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GATE EC BY RK Kanodia
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
Electronics & Communication

CIVIL ENGINEERING Engineering
Fifth Edition
R. K. Kanodia
B.Tech.
NODIA & COMAPNY

JAIPUR
www.gatehelp.com

TOPICS COVERED
(SOLUTIONS ARE GIVEN AT EACH TOPICS END)
Design of Steel Structure
Engineering Mathematics
Environmental Engineering
Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulic Machines
Geotechnical Engineering
Highway Engineering and Surveying
Irrigation Engg. and Engg. Hydrology
RCC Structures and Prestressed Concrete
Strength of Materials
Structural Analysis

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 As per IS 800 : 2007 the cross-section in which extreme fibre can reach the yield
stress but can not develop the plastic moment of resistance due to local bucking
is classified as
(A) plastic section (B) compact section
(C) semi compact section (D) shear section
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Statement For Linked Answer Q. 2 and 3 :

The magnitude of load P is increased till collapse and the plastic moment carrying
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm .
Q. 2 What is the value of R(in kN) if value of P is 80 kN by elastic theory?

Q. 3 The value of R(in kN), using plastic analysis is (upto 1 decimal place).
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 4 In a steel plate with bolted connection, the rupture of the net section is a mode
of failure under
(A) tension
(B) compression
(C) flexure
(D) shear
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 5 Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension,
as shown in the sketch. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress
and the ultimate tensile stress of steel are 250 MP and 410 MPa respectively. The
welding is done in the workshop ^gmm = 1.25h. As per the Limit State Method of
IS 800 : 2007, the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest higher multiple of
5 mm) of each weld to transmit a force P equal to

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE
(A) 100 mm (B) 105 mm

(C) 110 mm (D) 115 mm
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 6 For the fillet weld of size ‘s ’ shown in the adjoining figure the effective throat
thickness is
(A) 0.16s (B) 0.65s

(C) 0.70s (D) 0.75s
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 7 The value of W that results in the collapse of the beam shown in the adjoining
figure and having a plastic moment capacity of M p is
(A) ^4/21h M p (B) ^3/10h M p

(C) ^7/21h M p (D) ^13/21h M p

Q. 8 The adjoining figure shows a schematic representation of a steel plate girder to

be used as a simply supported beam with a concentrated load. For stiffeners, PQ
(running along the beam axis) and RS (running between the top and bottom
flanges) which of the following pairs of statements will be TRUE ?
(A) (i) RS should be provided under the concentrated load only

(ii) PQ should be placed in the tension side of the flange.
(B) (i) RS helps to prevent local buckling of the web.
(ii) PQ should be placed in the compression side of the flange.
(C) (i) RS should be provided at supports.
(ii) PQ should be placed along the neutral axis
(D) (i) RS should be provided away from points of action of concentrated loads.
(ii) PQ should be provided on the compression side of the flange.
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 9 A double cover butt riveted joint is used to connected two flat plates of 200 mm
width and 14 mm thickness as shown in the figure. There are twelve power driven
rivets of 20 mm diameter at a pitch of 50 mm in both directions on either side
of the plate. Two cover plates of 10 mm thickness are used. The capacity of the
joint in tension considering bearing and shear ONLY, with permissible bearing
and shear stresses as 300 MPa and 100 MPa respectively is
(A) 1083.6 kN
(B) 871.32 kN
(C) 541.8 kN
(D) 433.7 kN
Q. 10 Two plates, subjected to direct tension, each of 10 mm thickness and having

widths of 100 mm and 175 mm, respectively are to be fillet welded with an
overlap of 200 mm. Given that the permissible weld stress is 110 MPa and the
permissible stress in steel is 150 MPa, the length of the weld required using the
maximum permissible weld size as per IS : 800-1984 is

(A) 245.3 mm (B) 229.2 mm

(C) 205.5 mm (D) 194.8 mm
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 11 In the theory of plastic bending of beams, the ratio of plastic moment to yield
moment is called
(A) shape factor (B) plastic section modulus
(C) modulus of resilience (D) rigidity modulus
Q. 12 The square root of the ratio of moment of inertia of the cross-section to its cross-
sectional area is called
(A) second moment of area (B) slenderness ratio
(C) section modulus (D) radius of gyration
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 13 A 12 mm thick plate is connected to two 8 mm thick plates, on either side through

a 16 mm diameter power driven field rivet as shown in the figure below. Assuming
permissible shear stress as 90 MPa and permissible bearing stress as 270 MPa in
the rivet, the rivet value of the joint is
(A) 56.70 kN (B) 43.29 kN

(C) 36.19 kN (D) 21.65 kN
Q. 14 Consider the following statements for a compression member:

1. The elastic critical stress in compression increases with decrease in
slenderness ratio
2. The effective length depends on the boundary conditions at its ends.
3. The elastic critical stress in compression is independent of the slenderness
ratio.
4. The ratio of the effective length to its radius of gyration is called as
slenderness ratio
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 15 The shape of the cross-section, which has the largest shape factor, is
(A) rectangular (B) I-section
(C) Diamond (D) Solid circular
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 16 Rivets and bolts subjected to both shear stress (tvf, cal) and axial tensile stress
(stf, cal) shall be so proportioned that the stresses do not exceed the respective
t s
allowable stresses tvf and stf and the value of b vt, cal + tf, cal l does not exceed
tvf stf
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.2
(C) 1.4 (D) 1.8
Q. 17 A continuous beam is loaded as shown in the figure below. Assuming a plastic

moment capacity equal to MP , the minimum load at which the beam would
collapse is
(A) 4MP (B) 6MP

L L
(C) 8MP (D) 10MP
L L
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 18 A steel flat of rectangular section of size 70 # 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate

by three bolt each having a shear capacity of 15 kN in holes having diameter 11.5
mm. If the allowable tensile stress in the flat is 150 MPa, the maximum tension
that can be applied to the flat is
(A) 42.3 kN (B) 52.65 kN

(C) 59.5 kN (D) 63.0 kN
Q. 19 A bracket connection is made with four bolts of 10 mm diameter and supports

a load of 10 kN at an eccentricity of 100 mm. The maximum force to be resisted
by any bolt will be

(all distance are in mm)

(A) 5 kN (B) 6.5 kN
(C) 6.8 kN (D) 7.16 kN
Q. 20 The plastic collapse load WP for the propped cantilever supporting two point
loads as shown in fig. in terms of plastic moment capacity, WP is given by
(A) 3MP (B) 4MP

L L
(C) 5MP (D) 6MP
L L
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 21 Consider the following statements :

1. Effective length of a battened column in usually increased to account for
the additional load on battens due to the lateral expansion of columns.
2. As per IS:800-1984, permissible stress in bending compression depends on
both Euler buckling stress and the yield stress of steel.
3. As per IS:800-1984, the effective length of a column effectively held in
position at both ends but not restrained against rotation, is taken to be
greater than that in the ideal end conditions.
The TRUE statements are
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Q. 22 In the design of welded tension members, consider the following statements :

1. The entire cross-sectional are of the connected leg is assumed to contribute
to the effective area in case of angles.
2. Two angles back-to-back and tack-welded as per the codal requirements
may be assumed to behave as a tee section.
3. A check on slenderness ratio may be necessary in some cases.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q. 23 When the triangular section of a beam as shown below becomes a plastic hinge,
the compressive force acting on the section (with sy denoting the yield stress)
becomes
bhsy 2bhsy
(A) (B)
4 9
bhsy bhsy
(C) (D)
2 3
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 24 The permissible stress in axial tension sst in steel member on the net effective
area of the section shall not exceed ( fy is the yield stress)
(A) 0.80 fy (B) 0.75 fy
(C) 0.60 fy (D) 0.50 fy
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 25 An unstiffened web I-section is fabricated from a 10 mm thick plate by fillet

welding as shown in the figure. If yield stress of steel is 250 MPa, the maximum
shear load that section can take is
(A) 750 kN (B) 350 kN

(C) 337.5 kN (D) 300 kN
Q. 26 A fillet-welded joint of 6mm size is shown in the figure. The welded surfaces meet
at 60-90 degree and permissible stress in the filled weld is 108 MPa. The safe load
that can be transmitted by the joint is
(A) 162.7 kN (B) 151. 6 kN

(C) 113.4 kN (D) 109.5 kN

Q. 27 Which one of the following is NOT correct for steel sections as per IS:800-1984 ?
(A) The maximum bending stress in tension or in compression in extreme fibre
calculated on the effective section of a beam shall not exceed 0.66 fy .
(B) The bearing stress in any part of a beam when calculated on the net area
shall not exceed 0.75 fy .
(C) The direct stress in compression on the gross sectional area of axially
loaded compression member shall not exceed 0.6 fy
(D) None of the above
Q. 28 A cantilever beam of length L, width b and depth d is loaded with a concentrated

vertical load at the tip. If yielding starts at a load P , the collapse load shall be
(A) 2.0 P (B) 1.5 P
(C) 1.2 P (D) P
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 29 In a plate girder, the web plate is connected to the flange plates by fillet welding.
The size of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist
(A) the bending stresses in the flanges
(B) the vertical shear force at the section
(C) the horizontal shear force between the flanges and the web plate
(D) the forces causing buckling in the web
Q. 30 Rivet value is defined as

(A) lesser of the bearing strength of rivet and the shearing strength of the rivet
(B) lesser of the bearing strength of rivet and the tearing strength of thinner
plate
(C) greater of the bearing strength of rivet and the shearing of the rivet
(D) lesser of the shearing strength of the rivet and the tearing strength of
thinner plate
YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 31 A square steel slab base of area 1 m2 is provided for a column made of two rolled
channel sections. The 300 mm # 300 mm column carries an axial compressive
load of 2000 kN. The line of action of the load passes through the centroid of the
column section as well as of the slab base. The permissible bending stress in slab
base is 185 MPa. The required minimum thickness of the slab base is
(A) 110 mm (B) 89 mm
(C) 63 mm (D) 55 mm
Q. 32 A strut in a steel truss is composed of two equal angle ISA 150 mm # 150 mm of
thickness 10 mm connected back-to-back to the same side of a gusset plate. The
cross sectional area of each angle is 2921 mm2 and moment of inertia (Ixx = Iyy) is
6335000 mm 4 . The distance of the centroid of the angle from its surface (Cx = Cy)
is 40.8 mm. The minimum radius of gyration of the strut is
(A) 93.2 mm (B) 62.7 mm
(C) 46.6 mm (D) 29.8 mm

Q. 33 Two equal angles ISA 100 mm # 100 mm of thickness 10 mm are placed back-
to-back and connected to the either side of a gusset plate through a single row of
16 mm diameter rivets in double shear. The effective are 775 mm2 and 950 mm2
, respectively. If the angles are NOT tack riveted, the net effective area of this
pair of angles is
(A) 3650 mm2
(B) 3450 mm2
(C) 3076 mm2
(D) 2899 mm2
Q. 34 A moment M of magnitude 50 kNm is transmitted to a column flange through a

bracket bb using four 20 mm diameter rivets as shown in the figure.
The shear force induced in the rivet A is

(A) 250 kN (B) 175 kN
(C) 125 kN (D) 88.4 kN
Q. 35 A propped cantilever of span L is carrying a vertical concentrated load acting at

midspan. The plastic moment of the section is MP . The magnitude of the collapse
load is
(A) 8MP (B) 6MP
L L
(C) 4MP (D) 2MP
L L
YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 36 In the design of lacing system for a built-up steel column, the maximum allowable
slenderness ratio of a lacing bar is
(A) 120 (B) 145
(C) 180 (D) 250
Q. 37 Which of the following elements of a pitched roof industrial steel building primarily
resists lateral load parallel to the ridge ?
(A) bracings
(B) purlins
(C) truss
(D) columns

YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 38 List-I contains some elements in design of a simply supported plate girder and
List II give some qualitative locations on the girder. Match the items of two lists
as per good design practice and relevant codal provisions.
List I List II
a. Flange splice 1. At supports (minimum)
b. Web splice 2. Away from centre of span
c. Bearing Stiffeners 3. Away from support
d. Horizontal stiffener 4. In the middle of span
5. Longitudinally somewhere in the
compression flange
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 5
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 5 2 3
Q. 39 A steel portal frame has dimensions, plastic moment capacities and applied load
as shown in the figure. The vertical load is always twice of the horizontal load.
The collapse load P required for the development of a beam mechanism is
(A) 3MP (B) 4MP

L L
(C) 6M P
(D) 8 M P
L L
Common Data For Q. 40 and 41

A truss tie consisting of 2 ISA 75 # 75 # 8 mm carries a pull of 150 kN. At ends
the two angels are connected, one each on either side of a 10 mm thick gusset
plate, by 18 mm diameter rivets arranged in one row. The allowable stresses in
rivet are fs = 90.0 N/mm2 and fbr = 250 N/mm2 .
Q. 40 Maximum tensile stress in the tie in N/mm2 is
(A) 93.6 (B) 87.5
(C) 77.2 (D) 66.0
Q. 41 Minimum number of rivets required at each end is

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 42 When designing steel structures, one must ensure that local buckling in webs
dos not take place. This check may not be very critical when using rolled steel
sections because
(A) Quality control at the time of manufacture of rolled sections is very good
(B) Web depths available are small
(C) Web stiffeners are in built in rolled sections
(D) Depth to thickness ratio (of the web) are appropriately adjusted
Q. 43 An ISMB 500 is used as a beam in a multi-storey construction. From the viewpoint

of structural design, it can be considered to be ‘laterally restrained’ when
(A) the tension flange is ‘laterally restrained’
(B) the compression flange is ‘laterally restained’
(C) the web is adequately stiffened
(D) the conditions in A and C are met
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 44 ISA 100 # 100 # 100 mm (cross-sectional area = 1908 mm2 ) serves as tensile
member. This angle is welded to a gusset plate along A and B appropriately as
shown in figure. Assuming the yield strength of the steel to be 260 N/mm2 the
tensile strength of this member can be taken to be approximately
(A) 500 kN (B) 300 kN

(C) 225 kN (D) 375 kN
Q. 45 ISA 100 # 100 # 10 mm (cross sectional area = 1908 mm2 ) is welded along A
and B (refer to figure from above question), such that the length of the weld along
A and B are l1 and l2 , respectively. Which of the following is a possibly acceptable
combination of l1 and l2 .
(A) l1 = 60 mm and l2 = 150 mm
(B) l1 = 150 mm and l2 = 60 mm
(C) l1 = 150 mm and l2 = 150 mm
(D) Any of the above depending on the size of the weld
Q. 46 A steel beam (with a constant EI and span L) is fixed at both ends and carries a
uniformly distributed load (w kN/m), which is gradualy increased till the beam
reaches the stage of plastic collapse (refer to the following figure). Assuming ‘B’
to be at mid-span, which of the following is true

(A) Hinges are formed at A, B, C together

(B) Hinges are formed at B and then at A and C together
(C) Hinges are formed at A and C together and then at B
(D) Hinges are formed at A and C only
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 47 Identify the most effective butt joint (with double cover plates) for a plate in
tension from the patterns (plan view) shown below, each comprising 6 identical
bolts with the same pitch and gauge:
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 48 Consider the following two statements related to structural steel design, and
identify whether they are True or False
I. The Euler buckling load of a slender steel column depends on the yield
strength of steel.
II. In the design of laced column, the maximum spacing of the lacing does not
depend on the slenderness of column as a whole.
(A) Both statement I and II are True
(B) Statement I is True, and statement is False
(C) Statement I is False, and statement II is True
(D) Both statements I and II are False
**********

ANSWER KEY
DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) 25 kN 60 kN (A) (B) (B) (D) (B) (B) (B)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(A) (D) (B) (D) (C) (C) (B) (A) (D) (B)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(A) (D) (A) (C) (D) (C) (D) (B) (C) (A)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(D) (C) (D) (B) (B) (B) (A) (A) (A) (A)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
(C) (D) (B) (A) (B) (B) (A) (D)

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GATE SOLVED PAPER

Civil Engineering
Engineering Mathematics
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neither Nodia nor its authors guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information herein, and Nodia nor its
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ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 There are three matrixes P ^4 # 2h, Q ^2 # 4h and R ^4 # 1h. The minimum of

multiplication required to compute the matrix PQR is
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Q. 2 The megnitude as the error (correct to two decimal places) in the estimation of
4
following integral using simpson 1/3 rule. Take the step length as 1 # ^x 4
+ 10h dx
0
p/6
Q. 3 The value of # cos 3q sin 6qdq

4 3
(A) 0 (B) 1/15

(C) 1 (D) 8/3
Q. 4 Find the value of l such that function f ^x h is valid probability density function
f ^x h = l ^x - 1h^2 - x h and 1 # x # 2
=0 otherwise
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
The estimate of # dx obtained using Simpson’s rule with three-

1.5
Q. 5
0.5 x
point function evaluation exceeds the exact value by
(A) 0.235 (B) 0.068
(C) 0.024 (D) 0.012
Q. 6 The annual precipitation data of a city is normally distributed with

mean and standard deviations as 1000 mm and 200 mm, respectively.
The probability that the annual precipitation will be more than
1200 mm is
(A) < 50% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 100%
Q. 7 The infinite series

2 3 4
1 + x + x + x + x + ... corresponds to
2! 3! 4!
(A) sec x (B) ex

(C) cos x (D) 1 + sin2 x

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 8 The error in d f ^x h for a continuous function estimated with

dx x=x 0
h = 0.03 using the central difference formula

f ^x 0 + h h - f ^x 0 - h h
dx ^ h x = x
d f x = is 2 # 10-3 .
0
2h
The values of x 0 and f ^x 0h are 19.78 and 500.01, respectively. The corresponding
error in the central difference estimate for h = 0.02 is approximately
(A) 1.3 # 10-4 (B) 3.0 # 10-4
(C) 4.5 # 10-4 (D) 9.0 # 10-4
Q. 9 In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trials is
(A) 1/32 (B) 2/32
(C) 3/32 (D) 6/32
9 5
Q. 10 The eigen values of matrix > H are
5 8
(A) - 2.42 and 6.86 (B) 3.48 and 13.53
(C) 4.70 and 6.86 (D) 6.86 and 9.50
Q. 11 For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the sketch, OP = at + bj and OR = ct + dj

. The area of the parallelogram is
(A) ad - bc (B) ac + bd
(C) ad + bc (D) ab - cd
dy
Q. 12 The solution of the ordinary differential equation + 2y = 0 for the boundary
dx
condition, y = 5 at x = 1 is
(A) y = e-2x (B) y = 2e-2x
(C) y = 10.95e-2x (D) y = 36.95e-2x
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 13 6A@ is square matrix which is neither symmetric nor skew-symmetric and 6A@T is its
transpose. The sum and difference of these matrices are defined as 6S @ = 6A@ + 6A@T
and 6D@ = 6A@ - 6A@T , respectively. Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
(A) Both 6S @ and 6D@ are symmetric
(B) Both 6S @ and 6D@ are skew-symmetric
(C) 6S @ is skew-symmetric and 6D@ is symmetric
(D) 6S @ is symmetric and 6D@ is skew-symmetric

Q. 14 The square root of a number N is to be obtained by applying the Newton

Raphson iterations to the equation x2 - N = 0 . If i denotes the iteration index,
the correct iterative index, the correct iterative scheme will be
(A) xi + 1 = 1 bxi + N l (B) xi + 1 = 1 c x i2 + N2 m
2 xi 2 xi
2
(C) xi + 1 = 1 c xi + N m (D)xi + 1 = 1 bxi - N l
2 xi 2 xi
Q. 15 There are two containers, with one containing 4 red and 3 green balls and the
other containing 3 blue and 4 green balls. One ball is drawn at random from each
container. The probability that one of the balls is red and the other is blue will be
(A) 1/7
(B) 9/49
(C) 12/49
(D) 3/7
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 16 For an analytic function, f ^x + iy h = u ^x, y h + iv ^x, y h, u is given by u = 3x2 - 3y2

. The expression for v , considering K to be a constant is
(A) 3y2 - 3x2 + K (B) 6x - 6y + K
(C) 6y - 6x + K (D) 6xy + K
Q. 17 What should be the value of l such that the function defined below is continuous
at x = p/2 ?
Z l cos x
]p if x ! p/2
f ^x h = [ 2 - x
]1 if x = p/2
\
(A) 0 (B) 2/p
(C) 1 (D) p/2
a x
Q. 18 What is the value of the definite integral, #
0 x + a-x
dx ?
(A) 0 (B) a/2

(C) a (D) 2a
Q. 19 If a and b are two arbitrary vectors with magnitudes a and b, respectively,

a # b 2 will be equal to
(A) a2 b2 - â : b h2 (B) ab - a : b
(C) a2 b2 + â : b h2 (D) ab + a : b
dy y
Q. 20 The solution of the differential equation + = x , with the condition that
dx x
y = 1 at x = 1, is
(A) y = 2 2 + x (B) y = x + 1
3x 3 2 2x
2
(C) y = 2 + x (D) y = 2 + x
3 3 3x 3

YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
sin :2 x D
3
Q. 21 The lim is
x"0 x
(A) 2/3 (B) 1
(C) 3/2 (D) 3
Q. 22 Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The probability of two heads simultaneously
appearing is
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/6
(C) 1/4 (D) 1/2
Q. 23 The order and degree of the differential equation

d 3y dy 3
b dx l + y = 0 are respectively
2
+4
dx3
(A) 3 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 3 (D) 3 and 1
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
The solution to the ordinary differential equation d y2 + dx

dy
2
Q. 24 - 6y = 0 is
dx
(A) y = c1 e + c2 e
3x -2 x
(B) y = c1 e 3x + c2 e 2x
(C) y = c1 e -3x + c2 e 2x (D) y = c1 e -3x + c2 e -2x
3 + 2i i
Q. 25 The inverse of the matrix > - i 3 - 2i
H is
1 3 + 2i - i 1 >3 - 2i - i H
(A) 12 > i 3 - 2i H
(B) 12 i 3 + 2i
1 3 + 2i - i 1 >3 - 2i - i H
(C) 14 > i 3 - 2i H (D) 14 i 3 + 2i
Q. 26 The table below gives values of a function F_x i obtained for values of x at
intervals of 0.25.
x 0 0.25 0.5 0.75 1.0
F _x i 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function between the limits 0 to 1 using Simpson’s
rule is
(A) 0.7854 (B) 2.3562
(C) 3.1416 (D) 7.5000
Q. 27 The partial differential equation that can be formed from z = ax + by + ab has the
form (with p = 22xz and q = 22yz )
(A) z = px + qy
(B) z = px + pq
(C) z = px + qy + pq
(D) z = qy + pq

Q. 28 A parabolic cable is held between two supports at the same level. The horizontal
span between the supports is L . The sag at the mid-span is h . The equation of the
parabola is y = 4h x 2 , where x is the horizontal coordinates and y is the vertical
2
L
coordinate with the origin at the centre of the cable. The expression for the total
length of the cable is
L /2
1 + 64 h x4 dx 1 + 64 h x4 dx
L 2 2 3 2
(A) #
0 L
(B) 2 #
0 L
L /2 L /2
1 + 64 h x4 dx 1 + 64 h x4 dx
2 2 2 2
(C) #
0 L
(D) 2 #
0 L
Q. 29 Given a function f _x, y i = 4x 2 + 6y 2 - 8x - 4y + 8 The optimal value of f _x, y i

(A) is a minimum equal to 10/3
(B) is a maximum equal to 10/3
(C) is a minimum equal to 8/3
(D) is a maximum equal to 8/3
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 30 A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if

(A) BT =- B (B) BT = B
(C) B-T = B (D) B- 1 = BT
Q. 31 For a scalar function f (x, y, z) = x 2 + 3y2 + 2z2 , the gradient at the point P (1, 2, - 1)
is
(A) 2iv + 6vj + 4kv (B) 2iv + 12vj - 4kv
(C) 2iv + 12vj + 4kv (D) 56
Q. 32 The analytic function f (z) = z2 - 1 has singularity at

z +1
(A) 1 and - 1 (B) 1 and i
(C) 1 and - i (D) i and - i
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 33 For a scalar function f (x, y, z) = x2 + 3y2 + 2z2 , the directional derivative at the
point P (1, 2, - 1) in the direction of a vector iv - vj + 2kv is
(A) - 18 (B) - 3 6
(C) 3 6 (D) 18
(2pz)
Q. 34 The value of the integral # (2z cos
- 1) (z - 3)
dz ( where C is a closed curve given
by z = 1) is C
(A) pi (B) pi
5
(C) 2pi (D) pi
5
dy
Q. 35 Solution of the differential equation 3y + 2x = 0 represents a family of
dx
(A) ellipses (B) circles
(C) parabolas (D) hyperbolas

Q. 36 Laplace transform for the function f (x) = cosh (ax) is

(A) 2 a 2 (B) 2 s 2
s -a s -a
(C) 2 a 2 (D) 2 s 2
s +a s +a
Q. 37 In the solution of the following set of linear equations by Gauss elimination using
partial pivoting 5x + y + 2z = 34; 4y - 3z = 12; and 10 - 2y + z =- 4; the pivots
for elimination of x and y are
(A) 10 and 4 (B) 10 and 2
(C) 5 and 4 (D) 5 and - 4
Q. 38 The standard normal probability function can be approximated as

F (xN ) = 1
1 + exp (- 1.7255xn xn 0.12)
where xN = standard normal deviate. If mean and standard deviation of annual
precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm respectively, the probability that the annual
precipitation will be between 90 cm and 102 cm is
(A) 66.7% (B) 50.0%
(C) 33.3% (D) 16.7%
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 39 The product of matrices (PQ) - 1 P is

(A) P- 1 (B) Q- 1
(C) P- 1 Q- 1 P (D) PQP- 1
d 2y
Q. 40 The general solution of + y = 0 is
dx2
(A) y = P cos x + Q sin x (B) y = P cos x
(C) y = P sin x (D) y = P sin2 x
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS

2 2
Q. 41 The equation kx 2 h2 + kz 2 h2 = 0 can be transformed to
2x 2z
22 h + 22 h = 0 by substituting
2x t2 z2
(A) Xt = X kz (B) Xt = X kx
kx kz
(C) Xt = x kx (D) Xt = x kz
kz kx
3x
Q. 42 The value of ## (6 - x - y) dxdy is
(A) 13.5 00 (B) 27.0
(C) 40.5 (D) 54.0
Q. 43 Three values of x and y are to be fitted in a straight line in the form y = a + bx

by the method of least squares. Given Sx = 6, Sy = 21, Sx2 = 14 and Sxy = 46,
the values of a and b are respectively
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 1 (D) 3 and 2

dy
Q. 44 Solution of =- x at x = 1 and y = 3 is
dx y
2
(A) x - y =- 2 (B) x + y2 = 4
(C) x2 - y2 =- 2 (D) x2 + y2 = 4
Q. 45 If probability density function of random variable X is

f (x) = x 2 for - 1 # x # 1, and
= 0 for any other value of x
then, the percentage probability P b- 1 # x # 1 l is
3 3
(A) 0.247 (B) - 6 and 5
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
4 5
The Eigen values of the matrix 6P @ = >
2 - 5H
Q. 46 are
(A) –7 and 8 (B) –6 and 5
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
Q. 47 A person on a trip has a choice between private car and public transport. The
probability of using a private car is 0.45. While using the public transport, further
choices available are bus and metro, out of which the probability of commuting
by a bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the probability (rounded up to two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
Q. 48 The following simultaneous equations

x+y+z = 3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6
will NOT have a unique solution for k equal to
(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
Q. 49 The inner (dot) product of two vectors Pv and Qv is zero. The angle (degrees)
between the two vectors is
(A) 0 (B) 30
(C) 90 (D) 120
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK

R1 1 3V
S W
Q. 50 The minimum and the maximum eigen values of the matrix S1 5 1W are - 2 and
6, respectively. What is the other eigen value ? S3 1 1W
(A) 5 (B) 3 T X
(C) 1 (D) - 1

2
Q. 51 The degree of the differential equation d x2 + 2x 3 = 0 is
dt
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
dy
Q. 52 The solution for the differential equation = x2 y with the condition that y = 1
dx
at x = 0 is
3
(B) ln (y) = x + 4
1
(A) y = e 2x
3
2 3
(C) ln (y) = x (D) y = e 3
x
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 53 For the values of a and b the following simultaneous equations have an infinite
number of solutions ?
x + y + z = 5; x + 3y + 3z = 9; x + 2y + az = b
(A) 2,7 (B) 3,8
(C) 8,3 (D) 7,2
Q. 54 A velocity vector is given as Vv = 5xyiv + 2y 2 vj + 3yz 2 kv. The divergence of this

velocity vector at (1, 1, 1) is
(A) 9 (B) 10
(C) 14 (D) 15
Q. 55 A body originally at 60cC cools down to 40cC in 15 minutes when kept in air at
a temperature 25cC . What will be the temperature of the body at the end of 30
minutes ?
(A) 35.2cC (B) 31.5cC
(C) 28.7cC (D) 15cC
Q. 56 The following equation needs to be numerically solved using the Newton-Raphson

method.
x 3 + 4x - 9 = 0
The iterative equation for this purpose is (k indicates the iteration level)
3 2
(A) Xk + 1 = 2X k2 + 9 (B) Xk + 1 = 3X k2 + 4
3X k + 4 2X k + 9
2
(C) Xk + 1 = Xk - 3X k2 + 4 (D) Xk + 1 = 4X k2 + 3
9X k + 2
Q. 57 Evaluate #0 3 sint t dt
(A) p (B) p
2
(C) p (D) p
4 8
Q. 58 Potential function f is given as f = x2 - y2 . What will be the stream function (Y)
with the condition Y = 0 at x = y = 0 ?
(A) 2xy (B) x2 + y2
(C) x2 - y2 (D) 2x2 y2

1 2
Q. 59 The inverse of the 2 # 2 matrix > H is
5 7
-7 2 7 2
(A) 1 > H (B) 1 > H
3 5 -1 3 5 1
7 -2 -7 -2
(C) 1 > (D) 1 >
3 -5 1 H 3 - 5 - 1H
Q. 60 Given that one root of the equation x3 - 10x2 + 31x - 30 = 0 is 5, the other two
roots are
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) - 2 and - 3
Q. 61 If the standard deviation of the spot speed of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph
and the mean speed of the vehicles is 33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in
speed is
(A) 0.1517 (B) 0.1867
(C) 0.2666 (C) 0.3446
YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 62 Solution for the system defined by the set of equations 4y + 3z = 8; 2x - z = 2

and 3x + 2y = 5 is
(A) x = 0; y = 1; z = 4 (B) x = 0; y = 1 ; z = 2
3 2
(C) x = 1; y = 1 ; z = 2 (D) non-existent
2
dy
Q. 63 The differential equation = 0.25y 2 is to be solved using the
dx
backward (implicit) Euler’s method with the boundary condition y = 1 at x = 0
and with the a step size of 1. What would be the value of y at x = 1 ?
(A) 1.33 (B) 1.67
(C) 2.00 (D) 2.33
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS

R 2 -2 3VW
S
Q. 64 For a given matrix A = S- 2 - 1 6W, one of the eigenvalues is 3.
S1 2 0W
T are
The other two eigenvalues X
(A) 2, - 5 (B) 3, - 5
(C) 2, 5 (D) 3, 5
Q. 65 The directional derivative of f (x, y, z) = 2x2 + 3y2 + z2 at the point P (2, 1, 3) in the
direction of the vector a = i - 2k is
(A) - 2.785 (B) - 2.145
(C) - 1.789 (D) 1.000
Q. 66 A class of first year B. Tech. students is composed of four batches A, B, C and

D, each consisting of 30 students. It is found that the sessional marks of students
in Enginnering Drawing in batch C havea mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of
2.3. The mean and standard deviation of the marks for the entire class are 5.5 and

4.2, respectively. It is decided by the course instructor to normalize the marks of

the students of all batches to have the same mean and standard deviation as that
of the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a student in batch C are changed
from 8.5 to
(A) 6.0 (B) 7.0
(C) 8.0 (D) 9.0
Q. 67 A 2nd degree polynomial, f (x) has values of 1, 4 and 15 at x = 0 , 1 and 2,

2
respectively. The integral # f (x) dx is to be estimated by
0
applying the trapezoidal rule to this data. What is the error ( defined as “ true
value - approximate value”) in the estimate ?
(A) - 4 (B) - 2
3 3
(C) 0 (D) 2
3
Q. 68 What is the area common to the circles r = a and r = 2a cos q ?
(A) 0.524 a2 (B) 0.614 a2
(C) 1.047 a2 (D) 1.228 a2
Q. 69 Using Cauchy’s integral theorem, the value of the integral (integration being
3
taken in counterclockwise direction) # z - 6 dz is
c
3z-i
(A) 2p - 4pi (B) p - 6pi
81 8
(C) 4p - 6pi (D) 1
81
Q. 70 There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of them are defective. Suppose 5 calculators
are randomly picked for inspection (i.e. , each has the same chance of being
selected), what is the probability that only one of the defective calculators will be
included in the inspection ?
(A) 1 (B) 1
2 3
(C) 1 (D) 1
4 5
Q. 71 A spherical naphthalene ball exposed to the atmosphere losses volume at a rate

proportional to its instantaneous surface are due to evaporation. If the initial
diameter of the ball is 2 m and the diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months, the
ball completely evaporates in
(A) 6 months
(B) 9 months
(C) 12 months
(D) Infinite time
dy
Q. 72 The solution of the differential equation, x 2 + 2xy - x + 1 = 0 , given that at
dx
x = 1, y = 0 is
(A) 1 - 1 + 1 2 (B) 1 - 1 - 1 2
2 x 2x 2 x 2x
(C) 1 + 1 + 1 2 (D) - 1 + 1 + 1 2
2 x 2x 2 x 2x

YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 73 Consider the matrices X(4 # 3), Y(4 # 3) and P(2 # 3) .

The order of [P (XT Y) - 1 PT ]T will be
(A) (2 # 2) (B) (3 # 3)
(C) (4 # 3) (D) (3 # 4)
Q. 74 Consider a non-homogeneous system of linear equations representing

mathematically an over-determined system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) consistent having a unique solution
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
(D) inconsistent having no solution
Q. 75 Which one of the following is NOT true for complex number Z1 and Z2 ?
(A) Z1 = Z1 Z22
r
Z2 Z2
(B) Z1 + Z2 # Z1 + Z2
(C) Z1 - Z2 # Z1 - Z2
(D) Z1 + Z2 2 + Z1 - Z2 2 = Z1 2 + 2 Z2 2
Q. 76 Which one of the following statement is NOT true ?

(A) The measure of skewness is dependent upon the amount of dispersion
(B) In a symmetric distribution, the values of mean, mode and median are the
same
(C) In a positively skewed distribution : mean > median > mode
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution : mode > mean > median
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 77 Consider the system of equation A(n # n) X(n # t) = l(n # 1) where, l is a scalar. Let
(li, Xi) be an eigen-pair of an eigen value and its corresponding eigen vector for
real matrix A. Let be a (n # n) unit matrix. Which on of the following statement
is NOT correct ?
(A) For a homogeneous n # n system of linear equations, (A - l ) x = 0 having
a nontrivial solution, the rank of (A - l ) is less than n .
(B) For matrix Am, m being a positive integer, (lmi , X im) will be the eigen-pair for
all i.
(C) If AT = A- 1, then li = 1 for all i
(D) If AT = A , then li is real for all i
Q. 78 Transformation to linear form by substituting v = y1 - n of the equation

dy
+ p (t) y = q (t) yn; n > 0 will be
dt
(A) dv + (1 - n) pv = (1 - n) q (B) dv + (1 - n) pv = (1 - n) q
dt dt
(C) dv + (1 + n) pv = (1 - n) q (D) dv + (1 + n) pv = (1 + n) q
dt dt

Q. 79 A rail engine accelerates from its stationary position for 8 seconds and travels a
distance of 280 m. According to the Mean Value Theorem, the speedometer at a
certain time during acceleration must read exactly
(A) 0 (B) 8 kmph
(C) 75 kmph (D) 126 kmph
d 2y dy dy x
= 0 in the range 0 < x < p
dx a 4 k
Q. 80 The solution of + 2 + 17y = 0; y (0) = 1,
dx 2 dx 4
is given by
(A) e- x b cos 4x + 1 sin 4x l (B) ex b cos 4x - 1 sin 4x l

4 4
(C) e- 4x b cos x - 1 sin x l (D) e- 4x b cos 4x - 1 sin 4x l
4 4
Q. 81 Value of the integral # (xydy - y2 dx), where , c is the square cut from
the first quadrant byc the line x = 1 and y = 1 will be (Use Green’s theorem to
change the line integral into double integral)
(A) 1 (B) 1
2
(C) 3 (D) 5
2 3
Q. 82 Consider the likely applicability of Cauchy’s Integral Theorem to evaluate the

following integral counter clockwise around the unit circle c.
I = # sec zdz ,
c
z being a complex variable. The value of I will be
(A) I = 0 : singularities set = f
= &! 2n + 1=p n: = singularities set
(B) I , 0 , , . ......................................................................
012 0
2
(C) I = p/2 : singularities set = {! np; n = 0, 1, 2...............}
(D) None of above
Statement for Linked Q. 83 and 84 :

Give a > 0, we wish to calculate its reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton Raphson
Method for f (x) = 0 .
Q. 83 The Newton Raphson algorithm for the function will be
(A) Xk + 1 = 1 aXk + a k (B) Xk + 1 = aXk + a X k2 k
2 Xk 2
(C) Xk + 1 = 2Xk = aX k2 (D) Xk + 1 = Xk - a X k2
2
Q. 84 For a = 7 and starting with x 0 = 0.2 , the first two iterations will be
(A) 0.11, 0.1299
(B) 0.12,0.1392
(C) 0.12, 0.1416
(D) 0.13, 0.1428

YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 85 Real matrices [A] 3 # 1, [B] 3 # 3, [C] 3 # 5, [D] 5 # 5 and [F] 5 # 1 are given. Matrices [B] and
[E] are symmetric.
Following statements are made with respect to these matrices.
1. Matrix product [F]T [C]T [B] [C] [F] is a scalar.
2. Matrix product [D]T [F] [D] is always symmetric.
With reference to above statements, which of the following applies ?
(A) Statement 1 is true but 2 is false
(B) Statement 1 is false but 2 is true
(C) Both the statement are true
(D) Both the statement are false
Q. 86 The summation of series S = 2 + 5 + 82 + 113 + ............3 is

2 2 2
(A) 4.50 (B) 6.0
(C) 6.75 (D) 10.0
3 2
Q. 87 The value of the function f (x) = lim x 3 + x 2 is
x " 0 2x - 7x
(A) 0 (B) - 1
7
(C) 1 (D) 3
7
YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
4 -2
The eigenvalues of the matrix >
-2 1 H
Q. 88
(A) are 1 and 4 (B) are - 1 and 2

(C) are 0 and 5 (D) cannot be determined
Q. 89 The function f (x) = 2x3 - 3x2 - 36x + 2 has its maxima at

(A) x =- 2 only (B) x = 0 only
(C) x = 3 only (D) both x =- 2 and x = 3
Q. 90 Biotransformation of an organic compound having concentration (x) can be

modeled using an ordinary differential equation dx + kx2 = 0 , where k is the
dt
reaction rate constant, If x = a at t = 0 , the solution of the equation is
(A) x = ae- kt (B) 1 = 1 + kt
x a
(C) x = a (1 - e- kt) (D) x = a + kt
Q. 91 A hydraulic structure has four gates which operate independently. The probability
of failure of each gate is 0.2. Given that gate 1 has failed, the probability that
both gates 2 and 3 will fail is
(A) 0.240 (B) 0.200
(C) 0.040 (D) 0.008

YEAR 2003 ONE MARK

R4 2 1 3V
S W
Q. 92 Given Matrix [A] = S6 3 4 7W, the rank of the matrix is
S2 1 0 1W
(A) 4 T X (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
Q. 93 A box contains 10 screws, 3 of which are defective. Two screws are drawn at
random with replacement. The probability that none of the two screws is defective
will be
(A) 100% (B) 50%
(C) 49% (D) None of these
Q. 94 If P, Q and R are three points having coordinates (3, - 2, - 1), (1, 3, 4), (2, 1 - 2)
in XYZ space, then the distance from point P to plane OQR (O being the origin
of the coordinate system) is given by
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 9
YEAR 2003 TWO MARK
Q. 95 If L defines the Laplace Transform of a function, L [sin (at)] will equal to

(A) 2 a 2 (B) 2 a 2
s -a s +a
(C) 2 s 2 (D) 2 s 2
s +a s -a
Q. 96 The Fourier series expansion of a symmetric and even function, f (x) where
f (x) = 1 + (2x/p), - p # x # 0
and = 1 - (2x/p), 0 # x # p
will be
(A) / 24 2 (1 + cos np) (B) / 24 2 (1 - cos np)
3 3
n=1 p n n=1 p n
3
4
(C) / 2 2 (1 - sin np) (D) / 24 2 (1 + sin np)
3
n=1 p n n=1 p n
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
-1 4
Q. 97 Eigen values of the following matrix are > H
4 -1
(A) 3 and –5 (B) –3 and 5
(C) –3 and –5 (D) 3 and 5
Q. 98 The value of the following definite integral is

p
2
2x dx
# 1 sin
+ cos x
-p
2
(A) - 2 ln 2 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) None of these

Q. 99 The following function has a local minima at which value of x

(A) - 5 (B) 5
2
(C) 5 (D) - 5
2 2
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS

1
Q. 100 The value of the following improper integral is # x ln x
0
(A) 1/4 (B) 0

(C) –1/4 (D) 1
Q. 101 The directional derivative of the following function at (1, 2) in the direction of
^4i + 3j h is
f ^x, y h = x2 = y2
(A) 4/5 (B) 4
(C) 2/5 (D) 1
Q. 102 The limit of the following sequence as n " 3 is

xn = n1/n
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) - 3
Q. 103 The Laplace transformed of the following function is

sin t for 0 # t # p
f^t h = *
0 for 1>p
(A) 1 for all s > 0 (B) 1 2 for all s < p
1 + s2 1+s
- ps - ps
(C) 1 + e 2 for all s > 0 (D) e 2 for all s > 0
1+s 1+s
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 104 The number of boundary conditions required to solve the following differential
equation is
22f 22f
+ =0
2x2 2y2
(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 4 (D) 1
p/4
Q. 105 The value of the integral is I = # cos xdx 2
(A) p + 1 (B) p - 1
8 4 8 4
(C) - p - 1 (D) - p + 1
8 4 8 4

3 5 7
Q. 106 The limit of the following series as x approaches p is f ^x h = x - x + x - x
2 3! 5! 7!
(A) 2p (B) p
3 2
(C) p (D) 1
3
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 107 Determinant of the following matrix is

R V
S5 3 2 W
S1 5 6 W
S3 5 10W
(A) –76 T X (B) –28
(C) +28 (D) +72
Q. 108 The product 6P @6Q@T of the following two matrices 6P @ and 6Q@ is
2 3 4 8
6P @ = >4 5H; 6Q@ = >9 2H
32 24 4 8
(A) > H (B) > H
56 46 9 2
35 22 32 56
(C) > H (D) > H
61 42 24 46
5 3
Q. 109 The Eigen value of the matrix > H are
2 9
(A) (5.13, 9.42) (B) (3.85, 2.93)
(C) (9.00, 5.00) (D) (10.16, 3.84)
Q. 110 The solution of the following differential equation with boundary conditions
y ^0 h = 2 and y' ^1 h =- 3 is
d2y
= 3x - 2
dx2
3 2 2
(A) y = x - x + 3x - 6 (B) y = 3x3 - x + 5x + 2
3 2 2
3 2
(C) y = x - x2 - 5x + 2 (D) y = x3 - x + 5x + 3
2 2 2 2
Q. 111 The inverse Laplace Transform of 1 is

^S 2 + 2s h
^1 + e+2t h
(A) ^1 - e-2t h (B)
2
^1 - e+2t h ^1 - e-2t h
(C) (D)
2 2
**********

ANSWER KEY
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
16 0.53 (B) 6 (D) (A) (B) (D) (D) (B)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(A) (D) (D) (A) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (D)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(A) (C) (A) (C) (B) (A) (C) (D) (A) (A)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(B) (D) (B) (C) (A) (B) (A) (B) (B) (A)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(D) (A) (D) (D) (B) (B) (A) (D) (C) (B)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(B) (D) (A) (D) (B) (A) (B) (A) (A) (A)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(C) (D) (C) (B) (C) (D) (A) (D) (A) (B)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(A) (A) (A) (A) (C) (D) (C) (A) (D) (A)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(C) (A) (C) (B) (B) (D) (B) (C) (A) (B)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(C) (C) (D) (A) (B) (B) (A) (C) (C) (C)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(A) (B) (C) (A) (A) (D) (B) (A) (D) (C)
111
(D)

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ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 A water treatment plant, having discharge 1 m3 / sec , has 14 filters to treat the
water. Each filter is having 50 m2 area, but due to backwashing activity 2 filters
are non operational. Calculate hydraulic loading rate in m3 /day.m2 .
Q. 2 Match the given water properties in Group I to the given titrants in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Alkalinity 1. N/35.5 AgNO 3
Q. Hardness 2. N/40 Na 2 S 2 O 3
R. Chlorine 3. N/50 H 2 SO 4
S. Dissolved oxygen 4. N/50 EDTA
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
YEAR 2013 ONE MARKS
Q. 3 A student began an experiment of 5 day 20ºC BOD on Monday. Since the 5th
day fell on Saturday. The final DO reading was taken on Monday. On calculation
BOD (i.e. 7 day 20ºC) was found to be 150 mg/L. What would be the 5 day,
20ºC BOD (in mg/L). Assume value of BOD rate constant (K) at standard
temperature of 20ºC as 0.23/day (base e).
Q. 4 In compacted cylindrical bituminous mix VMA = 15% (void mineral aggregate)
VV = 4.5% (air void). The magnitude of VFB (void filled bituminous) is
(A) 24 (B) 30
(C) 54 (D) 70
Q. 5 A setting tank is designed for a surface overflow rate of 30 m3 /day.m2 . Assuming

specific gravity of sediment particles = 2.65 . Density of water, rw = 1000 kg/m3 ,
dynamic viscosity of water m water = 0.001 Ns/m2 and stokes law is valid.
The approximate minimum size of particles which can be completely removed is
(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.02 mm
(C) 0.03 mm (D) 0.04 mm
Q. 6 Elevation and temperature data for places are tabulated below:

Elevation ‘m’ temp, ºC
4 21.25
444 15.70
based on data, lapse rate can be referred as
(A) super-adiabatic (B) sub-adiabatic
(C) neutral (D) inversion

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 7 A sample of domestic sewage is digested with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid,

potassium dichromate and mercuric sulphate in chemical oxygen demand (COD)
test. The digested sample is then titrated with standard ferrous ammonium
sulphate (FAS) to determine the unreacted amount of
(A) mercuric sulphate (B) potassium dichromate
(C) silver sulphate (D) sulphuric acid
Q. 8 Assertion [a] : At a manhole, the crown of the outgoing sever should not be higher
than the crown of the incoming sewer.
Reason [r] : Transition from a larger diameter incoming sewer to a smaller diameter
outgoing sewer at a manhole should not be made.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statement is
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 9 A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water
sample is
(A) 10-9.25 moles/L (B) 10-4.75 mmoles/L
(C) 0.302 mg/L (D) 3.020 mg/L
Q. 10 A town is required to treat 4.2 m3 / min of raw water for daily domestic supply.
Flocculating particles are to be produced by chemical coagulation. A column
analysis indicated that an overflow rate of 0.2 mm/s will produce satisfactory
particle removal in a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m. The required surface area
(in m2 ) for settling is
(A) 210 (B) 350
(C) 1728 (D) 21000
Common Data For Q. 11 and 12 :

An activated sludge system (sketched below) is operating at equilibrium with
the following information. Waste water related data : flow rate = 500 m3 /hour
, influent BOD = 150 mg/L, effluent BOD = 10 mg/L. Aeration tank related
data : hydraulic retention time = 8 hours, mean-cell-residence time = 240 hours,
volume = 4000 m3 , mixed liquor suspended solids = 2000 mg/L.

Q. 11 The food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg BOD per kg biomass per day) for the
aeration tank is
(A) 0.015 (B) 0.210
(C) 0.225 (D) 0.240
Q. 12 The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted from the system is

(A) 24000 (B) 1000
(C) 800 (D) 33
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 13 Consider the following unit processes commonly used in water treatment;

rapid mixing (RM), flocculation (F), primary sedimentation (PS), secondary
sedimentation (SS), chlorination (C) and rapid sand filtration (RSF). The order
of these unit processes (first to last) in a conventional water treatment plant is
(A) PS–RSF–F–RM–SS–C (B) PS–F–RM–RSF–SS–C
(C) PS–F–SS–RSF–RM–C (D) PS–RM–F–SS–RSF–C
Q. 14 Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of total coliform as .106 /100 mL . After
chlorination, the MPN value declines to 102 /100 mL. The percentage removal (%
R) and log removal (log R) of total coliform MPN is
(A) %R = 99.90 ; log R = 4 (B) %R = 99.90 ; log R = 2
(C) %R = 99.99 ; log R = 4 (D) %R = 99.99 ; log R = 2
Q. 15 Consider four common air pollutants found in urban environments, NO, SO 2 ,

Soot and O 3 . Among these which one is the secondary air pollutant ?
(A) O 3 (B) NO
(C) SO 2 (D) Soot
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 16 Total suspended particularte matter (TSP) concentration in ambient air is to

be measured using a high volume sampler. The filter used for this purpose had
an initial dry weight of 9.787 g. The filter was mounted in the sampler and the
initial air flow rate through the filter was set at 1.5 m3 / min . Sampling continued
for 24 hours. The airflow after 24 hours was measured to be 1.4 m3 / min . The dry
weight of the filter paper after 24 hour sampling was 10.283 g. Assuming a linear
decline in the air flow rate during sampling, what is the 24 hour average TSP
concentration in the ambient air ?
(A) 59.2 mg/m3 (B) 118.6 mg/m3
(C) 237.5 mg/m3 (D) 574.4 mg/m3
Q. 17 Chlorine gas (8 mg/L as Cl 2 ) was added to a drinking water sample. If the free
chlorine residual and pH was measured to be 2 mg/L (as Cl 2 ) and 7.5, respectively,
what is the concentration of residual OCl- ions in the water ? Assume that the
chlorine gas added to the water is completely converted to HOCl and OCl- .
K
Atomic Weight of Cl : 35.5 Given : OCl- + H+ HOCl, K = 107.5
(A) 1.408 # 10-5 moles/L (B) 2.817 # 10-5 moles/L
(C) 5.634 # 10-5 moles/L (D) 1.127 # 10-4 moles/L


The sludge from the aeration tank of the activated sludge process (ASP) has solids
content (by weight) of 2%. This sludge is put in a sludge thickener, where sludge
volume is reduced to half. Assume that the amount of solids in the supernatant
from the thickener is negligible, the specific gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and the
density of water is 1000 kg/m3 .
Q. 18 What is the density of the sludge removed from the aeration tank ?
(A) 990 kg/m3 (B) 1000 kg/m3
(C) 1011 kg/m3 (D) 1022 kg/m3
Q. 19 What is the solids content (by weight) of the thickened sludge ?

(A) 3.96% (B) 4.00%
(C) 4.04% (D) 4.10%
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 20 A coastal city produces municipal solid waste (MSW) with high moisture content,
high organic materials, low calorific value and how inorganic materials. The most
effective and sustainable option for MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting (B) Dumping in sea
(C) Incineration (D) Landfill
Q. 21 According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, of the
Ministry of Environment and Forests, India, the day time and night time noise
level limits in ambient air for residential area expressed in dB(A) Leq are
(A) 50 and 40 (B) 55 and 45
(C) 65 and 55 (D) 75 and 70
Q. 22 An air parcel having 40c temperature moves from ground level to 500 m elevation
in dry air following the “adiabatic lapse rate”. The resulting temperature of air
parcel at 500 m elevation will be
(A) 35cC (B) 38cC
(C) 41cC (D) 44cC
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 23 If the BOD 3 of a wastewater sample is 75 mg/L and reaction rate constant k

(base e ) is 0.345 per day, the amount of BOD remaining in the given sample after
10 days is
(A) 3.12 mg/L
(B) 3.45 mg/L
(C) 3.69 mg/L
(D) 3.92 mg/L

Ion concentrations obtained for a groundwater sample (having pH = 8.1) are
given below :

Ion Ca2+ Mg2+ Na+ HCO -3 SO 2-

4 Cl-
Ion 100 6 15 250 45 39
concentration
(mg/L)
Atomic Ca = 40 Mg = 24 Na = 23 H = 1, S = 32 , Cl = 35.5
Weight C = 12 , O = 16
O = 16
Q. 24 Total hardness (mg/L as CaCO 3 ) present in the above water sample is

(A) 205 (B) 250
(C) 275 (D) 308
Q. 25 Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO 3 ) present in the above water sample is

(A) 205 (B) 250
(C) 275 (D)289
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 26 The reference pressure used in the determination of sound pressure level is

(A) 20 mPa (B) 20 dB
(C) 10 mPa (D) 10 dB
Q. 27 Particulate matter (fly ash) carried in effluent gases from the furnaces burning
fossil fuels are better removed by
(A) Cotton bag house filter (B) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
(C) Cyclone (D) Wet scrubber
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 28 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I
a. Coriolis effect
b. Fumigation
c. Ozone layer
d. Maximum mixing depth (mixing height)
List-II
1. Rotation of earth
2. Lapse rate and vertical temperature profile
3. Inversion
4. Dobson
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2

Q. 29 A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats wastewater in which 10%, 60% and
30% of particles have settling velocities of 0.1 mm/s, 0.2 mm/s and 0.1 mm/s
respectively. What would be the total percentage of particles removed if clarifier
operates at a Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) of 43.2 m3 /m2 d ?
(A) 43% (B) 56%
(C) 86% (D) 100%
Q. 30 An aerobic reactor receives wastewater at a flow rate of 500 m3 d having a COD of

2000 mg/L. The effluent COD is 400 mg/L. Assuming that wastewater contains
80% biodegradable waste, the daily volume of methane produced by the reactor is
(A) 0.224 m3 (B) 0.280 m3
(C) 224 m3 (D) 280 m3
Q. 31 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling
b. Secondary settling tank 2. Stoke’s law
c. Activated sludge process 3. Aerobic
d. Trickling filter 4. Contact stabilization
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

Following chemical species were repo9rted for water sample form a well :
Species Concentration (milli equivalent/L)
-
Chloride (Cl ) 15
Sulphate (SO 24 -) 15
Carbonate (CO 23 -) 05
Bicarbonate (HCO -3 ) 30
Calcium (Ca2 +) 12
Magnesium (Mg2 +) 18
pH 8.5
Q. 32 Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO 3 is
(A) 1500 (B) 2000
(C) 3000 (D) 5000
Q. 33 Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as CaCO 3 is

(A) 250 (B) 1500
(C) 1750 (D) 5000

YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 34 Two primary air pollutants are

(A) sulphar oxide and ozone
(B) nitrogen oxide and peroxyacetylnitrate
(C) sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon
(D) ozone and peroxyacetylnitrate
Q. 35 Two biodegradable components of municipal solid waste are

(A) plastics and wood (B) cardboard and glass
(C) leather and tin cans (D) food wastes and garden trimmings
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 36 A wastewater sample contains 10- 5.6 mmol/L of OH- ions at 25cC The pH of this
sample is
(A) 8.6 (B) 8.4
(C) 5.6 (D) 5.4
Q. 37 Match List-I (Estimation method) with List-II (Corresponding indicator) and

select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
a. Azide modified Winkler method for dissolved oxygen
b. Dichromate method for chemical oxygen demand
c. EDTA titrimetric method for hardness
d. Mohr or Argentometric method for chlorides
List-II
1. Eriochrome Black T
2. Ferroin
3. Potassium chromate
4. Starch
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Q. 38 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the
Reason [R] :
Assertion :The crown of the outgoing larger diameter sewer is always matched
with the crown of incoming smaller diameter sewer.
Reason : It eliminates backing up of sewage in the incoming smaller diameter
sewer.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct reason for [A]
(C) Both [A] and [R] are false
(D) [A] is true but [R] is false

Q. 39 The 5-day BOD of a wastewater sample is obtained as 190 mg/L (with k = 0.01h- 1
. The ultimate oxygen demand (mg/L) of the sample will be
(A) 3800 (B) 475
(C) 271 (D) 190
Q. 40 A water treatment plant is required to process 28800 m3 /d of raw water

(density=1000 kg/m3 , kinematic viscosity = 10- 6 m2 /s ). The rapid mixing tank
imparts a velocity gradient of 900s- 1 to blend 35 mg/L of alum with the flow for
a detention time of 2 minutes. The power input (W) required for rapid mixing is
(A) 32.4 (B) 36
(C) 324 (D) 32400
Q. 41 Match List-I (Terminology) with List-II (Definition/ Brief Description) select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
a. Primary treatment
b. Secondary treatment
c. Unit operation
d. Unit process
List-II
1. Contaminant removal by physical forces
2. Involving biological and or chemical reaction
3. Conversion of soluble organic matter to biomass
4. Removal of solid material from incoming wastewater
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 42 The pressure of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes

(A) cardio-cascular problems
(B) skin discolouration
(C) calcium deficiency
(D) increased laundry expenses
Q. 43 The dispersion of pollutants in atmosphere is maximum when

(A) environment lapse rate is greater than adiabatic lapse rate
(B) environment lapse rate is less than adiabatic lapse rate
(C) environment lapse rate is equal to adiabatic lapse rate
(D) maximum mixing depth is equal to zero

Q. 44 The alkalinity and the hardness of a water sample are 250 mg/L and 350 mg/L
as CaCO 3 , respectively. The water has
(A) 350 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero non-carbonate hardness
(B) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero non-carbonate hardness
(C) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and 350 mg/L non-carbonate hardness
(D) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and 100 mg/L non-carbonate hardness
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 45 Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are in series. The fractional efficiencies of

the upstream and downstream ESPs for size d p are 80% and 65%, respectively.
What is the overall efficiency of the system for the same d p ?
(A) 100% (B) 93%
(C) 80% (D) 65%
Q. 46 50 g of Co2 and 25 g of CH 4 are produced from the decomposition of municipal

solid waste (MSW) with a formula weight of 120 g. What is the average per capita
green house gas production in a city of 1 million people with a MSW production
rate of 500 ton/day ?
(A) 104 g/day (B) 120 g/day
(C) 208 g/day (D) 313 g/day

A completely mixed activated sludge process is used to treat a wastewater flow
of 1 million litres per day (1 MLD) having a BOD5 of 200 mg/L. The biomass
concentration in the aeration tank is 2000 mg/L and the concentration of the net
biomass leaving the system is 50 mg/L. The aeration tank has a volume of 200 m3
Q. 47 What is the hydraulic retention time of the wastewater in aeration tank ?
(A) 0.2 h (B) 4.8 h
(C) 10 h (D) 24 h
Q. 48 What is the average time for which the biomass stays in the system ?
(A) 5 h (B) 8 h
(C) 2 days (D) 8 days

A plain sedimentation tank with a length of 20 m, width of 10 m, and a depth of
3 m is used in a water treatment plant to treat 4 million litres of water per day
(4 MLD). The average temperature of water is 20cC . The dynamic viscosity of
water is 1.002 # 10- 3 Ns/m2 at 20cC . Density of water is 998.2 kg/m3 . Average
specific gravity of particles is 2.65.
Q. 49 What is the surface overflow rate in the sedimentation tank ?
(A) 20 m3 /m2 /day (B) 40 m3 /m2 /day
(C) 67 m3 /m2 /day (D) 133 m3 /m2 /day

Q. 50 What is the minimum diameter of the particle which can be removed with 100%
efficiency in the above sedimentation tank ?
(A) 11.8 # 10- 3 mm
(B) 16.0 # 10- 3 mm
(C) 50 # 10- 3 mm
(D) 160 # 10- 3 mm
YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 51 A synthetic sample of water is prepared by adding 100 mg Kaolinite (a clay

mineral), 200 mg glucose, 168 mg NaCl, 120 mg MgSO 4 , and 11 mg CaCl 2 to
1 litre of pure water. The concentrations of total solids (TS) and fixed dissolved
solids (FDS) respectively in the solution in mg/L are equal to
(A) 699 and 599 (B) 599 and 399
(C) 699 and 199 (D) 699 and 399
Q. 52 To determine the BOD 5 of a waste water sample, 5, 10 and 50 mL aliquots of the

waste water were dilute to 300 mL and incubated at 20cC in BOD bottles for 5
days. The results were as follows
S.No. Waste - water Initial DO DO after 5

volume, mL mg/L days mg/L
1. 5 9.2 6.9
2. 10 9.1 4.4
3. 50 8.4 0.0
Based on the data, the average BOD5 of the waste water is equal to
(A) 139.5 mg/L (B) 126.5 mg/L
(C) 109.8 mg/L (D) 72.2 mg/L
Q. 53 The cumulative noise power distribution curve at a certain location is given below
The value of L 40 is equal to

(A) 90 dBA
(B) 80 dBA
(C) 70 dBA
(D) 60 dBA

YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 54 The composition of a certain MSW sample and specific weights of its various
components are given below :
Component Per cent by Specific weight
weight (kg/m3 )
Food 50 300
Dirt and Ash 30 500
Plastics 10 65
Wood and Yard waste 10 125
3
Specific weight (kg/m ) of the MSW sample is
(A) 319 (B) 217
(C) 206 (D) 199
Q. 55 The mean indoor airborne Chloroform (CHCl 3) concentration in a room was

determine to be 0.4 mg/m3
Use the following data : T = 293 K, P = 1 atmosphere,
R = 82.05 # 10- 6 atm-m3 /mol -K.
Atomic weight : C = 12, H = 1, Cl = 35.5 .
This concentration expressed in parts per billion (volume basis, ppbv) is equal to
(A) 1.00 ppbv (B) 0.20 ppbv
(C) 0.10 ppbv (D) 0.08 ppbv

In a rapid sand filter, the time for reaching particle break through (TB) is defined
as the time elapsed from start of filter run to the time at which the turbidity
of the effluent from the filter is greater than 2.5 NTU. The time for reaching
terminal head loss (TH ) is defined as the time elapsed from the start of the filter
run to the time when head loss across the filter is greater than 3 m.
Q. 56 The effect of increasing the filter depth (while keeping all other conditions same)
on TB and TH is
(A) TB increases and TH decreases (B) both TB and TH increase
(C) TB decreases and TH increases (D) both TB and TH decrease
Q. 57 The effect of increasing the filter loading rate (while keeping all other conditions
same) on TB and TH is
(A) TB increases and TH decreases (B) both TB and TH increase
(C) TB decreases and TH increases (D) Both TB and TH decrease

A water contains the following dissolved ions;
[Na+] = 56 mg/L; [Ca2 +] = 40 mg/L ;
[Mg2 +] = 30 mg/L; [Al3 +] = 3 mg/L ;
[HCO 3-] = 190 mg/L; [Cl-] = 165 mg/L
Water pH is 7
Atomic weights: Ca : 40; Mg : 24; Al : 27; H : 1; C : 12; O : 16; Na : 23; Cl : 35.5

Q. 58 The total hardness of the sample in mg/L as CaCO 3 is

(A) 484 (B) 450
(C) 242 (D) 225
Q. 59 The non-carbonate hardness of the sample in mg/L as CaCO 3 is

(A) 225 (B) 156
(C) 86 (D) 0
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 60 Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of

(A) total organic nitrogen
(B) total organic and ammonia nitrogen
(C) total ammonia nitrogen
(D) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen
Q. 61 1 TCU is equivalent to the color produced by

(A) 1 mg/L of chloroplatinate ion
(B) 1 mg/L of platinum ion
(C) 1 mg/L platinum in form of choloroplatinate ion
(D) 1 mg/L of organo-chloroplatinate ion
Q. 62 In aerobic environment, nitrosomonas convert

(A) NH 3 to NO2 (B) NO 2- to NO 3-
(C) NH 3 to N2 O (D) NO 2- to HNO 3
Q. 63 Bulking sludge refers to having

(A) F/M<0.3/d
(B) 0.3/d<F/M<0.6/d
(C) F/M=zero
(D) F/M>0.6/d
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 64 If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1, the hydrogen ion concentration will be

(A) 10.94 # 10- 5 mol/L (B) 9.94 # 10- 5 mol/L
(C) 8.94 # 10- 6 mol/L (D) 7.94 # 10- 5 mol/L
Q. 65 List-I contains some properties of water/waste water and List-II contains list of
some tests on water/waste water. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Suspended solids concentration 1. BOD
b. Metabolism of biodegradable organics 2. MPN
c. Bacterial concentration 3. Jar test
d. Coagulant dose 4. Turbidity

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
below the lists :
List-I
a. Thickening of sludge
b. Stabilization of sludge
c. Conditioning of sludge
d. Reduction of sludge
List-II
1. Decrease in volume of sludge by chemical oxidation
2. Separation of water by heat or chemical treatment
3. Digestion of sludge
4. Separation of water by floatation or gravity
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Q. 67 A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow of 5005 m3 /d of municipal

waste water. The overflow rate is 35 m3 /m2 /d . The diameter of clarifier shall be
(A) 10.5 m
(B) 11.5 m
(C) 12.5 m
(D) 13.5
below the lists:
List-I
a. Release value
b. Check value
c. Gate value
d. Pilot value
List-II
1. Reduce high inlet pressure to lower outlet pressure
2. Limit the flow of water to single direction
3. Remove air from the pipeline
4. Stopping the flow of water in the pipeline

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Q. 69 In a certain situation, waste water discharged into a river mixer with the river
water instantaneously and completely. Following is the data available :
Waste water DO = 2.00 mg/L
Discharge rate = 1.10 m3 /s
River water DO = 8.3 mg/L
Flow rate = 8.70 m3 /s
Temperature = 20cC
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of waste and river shall be
(A) 5.3 mg/L (B) 6.5 mg/L
(C) 7.6 mg/L (D) 8.4 mg/L

A city is going to install the rapid sand filter the sedimentation tanks.
Use the following data.
Design loading rate to the filter - 200m3 /m2 d
Design flow rate - 0.5m3 /s
Surface area per filter box - 50m2
Q. 70 The surface area required for the rapid sand filter will be
(A) 210m2 (B) 215m2
(C) 216m2 (D) 218m2
Q. 71 The number of filters required shall be

(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 72 Most of the turbidity meters work on the scattering principle. The turbidity value
so obtained is expressed in
(A) CFU (B) FTU
(C) JTU (D) NTU
Q. 73 Hardness of water is directly measured by titration with ethylene-di-amine-

tetracetic acid (EDTA) using
(A) eriochrome black T indicator
(B) ferroin indicator
(C) methyl orange indicator
(D) phenolphthalein indicator

Q. 74 The organism, which exhibits very nearly the characteristics of an ideal pathogenic
indicator is
(A) Entamoeba histolytica
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Salmonella typhi
(D) Vibrio comma
YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 75 The present population of a community is 28000 with an average water consumption

of 4200 m3 /d . The existing water treatment plant has a design capacity of 6000
m3 /d . It is expected that the population will increase to 44000 during the next
20 years. The number of years from now when the plant will reach its design
capacity, assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth, will be
(A) 5.5 years (B) 8.6 years
(C) 15.0 years (D) 16.5 years
Q. 76 Water samples (X and Y) from two different source were brought ot the laboratory
for the measurement of dissolved oxygen (DO) using modified Winkler method.
Samples were transferred to 300 ml BOD bottles. 2 ml of MnSO 4 solution and 2
mL of alkaliodide-azide reagent were added to the bottles and mixed. Samples X
developed a brown precipitate, whereas sample Y developed a white precipitate.
In reference to these observations, the correct statement is
(A) both the samples were devoid of DO
(B) sample X was devoid of DO while sample Y contained DO
(C) sample X contained DO while sample Y was devoid of DO
(D) both the samples contained DO
Q. 77 A standard multiple-tube fermentation test was conducted on a sample of water

from a surface stream. The results of the analysis for the confirmed test are given
below.
Simple size (mL) No. of positive No. of negative
results out of 5 results out of 5
tubes tubes
1.0 4 1
0.1 3 2
0.01 1 4
MPN index and 95% confidence limits for combination of positive results when
the tubes used per dilutions (10 mL, 1.0 mL, 0.1 mL)
Combination of MPN index per 100 95% confidence limit
positive mL Lower upper
4-2-1 26 12 65
4-3-1 33 15 77
Using the above MPN index table, the Most Probable Number MPN of the
sample is
(A) 26 (B) 33
(C) 260 (D) 330

Q. 78 The design parameter for flocculation is given by a dimensionless number Gt ,

where G is the velocity gradient and t is the detention time. Values of Gt ranging
from 10 4 to 105 are commonly used, with t ranging from 10 to 30 min. The most
preferred combination of G and t to produce smaller and denser flocs is
(A) large G values with short t (B) large G values with long t
(C) smaller G values with short t (D) small G values with short t
Q. 79 Chlorine gas used for disinfection combines with water to form hypochlorous acid
(HOCl ). The HOCl ionizes to form hypochlorite (OCL- ) in a reversible reaction :
HOCl + H+ + OCl- (k = 2.7 # 10- 8 at 20cC), the equilibrium of which is
government by pH. The sum of HOCl and OCL- is known as free chlorine residual
and HOCl in the free chlorine residual is available at a pH value
(A) 4.8 (B) 6.6
(C) 7.5 (D) 9.4
Q. 80 An analysis for determination of solids in the return sludge of Activated Sludge

Process was done as follows:
1. A crocible was dried to a constant mass of 62.485 g.
2. 75 mL of a well-mixed sample was taken in the 62.485 g.
3. The crucible with the sample was dried to a constant mass of 65.020 g in a
drying oven at 104cC .
4. The crucible with the dried sample was placed in a muffle furnace at 600cC
, for an hour. After cooling, the mass of the crucible with residues was
63145 g.
The concentration of organic fraction of solids present in the return sludge sample
is
(A) 8800 mg/L (B) 25000 mg/L
(C) 33800 mg/L (D) 42600 mg/L
Q. 81 A portion of waste water sample was subjected to standard BOD test (5 days,
20cC ), yielding a value of 180 mg/L. The reaction rate constant (to the base’e)
at 20cC was taken as 0.18 per day. The reaction rate other temperature may be
estimated by kT = k20 (1.047)T - 20 . The temperature at which the other portion of
the sample shoudl be tested, to exert the same BOD in 2.5 days, is
(A) 4.9cC (B) 24.9cC
(C) 31.7cC (D) 35.0cC
Q. 82 The following data are given for a channel-type grit chamber of length 7.5 m.
1. flow-through velocity = 0.3 m/s
2. the depth of waste water at peak flow in the channel = 0.9 m
3. specific gravity of inorganic particles = 2.5
4. g = 9.80 m/s2 , m = 1.002 # 10- 3 N-s/m2 at 20cC ,
rw = 1000 kg/m3
Assuming that the Stoke’s law is valid, the largest diameter particles that would
be removed with 100 per cent efficiency is
(A) 0.04 mm (B) 0.21 mm
(C) 1.92 mm (D) 6.64 mm

Q. 83 An existing 300 mm diameter circular sewer is laid at a slope of

1 : 28 and carries a peak discharge of 1728 m3 /d . Use the partial flow diagram
shown in the given figure and assume Manning’s n = 0.015
At the peak discharge, the depth of flow and the velocity are, respectively,
(A) 45 mm and 0.28 m/s (B) 120 mm and 0.50 m/s
(C) 150 mm and 0.57 m/s (D) 300 mm and 0.71 m/s
YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 84 The results of analysis of raw water sample are given below :

Turbidity : 5 mg/L pH : 7.4
Fluorides : 2.5 mg/L Total Hardness : 300 mg/L
Iron : 3.0 mg/L MPN : 50 per 100 mL
From the data given above, it can be inferred that water needs removal of
(A) turbidity followed by disinfection
(B) fluorides and hardness
(C) iron, followed by disinfection
(D) fluorides, hardness and iron followed by disinfection
Q. 85 Zero hardness of water is achieved by

(A) lime soda process
(B) excess lime treatment
(C) ion exchange treatment
(D) excess alum and lime treatment
Q. 86 Which of the following sewage treatment methods has inherent problems of odour,
ponding and fly nuisance ?
(A) UASM system (B) Activated sludge process
(C) Trickling filters (D) Stabilization ponds

Q. 87 From amongst the following sewage treatment options, largest land requirements
for a given discharge will be needed for
(A) trickling filter (B) anaerobic pond
(C) oxidation ditch (D) oxidation pond
YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 88 Results of a water sample analysis are as follows :

Cation Concentration (mg/L) Equivalent Weight
Na+ 40 23
Mg+ 2 10 12.2
+2
Ca 55 20
K+ 2 39
(milli-equivalent weight of CaCO 3 = 50 mg/meq).
Hardness of the water sample in mg/L as CaCO 3 is
(A) 44.8 (B) 89.5
(C) 179 (D) 358
Q. 89 An ideal horizontal flow settling basing is 3 m deep having surface area 900 m2 .
Water flows at the rate of 8000 m3 /d , at water temperature 20cC (n = 103 kg/m
-s and r = 1000 kg/m3). Assuming Stoke’s law to be valid, the proportion
(percentage) of spherical sand particles (0.01 mm in diameter with specific gravity
2.65), that will be removed, is
(A) 32.5 (B) 67
(C) 87.5 (D) 95.5
Q. 90 Match List-I (Type of water impurity) with List-II (Method of treatment) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
a. Hardness
b. Brackish water from sea
c. Residual MPN form filters
d. Turbidity
List-II
1. Reverse Osmosis
2. Chlorination
3. Zeolite Treatment
4. Coagulation and Flocculation
5. Coagulation, Flocculation and Filtration
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 5
(B) 3 2 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 5
(D) 3 1 2 5

Q. 91 Settling test on a sample drawn from Aeration Tank liquor of ASP (

MLSS = 2800 mg/L ) was carried out with 1 litre sample. The test yielded a
settled volume of 200 mL. The value of Sludge Volume Index shall be
(A) 14.0 (B) 34.2
(C) 71.4 (D) 271
Q. 92 Match List-I (Characteristics of sewage discharged into inland waters ) with List-
II (Allowable limit, mg/L) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I
a. BOD5
b. COD
c. Oil and Grease
d. Total Suspended Solids
List-II
1. 250
2. 30
3. 20
4. 10
5. 5
6. 3
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 5 4 2
(B) 4 1 6 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 1 6 3

A water treatment plant treating 10 MLd to water requires 10 mg/L of filter
Alum, Al 2 (SO 4) 3 .18H 2 O . The water has 6 mg/L of alkalinity as CaCO 3 .
(Al = 26.97, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1, Ca = 40 and C = 12).
Q. 93 Total alkalinity requirement (106 mg per day as CaCO 3 ) matching filter Alum,
shall be
(A) 180 (B) 120
(C) 90 (D) 60
Q. 94 Quantity of Quick Lime required ( 106 mg per year as CaO) shall be

(A) 2132 (B) 3000
(C) 4132 (D) 6132


A conventional Activated sludge Plant treating 1000 m3 /d of municipal waste
water disposes of its anaerobically digested sludge on relatively impervious
farmland. Use the following data :
1. Raw Sewage : SS = 225 mg/L (70% volatile)
BOD = 190 mg/L
(Excess activated sludge returned
to primary)
2. Primary Settling : SS - 50% removal
BOD - 30 % removal
3. Excess Activated Sludge : 0.4 g VSS produced per g BOD
applied ( 80% volatile of total)
4. Anaerobic Digester : VSS reduced 50%
Digested sludge concentration -
60% Sludge Specific Gravity - 1
5. Application on farmland : 2m3 /ha =-d
Q. 95 Total voltage suspended solids to be anaerobically digested (kg/d VSS) shall be

(A) 133 (B) 168
(C) 233 (D) 245
Q. 96 Area requirements (ha) for disposal of the sludge on farmland shall be

(A) 2.95 (B) 1.95
(C) 0.95 (D) 0.55
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 97 In natural water, hardness is mainly caused by

(A) Ca++ and Mn++ (B) Ca++ and Fe++
(C) Na+ and K+ (D) Ca++ and Mg++
Q. 98 In disinfection, which of the following forms of chlorine is most effective in killing

the pathogenic bacteria?
(A) Cl (B) OCl
(C) NH2Cl (D) HOCl
Q. 99 In a domestic wastewater sample, COD and BOD were measured. Generally

which of the following statement is true for their relative magnitude?
(A) COD = BOD (B) COD > BOD
(C) COD < BOD (D) Nothing can be said
Q. 100 A Trickling filter is designed to remove

(A) Settleable Solids
(B) Colloidal Solids
(C) Dissolved Organic Matter
(D) None of the above

YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 101 The theoretical oxygen demand of a 0.001 mol/L glucose solution is

(A) 180 mg/L (B) 192 mg/L
(C) 90 mg/L (D) 96 mg/L
Q. 102 For a water treatment plant having a flow rate of 432 m3 /hr , what is the required
plan area of a Type-I settling tank to remove 90% of the particles having a
settling velocity of 0.12 cm/ sec is
(A) 120 m2 (B) 111 m2
(C) 90 m2 (D) 100 m2
Q. 103 A wastewater sample has an initial BOD of 222 mg/L. The first order BOD decay
coefficient is 0.4/day. The BOD consumed (in mg/L) in 5 days is
(A) 150 (B) 192
(C) 30 (D) 50
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 104 Use of coagulants such as alum

(A) results in reduction of pH of the treated water
(B) results in increase in pH of the treated water
(C) results in no change in pH of the treated water
(D) may cause an increase or decrease of pH of the treated water
Q. 105 Aeration of water is done to remove

(A) Suspended impurities (B) Colour
(C) Dissolved Salts (D) Dissolved gases
Q. 106 The following chemical is used for coagulation

(A) Ammonium Chloride
(B) Aluminium Chloride
(C) Aluminium Sulphate
(D) Copper Sulphate
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 107 The Ca2+ concentration and Mg2+ concentration of a water sample are 160 mg/lit
and 40 mg/lit as their ions respectively. The total hardness of the water sample
in terms of CaCO 3 in mg/lit is approximately equal to
(A) 120 (B) 200
(C) 267 (D) 567
Q. 108 A town has an existing horizontal flow sedimentation tank with an overflow
rate of 17 m3 /day/m2 , and it is desirable to remove particles that have settling
velocity of 0.1 mm/sec. Assuming the tank is an ideal sedimentation tank, the
percentage of particles removal is approximately equal to
(A) 30% (B) 50%
(C) 70% (D) 90%

Q. 109 If the BOD5,20 of waste is 150 mg/L and the reaction rate constant (to the base
‘e’) at 20cC is 0.35/day, then the ultimate BOD is mg/L is
(A) 97.5 (B) 181.5
(C) 212.9 (D) 230.5
**********

ANSWER KEY
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
144 (C) 128.097 (D) (B) (A) (B) (B) (C) (B)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(C) (C) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B) (C) (A) (A)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(B) (A) (C) (C) (A) (A) (B) (D) (B) (*)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(B) (A) (C) (C) (D) (D) (B) (A) (C) (D)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(A) (D) (A) (D) (B) (D) (B) (D) (A) (B)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(A) (C) (C) (A) (D) (C) (D) (D) (B) (B)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(C) (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (D) (A) (C) (C)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(C) (B) (A) (B) (C) (C) (D) (A) (B) (B)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(D) (B) (A) (D) (C) (C) (D) (C) (C) (D)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(C) (C) (C) (D) (*) (*) (D) (D) (B) (C)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109
(D) (B) (C) (A) (D) (C) (D) (B) (B)

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Civil Engineering
Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulic Machines
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FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 For a 2-D flow field, the stream function y is given as y = 3 ^y2 - x2h.
2
The magnitude of discharge occurring between the stream line passing through
points (0, 3) and (3, 4) is
(A) 6 units (B) 3 units
(C) 1.5 units (D) 2 units
Q. 2 Group I contains dimensionless parameter and Group II contains ratio

Group I Group II
P. Mach number 1. Ratio of inertial force and gravity
force.
Q. Reynold number 2. Ratio of fluid velocity and velocity of
sound.
R. Weber number 3. Ratio of inertial force and viscous
force.
S. Froude number 4. Ratio of inertial force and surface
tension force.
Correct match of the dimensionless parameter in Group I with Group II is
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
Q. 3 For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied
flow profile is
(A) at the downstream end (B) at the upstream end
(C) at both ends (D) at any intermediate section
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Q. 4 A 2 km pipe of 0.2 m diameter connects two reservoirs. The difference between

the water levels in the reservoir is 8 m. The Darcy Weisbach friction factor of the
pipe is 0.04. Accounting for frictional entry and exit losses. The velocity in the
pipe in (m/sec) is
(A) 0.63 (B) 0.35
(C) 2.52 (D) 1.25
Q. 5 The normal depth in a wide rectangular channel is increased by 10%. The %

increase in discharge in the channel is
(A) 20.1 (B) 15.4
(C) 10.5 (D) 17.2

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 6 If a small concrete cube is submerged deep in still water in such a way that the
pressure exerted on all faces of the cube is p, then the maximum shear stress
developed inside the cube is
(A) 0 (B) p/2
(C) p (D) 2p
Q. 7 A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at the base and has a side slope of 4
horizontal to 3 vertical. The bed slope is 0.002. The channel is lined with smooth
concrete (Manning’s n = 0.012 ).The hydraulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow
of 3.0 m is
(A) 20.0 (B) 3.5
(C) 3.0 (D) 2.1
Q. 8 A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m3 /s .

The Froude number of the flow is 0.8. The depth of flow (in m) in the channel is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 16 (D) 20
Q. 9 The circular water pipes shown in the sketch are flowing full. The velocity of flow
(in m/s) in the branch pipe “R” is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D)6
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 10 For a given discharge, the critical flow depth in an open channel depends on
(A) channel geometry only
(B) channel geometry and bed slope
(C) channel geometry, bed slope and roughness
(D) channel geometry, bed slope, roughness and Reynolds number
Q. 11 For a body completely submerged in a fluid, the centre of gravity (G ) and centre
of Buoyancy (O ) are known. The body is considered to be in stable equilibrium if
(A) O does not coincide with the centre of mass of the displaced fluid
(B) G coincides with the centre of mass of the displaced fluid
(C) O lies below G
(D) O lies above G

Q. 12 The flow in a horizontal, frictionless rectangular open channel is supercritical. A

smooth hump is built on the channel floor. As the height of hump is increased,
choked condition is attained. With further increase in the height of the hump, the
water surface will
(A) rise at a section upstream of the hump
(B) drop at a section upstream of the hump
(C) drop at the hump
(D) rise at the hump
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 13 A single pipe of length 1500 m and diameter 60 cm connects two reservoirs having
a difference of 20 m in their water levels. The pipe is to be replaced by two pipes
of the same length and equal diameter ‘d ’ to convey 25% more discharge under
the same head loss. If the friction factor is assumed to be the same for all the
pipes, the value of ‘d ’ is approximately equal to which of the following options ?
(A) 37.5 cm (B) 40.0 cm
(C) 45.0 cm (D) 50.0 cm
Q. 14 A spillway discharges flood flow at a rate of 9 m3 /s metre width. If the depth of

flow on the horizontal apron at the toe of the spillway is 46 cm, the tail water
depth needed to form a hydraulic jump is approximately given by which of the
following options ?
(A) 2.54 m (B) 4.90 m
(C) 5.77 m (D) 6.23 m
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 15 A mild-sloped channel is followed by a steep-sloped channel. The profiles of

gradually varied flow in the channel are
(A) M 3, S2 (B) M 3, S 3
(C) M2, S1 (D) M2, S2
Q. 16 The flow in a rectangular channel is subcritical. If width of the channel is reduced

at a certain section, the water surface under no-choke condition will
(A) drop at a downstream section
(B) rise at a downstream section
(C) rise at an upstream section
(D) not undergo any change
Q. 17 Match List-I (Devices) with List-II (Uses) and select the answer using the codes
given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Pitot tube 1. Measuring pressure in a pipe
b. Manometer 2. Measuring velocity of flow in a pipe
c. Venturimeter 3. Measuring air and gas velocity
d. Anemometer 4. Measuring discharge in a pipe

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 18 For a rectangular channel section, Match List-I (Geometrical elements) with List-
II (Proportions for hydraulicallys efficient section) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Top width 1. ye /2
b. Perimeter 2. ye
c. Hydraulic Radius 3. 2ye
d. Hydraulic Depth 4. 4ye
ye is the flow depth corresponding to hydraulically efficient section.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Q. 19 The Froude number of flow in a rectangular channel is 0.8. If the depth of flow is
1.5 m, the critical depth is
(A) 1.80 m (B) 1.56 m
(C) 1.36 m (D) 1.29 m
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 20 Direct step method of computation for gradually varied flow is

(A) applicable to non-prismatic channels
(B) applicable to prismatic channels
(C) applicable to both prismatic and non-prismatic channels
(D) not applicable to both prismatic and non-prismatic channels
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 21 Water flows through a 100 mm diameter pipe with a velocity of 0.015 m/sec. If
the kinematic viscosity of water is 1.13 # 10- 6 m2 sec , the friction factor of the
pipe material is
(A) 0.0015
(B) 0.032
(C) 0.037
(D) 0.048

Q. 22 A rectangular open channel of width 4.5 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m3 /sec.

The critical depth of the channel is
(A) 7.09 m (B) 17.0 m
(C) 2.16 m (D) 1.31 m
Q. 23 Water (gw = 9.879 kN/m3) flows with a flow rate of 0.3 m3 sec through a pipe AB
of 10 m length and of uniform cross-section. The end B is above end A and the
pipe makes an angle of 30c to the horizontal. For a pressure of 12 N/m2 at the
end B, the corresponding pressure at the end A is
(A) 12.0 kN/m2 (B) 17.0 kN/m2
(C) 56.4 kN/m2 (D) 61.4 kN/m2
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 24 A person standing on the bank of a canal drops a stone on the water surface. He
notices that the disturbance on the water surface is not travelling upstream. This
is because the flow in the canal is
(A) sub-critical (B) super-critical
(C) steady (D) uniform
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 25 The flow of water (mass density = 100 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity = 10- 6 m2 /s
in a commercial pipe, having equivalent roughness ks as 0.12 mm, yields an
average shear stress at the pipe boundary = 600 N/m2 . The value of ks /dl (dl
being the thickness of laminar sub-layer) for this pipe is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 6.0 (D) 8.0
Q. 26 A river reach of 2.0 km long with maximum flood discharge of 10000m3 /s is to be

physically modeled in the laboratory where maximum available discharge is 0.20
m3 /s . For a geometrically similar model based on equally of Froude number, the
length of the river reach (m) in the model is
(A) 26.4 (B) 25.0
(C) 20.5 (D) 18.0
Common Data For Questions. 27, 28 and 29 :

A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries a discharge of 16.0 m3 /s under uniform
flow condition with normal depth of 1.60 m. Minning’s ‘n’ is 0.015.
Q. 27 The longitudinal slope of the channel is
(A) 0.000585 (B) 0.000485
(C) 0.000385 (D) 0.000285
Q. 28 A hump is to be provided on the channel bed. The maximum height of the hump
without affecting the upstream flow condition is
(A) 0.50 m (B) 0.40 m
(C) 0.30 m (D) 0.20 m

Q. 29 The channel width is to be contracted. The minimum width to which the channel
can be contracted without affecting the upstream flow condition is
(A) 3.0 m (B) 3.8 m
(C) 4.1 m (D) 4.5 m

An automobile with projected area 2.6 m2 is running on a road with a speed of
120 km per hour. The mass density and the kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2
kg/m3 and 1.5 # 10- 5 m2 /s , respectively. The drag coefficient is 0.30.
Q. 30 The drag force on the automobile is
(A) 620 N (B) 600 N
(C) 580 N (D) 520 N
Q. 31 The metric horse power required to overcome the drag force is

(A) 33.23 (B) 31.23
(C) 23.23 (D) 20.23
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 32 There is a free overfall at the end of a long open channel. For a given flow rate,
the critical depth is less than the normal depth. What gradually varied flow
profile will occur in the channel for this flow rate ?
(A) M 1 (B) M 2
(C) M 3 (D) S1
Q. 33 At two point 1 and 2 in a pipeline the velocities are V and 2V, respectively. Both
the points are at the same elevation. The fluid density is r. The flow can be
assumed to be incompressible, inviscid, steady and irrotational. The difference in
pressures P1 and P2 at point 1 and 2 is
(A) 0.5 rV 2 (B) 1.5 rV 2
(C) 2 rV 2 (D) 3 rV 2
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 34 A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10 m/s and cross sectional area of 10
mm2 strikes a flat plate held normal to the flow direction. The density of water
is 1000 kg/m3 . The total force on the plate due to the jet is
(A) 100 N (B) 10 N
(C) 1 N (D) 0.1 N
Q. 35 A 1:50 scale model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in

the prototype is 100 kg/m3 . The discharge to be maintained in the model test is
(A) 0.057 m3 /s (B) 0.08 m3 /s
(C) 0.57 m3 /s (D) 5.7 m3 /s

Q. 36 A triangle open channel has a vertex angle of 90c and carries flow at a critical
depth of 0.30 m. The discharge in the channel is
(A) 0.08 m3 /s (B) 0.11 m3 /s
(C) 0.15 m3 /s (D) 0.2 m3 /s
Q. 37 Flow rate of a fluid (density = 1000 kg/m3 ) in a small diameter tube is 800 mm3 /s.
The length and the diameter of the tube are 2 m and 0.5 mm, respectively. The
pressure drop in 2 m length is equal to 2.0 MPa. The viscosity of the fluid is
(A) 0.025 Ns/m2
(B) 0.012 Ns/m2
(C) 0.00192 Ns/m2
(D) 0.00102 Ns/m2
Q. 38 The flow rate in the rectangular open channel is 2.0 m3 /s per metre width. The
channel bed slope is 0.002. The slope of ht cannel is classified as
(A) Critical (B) Horizontal
(C) Mild (D) Steep

A rectangular open channel needs to be designed to carry a flow of 2.0 m3 /s
under uniform flow conditions. The Manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.018. The
channel should be such that the flow depth is equal to half width, and the Froude
number is equal to 0.5.
Q. 39 The bed slope of the channel to be provided is
(A) 0.0012 (B) 0.0021
(C) 0.0025 (D) 0.0052
Q. 40 Keeping the width, flow depth and roughness the same, if the bed slope of the
above channel is double, the average boundary shear stress under uniform flow
conditions is
(A) 5.6 N/m2 (B) 10.8 N/m2
(C) 12.3 N/m2 (D) 17.2 N/m2
YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 41 The necessary and sufficient condition for a surface to be called as a ‘free surface’
is
(A) no stress should be acting on it
(B) tensile stress acting on it must be zero
(C) shear stress acting on it must be zero
(D) no print on it should be under any stress
Q. 42 A channel with a mild slope is followed by a horizontal channel and then by a

sleep channel. What gradually varied flow profiles will occur ?
(A) M1, H1, S1 (B) M2, H2, S2
(C) M1, H2, S 3 (D) M1, H2, S2

Q. 43 Identify the FALSE statement from the following. The specific speed of the pump
increases with
(A) increase in shaft speed
(B) increase in discharge
(C) decrease in gravitational acceleration
(D) increase in head
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 44 The velocity field for a flow is given by :

Vv = (5x + 6y + 7zv) it + (6x + 5y + 9z) tj + (3x + 2y + lz) kt and the density varies as
r = r0 exp (- 2t). In order that the mass is conserved, the value of l should be
(A) - 12 (B) - 10
(C) - 8 (D) 10
Q. 45 A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular, horizontal, frictonless channel. What

would be the pre-jump depth if the discharge per unit width is 2 m3 /s/m and the
energy loss is 1 m ?
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.3 m
(C) 0.8 m (D) 0.9 m
Q. 46 A very wide rectangular channel is designed to carry a discharge of 5 m3 /s per

meter width. The design is based on the Manning’s equation with the roughness
coefficient obtained from the grain size using Strickler’s equation and results in a
normal depth of 1.0 m. By mistake, however, the engineer used the grain diameter
in mm in the Strickler’s equation instead of in meter. What should be the correct
normal depth?
(A) 0.32 m (B) 0.50 m
(C) 2.00 m (D) 3.20 m
Q. 47 The flow of glycerin (kinematic viscosity v = 5 # 10- 4 m2 /s ) in an open channel

is to be modeled in a laboratory flume using water (v = 10- 6 m2 /s ) as the flowing
fluid. If both gravity and viscosity are important, what should be the length scale
(i.e. ratio of prototype to model dimensions) for maintaining dynamic similarity ?
(A) 1 (B) 22
(C) 63 (D) 500
Q. 48 The thickness of the laminar boundary layer on a flat plate at a point A is 2 cm

and at a point B, 1 m downstream of A from the leading edge of the plate ?
(A) 0.50 m (B) 0.80 m
(C) 1.00 m (D) 1.25 m
Common Data For Questions. 49 and 50 :

An upward flow of oil (mass density 800 kg/m3 , dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/m/s)
takes place under laminar conditions in an inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as shown
in the figure. The pressures at sections 1 and 2 are measured as p1 = 435 kN/m2
and p2 = 200 kN/m2 .

Q. 49 The discharge in the pipe as equal to

(A) 0.100 m3 /s (B) 0.127 m3 /s
(C) 0.144 m3 /s (D) 0.161 m3 /s
Q. 50 If the flow is reversed, keeping the same discharge and the pressure at section 1
is maintained as 435 kN/m2 , the pressure at section 2 is equal to
(A) 488 kN/m2 (B) 549 kN/m2
(C) 586 kN/m2 (D) 614 kN/m2
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 51 An inert tracer is injected continuously from a point in an unsteady flow field.

The locus of locations of all tracer particles at an instance of time represents
(A) Streamline
(B) Pathline
(C) Streamtube
(D) Streakline
Q. 52 The reading of differential manometer of a Venturimeter, placed at 45c to the

horizontal is 11 cm. If the Venturimeter is turned to horizontal position, the
manometer reading will be
(A) zero (B) 11 cm
2
(C) 11 cm (D) 11 2 cm
Q. 53 A horizontal bed channel is followed by a steep bed channel as shown in the

figure. The gradually-varied profiles over the horizontal and sleep beds are
(A) H2 and S2 respectively (B) H2 and S1 respectively

(C) H 3 and S2 respectively (D) H 3 and S1 respectively

YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 54 A stream function is given by :

Y = 2x2 y + (x + 1) y2
The flow rate across a line joining points A(3,0) and B(0,2) is
(A) 0.4 units (B) 1.1 units
(C) 4 units (D) 5 units
Q. 55 The circulation 'G' around a circle of radius 2 units for the velocity field u = 2x + 3y
and v =- 2y is
(A) - 6p unit
(B) - 12p units
(C) - 18p units
(D) - 24p units
Q. 56 A tank and a deflector are placed on a frictionless trolley. The tank issues water
jet (mass density of water = 1000 kg/m3 ), which strikes the deflector and turns
by 45c. If the velocity of jet leaving the deflector is 4 m/s and discharge is 0.1
m3 /s , the force recorded by the spring will be
(A) 100 N (B) 100 2 N

(C) 200 N (D) 200 2 N
Q. 57 Cross-section of an object (having same section normal to the paper) submerged

into a fluid consists of a square of sides 2 m and triangle as shown in the figure.
The object is hinged at point P that is one meter below the fluid free surface. If
the object is to be kept in the position as shown in the figure, the value of 'X'
should be
(A) 2 3 (B) 4 3
(C) 4 m (D) 8 m
Q. 58 Critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy

at that section is
(A) 0.75 m (B) 1.0 m
(C) 1.5 m (D) 2.25 m

Q. 59 A partially open sluice gate discharge water into a rectangular channel. The
tail water depth in the channel is 3 m and Froude number is 1/2 2 . If a free
hydraulic jump is to be formed at downstream of the sluice gate after the vena
contract a of the jet coming out from the sluice gate, the sluice gate opening
should be (coefficient of contraction Cc = 0.9 )
(A) 0.3 m (B) 0.4 m
(C) 0.69 m (D) 0.9 m
Q. 60 A triangular irrigation lined canal carries a discharge of 25 m3 /s at bed slope

= 1 . If the side slopes of the canal are 1:1 and
6000
Manning’s coefficient is 0.018, the central depth of flow is equal to
(A) 2.98 m (B) 3,62 m
(C) 4.91 m (D) 5.61 m
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 61 The X component of velocity in a two dimensional incompressible flow is given

by u = 1.5x . At the point (x, y) = (1, 0), the y component of velocity v = 0 . The
equation for the y component of velocity is
(A) v = 0 (B) v = 1.5y
(C) v =- 1.5x (D) v =- 1.5y
Q. 62 A frictionless fluid of density r flow through a bent pipe as shown below. If A

is the cross sectional area and V is the velocity of flow, the forces exerted on
segment 1 - 2 of the pipe in the x and y direction are, respectively,
(A) rAV 2; 0 (B) rAV 2; 2 rAV 2

(C) 0; 0 (D) 0; 1 rAV 2
2
Q. 63 In the inclined manometer shown in the figure below, the reservoir is large. Its
surface may be assumed to remain at a fixed elevation. A is connected to a gas
pipeline and the deflection noted on the inclined glass tube is 100 mm Assuming
q = 30c and the manometric fluid as oil with specific gravity of 0.86, the pressure
at A is

(A) 43 mm water (vaccum) (B) 43 mm water

(C) 86 mm water (D) 100 mm water
Q. 64 For a pipe of radius, r, flowing half full under the action of gravity, the hydraulic
depth is
(A) r (B) pr
4
(C) r (D) 0.379r
2
Q. 65 A wide channel is 1 m deep and has a velocity of flow, V , as 2.13 m/s. If a

disturbance is caused, an elementary wave can travel upstream with a velocity of
(A) 1.00 m/s
(B) 2.13 m/s
(C) 3.13 m/s
(D) 5.26 m/s
Q. 66 An aircraft is flying in level flight at a speed of 200 km/hr through air (density,
r = 1.2kg/m3 , and viscosity m = 1.6 # 10- 5 Ns/m2 ). The lift coefficient at this
speed is 0.4 and the drag coefficient is 0.0065. The mass of the aircraft is 800 kg.
The effective lift area of the aircraft is
(A) 21.2 m2 (B) 10.6 m2
(C) 2.2 m2 (D) 1.1 m2
YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 67 A velocity field is given as Vr = 2yit + 3xjt where x and y are in metres. The
acceleration of a fluid particle at (x, y) = (1, 1) in the x direction is
(A) 0 (B) 5.00 m/s2
(C) 6.00 m/s2 (D) 8.48 m/s2
Q. 68 The velocity in m/s at a point in a two-dimensional flow is given as Vr = 2yit + 3xjt

. The equation of the stream the passing through the point is
(A) 3dx - 2dy = 0 (B) 2x + 3y = 0
(C) 3dx + 2dy = 0 (D) xy = 6
Q. 69 A fire protection system is supplied from a water tower with a bent pipe as shown
in the figure. The pipe friction f is 0.03. Ignoring all minor losses, the maximum
discharge, Q, in the pipe is
(A) 31.7 lit/sec (B) 24.0 lit/sec

(C) 15.9 lit/sec (D) 12.0 lit/sec

Q. 70 A steady flow occurs in an open channel with lateral inflow of qm3 s per unit
width as shown in the figure. The mass conservation equation is
2q 2Q
(A) =0 (B) =0
2x 2x
2Q 2Q
(C) -q = 0 (D) +q = 0
2x 2x
Q. 71 A steep wide rectangular channel takes off from a reservoir having an elevation
of 101.2 m. At the entrance, the bottom elevation of the channel is 100 m. If
the slope of the channel is increased by 4%, the discharge per unit length in the
channel will be
(A) 2.24 m2 /s
(B) higher than 2.24 m2 /s by 4%
(C) higher than 2.24 m2 /s by 2%
(D) choked
Q. 72 The height of a hydraulic jump in the stilling pool of 1 : 25 scale model was
observed to be 10 cm. The corresponding prototype height of the jump is
(A) not determinable from the data given
(B) 2.5 m
(C) 0.5 m
(D) 0.1 m
Q. 73 A thin flat plate 0.5 m # 0.7 m in size settles in a large tank of water with a
terminal velocity of 0.12 m/s. The coefficients of drag CD = 1.328 for a laminar
RL
boundary and CD = 0.072 1/5 for a turbulent boundary layer, where R L is the plate
(RL)
Reynolds number. Assume m = 10- 3 Ns/m2 and r = 1000 kg/m3
The submerged weight of the plate is

(A) 0.115 N
(B) 0.0118 N
(C) 0.0231 N
(D) 0.0376 N

Q. 74 The allowable Net Positive Sustion Head (NPSH) for a pump provided by the
manufacturer for a flow of 0.05 m3 /s is 3.3 m. The temperature of water is
30cC (vapour pressure head absolute = 0.44 m ), atmosphere pressure is 200 kPa
absolute and the heat loss from the reservoir to pump 0.3 Nm/N. The maximum
height of the pump above the sustion reservoir is
(A) 10.19 m (B) 6.89 m
(C) 6.15 m (D) 2.86 m
Common Data For Questions. 75 and 76

The laminar flow takes place between closely spaced parallel plates as shown in
y
figure below. The velocity profile is given by u = V . The gap height, h , is 5 mm
h
and the space is filled with oil (specific gravity=0.86, viscosity m = 2 # 10- 4 Ns/m2
). The bottom plate is stationery and the top plate moves with a steady velocity
of V = 5 cm/s . The area of the plate is 0.25 m2
Q. 75 The ratio of rotation of a fluid particle is given by

y y
(A) wy = 0; w2 =- (B) wy = 0; wz =-
2h h
y y y
(C) wy = ; wz = (D) wy = ; w2 = 0
h h h
Q. 76 The power required to keep the plate in steady motion is
(A) 5 # 10- 4 watts (B) 10- 5 watts
(C) 2.5 # 10- 5 watts (D) 5 # 10- 5 watts
YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 77 For a two-dimensional irrotational flow, the velocity potential defined as

f = loge (x2 + y2). Which of the following is a possible stream function, y for this
flow ?
(A) 1 tan- 1 (y/x) (B) tan- 1 (y/x)
2
(C) 2 tan- 1 (y/x) (D) 2 tan- 1 (x/y)
Q. 78 A flat plate is kept in an infinite fluid medium. The fluid has a uniform free-
stream velocity parallel to the plate, peak the correct matching List-I and List-II
List-I
a. Boundary layer thickness
b. Shear stress at the plate
c. Pressure gradient along the plate
List-II
1. Decreases in the flow direction
2. Increases in the flow direction
3. Remains unchanged

Codes :
a b c
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 2 2
(C) 1 1 2
(D) 2 1 3
Q. 79 A laboratory model of a river is built to a geometric scale of 1:100. The fluid
used in the model oil of mass density 900 kg/m3 . The highest flood in the river
is 10,000 m3 /s . The corresponding discharge in the model shall be
(A) 0.095 m3 /s (B) 0.100 m3 /s
(C) 0.105 m3 /s (D) 10.5 m3 /s
YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 80 A horizontal jet strikes a frictionless vertical plate (the plan view is shown in the
figure). It is then divided into two parts, as shown in the figure. If the impact loss
is neglected, what is the value of q ?
(A) 15c (B) 30c

(C) 45c (D) 60c
Q. 81 Two pipelines, one carrying oil (mass density 900 kg/m3 ) and the other water,
are connected to a manometer as shown in figure. By what amount the pressure
in the water pipe should be increased so that the mercury levels in both the limbs
of the manometer become equal ? (mass density of mercury = 13550 kg/m3 and
g = 9.81 m/s2 )
(A) 24.7 kPa (B) 26.5 kPa

(C) 26.7 kPa (D) 28.9 kPa

Q. 82 A solid sphere (diameter 6 mm) is rising through oil (mass density 900 kg/m3 ,
dynamic viscosity 0.7 kg/ms) at a constant velocity of 1 cm/s. What is the specific
weight of the material form which the sphere is made ? (Take g = 9.81 m/s2 )
(A) 4.3 kN/m3 (B) 5.3 kN/m3
(C) 8.7 kN/m3 (D) 12.3 kN/m3
Q. 83 A hydraulic jump takes place in a triangular channel of vertex angle 90c, as

shown in figure. The discharge is 1 m3 /s and the pre-jump depth is 0.5 m. What
will be the post-jump depth ? (Take g = 981 m/s2 )
(A) 0.57 m
(B) 0.91 m
(C) 1.02 m
(D) 1.57 m

A pipeline (diameter 0.3 m, length 3 km) carries water form point P to point R
(see figure). The piezometric heads at P and R are to be maintained at 100 m and
80 m, respectively. To increase the discharge, a second pipe is added in parallel to
the existing pipe form Q and R. The length of the additional pipe is also 2 km.
Assume the friction factor, f = 0.04 for all pipes and ignore minor losses.
Q. 84 What is the increase in discharge if the additional pipe has same diameter (0.3
m) ?
(A) 0% (B) 33%
(C) 41% (D) 67%
Q. 85 If there is no restriction on the diameter of the additional pipe, what would be

the maximum increase in discharge theoretically possible from this arrangement ?
(A) 0% (B) 50%
(C) 67% (D) 73%

A very wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 8 m3 /s per m width. The
channel has a bed slope of 0.004 and Manning’s roughness coefficient, n = 0.015 .
At a certain section of the channel, the flow depth is 1 m.

Q. 86 What Gradually Varied Flow profile exists at this section ?

(A) M2 (B) M 3
(C) S2 (D) S 3
Q. 87 At what distance from this section the flow depth will be 0.9 m ?
(use the direct step method employing a single step.)
(A) 65 m downstream (B) 50 m downstream
(C) 50 m upstream (D) 65 m upstream
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 88 The force ‘F ’ required at equilibrium on the semi-cylindrical gate shown below is
(A) 9.81 kN (B) 0.0 kN

(C) 19.62 kN (D) None of these
Q. 89 Velocity distribution in a boundary layer flow over a plate is given by

û/um h = 1.5 h
where, h = y/d ; y is the distance measured normal to the plate; d is the boundary
layer thickness; and um is the maximum velocity at y = d . If the shear stress t ,
acting on the plate is given by
t = K ^m.um h /d
Where, m is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid, K takes the value of
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1.5 (D) None of these
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 90 A pump can lift water at a discharge of 0.15 m3 /s to a head of 25 m . the critical

cavitation number ^s c h for the pump is found to be 0.144. The pump is to be
installed at a location where the barometric pressure is 9.8 m of water and the
vapour pressure of water is 0.30 m of water. The intake pipe friction loss is
0.40 m. Using the minimum value of NPSH (Net Positive Suction Head), the
maximum allowable elevation above the sump water surface at which the pump
can be located is
(A) 9.80 m
(B) 6.20 m
(C) 5.50 m
(D) None of these

Q. 91 In a lined rectangular canal, the Froude number of incoming flow is 3.0. A

hydraulic jump forms when it meets the pool of water. The depth of flow after
the jump formation is 1.51 m . Froude number of flow after the hydraulic jump is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.71
(C) 0.41 (D) None of these
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 92 In the Bernoulli’s equation, used in pipe flow, each term represents

(A) Energy per unit weight (B) Energy per unit mass
(C) Energy per unit volume (D) Energy per unit flow length
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 93 A 15 cm length of steel rod with relative density of 7.4 is submerged in a two layer
fluid. the bottom layer is mercury and the top layer is water. The height of top
surface of the rod above the liquid interface in ‘cm’ is
(A) 8.24 (B) 7.82
(C) 7.64 (D) 7.38
Q. 94 In a 1/50 model of a spillway, the discharge was measured to be 0.3 m3 / sec . The
corresponding prototype discharge in m3 / sec is
(A) 2.0 (B) 15.0
(C) 106.0 (D) 5303.0
Q. 95 A trapezoidal channel with bottom width of 3 m and side slope of 1 V : 1.5

H carries a discharge of 8.0 m3 / sec with the flow depth of 1.5 m . The Froude
Number of the flow is
(A) 0.066 (B) 0.132
(C) 0.265 (D) 0.528
**********

ANSWER KEY
FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(B) (C) (A) (A) (D) (A) (D) (A) (B) (A)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(D) (B) (D) (C) (D) (A) (C) (C) (D) (B)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(D) (B) (D) (A) (D) (A) (A) (B) (C) (D)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(C) (B) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) (D)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(C) (D) (D) (C) (B) (B) (C) (B) (B) (D)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(D) (C) (A) (C) (B) (D) (A) (D) (C) (D)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(D) (C) (B) (B) (D) (B) (D) (A) (B) (C)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(C) (B) (C) (C) (A) (C) (C) (D) (B) (B)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(A) (A) (C) (C) (D) (D) (C) (A) (B) (A)
91 92 93 94 95
(C) (A) (D) (D) (*)

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Geotechnical Engineering
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GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 In its natural condition a soil sample has a mass of 1.980 kg and a volume of
0.001 m3 . After being completely dried in an oven; the mass of the sample is
1.800 kg . Specific gravity is 2.7. Unit weight of water is 10 kN/m3 . The degree of
saturation of soil is
(A) 0.65
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.54
(D) 0.61
Q. 2 Following statement are made on compacted soil, where DS stands for soil
compaction on Dry side of OMC and WS stands for soil compacted on Wet Side
of OMC. Identify incorrect statement
(A) Soil structure is flocculated on DS and dispersed on WS.
(B) Construction of pore water pressure is low on DS and High on WS
(C) Soil on drying, shrinkage is high on DS and Low on WS
(D) On addition to water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS.
Q. 3 The ratio N f /N d is known as shape-factor where N f is the number of flow channels

and N d is the equipotential drop. The flownet always drawn with a constant
b/a ratio where b and a are distance between two consecutive flow lines and
equipotential lines respectively. Assuming that b/a ratio remains same, the shape
factor of a flow net will change if the
(A) upstream and downstream heads are interchanged.
(B) soil in the flow space is changed
(C) dimension of the flow space are changed
(D) head difference causing the flow is changed
Q. 4 Four columns of building are to be located within a plot size of 10 m # 10 m .

The expected load on each column is 4000 kN. Allowable bearing capacity of soil
deposit is 100 kN/m2 . The type of foundation to be used is
(A) Isolated foundation
(B) Raft foundation
(C) Pile foundation
(D) Combined foundation

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Q. 5 The soil profile below a lake with water level at elevation = 0 m and lake bottom at
elevation =- 10 m is shown in the figure, where k is the permeability coefficient.
A piezometer (stand pipe) installed in the sand layer shows a reading of + 10 m
elevation. Assume that the piezometric head is uniform in the sand layer. The
quantity of water (in m3 /s ) flowing into the lake from the sand layer through the
silt layer per unit area of the lake bed is
(A) 1.5 # 10-6 (B) 2.0 # 10-6

(C) 1.0 # 10-6 (D) 0.5 # 10-6
Q. 6 Laplace equation for water flow in soil is given by

22H + 22H + 22H = 0
2x2 2y2 2z2
Head H does not vary in y and z -direction. Boundary condition x = 0 , H = 5 m
, dH =- 1. What is the value of H at x = 1.2 ?
dx
Q. 7 Two soil profile are used as backfill behind a retaining wall as shown in the figure,
where g t is total unit weight and c' & f' are effective shear parameters. Find the
resultant active earth pressure in kN/m
(A) 31.7 (B) 35.2

(C) 57.8 (D) 57
Q. 8 The soil profile above the rock surface at 25º infinite slope is shown in figure
where Su is undrain shear stress and g t is total unit weight. The slip will occur
at a depth of
(A) 8.83 m (B) 9.79 m

(C) 7.83 m (D) 6.53 m


A multistorey building with a basement is to be constructed, the top 4 m contains loose
silt below which dense sand layer is present upto a great depth. Ground water table is
at the ground surface. The foundation consists of the basement slab of 6 m width which
will rest on the top of dense sand as shown in figure. For dense sand saturated unit
weight is 20 kN/m3 and bearing capacity factor N q = 40 , N g = 45 , for loose silt saturated
unit weight = 18 kN/m3 , N q = 15 , N g = 20 . Effective cohesion 0. Neglect depth factor
average elastic modulus E , and Poisson ratio m of dense sand is 60 # 103 kN/m2 and 0.3
respectively, using factor of safety = 3 . (Take influence factor = 2 )
Q. 9 The net safe bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of foundation is
(A) 610 (B) 320

(C) 980 (D) 693
Q. 10 The immediate settlement of foundation is

(A) 58 mm (B) 111 mm
(C) 178 mm (D) 126 mm
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 11 The effective stress friction angle of a saturated, cohesionless soil is 38c. The ratio
of shear stress to normal effective stress on the failure plane is
(A) 0.781 (B) 0.616
(C) 0.488 (D) 0.438
Q. 12 Two series of compaction tests were performed in the laboratory on an inorganic

clayey soil employing two different level of compaction energy per unit volume of
soil. With regard to the above tests, the following two statements are made
I. The optimum moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with
higher energy.
II. The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the tests with higher
energy.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statement is
(A) Only I is TRUE
(B) Only II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are TRUE
(D) Neither I nor II is TRUE

Q. 13 As per the Indian Standard soil classification system, a sample of silty clay with
liquid limit of 40% and plasticity index of 28% is classified as
(A) CH (B) CI
(C) CL (D) CL-ML
Q. 14 A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as shown in the sketch causing the backfill
material to fail. The backfill material is homogenous and isotropic and obeys the
Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion. The major principle stress is
(A) parallel to the wall face and acting downwards

(B) normal to the wall face
(C) oblique to the wall force acting downwards
(D) oblique to the wall face acting upwards
Q. 15 An embankment is to be constructed with a granular soil (bulk unit weight

= 20 kN/m2 ) on a saturated clayey slit deposit (undrained shear strength = 25
kPa). Assuming undrained general shear failure and bearing capacity factor of
5.7. The maximum height (in m) of the embankment at the point of failure is
(A) 7.1 (B) 5.0
(C) 4.5 (D) 2.5
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 16 Two soil specimens with identical geometric dimensions were subjects to falling
head permeability tests in the laboratory under identical conditions. The fall of
water head was measured after an identical time interval. The ratio of initial
to final water heads for the test involving the first specimen was 1.25. If the
coefficient of permeability of the second specimen in 5 times that of the first, the
ratio of initial to final water heads in the test involving the second specimen is
(A) 3.05 (B) 3.80
(C) 4.00 (D) 6.25
Q. 17 A layer of normally consolidated, saturated silty clay of 1 m thickness a is subject

to one dimensional consolidation under a pressure increment of 20 kPa. The
properties of the soil are : specific gravity = 2.7 , natural moisture content = 45%
, compression index = 0.45 , and recompression index = 0.05 . The initial average
effective stress within the layer is 100 kPa. Assuming Terzaghi’s theory to be
applicable, the primary consolidation settlement (rounded off to nearest mm) is
(A) 2 mm (B) 9 mm
(C) 14 mm (D) 16 mm

Q. 18 Steady state seepage is taking place through a soil element at Q , 2 m below the
ground surface immediately downstream of the toe of an earthen dam as shown
in the sketch. The water level in a piezometer installed at P , 500 mm above Q ,
is at the ground surface. The water level in a piezometer installed at R, 500 mm
below Q , is 100 mm above the ground surface. The bulk saturated unit weight
of the soil is 18 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/m3 . The vertical
effective stress (in kPa) at Q is
(A) 14.42 (B) 15.89

(C) 16.38 (D) 18.34

The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the sketch. The properties of
the soil are permeability coefficient = 0.09 m/day (isotropic), specific gravity
= 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85 . The sheet pile wall and the bottom of the soil are
impermeable.
Q. 19 The seepage loss (in m3 per day per unit length of the wall) of water is
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.38
(C) 0.43 (D) 0.54
Q. 20 The factor of safety against the occurrence of piping failure is

(A) 3.55 (B) 15.89
(C) 2.60 (D) 0.39

YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 21 For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio and the specific gravity of solids
are 0.70 and 2.67, respectively. The critical (upward) hydraulic gradient for the
deposit would be
(A) 0.54 (B) 0.98
(C) 1.02 (D) 1.87
Q. 22 Likelihood of general shear failure for an isolated footing in sand decreases with
(A) decreasing footing depth
(B) decreasing inter-granular packing of the sand
(C) increasing footing width
(D) decreasing solid grain compressibility
Q. 23 For a sample of dry, cohesionless soil with firction angle, f, the failure plane will
be inclined to the major principal plane by an angle equal to
(A) f (B) 45c
(C) 45c - f/2 (D) 45c + f/2
Q. 24 Two geometrically identical isolated footings, X (linear elastic) and Y (rigid), are
loaded identically (shown alongside). The soil reactions will
(A) be uniformly distributed for Y but not for X

(B) be uniformly distributed for X but not for Y
(C) be uniformly distributed for both X and Y
(D) not be uniformly distributed for both X and Y
Q. 25 A soil is composed of solid spherical grains of identical specific gravity and

diameter between 0.075 mm and 0.0075 mm. If the terminal velocity of the
largest particle falling through water without flocculation is 0.5 mm/s, that for
the smallest particle would be
(A) 0.005 mm/s (B) 0.05 mm/s
(C) 5 mm/s (D) 50 mm/s

YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 26 A single under-reamed, 8 m long, RCC pile (shown in the adjoining figure)

weighing 20 kN with 350 mm shaft diameter and 750 mm under ream diameter
is installed within shiff, saturated silty clay (undrained shear strength is 50 kPa,
adhesion factor is 0.3, and the applicable bearing capacity factor is 9) to counteract
the impact of soil swelling on a structure constructed above. Neglecting suction
and the contribution of the under-ream to the adhesive shaft capacity, what
would be the estimated ultimate tensile capacity (rounded off to the nearest
integer value of kN) of the pile ?
(A) 132 kN (B) 156 kN

(C) 287 kN (D) 301 kN
Q. 27 Identical surcharges are placed at ground surface at sites X and Y , with soil
conditions shown alongside and water table at ground surface. The silty clay
layers at X and Y are identical. The thin sand layer at Y is continuous and free-
draining with a very large discharge capacity. If primary consolidation at X is
estimated to complete in 36 months, what would be the corresponding time for
completion of primary consolidation at Y ?
(A) 2.25 months (B) 4.5 months

(C) 9 months (D) 36 months

Q. 28 A field vane shear testing instrument (shown alongside) was inserted completely
into a deposit of soft, saturated silty clay with the vane rod vertical such that the
top of the blades were 500 mm below the ground surface. Upon application of a
rapidly increasing torque about the vane rod, the soil was found to fail when the
torque reached 4.6 N-m. Assuming mobilization of undrained shear strength on
all failure surfaces to be uniform and the resistance mobilized on the surface of
the vane rod to be negligible, what would be the peak undrained shear strength
(rounded off to the nearest integer value of kPa) of the soil ?
(A) 5 kPa (B) 10 kPa

(C) 15 kPa (D) 20 kPa

A sand layer found at sea floor under 20 m water depth is characterised with
relative density = 40% , maximum void ratio = 1.0 , minimum void ratio = 0.5 ,
and specific gravity of soil solids = 2.67 . Assume the specific gravity of sea water
to be 1.03 and the unit weight of fresh water to be 9.81 kN/m3 .
Q. 29 What would be the effective stress (rounded off to the nearest integer value of
kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand layer ?
(A) 77 kPa (B) 273 kPa
(C) 268 kPa (D) 281 kPa
Q. 30 What would be the change in the effective stress (rounded off to the nearest
integer value of kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand layer if the sea water level
permanently rises by 2 m ?
(A) 19 kPa (B) 0 kPa
(C) 21 kPa (D) 22 kPa
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 31 In a compaction test, G , w , S and e represent the specific gravity, water content,

degree of saturation and void ratio of the soil sample, respectively. If gw represents
the unit weight of water and gd represents the dry unit weight of the soil, the
equation for zero air voids line is
Ggw Ggw
(A) gd = (B) gd =
1 + Se 1 + Gw
(C) gd = Gw (D) gd = Gw
1 + gw S 1 + Se

Q. 32 A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per the
plasticity chart, according to IS classification, the soil is represented by the letter
symbols
(A) CL
(B) CI
(C) CH
(D) CL-ML
Q. 33 Quick sand condition occurs when

(A) the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
(B) the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
(C) the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the saturated unit
weight of the soil
(D) the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the submerged unit
weight of the soil
Q. 34 The e -log p curve shown in the figure is representative of
(A) Normally consolidated clay

(B) Over consolidated clay
(C) Under consolidated clay
(D) Normally consolidated clayey sand
Q. 35 If sh , sv , shl and svl represent the total horizontal stress, total vertical stress,
effective horizontal stress and effective vertical stress on a soil element, respectively,
the coefficient of earth pressure at test is given by
(A) sh
sv
(B) shl
svl
(C) sv
sh
(D) svl
shl
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 36 The vertical stress at point P1 due to the point load Q on the ground surface as
shown in figure is sz . According to Boussinesq’s equation, the vertical stress at
point P2 shown in figure will be

(A) sz /2 (B) sz
(C) 2sz (D 4sz
Q. 37 An open ended steel barrel of 1 m height and 1 m diameter is filled with saturated
fine sand having coefficient of permeability of 10-2 m/s. The barrel stands on a
saturated bed of gravel. The time required for the water level in the barrel to
drop by 0.75 m is
(A) 58.9 s (B) 75 s
(C) 100 s (D) 150 s
Q. 38 The ultimate load capacity of a 10 m long concrete pile of square cross section 500
mm # 500 mm driven into a homogeneous clay layer having undrained cohesion
value of 40 kPa is 700 kN. If the cross section of the pile is reduced to 250 mm #
250 mm and the legth of the pile is increased to 20 m, the ultimate load capacity
will be
(A) 350 kN (B) 632.5 kN
(C) 722.5 kN (D) 1400 kN
Q. 39 A well of diameter 20 cm fully penetrates a confined aquifer. After a long period

of pumping at a rate of 2720 litres per minutes the observations of drawdown
taken at 10 m and 100 m distance from the centre of the well are found to be 3
m and 0.5 m respectively. The transmissivity of the aquifer is
(A) 676 m2 /day (B) 576 m2 /day
(C) 526 m2 /day (D) 249 m2 /day

The unconfined compressive strength of a saturated clay sample is 54 kPa.
Q. 40 The value of cohension for the clay is
(A) zero (B) 13.5 kPa
(C) 27 kPa (D) 54 kPa
Q. 41 If a square footing of size 4 m # 4 m is resting on the surface of a deposit of

the above clay, the ultimate bearing capacity of the footing (as per Terzaghi’s
equation) is
(A) 1600 kPa (B) 316 kPa
(C) 200 kPa (D) 100 kPa

YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 42 Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when

(A) clay particles settle on sea bed
(B) clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
(C) sand particles settle on river bed
(D) sand particles on sea bed
Q. 43 Dilatancy correction is required when a strata is

(A) cohesive and saturated and also has N value of SPT > 15
(B) saturated silt/fine sand and N value of SPT < 15 after the overburden
correction
(C) saturated silt/fine sand and N value of SPT > 15 after the overburden
correction
(D) coarse sand under dry condition and N value of SPT < 10 after the
overburden correction
Q. 44 A precast concrete pile is driven with a 50 kN hammer railing through a height of

1.0 m with an efficiency of 0.6. The set value observed is 4 mm per below and the
combined temporary compression of the pile, cushion and the ground is 6 mm. As
per Modified Hiley Formula, the ultimate resistance of the pile is
(A) 3000 kN (B) 4285.7 kN
(C) 8333 kN (D) 11905 kN
Q. 45 The relationship among specific yield (Sy), specific retention (Sr ) and porosity (h)
of an aquifer is
(A) Sy = Sr + h (B) Sy = Sr - h
(C) Sy = h - Sr (D) Sy = Sr + 2h
YEAR 2009 TWO MARK
Q. 46 The laboratory test results of a soil sample are given below :

Percentage finer than 4.75 mm = 60
Percentage finer than 0.075 mm = 30
Liquid Limit = 35% Plastic Limit 27%
The soil classification is
(A) GM (B) SM
(C) GC (D) ML-MI
Q. 47 A plate load test is carried out on a 300 mm # 300 mm plate placed at 2 m below
the ground level to determine the bearing capacity of a 2 m # 2 m footing placed
at same depth of 2 m on a homogeneous sand deposit extending 10 m below
ground. The ground water table is 3 m below the ground level. Which of the
following factors does not require a correction to the bearing capacity determined
based on the load test ?
(A) Absence of the overburden pressure during the test
(B) Size of the plate is much smaller than the footing size
(C) Influence of the ground water table
(D) Settlement is recorded only over a limited period of one or two days


Examine the test arrangement and the soil properties given below :
Q. 48 The maximum pressure that can be applied with a factor of safety of 3 through
the concrete block, ensuring no bearing capacity failure in soil using Terzaghi’s
bearing capacity equation without considering the shape factor, depth factor and
inclination factor is
(A) 26.67 kPa
(B) 60 kPa
(C) 90 kPa
(D) 120 kPa
Q. 49 The maximum resistance offered by the soil through skin friction while pulling
out the pile from the ground is
(A) 104.9 kN
(B) 209.8 kN
(C) 236 kN
(D) 472 kN

Q. 50 A saturated undisturbed sample from a clay strata has moisture content to
22.22% and specific weight of 2.7. Assuming gw = 10 kN/m3 , the void ratio and
the saturated unit weight of the clay, respectively are
(A) 0.6 and 16.875 kN/m3
(B) 0.3 and 20.625 kN/m3
(C) 0.6 and 20.625 kN/m3
(D) 0.3 and 16.975 kN/m3

Q. 51 Using the properties of the clay layer derived from the above question, the
consolidation settlement of the same clay layer under a square footing (neglecting
its self weight) with additional data shown in the figure below (assume the stress
distribution as 1 H : 2 V from the edge of the footing and gw = 10 kN/m3 ) is
(A) 32.78 mm (B) 61.75 mm

(C) 79.5 mm (D) 131.13 mm
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 52 Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively
(A) SS and CS (B) SM and CS
(C) SM and SC (D) MS and CS
Q. 53 When a retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on the
wall is termed as
(A) passive earth pressure (B) swelling pressure
(C) pore pressure (D) active earth pressure
Q. 54 Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction i case of

(A) moist silty sand
(B) well graded dry sand
(C) clay of medium compressibility
(D) silt of high compressibility
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 55 The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL) of a cohesive
soil satisfy the relation
(A) LL > PL < SL (B) LL > PL > SL
(C) LL < PL < SL (D) LL < PL > SL
Q. 56 A footing 2 m # 1 m exerts a uniform pressure of 150 kN/m2 on the soil. Assuming

a load dispersion of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal, the average vertical stress (kN/m2)
at 1.0 m below the footing is
(A) 50 (B) 75
(C) 80 (D) 100

Q. 57 A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesion less soil (C = 0) specimen under
a normal stress of 200 kN/m2 . The specimen failed at a shear stress of 100 kN/m2
. The angle of internal friction of the soil (degree) is
(A) 26.6 (B) 29.5
(C) 30.0 (D) 32.6
Q. 58 A pile of 0.50 m diameter and of length 10 m is embedded in a deposit of clay.

The undrained strength parameters of the clay are cohesion = 60 kN/m2 and the
angle of internal friction = 0 . The skin friction capacity (kN) of the pile for an
adhesion factor of 0.6, is
(A) 671 (B) 565
(C) 283 (D) 106
Q. 59 A saturated clay stratum draining both at the top and bottom undergoes 50 per
cent consolidation in 16 year under an applied load. If an additional drainage
layer were present at the middle of the clay stratum, 50 per cent consolidation
would occur in
(A) 2 years (B) 4 years
(C) 8 years (D) 16 years
Q. 60 A test plate 30 m # 30 m cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 10 mm under

a certain intensity. A footing 150 cm # 200 cm resting on the same sand deposit
and loaded to the same load intensity settles by
(A) 2.0 mm (B) 27.8 mm
(C) 30.2 mm (D) 50.0 mm
Q. 61 A volume of 3.0 # 106 m3 of groundwater was pumped form an unconfined aquifer

uniformly from an area of 5 km2 . The pumping lowered the water table form
initial level of 102 m to 99 m. The specific yield of the aquifer is
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.30
(C) 0.40 (D) 0.50

The ground conditions at a site are shown in the figure below.
Q. 62 The saturated unit weight of the sand (kN/m3) is

(A) 15 (B) 18
(C) 21 (D) 24
Q. 63 The total stress, pore water pressure and effective stress (kN/m2) at the point P
are, respectively
(A) 75, 50 and 25 (B) 90, 50 and 40
(C) 105, 50 and 55 (D) 120, 50 and 70


A column is supported on a footing as shown in the figure below. The water table
is at a depth of 10 m below the base of the footing.
Q. 64 The net ultimate bearing capacity (kN/m2) of the footing based on Terzaghi’s
bearing capacity equation is
(A) 216 (B) 432
(C) 630 (D) 846
Q. 65 The safe load (kN) that the footing can carry with a factor of safety 3 is
(A) 282 (B) 648
(C) 945 (D) 1269
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 66 A clay soil sample is tested in a triaxial apparatus in consolidated-drained

conditions at a cell pressure of 100 kN/m2 . What will be the pore water pressure
at a deviator stress of 40 kN/m2 ?
(A) 0 (B) 20 kN/m2
(C) 40 kN/m2 (D) 60 kN/m2
Q. 67 The number of blows observed in a Standard Penetration Test (SPT) for different
penetration depths are given as follows :
Penetration of sampler Number of blows
0 - 150 mm 6
150 - 300 mm 8
300 - 450 mm 10
The observed N value is

(A) 8 (B) 14
(C) 18 (D) 24
Q. 68 The vertical stress at some depth below the corner of a 2 m # 3 m rectangular

footing due to a certain load intensity is 100 kN/m2 . What will be the vertical
stress in kN/m2 below the centre of a 4 m # 6 m rectangular footing at the same
depth and same load intensity ?
(A) 25 (B) 100
(C) 200 (D) 400

YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 69 Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g of
soil pass through 4.75 mm and 0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and
plastic limits of the soil fraction passing through 425 m sieves are 40% and 18%,
respectively. The soil may be classified as
(A) SC (B) MI
(C) CI (D) SM
Q. 70 The water content of a saturated soil and the specific gravity of soil solids were
found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively. Assuming the unit weight of water to be
10 kN/m3 , the saturated unit weight kN/m3 and the void ratio of the soil are
(A) 19.4, 0.81 (B) 18.5, 0.30
(C) 19.4, 0.45 (D) 18.5, 0.45
Q. 71 The factor of safety of an infinite soil slope shown in the figure having the
properties C = 0 , f = 35c, gdry = 16 kN/m3 and gsat = 20 kN/m3 is approximately
equal to
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.80

(C) 1.00 (D) 1.20
Q. 72 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List I List II
a. Constant head permeability test 1. Pile foundation
b. Consolidation test 2. Specific gravity
c. Pycnometer test 3. Clay soil
d. Negative skin friction 4. Sand
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 3

Q. 73 The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of plan dimensions 1.5 m # 3 m

resting on the surface of a sand deposit was estimated as 600 kN/m2 when the
water table is far below the base of the footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m2
when the water level rises to depths of 3 m, 1.5 m and 0.5 below the base of the
footing are
(A) 600, 600, 400 (B) 600, 450, 350
(C) 600, 500, 250 (D) 600, 400, 250
Q. 74 What is the ultimate capacity in kN of the pile group shown in the figure assuming
the group to fail as a single block ?
(A) 921.6 (B) 1177.6

(C) 2438.6 (D) 2481.6

Water is flowing through the permeability apparatus shown in the figure. The
coefficient of permeability of the soil is 'k' m/s and the porosity of the soil sample
is 0.50.
Q. 75 The total head, elevation head and pressure head in metres of water at the point
R shown in the figure are
(A) 0.8, 0.4, 0.4 (B) 1.2, 0.4, 0.8
(C) 0.4, 0, 0.4 (D) 1.6, 0.4, 1.2

Q. 76 What are the discharge velocity and seepage velocity through the soil sample ?
(A) k, 2k (B) 2 k, 4 k
3 3
(C) 2k, k (D) 4 k, 2 k
3 3

The ground conditions at a site are as shown in the figure. The water table at the
site which was initially at a depth of 5 m below the ground level got permanently
lowered to a depth of 15 m below the ground level due to pumping of water over
a few years. Assume the following data :
I unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3
II unit weight of sand above water table = 18 kN/m3
III unit weight of sand and clay below the water table = 20 kN/m3
IV coefficient of volume compressibility = 0.25 m2 MN
Q. 77 What is the change in the effective stress in kN/m2 at mid-depth of the clay layer
due to the lowering of the water table ?
(A) 0 (B) 20
(C) 80 (D) 100
Q. 78 What is the compression of the clay layer in mm due to the lowering of the water
table ?
(A) 125 (B) 100
(C) 25 (D) 0
YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 79 Which of the following statement in Not in the context of capillary pressure in

solids ?
(A) Water is under tension in capillary zone
(B) Pore water pressure is negative in capillary zone
(C) Effective stress increases due to the capillary zone
(D) Capillary pressure is more in coarse grained soils

Q. 80 For steady flow to a fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer, the draw downs
at radial distances of r1 and r2 from the well have been measured as s1 and s2
respectively, for a pumping rate of Q . The transmissivity of the aquifer is equal to
r2
Q f ln r1 p Q ln (r2 - r1)
(A) (B)
2p s1 - s2 2p (s1 - s2)
Q r /r
(D) 2pQ r2 - r1
2p =s2 /s1G
(C) ln 2 1
ln a s2 k
s1
Q. 81 The range of void ratio between which quick sand condition occurs in cohesion-
less granular soil deposits is
(A) 0.4 - 0.5 (B) 0.6 - 0.7
(C) 0.8 - 0.9 (D) 1.0 - 1.1
Q. 82 To provide safety against piping failure, with a factor of safety of 5, what should
be the maximum permissible exit gradient for soil with specific gravity of 2.5 and
porosity of 0.35 ?
(A) 0.155 (B) 0.167
(C) 0.195 (D) 0.213
Q. 83 Figure given below shows a smooth vertical gravity retaining wall with cohesionless
soil backfill having an angle of internal friction f. In the graphical representation
of Rankine’s active earth pressure for the retaining wall shown in figure, length
OP represents
(A) vertical stress at the base

(B) vertical stress at a height H/3 from the base
(C) lateral earth pressure at the base
(D) lateral earth pressure at a height H/3 from the base
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 84 A sample of saturated cohensionless soil tested in a drained triaxial compression

test showed an angle of internal friction of 30c. The deviatoric stress at failure for
the sample at a confining pressure of 200 kPa is equal to
(A) 200 kPa (B) 400 kPa
(C) 600 kPa (D) 800 kPa

Q. 85 List I below gives the possible types of failure for a finite soil slope and List II
gives the reasons for these different types of failure. Match the items in List I
with the items in List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below
the lists :
List I List II
a. Base failure 1. Soils above and below the toe have same strength
b. Face failure 2. Soil above and toe is comparatively weaker
c. Toe failure 3. Soil above the toe is comparatively stronger
Codes :
a b c
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 2 1 3
(D) 3 2 1
Q. 86 For the soil profile shown in Figure below, the minimum number of precast
concrete piles of 300 mm diameter required of safely carry the load for a given
factor of safety of 2.5 (assuming 100% efficiency for the pile group) is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 25
Q. 87 In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist soil was filling the mould (volume
= 94.4 cc) after compaction. A soil sample weighing 23 g was taken from the
mould and ovendried for 24 hours at a temperature of 110cC . Weight of the
dry sample was found to be 20 g. Specific gravity of soil solids is G = 2.7 . The
theoretical maximum value of the dry unit weight of the soil at the water content
is equal to
(A) 4.67 kN/m3 (B) 11.5 kN/m3
(C) 16.26 kN/m3 (D) 18.85 kN/m3

The average effective overburden pressure on 10 m thick homogeneous saturated
clay layer is 150 kPa. Consolidation test on an undisturbed soil sample taken from
the clay layer showed that the void ratio decreased from 0.6 to 0.5 by increased
the stress intensity from 100 kPa to 300 kPa (G = 2.65).

Q. 88 The initial void ratio of the clay layer is

(A) 0.209 (B) 0.563
(C) 0.746 (D) 1.000
Q. 89 The total consolidation settlement of the clay layer due to the construction of a
structure imposing an additional stress intensity of 200 kPa is
(A) 0.10 m (B) 0.25 m
(C) 0.35 m (D) 0.50 m

Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out on a soil sample using a complete set
of standard IS sieves. Out of 500 g of soil used in the test, 200 g was retained on
IS 600 m sieve, 250 g was retained on IS 500 m sieve and the remaining 50 g was
retained on IS 425 m sieve.
Q. 90 The coefficient of uniformly of the soil is
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.1 (D) 1.2
Q. 91 The classification of the soil is

(A) SP (B) SW
(C) GP (D) GW
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 92 Root time method is used to determine

(A) T , time factor
(B) Cv , coefficient of consolidation
(C) av , coefficient of compressibility
(D) mv , coefficient of volume compressibility
Q. 93 Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through
a
(A) fill material
(B) dense coarse sand
(C) over consolidated stiff clay
(D) dense fine sand
Q. 94 There are two footings resting on the grounds surface. One footing is square of
dimension 'B' . The other is strip footing of width 'B' . Both of them are subjected
to a loading intensity of q . The pressure intensity at any depth below the base of
the footing along the centre line would be
(A) equal in both footings
(B) large for square footing and small for strip footing
(C) large for strip footing and small for square footing
(D) more for strip footing at shallow depth (# B) and more for square footing
at large depth (> B)

Q. 95 A clayey soil has a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 and optimum moisture
content of 12%. A contractor during the construction of core of an earth dam
obtained the dry density 15.2 kN/m3 and water content 11%. This construction
is acceptable because
(A) the density is less than the maximum dry density and water content is on
dry side of optimum
(B) the compaction density is very low and water content is less than 12%
(C) the compaction is done on the dry side of the optimum
(D) both the dry density and water content of the compacted soil are within the
desirable limits
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS

2
Q. 96 In a constant head parameter with cross section area of 10 cm , when the flow
was taking place under a hydraulic gradient of 0.5, the amount of water collected
in 60 seconds is 600 cc. The permeability of the soil is
(A) 0.002 cm/s (B) 0.02 cm/s
(C) 0.2 cm/s (D) 2.0 cm/s
Q. 97 Two observation wells penetrated into a confined aquifer and located 1.5 km
apart in the direction of flow, indicate head of 45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient
of permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel
of an inert tracer from one well to another is
(A) 416.7 days (B) 500 days
(C) 750 days (D) 3000 days
Q. 98 Assuming that a river bed level does not change and the depth of water in river
was 10 m, 15 m and 8 m during the months of February, July and December
respectively of a particular year. The average bulk density of the soil is 20 kN/m3
. The density of water is 10 kN/m3 . The effective stress at a depth of 10 m below
the river bed during these months would be
(A) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 July and 320 kN/m2 in December
(B) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2 July and 100 kN/m2 in December
(C) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 July and 180 kN/m2 in December
(D) 300 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 July and 280 kN/m2 in December
Q. 99 For a triaxial shear test conducted on a sand specimen at a confining pressure

of 100 kN/m2 under drained conditions, resulted in a deviator stress (s1 - s3) at
failure of 100 kN/m2 . The angle of shearing resistance of the soil would be
(A) 18.43c (B) 19.47c
(C) 26.56c (D) 30c
Q. 100 A 3 m high retaining wall is supporting a saturated sand (saturated due to

capillary action) of bulk density 18 kN/m3 and angle of shearing resistance 30c
. The change in magnitude of active earth pressure at the base due to rise in
ground water table from the base of the footing to the ground surface shall
(gw = 10 kN/m3)
(A) increase by 20 kN/m2 (B) decrease by 20 kN/m2
(C) increase by 30 kN/m2 (D) decrease by 30 kN/m2

Q. 101 For two infinite slopes (one in dry condition and other in submerged condition)
in a sand deposit having the angle of shearing resistance 30c, factor of safety was
determined as 1.5 (for both slopes). The slope angles would have been
(A) 21.05c for dry slope and 21.05c for submerged slope
(B) 19.47c for dry slope and 18.40c for submerged slope
(C) 18.4c for dry slope and 21.05c for submerged slope
(D) 22.6c for dry slope and 19.47c for submerged slope
Q. 102 A strip footing (8 m wide) is designed for a total settlement of 40 mm. The safe
bearing capacity (shear) was 150 kN/m2 and safe allowable soil pressure was 100
kN/m2 . Due to important of the structure, now the footing is to be redesigned for
total settlement of 25 mm. The new width of the footing will be
(A) 5 m (B) 8 m
(C) 12 m (D) 12.8 m
Q. 103 During the subsurface investigations for design of foundations, a standard

penetration test was conducted at 4.5 m below the ground surface. The record of
number of blow is given below :
Penetration depth (cm) Number of blows
0 - 7.5 3
7.5 - 15 3
15 - 22.5 6
22.5 - 30 6
30 - 37.5 8
37.5 - 45 7
Assuming the water table at ground level, soil as fine sand and correction factor
for overburden as 1.0, the corrected 'N' value for the soil would be
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) 33
Q. 104 A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50 % sand and 10% silt. This soil can be
classified as
(A) silty sandy gravel having coefficient of uniformly less than 60.
(B) silty gravelly sand having coefficient of uniformly equal to 10.
(C) gravelly silty sand having coefficient of uniformly greater than 60.
(D) gravelly silty sand and its coefficient of uniformity cannot be determined.
Q. 105 A saturated soil mass has a total density 22 kN/m3 and a water content of 10%.
The bulk density and dry density of this soil are
(A) 12 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively
(B) 22 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively
(C) 19.8 kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively
(D) 23.2 kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively

YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 106 A 10 m thick clay layer is underlain by a sand layer of 20 m depth (see figure
below). The water table is 5 m below the surface of clay layer. The soil above the
water table is capillary saturated. The value of gsat is 19 kN/m3 . The unit weight
of water is gw . If now the water table rises to the surface, the effective stress at
at point P on the interface will
(A) increase by 5gw

(B) remain unchanged
(C) decrease by 5gw
(D) decrease by 10gw
Q. 107 A unit volume of a mass of saturated soil is subjected to horizontal seepage.

The saturated unit weight is 22 kN/m3 and the hydraulic gradient is 0.3. The
resultant body force on the soil mass is
(A) 1.98 kN (B) 6.6 kN
(C) 11.49 kN (D) 22.97 kN
Q. 108 In an undrained triaxial test on a saturated clay, the Poisson’s ratio is

(A) s3 (B) s3
s1 + s3 s1 - s3
s
(C) 1 - s3
(D) s1 + s3
s3 s3
Q. 109 The undrained cohesion of a remoulded clay soil is 10 kN/m2 . If the sensitivity of
the clay is 20, the corresponding remoulded compressive strength is
(A) 5 kN/m2 (B) 10 kN/m2
(C) 20 kN/m2 (D) 200 kN/m2
Q. 110 Two circular footings of diameters D1 and D2 are resting on the surface of the
same purely cohesive soil. The ratio of their gross ultimate bearing capacities is
(A) D1 (B) 1.0
D2
(C) b D1 l (D) D2
2
D2 D1
Q. 111 The ratio of saturated unit weight of dry unit weight of soil is 1.25. If the specific
gravity of solids (Gs) is 2.65, the void ratio of the soil is
(A) 0.625 (B) 0.663
(C) 0.944 (D) 1.325

YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 112 The figure given below represents the contact pressure distribution under beneath
a
(A) rigid footing on saturated clay

(B) rigid footing on sand
(C) flexible footing on saturated clay
(D) flexible footing on sand
Q. 113 A 6 m thick clay layer undergoes 90% consolidation four times faster under two-
way drainage as compared to one-way drainage. In an identical clay layer of 15
m thickness, two-way drainage will be faster as compared to one-way drainage by
(A) 8 times (B) 4 times
(C) 2.5 times (D) 2 times
Q. 114 The figure below shows two flow lines for seepage across an interface between two
soil media or different coefficients of permeability. If entrance angle a1 = 30c, the
exit angle a2 will be
(A) 7.50c (B) 14.03c

(C) 66.59c (D) 75.96c
Q. 115 An unsupported excavation is made to the maximum possible depth in a clay

soil having gt = 18 kN/m3 , c = 100 kN/m2, f = 30c. The active earth pressure,
according to Rankine’s theory, at the base level of the excavation is
(A) 115.47 kN/m2 (B) 54.36 kN/m2
(C) 27.18 kN/m2 (D) 13.0 kN/m2
Q. 116 A retaining wall of height 8 m retains dry sand. In the initial state, the soil is
loose and has a void ratio of 0.5, gd = 35c kN/m3 and f = 30c. Subsequently,
the backfill is compacted to a state where void ratio is 0.4, gd = 18.8 kN/m3 and
f = 35c. The ratio of initial passive thrust to the final passive thrust, according
to Rankine’s earth pressure theory, is
(A) 0.38 (B) 0.64
(C) 0.77 (D) 1.55

Q. 117 An infinite soil slope with an inclination of 35c is subjected to seepage parallel
to its surface. The soil has C l = 100 kN/m2 and f = 35c. Using the concept of
mobilized cohesion and friction, at a factor of safety of 1.5 with respect of shear
strength, the mobilized friction angle is
(A) 20.02c (B) 21.05c
(C) 23.33c (D) 30.00c
Q. 118 Using fu = 0 analysis and assuming planar failure as shown, the minimum factor
of safety against shear failure of a vertical of height 4 m in a pure clay having
cu = 120 kN/m2 and gsat = 20 kN/m3 is
(A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 10 (D) 20
Q. 119 In the context of collecting undisturbed soil samples of high quality using a spoon
sampler, following statements are made :
1. Area ratio should be less than 10%
2. Clearance ratio should be less than 1%
With reference to above statements, which of the following applies ?
(A) Both the statements are true
(B) Statements 2 is true but 1 is false
(C) Statement 1 is true but 2 is false
(D) Both the statements are false

A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5 m diameter is installed in a 10 m thick
stiff clay layer underlain by rock. The pile-soil adhesion factor is 0.4; average
shear strength of soil on the sides is 100 kPa; undrained shear strength of the soil
at the base is also 100 kPa.
Q. 120 The base resistance of a single pile is
(A) 40.00 kN
(B) 88.35 kN
(C) 100.00 kN
(D) 176.71 kN
Q. 121 Assuming 100% efficiency, the group side resistance is

(A) 5026.5 kN
(B) 10000.0 kN
(C) 10053.1 kN
(D) 20106.0 kN

YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 122 A masonry dam is founded on previous sand having porosity equal to 45% and
specific gravity of sand particles is 2.65. For a desired factor of safety of 3 against
sand boiling, the maximum permissible upward gradient will be
(A) 0.225
(B) 0.302
(C) 1.0
(D) None of these
Q. 123 Water is pumped from a well tapping an unconfined aquifer at a certain discharge
rate and the steady state draw down (X) in an observation well is monitored.
Subsequently, the pumping discharge is doubled and the steady state draw down
in the same observation well is found to be more than double (i.e., more than 2X).
This disproportionate draw down is caused by
(A) well losses
(B) decrease in the saturated thickness of the aquifer
(C) nonlinear flow
(D) delayed gravity yield
Q. 124 A double draining clay layer, 6 m thick, settles by 30 mm in three years under
influence of certain loads. Its final consolidation settlement has been estimated
to be 120 mm. If a thin layer of sand having negligible thickness is introduced at
a depth of 1.5 m below the top surface, the final consolidation settlement of clay
layer will be
(A) 60 mm
(B) 120 mm
(C) 240 mm
(D) None of these
Q. 125 A 25 kN point load acts on the surface of an infinite elastic medium. The vertical
pressure intensity in kN/m2 at a point 6.0 m below and 4.0 m away from the load
will be
(A) 132 (B) 13.2
(C) 1.32 (D) 0.132
Q. 126 A granular soil possesses saturated density of 20 kN/m3 . Its effective angle of
internal friction is 35 degrees. If the desired factor of safety is 1.5, the safe angle of
slope for this soil, when seepage occurs at and parallel to the slope surface, will be
(A) 25c (B) 23c
(C) 20c (D) 13c
Q. 127 In a plate test conducted on cohesion less soil, a 600 mm square test plate settles
by 15 mm under a load intensity of 0.2 N/mm2 . All conditions remaining the
same, settlement of a 1 m square footing will be
(A) less than 15 mm
(B) greater than 25 mm
(C) 15.60 mm
(D) 20.50 mm

YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 128 For the soil strata shown in figure, the water tables is lowered by drainage by 2 m
and if the top 2 m thick silty sand stratum remains saturated by capillary action
even after lowering of water table, the increase in effective vertical pressure in kPa
at mid-height of clay layer will be
(A) 0.2 (B) 2

(C) 20 (D) 200
Q. 129 At a reclamation site for which the soil strata is shown in fig. a 3 m thick layer
of a fill material is to be laid instantaneously on the top surface. If the coefficient
of volume compressibility, mv for clay is 2.2 # 10- 4 m2 /kN , the consolidation
settlement of the clay layer due to placing of fill material will be
(A) 69.5 mm
(B) 139 mm
(C) 228 mm
(D) 278 mm
Q. 130 A braced cut 5 m wide and 7.5 m deep is proposed in a cohesionless soil deposit
having effective cohesion C l = 0 and effective friction angle, fl = 36c. The first
row of struts is to be installed at a depth of 0.5 m below ground surface and
spacing between the struts should be 1.5 m. If the horizontal spacing of struts is
3 m and unit weight of the deposit is 20 kN/m2 , the maximum strut load will be
(A) 70.87 kN
(B) 98.72 kN
(C) 113.90 kN
(D) 151.86 kN

Q. 131 For the (3 # 3) pile group shown in the figure, the settlement of pile group, in a
normally consolidated clay stratum having properties as shown in the figure, will
be
(A) 13.2 mm (B) 12.775 mm

(C) 7.345 mm (D) None of these
Q. 132 Compaction of an embankment is carried out in 500 mm thick layers. The rammer
used for compaction has a foot area of 0.05 m2 and the energy imparted in
every drop of rammer is 400 Nm. Assuming 50% more energy in each pass over
the compacted area due to overlap, the number of passes required to develop
compactive energy equivalent of Indian Standard light compaction for each layer
would be
(A) 10 (B) 16
(C) 20 (D) 26
Q. 133 Match the List I (Boring methods) with List II (Field conditions) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
a. Auger Boring 1. Below water table in all soil types except
b. Wash Boring hard soils and rocks
c. Percussion Drilling 2. Large diameter bore holes over 150 mm in
d. Rotary Drilling size
3. Exploration for shallow foundations and
highways
4. Bouldery and gravelly strata

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Q. 134 Match the items of List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
a. Modulus of subgrade reaction 1. Cyclic pile load test
b. Relative density and strength 2. Pressure meter test
c. Skin friction and point bearing 3. Plate load test
resistance 4. Standard penetration tests
d. Elastic constants 5. Dynamic cone penetration test
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 3 2 5
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 5 1 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

A canal having side slopes 1:1 is proposed to be constructed in a cohesive
soil to a depth of 10 m below the ground surface. The soil properties are
fu = 15c, Cu = 12 kPa, e = 1.0, Gs = 2.65 .
Q. 135 If Taylor’s Stability Number, Sn is 0.08 and if the canal flows full, the factor of
safety with respect to cohesion against failure of the canal bank slopes will be
(A) 3.7
(B) 1.85
(C) 1.0
(D) None of these
Q. 136 If there is a sudden draw down of water in the canal and if Taylor’s Stability
Number for the reduced value of fw is 0.126, the factor of safety with respect to
cohesion against the failure of bank slopes will be
(A) 1.85
(B) 1.18
(C) 0.84
(D) 0.53


Figure shows the geometry of a strip footing supporting the load bearing walls of
a three storied building and the properties of clay layer.
Q. 137 If the pressure acting on the footing is 40 kPa, the consolidation settlement of the
footing will be
(A) 0.89 mm (B) 8.9 mm
(C) 89.0 mm (D) None of these
Q. 138 If the elastic modulus and the Poisson’s ratio of the clay layer are respectively
50 # 103 kPa and 0.4 and if the influence factor for the strip footing is 1.75, the
elastic settlement of the footing will be
(A) 0.41 mm
(B) 1.41 mm
(C) 14.1 mm
(D) None of these
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 139 Data from a sieve analysis conducted on a given sample of soil showed that 67%
of the particles passed through 75 micron IS sieve. The liquid limit and plastic
limit of the finer fraction was fond to be 45 and 33 percent respectively. The
group symbol of the given soil as per IS : 1498 - 1970 is
(A) SC (B) MI
(C) CH (D) MH
Q. 140 The void ratios at the densest, loosest and the natural states of a sand deposit are
0.2, 0.6 and 0.4, respectively. The relative density of the deposit is
(A) 100% (B) 75%
(C) 50% (D) 25%
Q. 141 The following data was obtained from a liquid test conducted on a soil sample
Number of blows 17 22 25 28 34
Water content (%) 63.8 63.1 61.9 60.6 60.5
The liquid limit of the soil is
(A) 63.1%% (B) 62.8%
(C) 61.9% (D) 60.6%

Q. 142 When there is an increase in the atmospheric pressure, the water level in a well
penetrating in a confined aquifer
(A) increase
(B) decreases
(C) may inrease or decrease depending on the nature of the aquifer
(D) does not undergo any change
Q. 143 The specific gravity and insitu void ratio of a soil deposit are 2.71 and 0.85
respectively. The value of the critical hydraulic gradient is
(A) 0.82 (B) 0.85
(C) 0.92 (D) 0.92
Q. 144 The observed value of the standard penetration number (N ) at 10 m depth of

silty sand deposit is 13. The unit weight of the soil is 16 kN/m3 . The N value
after correcting for the presence of fines will be
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 145 sThe time for a clay layer to achieve 85% consolidation is 10 years. If the layer
was half as thick, 10 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible then
the time that would be required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
(A) 1 year (B) 5 year
(C) 12 years (D) 16 years
Q. 146 If the effective shear stress strength parameters of a soil are c' = 10 kPa and
f' = 30c, the shear strength on a plane within the saturated soil mass at a point
where the total normal stress is 300 kPa and pore water pressure is 150 kPa will
be
(A) 90.5 kPa (B) 96.6 kPa
(C) 101.5 kPa (D) 105.5 kPa
Q. 147 In a tri-exial test carried out on a cohesionless soil sample with a cell pressure of
20 kPa, the observed value of applied stress at the point of failure was 40 kPa.
The angle of internal friction of the soil is
(A) 10º (B) 15º
(C) 25º (D) 30º
Q. 148 An infinite slope is to be constructed in a soil. The effective stress strength

parameters of the soil are c' = 0 and f' = 30c. The saturated unit weight of the
slope is 20 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water is 10 kN/m3 . Assuming that
seepage is occurring parallel to the slope, the maximum slope angle for a factor
of safety of 1.5 would be
(A) 10.89º (B) 11.30º
(C) 12.48º (D) 14.73º

YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 149 The following two statements are made with respect to different sand samples
having the same relative density. Identify if they are true or false
I. Poorly graded sands will have lower friction angle than the well graded
sands.
II. The particle size has no influence on the friction angle of sand.
(A) II is true but I is false (B) Both are false statements
(C) Both are true statements (D) I is true but II is false
Q. 150 The void ratio and specific gravity of a soil are 0.65 and 2.72 respectively. The
degree of saturation (in percent) corresponding to water content of 20% is
(A) 65.3 (B) 20.9
(C) 83.7 (D) 54.4
Q. 151 With respect to a c -f soil in an infinite slope, identify if the following two
statements are True or False.
I. The stable slope angle can be grater than f
II. The factor of safety of the slope does not depend on the height of soil in the
slope
(A) Both statements are False (B) I is True but II is False
(C) I is False but II is True (D) Both statements are True
Q. 152 The following two statements are made with reference to the calculation of net
bearing capacity of a footing in pure clay soil ^f = 0h using Terzaghi’s bearing
capacity theory. Identify if they are True or False
I. Increase in footing width will result in increase in bearing capacity.
II. Increase in depth of foundation will result in higher bearing capacity
(A) Both statements are True
(B) Both statements are False
(C) I is True but II is False
(D) I is False but II is True
Q. 153 The width and depth of a footing are 2 and 1.5 m respectively. The water table
at the site is at a depth of 3 m below the ground level. The water table correction
factor for the calculation of the bearing capacity of soil is
(A) 0.875 (B) 1.000
(C) 0.925 (D) 0.500
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 154 The coefficients of permeability of a soil in horizontal and vertical directions are
3.46 and 1.5 m/day respectively. The base length of a concrete dam resting in this
soil is 100 m . When the flow net is developed for this soil with 1 : 25 scale factor
in the vertical direction, the reduced base length of the dam will be
(A) 2.63 m (B) 4.00 m
(C) 6.08 m (D) 5.43 m

Q. 155 Identify the two False statements from the following four statements
I. The consolidation of soil happens due to the change in total stress.
II. When Standard Penetration Tests are performed in fine sands below
the water table, the dilation correction is applied after the overburden
correction is applied.
III. Over consolidated clays will have predominantly cohesive, strength as
compared to the frictional strength.
IV. Compaction of soils is due to expulsion of water.
(A) II and III (B) I and IV
(C) I and III (D) II and IV
Q. 156 The critical slip circle for a slope is shown below along with the soil properties
The length of the arc of the slip circle is 15.6 m and the area of soil within the
slip circle is 82 m2 . The radius of the slip circles is 10.3 m . The factor of safety
against the slip circle failure is nearly equal to
(A) 1.05 (B) 1.22
(C) 0.78 (D) 1.28
Q. 157 A plate load test was conducted in sand on a 300 mm diameter plate. If the
plate settlement was 5 mm at a pressure of 100 kPa, the settlement (in mm) of a
5 m # 8 m rectangular footing at the same pressure will be
(A) 9.4 (B) 18.6
(C) 12.7 (D) 17.8
Q. 158 Identify the two True statements from the following four statements.
I. Negative skin friction is higher on floating piles than on end bearing piles
II. All other things being the same is footings on sand, the footing with
smaller width will have lower settlement at the same net pressure.
III. The void ratio of soils in always less than 1.0
IV. For determining the depth of embedment of anchored sheet piles, net
moment at the anchor elevation is set to zero.
(A) I and IV (B) I and III
(C) II and IV (D) II and III
**********

ANSWER KEY
GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) (C) (C) (C) (D) 3.8 m (A) (A) (*) (*)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 30
(A) (B) (B) (B) (A) (A) (D) (A) (B) (C)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(B) (B) (D) (A) (A) (B) (C) (B) (D) (B)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(B) (C) (D) (B) (B) (D) (B) (B) (B) (C)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(C) (B) (C) (B) (C) (B) (C) (A) (A) (C)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(C) (C) (D) (B) (B) (A) (A) (B) (B) (B)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(A) (C) (C) (C) (C) (A) (C) (D) (A) (A)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(A) (A) (A) (D) (A) (A) (D) (A) (D) (A)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(B) (C) (A) (B) (D) (C) (D) (B) (D) (D)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(A) (B) (A) (C) (A) (D) (C) (B) (B) (A)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(A) (A) (C) (D) (B) (C) (D) (A) (C) (B)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(B) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C) (B) (B) (C) (D)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(C) (B) (C) (B) (D) (D) (D) (C) (B) (C)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(D) (D) (A) (B) (B) (D) (C) (B) (C) (C)
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
(C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (B) (D) (A) (D) (C)
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158
(B) (B) (A) (A) (B) (D) (D) (C)

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HIGHWAY ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 For two major-roads with divided carriage way crossing at right angle, a full clover
leaf interchange with four indirect ramps is provided. Following statements are
made on turning movement of vehicles to all direction from both road, identity
the correct statement.
(A) Merging from left is not possible, but diverging to left not possible
(B) Merging from left and diverging to left is possible
(C) Merging from left is possible but diverging is not possible
(D) Neither merging from left nor diverging to left is possible
Q. 2 It was observed that 150 vehicle crossed a particular location of highway in 30

minutes. Assume that vehicle arrival follow a negative exponential distribution.
The number of time headways greater than 5 sec. in above observation is
Q. 3 Select the strength parameter of concrete used in design of plain jointed cement
pavement from the following choices:
(A) Tensile strength (B) Compressive strength
(C) Flexural strength (D) Shear strength
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS

For a portion of highway descending gradient 1 in 25 meets an ascending gradient 1 in
20. A valley curve needs to be design at a velocity of 90 kmph based on
(i) Head light sight distance equal to stopping sight distance of a level terrain.
Consider length of curve >SSD.
(ii) Comfort condition if rate of change of acceleration is 0.5 m/s3 .
Reaction time = 2.5 sec , coefficient of longitudinal friction m = 0.35 . Height of head
light = 0.75 m , and beam angle = 1c.
Q. 4 What is the length of valley curve as per headlight sight distance?
Q. 5 What is the length of valley curve (in meter) based on comfort condition?
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 6 Two major roads with two lanes each are crossing in an urban areas to form an
uncontrolled intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are one
way is “X ” and when both roads are two way is “Y ”. The ratio of X to Y is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.33
(C) 0.50 (D) 0.75

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE HIGHWAY ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
Q. 7 Two bitumen samples “X ” and “Y ” have softening points 45cC and 60cC ,
respectively. Consider the following statement :
I. Viscosity of “X ” will be higher than that of “Y ” at the same temperature.
II. Penetration value of “X ” will be lesser than that of “Y ” under standard
conditions.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Both I and II are TRUE
(B) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are FALSE
(D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
Q. 8 Road roughness is measured using

(A) Benkelman beam
(B) Bump integrator
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer
(D) Falling weight deflectormeter
Q. 9 Which of the following errors can be eliminated by reciprocal measurements in

differential leveling ?
I. Error due to earth’s curvature
II. Error due to atmospheric refraction
(A) Both I and II (B) I only
(C) II only (D) Neither I nor II
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 10 A pavement designer has arrived at a design traffic of 100 million standard

axles for a newly developing national highway as per IRC : 37 guidelines using
the following data : life = 15 years, commercial vehicle count before pavement
construction = 4500 vehicles/day, annual traffic growth rate = 8% . The vehicle
damage factor used in the calculation was
(A) 1.53 (B) 2.24
(C) 3.66 (D) 4.14
Q. 11 The following data are related to a horizontal curved portion of a two lane highway
: length of curve = 200 m, radius of curve = 300 m and width of pavement
= 7.5 m . In order to provide a stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the set back
distance (in m) required from the centre line of the inner lane of the pavement is
(A) 2.54 (B) 4.55
(C) 7.10 (D) 7.96
Q. 12 A two-lane urban road with one-way traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800
vehicles/hour. Under the jam condition, the average length occupied by the
vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus density relationship is linear. For a traffic
volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the density (in vehicles/km) is
(A) 52 (B) 58
(C) 67 (D) 75

Q. 13 The horizontal distance between two stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical
angles from P and Q to the top of a vertical tower at T and 3c and 5c above
horizontal, respectively. The vertical angles fromP and Q to the base of the tower
are 0.1c and 0.5c below horizontal, respectively. Stations P , Q and the tower are
in the same vertical plane with P and Q being on the same side of T . Neglecting
earth’s curvature and atomspheric refraction, the height (in m) of the tower is
(A) 6.972 (B) 12.387
(C) 12.540 (D) 128.745
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 14 The probability that k number of vehicles arrive (i.e. cross a predefined line) in
time t is given as ^lt hk e- lt /k!, where l is the average vehicle arrival rate. What is
the probability that the time headway is greater than or equal to time t1 ?
(A) lelt 1
(B) le-t
1
(C) elt1
(D) e- lt
1
Q. 15 A vehicle negotiates a transition curve with uniform speed v . If the radius of the
horizontal curve and the allowable jerk are R and J , respectively, the minimum
length of the transition curve is
(A) R3 / ^vJ h (B) J 3 / ^Rv h
(C) v2 R/J (D) v3 / ^RJ h
Q. 16 In Marshall testing of bituminous mixes, as the bitumen content increases the

flow value
(A) remains constant (B) decreases first and then increases
(C) increases monotonically (D) increases first and then decreases
Q. 17 Curvature correction to a staff reading in a differential leveling survey is

(A) always subtractive (B) always zero
(C) always additive (D) dependent on latitude
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 18 If the jam density is given as k j and the free flow speed is given as u f , the
maximum flow for a linear traffic speed density model is given by which of the
following options ?
(A) 1 k j # u f (B) 1 k j # u f
4 3
(C) 3 k j # u f (D) 2 k j # u f
5 3
Q. 19 If v is the initial speed of a vehicle, g is the gravitational acceleration, G is the
upward longitudinal slope of the road and fr is the coefficient of rolling friction
during braking, the braking distance (measured horizontally) for the vehicle to
stop is
(A) v2 (B) v2
g ^G + fr h 2g ^G + fr h
vg vfr
(C) (D)
^G + fr h ^G + g h

Q. 20 The cumulative arrival and departure curve of one cycle of an approach lane of
a signalized intersection is shown in the adjoining figure. The cycle time is 50 s
and the effective red time is 30 s and the effective green time is 20 s. What is the
average delay ?
(A) 15 s (B) 25 s
(C) 35 s (D) 45 s
Q. 21 The observations from a closed loop traverse around an obstacle are

Segment Observation from Length (m) Azimuth (clockwise
station from magnetic
north)
PQ P Missing 33.7500c
QR Q 300.00 86.3847c
RS R 354.524 169.3819c
ST S 450.000 243.9003c
TP T 268.000 317.5000c
What is the value of the missing measurement (rounded off to the nearest 10
mm) ?
(A) 396.86 m (B) 396.79 m
(C) 396.05 m (D) 396.94 m
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 22 Aggregate impact value indicates which one of the following property of aggregates
?
(A) Durability (B) Toughness
(C) Hardness (D) Strength
Q. 23 As per IRC : 67-2001, a traffic sign indicating the Speed Limit on a road should
be of
(A) circular shape with white background and red border
(B) triangular shape with white background and red border
(C) triangular shape with red background and white border.
(D) circular shape with red background and white border

Q. 24 The local mean time at a place located in Longitude 90c 40lE when the standard
time is 6 hours and 30 minutes and the standard meridian is 82c30lE is
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds (B) 5 hours, 47 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours and 30 minutes (D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 25 Consider the following statements in the context of geometric design of roads :

1. A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable shape for summit curves.
2. Comfort to passengers is an important consideration in the design of
summit curves.
The correct option evaluating the above statements and their relationship is
(A) 1 is true, 2 is false
(B) 1 is true, 2 is true and 2 is the correct reason for 1
(C) 1 is true, 2 is true and 2 is NOT the correct reason for 1
(D) 1 is false and 2 is true
Q. 26 The design speed for a two lane road is 80 kmph. When a design vehicle with a
wheelbase of 6.6 m is negotiating a horizontal curve on that road, the off-tracking
is measured as 0.096 m. The required widening of carriageway of the two-lane
road on the curve is approximately.
(A) 0.55 m (B) 0.65 m
(C) 0.75 m (D) 0.85 m
Q. 27 Consider the following statements in the context of cement concrete pavements :

1. Warping stresses in cement concrete pavements are caused by the seasonal
variation in temperature.
2. Tie bars are generally provided across transverse joints of cement concrete
pavements.
The correct option evaluating the above statement is
(A) 1 true and 2 false (B) 1 false and 2 true
(C) 1 true and 2 true (D) 1 false and 2 false
Q. 28 A bench mark has been established at the soffit of an ornamental arch at the
known elevation of 100.0 m above mean sea level. The back sight used to establish
height of instrument is an inverted staff reading of 2.105 m. A forward sight
reading with normally held staff of 1.105 m is taken on a recently constructed
plinth. The elevation of the plinth is
(A) 103.210 m (B) 101.000 m
(C) 99.000 m (D) 96.790 m
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 29 The value of lateral friction or side friction used in the design of horizontal curve
as per Indian Roads Congress guidelines is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.35
(C) 0.24 (D) 0.15

Q. 30 During a CBR test, the load sustained by a remolded soil specimen at 5.00
penetration is 50 kg. The CBR value of the soil will be
(A) 10.0% (B) 5.0%
(C) 3.6% (D) 2.4%
Q. 31 In quadrantal bearing system, bearing of a line varies from

(A) 0c to 360c
(B) 0c to 180c
(C) 0c to 90c
(D) 0cN to 90c S
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 32 Which of the flowing stress combinations are appropriate in identifying the critical
condition for the design of concrete pavements ?
Location
Type of stress
1. Corner
a. Load
2. Edge
b. Temperature
3. Interior
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) a-2, b-3
(B) a-1, b-3
(C) a-3, b-1
(D) a-2, b-2
Q. 33 A crest vertical curve joins two gradients of +3% and - 2% for a design speed of
80 km/h and the corresponding stopping sight distance of 120 m. The height of
driver’s eye and the object above the road surface are 1.20 m 0.15 m respectively.
The curve length (which is less than stopping sight distance) to be provided is
(A) 120 m
(B) 152 m
(C) 163 m
(D) 240 m
Q. 34 On a specific highway, the speed-density relationship follows the Greenbegs

model [V = v f loge (k j k)], where v f and k j are the free flew speed and jam density
respectively. When the highway is operating at capacity, the density obtained as
per this model is
(A) ek j (B) k j
kj kj
(C) (D)
2 e
Q. 35 A three-phase traffic signal at an intersection is designed for flows shown in the

figure below. There are six groups of flows identified by the numbers 1 through 6.
Among these 1, 3, 4 and 6 are through flows and 2 and 5 are right turning. Which
phasing scheme is not feasible ?

Combination choice Phase I Phase III Phase III

P 1, 4 2, 5 3, 6
Q 1, 2 4, 5 3, 6
R 2, 5 1, 3 4, 6
S 1, 4 2, 6 3, 5
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
Q. 36 The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N 59c30' W in the year 1967, when the
declination was 4c10' E . If the present declination is 3c W , the whole circle
bearing of the line is
(A) 299c20' (B) 307c40'
(C) 293c20' (D) 301c40'

Assertion (A) :Curvature correction must be applied when the sights are long.
Reason (R) : Line of collimation is not a level line but is tangential to the level
line.
Of these statements
(A) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 38 The specific gravity of paving bitumen as per IS:73-1992 lies between

(A) 1.10 and 1.06 (B) 1.06 and 1.02
(C) 1.02 and 0.97 (D) 0.97 and 0.92
Q. 39 A combined value of flakiness and elongation index is to be determined for a

sample of aggregates. The sequence in which the two tests are conducted is
(A) elongation index test followed by flakiness index test on the whole sample
(B) flakiness index test followed by elongation index test on the whole sample
(C) flakiness index test followed by elongation index test on the non-flaky
aggregates

(D) elongation index test followed by flakiness index test on non-elongated

aggregates
Q. 40 The capacities of “ One-way 1.5 m wide sidewalk (persons per hour)” and “
One-way 2 lane urban road (PCU per hour, with no frontage access, no standing
vehicles and very little cross traffic)” are respectively
(A) 1200 and 2400 (B) 1800 and 2000
(C) 1200 and 1500 (D) 2000 and 1200
Q. 41 The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC:67-2001 is

(A) circular (B) triangular
(C) octagonal (D) rectangular
Q. 42 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account
is called
(A) Geodetic surveying (B) Plane surveying
(C) Preliminary surveying (D) Topographical surveying
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 43 A roundabout is provided with an average entry with of 8.4 m, width of weaving

section as 14 m, and length of the weaving section between channelizing islands
as 35 m. The crossing traffic and total on the weaving section are 1000 and 2000
PCU per hour respectively. The nearest rounded capacity of the roundabout ( in
PCU per hour) is
(A) 3300 (B) 3700
(C) 4500 (D) 5200
Q. 44 Design parameters for a signalized intersection are shown in the figure below. The
green time calculated for major and minor roads are 34 and 18 s, respectively.
The critical lane volume on the major road changes to 440 vehicles per hour per
lane and the critical lane volume on the minor road remains unchanged. The
green time will
(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.
(B) increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.
(C) decrease for both the roads.
(D) remain unchanged for both the roads.

Q. 45 It is proposed to widen and strength and existing 2-lane NH section as a divided

highway. The existing traffic in one direction is 2500 commercial vehicles (CV)
per day. The construction will take 1 year. The design CBR of soil subgrade is
found to be 5 per cent. Given : traffic growth rate for CV = 8 per cent, vehicle
damage factor = 3.5 (standard axles per CV), design life = 10 years and traffic
distribution factor =0.75. The cumulative standard axles (msa) computed are
(A) 35 (B) 37
(C) 65 (D) 70
Q. 46 A linear relationship is observed between speed and density on a certain section

of a highway. The free flow is speed is observed to be 80 km per hour and the
jam density is estimated as 100 vehicles per km length. Based on the above
relationship, the maximum flow expected on this section and the speed at the
maximum flow will respected be
(A) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80 km per hour
(B) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25 km per hour
(C) 2000 vehicles per hour and 80 km per hour
(D) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40 km per hour
Q. 47 The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10 m to 1 cm ie reduced in such a way

that a line originally 10 cm long now measures 9 cm. The area os the reduced plan
is measured as 81 cm2 . The actual area (m2) of the survey is
(A) 10000 (B) 6561
(C) 1000 (D) 656
Q. 48 The lengths and bearing of a closed traverse PQRSP are given below.
Line Length (m) Bearing (WCB)
PQ 200 0c
QR 1000 45c
RS 907 180c
SP ? ?
The missing length and bearing, respectively of the line SP are
(A) 207 m and 270º
(B) 707 m and 270º
(C) 707 m and 180º
(D) 907 m and 270º
Q. 49 The focal length of the object glass of a tacheometer is 200 mm, the distance
between the vertical axis of the tacheometer and the optical centre of the object
glass is 100 mm and the spacing between the upper and lower line of the diagram
axis is 4 mm. With the line of collimation perfectly horizontal, the staff intercepts
are 1 m (top), 2m (middle), and 3 m (bottom). The horizontal distance (m)
between the staff and the instrument station is
(A) 100.3
(B) 103.0
(C) 150.0
(D) 153.0

Q. 50 A road is provided with a horizontal circular curve having deflection angle of 55c
and centre line radius of 250 m. A transition curve is to be provided at each end
of the circular curve of such a length that the rate of gain of radial acceleration
is 0.3 m/s3 at a speed of 50 km per hour. Length of the transition curve required
at each of the ends is
(A) 2.57 m (B) 33.33 m
(C) 35.73 m (D) 1666.67 m
Q. 51 A light house of 120 m height is just visible above the horizon from a ship. The
correct distance (m) between the ship and the light house considering combined
correction for curvature and refraction, is
(A) 39.098 (B) 42.226
(C) 39098 (D) 42226

A horizontal curvature curve with a centre line radius of 200 m is provided on
a 2-lane, 2-way SH section. The width of the 2-lane road is 7.0 m. Design speed
for this section is 80 km per hour. The brake reaction time is 2.4 s, and the
coefficients of friction in longitudinal and lateral directions are 0.355 and 0.15,
respectively.
Q. 52 The safe stopping sight distance on the section is
(A) 221 m (B) 195 m
(C) 125 m (D) 65 m
Q. 53 The set-back distance from the centre line of the inner lane is
(A) 7.93 m (B) 8.10 m
(C) 9.60 m (D) 9.77 m
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 54 The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from which of
the following ?
(A) Ductility test (B) Penetration test
(C) Softening point test (D) Viscosity test
Q. 55 If a two-lane National Highway and a two-lane State Highway intersect at right

angles, the number of potential conflict point at the intersection, assuming that
both the roads are two-way is
(A) 11 (B) 17
(C) 24 (D) 32
Q. 56 In signal design as per Indian Roads Congress specifications, if the sum of the
ratios of normal flows to saturation flow of two directional traffic is 0.50 and the
total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds, the optimum cycle length in seconds is
(A) 100 (B) 80
(C) 60 (D) 40

YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 57 The extra widening required for a two-lane National Highway at a horizontal

curve of 300 m radius, considering a wheel base of 8 m and a design speed of 100
kmph is
(A) 0.42 m (B) 0.62 m
(C) 0.82 m (D) 0.92 m
Q. 58 While designing a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal
curve of 50 m radius is encountered, the compensated gradient at the curve as per
the Indian Roads Congress specifications should be
(A) 4.4% (B) 4.75%
(C) 5.0% (D) 5.25%
Q. 59 The design speed on a road is 60 kmph. Assuming the driver reaction time of
2.5 seconds and coefficient of friction of pavement surface as 0.35, the required
stopping distance for two-way traffic on a single lane road is
(A) 82.1 m (B) 102.4 m
(C) 164.2 m (D) 186.4 m
Q. 60 The width of the expansion join is 20 mm in a cement concrete pavement. The

paying temperature is 20cC and the maximum slab temperature is summer is 60cC
. The coefficient of the thermal expansion of concrete is 10 # 10- 6 mm/mm/cC
and the joint filler compresses up to 50% of the thickness. The spacing between
expansion joints should be
(A) 20 m (B) 25 m
(C) 30 m (D) 40 m
Q. 61 The following data pertains of the number of commercial vehicles per day for the
design of a flexible pavement for a national highway as per IRC : 37-1984 :
Type of commercial Number of vehicle Vehicle
vehicle per day considering Damage
the number of lanes Factor
Two axle trucks 2000 5
Tandem axle trucks 200 6
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5% per annum for both the types of vehicles,
the cumulative number of standard axle load repetitions (in million) for a design
life of ten years is
(A) 44.6 (B) 57.8
(C) 62.4 (D) 78.7
Q. 62 Match List-I (Test) with the List-II (Property) and select the correct answers
List-I List-II
a. Crushing test 1. Hardness
b. Los Angles abrasion test 2. Weathering
c. Soundness test 3. Shape
d. Angularity test 4. Strength

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Q. 63 The plan of a map was photo copied to a reduced size such that a line originally
100 mm, measures 90 mm. The original scale of the plan was 1 : 1000. The revised
scale is
(A) 1 : 900 (B) 1 : 1111
(C) 1 : 1121 (D) 1 : 1221
Q. 64 The following tables gives data of consecutive coordinates in respect of a closed

theodolite traverse PQRSP.
Station Northing, m Southing, m Easting, m Westing, m
P 400.75 300.5
Q 100.25 199.25
R 199.0 399.75
S 300.0 200.5
The magnitude and direction of error of closure in whole circle bearing are.
(A) 2.0 m and 45c (B) 2.0 m and 315c
(C) 2.82 m and 315c (D) 3.42 m and 45c
Q. 65 The following measurements were made during testing a levelling instrument.

Instrument at Staff reading at
P1 Q1
P 2.800 m 1.700 m
Q 2.700 m 1.800 m
P1 is close to P and Q1 is close to Q . If the reduced level of station P is 100.000
m, the reduced level of station Q is
(A) 99.000 m
(B) 100.000 m
(C) 101.000 m
(D) 102.000 m
Q. 66 Two straight lines intersect at an angle of 60c. The radius of a curve joining the
two straight lines is 600 m. The length of long chord and mid-ordinate in metres
of the curve are
(A) 80.4, 600.0 (B) 600.0, 80.4
(C) 600.0, 39.89 (D) 49.89, 300.0
Q. 67 The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 45c E and the declination is 5c west. The
true bearing of the line AB is
(A) S 45c E (B) S 40c E
(C) S 50c E (D) S 50c W

YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 68 In case of governing equation for calculating wheel load stresses using Westergaard’s
approach, the following statements are made :
1. Load stresses are inversely proportional to wheel load.
2. Modulus of subgrade reaction is useful for load stress calculation.
(A) Both statements are TRUE (B) 1 is TRUE and 2 is FALSE
(C) Both statements are FALSE (D) 1 is FALSE and 2 is TRUE
Q. 69 Name the traffic survey data which is plotted by means of Desire lines.
(A) Accident
(B) Classified volume
(C) Origin and Destination
(D) Speed and Delay
Q. 70 If aggregate size of 50-40 is to be tested for finding out the portion of elongated
aggregates using length gauge, the slot length of the gauge should be
(A) 81 mm (B) 45 mm
(C) 53 mm (D) 90 mm
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 71 Using IRC : 37-1984 “ Guidelines for the Design of Flexible Pavements” and the
following data, choose the total thickness of the pavement.
Number of commercial vehicles 2723 Veh/day
when construction is completed
Annual growth rate of the traffic 5.0%
Design life of the pavement 10 years
Vehicle damage factor 2.4
CBR value of the subgrade soil 5%
Data for 5% CBR value
Number of Standard Axles, msa Total Thickness, mm
20 620
25 640
30 670
40 700
(A) 620 mm (B) 640 mm
(C) 670 mm (D) 700 mm
Q. 72 A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an ascending gradient of a highway has to come

to stop position to avoid collision with a stationary object. The ratio of lag to
brake distance is 6.5. Considering total reaction time of the driver as 2.5 seconds
and the coefficient of longitudinal friction as 0.36, the value of ascending gradient
(%) is
(A) 3.3 (B) 4.8
(C) 5.3 (D) 6.8

Q. 73 At an horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane undivided carriageway, a transition

curve is to be introduced to attain required superelevation. The design speed is 60
kmph and radius of the curve is 245 m. Assume length of wheel base of a longest
vehicle as 6 m, superelevation as 1 in 150. The length of the transition curve (m)
required, if the pavement is rotated about inner edge is
(A) 81.4 (B) 85.0
(C) 91.5 (D) 110.2
Q. 74 For designing a 2-phase fixed type signal at an intersection having North-South

and East-West road where only straight ahead traffic is permitted, the following
data is available.
Parameter North South East West
Design Hour Flow (PCU/hr) 1000 700 900 550
Saturation Flow (PCU/hr) 2500 2500 3000 3000
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds. The cycle length (seconds) as per Webster’s
approach is
(A) 67 (B) 77
(C) 87 (D) 91
Q. 75 On an urban road, the free mean speed was measured as 70 kmph and the average
spacing between the vehicles under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speed-flow-
density equation is given by :
U = Usf ;1 - k E and q = Uk
kj
Where,
U = space-mean speed (kmph); Usf = free mean speed (kmph);
k = jam density (veh/km);
q = flow (veh/hr).
The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for this condition is equal to
(A) 2000 (B) 2500
(C) 3000 (D) None of the above
Q. 76 A subgrade soil sample was tested using standard CBR apparatus and the
observations are given below.
Load, kg Penetration, mm
60.5 25
80.5 5.0
Assuming that the load-penetration curve is convex throughout, the CBR value
(%) of the sample is
(A) 6.5 (B) 5.5
(C) 4.4 (D) 3.9
Q. 77 The observed magnetic bearing of a line OE was found to be 185c. It was later
discovered that station O had a local attraction of + 1.5c.
The true bearing of the line OE, considering a magnetic declination of 3.5cE shall
be
(A) 180c (B) 187c
(C) 190c (D) 193c

Q. 78 A Bench Marck (BM) with Reduced Level (RL) = 155.305 m has been established
at the floor of a room. It is required to find out the RL of the underside of root
(R) of the room using Spirit Levelling. The Back Sight (BS) to the BM has been
observed as 1.500 m whereas the Fore Sight (FS) to R has been observed as 0.575
m (Shaff held inverted). The RL(m) of R will be
(A) 155.880 (B) 156.230
(C) 157.380 (D) 157.860
Q. 79 Consider the following figure, which is an extract from a contour map (scale
=1:20,000) of an area. An alignment of a road at a ruling gradient of 4% is to be
fixed from the point O and beyond. What should be the radius of the arc with
O as the center to get the point of alignment of the next contour on the map ?
(A) 0.025 cm (B) 0.25 cm

(C) 2.5 cm (D) 5.0 cm
Q. 80 In the figure given below, the length PQ (WCB : 30c) and QR (WCB : 45c)
respectively up to three places of decimal are
(A) 273.205,938.186 (B) 273.205,551.815

(C) 551.815,551.815 (D) 551.815,938.186
Q. 81 During a levelling work along a falling gradient using a Dumpy level and a Staff
of 3 m length, following successive readings were taken :
1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320. What will be the correct order of booking these four
readings in a level book ? (BS : Back Sight, IS : Intermediate Sight, FS : Fore
Sight)
(A) BS, FS, BS, FS (B) BS, IS, FS, FS
(C) BS, IS, IS, FS (D) BS, IS, BS, FS

YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 82 The length of summit curve on a two lane two way highway depends upon
(A) allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
(B) coefficient of lateral friction
(C) required stopping sight distance
(D) required overtaking sight distance
Q. 83 Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY), launched in the year 2000, aims
to provide rural connectivity with all-weather roads. It is proposed to connect the
habitation in plan areas of population more than 500 persons by the year
(A) 2005 (B) 2007
(C) 2010 (D) 2012
Q. 84 List-I contains some properties of bitumen. List-II gives a list of Laboratory

Tests conducted on bitumen to determine the properties. Match the property the
corresponding test and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
a. Resistance to flow 1. Ductility test
b. Ability to deform under load 2. Penetration test
c. Safety 3. Flash and fire point test
Codes :
a b c
(A) 2 1 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3
(D) 3 1 2
Q. 85 Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of
(A) fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(B) fine aggregate and bitumen
(C) coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(D) coarse aggregate, filler and bitumen
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 86 For a 25 cm thick cement concrete pavement, analysis of stresses gives the

following values :
Wheel load stress due to corner loading . ...................30 kg/cm2
Wheel load stress due to edge loading . ......................32 kg/cm2
Warping stress at corner region during summer. ..........9 kg/cm2
Warping stress at corner region during winter .............7 kg/cm2
Warping stress at edge region during summer. .............8 kg/cm2
Frictional stress during summer ...................................5 kg/cm2
Frictional stress during winter . ....................................4 kg/cm2
The most critical value for this pavement is

(A) 40 kg/cm2 (B) 42 kg/cm2

(C) 44 kg/cm2 (D) 45 kg/cm2
Q. 87 The following observations were made of an axle-load survey on a road.

Axle load (kN) Repetitions per day
35-45 800
75-85 400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN. Equivalent daily number of repetitions for the
standard axle-load are
(A) 450 (B) 480
(C) 800 (D) 1200
Q. 88 A standard company operates a scheduled daily truck service between city P and
city Q. One way journey time between these tow cities is 85 hours. A minimum
layover time of 5 hours is to be provided at each city. How many trucks are
required to provide this service ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
Q. 89 A single lane unidirectional highway has a design speed of 65 kmph. The

perception-brake-reaction time of drivers is 2.5 seconds and the average length of
vehicles is 5 m. The coefficient of longitudinal friction of the pavement is 0.4. The
capacity of this road in term of ‘vehicles per hour per lane’ is
(A) 1440 (B) 750
(C) 710 (D) 680
Q. 90 A road is having a horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a super-elevation

of 0.07 is provided. The coefficient of lateral friction mobilized on the when a
vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(A) 0.07 (B) 0.13
(C) 0.15 (D) 0.4
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 91 In the context of flexible pavement design, the ratio of contact pressure tyre
pressure is called the Rigidity Factor. This factor is less than unity when the tyre
pressure is
(A) less than 0.56 N/mm2 (B) equal to 0.56 N/mm2
(C) equal to 0.7 N/mm2 (D) more than 0.7 N/mm2
Q. 92 The star and Grid pattern of road network was adopted in

(A) Nagpur Road Plan (B) Lucknow Road Plan
(C) Bombay Road Plan (D) Delhi Road Plan
Q. 93 The road geometrics in India are designed for the

(A) 98th highest hourly traffic volume
(B) 85th highest hourly traffic volume
(C) 50th highest hourly traffic volume
(D) 30th highest hourly traffic volume

YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 94 The data given below pertain to the design of a flexible pavement :

Initial traffic = 1213 cvpd
Traffic growth rate = 8% per annum
Design life = 12 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.5
Distribution factor = 1.0
The design traffic in terms of million standard axles (msa) to be catered would be
(A) 0.06 msa (B) 8.40 msa
(C) 21.00 msa (D) 32.26 msa
Q. 95 For a road with camber of 3% and the design speed of 80 km/hr, the minimum
radius of the curve beyond which NO superelevation is needed is
(A) 1680 m (B) 948 m
(C) 406 m (D) 280 m
Q. 96 The co-efficient of friction in the longitudinal direction of a highway is estimated

as 0.396. The braking distance for a car moving at a speed of 65 km/hr is
(A) 87 m (B) 45 m
(C) 42 m (D) 40 m
Q. 97 Three new roads P, Q and R are planned in a district. The data for these roads
are given in the table below.
Road Length (km) Number of villages with population
less than 2000 2000-5000 more than 5000
P 20 8 6 1
Q 28 19 8 4
R 12 7 5 2
Based on the principle of maximum utility, the order of priority for these three
roads should be
(A) P, Q, R
(B) Q, R, P
(C) R, P,Q
(D) R, Q, P
Q. 98 A Marshall specimen is prepared for bituminous concrete with a bitumen content

of 5 per cent by weight of total mix. The theoretical and the measured unity
weights of the mix are 2.442 g/cm3 and 2.345 g/cm3 , respectively. The bitumen
has a specific gravity of 1.02. The per cent voids in mineral aggregate filled with
bitumen (VFB) are
(A) 34.55
(B) 35.9
(C) 73.55
(D) 74.3

YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 99 Temperature stresses in concrete pavements may cause the slab to crack. If a slab
cools uniformly then the crack will develop at the which of the following locations
of the slab ?
(A) At centre (B) Near edges
(C) At corners (D) Near edges and at corners
Q. 100 The speed and delay studies on a defined section of highway are conducted by
(A) radar gun (B) traffic counters
(C) moving car method (D) enoscope
YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 101 The design sped for a National Highway is 100 kmph. If the maximum permissible
superelevation is 0.10 and the coefficient of lateral friction is 0.15, the ruling
minimum radius of horizontal curve on the highway should be
(A) 260 m (B) 315 m
(C) 380 m (D) 410 m
Q. 102 A traffic in a particular direction of a two lane roads is moving with a constant
speed of 50 kmph, with an average headway of 2.52 seconds . The longitudinal
distance between the two consecutive vehicles is
(A) 30 m (B) 35 m
(C) 38 m (D) 42 m
Q. 103 In the Marshall method of mix design, the coarse aggregates, fine aggregates, filler
and bitumen, having respective specific gravities of 2.62, 2.72, 2.70 and 1.02 are
mixed in the ratio of 55, 34.6, 4.8 and 5.6 per cent, respectively. The theoretical
specific gravity of the mix would be
(A) 2.36 (B) 2.40
(C) 2.44 (D) 2.50
Q. 104 The plate load test conducted with a 75 cm diameter plat on soil subgrade yielded
a deflection of 2.5 mm under a stress of 800 N/cm2 . The modulus of elasticity of
the subgrade soil, in kN/cm2 is
(A) 141.6 (B) 154.6
(C) 160.0 (D) 185.4
Q. 105 List-I below gives a list of physical properties of aggregates which should be
determined to judge their suitability in road construction. List-II gives a list of
laboratory tests which are conducted to determine these properties. Match List-I
with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Hardness 1. Water adsorption
b. Porosity 2. Impact test
c. Toughness 3. Soundness test
d. Durability 4. Abrasion test

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 106 Stopping sight distance and frictional coefficients are

(A) directly proportional to each other
(B) inversely proportional to each other
(C) unrelated
(D) either directly or inversely proportional to each other depending on the
nature of pavement
Q. 107 Bitumen is derived from

(A) destructive distillation of coal tar
(B) destructive distillation of petroleum
(C) fractional distillation of petroleum
(D) naturally occurring ores
Q. 108 Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed

(A) along the direction of traffic
(B) Perpendicular to the direction of traffic
(C) along 45º to the direction of traffic
(D) can be placed along any direction
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 109 A car is moving at a speed of 72 km/hr on a road having 2% upward gradient.

The driver applies brakes when he sees an obstruction. If his reaction time is 1.5
seconds, assuming that the coefficient of friction between the pavement and tyre
as 0.15, calculate the distance traversed before the car finally stops
(A) 24 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 1050 m
(D) 324 m
Q. 110 The average daily traffic on a stretch of road is 300 commercial vehicles per lane
per day. Design traffic repetition for 10 years when vehicle damage factor is 2.5
and traffic growth rate is 7%, is
(A) 3.8 msa
(B) 23.5 msa
(C) 45.4 msa
(D) 16 msa

Q. 111 In a concrete pavement

I. temperature stress is tensile at bottom during day time
II. Load stress is compressive at bottom
(A) Both the statement I and II are correct
(B) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
(C) Statement II is wrong and I is correct
(D) Both statement I and II are incorrect
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 112 The design value of lateral friction coefficient of highway is

(A) 1.5 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.35 (D) 0.15
Q. 113 Camber on highway pavement is provided to take care of

(A) Centrifugal force (B) Drainage
(C) Sight Distance (D) Off-tracking
Q. 114 The minimum value of CBR (%) required for granular subbase as per Ministry of
Surface Transport (MOST) specification is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 115 A valley curve has a descending gradient of 1 in 40 followed by a ascending

gradient of 1 in 50. The length of the valley curve required for a design speed of
80 km/hour for comfort condition is
(A) 199 m (B) 116 m
(C) 58 m (D) 37 m
Q. 116 The radius of relative stiffness for a 20 cm thick slab with E = 3 # 105 kg/cm2
and Poisson’s ratio = 0.15, resting on a subgrade having modulus of 5 kg/cm3 is
(A) 10 cm (B) 80 cm
(C) 120 cm (D) 320 cm
**********

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(B) (*) (C) 308.9641 m 106.066 m (A) (D) (B) (A) (B)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(B) (C) (B) (D) (D) (C) (A) (A) (B) (A)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(B) (B) (A) (D) (A) (C) (D) (D) (D) (D)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(C) (A) (B) (D) (C) (B) (A) (C) (B) (A)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(C) (A) (B) (A) (A) (D) (A) (B) (A) (C)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(D) (C) (C) (D) (C) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(B) (D) (B) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D) (C) (A)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(C) (B) (D) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (C) (A)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(A) (D) (B) (A) (C) (B) (A) (D) (C) (B)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(D) (A) (D) (C) (D) (C) (D) (C) (A) (C)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(B) (B) (C) (A) (B) (B) (B) (A) (B) (A)
111 112 113 114 115 116
(B) (D) (B) (D) (C) (B)

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YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 For two major-roads with divided carriage way crossing at right angle, a full clover
leaf interchange with four indirect ramps is provided. Following statements are
made on turning movement of vehicles to all direction from both road, identity
the correct statement.
(A) Merging from left is not possible, but diverging to left not possible
(B) Merging from left and diverging to left is possible
(C) Merging from left is possible but diverging is not possible
(D) Neither merging from left nor diverging to left is possible
Q. 2 It was observed that 150 vehicle crossed a particular location of highway in 30

minutes. Assume that vehicle arrival follow a negative exponential distribution.
The number of time headways greater than 5 sec. in above observation is
Q. 3 Select the strength parameter of concrete used in design of plain jointed cement
pavement from the following choices:
(A) Tensile strength (B) Compressive strength
(C) Flexural strength (D) Shear strength
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS

For a portion of highway descending gradient 1 in 25 meets an ascending gradient 1 in
20. A valley curve needs to be design at a velocity of 90 kmph based on
(i) Head light sight distance equal to stopping sight distance of a level terrain.
Consider length of curve >SSD.
(ii) Comfort condition if rate of change of acceleration is 0.5 m/s3 .
Reaction time = 2.5 sec , coefficient of longitudinal friction m = 0.35 . Height of head
light = 0.75 m , and beam angle = 1c.
Q. 4 What is the length of valley curve as per headlight sight distance?
Q. 5 What is the length of valley curve (in meter) based on comfort condition?
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 6 Two major roads with two lanes each are crossing in an urban areas to form an
uncontrolled intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are one
way is “X ” and when both roads are two way is “Y ”. The ratio of X to Y is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.33
(C) 0.50 (D) 0.75

Q. 7 Two bitumen samples “X ” and “Y ” have softening points 45cC and 60cC ,
respectively. Consider the following statement :
I. Viscosity of “X ” will be higher than that of “Y ” at the same temperature.
II. Penetration value of “X ” will be lesser than that of “Y ” under standard
conditions.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Both I and II are TRUE
(B) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are FALSE
(D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
Q. 8 Road roughness is measured using

(A) Benkelman beam
(B) Bump integrator
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer
(D) Falling weight deflectormeter
Q. 9 Which of the following errors can be eliminated by reciprocal measurements in

differential leveling ?
I. Error due to earth’s curvature
II. Error due to atmospheric refraction
(A) Both I and II (B) I only
(C) II only (D) Neither I nor II
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 10 A pavement designer has arrived at a design traffic of 100 million standard

axles for a newly developing national highway as per IRC : 37 guidelines using
the following data : life = 15 years, commercial vehicle count before pavement
construction = 4500 vehicles/day, annual traffic growth rate = 8% . The vehicle
damage factor used in the calculation was
(A) 1.53 (B) 2.24
(C) 3.66 (D) 4.14
Q. 11 The following data are related to a horizontal curved portion of a two lane highway
: length of curve = 200 m, radius of curve = 300 m and width of pavement
= 7.5 m . In order to provide a stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the set back
distance (in m) required from the centre line of the inner lane of the pavement is
(A) 2.54 (B) 4.55
(C) 7.10 (D) 7.96
Q. 12 A two-lane urban road with one-way traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800
vehicles/hour. Under the jam condition, the average length occupied by the
vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus density relationship is linear. For a traffic
volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the density (in vehicles/km) is
(A) 52 (B) 58
(C) 67 (D) 75

Q. 13 The horizontal distance between two stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical
angles from P and Q to the top of a vertical tower at T and 3c and 5c above
horizontal, respectively. The vertical angles fromP and Q to the base of the tower
are 0.1c and 0.5c below horizontal, respectively. Stations P , Q and the tower are
in the same vertical plane with P and Q being on the same side of T . Neglecting
earth’s curvature and atomspheric refraction, the height (in m) of the tower is
(A) 6.972 (B) 12.387
(C) 12.540 (D) 128.745
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 14 The probability that k number of vehicles arrive (i.e. cross a predefined line) in
time t is given as ^lt hk e- lt /k!, where l is the average vehicle arrival rate. What is
the probability that the time headway is greater than or equal to time t1 ?
(A) lelt 1
(B) le-t
1
(C) elt1
(D) e- lt
1
Q. 15 A vehicle negotiates a transition curve with uniform speed v . If the radius of the
horizontal curve and the allowable jerk are R and J , respectively, the minimum
length of the transition curve is
(A) R3 / ^vJ h (B) J 3 / ^Rv h
(C) v2 R/J (D) v3 / ^RJ h
Q. 16 In Marshall testing of bituminous mixes, as the bitumen content increases the

flow value
(A) remains constant (B) decreases first and then increases
(C) increases monotonically (D) increases first and then decreases
Q. 17 Curvature correction to a staff reading in a differential leveling survey is

(A) always subtractive (B) always zero
(C) always additive (D) dependent on latitude
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 18 If the jam density is given as k j and the free flow speed is given as u f , the
maximum flow for a linear traffic speed density model is given by which of the
following options ?
(A) 1 k j # u f (B) 1 k j # u f
4 3
(C) 3 k j # u f (D) 2 k j # u f
5 3
Q. 19 If v is the initial speed of a vehicle, g is the gravitational acceleration, G is the
upward longitudinal slope of the road and fr is the coefficient of rolling friction
during braking, the braking distance (measured horizontally) for the vehicle to
stop is
(A) v2 (B) v2
g ^G + fr h 2g ^G + fr h
vg vfr
(C) (D)
^G + fr h ^G + g h

Q. 20 The cumulative arrival and departure curve of one cycle of an approach lane of
a signalized intersection is shown in the adjoining figure. The cycle time is 50 s
and the effective red time is 30 s and the effective green time is 20 s. What is the
average delay ?
(A) 15 s (B) 25 s
(C) 35 s (D) 45 s
Q. 21 The observations from a closed loop traverse around an obstacle are

Segment Observation from Length (m) Azimuth (clockwise
station from magnetic
north)
PQ P Missing 33.7500c
QR Q 300.00 86.3847c
RS R 354.524 169.3819c
ST S 450.000 243.9003c
TP T 268.000 317.5000c
What is the value of the missing measurement (rounded off to the nearest 10
mm) ?
(A) 396.86 m (B) 396.79 m
(C) 396.05 m (D) 396.94 m
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 22 Aggregate impact value indicates which one of the following property of aggregates
?
(A) Durability (B) Toughness
(C) Hardness (D) Strength
Q. 23 As per IRC : 67-2001, a traffic sign indicating the Speed Limit on a road should
be of
(A) circular shape with white background and red border
(B) triangular shape with white background and red border
(C) triangular shape with red background and white border.
(D) circular shape with red background and white border

Q. 24 The local mean time at a place located in Longitude 90c 40lE when the standard
time is 6 hours and 30 minutes and the standard meridian is 82c30lE is
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds (B) 5 hours, 47 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours and 30 minutes (D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 25 Consider the following statements in the context of geometric design of roads :

1. A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable shape for summit curves.
2. Comfort to passengers is an important consideration in the design of
summit curves.
The correct option evaluating the above statements and their relationship is
(A) 1 is true, 2 is false
(B) 1 is true, 2 is true and 2 is the correct reason for 1
(C) 1 is true, 2 is true and 2 is NOT the correct reason for 1
(D) 1 is false and 2 is true
Q. 26 The design speed for a two lane road is 80 kmph. When a design vehicle with a
wheelbase of 6.6 m is negotiating a horizontal curve on that road, the off-tracking
is measured as 0.096 m. The required widening of carriageway of the two-lane
road on the curve is approximately.
(A) 0.55 m (B) 0.65 m
(C) 0.75 m (D) 0.85 m
Q. 27 Consider the following statements in the context of cement concrete pavements :

1. Warping stresses in cement concrete pavements are caused by the seasonal
variation in temperature.
2. Tie bars are generally provided across transverse joints of cement concrete
pavements.
The correct option evaluating the above statement is
(A) 1 true and 2 false (B) 1 false and 2 true
(C) 1 true and 2 true (D) 1 false and 2 false
Q. 28 A bench mark has been established at the soffit of an ornamental arch at the
known elevation of 100.0 m above mean sea level. The back sight used to establish
height of instrument is an inverted staff reading of 2.105 m. A forward sight
reading with normally held staff of 1.105 m is taken on a recently constructed
plinth. The elevation of the plinth is
(A) 103.210 m (B) 101.000 m
(C) 99.000 m (D) 96.790 m
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 29 The value of lateral friction or side friction used in the design of horizontal curve
as per Indian Roads Congress guidelines is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.35
(C) 0.24 (D) 0.15

Q. 30 During a CBR test, the load sustained by a remolded soil specimen at 5.00
penetration is 50 kg. The CBR value of the soil will be
(A) 10.0% (B) 5.0%
(C) 3.6% (D) 2.4%
Q. 31 In quadrantal bearing system, bearing of a line varies from

(A) 0c to 360c
(B) 0c to 180c
(C) 0c to 90c
(D) 0cN to 90c S
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 32 Which of the flowing stress combinations are appropriate in identifying the critical
condition for the design of concrete pavements ?
Location
Type of stress
1. Corner
a. Load
2. Edge
b. Temperature
3. Interior
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) a-2, b-3
(B) a-1, b-3
(C) a-3, b-1
(D) a-2, b-2
Q. 33 A crest vertical curve joins two gradients of +3% and - 2% for a design speed of
80 km/h and the corresponding stopping sight distance of 120 m. The height of
driver’s eye and the object above the road surface are 1.20 m 0.15 m respectively.
The curve length (which is less than stopping sight distance) to be provided is
(A) 120 m
(B) 152 m
(C) 163 m
(D) 240 m
Q. 34 On a specific highway, the speed-density relationship follows the Greenbegs

model [V = v f loge (k j k)], where v f and k j are the free flew speed and jam density
respectively. When the highway is operating at capacity, the density obtained as
per this model is
(A) ek j (B) k j
kj kj
(C) (D)
2 e
Q. 35 A three-phase traffic signal at an intersection is designed for flows shown in the

figure below. There are six groups of flows identified by the numbers 1 through 6.
Among these 1, 3, 4 and 6 are through flows and 2 and 5 are right turning. Which
phasing scheme is not feasible ?

Combination choice Phase I Phase III Phase III

P 1, 4 2, 5 3, 6
Q 1, 2 4, 5 3, 6
R 2, 5 1, 3 4, 6
S 1, 4 2, 6 3, 5
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
Q. 36 The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N 59c30' W in the year 1967, when the
declination was 4c10' E . If the present declination is 3c W , the whole circle
bearing of the line is
(A) 299c20' (B) 307c40'
(C) 293c20' (D) 301c40'

Assertion (A) :Curvature correction must be applied when the sights are long.
Reason (R) : Line of collimation is not a level line but is tangential to the level
line.
Of these statements
(A) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 38 The specific gravity of paving bitumen as per IS:73-1992 lies between

(A) 1.10 and 1.06 (B) 1.06 and 1.02
(C) 1.02 and 0.97 (D) 0.97 and 0.92
Q. 39 A combined value of flakiness and elongation index is to be determined for a

sample of aggregates. The sequence in which the two tests are conducted is
(A) elongation index test followed by flakiness index test on the whole sample
(B) flakiness index test followed by elongation index test on the whole sample
(C) flakiness index test followed by elongation index test on the non-flaky
aggregates

(D) elongation index test followed by flakiness index test on non-elongated

aggregates
Q. 40 The capacities of “ One-way 1.5 m wide sidewalk (persons per hour)” and “
One-way 2 lane urban road (PCU per hour, with no frontage access, no standing
vehicles and very little cross traffic)” are respectively
(A) 1200 and 2400 (B) 1800 and 2000
(C) 1200 and 1500 (D) 2000 and 1200
Q. 41 The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC:67-2001 is

(A) circular (B) triangular
(C) octagonal (D) rectangular
Q. 42 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account
is called
(A) Geodetic surveying (B) Plane surveying
(C) Preliminary surveying (D) Topographical surveying
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 43 A roundabout is provided with an average entry with of 8.4 m, width of weaving

section as 14 m, and length of the weaving section between channelizing islands
as 35 m. The crossing traffic and total on the weaving section are 1000 and 2000
PCU per hour respectively. The nearest rounded capacity of the roundabout ( in
PCU per hour) is
(A) 3300 (B) 3700
(C) 4500 (D) 5200
Q. 44 Design parameters for a signalized intersection are shown in the figure below. The
green time calculated for major and minor roads are 34 and 18 s, respectively.
The critical lane volume on the major road changes to 440 vehicles per hour per
lane and the critical lane volume on the minor road remains unchanged. The
green time will
(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.
(B) increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.
(C) decrease for both the roads.
(D) remain unchanged for both the roads.

Q. 45 It is proposed to widen and strength and existing 2-lane NH section as a divided

highway. The existing traffic in one direction is 2500 commercial vehicles (CV)
per day. The construction will take 1 year. The design CBR of soil subgrade is
found to be 5 per cent. Given : traffic growth rate for CV = 8 per cent, vehicle
damage factor = 3.5 (standard axles per CV), design life = 10 years and traffic
distribution factor =0.75. The cumulative standard axles (msa) computed are
(A) 35 (B) 37
(C) 65 (D) 70
Q. 46 A linear relationship is observed between speed and density on a certain section

of a highway. The free flow is speed is observed to be 80 km per hour and the
jam density is estimated as 100 vehicles per km length. Based on the above
relationship, the maximum flow expected on this section and the speed at the
maximum flow will respected be
(A) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80 km per hour
(B) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25 km per hour
(C) 2000 vehicles per hour and 80 km per hour
(D) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40 km per hour
Q. 47 The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10 m to 1 cm ie reduced in such a way

that a line originally 10 cm long now measures 9 cm. The area os the reduced plan
is measured as 81 cm2 . The actual area (m2) of the survey is
(A) 10000 (B) 6561
(C) 1000 (D) 656
Q. 48 The lengths and bearing of a closed traverse PQRSP are given below.
Line Length (m) Bearing (WCB)
PQ 200 0c
QR 1000 45c
RS 907 180c
SP ? ?
The missing length and bearing, respectively of the line SP are
(A) 207 m and 270º
(B) 707 m and 270º
(C) 707 m and 180º
(D) 907 m and 270º
Q. 49 The focal length of the object glass of a tacheometer is 200 mm, the distance
between the vertical axis of the tacheometer and the optical centre of the object
glass is 100 mm and the spacing between the upper and lower line of the diagram
axis is 4 mm. With the line of collimation perfectly horizontal, the staff intercepts
are 1 m (top), 2m (middle), and 3 m (bottom). The horizontal distance (m)
between the staff and the instrument station is
(A) 100.3
(B) 103.0
(C) 150.0
(D) 153.0

Q. 50 A road is provided with a horizontal circular curve having deflection angle of 55c
and centre line radius of 250 m. A transition curve is to be provided at each end
of the circular curve of such a length that the rate of gain of radial acceleration
is 0.3 m/s3 at a speed of 50 km per hour. Length of the transition curve required
at each of the ends is
(A) 2.57 m (B) 33.33 m
(C) 35.73 m (D) 1666.67 m
Q. 51 A light house of 120 m height is just visible above the horizon from a ship. The
correct distance (m) between the ship and the light house considering combined
correction for curvature and refraction, is
(A) 39.098 (B) 42.226
(C) 39098 (D) 42226

A horizontal curvature curve with a centre line radius of 200 m is provided on
a 2-lane, 2-way SH section. The width of the 2-lane road is 7.0 m. Design speed
for this section is 80 km per hour. The brake reaction time is 2.4 s, and the
coefficients of friction in longitudinal and lateral directions are 0.355 and 0.15,
respectively.
Q. 52 The safe stopping sight distance on the section is
(A) 221 m (B) 195 m
(C) 125 m (D) 65 m
Q. 53 The set-back distance from the centre line of the inner lane is
(A) 7.93 m (B) 8.10 m
(C) 9.60 m (D) 9.77 m
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 54 The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from which of
the following ?
(A) Ductility test (B) Penetration test
(C) Softening point test (D) Viscosity test
Q. 55 If a two-lane National Highway and a two-lane State Highway intersect at right

angles, the number of potential conflict point at the intersection, assuming that
both the roads are two-way is
(A) 11 (B) 17
(C) 24 (D) 32
Q. 56 In signal design as per Indian Roads Congress specifications, if the sum of the
ratios of normal flows to saturation flow of two directional traffic is 0.50 and the
total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds, the optimum cycle length in seconds is
(A) 100 (B) 80
(C) 60 (D) 40

YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 57 The extra widening required for a two-lane National Highway at a horizontal

curve of 300 m radius, considering a wheel base of 8 m and a design speed of 100
kmph is
(A) 0.42 m (B) 0.62 m
(C) 0.82 m (D) 0.92 m
Q. 58 While designing a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal
curve of 50 m radius is encountered, the compensated gradient at the curve as per
the Indian Roads Congress specifications should be
(A) 4.4% (B) 4.75%
(C) 5.0% (D) 5.25%
Q. 59 The design speed on a road is 60 kmph. Assuming the driver reaction time of
2.5 seconds and coefficient of friction of pavement surface as 0.35, the required
stopping distance for two-way traffic on a single lane road is
(A) 82.1 m (B) 102.4 m
(C) 164.2 m (D) 186.4 m
Q. 60 The width of the expansion join is 20 mm in a cement concrete pavement. The

paying temperature is 20cC and the maximum slab temperature is summer is 60cC
. The coefficient of the thermal expansion of concrete is 10 # 10- 6 mm/mm/cC
and the joint filler compresses up to 50% of the thickness. The spacing between
expansion joints should be
(A) 20 m (B) 25 m
(C) 30 m (D) 40 m
Q. 61 The following data pertains of the number of commercial vehicles per day for the
design of a flexible pavement for a national highway as per IRC : 37-1984 :
Type of commercial Number of vehicle Vehicle
vehicle per day considering Damage
the number of lanes Factor
Two axle trucks 2000 5
Tandem axle trucks 200 6
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5% per annum for both the types of vehicles,
the cumulative number of standard axle load repetitions (in million) for a design
life of ten years is
(A) 44.6 (B) 57.8
(C) 62.4 (D) 78.7
Q. 62 Match List-I (Test) with the List-II (Property) and select the correct answers
List-I List-II
a. Crushing test 1. Hardness
b. Los Angles abrasion test 2. Weathering
c. Soundness test 3. Shape
d. Angularity test 4. Strength

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Q. 63 The plan of a map was photo copied to a reduced size such that a line originally
100 mm, measures 90 mm. The original scale of the plan was 1 : 1000. The revised
scale is
(A) 1 : 900 (B) 1 : 1111
(C) 1 : 1121 (D) 1 : 1221
Q. 64 The following tables gives data of consecutive coordinates in respect of a closed

theodolite traverse PQRSP.
Station Northing, m Southing, m Easting, m Westing, m
P 400.75 300.5
Q 100.25 199.25
R 199.0 399.75
S 300.0 200.5
The magnitude and direction of error of closure in whole circle bearing are.
(A) 2.0 m and 45c (B) 2.0 m and 315c
(C) 2.82 m and 315c (D) 3.42 m and 45c
Q. 65 The following measurements were made during testing a levelling instrument.

Instrument at Staff reading at
P1 Q1
P 2.800 m 1.700 m
Q 2.700 m 1.800 m
P1 is close to P and Q1 is close to Q . If the reduced level of station P is 100.000
m, the reduced level of station Q is
(A) 99.000 m
(B) 100.000 m
(C) 101.000 m
(D) 102.000 m
Q. 66 Two straight lines intersect at an angle of 60c. The radius of a curve joining the
two straight lines is 600 m. The length of long chord and mid-ordinate in metres
of the curve are
(A) 80.4, 600.0 (B) 600.0, 80.4
(C) 600.0, 39.89 (D) 49.89, 300.0
Q. 67 The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 45c E and the declination is 5c west. The
true bearing of the line AB is
(A) S 45c E (B) S 40c E
(C) S 50c E (D) S 50c W

YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 68 In case of governing equation for calculating wheel load stresses using Westergaard’s
approach, the following statements are made :
1. Load stresses are inversely proportional to wheel load.
2. Modulus of subgrade reaction is useful for load stress calculation.
(A) Both statements are TRUE (B) 1 is TRUE and 2 is FALSE
(C) Both statements are FALSE (D) 1 is FALSE and 2 is TRUE
Q. 69 Name the traffic survey data which is plotted by means of Desire lines.
(A) Accident
(B) Classified volume
(C) Origin and Destination
(D) Speed and Delay
Q. 70 If aggregate size of 50-40 is to be tested for finding out the portion of elongated
aggregates using length gauge, the slot length of the gauge should be
(A) 81 mm (B) 45 mm
(C) 53 mm (D) 90 mm
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 71 Using IRC : 37-1984 “ Guidelines for the Design of Flexible Pavements” and the
following data, choose the total thickness of the pavement.
Number of commercial vehicles 2723 Veh/day
when construction is completed
Annual growth rate of the traffic 5.0%
Design life of the pavement 10 years
Vehicle damage factor 2.4
CBR value of the subgrade soil 5%
Data for 5% CBR value
Number of Standard Axles, msa Total Thickness, mm
20 620
25 640
30 670
40 700
(A) 620 mm (B) 640 mm
(C) 670 mm (D) 700 mm
Q. 72 A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an ascending gradient of a highway has to come

to stop position to avoid collision with a stationary object. The ratio of lag to
brake distance is 6.5. Considering total reaction time of the driver as 2.5 seconds
and the coefficient of longitudinal friction as 0.36, the value of ascending gradient
(%) is
(A) 3.3 (B) 4.8
(C) 5.3 (D) 6.8

Q. 73 At an horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane undivided carriageway, a transition

curve is to be introduced to attain required superelevation. The design speed is 60
kmph and radius of the curve is 245 m. Assume length of wheel base of a longest
vehicle as 6 m, superelevation as 1 in 150. The length of the transition curve (m)
required, if the pavement is rotated about inner edge is
(A) 81.4 (B) 85.0
(C) 91.5 (D) 110.2
Q. 74 For designing a 2-phase fixed type signal at an intersection having North-South

and East-West road where only straight ahead traffic is permitted, the following
data is available.
Parameter North South East West
Design Hour Flow (PCU/hr) 1000 700 900 550
Saturation Flow (PCU/hr) 2500 2500 3000 3000
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds. The cycle length (seconds) as per Webster’s
approach is
(A) 67 (B) 77
(C) 87 (D) 91
Q. 75 On an urban road, the free mean speed was measured as 70 kmph and the average
spacing between the vehicles under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speed-flow-
density equation is given by :
U = Usf ;1 - k E and q = Uk
kj
Where,
U = space-mean speed (kmph); Usf = free mean speed (kmph);
k = jam density (veh/km);
q = flow (veh/hr).
The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for this condition is equal to
(A) 2000 (B) 2500
(C) 3000 (D) None of the above
Q. 76 A subgrade soil sample was tested using standard CBR apparatus and the
observations are given below.
Load, kg Penetration, mm
60.5 25
80.5 5.0
Assuming that the load-penetration curve is convex throughout, the CBR value
(%) of the sample is
(A) 6.5 (B) 5.5
(C) 4.4 (D) 3.9
Q. 77 The observed magnetic bearing of a line OE was found to be 185c. It was later
discovered that station O had a local attraction of + 1.5c.
The true bearing of the line OE, considering a magnetic declination of 3.5cE shall
be
(A) 180c (B) 187c
(C) 190c (D) 193c

Q. 78 A Bench Marck (BM) with Reduced Level (RL) = 155.305 m has been established
at the floor of a room. It is required to find out the RL of the underside of root
(R) of the room using Spirit Levelling. The Back Sight (BS) to the BM has been
observed as 1.500 m whereas the Fore Sight (FS) to R has been observed as 0.575
m (Shaff held inverted). The RL(m) of R will be
(A) 155.880 (B) 156.230
(C) 157.380 (D) 157.860
Q. 79 Consider the following figure, which is an extract from a contour map (scale
=1:20,000) of an area. An alignment of a road at a ruling gradient of 4% is to be
fixed from the point O and beyond. What should be the radius of the arc with
O as the center to get the point of alignment of the next contour on the map ?
(A) 0.025 cm (B) 0.25 cm

(C) 2.5 cm (D) 5.0 cm
Q. 80 In the figure given below, the length PQ (WCB : 30c) and QR (WCB : 45c)
respectively up to three places of decimal are
(A) 273.205,938.186 (B) 273.205,551.815

(C) 551.815,551.815 (D) 551.815,938.186
Q. 81 During a levelling work along a falling gradient using a Dumpy level and a Staff
of 3 m length, following successive readings were taken :
1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320. What will be the correct order of booking these four
readings in a level book ? (BS : Back Sight, IS : Intermediate Sight, FS : Fore
Sight)
(A) BS, FS, BS, FS (B) BS, IS, FS, FS
(C) BS, IS, IS, FS (D) BS, IS, BS, FS

YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 82 The length of summit curve on a two lane two way highway depends upon
(A) allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
(B) coefficient of lateral friction
(C) required stopping sight distance
(D) required overtaking sight distance
Q. 83 Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY), launched in the year 2000, aims
to provide rural connectivity with all-weather roads. It is proposed to connect the
habitation in plan areas of population more than 500 persons by the year
(A) 2005 (B) 2007
(C) 2010 (D) 2012
Q. 84 List-I contains some properties of bitumen. List-II gives a list of Laboratory

Tests conducted on bitumen to determine the properties. Match the property the
corresponding test and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
a. Resistance to flow 1. Ductility test
b. Ability to deform under load 2. Penetration test
c. Safety 3. Flash and fire point test
Codes :
a b c
(A) 2 1 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3
(D) 3 1 2
Q. 85 Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of
(A) fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(B) fine aggregate and bitumen
(C) coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(D) coarse aggregate, filler and bitumen
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 86 For a 25 cm thick cement concrete pavement, analysis of stresses gives the

following values :
Wheel load stress due to corner loading . ...................30 kg/cm2
Wheel load stress due to edge loading . ......................32 kg/cm2
Warping stress at corner region during summer. ..........9 kg/cm2
Warping stress at corner region during winter .............7 kg/cm2
Frictional stress during summer ...................................5 kg/cm2
Frictional stress during winter . ....................................4 kg/cm2
The most critical value for this pavement is

(A) 40 kg/cm2 (B) 42 kg/cm2

(C) 44 kg/cm2 (D) 45 kg/cm2
Q. 87 The following observations were made of an axle-load survey on a road.

Axle load (kN) Repetitions per day
35-45 800
75-85 400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN. Equivalent daily number of repetitions for the
standard axle-load are
(A) 450 (B) 480
(C) 800 (D) 1200
Q. 88 A standard company operates a scheduled daily truck service between city P and
city Q. One way journey time between these tow cities is 85 hours. A minimum
layover time of 5 hours is to be provided at each city. How many trucks are
required to provide this service ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
Q. 89 A single lane unidirectional highway has a design speed of 65 kmph. The

perception-brake-reaction time of drivers is 2.5 seconds and the average length of
vehicles is 5 m. The coefficient of longitudinal friction of the pavement is 0.4. The
capacity of this road in term of ‘vehicles per hour per lane’ is
(A) 1440 (B) 750
(C) 710 (D) 680
Q. 90 A road is having a horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a super-elevation

of 0.07 is provided. The coefficient of lateral friction mobilized on the when a
vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(A) 0.07 (B) 0.13
(C) 0.15 (D) 0.4
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 91 In the context of flexible pavement design, the ratio of contact pressure tyre
pressure is called the Rigidity Factor. This factor is less than unity when the tyre
pressure is
(A) less than 0.56 N/mm2 (B) equal to 0.56 N/mm2
(C) equal to 0.7 N/mm2 (D) more than 0.7 N/mm2
Q. 92 The star and Grid pattern of road network was adopted in

(A) Nagpur Road Plan (B) Lucknow Road Plan
(C) Bombay Road Plan (D) Delhi Road Plan
Q. 93 The road geometrics in India are designed for the

(A) 98th highest hourly traffic volume
(B) 85th highest hourly traffic volume
(C) 50th highest hourly traffic volume
(D) 30th highest hourly traffic volume

YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 94 The data given below pertain to the design of a flexible pavement :

Initial traffic = 1213 cvpd
Traffic growth rate = 8% per annum
Design life = 12 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.5
Distribution factor = 1.0
The design traffic in terms of million standard axles (msa) to be catered would be
(A) 0.06 msa (B) 8.40 msa
(C) 21.00 msa (D) 32.26 msa
Q. 95 For a road with camber of 3% and the design speed of 80 km/hr, the minimum
radius of the curve beyond which NO superelevation is needed is
(A) 1680 m (B) 948 m
(C) 406 m (D) 280 m
Q. 96 The co-efficient of friction in the longitudinal direction of a highway is estimated

as 0.396. The braking distance for a car moving at a speed of 65 km/hr is
(A) 87 m (B) 45 m
(C) 42 m (D) 40 m
Q. 97 Three new roads P, Q and R are planned in a district. The data for these roads
are given in the table below.
Road Length (km) Number of villages with population
less than 2000 2000-5000 more than 5000
P 20 8 6 1
Q 28 19 8 4
R 12 7 5 2
Based on the principle of maximum utility, the order of priority for these three
roads should be
(A) P, Q, R
(B) Q, R, P
(C) R, P,Q
(D) R, Q, P
Q. 98 A Marshall specimen is prepared for bituminous concrete with a bitumen content

of 5 per cent by weight of total mix. The theoretical and the measured unity
weights of the mix are 2.442 g/cm3 and 2.345 g/cm3 , respectively. The bitumen
has a specific gravity of 1.02. The per cent voids in mineral aggregate filled with
bitumen (VFB) are
(A) 34.55
(B) 35.9
(C) 73.55
(D) 74.3

YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 99 Temperature stresses in concrete pavements may cause the slab to crack. If a slab
cools uniformly then the crack will develop at the which of the following locations
of the slab ?
(A) At centre (B) Near edges
(C) At corners (D) Near edges and at corners
Q. 100 The speed and delay studies on a defined section of highway are conducted by
(A) radar gun (B) traffic counters
(C) moving car method (D) enoscope
YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 101 The design sped for a National Highway is 100 kmph. If the maximum permissible
superelevation is 0.10 and the coefficient of lateral friction is 0.15, the ruling
minimum radius of horizontal curve on the highway should be
(A) 260 m (B) 315 m
(C) 380 m (D) 410 m
Q. 102 A traffic in a particular direction of a two lane roads is moving with a constant
speed of 50 kmph, with an average headway of 2.52 seconds . The longitudinal
distance between the two consecutive vehicles is
(A) 30 m (B) 35 m
(C) 38 m (D) 42 m
Q. 103 In the Marshall method of mix design, the coarse aggregates, fine aggregates, filler
and bitumen, having respective specific gravities of 2.62, 2.72, 2.70 and 1.02 are
mixed in the ratio of 55, 34.6, 4.8 and 5.6 per cent, respectively. The theoretical
specific gravity of the mix would be
(A) 2.36 (B) 2.40
(C) 2.44 (D) 2.50
Q. 104 The plate load test conducted with a 75 cm diameter plat on soil subgrade yielded
a deflection of 2.5 mm under a stress of 800 N/cm2 . The modulus of elasticity of
the subgrade soil, in kN/cm2 is
(A) 141.6 (B) 154.6
(C) 160.0 (D) 185.4
Q. 105 List-I below gives a list of physical properties of aggregates which should be
determined to judge their suitability in road construction. List-II gives a list of
laboratory tests which are conducted to determine these properties. Match List-I
with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Hardness 1. Water adsorption
b. Porosity 2. Impact test
c. Toughness 3. Soundness test
d. Durability 4. Abrasion test

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 106 Stopping sight distance and frictional coefficients are

(A) directly proportional to each other
(B) inversely proportional to each other
(C) unrelated
(D) either directly or inversely proportional to each other depending on the
nature of pavement
Q. 107 Bitumen is derived from

(A) destructive distillation of coal tar
(B) destructive distillation of petroleum
(C) fractional distillation of petroleum
(D) naturally occurring ores
Q. 108 Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed

(A) along the direction of traffic
(B) Perpendicular to the direction of traffic
(C) along 45º to the direction of traffic
(D) can be placed along any direction
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 109 A car is moving at a speed of 72 km/hr on a road having 2% upward gradient.

The driver applies brakes when he sees an obstruction. If his reaction time is 1.5
seconds, assuming that the coefficient of friction between the pavement and tyre
as 0.15, calculate the distance traversed before the car finally stops
(A) 24 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 1050 m
(D) 324 m
Q. 110 The average daily traffic on a stretch of road is 300 commercial vehicles per lane
per day. Design traffic repetition for 10 years when vehicle damage factor is 2.5
and traffic growth rate is 7%, is
(A) 3.8 msa
(B) 23.5 msa
(C) 45.4 msa
(D) 16 msa

Q. 111 In a concrete pavement

I. temperature stress is tensile at bottom during day time
II. Load stress is compressive at bottom
(A) Both the statement I and II are correct
(B) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
(C) Statement II is wrong and I is correct
(D) Both statement I and II are incorrect
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 112 The design value of lateral friction coefficient of highway is

(A) 1.5 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.35 (D) 0.15
Q. 113 Camber on highway pavement is provided to take care of

(A) Centrifugal force (B) Drainage
(C) Sight Distance (D) Off-tracking
Q. 114 The minimum value of CBR (%) required for granular subbase as per Ministry of
Surface Transport (MOST) specification is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 115 A valley curve has a descending gradient of 1 in 40 followed by a ascending

gradient of 1 in 50. The length of the valley curve required for a design speed of
80 km/hour for comfort condition is
(A) 199 m (B) 116 m
(C) 58 m (D) 37 m
Q. 116 The radius of relative stiffness for a 20 cm thick slab with E = 3 # 105 kg/cm2
and Poisson’s ratio = 0.15, resting on a subgrade having modulus of 5 kg/cm3 is
(A) 10 cm (B) 80 cm
(C) 120 cm (D) 320 cm
**********

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(B) (*) (C) 308.9641 m 106.066 m (A) (D) (B) (A) (B)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(B) (C) (B) (D) (D) (C) (A) (A) (B) (A)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(B) (B) (A) (D) (A) (C) (D) (D) (D) (D)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(C) (A) (B) (D) (C) (B) (A) (C) (B) (A)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(C) (A) (B) (A) (A) (D) (A) (B) (A) (C)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(D) (C) (C) (D) (C) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(B) (D) (B) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D) (C) (A)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(C) (B) (D) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (C) (A)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(A) (D) (B) (A) (C) (B) (A) (D) (C) (B)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(D) (A) (D) (C) (D) (C) (D) (C) (A) (C)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(B) (B) (C) (A) (B) (B) (B) (A) (B) (A)
111 112 113 114 115 116
(B) (D) (B) (D) (C) (B)

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Civil Engineering
RCC Structures and Prestressed Concrete
NODIA AND COMPANY

Ph : +91 - 141 - 2101150
www.nodia.co.in


RCC STRUCTURES AND PRESTRESSED CONCRETE
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 Maximum possible value of compaction factor for fresh (green) concrete is

(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
Q. 2 As per IS 456 : 2000, bond strength of concrete t bd = 1.2 for M20. It is increased by
60% for HYSD bar. The development length L d in terms of f is ^s st = 360 MPah.
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Q. 3 A rectangular concrete beam 250 mm wide and 600 mm deep is prestressed by

means of 16 wire of high tensile steel wires, each of 7 mm dia. located at 200 mm
from the bottom face of the beam at a given section. If the effective prestress
in the wires is 700 MPa. What is the maximum sagging B.M (in kN-m) due to
live load which this section of the beam can with stand without causing tensile
stresses at the bottom face of the beam. Neglect the self weight of the beam.
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 4 As per IS 456 : 2000, in the Limit State Design of a flexural member, the strain
in reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate state should not be less than
f f
(A) y (B) y + 0.002
Es Es
fy fy
(C) (D) + 0.002
1.15Es 1.15Es
Q. 5 Which one the following is categorised as a long-term loss of prestresess in a
prestressed concrete member ?
(A) Loss due to elastic shortening (B) Loss due to friction
(C) Loss due to relaxation of strands (D) Loss due to anchorage slip
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 6 A concrete beam pre-stressed with a parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch. The
eccentricity of the tendon is measured from the centroid of the cross-section. The
applied pre-stressing force at service is 1620 kN. The uniformly distributed load
of 45 kN/m include the self-weight.

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE RCCSTRUCTURESANDPRESTRESSEDCONCRETE
The stress (in N/mm2 ) in the bottom fibre at mid-span is

(A) tensile 2.90 (B) compressive 2.90
(C) tensile 4.32 (D) compressive 4.32

The cross-section at mid-span of a beam at the edge of a slab is shown in the
sketch. A portion of the slab is considered as the effective flange width for the
beam. The grades of concrete an reinforcing steel are M25 and Fe415 respectively.
The total area of reinforcing bars Â 3h is 4000 mm2 . At the ultimate limit sate,
xu denotes the depth of the neutral axis from the top fibre. Treat the section as
under-reinforced and flanged ( xu > 100 mm ).
Q. 7 The value of xu (in mm) computed as per the Limit State Method of IS 456 : 200
is
(A) 200.0 (B) 223.3
(C) 236.3 (D) 273.6
Q. 8 The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm) of the sections as per the Limit State
Method of IS 456 : 2000 is
(A) 475.2 (B) 717.0
(C) 756.4 (D) 762.5
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 9 A 16 mm thick plate measuring 650 mm # 420 mm is used as a base plate for an

ISHB 300 column subjected to a factored axial compressive load of 2000 kN. As
per IS : 456-2000, the minimum grade of concrete that should be used below the
base plate for safety carrying the load is
(A) M15 (B) M20
(C) M30 (D) M40
Q. 10 Consider a reinforcing bar embedded in concrete. In a marine environment this bar

undergoes uniform corrosion, which leads to the deposition of corrosion products
on its surface and an increase in the apparent volume of the bar. This subjects the
surrounding concrete to expansive pressure. As a result, corrosion induced cracks
appear at the surface of concrete. Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
(A) Corrosion causes circumferential tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks
will be parallel to the corroded reinforcing bar.
(B) Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be
parallel to the corroded reinforcing bar.

(C) Corrosion causes circumferential tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks
will be perpendicular to the direction of the corroded reinforcing bar.
(D) Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be
perpendicular to the direction of the corroded reinforcing bar.
Q. 11 The results for sieve analysis carried out for three types of sand, P , Q and R, are
given in the adjoining figure. If the fineness modulus values of the three sands are
given as FMP , FMQ and FMR , it can be stated that
(A) FMQ = FMP # FMR

(B) FMQ = 0.5 ^FMP + FMRh
(C) FMP > FMQ > FMR
(D) FMP < FMQ < FMR
Q. 12 The cross-section of a thermo-mechanically treated (TMT) reinforcing bar has

(A) soft ferrite-pearlite throughout
(B) hard martensite throughout
(C) a soft ferrite-pearlite core with a hard martensitic rim.
(D) a hard martensitic core with a soft pearlite-bainitic rim.
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 13 Consider a bar of diameter ‘D ’ embedded in a large concrete block as shown in

the adjoining figure, with a pull out force P being applied. Let sb and sst be the
bond strength (between the bar and concrete) and the tensile strength of the bar,
respectively. If the block is held in position and it is assumed that the material
of the block does not fail, which of the following options represents the maximum
value of P ?

(A) Maximum of a p D2 sb k and ^pDLsst h

4
(B) Maximum of a p D2 sst k and ^pDLsb h
4
(C) Minimum of a p D2 sst k and ^pDLsb h
4
(D) Minimum of a D2 sb k and ^pDLsst h
p
4
Q. 14 Consider two RCC beams, P and Q , each having the section 400 mm # 750 mm
(effective depth, d = 750 mm ) made with concrete having a tc max = 2.1 N/mm2 .
For the reinforcement provided and the grade of concrete used, it may be assumed
that the tc = 0.75 N/mm2 . The design shear in beam P is 400 kN and in beam
Q is 750 kN. Considering the provisions of IS : 456-2000, which of the following
statements is TRUE ?
(A) Shear reinforcement should be designed for 175 kN for beam P and the
section for beam Q should be revised.
(B) Nominal shear reinforcement is required for beam P and the shear
reinforcement should be designed for 120 kN for beam Q .
(C) Shear reinforcement should be designed for 175 kN for beam P and the
shear reinforcement should be designed for 525 kN for beam Q .
(D) The sections for both beams P and Q need to be revised.
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 15 As per Indian standard code of practice for prestressed concrete (IS : 1343-1980)
the minimum grades of concrete to be used for post-tensioned and pre-tensioned
structural elements are respectively.
(A) M20 for both (B) M40 and M30
(C) M15 and M20 (D) M30 and M40
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS

A doubly reinforced rectangular concrete beam has a width of 300 mm and an
effective depth of 500 mm. The beam is reinforced with 2200 mm2 of steel in
tension and 628 mm2 of steel in compression. The effective cover for compression
steel is 50 mm. Assume that both tension and compression steel yield. The grades
of concrete and steel used are M20 and Fe250, respectively. The stress block
parameters (rounded off to first two decimal places) for concrete shall be as per
IS 456 : 2000.
Q. 16 The depth of neutral axis is
(A) 205.30 mm (B) 184.56 mm
(C) 160.91 mm (D) 145.30 mm
Q. 17 The moment of resistance of the section is

(A) 206.00 kN-m (B) 209.20 kN-m
(C) 237.80 kN-m (D) 251.90 kN-m

YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 18 The modulus of rupture of concrete in terms of its characteristic cube compressive

strength (fck ) in MPa according to IS 456 : 2000 is
(A) 5000 fck (B) 0.7 fck
(C) 5000 fck (D) 0.7 fck
Q. 19 For limit state of collapse, the partial safety factors recommended by IS 456
: 2000 for estimating the design strength of concrete and reinforcing steel are
respectively
(A) 1.15 and 1.5 (B) 1.0 and 1.0
(C) 1.5 and 1.15 (D) 1.5 and 1.0
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 20 A rectangular concrete beam of width 120 mm and depth 200 mm is prestressed

by pre tensioning to a force of 150 kN at an eccentricity of 20 mm. The cross-
sectional area of the prestressing steel is 87.5 mm2 . Take modulus of elasticity of
steel and concrete as 2.1 # 105 MPa 3.0 # 10 4 MPa respectively. The percentage
loss of stress in the prestressing steel due to elastic deformation of concrete is
(A) 8.75 (B) 6.125
(C) 4.81 (D) 2.19
Q. 21 Match List-I (List of test methods for evaluating properties of concrete) with
List-II (List of properties) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Resonant frequency test 1. Tensile strength
b. Rebound hammer test 2. Dynamic modulus of elasticity
c. Split cylinder test 3. Workability
d. Compacting factor test 4. Compressive strength
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 22 A reinforced concrete structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The

minimum grade of concrete to be used as per IS : 456-2000 is
(A) M 15 (B) M 20
(C) M 25 (D) M 30
Q. 23 In the design of a reinforced concrete beam the requirement for bond is not
getting satisfied. The economical option to satisfy the required for bond is by
(A) bounding of bars
(B) providing smaller diameter bars more in number

(C) providing larger diameter bars less in number

(D) providing same diameter bars more in number
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 24 Un-factored maximum bending moment at a section of a reinforced concrete

beam resulting form a frame analysis are 50, 80, 120 and 180 kNm under dead,
live wind and earthquake loads respectively. The design moment (kNm) as per IS
: 456-2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is
(A) 195 (B) 250
(C) 345 (D) 372
Q. 25 A reinforced concrete column contains longitudinal steel equal to 1 per cent of net
cross-section are of the column. Assume modular ratio as 10. The loads carried
(using the elastic theory) by the longitudinal steel and the net area of concrete,
are Ps and Pc respectively. The ratio Ps /Pc expressed as per cent is
(A) 0.1 (B) 1
(C) 1.1 (D) 10
Q. 26 A pre-tensioned concrete member of section 200 mm # 250 mm contains tendons

of area 500 mm2 at centre of gravity of the section. The prestress in the tendons
is 1000 N/mm2 . Assuming modular ratio as 10, the stress (N/mm2) is concrete is
(A) 11 (B) 9
(C) 7 (D) 5

A reinforced concrete beam of rectangular cross section of breadth 230 mm and
effective depth 400 mm is subjected to a maximum factored shear force of 120
kN. The grades of concrete, main steel provided, the design shear strength tc as
per IS : 456-2000 is 0.48 N/mm2 . The beam is designed for collapse limit state.
Q. 27 The spacing (mm) of 2-legged 8 mm stirrups to be provided is
(A) 40 (B) 115
(C) 250 (D) 400
Q. 28 In addition, the beam is subjected to a torque whose factored value is 10.90 kNm.
The stirrups have to be provided to carry a shear (kN) equal to
(A) 50.42 (B) 130.56
(C) 151.67 (D) 200.23
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS

1. The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-
cement ratio of the concrete mix
2. Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
3. Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio
in the concrete mix.


(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) only 2
Q. 30 The percentage loss of prestress due to anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete beam

of length 30 m which is post-tensioned by a tendon with an initial stress of 1200
N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity equal to 2.1 # 105 N/mm2 is
(A) 0.0175 (B) 0.175
(C) 1.75 (D) 17.5
Q. 31 A concrete beam of rectangular cross-section of size 120 mm (width) and 200

mm (depth) is prestressed by a straight tendon to an effective force of 150 kN at
an eccentricity of 20 mm (below the centroidal axis in the depth direction). The
stresses at the top and bottom fibres of the section are
(A) 2.5 N/mm2 (compression), 10N/mm2 (compression)
(B) 10 N/mm2 (tension), 2.5 N/mm2 (compression)
(C) 3.75 N/mm2 (tension), 3.75 N/mm2 (compression)
(D) 2.75 N/mm2 (compression), 3.75 N/mm2 (compression)

1. Modulus of elasticity of concrete increases with increase in compressive
strength of concrete.
2. Brittleness of concrete increases with decrease in compressive strength of
concrete.
3. Shear strength of concrete increase with increase in compressive strength of
concrete.
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

A single reinforced rectangular concrete beam has a width of 150 mm and an
effective depth of 330 mm. The characteristic compressive strength of concrete
is 20 MPa and the characteristic tensile strength of steel is 415 MPa. Adopt the
stress block for concrete as given in IS : 456-2000 and take limiting value of depth
of depth of neutral axis as 0.48 times the effective depth of the beam.
Q. 33 The limiting value of the moment of resistance of the beam in kNm is
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.45
(C) 45.08 (D) 156.82
Q. 34 The limiting area of tension steel in mm2 is

(A) 473.9 (B) 412.3
(C) 373.9 (D) 312.3

YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
Q. 35 If the characteristic strength of concrete fck is defined as the strength below which
not more than 50% of the test results are expected to fall, the expression for fck
in terms of mean strength fm and standard deviation S would be
(A) fm - 0.1645S (B) fm - 1.645S
(C) fm (D) fm + 1.645S
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 36 Assuming concrete below the neutral axis to be cracked, the shear stress across
the depth of a singly-reinforced rectangular beam section
(A) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then drops suddenly to zero
value.
(B) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant over
the remaining depth.
(C) increases linearly to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to the
tension steel.
(D) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to
the tension steel.
Q. 37 As per IS:456-2000, consider the following statements :

1. The modular ratio considered in the working stress method depends on the
type of steel used.
2. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even with
shear reinforcement) due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in
diagonal compression.
3. A rectangular slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a two-way
slab for some support conditions.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

1. The width-to-thickness ratio limitations of the plate elements under
compression in steel members are imposed by IS:800-1984 in order to avoid
fabrication difficulties.
2. In a doubly reinforced concrete beam, the strain in compressive
reinforcement is higher than the strain in the adjoining concrete.
3 If a cantilever I-section supports slab construction all along its length
with sufficient friction between them, the permissible bending stress in
compression will be the same as that in tension.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3


In the design of beams for the limit state of collapse in flexure as per IS:456-2000,
let the maximum strain in concrete be limited to 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035).
For this situation, consider a rectangular beam section with breadth as 250
mm, effective depth as 350 mm, area of tension steel as 1500 mm3 , and the
characteristic strength of concrete and steel as 30 MPa and 250 MPa respectively.
Q. 39 The depth of neutral axis for the balanced failure is
(A) 140 mm (B) 156 mm
(C) 168 mm (D) 185 mm
Q. 40 At the limiting state of collapse in flexure, the force acting on the compression
zone of the section is
(A) 326 kN (B) 389 kN
(C) 424 kN (D) 542 kN
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 41 IS:1343-1980 limit the minimum characteristic strength of pre-stressed concrete

for post tensioned work and pretension work as
(A) 25 MPa, 30 MPa respectively
(B) 25 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
(C) 30 MPa 35 MPa respectively
(D) 30 MPa, 40 MPa respectively
Q. 42 The partial factor of safety for concrete as per IS:456-2000 is

(A) 1.50 (B) 1.15
(C) 0.87 (D) 0.446
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 43 A rectangular column section of 250 mm # 400 mm is reinforced with five steel

bars of grade Fe-500, each of 20 mm diameter. Concrete mis is M 30. Axial load
on the column section with minimum eccentricity as per IS:456-2000 using limit
state method can be applied upto
(A) 1707.37 (B) 1805.30
(C) 1806.40 (D) 1903.7
Q. 44 A concrete beam of rectangular cross section of 200 mm # 400 mm is prestressed

with a force 400 kN at eccentricity 100 mm. The maximum compressive stress in
the concrete is
(A) 12.5 N/mm2 (B) 7.5 N/mm2
(C) 5.0 N/mm2 (D) 2.5 N/mm2
Q. 45 The flexural strength of M30 concrete as per IS:456-2000 is

(A) 3.83 MPa
(B) 5.47 MPa
(C) 21.23 MPa
(D) 30.0 MPa

Q. 46 In a random sampling procedure for cube strength of concrete, one sample consists
of X number of specimens. These specimens are tested at 28 days and average
strength of these X specimen is considered as test result of the sample, provided
the individual variation in the strength of specimens is not more than ! Y per
cent of the average strength. The values of X and Y as per IS:456-2000 are
(A) 4 and 10 respectively (B) 3 and 10 respectively
(C) 4 and 15 respectively (D) 3 and 15 respectively

Assume straight line instead of parabola for stress-strain curve of concrete as
given and partial factor of safety as 1.0
A rectangular under-reinforced concrete section of 300 mm width and 500 mm

effective depth is reinforced with 3 bars of grade Fe-415, each of 16 mm diameter.
Concrete mis is M20.
Q. 47 The depth of the neutral axis from the compression fibre is
(A) 76 mm (B) 81 mm
(C) 87 mm (D) 100 mm
Q. 48 The depth of the neutral axis obtained as per IS:456-2000 differs from the depth
of neutral axis obtained in Q.30 by
(A) 15 mm (B) 20 mm
(C) 25 mm (D) 32 mm
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 49 In the limit state design method of concrete structures, the recommended partial
material safety factor (gm) for steel according to IS:456-2000 is
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.15
(C) 1.00 (D) 0.87
Q. 50 For avoiding the limit state of collapse, the safety of RC structures is checked
for appropriate combinations of Dead Load (DL), Imposed Load or Live Load
(IL), Wind Load (WL) and Earthquake Load (EL). Which of the following load
combinations is NOT considered ?
(A) 0.9DL + 1.5WL
(B) 1.5DL + 1.5WL
(C) 1.5DL + 1.5WL + 1.5EL
(D) 1.2DL + 1.2IL + 1.2WL

YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 51 An RC short column with 300 mm # 300 mm square cross-section is made of

M20 grade concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter longitudinal bars of Fe-
415 steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring
the reduction in the area of concrete due to steel bars, the ultimate axial load
carrying capacity of the column is
(A) 1659 kN (B) 1548 kN
(C) 1198 kN (D) 1069 kN
Q. 52 A simply supported prestressed concreted beam is 6 m long and 300 mm wide. Its
goes depth is 600 mm It is prestressed by horizontal cable tendons at a uniform
eccentricity of 100 mm. The prestressing tensile force in the cable tendons is 1000
kN. Neglect the self weight of beam. The maximum normal compressive stress in
the beam at transfer is
(A) zero (B) 5.55 N/mm2
(C) 11.11 N/mm2 (D) 15.68 N/mm2
Q. 53 An RC square footing of side length 2 m and uniform effective depth 200 mm

is provided for a 300 mm # 300 mm column. The line of action of the vertical
compressive load passes through the centroid of the footing as well as the column.
If the magnitude of the load is 320 kN, the nominal transverse (one way) shear
stress in the footing is
(A) 0.26 N/mm2 (B) 0.30 N/mm2
(C) 0.34 N/mm2 (D) 0.75 N/mm2

At the limit state of collapse, an RC beam is subjected to flexural moment 200
kNm, shear force 20 kN and torque 9 kNm. The beam is 300 mm wide and has a
gross depth of 425 mm, with an effective cover of 25 mm. The equivalent nominal
shear stress (tve) as calculated by using the design code turns out to be lesser than
the design shear strength (tc) of the concrete.
Q. 54 The equivalent shear force (Vc) is
(A) 20 kN (B) 54 kN
(C) 56 kN (D) 68 kN
Q. 55 The equivalent flexural moment (Meq) for designing the longitudinal tension steel
is
(A) 187 kNm (B) 200 kNm
(C) 209 kNm (D) 213 kNm
YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 56 The effective length of a column in a reinforced concrete building frame, as per

IS:456-2000, is independent of the
(A) frame type i.e. braced (no sway) or un-braced (with sway)
(B) span of the beam
(C) height of the column (D) loads acting on the frame

Q. 57 Maximum strains in an extreme fibre in concrete and in the tension reinforcement

(Fe-415 grade and Es = 200 kN/mm2 ) in a balanced section at limit state of
flexure are respectively
(A) 0.0035 and 0.0038 (B) 0.002 and 0.0018
(C) 0.0035 and 0.0041 (D) 0.002 and 0.0031
Q. 58 The working stress method of design specifies the value of modular ratio,
m = 280/ (3scbc), where scbc is the allowable stress in bending compression in
concrete. To what extent does the above value of 'm' make any allowance for the
creep of concrete ?
(A) No compensation
(B) Full compensation
(C) Partial compensation
(D) The two are unrelated
YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 59 List-I contain some properties of concrete/cement and List-II contain list of some
tests on concrete/cement. Match the property with the corresponding test.
List-I List-II
a. Workability of concrete 1. Cylinder splitting test
b. Direct tensile strength of concrete 2. Vee-Bee test
c. Bond between concrete and steel 3. Surface area test
d. Fineness of cement 4. Fineness modulus test
5. Pull out test
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 5 3
(B) 4 5 1 3
(C) 2 1 5 4
(D) 2 5 1 4
Q. 60 Top ring beam of an Intz tank carries a hoop tension of 120 kN. The beam cross-
section is 250 mm deep and it is reinforced with 4 bars of 20 mm diameter of
Fe-415 grade. Molular ratio of the concrete is 10. The tensile stress in N/mm2 in
the concrete is
(A) 1.02 (B) 1.07
(C) 1.20 (D) 1.32
Q. 61 A concrete column carries an axial load of 450 kN and a bending moment of 60

kNm at its base. An isolated footing of size 2 m # 3 m side along the plane of the
bending moment, is provided under the column. Centres of gravity of column and
footing coincide. The net maximum and the minimum pressures in kN/m2 on soil
under the footing are respectively,
(A) 95 and 55 (B) 95 and 75
(C) 75 and 55 (D) 75 and 75


A reinforced concrete beam, size 200 mm wide and 300 mm deep overall is simply
supported over a span of 3 m. It is subjected to two point loads P of equal
magnitude placed at middle third points. The two loads are gradually increased
simultaneously. Beam is reinforced with 2 HYSD bars of 16 mm diameter placed
at an effective cover of 40 mm on bottom face and nominal shear reinforcement.
The characteristic compressive strength and the bending tensile strength of the
concrete are 20.0 N/mm2 and 2.2 N/mm2 respectively.
Q. 62 Ignoring the presence of tension reinforcement, the value of load P in kN when
the first flexure crack will develop in the beam is
(A) 4.5 (B) 5.0
(C) 6.6 (D) 7.5
Q. 63 The theoretical failure load of the beam for attainment of limit state of collapse
in flexure is
(A) 23.7 kN (B) 25.6 kN
(C) 28.7 kN (D) 31.6 kN
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 64 Read the following two statements:

I. Maximum strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre is taken to
be 0.0035 in bending
II. The maximum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression is taken
as 0.002
Keeping the provisions of IS 456 2000 on limit state design in mind, which of the
following is true:
(A) Statement I is True but II is False (B) Statement I is False but II is True
(C) Both statement I and II are True (D) Both statement I and II are False
Q. 65 As per the provisions of IS : 456 - 2000, the (short term) modulus of elasticity of
M 25 grade concrete (in N/mm2 ) can be assumed to be
(A) 25000 (B) 28500
(C) 30000 (D) 36000
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 66 As per the provisions of IS : 456 - 2000, in the limit state method for, design of
beams, the limiting value of the depth of neutral axis in a reinforced concrete
beam of effective depth ‘d’ is given as
(A) 0.53 d
(B) 0.48 d
(C) 0.46 d
(D) any of the above depending on the different grades of steel.

YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 67 Consider the following two statements related to reinforced concrete design, and
identify whether they are True of False.
I. Curtailment of bars in the flexural tension zone in beams reduces the shear
strength at the cut-off locations
II. When a rectangular column section is subject to biaxially eccentric
compression, the neutral axis will be parallel to the resultant axis of
bending.
(A) Both statements I and II are True
(B) Statement I is True, and statement II is False
(C) Statement I is False, and statement II is True
(D) Both statements I and II are False
**********

ANSWER KEY
RCC STRUCTURES AND PRESTRESSED CONCRETE
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(B) (*) 86.205 (D) (C) (B) (C) (B) (B) (C)
kN-m
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(A) (C) (C) (A) (D) (C) (B) (D) (A) (B)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(A) (D) (C) (D) (D) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(A) (B) (C) (A) (C) (D) (B) (B) (B) (B)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(D) (A) (A) (A) (A) (D) (A) (C) (B) (C)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(C) (C) (A) (D) (D) (D) (A) (C) (C) (B)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67
(A) (C) (D) (C) (A) (D) (B)

GATE SOLVED PAPER

Civil Engineering
Strength of Materials
NODIA AND COMPANY

Ph : +91 - 141 - 2101150
www.nodia.co.in


STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 Creep strain is
(A) caused due to dead load only (B) caused due to live load only
(C) caused due to cyclic load only (D) independent of load
Q. 2 The “Plane section remain plane” assumption in bending theory implies

(A) strain profile is linear (B) stress profile is linear
(C) both profiles are linear (D) shear deformation is neglected
Q. 3 A symmetric I-section (with width of each flange = 50 mm , thickness of web

= 10 mm ) of steel is subjected to a shear force of 100 kN. Find the magnitude of
the shear stress (in N/mm2) in the web at its junction with the top flange.
Q. 4 Two steel column P (length L and yield strength fy = 250 MPa ) have the same
cross-section and end condition the ratio of bucking load of column P to that of
column Q is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Q. 5 2D stress at a point is given by a matrix

s xx t xy 100 30
> H => H MPa
t yx s yy 30 20
The maximum shear stress in MPa is
(A) 50 (B) 75
(C) 100 (D) 110
YEAR 2012 ONE MARK
Q. 6 The Poisson’s ratio is defined as

(A) axial stress (B) lateral strain
lateral stress axial strain
(C) lateral stress (D) axial strian
axial stress laterial strain
Q. 7 The following statement are related to bending of beams

I. The slope of the bending moment diagram is equal to the shear force.
II. The slope of the shear force diagram is equal to the load intensity.
III. The slope of the curvature is equal to the flexural rotation
IV. The second derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature.
The only FALSE statements is

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) IV
Q. 8 The ratio of the theoretical critical buckling load for a column with fixed ends to
that of another column with the same dimensions and material, but with pinned
ends, is equal to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS
Q. 9 The simply supported beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of

intensity w per unit length, on half of the span from one end. The length of the
span and the flexural stiffness are denoted as l and El respectively. The deflection
at mid-span of the beam is
4 4
(A) 5 wl (B) 5 wl
6144 El 768 El
(C) 5 wl 4 (D) 5 wl
4
384 El 192 El
Q. 10 This sketch shows a column with a pin at the base and rollers at the top. It is
subjected to an axial force P and a moment M at mid-height. The reaction(s)
at R is/are.
(A) a vertical force equal to P

(B) a vertical force equal to P/2
(C) a vertical force equal to P and a horizontal force equal to M/h
(D) a vertical force equal to P/2 and a horizontal force equal to M/h
Q. 11 A symmetric frame PQR consists of two inclined members PQ and QR connected

at ‘Q ’ with a rigid joint and hinged at ‘P ’ and ‘R’. The horizontal length PR is
l . If a weight W is suspended at Q , the bending moment at Q is

(A) Wl (B) Wl
2 4
(C) Wl (D) zero

8
YEAR 2011 ONE MARK
Q. 12 Consider a simply supported beam with a uniformly distributed load having

a neutral axis (NA) as shown. For points P (on the neutral axis) and Q (at
the bottom of the beam) the state of stress is best represented by which of the
following pairs ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS
Q. 13 For the cantilever bracket, PQRS , loaded as shown in the adjoining figure (
PQ = RS = L , and, QR = 2L ), which of the following statements is FALSE ?
(A) The portion RS has a constant twisting moment with a value of 2WL .
(B) The portion QR has a varying twisting moment with a maximum value of
WL.
(C) The portion PQ has a varying bending moment with a maximum value of
WL.
(D) The portion PQ has no twisting moment.

A rigid beam is hinged at one end and supported on linear elastic springs (both
having a stiffness of ‘k ’) at point ‘1’ and ‘2’, and an inclined load acts at ‘2’, as
shown.

Q. 14 Which of the following options represents the deflections d1 and d2 at points ‘1’
and ‘2’ ?
(A) d1 = 2 b 2P l and d2 = 4 b 2P l (B) d1 = 2 b P l and d2 = 4 b P l
5 k 5 k 5 k 5 k
(C) d1 = 2 c P m and d2 = 4 c P m (D) d1 = 2 c 2 P and d = 4 2P

5 2k 5 2k 5 k m 2
5c k m
Q. 15 If the load P equals 100 kN, which of the following options represents forces R1
and R2 in the springs at point ‘1’ and ‘2’ ?
(A) R1 = 20 kN and R2 = 40 kN (B) R1 = 50 kN and R2 = 50 kN
(C) R1 = 30 kN and R2 = 60 kN (D) R1 = 40 kN and R2 = 80 kN
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 16 Two people weighing W each are sitting on a park of length L floating on water
at L/4 from either end. Neglecting the wright of the plank, the bending moment
at the centre of the plank is
(A) WL (B) WL
8 16
(C) WL (D) zero
32
Q. 17 The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 3 MPa and - 3 MPa
respectively. The maximum shear stress at the point is
(A) zero (B) 3 MPa
(C) 6 MPa (D) 9 MPa
Q. 18 The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and
homogeneous material is
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D)1
Q. 19 The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation
at one end is
(A) 0.5 L (B) 0.7 L
(C) 1.414 L (D) 2 L
Q. 20 A solid circular shaft of diameter d and length L is fixed at one end and free at
the other end. A torque T is applied at the free end. The shear modulus of the
material is G . The angle of twist at the free end is
(A) 16TL (B) 32TL
pd 4 G pd 4 G
(C) 64TL (D) 1284TL
pd 4 G pd G

YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 21 For the simply supported beam of length L, subjected to a uniformly distributed

moment M kN-m per unt length as shown in the figure, the bending moment (in
kN-m) at the mid-span of beam is
(A) zero (B) M

(C) ML (D) M/L
Q. 22 A disc of radius r has a hole of radius r/2 cut-out as shown. The centroid of the
remaining disc (shaded portion) at a radial distance from the centre “O ” is
(A) r/2 (B) r/3

(C) r/6 (D) r/8
YEAR 2009 ONE MARK
Q. 23 A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel having a radius of 0.5 m and wall
thickness of 25 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 700 kPa. The hoop
stress developed is
(A) 14 MPa (B) 1.4 MPa
(C) 0.14 MPa (D) 0.014 MPa
Q. 24 The point within the cross sectional plane of a beam through which the resultant
of the external loading on the beam has to pass through to ensure pure bending
without twisting of the cross-section of the beam is called
(A) moment centre (B) centroid
(C) shear centre (D) elastic center
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS

1. On a principal plane, only normal stress acts.
2. On a principal plane, both normal and shear stresses act.
3. On a principal plane, only shear stress acts
4. Isothermal state of stress is independent of frame of reference.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3

Q. 26 A hollow circular shaft has an outer diameter of 100 mm and a wall thickness of
25 mm. The allowable shear stress in the shaft is 125 MPa. The maximum torque
the shaft can transmit is
(A) 46 kNm (B) 24.5 kNm
(C) 23 kNm (D) 11.5 kNm
Q. 27 Match List-I (Shear Force Diagrams) beams with List-II (Diagram of beams with
supports and loading) and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists :

Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 4 3 1
Statement for Linked Q. 28 & 29 :

In the cantilever beam PQR shown in figure below, the segment PQ has flexural
rigidity EI and the segment QR has infinite flexural rigidity
Q. 28 The deflection and slope of the beam at Q are respectively

3 2 3 2
(A) 5 WL and 3 WL (B) WL and WL
6 EI 2 EI 3 EI 2 EI
3 2 3 2
(C) WL and WL (D) WL and 3 WL
2 EI EI 3 EI 2 EI
Q. 29 The deflection of the beam at R is

3 3
(A) 8 WL (B) 5 WL
EI 6 EI
3 3
(C) 7 WL (D) 8 WL
3 EI 6 EI
YEAR 2008 ONE MARK
Q. 30 A mild steel specimen is under uniaxial tensile stress. Young’s modulus and yield
stress for mild steel are 2 # 105 MPa and 250 MPa respectively. The maximum
amount of strain energy per unit volume that can be stored in this specimen
without permanent set is
(A) 156 Nmm/mm3 (B) 15.6 Nmm/mm3
(C) 1.56 Nmm/mm3 (D) 0.156 Nmm/mm3
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 31 Cross-section of a column consisting to two steel strips, each of thickness t and

width b is shown in the figure below. The critical loads of the column with perfect
bond and without bond between the strips are P and P0 respectively. The ratio
P/P0 is

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
Q. 32 A rigid bar GH of length L is supported by a hinge and a spring of stiffness K as

shown in the figure below. The buckling load, Pcr , for the bar will be
(A) 0.5 KL (B) 0.8 KL

(C) 1.0 KL (D) 1.2 KL
Q. 33 The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of circular cross-section having diameter
d subjected to a subject to a torque T is t. If the torque is increased by four
times and the diameter of the shaft is increased by two times, the maximum shear
stress in the shaft will be
(A) 2t (B) t
(C) t/2 (D) t/4
Q. 34 A vertical rod PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a flange fixed to
the bottom end Q . A weight W is dropped vertically from a height h (< L) on to
the flange. The axial stress in the rod can be reduced by
(A) increasing the length of the rod
(B) decreasing the length of the rod
(C) decreasing the area of cross-section of the rod
(D) increasing the modulus of elasticity of the material
Q. 35 The maximum tensile stress at the section X -X shown in the figure below is
(A) 8P (B) 6P
bd bd
(C) 4P (D) 2P
bd bd

Q. 36 The stepped cantilever is subjected to moments, M as shown in the figure below.

The vertical deflection at the free end (neglecting the self weight) is
2 2
(A) ML (B) ML
8 EI 4 EI
2
(C) ML (D) Zero
4 EI

Beam GHI is supported by three pontoons as shown in the figure below. The
horizontal cross-sectional area of each pontoon is 8 m2 , the flexural rigidity of the
beam is 10000 kNm2 and the unit weight of water is 10 kNm3
Q. 37 When the middle pontoon is removed, the deflection at H will be

(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.4 m
(C) 0.6 m (D) 0.8 m
Q. 38 When the middle pontoon is brought back to its position as shown in the figure
above, the reaction at H will be
(A) 8.6 kN (B) 15.7 kN
(C) 19.2 kN (D) 24.2 kN
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 39 An axially loaded bar is subjected to a normal stress os 173 MPa. The stress in
the bar is
(A) 75 MPa (B) 86.5 MPa
(C) 100 MPa (D) 122.3 MPa
Q. 40 A steel column, pinned at both end, has a buckling load of 200 kN. If the column
is restrained against lateral movement at its mid-height, it buckling load will be
(A) 200 kN (B) 283 kN
(C) 400 kN (D) 800 kN

Q. 41 For an isotropic material, the relationship between the Young’s modulus (E),
shear modulus (G) and Poisson’s ratio (m) is given by
(A) G = E (B) E = E
2 (1 + m) 2 (1 + m)
(C) G = E (D) G = E
(1 + 2m) 2 (1 - 2m)
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 42 A metal bar of length 100 mm is inserted between two rigid supports and its
temperature is increased by 10cC . If the coefficient of thermal expansion is
12 # 10- 6 per cC and the Young’s modulus is 2 # 105 MPa, the stress in the bar
is
(A) zero (B) 12 MPa
(C) 24 MPa (D) 2400 MPa
Q. 43 A rigid bar is suspended by three rods made of the same material as shown in the
figure. The area and length of the central rod are 3 A and L, respectively while
that of the two outer rods are 2A and 2L , respectively. If a downward force of
50 kN is applied to the rigid bar, the forces in the central and each of the outer
rods will be
(A) 16.67 kN each (B) 30 kN and 15 kN
(C) 30 kN and 10 kN (D) 21.4 kN and 14.3 kN
Q. 44 The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer
diameter 20 mm and thickness 2 mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 Nm will be
(A) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa (B) 100 MPa and 80 MPa
(C) 118 MPa and 160 MPa (D) 200 MPa and 160 MPa
Q. 45 The shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of triangular section with a base of
40 mm and height 20 mm, subjected to a shear force of 3 kN is
(A) 3 MPa (B) 6 MPa
(C) 10 MPa (D) 20 MPa
Q. 46 U1 and U2 are the strain energies stored in a prismatic bar due to axial tensile
forces P1 and P2 , respectively. The strain energy U stored in the same bar due to
combined action of P1 and P2 will be
(A) U = U1 + U2 (B) U = U1 U2
(C) U < U1 + U2 (D) U > U1 + U2

YEAR 2006 ONE MARK
30 0
Mohr’s circle for the state of stress defined by >
0 30H
Q. 47 MPa is a circle with
(A) centre at (0, 0) and radius 30 MPa (B) centre at (0, 0) and radius 60 MPa
(C) centre at (30, 0) and radius 30 MPa (D) centre at (30, 0) and zero radius
Q. 48 A long shaft of diameter d is subjected to twisting moment T at its ends. The

maximum normal stress acting at its cross-section is equal to
(A) zero (B) 16T3
pd
(C) 32 T (D T3
64
pd 3 pd
Q. 49 The buckling load P = Pcr for the column AB in figure, as KT approaches infinity,
2
becomes a p EI
L2
Where a is equal to
(A) 0.25 (B) 1.00
(C) 2.05 (D) 4.00
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 50 A thin-walled long cylindrical tank is inside radius r is subjected simultaneously

to internal gas pressure p and axial compressive force F at its ends. In order to
produce ‘pure shear’ state of stress in the wall of the cylinder, F should be equal
to
(A) ppr2 (B) 2ppr2
(C) 3ppr2 (D) 4ppr2
Q. 51 Consider the beam AB shown in the figure below. Part AC of the beam is rigid
while Part CB has the flexural rigidity EI . Identify the correct combination of
deflection at end B and bending moment at end A, respectively
3 3
(A) PL , 2PL (B) PL , PL
3EI 3EI
3 3
(C) 8PL , 2PL (D) 8PL , PL
3EI 3EI

Q. 52 A simply supported beam AB has the bending moment diagram as shown in the
following figure.
The beam is possibly under the action of following loads

(A) Couples of M at C and 2M at D
(B) Couples of 2M at C and M at D
(C) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and 2M/L at D
(D) Concentrated load of M/L at C and couple of 2M at D
Q. 53 A beam with the cross-section given is subjected to a positive bending moment

(causing compression at the top) of 16 kNm acting around the horizontal axis.
The tensile force acting on the hatched area of the cross-section is
(A) zero (B) 5.9 kN

(C) 8.9 kN (D) 17.8 kN
Q. 54 If a beam of rectangular cross-section is subjected to a vertical shear force V , the

shear force carried by the upper one-third of the cross-section is
(A) zero (B) 7V
27
(C) 8V (D) V
27 3
Q. 55 For the section shown below, second moment of the area about an axis d/4
distance above the bottom of the area is
3 3
(A) bd (B) bd
48 12
3 3
(C) 7bd (D) bd
48 3

Q. 56 I -section of a beam is formed by gluing wooden planks as shown in the figure

below. If this beam transmits a constant vertical shear force of 3000 N, the glue at
any of the four joint will be subjected to a shear force (in kN per meter length) of
(A) 3.0 (B) 4.0

(C) 8.0 (D) 10.7

Consider a propped cantilever beam ABC under two leads of magnitude P each
as shown in the figure below. Flexural rigidity of the beam is EI .
Q. 57 The reaction at C is
(A) 9Pa (upwards) (B) 9Pa (downwards)
16L 16L
(C) Pa (upwards)
9 (D) 9Pa (downwards)
8L 8L
Q. 58 The rotation at B is
(A) 5PLa (clockwise) (B) 5PLa (anticlockwise)
16EI 16EI
(C) 59PLa (clockwise) (D) 59PLa (anticlockwise)
16EI 16EI
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 59 The symmetry of stress tensor at a point in the body under equilibrium is obtained
from
(A) conserved of mass
(B) force equilibrium equations
(C) moment equilibrium equations
(D) conservation of energy

Q. 60 The components of strain tensor at a point in the plane strain case can be
obtained by measuring longitudinal strain in following directions
(A) along any two arbitrary directions
(B) along any three arbitrary directions
(C) along two mutually orthogonal directions
(D) along any arbitrary direction
YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
Q. 61 If principal stresses in a two-dimensional case are - 10 MPa and 20 MPa

respectively, then maximum shear stress at the point is
(A) 10 MPa (B) 15 MPa
(C) 20 MPa (D) 30 MPa
Q. 62 The bending moment diagram for a beam is given below :
The shear force at sections aal and bbl respectively are of the magnitude
(A) 100 kN, 150 kN (B) zero, 100 kN
(C) zero, 50 kN (D) 100 kN, 100 kN
Q. 63 A circular shaft shown in the figure is subjected to torsion T at two point A and
B. The torsional rigidity of portions CA and BD is GJ1 and that of portion AB
is GJ2 . The rotations of shaft at points A and B are q1 and q2 . The rotation q1 is
(A) TL (B) TL
GJ1 + GJ2 GJ1
(C) TL (D) TL
GJ2 GJ1 - GJ2
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 64 For linear elastic systems, the type of displacement function for the strain energy
is
(A) linear (B) quadratic
(C) cubic (D) quartic

YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 65 In a two dimensional stress analysis, the state of stress at a point is shown below.
If s = 120 MPa and t = 70 MPa , sx and sy , are respectively,
(A) 26.7 MPa and 172.5 MPa (B) 54 MPa and 128 MPa
(C) 67.5 MPa and 213.3 MPa (D) 16 MPa and 138 MPa
Q. 66 For the linear elastic beam shown in the figure, the flexural rigidity, EI is
781250 kNm2 . When w = 10 kN/m , the vertical reaction RA at A is 50 kN. The
value of RA for w = 100 kN/m is
(A) 500 kN (B) 425 kN

(C) 250 kN (D) 75 kN
Q. 67 A homogeneous, simply supported prismatic beam of width B , depth D and span

L is subjected to a concentrated load of magnitude P . The load can be placed
anywhere along the span of the beam. The maximum flexural stress developed in
beam is
(A) 2 PL2 (B) 3 PL2
3 BD 4 BD
(C) 4 PL2 (D) 3 PL2
3 BD 2 BD
Q. 68 A circular solid shaft of span L = 5 m is fixed at one end and free at other end.
A twisting moment T = 100 kNm is applied at the free end. The torsional rigidity
GH is 50000 kNm2 /rad .
Following statements are made for this shaft :
1. The maximum rotation is 0.01 rad
2. The torsional strain energy is 1 kNm
With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies ?
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Statement 2 is true but 2 is false


A three-span continuous beam has an internal hinge at B. Section B is at the
mid-span of AC. Section E is at the mid-span of CG. The 20 kN load is applied
at section B whereas 10 kN loads are applied at sections D and F as shown in the
figure. Span GH is subjected to uniformly distributed load of magnitude 5 kN/m.
For the loading shown, shear force immediate to the right of section E is 9.84 kN
upwards and the hogging moment at section E is 10.31 kNm
Q. 69 The magnitude of the shear force immediate to the left and immediate to the
right of section B are respectively
(A) 0 and 20 kN
(B) 10 kN and 10 kN
(C) 20 kN and 0
(D) 9.84 kN and 10.16 kN
Q. 70 The vertical reaction at support H is

(A) 15 kN upward
(B) 9.84 kN upward
(C) 15 kN downward
(D) 9.84 kN downward
YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 71 A bar of varying square cross-section is loaded symmetrically as shown in the

figure. Loads shown are placed on one of the axes of symmetry of cross-section.
Ignoring self weight, the maximum tensile stress in N/mm2 anywhere is
(A) 16.0 (B) 20.0

(C) 25.0 (D) 30.0

Q. 72 A curved member with a straight vertical leg is carrying a vertical load at Z , as

shown in the figure. The stress resultants in the XY segment are
(A) bending moment, shear force and axial force

(B) bending moment and axial force only
(C) bending moment and shear force only
(D) axial force only
YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 73 The state of two dimensional stresses acting on a concrete lamina consists of a

direct tensile stress, sx = 1.5 N/mm2 , and shear stress, t = 1.20 N/mm2 , which
cause cracking of concrete. Then the tensile strength of the concrete in N/mm2 is
(A) 1.50
(B) 2.08
(C) 2.17
(D) 2.29
Q. 74 A "H" shaped frame of uniform flexural rigidity EI is located as shown in the

figure. The relative outward displacement between points K and O is
2
(A) RLh
EI
2
(B) RL h
EI
2
(C) RLh
3EI
2
(D) RL h
3EI

Q. 75 A simply supported beam of uniform rectangular cross-section of width b and

depth h is subjected to linear temperature gradient 0c at the top and Tc at the
bottom, as shown in the figure. The coefficient of linear expansion of the beam
material is a. The resulting vertical deflection at the mid-span of the beam is
2
(A) aTh upward
8L
2
(B) aTL upward
8h
2
(C) aTh downward
8L
2
(D) aTL downward
8h
Q. 76 List I shows different loads acting on a beam and List II shows different bending
moment distributions. Match the load with the corresponding bending moment
diagram.
Codes :
A B C D
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 5 4 1 3
(C) 2 5 3 1
(D) 2 4 1 3

Q. 77 A long structural column (length = L ) with both ends hinged is acted upon by
an axial compressive load, P . The differential equation governing the bending of
column is given by :
d2 y
EI 2 =- Py
dx
Where y is the structural lateral deflection and EI is the flexural rigidity. The
first critical load on column responsible for its buckling is given by
2 2
(A) p EI 2 (B) 2 p2 EI
L L
2 2
(C) 2p EI (D) 4p EI
L2 L2
YEAR 2002 ONE MARK
Q. 78 The shear modulus ^G h, modulus of elasticity Ê h and the Poisson’s ratio ^v h of

a material are related as
(A) G = E (B) E = G
62 ^1 + v h@ 62 ^1 + v h@
(C) G = E (D) G = E
62 ^1 - v h@ 62 ^v - 1h@
Q. 79 For the loading given in the figure below, two statements (I and II) are made
I. Memeber AB carries shear force and bending moment

II. Member BC carries axial load and shear force
Which of these statement is true?
(A) Statement I True but II is False (B) Statement I is False but II is True
(C) Both statement I and II are True (D) Both statement I and II are False
YEAR 2002 TWO MARKS
Q. 80 In the propped cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w N/m ,

shown in the following figure, the reaction at the support B is
(A) 5 wL (B) 3 wL
8 8
(C) 1 wL (D) 3 wL
2 4

YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 81 The bending moment (in kNm units) at the mid span location X in the beam
with overhangs shown below is equal to
(A) 0 (B) –10

(C) –15 (D) –20
**********

ANSWER KEY
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(A) (A) 71.12 (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) (C)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(D) (A) (B) (B) (D) (D) (B) (C) (D) (B)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(A) (C) (A) (C) (A) (C) (A) (A) (A) (D)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(B) (C) (C) (A) (A) (C) (B) (C) (B) (D)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(A) (C) (C) (B) (C) (D) (D) (A) (D) (C)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(A) (A) (C) (B) (C) (B) (C) (A) (C) (B)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(B) (C) (B) (B) (C) (B) (D) (B) (A) (B)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(C) (D) (C) (A) (D) (D) (A) (A) (A) (B)
81
(C)

GATE SOLVED PAPER

Civil Engineering
Structural Analysis
NODIA AND COMPANY

Ph : +91 - 141 - 2101150
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STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
YEAR 2013 ONE MARK
Q. 1 The pin-jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a horizontal force of 15 kN at joint

S and another 15 kN vertical force at joint U as shown in figure. Find the
force in member RS (in kN) and report your answer taking tension as +ve and
compression as –ve.
YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS
Q. 2 Beam subjected to moving distributed load of 4 kN/m maximum shear force that
can occur just to right of Q is
(A) 30 kN (B) 40 kN
(C) 45 kN (D) 55 kN
Q. 3 A uniform beam (EI = constant) PQ is the form of a quarter circle of radius R

is fixed at end P and free at the end Q , where a load W is applied as shown. The
wR3
vertical downward displacement dQ at the loaded point Q is given by dQ = b b EI l
. Find the value of b correct to 4-decimal place.

GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
Q. 4 All members in the rigid-jointed frame shown are prismatic and have the same
flexural stiffness EI. Find the magnitude of the B.M. at Q (in kN-m) due to given
loading.
Q. 5 A uniform beam weighing 1800 N is supported at E & F by cable ABCD. Determine

the tension force in segment AB at this cable (correct to 1 decimal place). Assume
the cable ABCD, BE and CF are weightless
YEAR 2010 ONE MARK
Q. 6 For the truss shown in the figure, the force in the member QR is
(A) zero (B) P

2
(C) P (D) 2P
YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS
Q. 7 A three hinged parabolic arch having a span of 20 m and a rise of 5 m carries a

point load of 10 kN at quarter span from the left end as shown in the figure. The
resultant reaction at the left support and its inclination with the horizontal zero
respectively

(A) 9.01 kN and 56.31c
(B) 9.01 kN and 33.69c
(C) 7.50 kN and 56.31c
(D) 2.50 kN and 33.69c
YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS
Q. 8 The degree of static indeterminacy of rigidity jointed frame in a horizontal plane

and subjected to vertical load only, as shown in figure below, is
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 1
YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS
Q. 9 The degree of static indeterminacy of the rigid frame having two internal hinges
as shown in the figure below, is
(A) 8 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 5

Q. 10 The members EJ and IJ of a steel truss shown in the figure below, are subjected
to a temperature rise to 30cC . The coefficient of thermal expansion of steel is
0.000012 per cC per unit length. The displacement (mm) of joint E relative to
joint H along the direction HE of the truss, is
(A) 0.255 (B) 0.589

(C) 0.764 (D) 1.026
Q. 11 The span(s) to be loaded uniformly for maximum positive (upward) reaction at

support P, as shown in the figure below, is (are)
(A) PQ only (B) PQ and QR

(C) QR and RS (D) PQ and RS
YEAR 2007 ONE MARK
Q. 12 The stiffness coefficient kij indicates

(A) force at i due to a unit deformation at j
(B) deformation at j due to a unit force at i
(C) deformation at i due to a unit force at j
(D) force at j due to a unit deformation at i
YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS
Q. 13 The right triangular truss is made of members having equal cross sectional area
of 1550 mm2 and Young’s modulus of 2 # 105 MPa . The horizontal deflection of
the joint Q is

(A) 2.47 mm (B) 10.25 mm

(C) 14.31 mm (D) 15.68 mm
Q. 14 The influence line diagram (ILD) shown is for the member
(A) PS (B) RS
(C) PQ (D) QS

A two span continuous beam having equal spans each of length L is subjected to
a uniformly distributed load w per unit length. The beam has constant flexural
rigidity.
Q. 15 The reaction at the middle support is
(A) wL (B) 5wL
2
(C) 5wL (D) 5wL
4 8
Q. 16 The bending moment at the middle support is
2 2
(A) wL (B) wL
4 8
2 2
(C) wL (D) wL
12 16
YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS
Q. 17 Vertical reaction developed at B in the frame below due to the applied load to
100 kN (with 150,000mm2 cross-sectional area and 3.125 # 109 mm 4 moment of
inertia for both members) is

(A) 5.9 kN (B) 30.2 kN

(C) 66.3 kN (D) 94.1 kN
Q. 18 Carry-over factor CAB for the beam shown in the figure below is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2

(C) 3/4 (D) 1
Q. 19 Consider the beam ABCD and the influence line as shown below. The influence
line pertains to
(A) reaction at A, RA
(B) shear force at B, VB
(C) shear force on the left of C, VC-
(D) shear force on the right of C, VC+
YEAR 2005 ONE MARK
Q. 20 For a linear elastic frame, if stiffness matrix is doubled with respect to the existing
stiffness matrix, the deflection of the resulting frame will be
(A) twice the existing value
(B) half the existing value
(C) the same as existing value
(D) indeterminate value
Q. 21 Considering beam as axially rigid, the degree of freedom of a plane frame shown
below is
(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) 6

YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS
below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Slope deflection method 1. Force method
b. Moment distribution method 2. Displacement method
c. Method of three moments
d. Castigliano’s second theorem
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 1 2
(B) 1 1 2 2
(C) 2 2 1 1
(D) 2 1 2 1
Q. 23 All members of the frame shown below have the same flexural rigidity EI and
length L. If a moment M is applied at joint B , the rotation of the joint is
(A) ML (B) ML
12EI 11EI
(C) ML (D) ML
8EI 7EI

A truss is shown in the figure. Members are of equal cross section A and same
modulus of elasticity E. A vertical force P is applied at point C.
Q. 24 Force in the member AB of the truss is

(A) P (B) P
2 3
(C) P (D) P
2

Q. 25 Deflection of the point C is

(A) c 2 2 + 1 m PL (B) 2 PL
2 EA EA
(C) (2 2 + 1) PL (D) ( 2 + 1) PL
EA EA
YEAR 2004 ONE MARK
Q. 26 The unit load method used in structural analysis is

(A) applicable only to statically indeterminate structures
(B) another name for stiffness method
(C) an extension of Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem
(D) derived from Castigliano’s theorem
Q. 27 For a linear structural system, minimization of potential energy yields

(A) compatibility conditions (B) constitutive relations
(C) equilibrium equations (D) strain-displacement relations
Q. 28 For the plane truss shown in the fig. the number of zero force members for the
given loading is
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 11 (D) 13
YEAR 2004 TWO MARKS
Q. 29 For the plane frame with an overhang as shown below, assuming negligible axial
deformation, the degree of static indeterminacy, d , and the degree of kinematic
indeterminacy, k , are
(A) d = 3 and k = 10 (B) d = 3 and k = 13

(C) d = 19 and k = 10 (D) d = 9 and k = 13

Q. 30 The plane frame below is analyzed by neglecting axial deformations. Following

statements are made with respect to the analysis :
1. Column AB carries axial force only

2. Vertical deflection at the center of beam BC is 1 mm
With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies ?
(A) Both the statements are true
(B) Statement 1 is true but 2 is false
Q. 31 A three hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span of 20 m and a central rise of 4 m.
The arch has hinges at the ends and at the centre. A train of two point loads of
20 kN and 10 kN, 5m apart, crosses this arch from left to right, with 20 kN load
leading. The maximum thrust induced at the supports is
(A) 25.00 kN (B) 28.13 kN
(C) 31.25 kN (D) 32.81 kN
YEAR 2003 ONE MARK
Q. 32 The stiffness K of a beam deflecting in a symmetric mode, as shown in the figure,

is
(A) EI (B) 2EI

L L
(C) 4EI (D) 6EI
L L
Q. 33 Muller Breslau principal in structural analysis is used for

(A) drawing influence line diagram for any force function
(B) writing virtual work equation
(C) super position of load effects
(D) none of these

YEAR 2003 TWO MARKS
Q. 34 In a redundant joint model, three bar members are pin connected at Q as shown
in the figure. Under some load placed at Q, the elongation of the members MQ
and OQ are found to be 48 mm and 35 mm respectively. Then the horizontal
displacement 'u' and the vertical displacement 'v' of the node Q, in mm, will be
respectively,
(A) - 6.64 and 56.14 (B) 6.64 and 56.14

(C) 0.0 and 59.41 (D) 59.41 and 0.0
Q. 35 A truss, as shown in the figure, is carrying 180 kN load at node L2 . The force in
the diagonal member M2 U 4 will be
(A) 100 kN tension

(B) 100 kN compression
(C) 80 kN tension
(D) 80 kN compression
Common Data For Q. 36, 37 and 38 :

A beam PQRS is 18 m long and is simply at points Q and R 10 m apart.
Overhangs PQ and RS are 3 m and 5 m respectively. A train of two point loads of
150 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this beam from left to right with 100 kN load leading.
Q. 36 The maximum sagging moment under the 150 kN load anywhere is
(A) 500 kNm (B) 450 kNm
(C) 400 kNm (D) 375 kNm
Q. 37 During the passage of the loads, the maximum and the minimum reactions at
support R, in kN, are respectively
(A) 300 and - 30 (B) 300 and - 25
(C) 225 and - 30 (D) 225 and - 25

Q. 38 The maximum hogging moment in the beam anywhere is

(A) 300 kNm (B) 450 kNm
(C) 500 kNm (D) 750 kNm
YEAR 2001 ONE MARK
Q. 39 The degree of static indeterminacy, Ds , and the degree of kinematic indeterminacy,

Dk , for the plane frame shown below, assuming axial deformations to be negligible,
are given by
(A) Ds = 6 and Dk = 11 (B) Ds = 6 and Dk = 6

(C) Ds = 4 and Dk = 6 (D) Ds = 4 and Dk = 4
Q. 40 Identify the false statement from the following, pertaining to the effects due to a
temperature rise DT in the bar BD alone in the plane truss shown below:
(A) No reactions develop at supports A and D

(B) The bar BD will be subject to a tensile force
(C) The bar AC will be subject to a compressive force
(D) The bar BC will be subject to a tensile force
Q. 41 Identify the correct deflection diagram corresponding to the loading in the plane
frame shown below:

Q. 42 Identify the false statement from the following, pertaining to the methods of
structural analysis
(A) Influence lines for stress resultants in beams can be drawn using Muller
Breslau’s Principle
(B) The Moment Distribution Method is a force method of analysis, not a
displacement method
(C) The Principle of Virtual Displacements can be used to establish a condition
of equilibrium
(D) The Substitute Frame Method is not applicable to frames subject to significant
sideway
YEAR 2001 TWO MARKS
Q. 43 Identify, from the following, the correct values of the bending moment MA (in
kNm units) at the fixed end A in the statically determinate beam shown below
(with internal hinges at B and D ), when a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m
is placed on all spans.
(A) –80 (B) –40

(C) 0 (D) +40
Q. 44 The frame below shows three beam elements OA, OB and OC , with identical
length L and flexural rigidity EI , subject to an external moment M applied at
the rigid joint O . The correct set of bending moments {MOA , MOB , MOC } that
develop at O in the three beam elements OA, OB and OC respectively, is

(A) "3M/8, M/8, 4M/8, (B) "3M/11, 4M/11, 4M/11,

(C) "M/3, M/3, M/3, (D) "3M/7, 0, 4M/7 ,
Q. 45 The end moment (in kNm) developed in the roof level beams in the laterally
loaded frame shown below (with all columns having identical cross-sections),
according to the Cantilever Method of simplified analysis is
(A) 7.5 (B) 15

(C) 20 (D) 30
**********

ANSWER KEY
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
0 (C) 25 (*) 1272.91 (C) (A) (C) (D) (*)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(D) (A) (D) (A) (C) (B) (A) (D) (B) (B)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(B) (C) (B) (C) (A) (D) (A) (B) (D) (A)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(C) (B) (A) (B) (A) (C) (A) (C) (C) (B)
41 42 43 44 45
(A) (B) (C) (D) (B)

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Electronics & Communication

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NODIA & COMAPNY

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Design of Steel Structure

Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulic Machines

Highway Engineering and Surveying

Irrigation Engg. and Engg. Hydrology

RCC Structures and Prestressed Concrete

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE

YEAR 2013 ONE MARK

YEAR 2013 TWO MARKS

Statement For Linked Answer Q. 2 and 3 :

Q. 2 What is the value of R(in kN) if value of P is 80 kN by elastic theory?

YEAR 2012 ONE MARK

YEAR 2012 TWO MARKS

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE

(A) 100 mm (B) 105 mm

YEAR 2011 ONE MARK

(A) 0.16s (B) 0.65s

YEAR 2011 TWO MARKS

(A) ^4/21h M p (B) ^3/10h M p

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE

Q. 8 The adjoining figure shows a schematic representation of a steel plate girder to

(A) (i) RS should be provided under the concentrated load only

YEAR 2010 TWO MARKS

Q. 10 Two plates, subjected to direct tension, each of 10 mm thickness and having

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE

(A) 245.3 mm (B) 229.2 mm

YEAR 2009 ONE MARK

YEAR 2009 TWO MARKS

Q. 13 A 12 mm thick plate is connected to two 8 mm thick plates, on either side through

(A) 56.70 kN (B) 43.29 kN

Q. 14 Consider the following statements for a compression member:

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE

YEAR 2008 ONE MARK

YEAR 2008 TWO MARKS

Q. 17 A continuous beam is loaded as shown in the figure below. Assuming a plastic

(A) 4MP (B) 6MP

YEAR 2007 TWO MARKS

Q. 18 A steel flat of rectangular section of size 70 # 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate

(A) 42.3 kN (B) 52.65 kN

Q. 19 A bracket connection is made with four bolts of 10 mm diameter and supports

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE

(all distance are in mm)

(A) 3MP (B) 4MP

YEAR 2006 TWO MARKS

Q. 21 Consider the following statements :

Q. 22 In the design of welded tension members, consider the following statements :

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURE

YEAR 2005 ONE MARK

YEAR 2005 TWO MARKS