Questions 51-60

51. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible,
why does it translate the very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in
Col 2:7, Col 2:9, Mt 14:2, Mk 6:14, Lk 23:22, Jn 4:14, Acts 20:10, 1Cor 2:11,
Eph 1:10, Col 1:19, Heb 10:38, 1Jn 2:15, 3:5, 3:15, etc. but translates this
same Greek phrase as “by means of him” in 2Cor 1:20, 5:21, and Col 2:10,
“by relationship with him” in Col 2:11, “in his case” in 2Cor 1:19, 1Jn 2:8,
10, and “in union with him” in Jn 14:11, 2Cor 13:5, Eph 1:4, Phil 3:9, Col
2:6, 2Thess 1:12, 1Jn 1:5, 2:5, 2:27, 2:28, 3:6, 4:13, 4:15, and 4:16? See Gr-
Engl Interlinear. What is the reason for the addition of words in these verses
and for the inconsistency in translation of this very simple Greek phrase “en
autos”? If the NWT was consistent and translated this very simple Greek
phrase “en autos” as “in him” in all the above verses, how would they read?
Is the WTS trying to obscure the point of the author that the Christian life
consists of a supernatural relationship with Christ?

There are dozens of Bible translations, if only for the simple reason that
there is more than one way to say the same thing. Translators are not
bound by some universal law to always translate each word the same way
every time it appears. No translation does that. Words have meaning
according to their usage in each context.

As for the "supernatural relationship" you suppose the Watchtower is

trying to obscure, it is more likely the case that the questioner is
supposing that the Bible should support his notion of some sort of
metaphysical, mystical Christ. We will leave that for the questioner to
clarify.

52. Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "ALL things". What does the word “all”
mean to you? In Isa 44:24, God says that he "BY MYSELF” created the
heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the
heavens and the earth were created. If what the WTS teaches about the
nature of Christ is correct, how could God have been “by myself” when the
heavens and the earth were created if Christ had been created first? If Jesus
had been created by God, wouldn’t he have been with God when everything
else was created? Likewise, if Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn
1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself. How would that have been
possible?
While the questioner obviously possesses a thorough understanding of
basic words like "all," he demonstrates a gross lack of spiritual
comprehension.

The context of Isaiah has to do with Jehovah asserting his superiority over
idol gods. Elsewhere, though, it is apparent that someone was with
Jehovah in the beginning. John 1:1, in fact, reveals that an entity called
"the Word" was with God in the beginning. And, of course, informed
readers are aware of the invitation that God extended to a-then-unnamed
personage when he said: "Let us make man in our image, according to
our likeness." What do words like "us" and "our" mean to you?
Obviously, Jehovah God was not muttering to himself. There was
someone closely associated with Jehovah during creation. However, it
was not the impotent false gods and idols that Jehovah was denouncing
in Isaiah. The Scriptures reveal that the someone whom God referred to
as being in his own likeness is none other than Christ.

53. If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12,
22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to
have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been
without wisdom? In Prov 8:2, the feminine form of the Hebrew verb
“natsab” is used. This can only be translated as “SHE stands”. Similarly, in
Prov 8:3, the feminine form of the Hebrew verb “ranan” is used. This can
only be translated as “SHE cries”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for
word translation of the Bible, why does it use the neuter pronoun “it” in
these verses when the feminine pronoun “she” is called for? How could
Christ be the wisdom of God in Prov 8, if the feminine form of the verbs are
used? In addition, why does the NWT use the neuter pronoun “it” in Prov
8:2-3, when wisdom is called “sister” in Prov 7:4 and “she” in Prov 9:4?

Jesus once said that "wisdom is proved righteous by works." Or in other

words, wisdom is judged by what it produces. Reasoning on that principle,
it should be self-evident that before God engaged in any creative work
there would have been no basis for gauging God's wisdom. Not only that,
but obviously before creation there were no intelligent minds to even
observe and judge the works of God—so in that sense wisdom did not
exist because there was no one to appreciate the wisdom God
possessed. As the Firstborn of all creatures, Jesus became the very
personification of God's inherent wisdom. Paul wrote at Colossians 2:3,
saying that all the treasures of God's wisdom and knowledge had been
carefully concealed by God in Christ.

As for feminine and neuter pronouns, wisdom is a quality not an actual

person, therefore, even though wisdom is personified as a person, it is still
a thing and as such it is proper to refer to a thing as "it."
54. The Bible says that: The heavens are the work of God’s hands (Ps
102:25), the heavens are the work of Jesus’ hand (Heb 1:10); God laid the
foundations of the earth (Isa 48:13), Jesus laid the foundations of the earth
(Heb 1:10); God is our judge (Ps 50:6, Eccl 12:14, 1Chron 16:33), Jesus is
our judge (2Tim 4:1, Rev 20:12); God is the temple of the New Jerusalem
(Rev 21:22), Jesus (the Lamb) is the temple of the New Jerusalem (Rev
21:22); God is the alpha and omega (Rev 1:8), Jesus is the alpha and omega
(Rev 22:13); God is the first and last (Isa 44:6, 48:12), Jesus is the first and
last (Rev 22:13); God is the beginning and the end (Rev 21:6), Jesus is the
beginning and the end (Rev 22:13); Only God can forgive sins (Lk 5:21),
Jesus forgives sins (Lk 5:20); God is our hope (Ps 71:5), Jesus is our hope
(1Tim 1:1); God is eternal (Deut 33:27), Jesus is eternal (Isa 9:6, Heb 1:10-
11); God will come with all the holy ones (Zech 14:5), Jesus will come with
all the holy ones (1Thess 3:13); Only God is our savior (Isa 43:11), Jesus is
our savior (Tit 2:13, 2Pet 1:1); God is the creator of the universe (Isa 44:24,
Jer 27:5), Jesus is the creator of the universe (Jn 1:3); To God, every knee
will bow and every tongue confess (Isa 45:22-23), to Jesus, every knee will
bow and every tongue confess (Phil 2:10-11); God is the same and his years
will have no end (Ps 102:27), Jesus is the same and his years will have no end
(Heb 1:12); God is immutable (Mal 3:6), Jesus is immutable (Heb 13:8); God
is over all (Ps 97:9), Jesus is over all (Jn 3:31); the spirit of God dwells in us
(Rom 8:9), the spirit of Jesus dwells in us (Gal 4:6); God is a stone of offense
and a stumbling block (Isa 8:14), Jesus is a stone of offense and a stumbling
block (1Pet 2:8); God was valued at 30 pieces of silver (Zech 11:12-13), Jesus
was valued at 30 pieces of silver (Mt 26:14-16); God is our shepherd (Ps
23:1), Jesus is our shepherd (Jn 10:11, 1Pet 5:4, Heb 13:20); God is Mighty
God (Isa 10:21), Jesus is Mighty God (Isa 9:6); God is Lord of Lords (Deut
10:17, Ps 136:3), Jesus is Lord of Lords (Rev 17:14); God is our only Rock
(Isa 44:8, Ps 18:2, 94:22), Jesus is our rock (1 Cor 10:4); God is our owner
(Isa 54:5), Jesus is our only owner (Jude 4); No one can snatch us out of
God’s hand (Deut 32:39), no one can snatch us out of Jesus’ hand (Jn 10:28);
God is the horn of salvation (2Sam 22:3), Jesus is the horn of salvation (Lk
1:68-9); God renders according to our works (Ps 62:12), Jesus renders
according to our works (Mt 16:27, Rev 22:12); God loves and corrects (Prov
3:12), Jesus loves and corrects (Rev 3:19); God’s words will stand forever
(Isa 40:8), Jesus’ words will stand forever (Mt 24:35); God is the eternal
light (Isa 60:19), Jesus is the eternal light (Jn 8:12, Rev 21:23); God seeks to
save the lost (Ezek 34:16), Jesus seeks to save the lost (Lk 19:10); Paul is a
slave of God (Tit 1:1), Paul is a slave of Jesus (Rom 1:1) even though no man
can slave for two masters (Mt 6:24); God raised Jesus from the dead (Gal
1:1), Jesus raised himself from the dead (Jn 2:19-21); God is our guide (Ps
48:14), Jesus is our guide (Lk 1:79); God is our deliverer (Ps 70:5, 2Sam
22:2), Jesus is our deliverer (Rom 11:26); God is called God (Isa 44:8), Jesus
is called God (Isa 9:6, Jn 20:28); God is the King of Israel (Isa 44:6), Jesus is
the King of Israel (Mt 27:42, Jn 1:49). Since the Bible does not contradict
itself, how can all these things be true if Jesus is not God?

Long convoluted questions that seem intended to overwhelm the reader

are best answered simply. The Bible's simple teaching is that Jesus is
Jehovah's Son. Being the firstborn of all creation, God generously gave
Jesus the privilege of creating the universe and he also appointed his son
to represent him in all things. It is not a complicated concept. Human
fathers, especially during the days of the great patriarchs, usually favored
their firstborn sons. Under Jewish Law, the firstborn received a double
inheritance. Why should it seem untoward that Jehovah allows his
firstborn son all the privileges of God? Or should we suppose that being
Jehovah's firstborn is something ordinary?

55. In Col 2:8, Paul condemns the “traditions of men” and in Mt 15:6, Jesus
condemns the “tradition” of the Pharisees that makes the “word of God
invalid”, since their traditions were making null and void the commandment
to “Honor your father and mother” (Mt 15:4). However, in 2Thess 2:15, the
Bible commands us to “stand firm and maintain your hold on the
TRADITIONS that you were taught”, in 2Thess 3:6 we are told of “the
TRADITION you received from us”, and 1Cor 11:2 says that the
Corinthians are “holding fast to the TRADITIONS just as I handed [them]
on to you.” By definition, the word “tradition” refers to the unwritten
teachings that have been handed down by word of mouth from one
generation to the next. See also 2Tim 2:2, 1Cor 11:2, 1Thess 2:13, 1Cor
11:23, 1Cor 15:3, and 1Tim 6:20-21. Since the WTS claims that the Bible is
its “supreme authority”, then in accordance with biblical commands, what
“traditions” do Witnesses maintain?

Paul encouraged the early Christians to observe the traditions passed

onto them directly from the apostles of Christ. However, in time the oral
traditions of the apostles were written down in what we now know as the
Christian Greek Scriptures. Jehovah's Witnesses do not recognize any
oral traditions that take precedence over the written Word of God.

56. Does the WTS claim "apostolic succession"? If so, can it trace its roots all
the way back to Christ (Mt 16:18)? Who was it then, that "passed the torch
of God's spirit" to C. T. Russell when he founded the organization? What
was the name of this individual or individuals? Similarly, since the anointed
believers as an organization are claimed to be God's collective "faithful and
discreet slave" that alone guides people in their understanding of Scripture,
and since this organization did not come into existence until the late-
nineteenth century, does this mean God had no true representatives on earth
for many, many centuries? If he did, who were they? What were their
names? Can you name one Jehovah’s Witness who lived before 1800?

The Watchtower does not claim to have received any such grant of
authority by means of apostolic succession. That is a Catholic doctrine,
and an unscriptural one at that.

The apostles taught that they would not have any sort of successor. Paul
stated at Acts 20:29: "I know that after my going away oppressive
wolves will enter in among you and will not treat the flock with
tenderness, and from among you yourselves men will rise and speak
twisted things to draw away the disciples after themselves."

Paul also was inspired to reveal what some of the twisted teachings would
be. At 1ST Timothy 4:1-3, the apostle wrote: "However, the inspired
utterance says definitely that in later periods of time some will fall
away from the faith, paying attention to misleading inspired
utterances and teachings of demons, by the hypocrisy of men who
speak lies, marked in their conscience as with a branding
iron; forbidding to marry, commanding to abstain from foods which
God created to be partaken of with thanksgiving by those who have
faith and accurately know the truth."

This prophecy points an accusing finger directly at the Vatican, which

undeniably fits the prophecy's profile of teaching demonically-inspired
commands, doctrines such as priestly celibacy and various dietary
prohibitions, such as the sanction against eating meat on Friday, and
other similar restrictions associated with Lent.

Rather than receiving authority through apostolic succession, Jehovah's

Witnesses derive our authority directly from Christ by virtue of the fact that
the core of the organization is composed of anointed Christians who are in
a covenant with Jehovah through Christ, as were the original apostles and
first Century Christians. Also, Christ foretold that he would directly appoint
certain of his slaves over his household of servants and that they would
eventually be judged as men put in charge.

57. The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the
word was a god." How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god' if God says in Deut
32:39, "See now that I -- I am he, and there are NO gods together with
me..."? Similarly, the Greek word “Theos” does not have an article in Jn
1:1c and the NWT supplies the indefinite article “a”, rendering it “and the
Word was a god.” If the NWT is the most accurate word for word
translation of the Bible, why doesn’t the NWT add the indefinite article “a”
in other verses where the Greek word “Theos” does not have an article (eg
Jn 1:6, 12, 13, 18, etc)? What is the reason for this inconsistency in
translation? In addition, how could Jesus be “a god” since Jesus says that he
came against those whom the prophet called “gods” (Jn 10:35)? Is there any
such things as a “true” god? If the WTS teaches this, then doesn’t that make
them polytheists?

The Greek language did not have an indefinite article—words such as "a"
and "an." To distinguish between a general thing and a specific thing the
Greek language used the definite article to denote something specific. In
the verse in question, in the original language the definite article is used
before one God but not before the god that John 1:1 calls the Word. So, it
literally says that the Word was with the God and the word was God.
English translations do not use the definite article before God—as if to say
the God. But, in order to translate the idea embodied in the verse, it is
necessary for translators to use some device to let the reader know that
the original language made a vital distinction between the two Gods
mentioned in that context. Most translations fail in that, although not all.
Here is a link to an article that lists all the various translations that render
John 1:1 differently than the common Trinitarian-produced Bibles.

To imply that the NWT was somehow tampering with the Bible by
inserting the indefinite article "a" is deceptive. All translations liberally
supply the indefinite article in various texts even though it does not appear
in the original Greek text. They do it to make a distinction between
Jehovah God and other gods—the same as the NWT does at John 1:1.
For example, Acts 28:6 says in the NIV: "The people expected him to
swell up or suddenly fall dead, but after waiting a long time and
seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds
and said he was a god."

In the above verse, the translators inserted the indefinite article "a" even
though it does not appear in the Greek. If they had not done so the reader
would have been given the impression that the Maltese people thought
Paul was God Almighty. That, of course, is not what they thought at all.
But, the point is, that the translators were justified in adding that little letter
"a" in order to make the verse conform to the meaning of the Greek.

The fact is that John 1:1 clearly refers to two separate entities, since the
point of the verse is to show that the Word was with God; the honest
translators are obligated to impart to the reader the distinction that exists
in the Greek language. The NWT has done that.

But, rather than disputing over minute articles of the alphabet, truth
seekers would do well to reason upon John 1:18, which says in the New
American Standard: "No one has seen God at any time; the only
begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained
Him." Jesus is not a competing false god like the gods of the nations.
Jesus is a god who is in complete harmony with Jehovah. According to
John 1:18, Jesus is a god by virtue of the fact that Jehovah God, the
Father, begot him, or fathered him. After all, isn't that what a father does?
The fact that no one on earth has ever seen God rules out Jesus being
God since Jesus was obviously seen by men.

It is noteworthy that for all the hand-waving and Bible-thumbing

dogmatism of Trinitarians, Jesus never once claimed to be God—not
once. Instead, he always said that he was God's Son. And John 1:1
agrees with all Scripture; that Jesus has been with God since the
beginning—his beginning that is—the beginning of creation.

58. The WTS teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 and Rev 14:3 is to be taken
literally. If these passages in scripture are to be taken literally, then the
144,000 are all literally male (Rev 14:4), Jewish (Rev 7:4-8), virgins (Rev
14:4). Was Charles Taze Russell a Jewish virgin? Are all women excluded
from this number? Are any of the other 144,000 people included in this
number Jewish virgins? If not, then how can this passage, including the
number 144,000, be taken literally? What justification is there for switching
methods of interpretation from literal, in the case of Rev 7:4 and 14:3, to
figurative in the very next verse(s)?

Discerning readers of the Bible recognize that the Scriptures are not
always speaking in strictly literal terms; nor are they always to be
understood as being symbolic and allegorical. The unreasonable mind,
however, insists that if the 144,000 are literal, than all the prophecy of
Revelation must be taken literally too. However, it is foolish to approach
the Bible in such a manner. It is not a matter of switching interpretations. It
is a matter of intelligently deciphering God's Word, which Jehovah's
Witnesses have done, in this instance.

The 144,000 are the spiritual organization that is built upon the 12
apostles. Are the 12 apostles symbolic? How about the 12 tribes that
descended from the 12 sons of Israel? The millions of churchgoers who
have been indoctrinated with the idea that it is their birthright to go to
heaven have very little comprehension what the kingdom of God actually
is. According to Revelation, the 144,000 are Christians who are bought
from all tribes and nationalities and they are to be kings and priests and
rule with Christ for the 1,000 years. That is what the kingdom of God is.

59. Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you," over 50 times in the Bible. In
the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk
23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma
placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? According to
Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the word “paradise” (Gr-paradeisos – Strong’s
#3857) refers to “the part of Hades which was thought by the later Jews to be
the abode of the souls of the pious until the resurrection”, where Jesus would
go in order to preach after his death (1Pet 3:18-20, 1Pet 4:5-6). By using this
word instead of the Greek word for “heaven”, wasn’t Luke showing that
Jesus was not referring to heaven when he made this statement? If the
translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of
this phrase in every other verse in which it appears (see concordance), and
the comma was placed after the word "you", how would this verse read?

Jesus may have frequently used the expression "truly I tell you," but he
only once used the expression "truly I tell you today." The Questioner
implies that the NWT is inconsistent in punctuating that phrase, when the
truth of the matter is that Jesus only used that exact phrase on one
occasion. The questioner appears to be either ignorant of his subject or
intentionally deceptive.

As regards the big comma issue: There was no punctuation in the original,
so it is up to the translator to determine how best to make sense of it.
Since a doctrinal matter involving the nature of the soul and the
resurrection is involved, the NWT translators placed the comma after
"today," so as to read: "Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in
Paradise." Other translations, though, place the comma after the first
"you," which causes the sentence to read as if Christ was promising the
impaled evildoer that he would be in paradise that very day. Which
translation is correct? The NWT is correct because Christ simply could not
have been in paradise that day, nor the day after that, nor the day after
that. Jesus died that day. And just like Jonah was in the belly of the huge
fish for three days, so Jesus was entombed in the earth for parts of three
days. Some translations even say that Jesus was in hell. Most reasonable
people would likely be in agreement that there is a big difference between
paradise and hell.

Since Jesus is the firstborn from the dead, it is impossible that the impaled
evildoer was resurrected to paradise before Christ came back to life. Also,
Jesus said that "unless anyone is born from water and spirit, he
cannot enter into the kingdom of God." That means that a person must
be baptized, not only in water, but in the anointing of the holy spirit.
However, the anointing spirit was not made available until after Christ
returned to heaven—after the thief had died. The truth is: the evildoer is
still dead, waiting to hear the voice of the Son of man calling him to life in
paradise, just as Jesus promised him that day.

As for Strong's definition: Jewish misconceptions of paradise should have

no bearing on the Bible's use of that term. As an example, in 2
Corinthians the 11th chapter, Paul referred to being caught away to what
he called the "third heaven" and "paradise." Rather than link paradise with
hell, Paul associated paradise with heaven. The Jews could not have
been more wrong. But, even at that, Christ did not ascend to any third
heaven or spiritual paradise on the day of his death.

60. What are the names of the men on the New World Bible Translation
Committee who supposedly translated the original Hebrew and Greek into
English for the NWT? What are their credentials that would qualify them to
produce a Bible translation? Why does the WTS withhold the names of these
people so that no one can see what their qualifications are?

The New World Translation committee wishes to remain anonymous. That

has nothing to do with any lack of scholarly credentials. It is simply the
way the Watchtower operates. It is not just the New World Translation
Bible either; none of the Watchtower's books or magazine articles has the
names of the authors, except in the case of biographical articles. Besides,
even if the translators were unlettered, a large portion of the Bible was
originally written by men who were derided by the God-hating intellectuals
of that day as unschooled and ordinary men. But if the truth be told, if the
modern translation of the Bible were completely entrusted to the
supposed learned men, no doubt the sacred word of God would have long
ago been reduced to a supermarket tabloid. From Jehovah's standpoint,
the primary qualification for writing, translating, or interpreting his Word is
a passion for truth.