CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards - Quizlet PDF

2/16/2019 CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet
CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) 1,220 terms Jetpipe PLUS
Terms in this set (1220)

What is the "Maximum 12,670 LBS Thrust
Thrust Rating" for a
"Normal Takeoff"?
What is the "Maximum 13,790 Lbs Thrust

Thrust Rating" for a
takeoff using APR
thrust?
What type of engines General Electric CF34-8C1 (old)

are on the CRJ 700? General Electric CF34-8C5B1 (new)
The N1 Fan generates 80%

____% of the "Takeoff
Thrust".
The engines provide 6th and 10th Stages

what stages of bleed
air?
The engine driven The "Accessory Gearbox".

generators are driven
by what?
What is the power 40 KVA

output of the "engine
driven generators"?
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The "Accessory 1. Engine Driven Generators

Gearbox" drives what? 2. Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps.
3. Fuel Metering Unit (FMU).
4. FADEC Generator above 50% N2
5. The Air Turbine Starter actually drives the Accessory
Gearbox during engine start.
The CRJ 700 is capable M.81

of "Maintaining" what
speed?
What is the "Normal" M.77

cruising speed of the
CRJ 700?
What is the "Maximum 41,000 feet

Operating Altitude"?
What is the "Length 106' 8"

Overall" of the aircraft?
What is the "Wingspan" 76' 3"

of the aircraft?
What is the "Height of 24' 10"

the Tail" of the aircraft?
What is the "Wing Tip" 6 feet

clearance height of the
aircraft?
How tall are the 4 feet

winglets?
How much area is 14"

required in front of the
nose to clear the tail
during a 180 degree
turn?
The "Horizontal Full UP: +13 Degrees

Stabilizer" markings on Full Down: -2 Degrees
the tail indicate:
FULL UP: ? / FULL
DOWN:?
How many emergency Total of 5 emergency exits.

exits are there on the
aircraft and where are 1. Left Overwing exit (Row 13)
they? 2. Right Overwing exit (Row 13)
3. Main Cabin Door
4. Galley Service Door
5. Cockpit Escape Hatch
With the Radome 2 feet

"Closed", how far does
the "Radar Hazard
Area" extend in front
of the nose?
Which cargo Both Forward and Aft compartments.

compartments are
"Pressurized"?
Which cargo Only the AFT Compartment.

compartments are
"Ventilated"?
If you were to carry AFT Cargo compartment only!

"Live Animals" which
cargo compartment
would you put them
in?
Is the Forward cargo NO

compartment heated?
Is the AFT cargo YES

compartment heated?
What features does the Thermal insulation

cabin incorporate to Acoustical insulation
reduce cabin noise? Vibration isolators
How many water 2 water systems

systems are there and
what are their names? Galley Water System
Lavatory Water System
Where on the aircraft Galley Water System: Right / Forward Fuselage
are the service panels Lavatory Water System: Right / Aft Fuselage
for the water systems?
The Lavatory Water Warm water to the sink basin.
System provides for
what?
Where is the "Lavatory Beneath the cargo bay.

Water Tank" physically
located on the
aircraft?
Is it possible to shutoff YES ... Each system has a mechanically operated shutoff
the water supply to valve to control water flow.
each individual water
system? Galley Water Shutoff: In the coat closet within the
cockpit.
Aft Lavatory Shutoff: Behind the toilet paper dispenser.
Does each water Each system has a separate electric water pump to move
system have a separate water from the tank to the water manifold. The water
water pump or is there pump is only functional when there is "no bleed air" from
only one pump to the engine or APU available. With bleed air available it
pressurize the system? will pressurized the water systems.
The forward galley water system is pressurized at all

times (keeps a constant pressure).
The Aft Lavatory water system is only pressurized when

the faucet handle is depressed.
What maintains Normally bleed air with the engines running.

pressure within each
individual water Each electric water pump has a pressure switch to
system? maintain water system pressure when the engines are
shut down.
How is the "Pressure The water pump is activated when the faucet handle is
Switch" for the lavatory pushed down.
water pump system
activated?
Are the water storage YES ... Both tanks are heated to prevent freezing.
tanks heated for the
fresh water systems? The aft water tank is also heated to provide hot water to
the sink basin.
What components of 1. Drain Masts

the water systems are 2. Hose assemblies
heated? 3. Drain lines
What is meant if a The respective water systems water temperature has

"OVHT" light is exceeded 65 degrees C.
illuminated on the
Potable Water Control
Panel?
How long will the 10 seconds

toilet flush motor
operate when the
lever is depressed?
How is "waste water" It is not stored. It is drained overboard through heated

from the Galley and drain masts on the lower fuselage.
Lavatory water systems
stored?
What color is the Green

"Water Level
Indicators" if sufficient
water quantity is
onboard?
What color is the Amber

"Water Level
Indicators" if the water
quantity is low?
Are the two (2) water YES

system service panels
identical?
How many "Air Two

Conditioning Packs" Cabin Pack and Cockpit Pack
are there on the
aircraft and what are
their names?
Where are the "Packs" Aft Equipment Bay

physically located on
the aircraft?
The "Cockpit Pack" is Air Conditioning System Controller #1 (ACSC #1)

controlled by what?
The "Cabin Pack" is Air Conditioning System Controller #2 (ACSC #2)

controlled by what?
In the event that one It will automatically pick up the entire load and go to
(1) pack fails, what will "FULL FLOW".
the remaining pack
do?
What is the purpose of They control the "Packs" and conditioned air flow.
the "Air Conditioning
System Controllers"?
Each ACSC has two (2) Channel A and Channel B

channels called ______
and _______.
Are "both" Air No

Conditioning System Functional channel alternates on a daily basis. The
Controller channels opposite channel is in "STBY" mode.
operating at all times?
Channel "A": ODD Days
Channel "B": EVEN Days
Is there any cockpit NO

indication of the active
ACSC channel?
Air Conditioning "Pack Flow

Valves" are considered
to be ________ control
valves.
Air Conditioning Pack Electrically Controlled

Valves are _________ Pneumatically Operated
controlled, _________
operated.
What is the purpose of They Open / Close the associated Pack Valve.
the "Pack" switchlights
on the Air Conditioning
Panel?
Normally the ACSC 1. Pressure Altitude

regulates the amount 2. Difference in Ambient Temperature.
of air flow through the
packs dependent on
what factors?
At what times are the During Engine Starts

Air Conditioning Packs
"Fully Closed"? - Pack resumes operation at "Starter Cutout".
If one (1) Air Reduced Volume

Conditioning Pack fails,
the remaining pack will
supply conditioned air
to both the flight deck
and cabin but at a
_________.
If an Air Conditioning 1. The Pack Fault switchlight illuminates on the Air

"PACK FAULT" occurs, Conditioning Panel.
how will it be 2. A "L/R PACK INOP" status message is displayed.
indicated?
How many Cockpit: 1

"temperature sensors" Cabin: 2 (1 Forward and 1 Aft)
are there to control:
Cockpit Temperature: ?
Cabin Temperature: ?
When does the "PULL 1. When the aircraft is on the ground only.
UP / PULL DOWN" 2. "Actual cabin temperature" is more than 10 degrees
feature of the different from "Selected Temperature".
automatic temperature
control take effect?
What occurs with the 1. Packs go to "FULL FLOW".

"Packs" when the "PULL 2. Packs temperature operating limits increase.
UP / PULL DOWN"
feature of the
automatic temperature
control engages?
If the "automatic" By selecting either Left "MANUAL" switchlight or Right
temperature controller "Manual" switchlight on the Air Conditioning Control
fails, how can the Panel.
cabin and cockpit
temperatures be You must manually adjust pack output temperature using
regulated? the toggle switches.
When using the Allowing the pack output temperature to exceed limits
"Manual" mode to (85 degrees C).
regulate cabin or
cockpit temperature, We are no longer allowed to operate the packs in the
what must you try to manual mode "unless" the auto mode is inoperative!
avoid?
Do not leave the aircraft unattended when operating the
packs in the "manual" mode!
At what temperature 85 degrees C

will the Air
Conditioning Packs
overtemp?
If a pack "over temps", 1. The associated pack must be selected to "Off/Reset".

what must take place 2. Pack must cool.
for continued pack
operation?
Where is "RAM AIR" Through a scoop on the top of the fuselage near the tail.
obtained from?
What does "RAM AIR" Cools the Heat Exchanger.

air flow provide for?
Where does "RAM AIR" Through louvers on the left and right / aft sides of the
exhaust to after fuselage.
cooling the heat
exchanger?
During "ground A fan automatically operates within the ram air scoop
operations" what anytime the aircraft is on the ground and stationary.
augments the ram air
flow to the pack heat
exchangers?
What drives the fan Mechanically driven by the Air Cycle Machine.
within the RAM Air
scoop?
What is the purpose of It will recirculate 34% of the cabin air back to the air
the Air Conditioning conditioning system to increase heating and cooling
system "Mixing efficiency.
Manifold"?
Note: Recirc Fan must be selected "ON".
When should 1. Only at "Low Altitudes" (Below 15,000')

"Emergency RAM Air" 2. Only when "both" Air Conditioning System Controllers
be used? fail to function.
Does "RAM AIR" go No ... It is directly connected to the ducting.

through the Air
Conditioning Packs?
The Maximum altitude 25,000 feet

for bleed air extraction
from the APU is what?
What controls the Air Conditioning System Controllers

"automatic" bleed air
source selection?
How can the bleed By selecting "Manual" on the rotary dial on the Bleed Air
source be controlled Control Panel and then selecting the desired source.
"manually"?
What does the caution The APU has been manually selected as the bleed air
message "APU BLEED source and the aircraft is above 25,000 feet.
ON" message
indicate?
What sources are 1. Engines

available for bleed air 2. APU
during "GROUND 3. External Air Cart
OPERATIONS"?
When using "External The Main Cabin Door or Galley Service Door must
Air" to ventilate the remain open at all times to prevent the cabin from
cabin during ground pressurizing.
operations, what
precautions must be
observed?
What cargo bays are Forward and Aft
pressurized?
What cargo bays are Aft Cargo Bay only!

ventilated?
What cargo bays are Aft Cargo Bay only!

heated?
At what times is When smoke or fire is detected within the aft cargo bay.
ventilation of the AFT
cargo bay inhibited?
What must be "ON" to Recirc Fan

ventilate the aft cargo
bay?
In order for the heater The CARGO switch on the Air Conditioning Panel must
to work in the aft be selected to "AIR".
cargo compartment
which switch must be
selected?
If the conditioned air 1. The "INTAKE AND EXHAUST" valves in the aft cargo
switch for the aft cargo compartment will close.
compartment is 2. The heater is de-energized.
selected to the "OFF"
position, what
happens?
At what times will the During an Aft Cargo compartment fire.

"electric heater" in the
aft cargo compartment
de-energize?
If an EICAS message is Select the cargo switch to "AIR" position.

displayed indicating
that the aft cargo Selecting the "AIR" position resets all related EICAS
heater is "OFF", how messages!
can the message be
removed?
How many smoke 3 in the forward compartment
detectors are there in

the forward cargo
compartment?
How many smoke 2

detectors are there in
the AFT cargo
compartment?
What must occur for At least two (2) detectors must have detected smoke.
"SMOKE" to be
indicated on the
warning panel?
If Smoke or Fire is 1. Intake SOV closes

detected in the AFT 2. Exhaust SOV closes
Cargo compartment 3. Heater is de-energized.
what will automatically
happen?
Prior to reaching the 1. Bleed Air is pre-cooled through the Pre-Cooler.

Air Conditioning Packs 2. Water is separated from the bleed air.
the bleed air goes 3. Bleed air is mixed with cooler ambient air to control
through three (3) temperature.
phases. What are they?
When do the Cabin 3 minutes after every landing.

Pressure Controllers
(CPC's) alternate active
controllers?
What are the three (3) 1. Two (2) "AC powered" cooling Fans.
sources of cooling air 2. Recirc Fan
available to the EFIS 3. Cockpit air conditioning duct.
and EICAS displays?
What is the function of GND ALTN:

the four switch Switches to the alternate fan if the Primary fan was to fail
positions on the AC while on the ground.
powered cooling fans?
FLT ALTN:
Switches to the alternate fan if the Primary fan was to fail
while in-flight.
NORM:
Allows automatic selection of the appropriate fan.
STBY:
In the event that "BOTH" AC fans were to fail, selecting
"STBY" would allow cockpit conditioned air to cool the
CRT's.
What is the purpose of 1. Dumps avionics cooling air overboard while on the
the "Ground Valve"? ground for more efficient cooling.
a. Requires the MCD or Galley Service Door to be open.
2. Ensures aircraft is depressurized while on the ground.
If an "OVBD COOL" The "Ground Valve" has failed in the "OPEN" position with
message is displayed, the MCD or Galley Service Door "Closed".
what is indicated?
The "Cabin 8,000 foot

Pressurization System"
will maintain a ______ 41,000 feet
cabin altitude to ______
feet pressure altitude.
Where is the "Outflow On the Aft Pressure Bulkhead.

Valve" physically
located on the
aircraft?
Where does the Into the Aft Equipment Bay.

"Outflow Valve" dump
the cabin pressure?
How many Cabin Two (2)

Pressure Controllers
are there?
Do the Cabin Pressure Yes. Three (3) minutes after every landing.
Controllers alternate?
Is it possible to know YES. It is displayed on the ECS Synoptic page.

which "Cabin Pressure
Controller" is active at
any given time?
Is it possible to YES
manually switch the
active pressure By pressing the "PRESS CONT" switchlight twice.
controller? Pressing only once selects manual mode (if both
pressure controllers fail).
Pressing a second time switches the active controller.
What is the CPAM "Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module"

"Microprocessor" built
into the Cabin Pressure
Control Panel called?
What is the functions 1. Drops the passenger O2 masks above 14,000 feet
of the "Cabin Pressure 2. Controls Ground Valve "Opening and Closing".
Acquisition Module"? 3. Limits the cabin pressure to 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet.
At what altitude will 8,500 feet cabin altitude

you receive a "CABIN
ALTITUDE" caution
message?
At what altitude will 10,000 feet cabin altitude

you receive a "CABIN
ALTITUDE" warning
message?
At what altitude will 14,000 feet cabin altitude.

the passenger oxygen
masks "automatically"
drop?
A "DIFF PRESS" The differential pressure exceeds 8.6 psi.

warning message will
occur when?
Is the "Outflow Valve" Electrically

controlled electrically
or Pneumatically?
How many motors are Three (3)

there to drive the
"Outflow Valve"?
Each of the three Each Cabin Pressure Controller operates one (1).
motors on the Outflow
valve are controlled by The manual cabin pressure control controls the third
what? motor.
The third motor may also be operated by pressing the

"Manual Depress" switchlight.
Operating the cabin Both Cabin Pressure Controllers must have failed.
pressure system in the
"MANUAL" mode
requires what?
When operating the 1. Maintain a specific cabin altitude.

Cabin Pressure System 2. Control the rate of climb / descent.
in the manual mode
you are able to do
what?
What is the normal 8.4 PSI

cabin differential
pressure?
Cabin Pressure Above 8.6 PSI

"Overpressure Relief"
occurs at what PSI?
Cabin altitude "Under - .5 PSI

Pressure Relief" occurs
at what PSI?
The Outflow valve is Pneumatic pressure

"Spring Loaded
Closed". What is
required to "OPEN" it?
What is indicated if the 1. "DIFF PRESS" warning is displayed on EICAS.

cabin differential 2. A Triple Chime aural warning is heard.
pressure exceeds the 3. Differential pressure digital readout on EICAS Status
overpressure limits? page will turn RED.
4. PSI readout on ECS synoptic page will turn RED.
What indications will There are no cockpit indications of an negative pressure

appear if a cabin condition. The cabin simply indicates "un-pressurized".
altitude "negative
pressure" limit has
been exceeded?
At what time will the 1. On the ground with either the MCD or Galley Service
"Ground Valve" open? Door open.
2. Automatically following touchdown (weight on
wheels).
3. When the "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight is pressed.
How long does it take Normally 60 seconds.

the ground valve to
"OPEN"? Opens within 2 seconds if "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight is
pressed.
The CPAM limits cabin 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet.

altitude so that it
cannot exceed what
altitude?
What occurs during Cabin altitude is brought back up to field elevation at

the "Takeoff Abort 500 fpm for 20 seconds and then the outflow valve will
Mode" with the cabin fully "OPEN".
altitude?
What occurs with the The cabin altitude is pressurized to 150 feet below field
cabin pressurization elevation to dampen pressure spikes during takeoff.
system during the
"Pre-Pressurization
Mode?
What occurs with the Departure field elevation is remembered for 10 minutes
cabin pressurization following takeoff. If a return to field is accomplished the
system during the cabin altitude will already be set.
"Flight Abort" mode?
When is the "Descent When the aircraft reaches "cruising altitude".

Mode" of the
pressurization system
automatically armed?
At what rate will the 300 fpm.

cabin pressure It may increase the rate if it determines it is required
controller "normally" when calculating the remaining flight time.

descend the cabin
during approach and
landing?
When the "Manual The 3rd motor on the outflow valve.

Mode" is selected on
the cabin pressure
control system, which
motor are you actually
powering?
Pressing the "EMER 1. Powers the third motor on the outflow valve to "full
DEPRESS" switchlight open".
will do what? 2. Opens the ground valve within 2 seconds at "High
Speed".
NOTE:
Cabin altitude is limited to 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet by
CPAM.
What is the Make and Allied Signal RE220

Model of the APU?
What is the "Primary To provide AC power.

Function" of the APU?
What is the "Secondary To provide a backup Bleed Air Source.

Function" of the APU?
The APU can supply 1. Engine Start

Bleed Air for what 2. Pressurization
purposes? 3. Air Conditioning
Under "High Demands" Electrical Loads

what loads takes
precedence on the During times of High Demand the ECU will (in
APU? conjunction with the ACSC) command the Load Control
Valve (LCV) to close, therefore reducing the load on the
APU.

Altitude" to Start the
APU?

Operating Altitude" for
the APU?

Altitude" for engine
start using the APU as
the bleed air source?

Altitude" for bleed air
extraction from the
APU?
All faucets of APU The APU ECU.

operation is controlled
by what?
The APU ECU controls 1. Recording Start Cycles.

what functions of the 2. Recording Operating Hours.
APU? 3. Sets up appropriate Fuel / Temperature schedules.
Is the APU ECU "AC" or DC Powered

"DC" powered?
Where is the APU It is mounted in the "Tail Cone" of the aircraft.

physically installed on
the aircraft?
Where is the APU "Air Right side of Aft Fuselage, just behind the right engine.
Intake Duct" located
on the aircraft?
At what times is the 1. During APU Start (On Ground Only).

APU "Air Intake Duct" 2. All Ground Operations.
fully open? 3. When inhibited "OPEN" by maintenance personnel.
The APU "Air Intake 1. APU air / oil heat exchanger operation.
Duct" splits the air into - also used to cool APU compartment.
two separate flows to
provide for what? 2. APU compressor flow.
APU "Exhaust Air" is Eductor

expelled through the
APU ______.
Where does the APU It has a self contained oil supply.

obtain its oil supply?
The APU "Intake Door" Variable Position

is considered a _____
position door.
The amount that the The APU ECU

APU "Intake Door"
opens is controlled by
_______.
The amount that the 1. Mach speed

APU "Intake Door" 2. APU Speed
opens is dependant on 3. Weight On Wheels
what factors?
Can the APU "Air Yes, by maintenance personnel.

Intake Door" be
overridden "Fully
Open"?
If the APU "Door 220 knots or the APU must be running.

Position" is unknown,
what is the maximum
speed allowed?
Why does the APU To prevent the APU from wind milling within the APU
have to be "running" if "Critical Range" of 4% to 30 %.
the air intake door
position is unknown?
What is the APU's 4% to 30%

"Critical Operating
Range"? Below 4%: Insufficient heat is generated to cause
damage.
Above 30%: There is sufficient oil supply for lubrication

and cooling.
The APU "Intake Door Always

Position" is _______
displayed on the _______ Status
page of the EICAS.
If the APU "Air Intake The "DOOR OPEN / DOOR CLOSED" indication on the
Door Position" is Status page of the EICAS will turn to amber dashes.
unknown, how will it
be indicated?
APU EGT indications The EGT indication range will fluctuate with different
are displayed on the operating conditions.
Status Page of the
EICAS. Do these
indications stay
constant or are they
flexible?
How is the APU oil Through a Air / Oil heat exchanger. Part of the air
cooled? obtained through the Air Intake Door is utilized for
cooling the oil through the heat exchanger.
Is there any cockpit NO

indication showing that
metal grindings are There is a "Chip Detector" within the oil supply, however
within the APU oil there is no cockpit indication showing its status.
system?
An amber "APU FAULT" 1. APU oil Temperature is too low.

caution message is 2. APU oil Pressure is too low.
displayed for what
reasons?
Where does the APU The Left Collector tank.

draw its fuel from?
What is the purpose of To deliver fuel from the left collector tank to the APU
the APU Fuel Pump? High Pressure Fuel Pump and the Fuel Control Unit
(FCU).
If the APU Fuel Pump 1. An internal bypass will "OPEN" and bypass the failed
fails what will happen? pump.
2. The APU HP Fuel Pump will directly draw the fuel from
the Left Collector tank.
What is the purpose of It will shutoff the fuel supply to the APU in the event of a
the APU "Fuel Shutoff fire or during normal shutdown of the APU.
Valve"?
When does the APU Anytime that the APU "POWER/FUEL" switchlight is
Fuel SOV become pressed.
powered?
When will the APU When a APU FIRE is detected.

"Fuel Shutoff Valve"
close automatically?
How can the APU "Fuel 1. Pressing the "APU FIRE PUSH" switchlight.
Feed SOV" be 2. Pressing the APU "POWER/FUEL" switchlight.
manually closed?
Will the APU YES, unless the APU bleed air is being used for main
automatically engine start.
shutdown while in-
flight if the APU EGT is
high?
Will the APU Not if the APU is being used.

automatically
shutdown while in-
flight for an "APU
FAULT"?
Will the APU YES

automatically
shutdown while on the
ground for a "APU
FAULT" caution
message?
Will the APU YES

automatically
shutdown while on the
ground for an "EGT
FAULT" caution
message?
An "EGT FAULT" Thermocouple failure

caution message is an
indication of what?
The APU "Ground Auto 30 seconds after landing.

Shutdown Feature" is
enabled when?
How long does it take 30 seconds
the "Apu Intake Door"
to close after APU
auto shutdown
occurs?
What is the purpose of Allows for starting the APU when on "Battery Power
the APU's "Solenoid- Only"
Operated" fuel shutoff
valve?
During APU start, at 5% APU RPM

what percent does the
"Solenoid-Operated"
fuel shutoff valve
"OPEN"?
The APU "Solenoid- APU "START/STOP" switchlight.

Operated" Fuel shutoff
valve is powered
through what switch?
Where is the APU EGT From the APU exhaust.

temperature measured
from?
If the APU ECU senses Drives the Load Control Valve (LCV) towards closed to
that the APU is "Over reduce pneumatic loading. Electrical demands take
Temping" what does it precedence!
automatically do?
The APU "AIR INTAKE GROUND: "POWER/FUEL" switchlight

DOOR" is powered FLIGHT: "START/STOP" switchlight
"OPEN" through what
switches?
GROUND:? / FLIGHT:?
During APU shutdown, Below 25%

at what percent RPM
does the APU Air
Intake Door close?
If the APU "Air Intake YES
Door" is "INHIBITED Door status will indicate:

OPEN or CLOSED" by "DOOR INHIBIT OPEN"
maintenance "DOOR INHIBIT CLOSED"
personnel, is there any
cockpit indication?
What are the APU 3 start attempts in any 60 minute period with a 2 minute
starter "Duty Cycle wait between attempts.
Limits"?
At what times is the GROUND: Above 7% RPM

APU start "INHIBITED" FLIGHT: Above 12% RPM
by the ECU?
GROUND:? / FLIGHT:?
What is the "Minimum 22 Volts on both the Main and APU batteries.
Battery Voltage"
required for APU start?
If the APU "Flames The APU will try to "Auto-Relight" itself down to 12%
Out" what will RPM.
happen?
What is the maximum 12% RPM

APU wind milling RPM
allowed for engaging
the starter on the APU
while in-flight?
What is the maximum 7% RPM

APU wind milling RPM
allowed for engaging
the starter while on the
ground?
At what times will the 1. During an APU Fire.

APU "Auto Shutdown" 2. High EGT (unless the APU is being used for main
while in-flight? engine start).
What is the APU Start Press "PWR/FUEL" switchlight

Sequence of events - APU RPM & TGT gauges are displayed on EICAS
while on the - Activates the ECU
GROUND? - Opens the APU Air Intake door (on ground only)
- Starts a Pre-Bite test
- Opens fuel SOV
Press "START/STOP" switchlight

- Starter engages
- At 5% RPM: Fuel and Ignition is energized
- At 50% RPM:
1. Starter cuts out (46% to 60%)
2. "APU Start Message" disappears
- At 99% RPM: Ignition Stops
- At 99% + 2 seconds: "AVAILABLE" switchlight illuminates
indicating that the APU is ready for "electrical" loading.
How does the APU The APU Intake door "OPENS" as a function of the
"Start Sequence" differ "START/STOP" switchlight rather than the "PWR/FUEL"
when In-flight from switchlight. This allows the ECU to control the amount
that on the ground? that the APU Intake Door opens while in-flight.
From what "External 1. External Service Panel

Locations" can the 2. From within the APU compartment inside the tail.
APU be shutdown in
the event of an
emergency?
During APU 1. Power is removed from the ECU.

"Shutdown", what 2. Power is removed from the Apu Fuel Pump.
occurs after pressing 3. Power is removed from the Fuel Shutoff Valve (SOV).
the "PWR/FUEL" 4. RPM and EGT indications disappear after 30 seconds.
switchlight?
Pressing the APU 1. Activate the ECU.

"PWR/FUEL" 2. Powers the "APU Fuel Pump".
switchlight during APU 3. Opens the "APU FUEL SOV".
start will: 4. Opens the Air Intake door (within 10 seconds).
a. On Ground Only!
5. Starts a Pre-Start BITE test.
a. Displays status message for 5 seconds.
6. Displays the APU RPM/TGT indications on EICAS
Status Page.
Pressing the "APU Start Sends a false over speed signal (106%) to shut down the
Switchlight" a 2nd time APU.
will:
Bleed air is available On Ground: 99% + 60 seconds

from the APU when:
On Ground? / In In Flight: 99% + 2 seconds
Flight?
NOTE:
The packs will take up to 1 minute to come on following
APU start due to this time constraint.
What will automatically 1. APU Fire Bell Sounds

happen if a fire is 2. APU Fire Warning is displayed on EICAS
detected in the APU 3. APU Shuts down
while "ON THE 4. After 5 seconds the APU Fire bottle will discharge
GROUND"? a. The APU fire bottle discharge may be inhibited if you
push the "APU FIRE" switchlight within the 5 seconds.
What will automatically 1. APU Fire Bell Sounds

happen if a fire is 2. APU Fire warning is displayed on EICAS
detected in the APU 3. APU automatically shuts down
while "IN FLIGHT"? 4. "APU FIRE PUSH" switchlight illuminates
5. "APU BOTTLE ARM TO DISC" switchlight illuminates
once the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight is selected.
NOTE:
The APU fire bottle does not automatically discharge
while in-flight!
How long after starting GROUND: 1 minute (99% + 60 seconds)

the APU is required
before a RTL (ready to FLIGHT: 99% + 2 seconds
load) signal is sent to
the ACSC indicating
that bleed air is
available?
How can the pilot Select "Manual" position on the Bleed Air Control Panel.
"manually" open the
Load Control valve on
the APU?
What is required to Pneumatic bleed air pressure.

"OPEN" the Load
Control Valve?
Following APU start, 99% RPM + 2 seconds

when is bleed air
available to the ACSC
while "In-flight"?
When will Bleed Air 1. Weight Off Wheels

"Auto Switching" back 2. Thrust levers are retarded out of Takeoff position.
to the engines occur 3. Gear is up
following takeoff? 4. Flaps less than 20 degrees.
When will bleed air 1. APU Running

"Auto Switching" occur 2. Gear is down
back to the APU on 3. "or" Flaps are greater than 20 degrees
landing?
The APU generator is 40 KVA to 41,000 feet

rated at what power
and altitude?
What is the purpose of It dampens electrical surges from the APU when the
the "Surge Control APU is "Unloaded".
Valve" and at what
altitude does it It will automatically come "ON" above 17,000 feet when
automatically the APU is supplying electrical power.
function?
Pressing the "APU Fire" 1. Shuts down the APU.

switchlight will: 2. Trips the APU generator off line.
3. Closes the APU Load Control Valve (LCV).
4. Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve.
5. Arms the APU Bottle to discharge into the APU.
The APU fire bottle will The aircraft is on the ground and a fire has been
only discharge detected.
"automatically" when:
NOTE:
Apu fire bottle will discharge 5 seconds after APU
shutdown. It takes 5 seconds to close the Intake door.
What is the purpose of It integrates the "Autopilot" and "Flight Director"

the AFCS system? together.
Where does the AFCS 1. Flight Directors

system supply 2. Autopilot

information to? 3. Autopilot Pitch Trim
4. Yaw Dampers
What does the term Integrated Avionics Processing System

"IAPS" stand for?
What is the function of It provides the interface between various avionics

the "IAPS" system? systems.
What is the "Main Flight Control Computer #1 and Flight Control Computer
Processors" for the #2
IAPS system? (FCC1 and FCC2)
The "Flight Control 1. Flight Control Panel (FCP)

Computers" receive 2. Data Concentrator Units (DCU's)
information from what 3. Radio Systems
sources? 4. Flight Management Computers (FMC's)
Are both Flight Usually not - One is active and the other is in "Standby
Directors always Mode". When in the following modes they work
active? together:
1. Takeoff Mode
2. Approach Mode
3. Go-Around Mode
What appears if the A red boxed "FD" appears on the PFD. An appropriate
"Active Flight Director" white status message "FD 1 FAIL" or "FD 2 FAIL" will also
fails? appear on EICAS.
What would be the Select the transfer button on the FCP to select the
appropriate action to opposite flight director.
take if FD #1 displays
failed?
At what times do In the following modes:

"Both" Flight Directors
become active and 1. Takeoff Mode
supply guidance? 2. Approach Mode
3. Go Around Mode
When the Flight Flight Control Computer #1

Directors are
operating
"Independently" What
supplies guidance to
the "Captain's" Flight
Director?
The "left side" of the ACTIVE

FMA is considered the
______ field.
The "right side" of the ARMED

FMA is considered the
______ field.
The "top line" of the Lateral Mode

FMA indicates what
mode?
The "bottom line" of Vertical Mode

the FMA indicates
what mode?
What is the meaning of Data is invalid

a "red horizontal line"
running through the
active mode of the
FMA?
The "active field text" 5 seconds

will flash green for _____
seconds while
capturing.
The "Flight Control 1. Flight Director / Course Selector

Panel" on the 2. Autopilot
glareshield is divided 3. Vertical Modes
into four (4) modes. 4. Lateral Modes
What are they?
What do the "green" That the respective Flight Control Computer has
status lights on each acknowledged the request.
side of the
pushbuttons of the
Flight Control Panel

mean?
Is it possible to turn NO
"OFF" the Flight
Director with the
autopilot engaged?
Selecting the Flight Active Side:

Director pushbutton It will remove the Flight Director command bars on
on the Flight Control "BOTH" sides.
Panel will cause what
to happen? Standby Side:
Active Side:? / Standby It will remove the Flight Director command bars from
Side:? that side only!
Pressing the "center" of Sets 0 degrees deviation to the tuned station.

the Course Select
Knob on the Flight
Control Panel will do
what?
What is the purpose of Allows the pilot to select the active Flight Director.
the "Flight Director
Transfer Switch"?
What indication is on A white arrow.

the PFD to tell the pilot
which Flight Director is
selected as active?
What do the green It indicates which "Flight Control Computer" is providing

status lights on each information to the Autopilot.
side of the "XFER"
switchlight on the If no "green" lights are visible then the captain's side is
Flight Control Panel active.
indicate?
If there is a "green" light on each side of the pushbutton
then the First Officers flight director is active.
When will the Flight Only when the autopilot is disengaged.

Director "SYNC" switch
operate?
How long will the 3 seconds or as long as the button is held down.
"SYNC" message
appear on the PFD
when the Flight
Director SYNC switch
is pressed?
Selecting the TOGA 1. Updates the FMS with the current runway coordinates.
switch on the thrust 2. Activates the "Takeoff" lateral and vertical modes.
levers will do what 3. Lateral mode goes to "Heading Hold" with a 5 degree
while on the ground? bank authority.
4. Selects a variable Pitch up mode.
5. Displays "TO" in the "Active" field of the FMA.
What is the default ROLL

"lateral mode" when
selecting the autopilot
"ON"?
What is the default PITCH

"vertical mode" when
selecting the autopilot
"ON"?
What will happen to If the aircraft's bank is less than 5 degrees the aircraft will
the aircraft bank if the roll wings level. If the aircraft's bank is greater than 5
autopilot is engaged degrees the current bank angle is maintained.
during a gradual turn?
What occurs when you The "Heading Bug" will sync to the current aircraft's
press the center of the heading.
"Heading Select" knob
on the Flight Control
Panel?
What "NAV SOURCES" 1. VOR

may be selected on 2. LOC
the Air Data Reference 3. FMS
Panel?
"Localizer Capture" will 1. 1/2 Bank Mode

automatically disarm 2. Turbulence Mode
what modes? 3. Heading Mode
What does selecting Restricts the aircrafts bank angle to 15 degrees.

the "1/2 Bank Mode"

do?
When does the "1/2 Above 31,600 feet.

Bank" mode
"automatically"
engage?
Is it possible to de- YES, by selecting the 1/2 Bank pushbutton.

activate "1/2 Bank
Mode" when above
31,600 feet?
"1/2 Bank" selection is 1. Takeoff

not available in what 2. Approach
modes? 3. Go-Around
How is altitude capture A flashing green "ALTS" message in the FMA.

indicated on the Only occurs when within 100 feet of selected altitude.
Primary Flight Display?
If another altitude is "ALT" (Altitude Hold)

selected in the altitude
"Pre-Select" what does
the "ALTS" change to?
At what times will the 1. 1,000 feet prior to reaching altitude.

"Altitude Alert" 2. Deviations of more than 300 feet from selected
function sound tones? altitude.
3. Deviations of more than 1,000 feet causes the altitude
bugs and digital altitude readout to "Flash" amber.
When the "TOGA" Single Engine: Approx. 10 degrees pitch up

button is pressed, what
pitch indication will Two Engine: Approx. 15 degrees pitch up
you receive during a
go-around?
Single Engine:? / Two
Engine:?
The Pitch mode of the 1. Pressing the "speed button" 3 times.

Flight Control Panel 2. Manually moving the Pitch wheel.
may be engaged by 3. Automatically engages the pitch mode if no other
mode is selected when the autopilot is turned "ON".
what different
Each "click" of the
methods? 1/2 degree pitch change
manual pitch wheel
will adjust the pitch
command bars by how
much?
Repeatedly pressing 1. IAS

the "SPEED" button on 2. Climb or Descent (depending on whether the selected
the Flight Control altitude is above or below you).
Panel will cycle 3. Pitch
between what modes?
After a new "Pre- If the selected altitude is "ABOVE" your current altitude
Select" altitude is "CLB" is automatically selected. If the selected altitude is
selected, the "BELOW" you current altitude "DES" is automatically
"CLM/DES Mode" will selected.
indicate what?
Each "click" of the Pitch Mode: 1/2 degree

"Manual Pitch Wheel" Vertical Speed Mode: 100 feet per minute
on the Flight Control
Panel will adjust the
pitch by how much?
Pitch MODE:? /
Vertical Speed Mode:?
At what point does 31,600 feet

changeover from IAS
to MACH
automatically occur?
What "manual" method Press the center of the "SPEED" pushbutton on the Flight
can be used to Control Panel.
changeover from IAS
to MACH?
What will happen if The mode will automatically switch to "IAS MODE" and
descending in "Vertical the aircraft will automatically pitch up to reduce its
Speed Mode" and an speed.
over speed condition
occurs? Mode indicator on the FMA will flash "amber" and the
over speed clacker will sound.
What is required to 1. Both Flight Control Computers must be operational.

"Engage" the 2. At least one (1) yaw damper operational and engaged.
autopilot? 3. At least one (1) Stab Channel engaged.
4. No faults in the Stab Trim System.
5. No significant instability with the aircraft.
6. Autopilot "Disconnect Bar" is "UP" on the FCP.
The autopilot may be 1. Selecting the "Disconnect Bar" on the FCP "OFF".
dis-engaged by what 2. Pressing the "ENGAGE" button on the FCP.
means? 3. Pressing the "Autopilot Disconnect" switch on yoke.
4. Activation of the stab trim split switches.
5. Pressing the "YAW DAMPER DISC" button.
6. Pressing the "TOGA" button on thrust levers.
The autopilot will 1. Stall Warning (stick shaker)

"automatically" 2. Windshear warning (after 2 seconds)
disconnect when what 3. Failure of both yaw dampers
occurs?
If you advance the 70%

thrust levers beyond
_____% during takeoff
without a "Takeoff
Config OK" advisory
message you will
receive an aural alert
as well as a status
message.
What components 1. Flaps / Slats

must be configured 2. Aileron Trim
correctly to receive a 3. Rudder Trim
"Takeoff Config OK" 4. Stabilizer Trim
advisory message? 5. Spoilers
6. Parking Brake
7. Autopilot
If an "Out of Trim" An amber boxed "E" or "A" symbol is displayed on the

condition occurs with Primary Flight Display.
the autopilot engaged,
what indication is An EICAS message is generated.
displayed?
What is the purpose of It reduces the autopilot gain.

the "Turbulence"
pushbutton on the
Flight Control Panel?
At what times is the 1. Takeoff Mode

"Turbulence Mode" 2. Approach Mode
automatically 3. Go-Around Mode
disabled?
Pressing the "AP/SP" 1. Automatically disengages the autopilot.

switch on the yoke will 2. Disables the stick pusher for as long as the switch is
do what? held down.
How long is the audio 5 seconds

warning heard when
the autopilot is
disconnected using
the "AP/SP" switch on
the yoke?
What is the function of It provides the "Interface" between the different

the "Audio Integrating communications system components.
System"?
Are the "Audio Control Yes, however the "Observers Panel" does not have all the
Panels" same functions as the pilot's and co-pilot's panels.
interchangeable?
Do the "Audio NO
Warnings" go through
the "Audio Control
Panels"?
Is the audio warnings NO

volume adjustable?
Is it necessary to press NO
the "receive" button on Receive function is automatically enabled.
the Audio Control
Panel when the
transmitter is selected
to that radio?
What is the purpose of It allows you to receive "voice only" or "voice and
the "Voice / Both" identifier" when verifying navigational radio signals.
switch on the Audio
Control Panels?
What functions are 1. Overhead Speaker is inoperative.

"disabled" on the 2. Norm/Emergency switch is disabled.
"Observers" Audio
Control Panel?
What is the purpose of It will bypass the Audio Control Panels features.
the "EMER/NORM" Aural warnings do not go through the Audio Control
switch on the Audio Panel!
Control Panels?
Directly connects:
CAPTAIN's: NAV #1 / COMM #1
F.O's: NAV #2 / COMM #2
The Interphone 1. Flight Deck

System connects what 2. Both Flight Attendant Panels
locations? 3. External Service Panel
4. Re-Fuel / De-Fuel Panel
5. Aft Equipment Bay
6. Avionics Bay
The PA systems 1. Either engine is running

"volume" goes to 2. APU is running
"HIGH" automatically
when what occurs?
What is the "Priority" 1. Captain

order for transmitting 2. First Officer
over the PA System? 3. Flight Attendants
What other function It provides the logic for chimes and lights associated
does the PA System with the flight deck and cabin calls.
provide other than
direct
communications?
The "Interphone 1. PA
Control Panel" has four 2. CALL
(4) switchlights, what 3. CHIME

are they labeled? 4. EMER
What type of chime High / Low
does the "CHIME"
switchlight produce
when pressed?
Of the four (4) CHIME

switchlights on the
Interphone Control
Unit (ICU) one is not
lighted. Which one is
it?
The "CALL" switchlight High / Low

produces what type of
chime when pressed?
In order to activate the The "Transmit Select" switch on the Audio Control Panel
"EMER" switchlight on must be selected to "PA" position first.
the Interphone Control
Unit what must occur?
When the "EMER" 1. Causes the switchlights to flash in both the cockpit and
pushlight is pressed on "Both" Flight attendant panels.
the Intercom Control 2. A High / Low "Triple chime" will sound.
Unit what indications 3. Illuminates the "Flashing Red Light" on the mid-cabin
appear in the cabin? overhead emergency exit sign.
When the "NO Low Chime

SMOKING" or "FASTEN
SEATBELT" signs are
selected "ON", what
type of chime is heard
in the cabin?
What occurs when the It will sound a chime in the External Service Panel and
"Mechanic" switchlight illuminate the Mechanic call switchlight for 30 seconds
is pressed on the only.
Ground Prox Test
panel?
What are the Primary Remote Transmitting Units (RTU's)
Radio Frequency
Controllers?
What frequencies can 1. Comm Frequencies
be changed from both 2. NAV Frequencies
the RTU's and the FMS 3. ADF Frequencies
radio page? 4. Transponder Codes
The Captain's RTU 1. COMM #1

controls what 2. NAV #1
frequencies? 3. ADF #1
4. Optional COMM #3
The First Officer's RTU 1. COMM #2

controls what 2. NAV #2
frequencies? 3. ADF #2
4. HF Radio
How do you turn the You cannot turn them off.

RTU's "OFF"? They are powered anytime that AC Power is available to
the aircraft.
What two (2) pages 1. TOP Page

can be displayed on 2. MAIN Page
the RTU's?
What is the purpose of It allows you to individually control the features of the
the "MAIN" page of selected COMM or NAV radio.
the RTU's?
If the Main page is 20 seconds

selected and nothing
is entered, how long
before the main page
reverts back to the
TOP page on the
RTU's?
The RTU's are capable 1. Active frequency

of displaying three (3) 2. Recall frequency
different types of 3. Pre-select frequency
frequency
presentations. What
are they?
If the "squelch" is A "SQ OFF" message is displayed on the "TOP PAGE" of

selected "OFF" through the RTU.
the RTU, how is it
indicated?
What is the purpose of It provides reversionary control of the RTU's in the event
the "Backup Tuning that "Both RTU's" were to fail or complete electrical
Unit" (BTU)? failure.
What is displayed on Screen goes black.

the RTU screen if it
were to fail?
If the #1 RTU were to You would have to select the "INHIBIT" switch on the
fail how could NAV #1, BTU for the respective RTU. This will allow "Cross Side
COM #1, ADF #1 Tuning" from the opposite sides RTU. Cross Side tuning is
frequencies be not functional "if the RTU fails" unless the "INHIB" switch
changed? is selected for the failed RTU.
What powers the It is powered through the "Battery Bus". It remains

Backup Tuning Unit" powered anytime that the Battery Master is selected
(BTU)? "ON".
During "Normal Standby

Operations" the
Backup Tuning Unit is
selected to what
mode?
What frequencies will NAV #1 and COMM #1

the Backup Tuning Unit
"duplicate" when
selected to the
standby mode?
How is "Cross Side The selected data will display as "Amber".

Tuning" indicated?
What is the purpose of When selected to "OFF" it takes away the FMS ability to
the FMS "TUNE auto tune DME channel #1. It will still auto tune channels
INHIBIT" toggle 2 and 3.
switch?
How would you Transmit over the #2 VHF radio on SELCALL frequency.
"cancel" a "SELCAL
VHF 2" status message
displayed on the
EICAS?
The cockpit voice 1. Captain's Voice

recorder will record 2. First Officer's Voice
four (4) different 3. Area Microphone
channels of 4. Mixed PA and Observer's voice
communications. What
are they?
The "Underwater 30 days

locator" feature of the
cockpit voice recorder
will activate for how
long?
When is the cockpit As soon as electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

voice recorder
activated?
The "Cockpit Voice 120 minutes (2 hours)

Recorder" will record
data for how long?
Where is the Cockpit In the AFT tail section of the aircraft.

Voice Recorder
physically located?
What will happen Electrical power is automatically removed to prevent

"upon impact" to the accidental erasure.
cockpit and data voice
recorders?
When is the "Flight 1. Beacon "ON"

Data Recorder" 2. Strobes "ON"
automatically 3. Weight Off Wheels
powered?
How much data will Last 25 hours

the "Flight Data
Recorder" record?
The underwater 30 days
locating device on the
"Flight Data Recorder"
will function for how
long?
What is the function of It will put a DATE/TIME stamp on the recording for later
the "FDR EVENT" review by maintenance personnel.
button?
An EICAS message is displayed when the button is
selected.
Where is the "ELT" Aft tail section.

the aircraft?
If the ELT is actually An "ELT ON" amber caution message is displayed on

transmitting a signal, EICAS.
how is it known?
DC current is provided 1. Main Battery

by what sources? 2. APU Battery
3. TRU's (4)
AC and DC electrical Electrical Power Control Panel

systems are controlled
from what panel?
How many Circuit Five Circuit Breaker Panels

Breaker panels are
there and where are CB Panel #1: Behind Captain's seat
they located? CB Panel #2: Behind First Officer's Seat
CB Panel #3: Aircraft Nose Compartment
CB Panel #4: Aft Equipment Bay
CB Panel #5: Location unknown!
CB Panel #1 services 1. AC Bus #1

include what? 2. DC Bus #1
3. Battery Bus
4. AC Essential Bus
5. DC Emergency Bus
CB Panel #2 services 1. AC Bus #2
include what? 2. DC Bus #2

3. AC Service Bus
4. DC Service Bus
5. DC Utility Bus
6. DC Essential Bus
7. Battery Bus
The Engine Driven AC Independent Drive Generators (IDG's)

generators are know
as _________.
The Independent 1. Act as a constant speed drive

Drive Generators serve 2. 40 KVA AC Electrical Generator
two (2) functions. What
are they?
The engine driven AC 115 / 200 VAC

generators provide: 3 Phase Power
___ VAC / ____ Phase 400 HZ
Power / ____ HZ
How may the IDG's be By pressing the "IDG DISC" switchlight on the Electrical
disconnected from the Power Panel.
accessory gearbox?
Once the IDG has Only by maintenance personnel while on the ground.
been "disconnected",
how may it then be
reconnected?
The IDG's provide ____ 40 KVA Power to 41,000 feet

KVA power to _____ feet.
Overload protection is 45 KVA for 5 minutes

provided from the
IDG's. What are the 60 KVA for 5 seconds
overload limits?
Independent Drive The accessory gearbox.

Generators are driven
by what?
How can you verify On the electrical synoptic page the IDG is surrounded
IDG disconnect once by a white box and "DISC" is displayed beneath it.
the "IDG DISC"
switchlight has been

pressed?
What faults will cause 1. IDG Overheat

the IDG switchlight to 2. Low Oil Pressure
illuminate?
If the "electrical 1. A mechanical disconnect will occur when the IDG

disconnect" fails to reaches a pre-determined internal temperature.
disconnect the IDG for
whatever reason, what 2. The shaft will shear if the bearings begin to seize up.
other features will
disconnect the IDG?
Generator fault 1. Under Voltage / Over Voltage

protection is provided 2. Under Frequency / Over Frequency
for what? 3. Generator and Bus Over Current
4. Generator Phase Sequence
The "Generator 1. Bus Priority

Control Units" provide 2. Fault Protection
for what?
What occurs when the The respective generator is tripped "OFF-LINE".

Generator Control Unit
detects a fault?
When does the AC Anytime that a bus becomes unpowered. When

"APU generator" operating it will pick up the load on "ALL FAILED BUSES".
provide power to the
aircraft?
The APU generator is 40 KVA

rated to _____ KVA to
______ feet. 41,000 feet
The "External Service AC 6 PIN power only!

Panel" allows for what
type of external power
to be applied to the
aircraft?
Where is the "External Right / Forward Nose of the aircraft.

Services Panel"
located on the
What controls and
aircraft? External Power Monitor (EPM)
regulates the external
power input?
What indication will Green "AVAILABLE" light illuminates on the cockpit

you receive in the Electrical Panel.
cockpit if external
power is plugged into
the aircraft and the
EPM senses that the
power is within
parameters?
Selecting the green All unpowered buses.

"AVAILABLE"
switchlight "ON" on the
electrical panel will
enable the external
power to power what
buses?
What is the "Priority" 1. Engine Driven Generators (IDG's)

for power to operate 2. APU Generator
the aircraft systems? 3. External Power
If the green External Power is "not within parameters".

"AVAILABLE" light does
not illuminate on the
electrical control
panel with external
power applied, what
would be suspected?
Once the green The switchlight will indicate "IN USE" (White).
"AVAILABLE"
switchlight is pressed,
what will then indicate
on the Electrical
Control Panel?
With "External Power" The white "IN USE" switchlight will change and indicate
powering the aircraft, green "AVAILABLE" again.
what will happen when

an engine driven The engine driven generator will pick up the entire
generator comes "ON- electrical load.
LINE"?
How may the "AC By pressing the "AC" switchlight on the "External Service
Service Bus" be Panel".
powered?
What is the purpose of It will power the "AC Service Bus".

the "AC" switchlight on
the "External Service This supplies power to the electrical outlets within the
Panel"? cabin and lavatory for aircraft cleaning purposes.
Also provides power to the "APU Battery Charger".
If the "AC" pushbutton It will override the AC pushlight on the External Service
is selected "IN" on the Panel and power all of the AC buses.
External Service Panel,
what will happen if the
"AVAILABLE"
switchlight is
depressed from within
the cockpit on the
Electrical Control
Panel?
The "AC Service Bus" is AC Bus #2

normally powered by
what other bus?
By what other means By selecting the "AC" switchlight on the External Service
may the "AC Service Panel with external AC applied.
Bus" be powered?
What are the four (4) 1. AC Bus #1

main AC Buses? 2. AC Bus #2
3. Essential AC Bus
4. AC Service Bus
What power source Generator #1

"Normally" powers AC
Bus #1?
What power source Generator #2

"Normally" powers AC
Bus #2?
What power source AC Bus #1

"Normally" powers the
AC Essential Bus?
What power source AC Bus #2

"normally" powers the
AC Service Bus?
If AC Bus #1 becomes It will automatically transfer to AC Bus #2.

"Unpowered", what
happens to the
Essential AC Bus?
If AC Bus #1 "FAILS" Select the "AC ESS XFER" switchlight on the Electrical
and the Essential AC Control Panel "IN" to manually transfer the Essential AC
Bus does not Bus to AC Bus #2.
automatically transfer
to AC Bus #2, what can
be done?
What is the power 1. Generator #1

source "priority" for AC 2. APU Generator
Bus #1 as assigned by 3. Generator #2
the "Automatic Transfer 4. External AC
System"?
What is the power 1. Generator #2

source "priority" for AC 2. APU Generator
Bus #2 as assigned by 3. Generator #1
the "Automatic Transfer 4. External AC
System"?
If one generator was The remaining generator would power all of the ships
to "fail" with the APU buses.
generator "OFF", what
would occur?
What would occur if a The buses associated generator would "Trip Off-Line".
"Bus Fault" were to
occur on either AC Bus

#1 or AC Bus #2?
Once a bus "Faults" Restoring a "Faulted Bus" requires you to completely
how can power be power down the aircraft and then re-power again to
restored to that bus clear the fault.
again?
What is the purpose of It will "Isolate" the associated bus from the automatic
the "Manual Transfer transfer system. This is a checklist item used in the event
Inhibit" switchlight? of isolating a electrical fire.
What will happen to The ADG will automatically power the Essential AC Bus.
the "Essential AC Bus"
if the ADG deploys?
Following ADG Push the "Power TXFR Override" button on the ADG
deployment, if a ships Control Panel to transfer the Essential AC Bus back to
generator once again the priority system. This prevents load shedding the bus
becomes operational below 135 kts during landing.
what must be done?
When will the ADG 1. Any ships generator must have been On-Line for 3.45
"automatically" seconds.
deploy? 2. AC Bus #1 and AC Bus #2 becomes un-powered
(below 50 Volts).
3. Weight Off Wheels (airborne).
If the ADG fails to By manually pulling the ADG handle on the lower
deploy automatically, pedestal.
how else can it be
deployed?
Once deployed the 1. Hydraulic Pump 3B

ADG will power what? 2. Flaps and Slats (Above 140 kts)
3. Essential AC Bus (Above 135 kts)
4. Pitch Trim (Above 108 kts)
The ADG generator, 15 KVA

when deployed, 400 HZ
produces _____ KVA _____
HZ power.
When will the Essential AC Bus: Below 135 kts
following "Load Shed" HYD Pump 3B: Never

during approach when Flaps / Slats: Below 140 kts
the ADG is deployed? Pitch Trim: Below 108 kts
Essential AC Bus / HYD
Pump 3B /
Flaps / Slats / Pitch
Trim
To prevent the ADG Flaps and Slats: 140 kts

from "Stalling" the Pitch Trim: 108 kts
aircraft must be
configured by what
speed?
How does the ADG It is a "direct cable connection" to the "up-locks" for the
"pull handle" deploy ADG.
the ADG?
What are the aircraft's 1. Main Battery

sources of DC power? 2. APU Battery
3. Four TRU's
a. Essential TRU #1
b. Essential TRU #2
c. TRU #1
d. TRU #2
There are nine (9) DC 1. DC Bus #1

Buses. See how many 2. DC Bus #2
you can name! 3. DC Essential Bus
4. DC Service Bus
5. DC Utility Bus
6. DC Direct Battery Bus
7. DC Emergency Bus
8. Main Battery Direct Bus
9. APU Battery Direct Bus
Each TRU is rated at 120 amps

______ amps.
Where are the TRU's In the "Nose Compartment".

the aircraft?
What is the primary 1. To provide battery power for APU Start.

function of the APU 2. To provide "Backup DC Power".
Battery?
What is the primary To provide "Backup DC Power" only!

function of the MAIN
Battery?
Where is the "MAIN Nose Compartment with the TRU's.

Battery" physically
located on the
aircraft?
Where is the "APU In the AFT Equipment Bay.

Battery" physically
located on the
aircraft?
Which is the largest of APU Battery

the two (2) batteries?
The APU battery is 43 amps

rated at _____ amps.
The MAIN battery is 17 amps

rated at ____ amps.
How are the batteries Each battery has its own battery charger. The battery
charged? chargers are not shown on the electrical synoptic page
unless there is a problem.
When are the "Battery Anytime that there is AC power applied to the aircraft.
Chargers" powered?
With only the AC Service Bus powered through the
external service panel, only the APU battery charger will
be powered!
How long can the 30 minutes

batteries provide
power to the aircraft in
the event of total
electrical failure?
The aircraft battery 1. Battery temp exceeds 65 degrees.

chargers will 2. Cell imbalance of 1 volt.
automatically 3. Shorted temperature sensor

shutdown when? 4. Shorted imbalance sensor
5. Loss of AC power input
6. Charger Failure.
Through which circuit CB Panel #1 (Behind Captain's seat)

breaker panel is DC
Bus #1 controlled?
Through which circuit CB Panel #2 (Behind First Officer's seat).

breaker panel is DC
Bus #2 controlled?
What does the "DC 1. NAV Lights

SERVICE BUS" power? 2. Toilet Motor and Waste System
3. Selected Passenger Cabin Lighting
What ways can the 1. Anytime that AC Power is available to the aircraft.
"DC Service Bus" be
powered? 2. By selecting the "DC SERVICE" toggle switch "ON"
from the Electrical Control Panel.
What is the purpose of It powers non-essential systems.

the "DC Utility Bus"?
Automatically load sheds anytime that "Main Bus Tie"
closes.
When will the "MAIN Anytime that TRU #1 "OR" TRU #2 fails.
BUS TIE" automatically
close?
What automatically The DC Utility Bus is "Load Shed".

occurs anytime that
the DC "MAIN TIE"
closes?
What items are Items which are critical to flight.

powered through the
"DC ESSENTIAL BUS"?
What items are Emergency services:

powered through the
DC "EMERGENCY 1. Engine and APU Fuel Shutoff Valves
BUS"? 2. Engine Hydraulic Shutoff Valves
3. Fire Extinguisher Circuits
What are the names of 1. MAIN TIE

the "DC BUS TIE's"? 2. ESSENTIAL TIE
3. CROSS TIE
When does the DC Failure of TRU #1 "or" TRU #2.

"MAIN TIE"
automatically close?
When does the DC Failure of Essential TRU #1 "or" Essential TRU #2.
"ESSENTIAL TIE"
When does the DC Multiple TRU failures.

"CROSS TIE"
Are the DC Bus Ties NO

controlled by the
pilots?
When will the 1. Loss of Essential TRU #1 while the ADG is suppling
"Essential TRU #2 emergency power to the aircraft.
Transfer Contactor"
close? 2. Essential TRU #1 failure followed by failure of AC Bus
#2.
What is the purpose of A redundant system to help insure that the Essential DC
the Essential TRU #2 Bus remains powered at all times.
Transfer Contactor?
What power source It is powered directly through the ships Battery Bus. The
powers the "DC battery switch must be "ON" for operation.
Emergency Bus"?
What DC bus is "Not The DC Emergency Bus is not shown on the electrical
Shown" on the synoptic page unless there is a problem.
electrical synoptic
page?
The ADG will "Arm to 1. Weight off wheels

Deploy" when: 2. Any AC generator is on line for at least 3.45 seconds.
The ADG will 1. Complete Loss of All AC Power (Loss of AC Bus #1 &
automatically deploy #2)
when: - AC Bus #1 and AC Bus #2 both below 50 volts.
2. Weight Off Wheels
3. Any generator has been on-line for at least 3.45

seconds.
When will the "Seatbelt 1. When flaps are selected greater than 0 degrees.
Sign" illuminate when 2. When Gear is selected down.
selected to the "AUTO" 3. At Cabin altitudes of 10,000 feet or more.
position?
When will the "No 1. When the gear is selected down.

Smoking Signs" 2. When the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet.
illuminate when
selected to the "AUTO"
position?
From what locations 1. Cockpit

may the Emergency 2. Forward Flight Attendant Panel
Lights be controlled
from?
At what times will the Emergency Lights are selected to "OFF" (abnormal).
"Emergency Lights"
caution be displayed?
What does the 1. Selected cabin ceiling and floor lighting.

"Emergency Lights" 2. Emergency Exits.
illuminate? 3. Egress Lighting (exterior).
How are the Four (4) re-chargeable battery packs

"Emergency Lights"
powered?
The "Emergency lights" Provides 15 minutes of illumination.

will illuminate for how
long when activated?
Will the Forward Flight YES ... If the cockpit switch is selected to the "OFF"
Attendant panel switch position.
for the emergency
lights override the
cockpit switch?
When the "Emergency Failure of the Essential AC Bus "or" Essential DC Bus.
Lights" are "ARMED"
they will automatically
illuminate when?
What must be selected Battery Master

to "ON" for the
Emergency Lights to
operate?
Where is the Flight Aft Equipment Bay

Data Recorder
the aircraft?
At what times is the 1. Beacon "ON"

Flight Data Recorder 2. Strobes "ON"
operating? 3. Weight off wheels
How much data will Last 25 hours

the Flight Data
Recorder record?
How many "navigation Two (2)

lights" are installed in
each wing tip?
What are the names of Primary and Secondary

the two (2) navigation
lights in each wingtip?
When will the 1. Failure of the Primary navigation light bulb.

Secondary navigation 2. Primary navigation light overheats.
light illuminate?
Is the Primary NO ... The Secondary navigation light bulb is smaller.

navigation light and
Secondary navigation
light the same size
bulbs?
How many landing Three (3):

lights are there and
what is their locations? Left Wing
Right Wing
Nose
Where are the taxi In the wing roots co-located with the landing lights.
lights physically
located on the
At what distance are
aircraft? 100 feet
the landing lights
focused at?
How many switches Two (2)

are installed for
control of the
"Passenger Lighting" in
the cabin?
Where are the two Forward Flight Attendant Panel

switches located for
control of the
passenger lighting
system?
What is the function of LEFT SWITCH:

the two (2) switches for 1. Selects low intensity cabin & entrance lighting.
the passenger 2. "ARMS" the right switch.
lighting?
LEFT SWITCH: RIGHT SWITCH:
RIGHT SWITCH: 1. Entrance lights go to HIGH intensity.
2. Turns "ON" air stair lighting.
How are all the By pressing the "Test Switch" located on the Forward
Passenger Service Flight Attendants Panel.
Units (PSU's) tested at
once?
After testing all of the By pressing the "OFF" switch on the forward flight
passenger service attendant panel.
units (PSU's) with the
test switch on the
forward flight
attendant panel, how
can they be reset?
How many fire 4

extinguishers are
onboard the aircraft, (1) Behind the First Officers seat
and where are their (1) In wheelchair stowage compartment
locations?
(1) Above coat closet in cabin

How many portable 4
(1) Aft cabin wall
oxygen bottles are
there on the aircraft (2) in wheelchair stowage compartment for "Passenger
and where are their Emergency First Aid".
locations? (1) above galley food storage compartment, right side of
cabin.
(1) in aft cabin overhead bin at row 17DE, right side of
cabin.
How many PBE's are 4

there on the aircraft
and what are their (1) Behind the captain's seat.
locations? (1) In the wheelchair stowage compartment.
(1) in cabin overhead bin at row 1AB.
(1) on aft cabin wall.
The "Fire Protection 1. Engines

System" can "DETECT" 2. APU
fires from what 3. Wheel Bays
locations? 4. Cargo Compartments
5. Aft Lavatory
"Smoke Detection" is 1. Both Cargo Bays

provided for in what 2. Aft Lavatory
areas?
The engines and APU DUAL

are protected using a
______ loop protection
system.
The wheel wells are SINGLE

protected using a _______
loop protection
system.
Will the engine and YES

APU fire protection
system function if one The loop is automatically inhibited and the remaining
(1) loop was to fail? loop will provide protection.
What controls the FIDEEX Unit
Engine and APU fire

detection system?
How many "smoke Forward Cargo: 3
detectors" are there in AFT Cargo: 2
each cargo bay?
What is the purpose of To detect and indicate a wheel or brake overheat

the fire detection condition.
loops in the main
landing gear wheel
bays?
What areas are 1. Engines

protected by a "Fire 2. APU
Extinguishing" system? 3. Both Cargo Bays
4. Aft Lavatory waste disposal
What is indicated if Smoke has been detected within the respective cargo
one of the "Cargo bay on at least two (2) of the smoke detectors.
Smoke" switchlights
illuminates?
Pressing the "Cargo FWD:

Smoke" switchlight will Arms "BOTH" of the fire bottles to discharge into that
do what? compartment.
FWD: ? / AFT: ?
AFT:
Arms "BOTH" of the fire bottles to discharge into that
compartment, and:
1. De-energizes the heater.
2. Closes the "Intake and Exhaust Valves".
Where is the Lavatory Inside the waste container.

fire bottle located?
What must occur for Automatically discharges into the waste container when
the Lavatory fire bottle the "heat sensitive squibs (2) melt.
to discharge?
If any part of the 1. You will not receive the "FIRE SYS TEST OK" advisory
"Fireex System does message.
not test properly what 2. The effected system switchlight will not illuminate.
is displayed?
What monitors the fire FIDEEX Unit

detection loops for a
fault?
The FIDEEX unit will resistance

indicate a fire when a
change in ______ is
detected within the
loops.
Where are the fire Aft Equipment Bay

extinguishing bottles
for the engines and
APU physically
located on the
aircraft?
Where are the fire Right wing fairing.

bottles for the cargo
compartments
the airplane?
How many fire bottles Two (2)

are installed for the
"engines" use?
How many fire bottles One (1)

are installed on the
aircraft for the "APU's"
use?
How many fire bottles Two (2)

are installed on the
aircraft for the "cargo
compartments" use?
Pressing the "LH/RH 1. Trips respective generator off-line.

ENG FIRE PUSH" 2. Closes the hydraulic Shutoff Valve
switchlight will do 3. Closes the respective fuel shutoff valve.
what? 4. Shuts off bleed air from the respective engine.
5. Arms "Both" bottles to fire into that engine.
Pressing the "BOTTLE Fire the respective fire bottle into the engine as selected
1/2 ARMED PUSH TO by the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight.
DISC" switchlight will
do what?
Pressing the "APU 1. Shuts down the APU.

FIRE" switchlight will 2. Closes the APU fuel SOV.
do what? 3. Closes the APU Load Control Valve.
4. Trips the APU generator off-line.
5. ARMS the "APU BOTTLE ARMED - PUSH TO DISC"
switchlight.
If a fire is detected GROUND:

within the APU what 1. APU shuts down automatically.
will occur? 2. After 5 seconds the APU Fire bottle will discharge.
GROUND: ?
INFLIGHT: ? INFLIGHT:
1. APU will shutdown automatically.
2. APU Fire Bottle "Must be manually discharged".
Is it possible to YES
interrupt the automatic
discharging of the fire You must press the "APU FIRE" switchlight within 5
bottle into the APU seconds to cancel the automatic discharging of the APU
while on the ground? fire bottle.
What indications 1. "Cargo Smoke" warning is displayed on EICAS.

appear if smoke is 2. Triple chime is heard.
detected in one of the 3. Associated cargo smoke switchlight will illuminate.
cargo bays?
Pressing the "Bottle 1. Rapidly discharges the first fire bottle into the
Armed - Press to Disc" associated compartment to knock down fire.
switchlight on the
Cargo Fireex Panel will 2. The second bottle will then discharge more slowly to
do what? provide a halon rich atmosphere.
How can it be verified A "CARGO SQUIB 1/2" caution message is displayed.

that the cargo fire
bottles have actually
fired?
What occurs if smoke 1. Smoke detector sounds.
is detected in the aft 2. "SMOKE AFT LAV" is displayed on EICAS.

lavatory?
How can the smoke By pressing the "Test/Reset" button on the smoke
detector be reset in detector.
the lavatory?
Where is the portable Behind the First Officers Seat.

fire extinguisher
located on the flight
deck?
What does the "MLG Heat has been detected within the main landing gear
BAY OVERHEAT" wheel bay due to tire or brake overheat.
EICAS warning
message indicate?
What is indicated by The overheat detection system for the wheel bays has a
the "MLG OVHT FAIL" fault.
caution message on
the EICAS?
When testing the Main OVHT:

Landing Gear Bay Simulates a false overheat condition.
Overheat system, what
is each switch actually WARN FAIL:
testing? Simulates a failure of the overheat protection system.
OVHT: ? WARN FAIL: ?
When testing the "Fire "FIRE SYS TEST OK" Advisory message
Detection System" on
the FIREEX Monitor
test panel, what are
you looking for to
insure an operable
system?
The wing is a single 10

piece, bolted to the
fuselage in _____
separate locations.
What flight controls 1. Elevator

are considered 2. Rudder
"Primary Flight 3. Ailerons

Controls"?
What flight controls 1. Flaps
are considered 2. Slats
"Secondary Flight 3. Inboard and outboard Ground Spoilers
Controls"? 4. Multifunction Spoilers
5. Stabilizer Trim
6. Aileron Trim
7. Rudder Trim
What are the Power Control Units (PCU's)

"actuators" called that
actually move the
flight controls?
Are the Power Control Hydraulically

Units (PCU's)
mechanically or
hydraulically actuated?
How many Power Ailerons: 2

Control Units (PCU's) Rudder: 3
are there on each: Elevator: 3
Aileron:? / Rudder: ? /
Elevator: ?
The "Left Aileron" is Hydraulic System #1

powered by what two Hydraulic System #3
(2) hydraulic systems?
The "Right Aileron" is Hydraulic System #2

powered by what two Hydraulic System #3
(2) hydraulic systems?
Each wing has how 4

many "Spoiler Panels"?
The two (2) "Inboard Ground Spoilers

Spoiler Panels" on
each wing are called
what?
The two (2) "Outboard Multi-Function Spoilers
Spoiler Panels" on
each wing are called
what?
What "Flight Controls" 1. Flaps
are "Electrically" 2. Slats
operated? 3. Stabilizer Trim
4. Rudder Trim
5. Aileron Trim
The primary flight Electrically controlled

controls are ______ Hydraulically actuated
controlled and _______
actuated.
What flight controls All spoilers

are "Fly By Wire"?
The elevators are Torque Tube

"coupled together" by
what?
When separated, the Captains

left elevator is
controlled through
which yoke?
When separated, the First Officers

right elevator is
controlled through
which yoke?
What is the "Pitch To overcome a "Cable Malfunction".

Disconnect" T handle
used for?
Both the pilot's and Summing Mechanism

first officer's rudder
inputs go into a single
_______ Mechanism.
The "Summing Rudder

Mechanism" provides a
single input into what
flight control?
At what times can the In-flight only with "both engines operating".
rudder input be
limited?
What is the function of Limits rudder travel while "in-flight" only, to reduce
the "Rudder Travel rudder load.
Limiter"?
If a "single" PCU jams Load Limiter

on the rudder, what
will isolate the jam?
Protection for a "cable Anti-Jam Mechanism

jam" in the rudder
system is provided for
by a _______.
What provides for Trapped hydraulic fluid

"Gust Lock" functions
while on the ground?
What is required for Power from at least one (1) hydraulic system
the rudder trim to
function?
How many "Yaw Two (2)

Damper" systems are
there on the aircraft?
Yaw damper #1 FCC #1

receives input from
what Flight Control
Computer?
Yaw damper #2 FCC #2

receives input from
what Flight Control
Computer?
How can the yaw By pressing the Yaw Damper disconnect button on the
dampers be yaw damper control panel.
disconnected?
What is the purpose of To engage the yaw dampers only!

the yaw damper
switchlights?
A "single" yaw damper Status message

failure will cause what
kind of message?
A "dual" yaw damper "YAW DAMPER" Caution Message

failure will cause what
kind of message?
When the aileron Captain's yoke

torque tube has been
disconnected, which
control operates the
left aileron?
When the aileron First officer's yoke

torque tube has been
disconnected, which
control operates the
right aileron?
How many PCU's are Two (2)

there on each aileron?
What is the purpose of To disconnect the ailerons in the event of a Jammed

the "Roll Control aileron.
Disconnect" T-Handle?
What will assist the The Multi-Function Spoilers (Roll Assist Mode).
ailerons during low
speed banks?
The Multi-Function During "Low Speed" turns, on the "Down Wing Only".
Spoilers will assist the
ailerons at what times?
When the "Roll 1. Left aileron

Disconnect" T-Handle 2. Right Multi-Function Spoilers
is pulled, the captains
yoke will control what?
When the "Roll 1. Right Aileron

Disconnect" T-Handle 2. Left Multi-Function Spoilers
is pulled, the first
officer's yoke will

control
What switchlight
what? will "ROLL SELECT" switchlight will illuminate 20 seconds
illuminate after the after pulling the T-Handle.
"Roll Disconnect" T-
Handle is pulled?
What is the purpose of It confirms that the "Roll Disconnect" T-Handle has been
the "ROLL SELECT" pulled.
switchlight? Select the respective sides switchlight on the operative
aileron control to engage "all spoilers" on that side.
What is indicated if the An aileron PCU runaway has occurred and the system
"PLT ROLL" switchlight "has given that side control of the ailerons".
illuminates while in-
flight?
What are the purpose 1. Prevents aileron flutter if all hydraulics are lost while in-
of the aileron "Flutter flight.
Dampers"? 2. Acts as a gust lock while on the ground with the
hydraulics depressurized.
The "Stabilizer Trim" Nose Up: +13 degrees

will control the Nose Down: -2 degrees
stabilizer angle
between:
Nose Up: ?
Nose Down: ?
How many channels Two (2)

are there for the
stabilizer trim?
How can the Stabilizer By selecting the two (2) stab channel switchlights "IN".
Trim channels be
engaged?
How can the Stabilizer Only by selecting the "Stab Trim Disconnect" switch on
Trim channels be dis- the captain's and First Officer's yokes.
engaged?
If a "single" stabilizer Status Message

channel fails, what is
displayed on EICAS?
If "BOTH" stabilizer Caution Message

channels fail, what is
displayed on EICAS?
What is the "Only Way" By use of the "Stab Disconnect Switch" on each yoke.
to disconnect the
stabilizer channels?
The "Stabilizer Trim" Split Type Switches

switches are _______ type
switches.
What is the "Priority" 1. Captains Trim: (High Speed)

for the stabilizer trim? 2. First Officer's Trim: (High Speed)
3. Autopilot Trim: (High Speed with flaps in motion)
4. Auto Trim: (High Speed with flaps in motion and
"Autopilot OFF")
5. Mach Trim: (Low Speed with Autopilot OFF above .4
mach)
If Stabilizer trim 3 seconds

movement is detected
for more than _______
seconds, a clacker will
sound.
What is the purpose of It will improve the aircraft's stability when operating
the "Mach Trim"? above .4 mach with the autopilot disengaged (hand
flown).
What is required for 1. At least one (1) stab trim channel engaged.
the "Mach Trim" to 2. Autopilot "OFF".
operate? 3. Above .4 Mach
What is required for At least one (1) hydraulic system powered.

the "Aileron Trim"
system to function?
Control for the flaps is 1. Flap select Lever

provided for by what 2. Emergency Flap Switch
two (2) sources?
Is the "Slats/Flaps Electrically

Lever" electrically or
hydraulically
At what positions are
controlled? 8 degrees
there "Hard Gates" on 20 degrees
the Slat/Flap selection
lever?
During slat/flap Slats, then flaps

"Extension", which
moves first?
During slat/flap Flaps, then slats

"Retraction", which
moves first?
What are the Flap 0 degrees

Lever "positions" as 1 degrees
indicated on the flap 8 degrees
lever? 20 degrees
30 degrees
45 degrees
At the 0 degree Both are fully "UP"

position on the
Slats/Flaps lever at
what position do the
Slats/Flaps extend?
At the 1 degree Slats: 20 degrees

position on the Flaps: 0 degrees
Slats/Flaps extend?

Slats/Flaps extend?

Slats/Flaps extend?

Slats/Flaps extend?

Slats/Flaps extend?
How many "Leading Three (3)

Edge Slats" panels are
there on each wing
leading edge?
Which is the "Largest" Inboard

leading edge slat?
They get progressively smaller towards the wing tips.
How are the "Slats" de- Using bleed air through "Piccolo Tubes".
iced?
What will occur if One The other two (2) would drag the slat into position.
(1) slat actuator were
to fail?
What type of sensor is A Skew Disconnect Sensor

located between each
"Slat Panel"?
What would occur if The "Skew Disconnect Sensor" would disable the slats
one of the "Slat Panels" and illuminate a "SLATS FAULT" caution message on
failed to move when EICAS.
selected?
What would occur if Slats would "lock" in there present position and a "SLATS
the "Slats" on the left FAIL" caution message would be displayed on EICAS.
wing do not extend
equally with those on
the right wing?
What type of flaps Double Slotted

does the CRJ 700
have?
How many "Flap Two (2)

Panels" are there on
each wing? Inboard and Outboard Flaps
How many actuators Two (2)

are there on each
flap?
What will occur if the Over speed warning will occur.

flap speed is
exceeded?
If the flaps are being Flaps and Slats will only move at 1/2 speed.
powered by the ADG,
what difference in
operation is there?
What is the maximum 1 degree: 230 kts

flap operating speeds: 8 degrees: 230 kts
20 degrees: 230 kts
30 degrees: 185 kts
45 degrees: 170 kts
What is the purpose of Positions the Slats to 25 degrees and the Flaps to 20
the "Emergency Flap" degrees in the event of Slat/Flap lever failure.
switch?
If the "Emergency YES

Slat/Flap" switch has
been DEPLOYED in
flight, will selecting the
switch back to the
"NORMAL" position
restore normal
operation through the
Slat/Flap lever if the
lever becomes
operational again?
If the "Emergency Only after movement of the Slat/Flap selector lever.

Slat/Flap" switch has
been DEPLOYED on
the ground, will

selecting the switch
back to the "NORMAL"
position restore
normal operation
through the Slat/Flap
lever if the lever
becomes operational
again?
When operating above NO
the maximum flap
speed of 230 kts will
the "Emergency
Slat/Flap" lever
function?
When are the Slat/Flap 1. Slats or Flaps are greater than 0 degrees.
positions indicated on 2. Gear is not "Up and Locked".
the EICAS Primary 3. Brake temperatures are not in the green range.
page? 4. Slats/Flaps are indicating 1/2 Speed.
At what times will the 1. Single PCU failure

Slats/Flaps operate at 2. Powered by ADG
"1/2 speed"?
What are the "Multi- 1. Speed Braking

Function Spoilers used 2. Roll Assist at low airspeeds on down wing
for? 3. Ground Lift Dumping
What are the available 0

position selections for 1/4
the "Flight Spoilers"? 1/2
3/4
MAX
Which panels are Inner two (2)

considered the
"Ground Lift
Dumpers"?
What are the available MAN ARM

selections on the AUTO
MAN DISARM
"Ground Lift Dumpers"

Ground Lift Dumper
control panel? 1. Switch is selected to "AUTO ARM".
system will "ARM" "AND"
when: 2. Thrust levers are advanced towards takeoff.
"AND"
3. Wheel speed indicates 45 kts or more.
The Ground Lift 1. System has "armed" itself.

Dumper (GLD) system "AND"
will automatically 2. Both thrust levers are retarded towards IDLE.
"DEPLOY" when:
"AND ANY TWO OF THE FOLLOWING"
- Wheel speed indicates greater than 16 kts.

- Radar altimeter indicates 7 feet or less.
- At least one (1) Weight on Wheels indication.
The Ground Lift 1. Both thrust levers are below Takeoff thrust.
Dumper (GLD) system "AND"
will automatically 2. The aircraft is on the ground for at least 40 seconds.
"RETRACT" when: "AND"
3. The wheel speed is below 45 kts for at least 10
seconds.
The Multi-Function A weight on wheels indication is received from "BOTH"

spoilers will assist the mains.
Ground Lift Dumping
system when: "AND any one of the following"
- The wheel speed is greater than 16 kts on "any pair".

- The radar altimeter indicates 7 feet or less.
What is required to Only a "single" valid weight on wheels signal.

"MANUALLY" deploy
the Ground Lift
Dumpers?
A "TAKEOFF CONFIG" 1. Autopilot

warning will occur if 2. Flaps
any of the following is 3. Parking Brake
out of configuration: 4. Spoilers
5. Stab Trim
6. Aileron Trim
7. Rudder Trim
At what N1 setting will 70% N1 on both engines
a "Takeoff Config"
warning occur during
takeoff if the system is
mis-configured?
What is the purpose of Allows either pilot to disengage the stick pusher if
having a "Stick Pusher" necessary.
ON/OFF switch on
both sides of the
cockpit?
What is required for Both stick pusher switches must be selected to "ON".
the stick pusher to
operate?
What will occur if the 1. Autopilot is disconnected

"AP/SP" switch is 2. Stick Pusher is disabled for as long as the switch is
depressed on the held down.
yoke?
When will the "Stall" It is activated with "Stick Pusher" activation.

switchlight on the
glare shield illuminate
and flash red?
With the onset of a 1. Auto Ignition activates.

stall, what are the stall 2. Stick Shaker / Autopilot disengages
activation "Trip 3. Stick Pusher / Stall Warning switchlight activates.
Points"? 4. Stall Warbler audio tone is heard.
What are the 3 sources 1. 2 AC Display Fans

of cooling air for the 2. Recirc Fan
EFIS and EICAS 3. Cockpit Air Conditioning Duct.
displays?
What does the color GREEN: Normal

logic indicate for the AMBER: Below Normal
following colors on the RED: Above Normal
EICAS system? BLACK: No Flow
BLUE: Structure
GREEN / AMBER / RED

What does
/ BLACK the
/ BLUE WHITE: Valve is operable / waiting for work
different valve colors AMBER: Valve is inoperable
indicate on the EICAS GREEN: Valve is actually performing work
system? 1/2 MAGENTA: Insufficient Data to determine proper
WHITE / AMBER / color
GREEN / 1/2
MAGENTA
CAS messages are Takeoff:

"Inhibited" when?
Condition #1:
1. Engines are at takeoff thrust.
2. Below 100 kts
Condition #2:
1. Above 100 kts.
2. Less than 400 feet AGL
- cancels 30 seconds after takeoff.
Landing:
Condition #3:
1. Within 400 feet AGL with "gear down".
- cancels 30 seconds after landing or climbing back
through 400 feet following a go-around.
The EICAS system ED #1

consists of two ED #2
displays. What are
there names?
ED #1 normally Primary Page

displays what page?
ED #2 normally Status Page

displays what page?
Are the CRT displays YES

interchangeable?
What will occur if ED The Primary page will automatically transfer to ED #2.
#1 Display (Primary
Page) fails?
Some engine 1. N1 Vibration

indications are only 2. N2 Vibration
displayed on the 3. APR and REV icons
"Primary Page" on an
"As Required" basis.
What are they?
At what time is the N1 When "both" engines are running and the oil pressure is
Vibration gauges normal.
displayed?
When are the "Landing 1. Gear is selected down.

Gear", "Flaps/Slats", "or"
and "BTMS" indications 2. Flaps are selected down.
shown on EICAS? "or"
3. Brake temperatures are not normal
"or"
4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed message is displayed.
ED #2 normally Status
displays the ______ page
as default.
How many different 8 different synoptic pages as well as the menu page.
synoptic pages may be
displayed on ED #2?
At what times are the When the APU "PWR/FUEL" switchlight is depressed.
APU RPM and EGT
gauges shown on the
Status Page (ED #2)?
At what times is the It is always displayed.

APU "Door Position"
displayed on the
EICAS Status Page?
At what times are the Always

aileron, rudder and
stabilizer trim settings
shown on the status
page?
If the trim settings are Needles indicate a green color "while on the ground".
within acceptable
parameters for takeoff
how are they
displayed?
If the trim settings "are Needles are shown as a white color.

not" within acceptable
parameters for takeoff
how are they
displayed?
During flight what White

color are the trim
settings displayed as?
What indications are 1. O2 Pressure

"always" displayed on 2. Trim Position
the Status Page of 3. Apu Intake Door Position
EICAS?
At what times are the Always

O2 pressures
displayed on the
EICAS Status Page?
The EICAS system uses GREEN: Normal operating range

color logic to display RED: Above Normal
system data. What is AMBER: Below Normal
meant by the following BLACK: No Flow
colors? BLUE: Structure
GREEN / RED / AMBER
/ BLACK / BLUE
Valve operations on WHITE: Operating Valve waiting to do work.

the synoptic pages are GREEN: Operating valve (working valve)
colored in accordance AMBER: Failed Valve
with their status. What 1/2 Magenta: Insufficient data to determine the proper
are the valve colors? color
Where does the EICAS From the "Battery Bus".

system's ED #1 and ED
#2 displays receive
their power?
What limit applies to 5 minute limitation do to the AC cooling fans not being
the ED Displays while powered.
on battery power
only?
By what means do the 1. Two (2) AC cooling fans

CRT's receive cooling 2. Recirc Fan
air flow? 3. Cockpit Conditioned Air duct
If a cooling fan fails for Select either the "Flt Altn or Gnd Altn" position on the
the CRT's, what must "Display Fan" control to use the alternate cooling fan.
be done?
The "Data They provide information to:

Concentrator Units
(DCU's) provide 1. EICAS Displays
information to what? 2. Lamp Driver Units
3. Maintenance Diagnostic Computer
4. Flight Data Recorder
How many Data Two (2)

Concentrator Units are
there?
Are both Data Yes ... Each DCU provides different information.
Concentrator Units
"Active" at all times?
If one Data The remaining DCU will provide all data.

Concentrator Unit fails,
occur?
What provides the Data Concentrator Units

"Aural Alerts"?
If a "Warning" occurs Triple Chime

what type of chime will
the DCU provide?
If a "Caution" occurs Single Chime

what type of chime will
the DCU provide?
What type of chimes 1. Single Chime

or bells will the DCU's 2. Triple Chime
provide? 3. Engine / Apu fire bells
What generates the Data Concentrator Units

"Voice Messages"?
Can the audio All may be disabled by selecting the appropriate DCU
warnings that the switchlight "OFF" except:
DCU's provide be
disabled? 1. Ground Prox warnings
2. TCAS Alerts
What will the DCU's do The DCU's will prioritize the warnings.
if multiple alerts occur
at once?
Is it possible to clear No
or "box" a red warning
on the Primary page?
Is it possible to clear Yes

or "box" a amber
caution on the Primary
page?
Is it possible to clear No
or "box" a green
advisory message on
the status page?
Is it possible to clear Yes

or "box" a white status
message on the status
page?
A "RED" warning RED switchlight

message is associated
with a _______ elsewhere.
A "AMBER" caution AMBER switchlight

message is associated
with a _______ elsewhere.
If all of the warning or Pressing the CAS button on the EICAS Control Panel will
caution messages cycle through the pages.
cannot be displayed
on the Primary Page,
how can the remaining
messages be
retrieved?
What does a "Green Advises of aircraft's system configuration.

Advisory Message"
indicate?
What does a "White Advises of System Status.

Status Message"
indicate?
What is the purpose of The lamp Driver Unit sends the signal as instructed by
the "Lamp Driver the DCU to illuminate the appropriate switchlight.
Units"?
What is achieved by It tests channel 1 of the lamp driver unit.

selecting the "Lamp
Test Switch" to the
Channel 1 position?
At what times can the Takeoff:

DCU minimize
"Distracting Warning Condition #1:
and Caution 1. Both thrust levers are advanced to "Takeoff Power".
Messages"? 2. Speed below 100 kts.
Condition #2:
1. Groundspeed greater than 100 kts.
2. Terminates at 400' or 30 seconds after WOW.
Landing:
Condition #3:
1. Aircraft within 400' w/ landing gear down.
2. Terminates 30 seconds after landing or climbing back
through 400' following a go-around.
There are four (4) 1. PRI
buttons on the EICAS 2. STAT

Control Panel which 3. CAS
are mechanical, which 4. STEP
are they?
What is accomplished Causes the Primary page to be displayed on ED #2.
by pressing the "PRI"
button on the EICAS
Control Panel?
What is accomplished It causes the "Status" Page to be displayed on ED #2.

by pressing the "STAT" If the status page is already displayed it will box the
button on the EICAS white status messages.
Control Panel?
What is accomplished It will box the caution messages on the Primary page
by pressing the "CAS" "or" cycle through the pages if multiple pages exist.
button on the EICAS
Control Panel?
What is accomplished It will cycle through the synoptic pages beginning with
by pressing the "STEP" the last page displayed.
button on the EICAS
Control Panel?
At what times is the Only when the "Menu" page is displayed on ED #2.
"SEL, UP, DN" button
on the EICAS Control
Panel operative?
With the Menu page Fuel used reset

selected on the EICAS
Control Panel what
types of data may be
entered?
What is the purpose of Provides control for an alternate method of displaying

the "Reversionary PFD and EICAS information in the event one of the ED
Control Panel"? screens fails.
What alternate data 1. EICAS Status Page information

may be selected to 2. PFD
display on the MFD by
using the
"Reversionary Control
Panel"?
The "Reversionary The Multi-function Display
Control Panel directly
controls what is
displayed on what
screen?
What does the "Source A way to provide alternate data to both PFD's at once.
Selector Panel"
provide?
On the 'Source It will select which Display control Panel will control
Selection Panel", what "BOTH" displays in the event that one fails.
happens if the "DISP
CONT" knob is
selected to either the 1
or 2 position?
On the "Source It selects which ED display will display "all" EICAS

Selection Panel" what information in the event that one (1) ED were to fail.
happens if the EICAS
switch is selected to
the ED1 or ED2
position?
If you are viewing "all If a page other than the primary page is displayed a
EICAS Information" on triple chime will be heard and the display will
one ED as selected by automatically revert to the "Primary Page".
the Source Selection
Panel, what will occur
if a "RED Warning"
occurs?
If you are viewing "all Only a single chime will be heard. The page "does not"
EICAS Information" on automatically revert to the Primary Page!
one ED as selected by
the Source Selection
Panel, what will occur
if a "AMBER Caution"
occurs?
Maintenance 1. Captain's MFD
Diagnostic information 2. First Officer's MFD

may be selected to
display where?
What are two (2) 1. Counts Engine Start Cycles
primary purposes of 2. Records Trend Data.
the Maintenance
Diagnostic
Computer"?
At what times does the 1. Beacon ON

"Flight Data Recorder" 2. Strobes ON
begin recording? 3. Weight off wheels
The "Flight Data 25 hours

Recorder" will record
the last _______ of data.
The Flight Data 30 day

Recorder is equipped
with a ________
underwater locating
device.
Upon impact what is Power is removed.

automatically
accomplished to
prevent erasure of the
Flight Data Recorder?
Where is the flight data Aft Equipment Bay

recorder physically
located on the
aircraft?
What is the purpose of It places a Time / Date stamp on the flight data recorder
the "Event" switch on for later review.
the Misc Test Panel? The tape is marked as a "significant event".
By what two (2) means 1. Pressure Refueling

are the "Wing Tanks" 2. Gravity Refueling (Overwing)
refueled?
By what means may Pressure Refueling Only!

the "Center Fuel Tank"
be refueled?
What is the fuel Pressure Refueling: 7,492 lbs
capacity of the wing
tanks for: Overwing Refueling: 7,290 lbs
Pressure Refueling? /
Overwing Refueling?
What is the fuel tank 4,610 lbs

capacity for the center
tank following
"Pressure Refueling"?
What is the fuel Gravity refueling of the center tank is not allowed. The
capacity of the "Center center fuel tank may only be "Pressure Refueled"!
Tank" following
"Gravity Refueling"?
Fuel quantity 1. EICAS Primary Page

information is 2. Fuel Synoptic Page
displayed where?
What does the "Fuel 1. Refuel / Defuel operations

Computer" control? 2. Fuel Feed
3. Fuel Balancing
4. Fuel quantity indications
Where are the Within the "Center Tank".

collector tanks
the airplane?
All fuel drawn from the The collector tanks.

fuel system comes
from where?
Where does the APU The left collector tank only!

draw its fuel from?
What keeps the Scavenge Ejector pumps

collector tanks full?
What powers the Motive flow fuel from:

Scavenge Ejector
pumps? ENGINES OPERATING:
HP Fuel pumps
ENGINES SHUT DOWN:

Fuel Boost Pumps
How is fuel transferred Fuel is never transferred directly to the collector tanks
from the Center tank from the center tank. It must first be transferred to the
to the Collector tanks? wing tanks and then back to the collector tanks via the
"Scavenge Ejector Pumps".
Fuel tank venting is NACA vents

provided for by what?
Where are the NACA Underside of the wings near the trailing edge.
vents physically
located on the
aircraft?
What is the purpose of To provide venting during:

the NACA vents?
1. Refueling / Defueling operations
2. Normal venting during flight
3. Provides a "positive" head of pressure to the fuel tanks
during flight.
If fuel inadvertently It is returned to the "Center Tank".

enters the NACA
vents, where does it
go?
Is it normal for the Yes ...

"Center tank" to show
an increase in fuel Fuel has entered the NACA vents and has been returned
quantity during a to the center tank.
climb? This is normal operation.
What do the NACA A positive head of pressure (Ram Air) to the fuel tank
vents provide while in- system.
flight?
What prevents fuel One Way Flow valves.

from moving within the
main tanks during low
wing maneuvers?
How many "Fuel Only one (1), but it has two channels (Channel A and
System Computers" Channel B).
are there on the

aircraft?
If one channel of the The other channel will automatically take control.
Fuel Control Computer
fails what will happen?
When does the "Fuel Continuously

System Computer"
automatically test itself
(BITE)?
What are the names of 1. Main Ejectors

the three (3) different 2. Scavenge Ejectors
ejectors within the fuel 3. Transfer Ejectors
system?
What is the purpose of Provides a positive head of pressure to the Engine Drive
the "Main Ejectors"? HP fuel pumps.
What is the purpose of The transfer ejectors move fuel from the center tank to
the "Transfer Ejectors"? the wing tanks.
What is the purpose of The Scavenge Ejectors move fuel from the wing tanks to
the "Scavenge the collector tanks.
Ejectors"?
What powers the Normally motive flow fuel from the engine drives HP
ejector pumps? pump with the engines operating.
With the engines shutdown the boost pumps provides

the motive flow fuel to power the main ejectors for
engine start.
What is the "Primary" To provide a backup source of fuel pressure in the event
purpose of the fuel of "Main Ejector" failure.
boost pumps?
What is the To provide "Motive Flow" fuel to power the ejector

"Secondary" purpose pumps with the engines shutdown.
of the fuel boost
pumps?
Are the Fuel boost DC powered.

pumps AC or DC
powered?
If only "Battery power" Only the "Left Boost Pump" will operate.
is available will the fuel
boost pumps operate?
Both pumps will Either

operate when _____
switch is selected to
the "ON" position if AC
power is available.
What does actually It will "ARM" the fuel pumps to operate when a decrease
occur when both fuel in pressure is detected within the fuel manifold.
boost pump switches
are selected to "ON"?
During engine start, Both fuel boost pumps will function if only 1 engine is
will "both" fuel boost running. Following the second engine start the boost
pumps be actually pumps are then in the "Armed" position.
working?
Are the Fuel Shutoff Open

Valves normally open
or closed?
How may the Fuel 1. Pressing either ENG FIRE switchlight.

Shutoff Valves be 2. Pressing the APU FIRE switchlight.
"Closed"?
Are the fuel shutoff Electrically operated.

valves spring loaded
or electrically
operated valves?
How is the fuel heated Fuel / Oil heat exchanger

within the fuel system?
What will happen if the "Fuel Filter" caution light illuminates and a bypass valve
fuel filter becomes opens to allow fuel to bypass the fuel filter.
clogged? The Fuel Filter caution light actually means that "Fuel is
about to be bypassed".
Is the APU fuel pump DC powered.

DC or AC powered?
All fuel delivered to Left Collector tank only.

the APU is drawn from
where?
What will occur if the Fuel is automatically drawn from the left collector tank
APU fuel pump fails? via the APU suction.
When does "Automatic When the wing tank fuel quantity reaches 94% the Fuel
Fuel Transfer" occur Control Computer directs the transfer pumps to transfer
from the center tank to fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks.
the wing tanks? Transfer stops when the wing tank level reaches 97%.
By what two (2) means 1. Powered Crossflow (Automatic & Manual)

is fuel crossflow 2. Gravity Crossflow
(balancing) provided
for?
"Powered Crossflow" 1. Automatic

can be accomplished 2. Manual
by two means, what
are they?
How is "Automatic" The Fuel Control Computer will automatically cross flow
powered crossflow fuel when a 200 lb fuel imbalance occurs.
(balancing) between
the main tanks Crossflow operations will stop when the fuel is balanced
achieved? +50 lbs.
How is "Manual" 1. Press the MAN Crossflow switchlight

powered crossflow 2. Activate the crossflow pump on the "Low Tank Side".
(balancing) between - This tells the Cross Flow Pump to pump to that side.
the main tanks
achieved?
At what point will the 800 lb fuel imbalance.

"Fuel Imbalance"
caution light
illuminate?
At what times would Only if the Powered Crossflow system fails!

you use the "Gravity
Crossflow" method to
balance the wing
tanks?
How is "Gravity 1. Select the "Gravity Crossflow" switchlight "OPEN"
Crossflow" (balancing) 2. When fuel is balanced you must manually close the
of the main fuel tanks Crossflow valve again.
achieved?
Where is the Refuel / Right wing root leading edge.
Defuel panel
the aircraft?
What does the Refuel / 1. System testing of the "Fuel System Computer".
Defuel panel allow 2. Pressure fueling in both automatic and manual modes.
for?
What two methods are 1. Digital display

provided for fuel 2. Magnetic Level Indicators (MLI's)
quantity gauging?
How many magnetic 5 Total MLI's

level indicators are
there on the aircraft Two (2) in each Wing Tank
and where are their One (1) in the Center Tank
locations?
On what page of the Primary Page

EICAS system is fuel
quantity displayed?
At what two (2) 1. EICAS Primary Page

locations can you view 2. Fuel Synoptic Page
the fuel quantity?
The digital fuel 1. Total fuel quantity is less than 900 lbs.
quantity readout will 2. Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs.
turn "Amber" when?
What will be displayed Quantity displayed turns to a "1/2 Magenta" color.

on the fuel synoptic
page if the fuel
quantity readings are
invalid?
At what time will the When the Center Fuel tank quantity is at least 10 lbs.
"Center Tank" fuel
quantity indication be
shown as a "Green"
At what time will the When the center fuel tank quantity is 0 lbs.
color?
"Center Tank" fuel
quantity indication be
shown as a "White"
color?
At what times may the During un-coordinated flight.

fuel quantity readout The wings must be level for at least 30 seconds for
be unreliable? accurate fuel level readings.
By what three (3) 1. Automatically following aircraft power-up.

means can the "Fuel 2. Manually by entering a new fuel quantity on the "PERF
Used" readout be INIT" page.
reset? 3. Manually by selecting the fuel synoptic page, then
menu key, then "Fuel Used Reset" (On Ground Only).
Where is the "Bulk Fuel The right wing tank only!

Temperature"
measured from?
The "Bulk Fuel Bulk Fuel Temperature is above -40 degrees C.

Temperature" readout
will be "GREEN"
colored when?
The "Bulk Fuel The Bulk Fuel temperature is below - 40 degrees C.

Temperature" readout
will be "AMBER"
colored when?
At what temperature +5 degrees C or above.

will the Fuel Feed
temperature indicate a
"GREEN" color?
At what temperature Fuel temperature is BELOW + 5 degrees C

will the Fuel Feed
temperature indicate a
"AMBER" color?
If you measure the fuel The "Inclinometer" must be referenced behind the first
tank quantity using the officers seat and compared with the charts to obtain the
Magnetic Level actual fuel quantity.
Indicators (MLI's), what

must be referenced?
Are you allowed to NO
have the fuelers "De-
Fuel" the aircraft? Defueling is a maintenance function!
What is the maximum 500 lbs if "each" main tank fuel quantity is less than 4,400
allowable fuel in the lbs.
center tank for "OR"
takeoff? Each main tank is above 2,000 lbs and:
1. The allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the
weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 lbs.
2. The CG is verified to be within the allowable CG
envelope.
What are the names of Hydraulic System #1

the three independent Hydraulic System #2
hydraulic systems? Hydraulic System #3
What is the "normal" 3,000 psi

operating pressure of
each hydraulic
system?
How many hydraulic 2

pumps does each
hydraulic system have?
Hydraulic Systems #1 Engine Driven Pump

and #2 main pump is
driven by what?
Hydraulic Systems #1 Electric AC Motor pumps

and #2 "backup" pump
is powered by what?
Hydraulic Systems #3 AC Motor Pump

"main" pump is
powered by what?
Hydraulic Systems #3 AC Motor Pump

"backup" pump is
powered by what?
All Hydraulic System AC Motor Pumps

#3's pumps are
powered how?
What hydraulic pumps System #1 Backup Pump

are directly controlled System #2 Backup Pump
from the "Hydraulic System #3 Main Pump
Control Panel"? System #3 Backup Pump
What systems does the Landing Gear

Hydraulic Systems Brakes
power? Steering
Primary Flight Controls
Secondary Flight Controls
Thrust Reversers
What does Hydraulic Left Aileron

System #1 Power? Rudder
Elevator
Outboard Flight Spoilers
Outboard Ground Spoilers
Left Engine Thrust Reverser
What does Hydraulic Right Aileron

System #2 Power? Rudder
Elevator
Inboard Flight Spoilers
Inboard Ground Spoilers
Right Engine Thrust Reverser
Landing Gear Aux Actuators
Outboard Brakes
At what times are Anytime that the respective engine is running.

Hydraulic System #1
and Hydraulic Systems
#2 "MAIN" pumps
actually working?
Hydraulic System #1 Engine Accessory Gearbox

and Hydraulic System
#2's main pumps are
engine driven pumps.
What is actually driving

Do
the the Engine Driven
pumps? No
main pumps for the
hydraulic system have
any control switches?
What are the switch Pump 1B: ON, OFF, AUTO

positions on the Pump 2B: ON, OFF, AUTO
Hydraulic Control Pump 3A: OFF, ON
Panel for the "Backup" Pump 3B: ON, OFF, AUTO
hydraulic pumps?
When in "Auto Mode" Anytime that:

hydraulic pumps 1B, 2B
and 3B will operate 1. AC power is available.
when? 2. Flaps (not Slats) are selected out of the zero degree
position.
What is the purpose of It allows you to operate the hydraulic system backup
the "Ground Interlock" pumps while on the ground without the flaps being
for the Hydraulic selected out of the zero position.
System?
All "Primary Flight Two

Controls" are powered
by at least _____
hydraulic systems.
What systems are Ailerons

powered by "ALL Rudders
THREE" hydraulic Elevators
systems?
What is the purpose of Provides positive pressure to the:

"pressurizing" the
hydraulic systems Engine Driven Main Pumps
reservoir? All Backup Pumps
Where are the They are installed in the "supply lines" of the engine
Hydraulic shutoff driven "Main" pumps.
valves installed within
the hydraulic system?
Are the Hydraulic Open
Shutoff Valves
normally "Open" or
"Closed"?
Where can the Hydraulic System Synoptic Page
hydraulic shutoff valve
position be viewed?
In what ways is it 1. Pressing the "Eng Fire Push" switchlight

possible to "CLOSE" 2. Pressing the "HYD SOV" switchlight
the hydraulic shutoff
valves?
What is the purpose of To isolate the flow of hydraulic fluid from the engine
the "Hydraulic Shutoff driven pumps in the event of:
Valves"?
1. Overheat
2. Fluid Leak
Also provides a means to cool the fluid if necessary.
Which of the hydraulic Hydraulic system #1A

systems require Hydraulic system #2A
cooling?
Why does Hydraulic Because of their close proximity to the aircraft's engines.
Systems #1 and #2
require fluid cooling?
How is the hydraulic Air / Oil Heat Exchanger

fluid cooled for
Hydraulic Systems #1
and #2?
Where does the "AIR" Ram Air Scoop at the base of the tail.
come from to cool the
heat exchanger for the
hydraulic systems?
While operating on the A fan begins to operate within the ram air duct at the
ground what base of the tail anytime that the aircraft is on the ground
automatically happens and stationary.
to provide a greater
amount of cooling air
to the Air/Oil heat
exchangers for the

hydraulic systems?
Which hydraulic Hydraulic System #3
system powers the
"Largest Demands"?
Hydraulic system #3 1. Rudder

provides pressure to 2. Elevator
what systems? 3. Ailerons
4. Inboard Ground Spoilers
5. Landing Gear
6. Nose wheel Steering
Does Hydraulic System No

#3 have any "Engine
Driven" pumps?
Does Hydraulic System No

#3 require fluid
cooling?
When do the Hydraulic Anytime that:

System "Backup
pumps" normally 1. AC Power is available to the pumps.
operate? "AND"
2. The flaps (not slats) are selected out of zero degrees.
NOTE:
You would normally want the backup pumps to operate
for takeoffs and landings.
If the "Main" hydraulic NO. The backup pump must be selected to the "ON"
pump fails while in- position.
flight, will the backup
pump automatically
power the system?
Will the backup Yes

hydraulic pumps
operate if only
"External AC power" is
available to the aircraft
If all AC power is lost System #3

while in-flight with the
engines not operating The ADG will power hydraulic system 3B pump
(APU not running), regardless of switch position.
what provides
hydraulic power?
If all AC power is lost It doesn't matter.

while in-flight and the Pump 3B will automatically provide System #3 pressure
ADG deploys, what regardless of pump switch position.
position must hydraulic
system #3 pump 3B be
selected to for
operation of the
system 3B pump?
At what point does the Below 1,800 PSI

Hydraulic system
pressure readout turn
"AMBER" on the
hydraulic system
synoptic page?
At what point does the Above 1,800 psi

Hydraulic system
"GREEN" on the
hydraulic system
synoptic page?
At what point does the Above 3,200 PSI

Hydraulic system
"WHITE" on the
hydraulic system
synoptic page?
When will the Below 96 degrees C

Hydraulic system
"Temperature" readout
indicate "GREEN" on
the hydraulic synoptic

When will the
page? Above or equal to 96 degrees C
Hydraulic system
"Temperature" readout
indicate "AMBER" on
the hydraulic synoptic
page?
When will the Between 45% and 85%

Hydraulic System
"Quantity" readout
indicate "GREEN"?
When will the Below 45% or Greater than 85%

Hydraulic System
"Quantity" readout
indicate "AMBER"?
At what point will "ALL" When fluid quantity drops below 5%

hydraulic system fluid
quantities disappear
on the hydraulic
synoptic page?
If the "Engine Driven If the pump malfunctions and overheats the "Shear Pin"
Hydraulic Pumps" will break.
overheat how can they There is no manual means of disconnecting the engine
be disconnected? driven hydraulic pumps. They are driven by the gear box
and constantly operate anytime that the engine is
operating.
What systems are 1. Cowl Anti-Ice

protected by the "Ice 2. Wing Anti-Ice
and Rain" protection 3. Forward Windshields
systems? 4. Side Windows
5. Air Data Probes & Sensors
6. Ice Detection System
7. Windshield wipers
What provides anti- Anti-Ice protection for the tail is not required!
icing for the tail?
With regards to the Ice 1. Cowl Anti-Ice

Protection system, 2. Wing Anti-Ice (including slats)
which areas are

protected with bleed
air?
The Anti-Ice synoptic pneumatically

page only shows those
areas which are ______
de-iced.
With regards to the 1. Forward Windshields

Anti-Ice system, which 2. Side Windows (De-Misted only)
areas are "electrically" 3. Windshield wipers
protected? 4. Air Data Probes
5. Ice Detection Probes
How many Ice Two (2) fully independent systems

Detection systems are
there on the CRJ700?
What must occur for At least one (1) ice detection system must have sensed
an "Ice" caution to Ice.
occur?
Where are the "Ice One on each side of the nose below the pilot's
Detect Probes" windshields.
the aircraft?
Each "Ice Detector" A probe and a microprocessor.

consists of what?
The ice detect probes The ice detect probe "decreases" its vibration to the pre-
vibrate within the set trip point.
slipstream. What
causes the "ICE"
annuciator to display?
When "ICE" is detected 1. EICAS "Primary Page"

the "ICE" caution 2. Anti-Ice Synoptic Page
message is displayed
where?
What would occur if You would receive a "ICE DETECT FAIL" Caution
"BOTH" anti-ice Message on the EICAS Primary Page.
systems were to fail?
What would occur if You would receive a "#1/#2 ICE DETECT FAIL" status
"ONE" anti-ice systems message on the EICAS.
were to fail?
If Ice is detected a The "ICE" caution message is replaced by an "ICE"

"ICE" caution message advisory message on the status page.
will be displayed on
the EICAS Primary
Page. What occurs
following selection of
the wing anti-ice
switches to the "ON"
position?
When "ICE" is They are automatically electrically heated for as long as

detected, how are the ice is detected.
Ice Detection Probes They will automatically turn "OFF" the heating source
heated and for how after a pre-determined amount of time following clear of
long? icing conditions.
Will the Ice Detect NO ... The probes will heat and cool for as long as ice is
Probes receive heat detected.
continuously when ice
is detected?
When conducting the 1. Switchlight illuminates.

"Ice Detection" test 2. "ICE" is annunciated
what indications are
you looking for? HOT WING: White "ICE" status message
COLD WING: Amber "ICE" caution message
3. "ADS HEAT TEST OK" advisory message displays.
Selecting the "Cowl 1. Engine Cowls (pneumatically)

Anti-Ice" switches to 2. T2 Probe sensor within the engine cowls (electrically)
the "ON" position will
de-ice what?
By what two (2) means 1. Automatically by the FADEC computer.

may the T2 Inlet 2. Manually by selecting the "Engine Cowl" anti-ice
Temperature probe be switches to "ON".
de-iced?
What is the purpose of It measures inlet air temperature.

the T2 probe within the
engine nacelle?
Are the "Cowl Anti-Ice They are normally always "OPEN".

Valves" normally fail
saved "OPEN" or
Closed"?
What is required to 1. DC Electrical power

"CLOSE" the cowl anti- 2. Bleed Air
ice valves?
Where are the "Cowl Aft Equipment Bay

Anti-Ice Valves"
the aircraft?
At what times will you 1. Pressure in the duct with the cowl anti-ice selected to
receive a "L/R COWL "OFF".
A/I" caution message? 2. No pressure within the duct with the cowl anti-ice
selected to "ON".
What directs the hot Piccolo Tubes

bleed air into the
engine cowls when the
cowl anti-ice is
selected to "ON"?
Where is the exhaust Through louvers on the underside of the engine.

bleed air expelled
from when the engine
anti-ice system is
selected to "ON"?
What portion of the Wing leading edges and slats.

wings is de-iced when
the "Wing Anti-Ice" is
selected to "ON"?
Where does the left Left Engine

wing "Normally"
receive its bleed air for
de-icing?
Where does the right Right Engine

wing "Normally"
receive its bleed air for
de-icing?
What controls the The respective "Anti-ice Leak Detection Controller"

amount of bleed air (AILC) modulates the wing anti-ice valve.
which travels through
the wing for de-icing
purposes?
Is it possible to de-ice YES

the left wing if the #1
engine fails? By selecting the "Wing Crossbleed Valve" to the "Right
Wing" position.
What actually occurs if 1. The "right wing anti-ice valve closes.

the "Wing Crossbleed 2. The wing crossbleed valve opens.
Valve" is selected to 3. "WING ISOL OPEN" message appears on EICAS.
the "From Left"
position?
What actually occurs if 1. Left wing anti-ice valve closes.

the "Wing Crossbleed 2. Cross bleed valve "OPENS".
Valve" is selected to 3. "WING ISOL OPEN" message appears on EICAS.
the "From Right"
position?
If the "Wing Cross It will fail in the last position selected when power was
Bleed Valve" fails, does removed.
it fail OPEN or Closed?
How does the "Anti-Ice It modulates the wing anti-ice valve to maintain the wing
Leak Detection temperature depending on the temperature schedule.
System" (AILS)
regulate wing
temperatures?
Each Anti-Ice Leak Two (2)

Detection System has
how many channels?
How many sensors are Four (4) ... Channel A controls 2 and channel B controls 2.
there in each wing

used to control and
monitor wing
temperature when
using the wing anti-ice
system?
What is the purpose of Measures for a wing anti-ice duct "Under heat condition".
the wing temperature
sensors on the
outboard portion of
the wing?
What is the purpose of Monitors the wing temperature for a "Overheat"

the wing temperature condition.
sensors on the inboard
portion of the wing?
If an "Under heat" 1. "L/R Wing A/I" caution message on EICAS.

condition is detected 2. Wing anti-ice duct turns an amber color.
by the wing sensors
for the wing anti-ice
system what is
displayed?
If an "Overheat" 1. Triple Chime

condition is detected 2. "WING OVHT" warning message is displayed on
by the wing sensors EICAS.
for the wing anti-ice 3. "Wing Overheat" voice message is heard.
system what is 4. Wing anti-ice duct turns a red color.
displayed?
At what times does the When slats are extended.

wing anti-ice system
heat the wings to the
"HIGH" temperature
schedule?
At what times does the With the slats retracted.

wing anti-ice system
heat the wings to the
"LOW" temperature
schedule?
Are the "Wing Anti-Ice CLOSED

Valves" fail saved
OPEN or CLOSED?
When will the "Wing 1. Overheat is detected within the wing.

Anti-Ice Valves" 2. Bleed air supply is removed.
automatically 3. Electrical power to the valve is removed.
"CLOSE"?
The wing anti-ice ducts Piccolo Tubes

are referred to as _____.
Where is exhaust Underneath the wing leading edge (upper surface).

bleed air utilized by
the wing anti-ice
system expelled from?
How is bleed air Through telescoping Piccolo Tubes interconnected by

ducted to the slats for flexible connectors.
de-ice purposes?
What will the N2 A variable white arc ranging from 0% to 77%.

gauge indicate when
the wing anti-ice is
selected to "ON"?
What is the purpose of Keeping the N2 RPM above the white arc ensures
the variable white arc adequate bleed air to de-ice the wings.
on the N2 indicator?
What will automatically 1. Triple Chime is heard

occur if a wing 2. Respective wing anti-ice valve will close.
"OVERHEAT" occurs? 3. "L/R WING OVHT" warning is displayed on the EICAS
Primary Page.
4. Anti-ice ducting will turn RED.
5. Aural "Wing Overheat" is heard.
What is indicated if a The "outboard sensors" of the wing has detected an

"L/R WING A/I" under heat in the wing anti-ice system.
caution message is The flow lines will turn amber in color and a "L/R WING
displayed on the A/I" caution is displayed.
EICAS Primary Page?
When does the wing Only during initial aircraft power-up.
anti-ice system
automatically test
itself?
What three (3) 1. Tests circuitry and probes. (ICE msg)
functions does the "Ice 2. Tests probe heating (ADS HEAT TEST)
Detector Test" 3. Tests the icing indicator switchlight.
accomplish?
How are the forward Electrically

windshields heated?
How are the side Electrically - De-misted only

windows heated?
How many Four (4)

temperature One for each windshield & side window
controllers are there
for the windshields?
Are the windshield Yes

temperature
controllers
interchangeable?
Each window is True

controlled by a
separate controller.
True or False
What occurs when the The windshield goes through a "warm-up" cycle and is
left windshield is then heated to low.
selected to the "LOW"
position? Side window is heated to low (De-Misted).
What occurs when the The windshield goes through a warm-up cycle and is
left windshield is then heated to high heat.
selected to the "HIGH"
position? The side window remains in "LOW" position (De-misted
only).
The "LH WSHLD" heat 1. Left forward windshield

switch controls what 2. Left side window.
windows?
The windshield heat OFF / RESET
switches are three (3) LOW

position switches. HIGH
What are the switch
positions?
What occurs when the 1. Power is removed from the respective windows.
windshield heat 2. Temperature controller is reset.
switches are placed in
the OFF/RESET
position.
What is meant if the 1. The windshield heat is selected to "OFF"

"L/R WSHLD HEAT" "or"
caution message is 2. The windshield has overheated.
displayed on EICAS?
What will automatically 1. A "L/R WSHLD HEAT" caution message is displayed.

occur if the 2. Power is removed from the window.
windshields
overheats?
How is the "Probe By switches on the "Anti-Ice Control Panel".

Heat" controlled?
The "Probe Heat" Ground control switches

switches can be
thought of as _______.
With the "Probe Heat" The pitot heat is in "Low Heat" (1/2 Power) anytime there
switches selected to is an operating generator on-line.
the "OFF" position is
anything heated while
on the ground?
The "Left" probe heat Captain's side of aircraft.

switch controls what
probes?
The "Right" probe heat First Officer's side of aircraft.

switch controls what
probes?
Does the "Probe Heat" No .. all probes goes to high heat passing 60 kts on the
switches have any takeoff roll regardless of switch position.
control when the

aircraft is airborne?
In "Ground Mode" of Probe Heat switches selected "OFF":
the probe heat, what is
heated with: 1. No heat to static ports and AOA vane.
Probe Heat switches 2. Pitot probes 1/2 power with an operating generator
selected "OFF": on-line.
Probe Heat switches
selected "ON": Probe Heat switches selected "ON":
1. Full power to static ports and AOA vane.

2. Pitot probes 1/2 power with an operating generator
on-line.
What is the purpose of To de-ice the static ports during "Ground Icing"
the "Probe Heat" conditions.
switches?
What is required to An engine generator must be on-line.

provide power to the
"pitot probes" during
ground operations?
Landing gear position ED #1 Primary Page

is displayed where?
At what times is the 1. Gear selected down.

Landing Gear position 2. Flaps selected down.
indicator displayed? 3. BTMS temperatures not normal.
4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed message.
How many PSS sensors Main Gear: 2 (Dual PSS Sensors for redundancy)
are there for the
landing gear? Nose Gear: 2 (Dual PSS Sensors for redundancy)
Main Gear? / Nose
Gear?
At what time is the 30 seconds after:

landing gear indication
system removed from 1. Gear is up and locked.
view on the Primary 2. Flaps are up.
Page?
3. BTMS system indicates normal temperatures.

Which hydraulic Hydraulic
4. No FlapSystem
or Slat #3
1/2 speed message.
system powers the
landing gear system?
At what time does During "Alternate Gear Extension".

Hydraulic System #2
assist Hydraulic System
#3 in regards to
landing gear extension
and retraction?
Does the main landing NO

gear doors "fully
enclose" the main gear The tire assembly remains exposed.
wheel bays?
Does the nose landing Yes

gear doors "fully
enclose" the nose gear
wheel bay?
What will be the Amber hash marks (------) are displayed.

indication on the
landing gear indicator
while the gear is in
transit?
What will be displayed The amber hash marks (-----) will turn RED.
on the landing gear
indicator if the gear
stays "In Transient" too
long?
The landing gear False

handle is mechanically
connected to the
landing gear system.
TRUE or FALSE
How are the "up-locks" Hydraulically

for the landing gear
system released using
the normal extension

system?
How is the "Main Gear" 1. Hydraulically
locked in the down 2. Two (2) over-center springs
position?
Does the "Main Gear" Inwards

retract inwards or
outwards?
How are the "Main They are mechanically fixed to the main gear strut.
Gear" doors attached
to the airframe?
What is provided to Anti-Spin Mechanism

stop the tire rotation of
the nose gear
following retraction?
How is the nose 1. Mechanical Up-Lock assembly

landing gear held up? 2. Over-center mechanism
How is the "up-lock" Hydraulically

released when
extending the nose Note:
landing gear? Utilizes the Aux #2 actuator powered by Hydraulic
System #2.
How is the nose gear Over-center mechanism

held in the down (Same mechanism which held it up)
position?
In which direction Forward

does the nose landing
gear retract?
Is the nose gear bay Yes

fully enclosed with the
gear retracted?
With the gear selected No

down, do the nose They remain open.
gear doors close and
cover the gear bay?
What feature on the A "Down Lock" solenoid.

landing gear system

prevents an "UP"
selection of the gear
If a PSS fails after "Down-lock Release" button must be depressed to

takeoff in the landing mechanically retract the solenoid pin.
gear system, what
must be accomplished
to raise the gear?
The landing Gear Horn 1. Flaps are selected beyond 20 degrees with the gear
will sound when: up.
"OR"
2. The speed is below a predetermined value.
"OR"
3. One (1) thrust lever is selected toward IDLE with the
gear up.
The landing gear horn 1. Flaps are selected more than 30 degrees with the gear
"Cannot be Muted" up.
when: "OR"
2. Both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
At what times will the During windshear conditions.

landing gear horn
"automatically" mute?
What is indicated on "HORN MUTED" advisory message on Status Page.

EICAS when the gear
horn is manually
selected to "MUTE"?
The "TOO LOW GEAR" 1. Within 500 feet AGL

warning will sound "AND"
when: 2. Below 190 kts.
When is the main gear 1. Failure of the landing gear control circuitry.
"Emergency Extension" 2. Loss of System #3 Hydraulic pressure.
procedure used?
What is accomplished MAIN Gear:

by pulling the Mechanically releases the uplocks.
Allows gear to free fall down assisted by Hydraulic
"Alternate Gear T- System #2 pressure.

Handle"?
NOSE GEAR:
Hydraulic system #2 pressure releases the uplocks and
the slipstream forces the nose gear down.
Once the landing gear Hydraulic System #3 pressure must be restored.
is extended using the
alternate system, what
must happen in order
to raise the gear again
using the normal
system?
What Hydraulic Hydraulic system #2 "Aux Actuator" assists in main gear

systems are required extension.
to extend the gear
using the "Alternate Hydraulic System #2 assists in releasing the "Uplocks" for
Gear Extension" the nose gear.
method?
What caution lights The nose gear will not extend if "Both" the "#2 HYD LOW
would prevent the PRESS" and the #3 HYD LOW PRESS" caution lights are
nose gear from illuminated.
extending using the System #2 pressure is required to release the uplocks for
alternate gear the nose gear!
extension method?
Main landing gear Single Loop overheat detection wire.

bays contains what to
provide for "Over-Heat
Protection"?
When conducting the MLG BAY OVHT:

"Main Landing Gear Checks the continuity of the loops.
Overheat" test, what Generates a "MLG BAY OVHT" warning on EICAS if the
are you actually test was successful.
testing in the following
switch positions? MLG OVHT FAIL:
MLG BAY OVHT / MLG Simulates a failure of the overheat "Detection" system.
OVHT FAIL Generates a "MLG OVHT FAIL" caution on EICAS if
successful.
Is the nose wheel NO

steering system It is a "Steer By Wire" system.

directly connected to
the rudder pedals?
What hydraulic system Hydraulic System #3
powers the nose wheel
steering system?
What are the steering POWERED:

limits of the nose 80 degrees left and right
wheel steering
system? UNPOWERED:
8 degress left and right
FREE CASTORS:
80 degrees left and right
During towing 360 degrees

operations the torque
links can be removed
to provide what
degree of nose wheel
castor?
Where is the torque On the back of the nose gear assembly.

links actually located
on the nose wheel
steering system?
What is indicated if a A "STEERING INOP" caution message is displayed on

failure occurs within EICAS.
the nose steering
system? System will default to the free castor mode (+/- 80
degrees) steering.
If the nose wheel The nose wheel steering will default to the free castor
steering system mode of 80 degrees.
"faults", what will
automatically happen?
How many "Fuse 4

Plugs" are there on
each tire?
What are the wheel Steel Brakes

brakes constructed of?
The inboard brakes are Hydraulic System #3

powered by what
hydraulic system?
The outboard brakes Hydraulic System #2

are powered by what
hydraulic system?
In order to check the The parking brake must be set.

"Brake Wear Indicator
Pins" what must be
accomplished?
Normally how many of All Four Wheels.

the main wheels will
"hold" if the parking
brake is applied?
With the hydraulics Only the "Inboard Brakes".

"OFF" which wheel
brakes will hold?
With the hydraulics 6 brake applications.

"OFF" how many
parking brake
applications will the
accumulator permit?
Loss of either 50%

Hydraulic System #2 or
Hydraulic System #3
will cause a loss of
____% of braking
capacity.
The "Anti-Skid Control Independently

Unit" will regulate
brake pressure to each
wheel brake
"Independently" or
At what times is the
"Together"? 1. With the parking brake set.
Anti-Skid system 2. Below 10 kts.
disabled? 3. Anti-Skid System selected to "OFF".
4. In-flight
What conditions must 1. Switch must be selected to "ARM".

be met to "ARM" the 2. Parking brake must be OFF.
Anti-Skid system? 3. At least one (1) main landing gear must be down.
When will the Anti-Skid 1. Above 35 kts

system become "OR"
"OPERATIONAL" after 2. Weight on Wheels + 5 seconds (with wheel speed
landing? sensor failure)
At what times does the 1. During aircraft power-up.

"Anti-Skid" system test 2. Continuously thereafter.
itself?
Where are the brake On the EICAS ED #2 Status Page.

temperatures
displayed?
Brake temperatures are 1. Landing Gear is extended.

displayed when: 2. Flaps or Slats are extended.
3. Brake temperatures are not normal.
4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed Message.
What is the numerical 1 to 20

range of the brake
temperature system
(BTMS)?
Each number on the 95 degrees F

BTMS system 35 degrees C
represents an increase
of how many degrees?
Is it required to Yes
confirm that the brake
temperatures are
within the normal
operating range prior

to takeoff?
Once the brake The "BTMS OVHT WARN RESET" button must be pressed
temperatures cool to restore the color logic of the indicator.
following a brake
overheat warning,
what must be
accomplished?
Once the BTMS system YES ... but the color logic must be reset.
displays an overheat,
will the numerical
values read accurately
as the brake
temperatures cool?
If the BTMS monitoring (----) (----) (----) (----)

system fails, what will Amber Dashes
the indicator show?
The EFIS system 4 .... 2 on each side!

consists of how many
CRT displays?
Each pilot is provided 1. Primary Flight Display (PFD)

flight information on 2. Multi-Function Display (MFD)
two displays with the
EFIS system. What are
the display names?
What are the 7 1. HSI

available NAV formats 2. Nav Air Sector Map
for the Multi-Function 3. FMS Map
Displays (MFD's)? 4. FMS Plan Map (North Up)
5. Radar
6. EGPWS
7. TCAS
What other displays 1. Primary Flight Display (PFD)

can be transferred to 2. EICAS Display
display on the Multi-
Function Display
through the
"Reversionary Display
Panel"?
What is the purpose of It "directly controls" what is displayed on the Multi-
the "Reversionary Function Display.
Display Panel"? Used in the event that a Primary Flight Display (PFD) or
EICAS display were to fail.
What is the purpose of It provides an alternate source of data to "Both" the PFD
the "Source Selector displays at the same time.
Panel"?
Each Display Control NORM

Panel will control its
respective EFIS
displays provided that
_____ is selected on the
Source Selection
Panel.
Selecting the "Source It will allow the selected Display Control Panel to
Selection Panel's" operate both the pilot's and First Officer's EFIS displays.
DISPL CONT knob to It is used in the event one Display Control Panel were to
either the 1 or 2 fail.
position will do what?
If the Source Selection Either DCP1 or DCP2, depending on which alternate

Panel's "DSPL CONT" control was selected.
knob were selected to
either the 1 or 2
position, what would
be displayed on the
Primary Flight
Displays?
What is the purpose of It selects the altimeter settings and speeds.

the "Air Data Reference
Panel"?
The EFIS "Comparison Pilot and First Officer's Primary Flight Displays.
Monitor" compares
what two (2)
instruments?
If the EFIS A caution message will be displayed on the pilot's and

"Comparator Monitor" First Officer's Primary Flight Display indicating what
detects a mismatch, system has mismatched (HDG, ROL,IAS,ALT,LOC,GS,RA).
how is it displayed to
the pilots?
What information does 1. Heading: Difference of more than 6 degrees

the "Comparison 2. Roll: Difference of 4 degrees before glideslope
Monitor" compare and capture
what are the Difference of 3 degrees after glideslope capture
tolerances? 3. IAS: Airspeed difference of more than 10 kts
4. Altitude: Altitude difference of more than 60 feet
5. Localizer: Any difference between receivers
6. Glideslope: Any difference between receivers
7. Radar Altitude: Only monitored within 1,000 feet AGL
What are the 1. Captain's Pitot Tube (P1)

components of the 2. First Officer's Pitot Tube (P2)
Pitot Static System? 3. Standby Pitot Tube (P3)
4. Captain's Static Source (S1)
5. First Officer's Static Source (S2)
6. Static Source to ISI (S3)
Where is the "Total Air Below the First Officer's side window.
Temperature" probe
the aircraft?
What references can 1. Altimeter

the "Air Data Reference 2. MDA
Panel" set? 3. DA
4. Takeoff Speeds (V1, V2 and Vr)
5. Target Speed (VT)
What is the range of 40 to 400 kts

the "Airspeed Tape"
along the left side of
the Primary Flight
Display?
What errors are 1. IAS

displayed on the 2. ALT
Primary Flight Display 3. V/S
with "Air Data Flags"

(Red Boxed)?
"Low Flap Speed Cues" Red/Black barber pole on speed tape

are displayed on the
Primary Flight Display
by what means?
"High Flap Speed Red/Black Barber pole on speed tape.

Cues" are displayed on
the Primary Flight
Display by what
means?
What is the function of It displays where the airspeed will be in 10 seconds at

the "Trend Vector"? the current trend.
The airspeed "Trend Above .45 mach

Vector" will only show
above what airspeed?
At what airspeed will Above .45 Mach

the "Mach Number" be
displayed on the
Primary Flight Display?
At what airspeed will Below .40 Mach

the "Mach Number"
disappear from the
display on the Primary
Flight Display?
When is "Speed Anytime that the autopilot is engaged and the ALT/ALTS
Reversion" active? mode is not engaged.
What will occur during The aircraft will pitch up to slow the airspeed.
"Speed Reversion" if
the maximum airspeed
is exceeded?
At what times will the Approaching the selected altitude (Acquisition Mode):
altitude alert sound? - Alert sounds when within 1,000 feet
Altitude Deviations (Deviation Mode):

What does the Numerical readout
- Alert sounds whenwill flash "AMBER".
deviations of 300 feet occur
numerical readout of
the altitude alert do
when deviations
exceed 300 feet?
With "Vertical Nav" Altitude Tape: Snowflake

selected (Vnav) what VSI: Doughnut
symbols will indicate
the appropriate rate of NOTE:
descent on: The snowflake and Doughnut will only display when:
Altitude Tape: ? / - At least a 100 fpm climb rate is indicated.
Vertical Speed - At least a 500 fpm descent rate is indicated.
Indicator: ?
What is the "Altitude -20 to 2,500 feet

Range" displayed for
the Radar Altimeter?
The "Radar Altitude" Within 200 feet AGL: AMBER Cross Hatched
readout will display Above DA: GREEN
what when: Below DA: AMBER
Within 200 feet AGL /
Above DA / Below DA:
?
What is the digital 0 to 999 feet

range which may be
set by the pilot when
setting MDA or DA?
Selected Decision By a Cyan (blue) reference line.

Height / MDA is
display on the "Altitude
Tape" how?
If the Radar Altimeter By a red Boxed "RA" displayed on the Primary Flight
data becomes "Invalid" Display.
how is it indicated?
What is the purpose of In "MAG Mode" it will cause the compass to slew to a
the "Slew Switch" on new value, however it will return to its original value
the Compass Control once the switch is released.

Panel?
In "DG Mode" it will slew the compass in the selected
direction.
If the AHARS are ON GROUND: Do not move the aircraft!
indicating "ATT/HDG
ALIGNING DO NOT IN FLIGHT: Hold the aircraft "Straight and Level" for the
TAXI" what action first 30 seconds of alignment.
should be taken when:
ON GROUND / IN
FLIGHT: ?
The "IRS system" can (NAV) NAV Mode

be operated in two (2) (ATT) ATTITUDE Mode
modes. What are they?
What is the difference NAV mode will supply all position data.
between the NAV
mode and the ATT ATT mode will not supply "position data".
mode of the IRS
system?
Is it possible to re- No
align the IRS while in-
flight and in "NAV"
mode?
How long must the 3 minutes

aircraft remain
stationary when re-
aligning the IRS while
in "NAV" mode?
One (1) brick 2 Balls

deflection on the "Slip
/ Skid" indicator is
equal to how many
balls width on a
conventional slip/skid
indicator?
What does "AMI" stand Alpha Margin Indicator

for in relation to
windshear indications?
What does the "Alpha It represents the maximum pitch allowed prior to
Margin Indicator" reaching "Stick Shaker".
represent when
displayed on the
during a windshear
encounter?
How long will the For the longer of:

Alpha Margin Indicator
(whiskers) be displayed 30 seconds after the windshear encounter has ended
following a windshear "or"
encounter? 60 seconds from windshear "Onset" minimum
An "AMBER" windshear Increasing performance

alert is displayed for
what?
A "RED" windshear Decreasing Performance

alert is displayed for
what?
Each circle on the 1/4 degrees of deviation

"glideslope" display is
equal to what? NOTE:
There are 2 circles above and 2 circles below the "On
Glideslope" attitude.
The Primary Flight Pitch Exceeds: +30 degrees to -20 degrees

Display will "De-
Clutter" when: Bank Exceeds: 65 degrees
Pitch Exceeds: ? / Bank
Exceeds: ?
During the "De- Only Essential Information

Clutter" function of the
Primary Flight Displays,
what type of
information is
displayed?
If the Primary Flight When the Pitch and Roll limits are restored.
Displays have "De-
Cluttered", when will
normal operation
resume?
When operating in the 5 degrees deviation

"VOR Mode", what
does each dot of
deviation represent on
the Primary Flight
Display?
When operating in the 1 degrees deviation

"LOC Mode", what
does each dot of
the Primary Flight
Display?
When operating in the 5 NM deviation

"FMS Mode", what
does each dot of
the Primary Flight
Display?
What are the "NAV 1. VOR 1 / LOC 1

SOURCE" selections 2. VOR 2 / LOC 2
available to display on 3. FMS 1 / FMS 2
the Primary Flight 4. OFF
Displays?
When displaying Display indications are "AMBER" in color.

"Cross Side"
information how is it
identified?
If the #1 DME is in 1. An amber "H" is displayed next to the frequency on the

"HOLD" function, how Nav radio.
is it displayed? 2. An amber "H" is displayed on the PFD next to the NAV
Identifier and the station identifier information is

The ADF and VOR Bearings from #1 receivers are: Single Line (Magenta)
removed.
"Bearing Pointers" on Bearings from #2 receivers are: Double Line (Cyan)
the primary Flight
Display can display
both ADF #1 and ADF
#2 as well as VOR #1
and VOR #2. How can
you tell the needles
apart?
What is indicated if a The associated Display Control Panel has failed.

RED Boxed "DCP 1 or Select the "Source Selection Panels" DSPL CONT switch
DCP 2" warning is to the opposite Display Control Panel.
displayed on the The selected Display Control Panel will now operate
Primary Flight both sides.
Displays?
If a CRT overheats, A red "DISPLY TEMP" is indicated on the associated

what is displayed? display.
If a CRT overheats is it YES

possible to regain the It will automatically resume operation once the display
displays function? cools again.
What information can 1. HSI

be displayed on the 2. Navaid Sector Map
Multi-Function 3. FMS Map
Display? 4. FMS Plan Map (North Up Map)
5. Radar
6. TCAS / EGPWS
7. Maintenance Diagnostics
8. EICAS Information as Reversionary (Status Page)
9. PFD as Reversionary
Rotating the "Format" 1. HSI

knob on the Display 2. Nav Sector Map
Control Panel will 3. FMS Map
cycle through what 4. FMS Plan Map (North Up Map)
different formats? 5. Radar
The "Radar" will not 1. HSI

overlay on what Multi- 2. FMS Plan Map
Function Display
formats?
The "Terrain" format 1. HSI
will not overlay on 2. FMS Plan Map
what other Multi- 3. Radar
Function Display
Formats?
What functions will the 1. Altitude

Integrated Standby 2. Airspeed
Indicator (ISI) provide? 3. Attitude
What source powers Battery Bus

the Integrated Standby
Indicator (ISI)?
Where does the NAV #1 or the Backup Tuning Unit (BTU)

Integrated Standby
Indicator (ISI) receive
its navigation data
from?
What does the "CAGE" It will reset the horizon to 0 degrees when held in for 2
button do on the seconds.
Integrated Standby
Instrument (ISI)?
What does the "STD" Changes the barometric pressure to 29.92" HG.
button do on the
Integrated Standby
Instrument (ISI)?
How can you tell what A dot will appear above the selected mode on the
mode the clock is clock.
displaying?
What is the warning 1. Stalls

"Priority" order of the 2. Windshear
EGPWS system? 3. Ground Prox
How many VHF Two (2)

"Navigation Radios"
are installed?
Each "Navigational One (1) VOR/DME

Radio" is capable of Two additional DME Channels
receiving what?
At what times will the Only when "Auto Tune" is selected and:
FMS tune the #1 DME
channel? 1. DME Hold is "OFF"
2. Nav Source is selected to FMS (White Needles)
What is the FMS 1. ADF Radio Frequencies

display capable of 2. Transponder Codes
tuning? 3. Channel #1 of Nav Radios
4. Com Frequencies
What three (3) 1. Active Frequency

frequencies are 2. Standby Frequency
displayed on the "Top 3. Recall Frequency
Page" of the RTU's?
When the "DME Hold" 1. An amber "H" is displayed on the RTU Main and Top
is selected what is pages.
displayed to indicate 2. Amber "H" is displayed on the PFD and MFD.
its selection? (Replaces the NM indication)
With the "Auto Tune" DME Channels 2 and 3

disabled, what
navigation frequencies
will the FMS utilize for
navigation?
What three (3) 1. VOR

navigational sources 2. LOC
may be selected using 3. FMS
the "Nav Source" knob
on the Display Control
Panel?
ADF needle #1 on the Single Line / Magenta

is shown as a _____ line
needle and colored
what color?
ADF needle #2 on the Double Line / Cyan (Blue)

is shown as a _____ line
needle and colored
what color?
In order for the ADF A valid ADF frequency must be selected for the pointers
needles to display on to display.
the PFD's what must be
selected?
ADF bearing pointers 1. Primary Flight Display

may be displayed on 2. Multifunction Display
what two (2)
instruments?
From what instruments 1. RTU's

may the frequencies 2. FMS CDU
be changed for the
ADF's?
How many Two (2)

transponders are
installed on the
aircraft?
From what panel are Backup RTU

the transponders
selected from?
Can the transponders No ... Receive Only!

"interrogate" while on
the ground?
How many antennas Two (2)

does each Upper Fuselage and Lower Fuselage.
transponder have and
where are they
located?
If the transponder is in WHITE

the "STBY" mode what
color will its frequency
be displayed as?
If the transponder is in GREEN
the "1 or 2" position

what color will its
frequency be
displayed as?
The "Enhanced Ground 1. Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF)
Proximity Warning 2. Terrain / Obstacle Awareness Display (TAAD)
System" (EGPWS) has
two databases, what
are they?
The Terrain Clearance 1. Worldwide coverage of all airports with at least a

Floor (TCF) database 3,500 foot runway.
includes what? 2. Provides increased protection around the center point
of airports.
The Terrain / Obstacle 1. All of U.S with parts of Mexico, Canada, and the
Awareness Display Bahamas.
(TAAD) database 2. All known obstacles at least 100 feet high (except man
includes what? made).
3. Provides protection for potential conflicts ahead of
the aircraft!
Which has Windshear Warnings

precedence,
windshear warnings or
ground prox
warnings?
What is the "Priority" of 1. Stall Warning

ground prox 2. Windshear Warning
warnings? 3. Ground Prox Warning
The EGPWS utilizes Shading or Low Density:

"color logic" to display No immediate threat to aircraft!
terrain information
ahead of the aircraft. Solid or High Density:
What is meant by the Immediate Danger
following colors? Voice Warning is heard
Shading or Low EGPWS switchlight flashes
Density? / Solid or
High Density?
What will automatically The terrain overlay will automatically display on the MFD
occur if conflicting if it isn't already displayed.

terrain is detected
ahead of the aircraft? Range is automatically set to 10 NM
"Caution Terrain" or "Caution Obstacle" voice is heard
Ground Prox switchlight flashes

When receiving a 60 seconds
"Caution" from the
EGPWS system, how
long is available prior
to impact?
When receiving a 30 seconds

"Warning" from the
EGPWS system, how
long is available prior
to impact?
What two (2) warnings 1. Terrain Warnings

may be inhibited on 2. Flap Warnings
the EGPWS system?
The EGPWS system 1st alert: (Soft Alert)

will alert the pilots if More than 1.3 dots below glide path
the aircraft descends Audio volume is at 1/2
below the glide path "Glideslope" audio is heard
during approach. What
are the two (2) alerts? 2nd Alert: (Hard Alert)
Within 300' AGL / 2 dots low
Audio volume is at "FULL"
"Glideslope" audio is heard
During a "Windshear 2 seconds after a "Windshear Warning".

alert" the autopilot is
automatically
disconnected after
how long?
TCAS indications are 1. Primary Flight Display (above VSI)

presented on what two 2. Multifunction Display
(2) instruments?
TCAS "Other Traffic" is Blue "Open" diamond

displayed how?
TCAS "Proximity Blue "Solid" Diamond

Traffic" is displayed
how?
What is the definition Within 1,200 feet / 6 nautical miles of your aircraft.
of "Proximity Traffic"
with regards to the
TCAS System?
A TCAS "Traffic Target aircraft is within 40 seconds CPA. Displayed as a

Advisory" alert is "Solid Yellow Circle".
generated when, and
how is it displayed?
A TCAS "Resolution Target aircraft's approach is within 25 seconds CPA.

Advisory" alert is Displayed as a "Solid Red Square".
generated when and
how is it displayed?
If a TCAS "Resolution 5 seconds

Advisory" is generated,
you must respond
within what time
frame?
If a TCAS "Corrective 2.5 seconds

RA" is generated, you
must respond within
what time frame?
If an arrow appears The target aircraft is either climbing or descending at

next to a TCAS target least 500 fpm in the direction of the arrow.
what does it mean?
All TCAS "RA Takeoff: No RA's below 1,100 feet.

Advisories" are No Descent commands below 1,200 feet.
inhibited when?
Takeoff:
Landing: Landing: No RA's below 900 feet.
No Descent commands below 1,000 feet.
The TCAS system "will 1,450 feet agl

not" instruct you to
"Increase Descent"
when below what
altitude?
It is possible to have 1. Airport elevations above 5,300 feet.

insufficient 2. Bank angle in excess of 15 degrees.
performance to follow 3. Single Engine operations.
a TCAS "Resolution 4. Thrust below normal "Takeoff Settings".
Advisory" under the 5. Unusual aircraft configurations.
following conditions: 6. Reversal RA commands.
TCAS modes (TA Only Remote Tuning Unit (RTU)

etc.) may be selected
on what instrument?
The TCAS "altitude" REL: Shows the altitude as a difference between the
format of target aircraft and the intruder.
aircraft may be
displayed in two ABS: Shows the altitude of the intruder aircraft in
different modes. What reference to barometric pressure altitude (FL330).
are they?
When the TCAS system 9,900 feet above / 2,700 feet below
is selected to the
"ABOVE" mode, what
are the altitude limits?
When the TCAS system 2,700 feet Above / 9,900 feet Below
is selected to the
"Below" mode, what
are the altitude limits?
When the TCAS system 9,900 feet Above / 9,900 feet Below
is selected to the
"ABOVE and BELOW"
modes, what are the
altitude limits?
How can the "Ground By pressing the center of the "Gain Control" knob on the
Clutter Suppression" radar.
mode of the radar unit

be activated?
When the "Ground 12 seconds
Clutter Suppression"
mode is activated on
the radar, how long
will it suppress clutter?
Pushing the "Sector 30 degrees and 60 degrees

Scan" pushbutton on
the radar control panel
will cycle between
what scan arcs?
What is the purpose of It selects which radar control panel will operate both
the "Transfer" radars in the event one control panel fails.
pushbutton on the
radar control panel?
What is the purpose of It will turn "ON" and "OFF" the automatic stabilization
the "STAB" pushbutton mode of the radar antennae.
on the radar control Used in the event of a "USTB" caution message.
panel? Selecting the stabilization "OFF" allows you to manually
control the radar antennae tilt.
How many satellites 24 total Nav Star satellites (21 active and 3 spares)
are there in orbit to
provide GPS data?
How many satellites There are always at least 4 satellites in view at any given
are "always" in view to point.
provide navigation?
Two (2) dimensional 3

navigation requires at
least _____ GPS
satellites.
Three (3) dimensional 4

navigation requires at
least _____ GPS
satellites.
How many satellites 2
can be manually
disabled through the
FMS if they become
disabled?
Oxygen is supplied by 1. Cockpit (gaseous)
two (2) independent 2. Cabin (chemical reaction)
systems. What are
they?
If the cockpit oxygen The green "blowout disc" will be missing next to the
system "thermally airstair door.
discharges" how is it
indicated?
At what PSI is the 1,850 psi

cockpit oxygen bottle
full?
Where is the oxygen Right side of nose, aft of radome.

service panel
the aircraft?
Where is the oxygen In the wardrobe closet behind an access panel.

cylinder physically
located on the aircraft
for the cockpit
system?
Where is the oxygen EICAS Status Page.

bottle pressure
displayed?
The oxygen pressure Below 960 PSI

readout will turn
"amber" when?
What size oxygen 77 cubic foot bottle

bottle does the CRJ-
700 have?
At what oxygen bottle Below 960 PSI

level for the cockpit
system will the "OXY
LOW PRESS" caution

illuminate?
The cockpit oxygen NORMAL: Allows a mixture of ambient air and oxygen.
mask regulators have
three settings, what are 100%: Provides 100% oxygen "On Demand".
they and what do they
provide? EMERGENCY: Provides 100% oxygen "Under Pressure
Continuously".
At what point will the Above 30,000 feet "Pressure Altitude".

cockpit oxygen mask
deliver "Emergency"
oxygen regardless of
the mask setting?
What does the "Yellow That oxygen is flowing!

Cross Hair" indicator
indicate?
What does the "ON That the oxygen shutoff valve is "OPEN". Press the
FLAG" indicate when it "RESET" lever to close.
is visible on the left
compartment door?
What is the correct 1. Re-stow the mask

procedure to re-stow 2. Close the compartment doors.
the oxygen mask in the 3. Press the reset lever to shutoff the oxygen shutoff
cockpit compartment? valve.
At what times will the 1. Masks have automatically deployed above 14,000 feet.
"PASS O2" switchlight 2. Masks have been manually deployed by pressing the
illuminate? switchlight.
NOTE:
Pressing the switchlight "sends the signal to deploy the
masks".
How much oxygen will 13 minutes of continuous flow to 3 masks.

the "Passenger Service
Units" provide?
Oxygen in the Chemical Generators.

passenger
compartment PSU's is
provided for by what

means?
How many oxygen 3

masks are there in
each PSU in the cabin?
How many oxygen 2

masks are there in the
overhead
compartments near
each flight attendant
station and the
lavatory?
When will the Cabin altitudes above 14,000 feet.

passenger oxygen
masks automatically
deploy?
What controls the Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module (CPAM)

dropping of the
oxygen masks?
How many "portable 4

oxygen bottles" are
there in the cabin?
Each portable oxygen 2

bottle in the cabin has
how many masks?
The masks attached to 2 liter

the portable oxygen 4 liter
bottles for the cabin
provide both ____ liter
and ____ liter
connections.
How many PBE's are 4 PBE's

there on the aircraft
and what are their - one behind the captain's seat
locations? - one in the wheelchair stowage compartment
- one in the forward cabin overhead bin (left side)

- one behind the last row of seats in the cabin
How many "Emergency 2
Flashlights" are there in
the cockpit and where - Behind Captain's seat
are they located? - Behind First Officer's seat
How many portable 4

fire extinguishers are
there on the aircraft - One is located behind the first officer's seat.
and where are they - One is installed on the aft cabin wall.
located? - One is installed in the compartment above the crew
bag stowage closet.
- One is installed in the wheelchair stowage
compartment.
At what altitude will 30,000 feet Pressure Altitude

the cockpit oxygen
masks deliver 100%
oxygen regardless of
switch position?
The "Passenger 13 minutes

Service Units" (PSU's)
provide oxygen for
how long?
What are the 1. Engines

"Pneumatic" Sources of 2. APU
pressurized air? 3. External Air Cart
What aircraft systems 1. Wing Anti-Ice

are powered by 2. Cowl Anti-Ice
pneumatic bleed air? 3. Pressurization
4. Air Conditioning
5. Engine Starting
How many "Air Two (2)

Conditioning System
Controllers" (ACSC)
are there on the
aircraft?
What is the purpose of 1. Controls automatic bleed air switching.
the "Air Conditioning 2. Controls the Air Conditioning System.

System Controllers"? 3. Monitors duct pressures.
4. Monitors the position of "ALL" bleed air valves and
anti-ice valves.
Where are the "Air Aft Equipment Bay
Conditioning System
Controllers" (ACSC)
the aircraft?
Each "Air Conditioning You Can't!

System Controller" has
two channels A & B.
How can you tell
which is the active
channel?
When does the "active" On a Daily basis.

channel of the Air
Conditioning System
Controller alternate?
What is the purpose of It divides the bleed air manifold into two separate
the "Isolation Valve"? systems.
Is the isolation valve Electrically

electrically or
pneumatically
operated?
If electrical power is It will remain in the last energized position.

removed, what will
happen to the isolation
valve?
What is the purpose of Controls the operation of 10th stage bleed air when
the "High Pressure" needed.
bleed valve?
What is required to 1. 10 stage bleed air pressure.

"OPEN" the Engine 2. Signal from the respective ACSC controller.
"High Pressure" Bleed
Valve?
The aircraft's bleed air 6th stage

system is normally
powered from
____stage bleed air.
Under "High Demand" 10 Stage

the High Pressure
Bleed Valve will open
and supply ____ stage
bleed air to the
system.
Is it possible to tell if No
10th stage bleed air is
being supplied to the
system?
Do the High Pressure Closed

Bleed Valves fail safe
"OPEN" or "CLOSED"?
At what times will the 1. Loss of ACSC signal.

engine "High Pressure" 2. Engine Shutdown
Bleed Valves close 3. Engine Fire Pushlight is pressed.
automatically?
What is the purpose of It regulates bleed air to maintain a constant pressure

the Engine Bleed within the bleed air manifold.
Valve?
The Engine Bleed Pressure Regulating

Valve could be known
as a ______ valve.
Is the Engine Bleed Closed

Valve fail safed "OPEN"
or "CLOSED"?
How can the Engine By pressing the Engine Fire Pushlight.

Bleed Valve be
closed?
What is the purpose of It regulates the bleed air output of the APU to pressurize
the APU Load Control the left side of the bleed air manifold.
Valve?
What controls the The APU ECU.

APU's Load Control
Valves operation?
Bleed air from the APU Left Side

is supplied to only one
side of the bleed air
manifold. Which side is
it?
Is the APU Load Closed

Control Valve fail safed
"OPEN" or "CLOSED"?
At what times will the 1. Loss of ACSC signal

APU Load Control 2. APU shutdown
Valve close
automatically?
There are four (4) "One One in each engines 6th stage bleed air duct to prevent
Way Check Valves" backflow of 10th stage bleed air.
within the bleed air One at the External air connector.
system. Where are they One at the APU bleed air duct.
located?
Where is the "External Below the Left engine nacelle.

Ground Air" connector
the aircraft?
Is the external ground No

air connector depicted
on the ECS synoptic
page?
What automatically The Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)

selects the appropriate
bleed air source?
What does the Air 1. Left Engine Bleed Valve.

Conditioning System 2. Left Engine High Pressure Bleed Valve.
Controller #1 control?
3. Apu Load Control Valve (normally)

What does the Air 1. Right Engine Bleed Valve
4. Isolation Valve (normally)
Conditioning System 2. Right Engine High Pressure Valve
Controller #2 control?
Acts as a backup to power the APU Load Control Valve
and Isolation Valve if ACSC #1 fails.
Bleed air source may Bleed Air Control Panel.

be manually selected
from what panel?
The "Bleed Source" The bleed air switch must be selected to "MANUAL".
rotary switch and
"Isolation Valve" switch
will only function
under what
circumstance?
If the bleed air source No

is selected to
"MANUAL" with the
APU selected as the
source, will bleed air
supply be
automatically shutoff
above 25,000 feet
msl?
If the bleed air source NO ... the Load Control Valve will close and shutoff
is selected to bleed air!
"MANUAL" and anti-ice
is used, will the bleed
source automatically
transfer to the
engines?
What is indicated if a It is in indication that the bleed manifold pressure has

"LEFT ENG BLEED" or increased beyond normal range and the ACSC has
"RIGHT ENG BLEED" closed the applicable engine bleed valve.
caution message is
displayed?
What source of bleed APU

air "Always" has priority

What ensures that the ACSC Interlock
engine bleed valves
remain closed while on The APU has priority while on the ground for supplying
the ground? bleed air.
The ACSC Interlock prevents the engines from supplying
bleed air.
What normally Air Conditioning System Controller #1.

controls the Isolation If ACSC #1 fails then ACSC #2 will control the Isolation
Valve? Valve.
The Isolation Valve is Load Control Valve

directly related to what
other valves position? LCV OPEN = Isolation Valve OPEN
LCV CLOSED = Isolation Valve CLOSED
What commands the The engine Start Switch.

Isolation Valve to
OPEN?
With the "Bleed Air 1. Thrust levers reduced below "TO" position.
Source" selected to "AND"
the "Auto" position, 2. Gear retracted
when does bleed air "AND"
transfer back to the 3. Flaps less than 20 degrees.
engines after takeoff?
With the bleed air 1. APU Running

source selected to the "AND"
"AUTO" position, when 2. Gear Selected down.
will bleed air be "OR"
transferred back to the 3. Flaps selected greater than 20 degrees.
APU during landing?
What prevents the APU The ACSC Interlock

from providing bleed
air when the anti-ice is With the anti-ice selected "ON" the ACSC Interlock will
selected "ON"? close the APU Load Control Valve.
Bleed Air Leak Anti-Ice Leak Detection System (AILS)

detection is provided
for by what system?

The Anti-Ice Leak 1. Left Bleed Duct
Detection System will 2. Right Bleed Duct
monitor what four (4) 3. Left Wing Anti-Ice
zones? 4. Right Wing Anti-Ice
Does the AILS system No

monitor for leaks in the
engine cowl anti-ice
system?
What monitors the A Pressure Transducer.

cowl anti-ice system
for bleed air leaks?
What method is used Left and Right Bleed Ducts:

to detect bleed air Dual Sensing loops
leaks in the following
systems? Wing Leading Edge Anti-Ice Ducts:
Left and Right Bleed Dual Sensing Loops and Temperature Sensors
Ducts? / Wing Leading
Edge Anti-Ice Ducts? / Engine Cowl Anti-Ice:
Engine Cowl Anti-Ice? Pressure Transducer
If a bleed air leak is Respective engine's bleed air valve.

detected within the
engine bleed air duct
close?
If a bleed air leak is Respective Wing Anti-Ice Valve

detected within the
Wing Anti-Ice Duct
close?
How does the pressure It measures the pressure difference between the inner
transducer function to and outer duct.
detect a bleed air leak
within the cowl anti-ice
system?
The engines supply 1. 6th Stage bleed air

what two sources of 2. 10th stage bleed air
bleed air?
What controls the APU The APU ECU.
"Load Control Valve"?
The APU supplies The left side only!

bleed air to which side
of the bleed air
manifold?
When will the APU 1. When the APU is shut down.

Load Control Valve 2. When ACSC signal is lost.
(LCV) close?
What engines are General Electric CF34-8C1 (OLD)

installed on the CRJ-
700 aircraft? General Electric CF34-8C5B1 (NEW)
What controls each Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)

engine?
What is the "Maximum 12,670 lbs thrust

Thrust" produced for a
"Normal Takeoff"?
What is the "Maximum 13,790 lbs thrust

Thrust" produced for a
"APR Takeoff"?
What does "APR" stand Automatic Power Reserve

for?
N1 is actually what Fan Bypass Airflow

type of airflow?
N2 is actually what Engine Core Airflow

type of airflow?
During "Reverse N1 (Bypass Airflow)

Thrust" operations you
are diverting what type
of airflow?
The N1 Fan is a _____ Single Stage Fan

stage fan connected Four stage compressor
by a shaft to a _____
stage, low pressure

compressor turbine.
The N2 is a _____ stage Two stage Turbine
Turbine connected by 10 stage compressor
a shaft to a ____ stage
compressor.
Is the Operability Valve Hydraulically

electrically or
hydraulically
controlled?
What is the function of Off loads 10 stage bleed air during:

the "Operability
Valve"? 1. Engine Starts
2. Times of high aerodynamic loading
What controls the Engine Fadec System

"Operability Valve"?
When the "Operability Through the top of the engine nacelle.

Valve" off loads bleed
air, where is it
exhausted?
What drives the The respective engine.

"Accessory Gearbox"?
What does the 1. Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps

"Accessory Gearbox" 2. Integrated Drive Generators (IDG's)
drive? 3. Air Turbine Starter
4. Fadec Generator (above 50% N2)
The engines FADEC 1. Fuel Metering

computer controls the 2. Compressor Airflow Management
operation of: 3. Engine Starting and Ignition Control
When does the Following each engine shutdown.

operable FADEC
channel alternate?
At what times will both Only during engine over speeds. Both channels will
FADEC channels command the FMU to open and close to control the
function together? over speed.
What powers the Fadec is powered by the ships batteries through 50% N2.
FADEC system?
Above 50% N2 the FADEC System has its own generator.
If the designated The ships electrical system will once again pick up the
FADEC alternator fails load.
how will the FADEC
computer become
powered again when
operating above 50%
N2?
What are the five (5) 1. SHUTOFF

thrust lever positions? 2. IDLE
3. Climb
4. TOGA
5. APR
Are there any No

mechanical
connections between
the thrust levers and
the engines?
Following an engine When a 15% N1 mismatch occurs, FADEC will increase

failure, what will thrust on the operable engine.
FADEC do?
Automatically selects "Continuous Ignition"
Fadec will also try and relight the failed engine 3 times if
the N2 remains within the start envelope (above 45%).
"Cruise Range" is Idle & Climb

between what thrust
lever detents?
Idle RPM is FLIGHT IDLE

programmed by the APPROACH IDLE
FADEC Computer. LANDING IDLE
There are five (5) REVERSE IDLE
different "IDLE" GROUND IDLE
settings what are they?
At what time does the 1. Thrust Lever to Idle

FADEC computer 2. Gear is up
schedule "Flight Idle"? 3. Flaps are 20 degrees or less
Note: RPM "Increases" with pressure altitude.
At what time does the 1. Thrust levers at IDLE

FADEC computer 2. Gear is down
schedule "Approach 3. Flaps are selected more than 20 degrees
Idle"?
At what time does the Weight on Wheels "or" wheel rotation

FADEC computer
schedule "Landing NOTE:
Idle"? Elevates the engine RPM in preparation for Reverse
operations.
FADEC will maintain landing Idle RPM for only 5 seconds
if thrust reversers are not used!
At what time does the 1. Weight on wheels "or" wheel spin-up

FADEC computer 2. Piggy backs raised
schedule "Reverse 3. Transcowls moving to "OPEN" position
Idle"?
At what time does the 1. Thrust levers idle

FADEC computer 2. Weight on wheels
schedule "Ground 3. Automatically set 5 seconds after landing if the thrust
Idle"? reversers are not used.
The thrust mode On Ground operations.

annuciator is displayed
on the N1 gauge. At
what times will it
"default" to the "TO"
setting?
The thrust mode During approach with the gear selected down "or" flaps
annuciator is displayed are selected greater than 20 degrees.
on the N1 gauge. At
what times will it
"default" to the "GA"
setting?
The takeoff thrust 65 kts

setting is locked into
memory passing what
airspeed during the
takeoff roll?
Does FADEC lock the No

thrust setting into
memory during the
takeoff roll if "Flex
Thrust" is being used?
The FADEC computer Passing 400 feet "or" TOGA is set.

will lock the thrust
setting into memory
passing 65 kts during
the takeoff roll when
using normal thrust. At
what point will it
"unlock" again?
Where can the FLEX PERF MENU Page of the FMS.

temperature be set?
When setting the "Flex 1. The assumed temperature must be higher than actual
Temperature" what temperature.
restrictions apply for 2. Thrust levers must be at "IDLE" or "SHUTOFF".
the FADEC to accept 3. Weight on wheels for at least 1 minute.
the temperature? 4. Airspeed must be below 65 kts.
Flex power settings are Magenta

displayed in what
color?
Engine Bleed Air is 6th Stage

drawn from what two 10th Stage
(2) locations?
What does the FADEC It computes a new MAX N1 value to prevent an engine
computer do over temp.
automatically when
selecting the anti-ice
"ON"?
Which is the "MASTER" Left Engine

engine for the engine
sync system?
When using the engine N1 SYNC: 1.5%

sync, what must the N2 SYNC: 7.5%
values be within for:
N1 SYNC ? / N2 SYNC
?
What condition must Thrust levers must be in the "Cruise" range.

occur for the engine
sync system to
function?
During Single Engine APR is selected when FADEC senses a 15% mismatch in
Operations the FADEC N1 values.
computer will
automatically increase
the thrust on the
operating engine
when?
Selecting the "High It will increase the N1 power schedule to the next higher
Power" switchlight on value.
the engine control
panel will do what? Cruise = Something More
Climb = MCT
TOGA = APR
What is the primary To enable the pilots to select "Max Continuous Thrust"
purpose of the "High on both engines.
Power" switchlight?
What is automatically MCT

selected by FADEC if
an engine fails during a
climb with the thrust
levers set to the climb
position?
What is automatically Something More

selected by FADEC if
an engine fails during

cruise with the thrust
levers set in the "cruise
range"?
There are two (2) Ignition A
independent "Ignition Ignition B
Systems" for each
engine. What are their
names?
What powers "Ignition AC Essential Bus

System A"?
What powers "Ignition Powered through a "Static Inverter" from the Battery Bus.
System B"?
What controls the FADEC computer

"Ignition Systems"?
Which Ignition System GROUND:

is normally "Active"? Active ignition is alternated following each engine start.
GROUND ? / FLIGHT ?
FLIGHT:
Both systems are active.
During engine start, Energized when thrust levers are advanced to "IDLE"
when is the ignition position.
energized and then Stops at "Starter Cutout" (50%)
stopped?
Under what 1. Flight Operations

circumstances are 2. "CONT IGN" switchlight is selected.
"both" ignition systems 3. Automatically at high angle of attacks near the stick
operative? shaker.
The "Continuous 1. Near a stall

Ignition" system will 2. Auto engine relight (3 times)
automatically come on
when:
The "Air Turbine Pneumatic

Starter" converts _______
energy into
mechanical motion.
The Air Turbine Starter Accessory Gearbox

mechanically engages
what?
Pneumatic pressure to 1. Engine Bleed Air (Crossbleed Start)

the Air Turbine Starter 2. APU
can come from what 3. External Air Source.
sources?
Is it possible to YES ... By maintenance personnel.

manually open and
close the start valve.
The engine oil is Fuel / Oil Heat Exchanger

cooled by what
means?
At what point does the Engines Shutdown: Below 80%

"OIL LEVEL LOW" Engines Operating: Below 57%
status message display
for the engines? Minimum Oil quantity while in-flight is 20%.
Minimum Oil quantity while on the ground with the

engines shut down is 40%.
What is the minimum 40%

oil quantity required
What is the minimum 20%

oil quantity required
while in-flight?
Engine "vibration" is MILS

measured in terms of
what?
Are the engine N1 Gauge: Displayed on the Primary Page when:

vibration gauges
always displayed for: 1. Both engines are running
N1 Gauge? / N2 "AND"
Gauge? 2. Oil pressures are normal
N2 Gauge: Only displayed when there is a problem.

At what point will the Showsthe
When "VIB"
vibration
amber message
exceeds 1.7
onMILS.
N2 gauge.
N1 vibration gauge
turn "AMBER" in color?
At what point will the When the N2 vibration exceeds "a pre-determined
N2 vibration gauge value".
display the "VIB"
caution?
What is the purpose of It schedules the appropriate fuel flow as determined by

the "Fuel Metering the FADEC Computer.
Unit" (FMU)?
What drives the Fuel The accessory gearbox.

Metering Unit?
The "Thrust Reversers" N1 Bypass Air

utilize what kind of
engine air?
What provides the Hydraulics

power source for
moving the Translating
Cowls on the thrust
reverser system?
The translating cowls Hydraulic System #1

for the left thrust
reverser is power by
what source?
The translating cowls Hydraulic System #2

for the right thrust
reverser is power by
what source?
Will the thrust NO ... They will only function with weight on wheels.
reversers operate in-
flight?
The "Thrust Reversers" 1. Switch is selected to "ARM".

will automatically 2. The respective hydraulic system is powered.
"ARM" if: 3. The Essential DC Bus is powered.
4. Weight on Wheels is detected.
The thrust reverser 1. Hydraulically

"Translating Cowls" are 2. Mechanically
locked in the "stowed"
position by what two
(2) means?
What is meant when an The respective thrust reverser is in motion to deploy.

amber "REV" icon is
displayed on the N1
gauge?
What is meant when an The respective thrust reverser is "Fully Deployed".

green "REV" icon is
displayed on the N1
gauge?
What is the minimum 75 kts

airspeed at which full
reverse thrust may be
used?
Below 75 kts, what is 60% N1

the maximum N1 that
may be used with
"Reverse Thrust"?
What is the maximum 99.5%

N1 setting allowed
(over speed)?
If an engine "over 1. Triple Chime

speed" occurs for 2. Respective N1 or N2 gauge turns RED.
either N1 or N2 what 3. "ENG OVER SPEED" warning is displayed on EICAS.
will automatically 4. "ENGINE OVER SPEED" voice message is heard.
occur? 5. Both FADEC computers command the FMU to
regulate fuel flow to control the over speed.
What is the maximum 99.4%

N2 rpm allowed prior
to over speed?
FADEC generated CYAN

thrust settings are
displayed in what
color?
Flex Thrust settings are MAGENTA
displayed in what
color?
Describe the fuel On the first flight of the day start the left engine first.
check-valve test. Turn off both boost pumps and look for 3 amber EICAS
messages, L and R BOOST PUMPS, and R FUEL LOW
PRESS. This check is accomplished to verify that the one
way check-valve is operating correctly and motive flow
fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine. Upon
completion of the first flight, shut down the left engine
and turn off off both boost pumps. Look for the three
EICAS messages, L and R BOOST PUMPS, and L FUEL
LOW PRESS to check the remaining check-valve.
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2/16/2019 CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) 1,220 terms Jetpipe PLUS

Terms in this set (1220)

What is the "Maximum 13,790 Lbs Thrust

What type of engines General Electric CF34-8C1 (old)

The N1 Fan generates 80%

The engines provide 6th and 10th Stages

The engine driven The "Accessory Gearbox".

What is the power 40 KVA

The "Accessory 1. Engine Driven Generators

The CRJ 700 is capable M.81

What is the "Normal" M.77

What is the "Maximum 41,000 feet

What is the "Length 106' 8"

What is the "Wingspan" 76' 3"

What is the "Height of 24' 10"

What is the "Wing Tip" 6 feet

How tall are the 4 feet

How much area is 14"

The "Horizontal Full UP: +13 Degrees

How many emergency Total of 5 emergency exits.

With the Radome 2 feet

Which cargo Both Forward and Aft compartments.

Which cargo Only the AFT Compartment.

If you were to carry AFT Cargo compartment only!

Is the Forward cargo NO

Is the AFT cargo YES

What features does the Thermal insulation

How many water 2 water systems

Where on the aircraft Galley Water System: Right / Forward Fuselage

Where is the "Lavatory Beneath the cargo bay.

The forward galley water system is pressurized at all

The Aft Lavatory water system is only pressurized when

What maintains Normally bleed air with the engines running.

What components of 1. Drain Masts

What is meant if a The respective water systems water temperature has

How long will the 10 seconds

How is "waste water" It is not stored. It is drained overboard through heated

What color is the Green

What color is the Amber

Are the two (2) water YES

How many "Air Two

Where are the "Packs" Aft Equipment Bay

The "Cockpit Pack" is Air Conditioning System Controller #1 (ACSC #1)

The "Cabin Pack" is Air Conditioning System Controller #2 (ACSC #2)

Each ACSC has two (2) Channel A and Channel B

Are "both" Air No

Channel "B": EVEN Days

Is there any cockpit NO

Air Conditioning "Pack Flow

Air Conditioning Pack Electrically Controlled

Normally the ACSC 1. Pressure Altitude

At what times are the During Engine Starts

If one (1) Air Reduced Volume

If an Air Conditioning 1. The Pack Fault switchlight illuminates on the Air

How many Cockpit: 1

What occurs with the 1. Packs go to "FULL FLOW".

At what temperature 85 degrees C

If a pack "over temps", 1. The associated pack must be selected to "Off/Reset".

What does "RAM AIR" Cools the Heat Exchanger.

When should 1. Only at "Low Altitudes" (Below 15,000')

Does "RAM AIR" go No ... It is directly connected to the ducting.