. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:

a. 2% copper b. 4% copper
c. 10 % copper d. 13% copper
23. Acute periapical abcess is associated with:
a. Swelling b. Widening of PDL
24. Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:

a. Proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b. Associated pathology
c. All of the above
25. At which temperature gutta percha reaches the alpha temp?
a. 42-48°C b. 50-60°C - — -
c. 70-80°C d. 100°C
26. A patient had a class II amalgam restoration. Next day he returns complaining of discomfort
at the site of the restoration. Radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present. This is
due to:
c. Insufficient d. Carving
27. Studies show that complete remineralization of surface of an accidentally etched enamel:
a. Never occur b. After hours
c. After weeks d. After months
28. Most important sealer criteria to be a success:
a. High viscosity b. High retention
c. High strength d. High resilience
e. c + d
29. A patient came to you after trauma to 4 incisor teeth and they do not respond to electric pulp
testing. IOPA x-ray of these tooth appears normal. What do you do?
a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. Extraction
d. Do not do anything and put the patient on recall appointment
30. Fever blisters is the other name of:
a. Canker sores b. Cold sores
c. Aphthous ulcers d. Kaposi's sarcoma
Ans: 22.d, 23.a, 24.c, 25.a, 26.a, 27.b, 28.e, 29.d, 30.b
31. Geographic tongue is seen in patient with:

a Diabetes b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Pemphigus d. Posoriasis
32. For resin composite restoration in a second maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be used is:
33. Which drug is not acetylated?
a. IIMH b. Dapsone
c. Hydralazine d. Metoclopromide
34. Crown and root perforation:
a. Respond to MTA b. Use matrix with hydroxiapatite and sea! with Gl
c. Root canal filling d. 1+2
35. Sterilization means killing:
a Bacteria and virus b. Bacteria, virus, fungus and protozoa
c. Bacteria and fungus d. Only virus
36. Follow up of RCT after 3 years, RC failed best treatment is to:
a. Extraction of the tooth b. Redo the RCT
c. Apicectomy d. All the above
37. False negative response of an electric pulp test is given:
a. After trauma b. Periodontal disease
c. In teenager d. In child
38. The splint period require for avulsed teeth:
a 6 weeks b. 8 weeks
c. 1-2 months d. None of the above
39. Small access opening in upper central incisor in necrotic pulp leads to:
a. Complete removal of the pulp tissue b. Incomplete removal of the pulp
c. Better conservation d. None of the above
40. What are the significant complications of untreated odontogenic infection?
a. Tooth loss
b. Spread to the cavernous sinus and brain
c. Spread to the neck with large vein complications
d. Spread to potential fascial spaces with compromise of the airway
e. Septic shock
Ans: 3 1.d, 32.b, 33.d, 34.a, 35.b, 36.b, 37.a, 38.d, 39.b, 40.d
D e n to -G u lf - F o r G u lf C o un tries L ice n sin g E xa m in a tio n s
Paper 3
41. In fixed prosthodontic treatment planning, complex decisions as to the best tooth prepara
tion-path of withdrawal combination, can be greatly simplified by:
a Full mouth radiographs
b. Diagnostic cast tooth preparation and waxing
c. Articulating the casts in a fully adjustable articulator
d. Accurately registering centric relation
42. Antibiotic prophylaxis for children allergic to penicillin:
a. Ampicillin 50 mg. kg IV or IM within 30 minutes of dental procedure.
b. Erythromycin 20 mg / kg 1 hr prior.
c. Clindamycin 20 mg/ kg (max 600 mg) orally 1 hr before.
d. Cefepime 25 mg / kg 1 hour before.
43. Clamp of rubber dam must touch tooth:
a. Adapted well to all tooth surface b. Touch 4 points engaging mesial + distal
c. fouch*4 points’In Buccal + lingual d. C3n occlusal ~ ~ J ~ ~
44. Following test is useful to differentiate pathogenic Cryptococci from non pathogenic ones:
a. Morphology on culture b. India ink preparation
c. Ability to hydrolyse urea d. Cannot be differentiated.
45. Reparative dentine:
a. Same like secondary dentine. b. Happen as site of irritation,
c. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability, d. Highly tubular dentine
46. Which of the following teeth would be missing in a Kennedy Class II modification dental arch
(thirdmolars are missing)?
a. Left first and second molars and right lateral incisor and first molar
b. All molars and both central incisors
c. Both second molars and left first pre-molar
d. Left first molar and right first and second molars
47. Most common site for oral granular cell tumors is:
a. Palate b. Tongue
c. Gingiva d. Lips
48. Dental fluorosis:
a Is indicative of systemic fluorosis b. Can be contracted at any age
c. Becomes less noticeable with age d. Is reversible
e. Is largely preventable
49. Conditioning material of resected root:
a. Citric acid b. Phosphoric acid
c. H P , d. EDTA
Ans: 41 .b, 42.c, 43.c, 44.c, 45.b, 46.d, 47.b, 48.a, 49.a
S e c tio n III: M o c k T e s t P a p e rs
50. Programmed cell death is also called as:

a. Apoptosis b. Necrosis
c. Degeneration d. Calcification
51. The reason for immunodeficiency may be:
a. Congenital b. Acquired
c. Both d. None
52. Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from:
a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue
c. Bone tissue d. Glandular tissue
53. Localized aggressive periodontitis is associated with:
a. A. Actinomycetem comitans b. P. gingivalis
c. Defective neutrophil function d. a and c
54. Which of the following statements best describes pulpal A-delta fibers when comparecLto.C
fibers?
a. Larger unmyelinated nerve fibers with slower conduction velocities.
b. Larger myelinated nerve fibers with faster conduction velocities.
c. Smaller myelinated nerve fibers with slower conduction velocities.
d. Smaller unmyelinated nerve fibers with faster conduction velocities.
55. The x-ray shows scattered radiopaque lines in the mandible jaw. The diagnosis will be?
56. Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through:
c. Superior orbital fissure d. Inferior orbital fissure
e. Jugular foramen
57. Ecchymosis of orbit is the sign of which of the following fractures?
c. TMJ fracture d. Zygomatic fracture
58. The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray:
c. Myxoma d. All the above
59. The patients with class II division I malocclusion have:
a. Hypertonic lower lip b. Hypotonic lower lip
c. Hypertonic upper lip d. Hypotonic upper lip
60. Bone healing is done after extraction
a By fibrous tissue b. By growth factor accumulation
c. By osteogenesis d. Epithelial proliferation
Ans: 50.a, 51.c, 52.a, 53.d, 54.b, 55. a, 56.b, 57.d, 58.d, 59.d, 60.b
Dento-Gulf ~ For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations
Paper 3
61. Internal resorption— which is true?

a. In x-rays in looks moth eaten appearance b. RCT will control it
c. Initiated with infection d. All the above
62. What would be the reason for rapid regeneration in newly erupted teeth after trauma with
open apex?
a. High Hb level in pulp compare toadult b. More dentine thickness
c. During trauma nerve not damage d. All the above
63. Following is not an adverse effect of Ibuprofen?
a. Hematemesis. b. Renal impairment
c. Agranulocytosis. d. Gastrointestinal disturbances
64. FPD bridge returns to the dentist from the lab with different degree of color although the
shade is the same. The probable cause is:
a. Thin metal framework __ b. Different thickness of porcelain
c. Thick opaquer d. Inadequate firing of porcelain
65. What is the advantage of wrought wire in RPD over cast wire?
a. Less irritation to the abutment b. More esthetic
c. Easy to manipulate d. Less expensive
66. Young with open apex examination test:
a. Reliable b. Non reliable
c. None of the above d. All the above
67. Which is the most likely cause of periodontal cyst?
a. Cell rest of Malassez b. Cell rest of serruss
c. Cell of Hertwig sheet d. None of the above
68. A patient with unilateral swelling and slowly progressing lesion on the left side of the man
dible. This could be:
a. Osteoma b. Cementoblastoma
c. Ossifying fibroma d. Osteo-sarcoma
69. Lambdoid suture is between:
a. Occipital and temporal bone b. Frontal and parietal bone
70. A pedo patient with extremely negative behavior to restrain the extremity:
a. Use mouth prope b. Belt
c. Board d. None of the above
Ans: 61 .b, 62.a, 63.b, 64.b, 65.a, 66,b, 67.a, 68.c, 69.c, 70.c
Dento-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations -m
M OCK TEST PAPER - 4
1. Zinc polycarboxylate cement was a truly innovative development in dentistry because it was
the first material to:
a. Mechanically bond to tooth structure.
b. Chemically bond to tooth structure.
c. Have a significantly greater compressive strength as compared to zinc phosphate cement.
d. Have-a much lower film thickness as compared to zinc phosphate cement^
2. Root planning treatment of periodontally involved root surface must be:
a. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
b. Remove necrotic cementum.
c. Change the root surface so it becomes biocompatible.
d. a and b are correct.
3. Which of the following is used for conditioning of resected root end?
a. Citric acid b. EDTA
c. Phosphoric acid d. H20 2
4. Instrument used to handle the needle is:
a Curved hemostat b. Adson forceps
c. Allies forceps d. Russian forceps
5. Presence of radio opacity at the apex of a tooth which has chronic pulpitis is?
c. Periapicalgranuloma d. Cementoma
6. What is the following feature of reparative dentin?
a. Secondary dentin
b. Formed as dentine bridge above the pulp
c. Highly tubular dentin and it is defective form of primary dentin
d. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability
7. Which of the fibers only present in cementum?
a. Oblique fibers b. Sharpey’s fibers
c. Transeptal fibers d. PDL fibers
8. A patient is taking warfarin. What test you would advise him before a surgical procedure?
a. PTT b. PT & INR
c. C B C d. R B S
Ans: 1 .b, 2.d, 3.b, 4.a, 5.a, 6.d, 7.c, 8.b

Paper 4
9. The primary guiding surface that determines the path of insertion for the partial denture is:
a. The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous areas
b. The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous areas
c. a + b
d. None
10. Which of the following lasers is used in endodontic treatment procedure?
a. C O z b. Nd (YAG)
c. Led d. Argon
11. Compomer has same fluoride as Gl:
a. True b. False
12. A female patient came to your clinic with dry lips and mouth and bilateral submandibular
edema and ocular dryness. Diagnosis is:
a. Polymorphecadenoma b. Sialadenitis
c. Sjogren’s syndrome —— - •- • d. Measles
13. A patient constructs for himself a complete denture. After a few days he came to you com
plaining from pain and white spots on the residual ridge and you did relief in that area and
have given him ointment. After a few days he came again complaining the same but in an
other area. The main cause is?
a. Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar ridge.
b. Rough tissue contacting surface of denture
c. Increase vertical dimension
d. Absence of balancing occlusion
14. Endocrine and exocrine gland is:
a. Pancreas b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid gland d. Salivary gland
e. Sweat gland
15. Which constitutes major energy reserves in muscles?
a. Creatine phosphate b. ATP
c. GTP d. None of the above
16. Hypersensitivity is due to:
a. Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules.
b. Obliterated dentinal tubule
c. Exposed root surface
d. Fracture enamel
17. Most frequent cause of loss of consciousness is:
a. Syncope b. C 0 2
c. Hyper oxygen d. Local anasthesia
18. An increase in shear stress in a blood vessel results in which of the following changes?
a. Decreased endothelin production b. Increased nitric oxide release
c. Increased rennin production d. Decreased prostacyclin production
Ans: 9.b, 10.b, 11 .b, 12.c, 13.a, 14.a, 15.a, 16.a, 17.a, 18.b
S e c t io n III: M o c k T e s t P a p e rs
19. 1 year old neonate, has a lesion on the centrum of the tongue, with the eruption of the 1st
tooth:
a. Riga-Fede disease b. Geographic tongue
c. Candidiasis d. Russels disease
20. NaOCI is used in RCT:
a. Oxidative effect b. Ordinary irrigant solution
c. Better used diluted d. Better result when used combined with alcohol
21. Which one of the following muscle relaxants has the maximum duration of action?
a. Atracurium b. Vecuronium
c. Rocuronium d. Doxacurium
22. A llo t these are ways to give L.A with less pain EXCEPT:
a. Give it slowly b. Stretch the muscle
c. Topical anesthesia d. The needle size over than 25 gauge
23. The treatment of choice for recurrent pericoronitis involving partially impacted mandibular
third molar is:
a. Operculectomy b. Antibiotic therapy
c. Removal of third molar d. Warm saline rinses
24. Infants must be weaned at age of:
a 10 to 12 months b. 12 to 14 months
25. Impacted supernumerary and permanent teeth with osteoma of jaws is a feature of:
a. Rubinstein taybi syndrome b. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
c. Gardner’s syndrome d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
26. Remanents of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath remain as:
a. Cell rest of serus b. Cell rest of malassez
c. Odontoblast d. Ameloblast
27. Acute abscess is:
a. Cavity lined by epithelium b. Cavity containing blood cells
c. Cavity containing pus cells d. Cavity containing fluid
28. Thyroglossal duct cysts:
a. Are only found in the posterior tongue.
b. Clinically present in the lateral neck tissue.
c. May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyroglossal duct.
d. Are sometimes called lympho-epithelial cysts.
Ans: 19.a, 20.c, 21 .d, 22.d, 23.c, 24.b, 25.c, 26.b, 27.c, 28.c
Paper 4
29. A patient with complete denture come to your clinic, complains of dry mouth. The proper
medicine is:
a. Antidiabetic medicine b. Cholinergic
c. Anticholinergic d. Salivary subsitutes
30. Soft palate falls abruptly facilitate recording post dam. Falls gradually make recording post
dam difficult:
a. Two statements are true b. Two false
c. First true, second false d. First false, second true
31. An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged patient who has worn maxillary com
plete dentures for many years against six mandibular anterior teeth would probably show:
a. Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve.
b. Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch.
c. Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch.
d. Insufficient inter occlusal distance. - —
32. What is a pier abutment?
a. Single tooth utilized to hold one pontic b. A tooth that support a removal partial denture
c. a and b d. All the above
33. Which intracanal medicament causes protein coagulation?
a. NaOCI b. Ca(OH)z
c. Formocresol d. All the above
34. After finish class V glass ionomer cement we do finishing with:
a. Pumis slurry b. Aluminum-oxide paste
c. Polishing bur d. All the above
35. Ellis classification of injured teeth, a class IV represents:
a. Non vital tooth b. Avulsed tooth
c. Fracture involving only the enamel d. Fracture of crown en mass
36. Rebasing of complete denture means:
a. Addition or change in the fitting surface
b. Increasing the vertical dimension
c. Change all the fitting surface
d. Rebasing is replacement of most or all of the denture base
37. Inter incisal angle in primary teeth is:
a 115 degree b. 123 degree
c. 130 degree d. 137 degree
Ans: 29.b, 30.b, 31 .b, 32.e, 33.c, 34.b, 35.a, 36.c, 37.b
S e c t io n III: M o ck T e s t P a p e rs
38, All relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except:

a. Tongue movement b. Type of saliva
c. Balanced occlusion d. Posterior palatal seal
39. Best finishing of composite is done by:
a Carbide bur b. Diamond bur
c. Mounted stone d. Best retained under matrix band
40. What is the diagnosis of tooth with chronic pulpitis and rad¡opacity at the apex of a tooth?
a. Condensing osteitis b. Cemental dysplasia,
c. Pulpolyp d. Perapica! granuloma.
41. The cell primary site of ATP production is:
a Mitochondria b. Lysosomes
c. Nucleus d. Nucleolus
e. Vacuoles . .
42. What is the first sign if there is fracture in the face in x-ray?
a. Fluid paranasal b. Suture
c. Overlap of bone d. All the above
43. The pleural pressure of the normal 56-year-old woman is approximately -5 cm HsO during
resting conditions immediately before inspiration (i.e. at functional residual capacity). What
is the pleural pressure during inspiration?
a. 1 cm H20 b. +4 cm H20
c. -3 cm HzO . d. -7 cm H20
44. Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by:
a. Eoslnphllla b. Hyperkalemia
c. Nitrogen retention d. Poor wound healing
45. A 60 years old patient need to make complete denture with narrow frenum with wide base.
The operation:
a. Vestibuloplasty b. z-plasty
c. Subperiostum incision d. Deep mucoperiosteum incision
46. A tooth very painful to percussion. What is the most probable diagnosis?
c. Acute apical periodontitis d. Chronic apical periodontitis
a. Under light
b. After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam
c. Under proper sun light
Ans: 38.a, 39.a, 4Q.a, 41 .a, 42.a, 43.d, 44.d, 45.b, 46.c, 47.c
Derrto-Gulf - For Gulf Countries Licensing Examinations
Paper 4
48. Post retention depends on:

1. Post length 2. Post diameter
3. Post texture 4. Core shape
5. Design of the preparation
a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. All of the above
49. Apart from its use in TB and leprosy rifampicin is a first line for the following infective dis
ease:
a. Toxoplasmosis b. Brucellosis
c. Donovanosis d. Leishmaniasis
50. If a zinc phosphate cement base is used when restoring a tooth. When should the varnish be
applied?
a. Prior to placement of the base ~ . . . .
b. After placement of the base.
c. Makes no difference when the varnish is applied.
d. Varnish should not be used in conjunction with zinc phosphate cement.
51. AH26 is used as:
a. The root canal sealer b. RC irrigant
c. Restorative material d. RC preparation
52. Effect of long term antibiotic treatment in a child patient will lead to:
a. Apthous ulcers b. Candidiasis
c. Leukoplakia d. Gingival hypertrophy
53. The best pontic material in contact with ridge tissue is:
a Glazed porcelain b. Polished nickel-chromium alloy
c. Highly polished resin d. Unglazed porcelain
54. The best method for core build up in posterior tooth is:
c. Compomer d. Glass ionomer
55. Which of the following a precursor of heme synthesis?
c. Histidine d. Glycine
56. Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of primary herpetic gingi
vostomatitis?
a. Acyclovir b. Ziduvidine
c. Kenalog in orabase d. All of the above
Ans: 48.c, 49.b, 50.a, 51 .a, 52.b, 53.a, 54.b, 55.d, 56.a
S e c t io n III: M o c k T e s t P a p e rs
57. Iftooth or root is pushed into maxillary sinus, during surgical extraction, which of the follow
ing surgery you will do to remove the root?
a. Willis technique b. Caldwel lue
c. Sinus floor lift d. All the above
58. The mandibular posterior tooth that has no contact with any maxillary teeth during the bal
ancing occlusion is:
a. First bicuspid b. Second bicuspid
c. First molar d. Second molar
59. Action of LA in nerve ending:
a. Stop transporting sodium from extra nervous layer to intra nervous
b. Stop sodium transport form intra nervous from extra nervous layer
c. Stop caiculm transport form Intra nervous from extra nervous layer
d. Stop potaslum transport form Intra nervous from extra nervous layer
60. Most common malignancy of jaw bone is:
a. Multiple myeloma b. Osteiod osteoma
c. Osteogenic sarcoma d. Osteochondroma
61. The carbon dioxide lasers used in dentistry have wavelength:
a. 1064nm b. 10,600 nm
c. 1064 A d. 10,600 A
62. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal will usually result in:
a. Unseating of the denture b. A tingling sensation
c. Greater retention d. Increased gagging
63. What is the blade width of cutting instruments with the following formula: 10-85-8-14?
a. 10 mm b. 1.0 mm
c. 0.85 mm d. 0.80 mm
64. Which of the following agent causes interstitial nephritis?
a. Amplclllln b. Amoxicillin
c. Methlclllln d. Cloxaclllin
65. Components of removable partial dentures are:
a. Major and minor connectors b. Direct and indirect retainers
c. Denture base d. All of the above
66. The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is:
a Anltshowcell b. Tzankcell
c. Ghost cell d. Prickle cell
Ans: 57.b, 58.a, 59.a, 60.c, 61 .b, 62.a, 63.a, 64.c, 65.d, 66.b
Paper 4
67. MOD amalgam restoration with deep proximal mesial box, patient comes with pain related to
it after one mouth due to:
a. Pulp involvement b. Supra occlusion
c. Open contact d. Gingival recession
68. LA mechanism of action is:
a Increase the threshold b. Decrease the threshold
c. Same threshold d. Increase threshold only in amide type
69. Which is true regarding oxytocin?
a. Increased by stress b. Secreted by paraventricular tissue
c. Effective in males d. Important for maintaining pregnancy
70. For autoclave sterilization, burrs can be protected by keeping them submerged in:
a. 2% sodium nitrite b. 5.26% sodium hypochlorite
c. 2% chlorhexidine d. 10.2% sodium nitrates
Ans: 67.b, 68.a, 69.b, 70.a

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46 Model Questions Chapters

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During preparation lor exam:

Section - 1: Registration Process in Gulf Countries

Section - II: Model Question P a p e rs.............................................................................................................................. 69

1. Registration Process in the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia

The curricullum covered for SCFHS exam is as follows:

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Dento-Gulf - F o r Gul‘ Countries Ucensrnc Exam inations

Specialty Recomm end book references for general dentistry

Orthodontics 1. An Introduction to Orthodontics, Laura Mitchell, 3rd ed, 2007,

Restorative Dentistry 1. Textbook of Operative Dentistry/L. Baum, Ralph W. Phillips, Melvin

Periodontics 1. Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, Michael G. Newman DDS,

Dental Materials 1. Philips Science of Dental Materials: Kenneth J, 11th ed.

Pedodontics 1. Pediatric Dentistry: Infancy Through Adolescence, Pinkham, J.R., 4th

O entc-G uV - F or G u lf C o un tries L ic e n s in g E xa m in a tio n s

Endodontics Enaoaontics. ingel, 6tn ea.

Oral Surgery 1. Peterson Principle of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Peterson

List of documents required for SCFHS registration

D e n tc -C u l‘ - <=o £>ul' Countries u c e n s in c E xam inations

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2. Registration Process in the United Arab Emirates

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